Networking Essentials 3.

0 Checkpoint Exam: Communication

Between Networks Answers
1. What is the result if the default gateway address is
misconfigured on a PC?
 The PC can communicate with devices in remote networks but not with those
in the same network.
 The PC can communicate with devices both in remote networks and in the
same network.
 The PC cannot communicate with any devices.
 The PC can communicate with devices in the same network
but not with those in remote networks.
Explanation: The default gateway for a PC is the closest networking device that can
forward traffic to other networks. If a PC has an incorrect or nonexistent default
gateway address, it will not be able to communicate with devices in remote networks.
However, communication would occur between devices in the same network with or
without a default gateway.
2. Which type of address can be shared through NAT to enable
home network devices to send and receive data over the internet?
 registered public IP address
 private IPv6 address
 registered MAC address
 broadcast MAC address
Explanation: Network address translation (NAT) implemented on the home network
router enables privately addressed devices to share a registered public IP address that
can be routed over the internet.
3. When a LAN is connected to the internet using a wireless router,
how do devices on the LAN communicate on the internet using NAT?
 Only a small group of high priority client devices can be chosen by the
wireless router to communicate to the internet using NAT.
 Each device must wait to receive a token from the wireless router in order to
communicate to the internet via NAT.
 All devices must share the single public IPv4 address
assigned to the wireless router in order to communicate to
the internet via NAT.
 Each LAN must select a single client device from the wireless router settings
that can communicate to the internet via NAT.
Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technology that operates on a
wireless router and allows all LAN hosts to share the single internet routable address

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configured on the external interface of the wireless router. All LAN hosts can
communicate at the same time using this single internet assigned IP address.
4. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly
configured on a host?
 A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
 The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
 The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
 The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default
gateway.
 The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
Explanation: When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the
same network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to
send a message to a remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default
gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote destination host
cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default
gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the
default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on
the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.
5. A home network is using NAT on the router connecting it to the
internet. The PCs on the home network receive private IP addresses
through DHCP. When a PC sends a packet to a web server on the
internet, what is the source IP address in the packet header when it
arrives at the web server?
 a registered public IP address assigned to the external
router interface
 the broadcast IP address of the external network connecting to the ISP
 a registered public IP address statically configured on the PC
 the private IP address assigned to the PC through DHCP
Explanation: On a home router, NAT converts the source address in the IP packet
from the internal private IP address to a registered public IP address assigned to the
external interface on the router before sending it out over the internet.
6. A network administrator investigates a user problem. The user
can reach hosts on the same network, but is unable to communicate
to remote networks.The network administrator tries to ping the
gateway address configured on the host device and is unsuccessful.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
 The IP address of the user is incorrectly configured.
 TCP/IP is not installed on the host device.
 The address of the remote device is incorrect.
 The default gateway address is incorrect.

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Explanation: The default gateway address is used to forward packets to remote
networks. The IP address of the host must be correct because the user can reach other
hosts on the same network. The TCP/IP protocol stack is correct because of verified
communication to hosts on the same network. The end device could be incorrectly
configured, but the most likely cause of the issue is a wrong address for the default
gateway.
7. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default configuration.
Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have
the MAC address for the default gateway. Which network devices
will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

 only host D
 only router R1
 only hosts A, B, and C
 only hosts B and C
 only hosts A, B, C, and D
 only hosts B, C, and router R1
Explanation: Because host A does not have the MAC address of the default
gateway in the ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would
be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive
the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.
8. A host needs to reach another host on a remote network, but the
ARP cache has no mapping entries. To what destination address will
the host send an ARP request?
 the unicast IP address of the remote host
 the unicast MAC address of the remote host
 the subnet broadcast IP address
 the broadcast MAC address
Explanation: ARP requests are sent when a host does not have an IP to MAC
mapping for a destination in the ARP cache. ARP requests are sent to the Ethernet

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broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. In this example because the address of the remote
host is unknown, an ARP request is sent to the Ethernet broadcast to resolve the MAC
address of the default gateway that is used to reach the remote host.
9. What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?
 to build the MAC address table in a switch from the information that is
gathered
 to forward data onward based on the destination MAC address.
 to obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is
known
 to forward data onward based on the destination IP address
Explanation: ARP performs two functions:
– To obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known, by broadcasting an
ARP request message to all devices on a particular Ethernet network
– To use the gathered information to create a viewable table of IP address to MAC
address mappings
10. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
 0.0.0.0
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
 255.255.255.255
 the physical address of the destination host
Explanation: The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the
destination host on an Ethernet LAN. The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to
all devices on the Ethernet LAN. The frame contains the IP address of the destination
and the broadcast MAC address, FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. The host with the IP address that
matches the IP address in the ARP request will reply with a unicast frame that includes
the MAC address of the host. Thus the original sending host will obtain the destination
IP and MAC address pair to continue the encapsulation process for data transmission.
11. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address
together?
 Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address
 Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
 Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
 Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
Explanation: The switch ARP table keeps a mapping of Layer 2 MAC addresses to
Layer 3 IP addresses. These mappings can be learned by the switch dynamically
through ARP or statically through manual configuration.
12. What action does the ARP process take when a host needs to
build a frame, but the ARP cache does not contain an address
mapping?

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  The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the Ethernet
broadcast address to discover the MAC address of the
destination device.
 The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the IPv4 broadcast address
to discover the MAC address of the destination device.
 The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the IPv4 broadcast address
to discover the IPv4 address of the destination device.
 The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the Ethernet broadcast
address to discover the IPv4 address of the destination device.
Explanation: The address resolution protocol (ARP) maintains a cache of MAC to
IPv4 address mappings on the local computer. If there is no mapping in the cache for a
specific IPv4 address, then the ARP process sends an Ethernet broadcast on the local
link in an attempt to resolve the destination IPv4 address to a MAC address.
13. Which protocol is used by a computer to find the MAC address
of the default gateway on an Ethernet network?
 DHCP
 UDP
 TCP
 ARP
Explanation: TCP provides reliable delivery of data. UDP provides unreliable
delivery of data. DHCP is used for the automatic assignment of IP addresses. ARP is
used to discover the MAC address of a device on the Ethernet network.
14. When a router receives a packet, what information must be
examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote
destination?
 source MAC address
 source IP address
 destination MAC address
 destination IP address
Explanation: When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address
of the packet and uses the routing table to search for the best path to that network.
15. Refer to the exhibit. What does the router do after it
determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded
to Network 2?

5
 Networking Basics Module 12 – 14 Checkpoint Exam
 It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than
the original frame.
 It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original
data packet.
 It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP
and MAC addresses.
 It sends the frame with the same information as it was received.
Explanation: When a router receives a frame on an interface, it strips the header
containing the source and destination MAC addresses from the frame. The router
checks the routing table to determine the interface to use to send the packet to its
destination. The packet is then encapsulated in a new frame, with different header
information.
16. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to
forward packets?
 host portion
 gateway address
 broadcast address
 network portion
Explanation: There are two parts to an a network layer address, the network and
host portions. Routers are not concerned about delivering packets to hosts. Routers are
concerned with delivering packets to the network that a destination host is a member
of.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A sends an IP packet to
workstation B. Which two statements describe the encapsulation of

6
the packet as it passes through the network? (Choose two.)

 The destination Layer 2 address of the frame does not change as it is

forwarded.
 The Layer 3 header is stripped from the packet when it is received at each
router.
 The Layer 2 header of the frame is reassembled when it is
forwarded by each router.
 The Layer 2 header is stripped from the frame when it is
received by each router.
 The source Layer 3 address is changed when it is received at each router.
Explanation: When a router receives a frame on an interface, it strips the Layer 2
frame header information from the frame. It checks the routing table to determine which
interface to use to send the packet to its destination. Once the interface is known, the
packet is encapsulated with a new frame header containing different source and
destination MAC addresses.
18. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
 It builds a routing table based on ARP requests.
 It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
 A router connects multiple IP networks.
 It provides segmentation at Layer 2.
 It determines the best path to send packets.
Explanation: Routers connect multiple networks, determine the best path to send
packets, and forward packets based on a destination IP address.
19. Why is it important for the router to maintain an accurate
routing table?
 to identify all of the routers in a large network
 to provide Layer 2 addressing information for the next hop
 to prevent broadcasts from occurring on the LAN

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  to determine the best path to reach the destination
network
Explanation: Routers use routing tables to store information. Routing tables contain
the addresses of networks and the best path to reach those networks.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration
shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway
address?

 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects

the PC1 LAN to Router1.
 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the
Internet.
 It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
 It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the
same LAN.
Explanation: The default gateway is used to route packets destined for remote
networks. The default gateway IP address is the address of the first Layer 3 device (the
router interface) that connects to the same network.

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21. Launch the PT activity. What is the MAC address of the default
gateway for PC0?

 0060.70DE.3192
 0060.5C55.7401
 0002.4A83.A602
 00D0.FF0D.A02B
Explanation: When one host pings a remote host, the sending host needs to use
ARP to discover the MAC address of the default gateway in order to form the frame to
be transmitted over the network. This MAC address is stored in a cache on the host,
which can be retrieved by using the arp -a command. In PT, it can also be retrieved by
investigating the PDU after the ping.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 1 – 3: Basic Network Connectivity

and Communications Exam Answers
Dec 18, 2019 Last Updated: Jan 13, 2025 CCNA v7 Course #1 151 Comments

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Checkpoint Exam: Basic Network Connectivity and

Communications Exam Answers
Modules 1 – 3 of the CCNA1 – Introduction to Networks v7.0 (ITN)
1. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that
software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting
data about websites that were visited by users of the computer.
Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack
Explanation: Spyware is software that is installed on a network device and that
collects information.
2. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to
the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet

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Explanation: The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected
networks. Intranet refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an
organization and is designed to be accessible to the members of the organization,
employees, or others with authorization. Extranets provide secure and safe access to
suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet is not a type of network.
3. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to
access network resources from their personal laptops and smart
phones. Which networking trend does this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing
Explanation: BYOD allows end users to use personal tools to access the corporate
network. Allowing this trend can have major impacts on a network, such as security and
compatibility with corporate software and devices.
4. What is an ISP?
 It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for
networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network
communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and
businesses to connect to the Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different
networking devices in one.
Explanation: An ISP, or Internet Service Provider, is an organization that provides
access to the Internet for businesses and individuals.

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5. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting
network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

6. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a

customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access
confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head
Office. What type of network would the employee access?
 an intranet
 the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network
Explanation: Intranet is a term used to refer to a private connection of LANs and
WANs that belongs to an organization. An intranet is designed to be accessible only by
the organization’s members, employees, or others with authorization.

7. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking

technology?

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  New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
 A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
 A device connects to an existing home LAN using an
adapter and an existing electrical outlet.
 Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the
home LAN.
Explanation: Powerline networking adds the ability to connect a device to the
network using an adapter wherever there is an electrical outlet. The network uses
existing electrical wiring to send data. It is not a replacement for physical cabling, but it
can add functionality in places where wireless access points cannot be used or cannot
reach devices.
8. A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a
medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless
network so that patients can see the medical records data of other
patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been
violated in this situation?
 fault tolerance
 scalability
 security
 Quality of Service (QoS)
 reliability
Explanation: Network security includes protecting the confidentiality of data that is
on the network. In this case, because confidential data has been made available to
unauthorized users, the security characteristic of the network has failed.
9. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet
connectivity type. (Not all options are used.)

Checkpoint Exam: Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

Q9

Place the options in the following order:

13
 uses coaxial cable as a medium cable

not suited for heavily wooded areas satellite

typically has very low bandwidth dialup telephone

high bandwidth connection that runs over telephone line DSL

Explanation: DSL is an always-on, high bandwidth connection that runs over

telephone lines. Cable uses the same coaxial cable that carries television signals into
the home to provide Internet access. Dialup telephone is much slower than either DSL
or cable, but is the least expensive option for home users because it can use any
telephone line and a simple modem. Satellite requires a clear line of sight and is
affected by trees and other obstructions. None of these typical home options use
dedicated leased lines such as T1/E1 and T3/E3.
10. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium
from various network media? (Choose two.)
 the types of data that need to be prioritized
 the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
 the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a
signal
 the number of intermediate devices installed in the network
 the environment where the selected medium is to be
installed
Explanation: Criteria for choosing a network medium are the distance the selected
medium can successfully carry a signal, the environment in which the selected medium
is to be installed, the amount of data and the speed at which the data must be
transmitted, and the cost of the medium and its installation.
11. What type of network traffic requires QoS?
 email
 on-line purchasing
 video conferencing
 wiki
Explanation: Video conferencing utilizes real-time audio and video communications.
Both of these are time-sensitive and bandwidth-intensive forms of communication that
require quality of service to be active on the network. QoS will ensure an uninterrupted
user experience.
12. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which
two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for
this network? (Choose two.)
 implementing a firewall

14
  installing a wireless network
 installing antivirus software
 implementing an intrusion detection system
 adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device
Explanation: Technically complex security measures such as intrusion prevention
and intrusion prevention systems are usually associated with business networks rather
than home networks. Installing antivirus software, antimalware software, and
implementing a firewall will usually be the minimum requirements for home networks.
Installing a home wireless network will not improve network security, and will require
further security actions to be taken.
13. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the
Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected
with passwords. (Choose three.)
 VTY interface
 console interface
 Ethernet interface
 boot IOS mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 router configuration mode
Explanation: Access to the VTY and console interfaces can be restricted using
passwords. Out-of-band management of the router can be restricted in both user EXEC
and privileged EXEC modes.

14. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

 the AUX interface
 the console port interface
 the switch virtual interface
 the first Ethernet port interface
Explanation: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that
provides a means for remotely managing the device.
15. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a
command in IOS?
 It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
 It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
 It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
 It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a
command.
Explanation: Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially typed will
cause the IOS to complete the rest of the command.
16. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made
multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The
changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action

15
can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the
file in NVRAM?
 Issue the reload command without saving the running
configuration.
 Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
 Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.
 Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
Explanation: The technician does not want to make any mistakes trying to remove
all the changes that were done to the running configuration file. The solution is to
reboot the router without saving the running configuration. The copy startup-config
running-config command does not overwrite the running configuration file with the
configuration file stored in NVRAM, but rather it just has an additive effect.
17. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a
switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of
using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
Explanation: To interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute, a user enters
the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination. Tab completes the remainder of parameters or
arguments within a command. To exit from configuration mode to privileged mode use
the Ctrl-Z keystroke. CTRL-R will redisplay the line just typed, thus making it easier for
the user to press Enter and reissue the ping command.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring

access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console
connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to
access user EXEC mode?

16
 CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications
Exam Answers 14
 letmein
 secretin
 lineconin
 linevtyin
Explanation: Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface
configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required
to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0
command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable
secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.
19. A technician configures a switch with these commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the technician configuring?

 Telnet access
 SVI
 password encryption
 physical switchport access
Explanation: For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface must be
configured. This allows the switch to be managed remotely over the network.
20. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to
the previous level in the command hierarchy?
 end
 exit
 Ctrl-Z
 Ctrl-C
Explanation: End and CTRL-Z return the user to the privileged EXEC mode. Ctrl-C
ends a command in process. The exit command returns the user to the previous level.
21. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose
two.)
 RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
 The configuration that is actively running on the device is
stored in RAM.
 The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.
 RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
 RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

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Explanation: RAM stores data that is used by the device to support network
operations. The running configuration is stored in RAM. This type of memory is
considered volatile memory because data is lost during a power cycle. Flash memory
stores the IOS and delivers a copy of the IOS into RAM when a device is powered on.
Flash memory is nonvolatile since it retains stored contents during a loss of power.
22. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming
conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)
 Branch2!
 RM-3-Switch-2A4
 Floor(15)
 HO Floor 17
 SwBranch799
Explanation: Some guidelines for naming conventions are that names should:
Start with a letter
Contain no spaces
End with a letter or digit
Use only letters, digits, and dashes
Be less than 64 characters in length
23. How is SSH different from Telnet?
 SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band
access.
 SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting
messages and using user authentication. Telnet is
considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.
 SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term
must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
 SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet
is used to connect to a device from a console connection.
Explanation: SSH is the preferred protocol for connecting to a device operating
system over the network because it is much more secure than Telnet. Both SSH and
Telnet are used to connect to devices over the network, and so are both used in-band.
PuTTY and Terra Term can be used to make both SSH and Telnet connections.
24. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a
password. In what order will the administrator travel through the
IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the
configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)

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Place the options in the following order:

first mode user EXEC mode

second mode privileged EXEC mode

third mode global configuration mode

final mode line configuration mode

Explanation: The configuration mode that the administrator first encounters is user
EXEC mode. After the enable command is entered, the next mode is privileged
EXEC mode. From there, the configure terminal command is entered to move to
global configuration mode. Finally, the administrator enters the line console
0 command to enter the mode in which the configuration will be entered.
25. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)
 It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
 It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
 It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
 It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
 It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
 It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
Explanation: Switches have one or more switch virtual interfaces (SVIs). SVIs are
created in software since there is no physical hardware associated with them. Virtual
interfaces provide a means to remotely manage a switch over a network that is using
IP. Each switch comes with one SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-the-
box.” The default SVI interface is VLAN1.

19
26. What command is used to verify the condition of the switch
interfaces, including the status of the interfaces and a configured IP
address?
 ipconfig
 ping
 traceroute
 show ip interface brief
Explanation: The show ip interface brief command is used to display a brief
synopsis of the condition of the device interfaces. The ipconfig command is used to
verify TCP/IP properties on a host. The ping command is used to verify Layer 3
connectivity. The traceroute command is used to trace the network path from source to
destination.

20
27. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all
options are used.)

28. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and
shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

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Explanation: The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to
privileged EXEC mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute
29. In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax
is represented by running-config ?
 the command
 a keyword
 a variable
 a prompt
Explanation: The first part of the syntax, show, is the command, and the second
part of the syntax, running-config, is the keyword. The keyword specifies what should
be displayed as the output of the show command.
30. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a
network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config
command. What is the result of issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is
restarted.
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

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  The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will
be restored.
Explanation: With the copy running-config startup-config command, the content of the
current operating configuration replaces the startup configuration file stored in NVRAM.
The configuration file saved in NVRAM will be loaded when the device is restarted.
31. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from
displaying in plain text in a configuration file?
 (config)# enable password secret
 (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
 (config-line)# password secret
 (config)# service password-encryption
 (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
Explanation: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in
configuration files, an administrator can execute the service password-encryption
command. This command encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.

32. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption

command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this
command accomplish?
 This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial
WAN links.
 This command prevents someone from viewing the running
configuration passwords.
 This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret
password command.
 This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that
are currently stored in NVRAM.
 This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external
service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.
Explanation: The startup-config and running-config files display most passwords in
plaintext. Use the service password-encryption global config command to encrypt all
plaintext passwords in these files.
33. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that
packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too
quickly?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
Explanation: In order for two computers to be able to communicate effectively, there
must be a mechanism that allows both the source and destination to set the timing of

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the transmission and receipt of data. Flow control allows for this by ensuring that data is
not sent too fast for it to be received properly.
34. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation
process when a PC is sending data to the network?
 Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
 Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
 Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet
layer.
 Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
Explanation: When the data is traveling from the PC to the network, the transport
layer sends segments to the internet layer. The internet layer sends packets to the
network access layer, which creates frames and then converts the frames to bits. The
bits are released to the network media.
35. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP
protocol suite? (Choose three.)
 ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
 FTP
 NAT
 PPP
Explanation: DNS, DHCP, and FTP are all application layer protocols in the TCP/IP
protocol suite. ARP and PPP are network access layer protocols, and NAT is an
internet layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite.

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36. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are
used.)

Explanation: The EIA is an international standards and trade organization for

electronics organizations. It is best known for its standards related to electrical wiring,
connectors, and the 19-inch racks used to mount networking equipment.
37. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?
 bits
 data
 frame
 packet
 segment

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Explanation: Application data is passed down the protocol stack on its way to be
transmitted across the network media. During the process, various protocols add
information to it at each level. At each stage of the process, a PDU (protocol data unit)
has a different name to reflect its new functions. The PDUs are named according to the
protocols of the TCP/IP suite:
Data – The general term for the PDU used at the application layer.
Segment – transport layer PDU
Packet – network layer PDU
Frame – data link layer PDU
Bits – A physical layer PDU used when physically transmitting data over the medium
38. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server,
which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and
host portion for an IPv4 address?
 DNS server address
 subnet mask
 default gateway
 DHCP server address
Explanation: There are several components that need to be entered when
configuring IPv4 for an end device:
 IPv4 address – uniquely identifies an end device on the network
 Subnet mask – determines the network address portion and host portion
for an IPv4 address
 Default gateway – the IP address of the router interface used for
communicating with hosts in another network
 DNS server address – the IP address of the Domain Name System
(DNS) server
DHCP server address (if DHCP is used) is not configured manually on end devices. It
will be provided by a DHCP server when an end device requests an IP address.
39. What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?
 encapsulation
 encoding
 segmentation
 flow control
Explanation: When a message is placed inside of another message, this is known
as encapsulation. On networks, encapsulation takes place when one protocol data unit
is carried inside of the data field of the next lower protocol data unit.
40. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an
internetwork in the TCP/IP model?
 internet
 transport
 network access
 session

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Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport,
internet, and network access. Of these four layers, it is the internet layer that is
responsible for routing messages. The session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model but
is rather part of the OSI model.
41. For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events
when a Telnet message is being prepared to be sent over the
network?

Place the options in the following order:

The Telnet-formatted data is provided to the next layer. First

The TCP header is added. Second

The IP header is added. Third

The Ethernet header is added. Fourth

42. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the
network medium by the NIC of a host?
 file
 frame
 packet
 segment
Explanation: When received at the physical layer of a host, the bits are formatted
into a frame at the data link layer. A packet is the PDU at the network layer. A segment
is the PDU at the transport layer. A file is a data structure that may be used at the
application layer.
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43. Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA.
Which two statements correctly identify the addressing that
ServerB will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC
address of RouterB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP
address of HostA.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
Explanation: In order to send data to HostA, ServerB will generate a packet that
contains the IP address of the destination device on the remote network and a frame
that contains the MAC address of the default gateway device on the local network.
44. Which method allows a computer to react accordingly when it
requests data from a server and the server takes too long to
respond?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
Explanation: If a computer makes a request and does not hear a response within an
acceptable amount of time, the computer assumes that no answer is coming and reacts
accordingly.
45. A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web
server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order

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of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received
transmission?
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
 HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.
46. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a
single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
 data link
 network
 physical
 session
 transport
Explanation: The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the
TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the
TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet
layer. The OSI application, presentation, and session layers are functionally equivalent
to the application layer within the TCP/IP model.
47. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be
added during encapsulation?
 physical layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
Explanation: Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at the
network layer. Physical addresses are edded at the data link layer. Port addresses are
added at the transport layer. No addresses are added at the physical layer.
48. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?
 They are sent to a select group of hosts.
 They are sent to all hosts on a network.
 They must be acknowledged.
 They are sent to a single destination.
Explanation: Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication. Multicast messages
are addressed to a specific multicast group.
49. Which statement is correct about network protocols?
 Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is
mounted in racks.

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  They define how messages are exchanged between the
source and the destination.
 They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
 They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on
remote networks.
Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both.
They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have
nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment. Network protocols are
required to exchange information between source and destination devices in both local
and remote networks.
50. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard
protocols?
 Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from
the same vendor.
 A client host and a server running different operating
systems can successfully exchange data.
 Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
 Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
Explanation: An advantage of network devices implementing open standard
protocols, such as from the TCP/IP suite, is that clients and servers running different
operating systems can communicate with each other. Open standard protocols facilitate
innovation and competition between vendors and across markets, and can reduce the
occurrence of monopolies in networking markets.
51. Which device performs the function of determining the path
that messages should take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall
 a web server
 a DSL modem
Explanation: A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take
through the network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL
modem is used to provide Internet connection for a home or an organization.
52. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then answer the question.

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 CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications
Exam Answers 52

Modules 1 - 3: Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam -

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What is the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI) on

Switch0?
 192.168.5.10
 192.168.10.5
 192.168.10.1
 192.168.5.0
Explanation: After the enable command is issued, the show running-
configuration command or the show ip interfaces brief command will display
the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI).
53. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
 to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
 to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
 to enable the switch to be managed remotely
 to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit
frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the
network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual
interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default
gateways.
54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the
switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the
exhibit. What is the problem?

CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications

Exam Answers 54
 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode
before issuing the command.

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  The administrator must connect via the console port to access global
configuration mode.
Explanation: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure
terminal, or a shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged
EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by
the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable
command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal
command.
55. What term describes a network owned by one organization that
provides safe and secure access to individuals who work for a
different organization?
 extranet
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
56. What term describes storing personal files on servers over the
internet to provide access anywhere, anytime, and on any device?
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
57. What term describes a network where one computer can be
both client and server?
 peer-to-peer
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
58. What term describes a type of network used by people who
work from home or from a small remote office?
 SOHO network
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
59. What term describes a computing model where server software
runs on dedicated computers?
 client/server
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
61. What term describes a technology that allows devices to
connect to the LAN using an electrical outlet?
 powerline networking

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  internet
 intranet
 extranet
62. What term describes a policy that allows network devices to
manage the flow of data to give priority to voice and video?
 quality of service
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
63. What term describes a private collection of LANs and WANs that
belongs to an organization?
 intranet
 internet
 extranet
 peer-to-peer
64. What term describes the ability to use personal devices across a
business or campus network?
 BYOD
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
65. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during
the encapsulation process?
 network layer
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
66. At which OSI layer is a destination port number added to a PDU
during the encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 application layer
67. At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 application layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
68. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during
the encapsulation process?
 network layer

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  data link layer
 application layer
 presentation layer
69. Which of the following is the name for all computers connected
to a network that participate directly in network communication?
 Servers
 Intermediary device
 Host
 media
Explanation: Hosts are all computers connected to a network that participate directly
in network communication.
70. At which OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU
during the encapsulation process?
 network layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer
71. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU
during the encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer
72. At which OSI layer is a source port number added to a PDU
during the encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
 presentation layer
 data link layer
73. At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU
during the encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
74. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being
used to transmit the data?
 Wireless
 Fire optic cable
 Copper cable

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Explanation: Fiber-optic cable is the media is being used to transmit the data when
data is encoded as pulses of light.
75. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)
 Host
 Router
 Switch
 Servers
Explanation: Routers and switches are intermediary devices.
76. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers
are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the
dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that
connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center.
Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only
experience a very short interruption of network services. What
characteristic of the network is shown here?
 quality of service (QoS)
 scalability
 security
 fault tolerance
 integrity
Explanation: Fault tolerance is the characteristic of a network which allows it to
quickly respond to failures of network devices, media, or services. Quality of service
refers to the measures taken to ensure that network traffic requiring higher throughput
receives the required network resources. Scalability refers to the ability of the network
to grow to accommodate new requirements. Security refers to protecting networks and
data from theft, alteration, or destruction. Integrity refers to the completeness of
something and is generally not used as a characteristic of networks in the same way as
the other terms.

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Modules 4 – 7 of the CCNA1 – Introduction to Networks v7.0 (ITN)
1. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?
 controlling access to media
 transmitting bits across the local media
 performing error detection on received frames
 exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
2. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic
connection?
 The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without
degrading.
 They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
 They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
 They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
3. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
 the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
 the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals
carried in adjacent wires
 the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
 the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
4. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in
copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation

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5. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

Place the options in the following order:

Copper Cables Fiber optic Wireless

backbone cabling in an guest access in a coffee

horizontal cabling structure enterprise shop

desktop PCs in offices in an long-haul networks waiting rooms in a hospital

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 enterprise

6. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across

the company backbone for a mission critical financial application.
The administrator notices that the network throughput appears
lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could
influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network
 the latency that is created by the number of network
devices that the data is crossing
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
Explanation: Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical
links due to multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic,
and latency created by the network devices the data has to cross.

7. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

 It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
 Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
 It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect
data.
 It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
 It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.
Explanation: Fiber-optic cabling supports higher bandwidth than UTP for longer
distances. Fiber is immune to EMI and RFI, but costs more, requires more skill to
install, and requires more safety precautions.

8. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data

on the network?
 create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on
to the media
 provide physical addressing to the devices
 determine the path packets take through the network
 control data access to the media
Explanation: The OSI physical layer provides the means to transport the bits that
make up a frame across the network media. This layer accepts a complete frame from
the data link layer and encodes it as a series of signals that are transmitted to the local
media.

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9. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network,
what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
 the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
 the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
 the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
 the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
Explanation: Crosstalk is a type of noise, or interference that occurs when signal
transmission on one wire interferes with another wire. When current flows through a
wire a magnetic field is produced. The produced magnetic field will interface the signal
carried in the adjacent wire.
10. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

 STP
 UTP
 coax
 fiber
Explanation: Network cabling include different types of cables:
 UTP cable consists of four pairs of color-coded wires that have been twisted
together and then encased in a flexible plastic sheath.
 STP cable uses four pairs of wires, each wrapped in a foil shield, which are
then wrapped in an overall metallic braid or foil.
 Coaxial cable uses a copper conductor and a layer of flexible plastic
insulation surrounds the copper conductor.
 Fiber cable is a flexible, extremely thin, transparent strand of glass
surrounded by plastic insulation.
11. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere
with the communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)
 crosstalk
 bandwidth
 size of the network
 signal modulation technique
 electromagnetic interference
Explanation: Copper media is widely used in network communications. However,
copper media is limited by distance and signal interference. Data is transmitted on

39
copper cables as electrical pulses. The electrical pulses are susceptible to interference
from two sources:
 Electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency
interference (RFI) – EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt the
data signals being carried by copper media.
 Crosstalk – Crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic
fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire.
12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

 STP
 UTP
 coax
 fiber
13. Which two devices commonly affect wireless networks? (Choose
two.)
 Blu-ray players
 home theaters
 cordless phones
 microwaves
 incandescent light bulbs
 external hard drives
Explanation: Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) is the interference that is caused
by radio transmitters and other devices that are transmitting in the same frequency.
14. Which two statements describe the services provided by the
data link layer? (Choose two.)
 It defines the end-to-end delivery addressing scheme.
 It maintains the path between the source and destination devices during the
data transmission.
 It manages the access of frames to the network media.
 It provides reliable delivery through link establishment and flow control.
 It ensures that application data will be transmitted according to the
prioritization.
 It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that
is compatible with the network interface.

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Explanation: The data link layer is divided into two sub layers, namely Logical Link
Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). LLC forms a frame from the network
layer PDU into a format that conforms to the requirements of the network interface and
media. A network layer PDU might be for IPv4 or IPv6. The MAC sub layer defines the
media access processes performed by the hardware. It manages the frame access to
the network media according to the physical signaling requirements (copper cable, fiber
optic, wireless, etc.)
15. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS
field of a frame?
 to verify the integrity of the received frame
 to verify the physical address in the frame
 to verify the logical address in the frame
 to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
Explanation: The CRC value in the FCS field of the received frame is compared to
the computed CRC value of that frame, in order to verify the integrity of the frame. If the
two values do not match, then the frame is discarded.
16. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
 logical address
 physical address
 data
 error detection
Explanation: The trailer in a data-link frame contains error detection information that
is pertinent to the frame included in the FCS field. The header contains control
information, such as the addressing, while the area that is indicated by the word “data”
includes the data, transport layer PDU, and the IP header.
17. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header
fields of the data link layer?
 They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
 Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination
addresses.
 They vary depending on protocols.
 They include information on user applications.
Explanation: All data link layer protocols encapsulate the Layer 3 PDU within the
data field of the frame. However, the structure of the frame and the fields that are
contained in the header vary according to the protocol. Different data link layer
protocols may use different fields, like priority/quality of service, logical connection
control, physical link control, flow control, and congestion control.
18. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for
connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology
provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote
sites?
 mesh

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  partial mesh
 hub and spoke
 point-to-point
Explanation: Partial mesh topologies provide high availability by interconnecting
multiple remote sites, but do not require a connection between all remote sites. A mesh
topology requires point-to-point links with every system being connected to every other
system. A point-to-point topology is where each device is connected to one other
device. A hub and spoke uses a central device in a star topology that connects to other
point-to-point devices.
19. Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to
determine if a received frame is passed to the data link layer or
discarded by the NIC? (Choose two.)
 auto-MDIX
 CEF
 Frame Check Sequence
 minimum frame size
 source MAC address
Explanation: An Ethernet frame is not processed and is discarded if it is smaller
than the minimum (64 bytes) or if the calculated frame check sequence (FCS) value
does not match the received FCS value. Auto-MDIX (automatic medium-dependent
interface crossover) is Layer 1 technology that detects cable straight-through or
crossover types. The source MAC address is not used to determine how the frame is
received. CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) is a technology used to expedite Layer 3
switching.
20. Which media communication type does not require media
arbitration in the data link layer?
 deterministic
 half-duplex
 full-duplex
 controlled access
Explanation: Half-duplex communication occurs when both devices can both
transmit and receive on the medium but cannot do so simultaneously. Full-duplex
communication occurs when both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at
the same time and therefore does not require media arbitration. Half-duplex
communication is typically contention-based, whereas controlled (deterministic) access
is applied in technologies where devices take turns to access the medium.
21. Which statement describes an extended star topology?
 End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which
in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.
 End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a
central intermediate device.
 Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate
device.
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  All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
Explanation: In an extended star topology, central intermediate devices interconnect
other star topologies.
22. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
 It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
 It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling
requirements of the medium.
 It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3
protocols to use the same network interface and media.
 It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
Explanation: The Logical Link Control (LLC) defines the software processes that
provide services to the network layer protocols. The information is placed by LLC in the
frame and identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This
information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the
same network interface and media.
23. What are three ways that media access control is used in
networking? (Choose three.)
 Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.
 Media access control provides placement of data frames
onto the media.
 Contention-based access is also known as deterministic.
 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.
 Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to
different media.
 Networks with controlled access have reduced performance due to data
collisions.
Explanation: Wired Ethernet networks use CSMA/CD for media access control.
IEEE 802.11 wireless networks use CSMA/CA, a similar method. Media access control
defines the way data frames get placed on the media. The controlled access method is
deterministic, not a contention-based access to networks. Because each device has its
own time to use the medium, controlled access networks such as legacy Token Ring do
not have collisions.
24. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link
layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?
 An IP address is added.
 The logical address is added.
 The physical address is added.
 The process port number is added.
Explanation: The Ethernet frame includes the source and destination physical
address. The trailer includes a CRC value in the Frame Check Sequence field to allow
the receiving device to determine if the frame has been changed (has errors) during the
transmission.

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25. What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and
trailer? (Choose three.)
 source IP address
 source MAC address
 destination IP address
 destination MAC address
 error-checking information
Explanation: Layer 2 headers contain the following:
 Frame start and stop indicator flags at the beginning and end of a frame
 Addressing – for Ethernet networks this part of the header contains source
and destination MAC addresses
 Type field to indicate what Layer 3 protocol is being used
 Error detection to determine if the frame arrived without error
26. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?
 access method
 flow control
 message encapsulation
 message encoding
Explanation: Carrier sense multiple access collision detection (CSMA/CD) is the
access method used with Ethernet. The access method rule of communication dictates
how a network device is able to place a signal on the carrier. CSMA/CD dictates those
rules on an Ethernet network and CSMA/CA dictates those rules on an 802.11 wireless
LAN.
27. Which three basic parts are common to all frame types
supported by the data link layer? (Choose three.)
 header
 type field
 MTU size
 data
 trailer
 CRC value
Explanation: The data link protocol is responsible for NIC-to-NIC communications
within the same network. Although there are many different data link layer protocols
that describe data link layer frames, each frame type has three basic parts:
 Header
 Data
 Trailer
28. Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that
is used in Ethernet?
 When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur.
 A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a
backoff algorithm.

44
  All network devices must listen before transmitting.
 Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period.
Explanation: Legacy bus-topology Ethernet LAN uses CSMA/CD as network media
access control protocol. It works by detecting a collision in the medium and backing off
(after transmitting a jam signal) as necessary. When one host wants to transmit a
frame, it listens on the medium to check if the medium is busy. After it senses that no
one else is transmitting, the host starts transmitting the frame, it also monitors the
current level to detect a collision. If it detects a collision, it transmits a special jam signal
so that all other hosts can know there was a collision. The other host will receive this
jam signal and stop transmitting. After this, both hosts enter an exponential backoff
phase and retry transmission.
29. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
 the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
 the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-
through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
 the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet
copper or optical cable
 the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active
connection is detected
Explanation: The auto-MDIX enables a switch to use a crossover or a straight-
through Ethernet cable to connect to a device regardless of the device on the other end
of the connection.
30. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the
Ethernet frame as it leaves the web server if the final destination is
PC1?

 00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
 00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC

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  00-60-2F-3A-07-DD
Explanation: The destination MAC address is used for local delivery of Ethernet
frames. The MAC (Layer 2) address changes at each network segment along the path.
As the frame leaves the web server, it will be delivered by using the MAC address of
the default gateway.
31. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a
1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network.
Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?
 port-based buffering
 level 1 cache buffering
 shared memory buffering
 fixed configuration buffering
Explanation: With shared memory buffering, the number of frames stored in the
buffer is restricted only by the of the entire memory buffer and not limited to a single
port buffer. This permits larger frames to be transmitted with fewer dropped frames.
This is important to asymmetric switching, which applies to this scenario, where frames
are being exchanged between ports of different rates. With port-based memory
buffering, frames are stored in queues that are linked to specific incoming and outgoing
ports making it possible for a single frame to delay the transmission of all the frames in
memory because of a busy destination port. Level 1 cache is memory used in a CPU.
Fixed configuration refers to the port arrangement in switch hardware.

32. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method?

(Choose two.)
 store-and-forward switching
 fast-forward switching
 CRC switching
 fragment-free switching
 QOS switching
Explanation: Store-and forward switching accepts the entire frame and performs
error checking using CRC before forwarding the frame. Store-and-forward is often
required for QOS analysis. Fast-forward and fragment-free are both variations of the
cut-through switching method where only part of the frame is received before the switch
begins to forward it.

33. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and
performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?
 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching
 fragment-free switching
 fast-forward switching

46
Explanation: Fast-forward and fragment-free switching are variations of cut-through
switching, which begins to forward the frame before the entire frame is received.
34. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
 to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
 to verify the logical address of the sending node
 to compute the CRC header for the data field
 to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and
reception
Explanation: The FCS field in a frame is used to detect any errors in the
transmission and receipt of a frame. This is done by comparing the CRC value within
the frame against a computed CRC value of the frame. If the two values do not match,
then the frame is discarded.
35. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
 cut-through
 store-and-forward
 fragment-free
 fast-forward
Explanation: Fast-forward switching begins to forward a frame after reading the
destination MAC address, resulting in the lowest latency. Fragment-free reads the first
64 bytes before forwarding. Store-and-forward has the highest latency because it reads
the entire frame before beginning to forward it. Both fragment-free and fast-forward are
types of cut-through switching.
36. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches
using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have
never been configured. Which three statements are correct about
the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)
 The link between the switches will work at the fastest
speed that is supported by both switches.
 The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
 If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own
fastest speed.
 The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces
eliminating the need for a crossover cable.
 The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the
cable to a crossover cable.
 The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be
negotiated.
Explanation: Modern switches can negotiate to work in full-duplex mode if both
switches are capable. They will negotiate to work using the fastest possible speed and
the auto-MDIX feature is enabled by default, so a cable change is not needed.
37. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method
have compared with the cut-through switching method?

47
  collision detecting
 frame error checking
 faster frame forwarding
 frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information
Explanation: A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an
error check on an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS
calculations after the entire frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-
through switching method makes quick forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding
process without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Thus a switch using cut-
through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The performance of store-
and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching performance.
Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching
does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions.
38. When the store-and-forward method of switching is in use, what
part of the Ethernet frame is used to perform an error check?
 CRC in the trailer
 source MAC address in the header
 destination MAC address in the header
 protocol type in the header
Explanation: The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) part of the trailer is used to
determine if the frame has been modified during transit. If the integrity of the frame is
verified, the frame is forwarded. If the integrity of the frame cannot be verified, then the
frame is dropped.

39. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

 cut-through
 fast-forward
 fragment-free
 store-and-forward
Explanation: When the store-and-forward switching method is used, the switch
receives the complete frame before forwarding it on to the destination. The cyclic
redundancy check (CRC) part of the trailer is used to determine if the frame has been
modified during transit. In contrast, a cut-through switch forwards the frame once the
destination Layer 2 address is read. Two types of cut-through switching methods are
fast-forward and fragment-free.
40. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose
two.)
 building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame
header
 using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and
maintain a MAC address table

48
  forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default
gateway
 utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the
destination MAC address
 examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC
address table
Explanation: Important actions that a switch performs are as follows:
 When a frame comes in, the switch examines the Layer 2 source address to
build and maintain the Layer 2 MAC address table.
 It examines the Layer 2 destination address to determine how to forward the
frame. When the destination address is in the MAC address table, then the
frame is sent out a particular port. When the address is unknown, the frame
is sent to all ports that have devices connected to that network.
41. Which two statements describe features or functions of the
logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
 Logical link control is implemented in software.
 Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
 The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.
 The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper
layers of the protocol suite.
 The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on
and off the media.
Explanation: Logical link control is implemented in software and enables the data
link layer to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite. Logical link control
is specified in the IEEE 802.2 standard. IEEE 802.3 is a suite of standards that define
the different Ethernet types. The MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer is responsible
for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media. The MAC sublayer is
also responsible for adding a header and a trailer to the network layer protocol data unit
(PDU).
42. What is the auto-MDIX feature?
 It enables a device to automatically configure an interface
to use a straight-through or a crossover cable.
 It enables a device to automatically configure the duplex settings of a
segment.
 It enables a device to automatically configure the speed of its interface.
 It enables a switch to dynamically select the forwarding method.
Explanation: The auto-MDIX feature allows the device to configure its network port
according to the cable type that is used (straight-through or crossover) and the type of
device that is connected to that port. When a port of a switch is configured with auto-
MDIX, this switch can be connected to another switch by the use of either a straight-
through cable or a crossover cable.

49
43. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching
method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?
 has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
 makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the
frame
 has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance
computing applications
 provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
Explanation: Cut-through switching provides lower latency switching for high-
performance computing (HPC) applications. Cut-through switching allows more invalid
frames to cross the network than store-and-forward switching. The cut-through
switching method can make a forwarding decision as soon as it looks up the destination
MAC address of the frame.
44. Which is a multicast MAC address?
 FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
 5C-26-0A-4B-19-3E
 01-00-5E-00-00-03
 00-26-0F-4B-00-3E
Explanation: Multicast MAC addresses begin with the special value of 01-00-5E.
45. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed
termination?

 The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

 The wrong type of connector is being used.
 The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
 The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to
ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath
surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored
wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.

50
46. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of
the switch. All the other connections are made through
FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to
connect the devices?

1 - rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through

1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover

1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through
1 - crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover
Explanation: A straight-through cable is commonly used to interconnect a host to a
switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar
devices together like switch to a switch, a host to a host, or a router to a router. If a
switch has the MDIX capability, a crossover could be used to connect the switch to the
router; however, that option is not available. A rollover cable is used to connect to a
router or switch console port.
47. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then answer the question.

Modules 4 - 7: Ethernet Concepts Exam - Packet Tracer 0.00 KB 16905 downloads

...

51
 Download

Which port does Switch0 use to send frames to the host with the
IPv4 address 10.1.1.5?
 Fa0/1
 Fa0/5
 Fa0/9
 Fa0/11
Explanation: Issuing the command ipconfig /all from the PC0 command prompt
displays the IPv4 address and MAC address. When the IPv4 address 10.1.1.5 is
pinged from PC0, the switch stores the source MAC address (from PC0) along with the
port to which PC0 is connected. When the destination reply is received, the switch
takes the destination MAC address and compares to MAC addresses stored in the
MAC address table. Issuing the show mac-address-table on the PC0 Terminal
application displays two dynamic MAC address entries. The MAC address and port
entry that does not belong to PC0 must be the MAC address and port of the destination
with the IPv4 address 10.1.1.5.
48. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data
communication?
 loss of signal strength as distance increases
 time for a signal to reach its destination
 leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
 strengthening of a signal by a networking device
Explanation: Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A detector in
the network interface of a destination device must receive a signal that can be
successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However, the farther the signal travels,
the more it deteriorates. This is referred to as signal attenuation.
49. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for
interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
 greater distances per cable run
 lower installation cost
 limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
 durable connections
 greater bandwidth potential
 easily terminated
Explanation: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and at higher
bandwidths than any other networking media. Unlike copper wires, fiber-optic cable can
transmit signals with less attenuation and is completely immune to EMI and RFI.
50. What OSI physical layer term describes the process by which
one wave modifies another wave?

52
  modulation
 IEEE
 EIA/TIA
 air
51. What OSI physical layer term describes the capacity at which a
medium can carry data?
 bandwidth
 IEEE
 EIA/TIA
 air
53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the
transfer of bits across a medium over a given period of time?
 throughput
 bandwidth
 latency
 goodput
54. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time,
including delays, for data to travel from one point to another?
 latency
 bandwidth
 throughput
 goodput
55. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time,
including delays, for data to travel from one point to another?
 latency
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 copper cable
56. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of usable
data transferred over a given period of time?
 goodput
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 copper cable
57. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium
which uses electrical pulses?
 copper cable
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 goodput
58. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium
that uses the propagation of light?

53
 fiber-optic cable
goodput
latency
throughput
59. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium for
microwave transmissions?
 air
 goodput
 latency
 throughput
60. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the
OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is
being used for the frame.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data
on the physical medium.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
Case 2:
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the
device hardware at the lower layers.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
Case 3:
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is
being used for the frame.
Case 4:
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the
device hardware at the lower layers.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
Case 5:
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is
being used for the frame.
54
  Integrates various physical technologies.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data
on the physical medium.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the
device hardware at the lower layers.
Case 6:
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data
on the physical medium
 Provides a mechanism to allow multiple devices to
communicate over a shared medium.
61. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the
OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface
and media.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being used for the frame.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Implements a process to delimit fields within a Layer 2 frame.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical
medium.
64. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the
OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being used for the frame.
 Performs data encapsulation.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical
medium.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
66. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the
OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface
and media.
 Provides data link layer addressing.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
68. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the
OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface
and media.

55
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
Integrates various physical technologies.
Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
71. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame with the
destination MAC address FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The switch forwards it out all ports except the ingress port.
 The switch refreshes the timer on that entry.
 The switch does not forward the frame.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination
MAC address is not local.
73. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame with the
destination MAC address 01:00:5E:00:00:D9?
 The switch forwards it out all ports except the ingress port.
 The switch does not forward the frame.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination
MAC address is not local.
 The switch shares the MAC address table entry with any connected
switches.
74. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a
destination MAC address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The host will process the frame.
 The host forwards the frame to the router.
 The host sends the frame to the switch to update the MAC address table.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
75. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame and does
have the source MAC address in the MAC table?
 The switch refreshes the timer on that entry.
 The switch adds it to its MAC address table associated with the port number.
 The switch forwards the frame to the associated port.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination
MAC address is not local.
76. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a
destination MAC address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The host will process the frame.
 The host returns the frame to the switch.
 The host replies to the switch with its own IP address.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
78. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a
destination MAC address it does not recognize?
 The host will discard the frame.
 The host replies to the switch with its own IP address.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.

56
  The host returns the frame to the switch.
79. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch
port?
 console
 rollover
 crossover
 straight-through
Explanation: A rollover cable is a Cisco proprietary cable used to connect to a router
or switch console port. A straight-through (also called patch) cable is usually used to
interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to
interconnect similar devices together, for example, between two switches, two routers,
and two hosts.

57