1.10.

2 Module Quiz – Networking Today Answers – CCNA 1 v7

Module 1 Quiz
1. How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement
networks?
 BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
 BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing
the need for organizational security policies.
 BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an
organization.
 BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can
access network resources.
Explanation: Topic 1.7.0 – A BYOD environment requires an organization to
accommodate a variety of devices and access methods. Personal devices, which are
not under company control, may be involved, so security is critical. Onsite hardware
costs will be reduced, allowing a business to focus on delivering collaboration tools and
other software to BYOD users.
2. An employee wants to access the network of the organization
remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would
allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company
network?
 ACL
 IPS
 VPN
 BYOD
Explanation: Virtual private networks (VPN) are used to provide secure access to
remote workers.
3. What is the Internet?
 It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
 It provides network access for mobile devices.
 It provides connections through interconnected global
networks.
 It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
Explanation: The Internet provides global connections that enable networked
devices (workstations and mobile devices) with different network technologies, such as
Ethernet, DSL/cable, and serial connections, to communicate. A private network for an
organization with LAN and WAN connections is an intranet.
4. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose
two.)

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  They originate the data that flows through the network.
 They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
 They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
 They are the interface between humans and the
communication network.
 They provide the channel over which the network message travels.
Explanation: End devices originate the data that flows through the network.
Intermediary devices direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures and
filter the flow of data to enhance security. Network media provide the channel through
which network messages travel.
5. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?
 an Internet cafe in a city
 a farm in a rural area without wired broadband access
 any home with multiple wireless devices
 an apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet
Explanation: Wireless Internet Service Providers (WISPs) are typically found in rural
areas where DSL or cable access is not available. A dish or antenna on the property of
the subscriber connects wirelessly to a WISP transmitter, eliminating the need for
physical cabling outside the building.
6. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to
support new users and applications without impacting the
performance of the service being delivered to existing users?
 reliability
 scalability
 quality of service
 accessibility
Explanation: Networks must be able to quickly grow to support new users and
services, without impacting existing users and services. This ability to grow is known as
scalability.
7. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are
digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory.
A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two
of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the
cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a
very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of
the network is shown here?
 quality of service (QoS)
 scalability
 security
 fault tolerance
 integrity

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Explanation: Fault tolerance is the characteristic of a network which allows it to
quickly respond to failures of network devices, media, or services. Quality of service
refers to the measures taken to ensure that network traffic requiring higher throughput
receives the required network resources. Scalability refers to the ability of the network
to grow to accommodate new requirements. Security refers to protecting networks and
data from theft, alteration, or destruction. Integrity refers to the completeness of
something and is generally not used as a characteristic of networks in the same way as
the other terms.
8. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose
two.)
 easily overloaded with increased traffic
 grows in size without impacting existing users
 is not as reliable as a small network
 suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
 offers limited number of applications
Explanation: Scalable networks are networks that can grow without requiring costly
replacement of existing network devices. One way to make a network scalable is to buy
networking devices that are modular.
9. Which device performs the function of determining the path that
messages should take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall
 a web server
 a DSL modem
Explanation: A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take
through the network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL
modem is used to provide Internet connection for a home or an organization.
10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that
physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)
 DSL
 cellular
 satellite
 dialup
 dedicated leased line
Explanation: Cellular connectivity requires the use of the cell phone network.
Satellite connectivity is often used where physical cabling is not available outside the
home or business.
11. What type of network must a home user access in order to do
online shopping?
 an intranet

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  the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network
Explanation: Home users will go online shopping over the Internet because online
vendors are accessed through the Internet. An intranet is basically a local area network
for internal use only. An extranet is a network for external partners to access certain
resources inside an organization. A home user does not necessarily need a LAN to
access the Internet. For example, a PC connects directly to the ISP through a modem.
12. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that
software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting
data about websites that were visited by users of the
computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack
Explanation: Spyware is software that is installed on a network device and that
collects information.
13. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to
the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet
Explanation: The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected
networks. Intranet refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an
organization and is designed to be accessible to the members of the organization,
employees, or others with authorization. Extranets provide secure and safe access to
suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet is not a type of network.
14. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to
access network resources from their personal laptops and smart
phones. Which networking trend does this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing
Explanation: BYOD allows end users to use personal tools to access the corporate
network. Allowing this trend can have major impacts on a network, such as security and
compatibility with corporate software and devices.
15. What is an ISP?

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  It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for
networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network
communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and
businesses to connect to the Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different
networking devices in one.
Explanation: An ISP, or Internet Service Provider, is an organization that provides
access to the Internet for businesses and individuals.

2.9.4 Module Quiz – Basic Switch and End Device Configuration

Answers
1. Which functionality is provided by DHCP?
 automatic assignment of an IP address to each host
 remote switch management
 translation of IP addresses to domain names
 end-to-end connectivity test
Explanation: DHCP provides dynamic and automatic IP address assignment to
hosts.
2. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-
sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
 providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
 displaying a list of all available commands within the
current mode
 allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with
the TAB key
 determining which option, keyword, or argument is
available for the entered command
 selecting the best command to accomplish a task
Explanation: Context-sensitive help provides the user with a list of commands and
the arguments associated with those commands within the current mode of a
networking device. A syntax checker provides error checks on submitted commands
and the TAB key can be used for command completion if a partial command is entered.
3. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the
startup configuration file?
 RAM
 ROM
 NVRAM
 flash

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Explanation: The startup configuration file of a Cisco router or switch is stored in
NVRAM, which is nonvolatile memory.
4. To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a
subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?
 10.1.0.0
 10.0.0.0
 10.1.100.32
 10.1.100.0
Explanation: The purpose of a subnet mask is to separate the network portion of the
address from the host portion of the IP address. The network portion of the IP address
is identified by all binary 1s in the subnet mask. Using a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0
identifies the first two octets of the IP address as the network portion.
5. When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which
three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose
three.)
 the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length
 the hostname should be written in all lower case characters
 the hostname should contain no spaces
 the hostname should end with a special character
 the hostname should begin with a letter
Explanation: A hostname can be configured with upper or lower case characters
and should end with a letter or digit, not a special character. A hostname should start
with a letter and no space is allowed for a hostname.
6. What is the function of the shell in an OS?
 It interacts with the device hardware.
 It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
 It provides dedicated firewall services.
 It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
Explanation: Most operating systems contain a shell and a kernel. The kernel
interacts with the hardware and the shell interfaces between the kernel and the users.
7. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration
file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret
password but no console password. When the router boots up,
which mode will display?
 global configuration mode
 setup mode
 Oprivileged EXEC mode
 user EXEC mode

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Explanation: If a Cisco IOS device has a valid IOS and a valid configuration file, it
will boot into user EXEC mode. A password will be required to enter privileged EXEC
mode.
8. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface
on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those
changes to the device?
 Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.
 Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running
configuration.
 Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.
 Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an
IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed
correctly and the Enter key has been pressed.
Explanation: Changes to router and switch configurations take effect as soon as the
command is entered. For this reason, it is very important that changes to live
production devices are always carefully planned before being implemented. If
commands are entered that render the device unstable or inaccessible, the device may
have to be reloaded, resulting in network downtime.
9. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all
content when the device is restarted?
 ROM
 flash
 NVRAM
 RAM
Explanation: RAM is volatile memory and will lose all contents if the router or switch
is restarted or shutdown.
10. Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config
running-config?
 to remove all configurations from the switch
 to save an active configuration to NVRAM
 to copy an existing configuration into RAM
 to make a changed configuration the new startup configuration
Explanation: Usually, changes are made to a running configuration in RAM and
copied to NVRAM. However, in this case, the technician wants to copy a previously
saved configuration from NVRAM into RAM in order to make changes to it.?
11. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a
Cisco IOS device?
 It affects the operation of the device immediately when
modified.
 It is stored in NVRAM.

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  It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
 It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
Explanation: As soon as configuration commands are entered into a router, they
modify the device immediately. Running configuration files can not be deleted nor are
they saved automatically.
12. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode?
(Choose two.)
 All router commands are available.
 Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable
command.
 The device prompt for this mode ends with the “>” symbol.
 Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
 Only some aspects of the router configuration can be
viewed.
Explanation: User EXEC mode limits access to
some show and debug commands. It is the first level of user interface encountered
when configuring a router and is intended for investigation of certain functions of the
device. The User EXEC prompt is identified with the “>” symbol.
13. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with
the enable secret command?
 virtual terminal
 privileged EXEC
 AUX port
 console line
Explanation: The enable secret command secures access to the privileged
EXEC mode of a Cisco router or switch.
14. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?
 VLAN1
 VLAN99
 VLAN100
 VLAN999
Explanation: Layer 2 switches use switch virtual interfaces (SVIs) to provide a
means for remote access over IP. The default SVI on a Cisco switch is VLAN1.

3.8.2 Module Quiz – Protocols and Models Answers

1. What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a
readable message?
 access control

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  decoding
 encapsulation
 flow control
Explanation: Decoding is the process of receiving transmitted data and reversing the encoding
process to interpret the information. An example is a person that listens to a voicemail and decodes the
sounds to understand the received message.
2. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical
medium?
 It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
 It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
 It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
 It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.
Explanation: When messages are sent on a network, the encapsulation process works from the top
of the OSI or TCP/IP model to the bottom. At each layer of the model, the upper layer information is
encapsulated into the data field of the next protocol. For example, before an IP packet can be sent, it is
encapsulated in a data link frame at Layer 2 so that it can be sent over the physical medium.
3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for
transfer from the source to the destination?
 access control
 decoding
 encapsulation
 flow control
Explanation: Encapsulation is the process of placing one message format into another message
format. An example is how a packet is placed in its entirety into the data field as it is encapsulated into a
frame.
4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From
the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol
stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?
 HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.
5. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose
two.)
 It assists in protocol design.
 It speeds up packet delivery.
 It prevents designers from creating their own model.
 It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
 It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

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Explanation: Some vendors have developed their own reference models and protocols. Today, if a
device is to communicate on the Internet, the device must use the TCP/IP model. The benefits of using a
layered model are as follows:
 assists in protocol design
 fosters competition between vendors
 prevents a technology that functions at one layer from affecting any other layer
 provides a common language for describing network functionality
 helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer and protocols between each layer
6. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?
 specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication
 specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication
 providing the rules required for a specific type of communication
to occur
 dictating the content of the message sent during communication
Explanation: Protocols provide rules that define how a message is transmitted across a network.
Implementation requirements such as electronic and bandwidth details for data communication are
specified by standards. Operating systems are not specified by protocols, but will implement protocols.
Protocols determine how and when to send a message but they do not control the contents of a message.
7. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?
 destination MAC address
 destination IP address
 destination port number
 source MAC address
 source IP address
Explanation: The destination IP address is used for end-to-end delivery of data to a remote network.
The destination MAC address is used for delivery on a local network. The destination port number
identifies the application that should process the data at the destination. Source addresses identify the
sender of the data.
8. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any
layer of a networking model?
 frame
 packet
 protocol data unit
 segment
Explanation: The term protocol data unit (PDU) is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a
networking model. A packet is the PDU at the network layer. A frame is the data link layer PDU. A
segment is the PDU at the transport layer.
9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)
 POP
 BOOTP
 ICMP
 IP
 PPP
Explanation: ICMP and IP both function at the internet layer, whereas PPP is a network access
layer protocol, and POP and BOOTP are application layer protocols.

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10. Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and
reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
 network
Explanation: The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport,
network, data link, and physical. The transport layer defines services to segment, transfer, and
reassemble the data for individual communications between the end devices.
11. Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host
destinations simultaneously?
 broadcast
 multicast
 unicast
 anycast
Explanation: Multicast is a one-to-many communication where the message is delivered to a
specific group of hosts. Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast
communication is a one-to-one communication. Anycast is an IPv6 term and is the sending of data in a
one-to-nearest communication.
12. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations?
(Choose three.)
 IANA
 TCP/IP
 IEEE
 IETF
 OSI
 MAC
Explanation: TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP, FTP,
and DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the Internet. A
MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI is the 7 layer model that is
used to explain how networking works.
13. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a
local area network?
 broadcast
 multicast
 unicast
 allcast
Explanation: Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast communication is
a one-to-one communication. Multicast is a one-to-many communication where the message is delivered
to a specific group of hosts. Allcast is not a standard term to describe message delivery.
14. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message
encoding?
 to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
 to interpret information
 to break large messages into smaller frames

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  negotiate correct timing for successful communication
Explanation: Before a message is sent across a network it must first be encoded. Encoding is the
process of converting the data message into another format suitable for transmission across the physical
medium. Each bit of the message is encoded into a pattern of sounds, light waves, or electrical impulses
depending on the network media over which the bits are transmitted. The destination host receives and
decodes the signals in order to interpret the message.
15. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to
receive the same message simultaneously?
 duplex
 unicast
 multicast
 broadcast
Explanation: When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the message
would be delivered as a broadcast. Unicast delivery occurs when one source host sends a message to one
destination host. The sending of the same message from a host to a group of destination hosts is
multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers to the ability of the medium to carry messages in both
directions.
16. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in
network communcations to allow message transmission across a
network? (Choose three.)
 connector specifications
 message encoding
 media selection
 message size
 delivery options
 end-device installation
17. What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
 remote delivery
 local and remote delivery
 local delivery
 remote delivery using routers
18. What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path
through the network?
 application
 transport
 internet
 network access

4.7.4 Module Quiz – Physical Layer Answers

1. Which standards organization oversees development of wireless
LAN standards?
 IANA
 IEEE
 IOS

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  TIA
Explanation: IANA oversees the management of IP address allocation and domain
names. ISO is the largest developer of international networking standards and is
famous for the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. TIA focuses on
communication standards. The IEEE 802 standards are many, but the ones that affect
an entry-level network professional are Ethernet (802.3), wireless LANs (802.11), and
wireless PANs (802.15).
2. A network administrator is designing a new network
infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless
connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be
recommended?
 The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
 The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of
performance requirements.
 The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the
network.
 The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.
Explanation: When the end-user devices need mobility to connect to the network,
wireless is recommended. If an end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC, the user will
only be able to use Ethernet cabling. If RFI is an issue, wireless is not recommended.
An end-user device that requires a dedicated connection for performance would
perform better with a dedicated Ethernet cable.
3. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues
on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the
signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In
which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
 presentation layer
 network layer
 physical layer
 data link layer
Explanation: The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2. The NIC
encodes the frame as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media. This
is the responsibility of the physical layer of the OSI model. The signal could be in the
form of electrical, optical, or radio waves.
4. What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to
a Cisco router console port?
 crossover
 rollover
 straight-through
 coaxial

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Explanation: UTP cable wire pairs can be terminated in different configurations for
use in different applications. To use a UTP cable for consoling into a Cisco router from
a PC serial port, it must be terminated as a rollover or console cable.
5. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?
 console
 rollover
 crossover
 straight-through
Explanation: A rollover cable is a Cisco proprietary cable used to connect to a router
or switch console port. A straight-through (also called patch) cable is usually used to
interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to
interconnect similar devices together, for example, between two switches, two routers,
and two hosts.
6. What is the definition of bandwidth?
 the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of
time
 the speed at which bits travel on the network
 the amount of data that can flow from one place to another
in a given amount of time
 the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time
Explanation: Bandwidth is the measure of the capacity of a network medium to carry
data. It is the amount of data that can move between two points on the network over a
specific period of time, typically one second.
7. Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?
 It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
 It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly
spaced time durations.
 It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the
binary numbers of the frame.
 It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a
predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from
control bits.
Explanation: Frame encoding converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code
that is recognized by both the sender and receiver. These codes are used for a variety
of purposes, such as distinguishing data bits from control bits, and identifying the
beginning and end of a frame.
8. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
 cancellation
 cladding
 immunity to electrical hazards

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  woven copper braid or metallic foil
Explanation: Cladding and immunization from electrical hazards are characteristics
for fiber-optic cabling. A woven copper braid or metallic foil is used as a shield for the
inner coaxial cable conductor. Cancellation is a property of UTP cabling where two
wires are located adjacent to one another so each magnetic field cancels out the
adjacent magnetic field.
9. A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office
that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the
highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete,
the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally
affected by some type of interference. What are two possible
causes of the signal distortion? (Choose two.)
 the microwave oven
 the large number of trees that surround the office
 the cellular phones that are used by the employees
 the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed
 the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN
Explanation: Wireless LAN connectivity is not affected by trees or the elevation of
the equipment. Because this is a one room office in an isolated area, there will not be a
large number of wireless devices or source of interference operating in the immediate
vicinity, apart from a cellular phone or a microwave oven.
10. What is indicated by the term throughput?
 the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
 the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
 the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
 the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a
given period of time
 the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver
Explanation: Throughput is the measure of the transfer of bits across the media
over a given period of time. Throughput is affected by a number of factors such as, EMI
and latency, so it rarely matches the specified bandwidth for a network medium. The
throughput measurement includes user data bits and other data bits, such as overhead,
acknowledging, and encapsulation. The measure of the usable data transferred across
the media is called goodput.
11. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than
copper cabling?
 It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
 It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
 It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
 It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

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Explanation: Copper cabling is usually cheaper and easier to install than fiber optic
cabling. However, fiber cables generally have a much greater signaling range than
copper.
12. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?
 controlling access to media
 transmitting bits across the local media
 performing error detection on received frames
 exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for transmitting the actual signals
across the physical media as bits. Exchanging frames, controlling media access, and
performing error detection are all functions of the data link layer.
13. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic
connection?
 The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without
degrading.
 They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
 They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
 They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
Explanation: Light can only travel in one direction down a single strand of fiber. In
order to allow for full-duplex communication two strands of fiber must be connected
between each device.
14. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
 the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
 the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals
carried in adjacent wires
 the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
 the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
Explanation: EMI and RFI can distort network signals because of interference from
fluorescent lights or electric motors. Attenuation results in deterioration of the network
signal as it travels along copper cabling. Wireless devices can experience loss of
signals because of excessive distances from a access point, but this is not crosstalk.
Crosstalk is the disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of the signal
carried on an adjacent wire within the same cable.
15. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in
copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation

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Explanation: In copper cables, crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or
magnetic fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire.
Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together can effectively cancel the crosstalk. The
other options are effective measures to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI,
but not crosstalk.
16. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header
fields of the data link layer?
 They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
 Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination
addresses.
 They vary depending on protocols.
 They include information on user applications.
Explanation: All data link layer protocols encapsulate the Layer 3 PDU within the
data field of the frame. However, the structure of the frame and the fields that are
contained in the header vary according to the protocol. Different data link layer
protocols may use different fields, like priority/quality of service, logical connection
control, physical link control, flow control, and congestion control.
17. Which two factors influence the method that is used for media
access control? (Choose two.)
 how data is generated by end devices applications
 how the connection between nodes appears to the data link
layer
 how signals are encoded by the NICs on end devices
 how nodes share the media
 how the IP protocol forwards the packet to the destination
18. What is a characteristic of a WAN hub-and-spoke topology?
 It requires that some of the branch sites be interconnected through point-to-
point links.
 It requires that every site be interconnected to each other through point-to-
point links.
 All sites require a hub device that connects to a router.
 The branch sites are connected to a central site through
point-to-point links.

5.3.2 Module Quiz – Number Systems Answers

1. What is the decimal equivalent of 0xC9?

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  185
 200
 201
 199
Explanation: 0x refers to the item as hexadecimal. Convert each character into its
corresponding nibble. Then combine the nibbles together and calculate the resulting
decimal equivalent. C has a value of 12. 12 x 16 = 192. 192 + 9 = 201.
2. Which is a valid hexadecimal number?
 f
 g
 h
 j
Explanation: The hexadecimal numbers are 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,a,b,c,d,e,f.. The
hexadecimal number 0 represents 0 in decimal and is represented as 0000 in binary.
The hexadecimal number f represents 15 in decimal.
3. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?
 10111010
 11010101
 11001010
 11011010
Explanation: When converted, CA in hex is equivalent to 11011010 in binary. One
way to do the conversion is one nibble at a time, C = 1100 and A = 1010. Combine the
two nibbles gives 11001010.
4. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
 32
 64
 128
 256
Explanation: An IPv4 address is comprised of 4 octets of binary digits, each
containing 8 bits, resulting in a 32-bit address.
5. Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6
addresses? (Choose two.)
 IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
 IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
 IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.
 IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.
 IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.
 IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.

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Explanation: IPv4 addresses are represented as dotted decimal numbers and are
32 bits in length. IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers and are
128 bits in length.
6. Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people
and is expressed as 201.192.1.14?
 binary
 dotted decimal
 hexadecimal
 ASCII
Explanation: For ease of use by people, binary patterns are represented as dotted
decimal. Computer systems were created to understand binary addressing.
7. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address
11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
 192.0.0.199
 198.51.100.201
 203.0.113.211
 209.165.201.223
Explanation: Each section (octet) contains eight binary digits. Each digit represents
a specific value (128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1). Everywhere there is a 1, the specific
value is relevant. Add all relevant values in a particular octet to obtain the decimal
value. For example binary 11001011 equals 203 in decimal.
8. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?
 149
 157
 168
 192
Explanation: Binary 10010101 maps to 149 in decimal. 128+16+4+1 = 149
9. What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?
 63
 77
 87
 93
Explanation:
Hex 0x3F is 63 in decimal.
(3*16)+(15*1) = 63
10. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address
which is represented as the binary string
00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001?
 10.100.21.1
 10.10.20.1

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  100.10.11.1
 100.21.10.1
Explanation: Converting the binary string of
00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001 to dotted decimal gives 10.100.21.1
11. What is the binary representation for the decimal number 173?
 10100111
 10100101
 10101101
 10110101
Explanation: decimal 173 = 128 + 0 + 32 + 0 + 8 + 4 + 0 + 1
12. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100
00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal
format?
 234.17.10.9
 234.16.12.10
 236.17.12.6
 236.17.12.10
Explanation: The binary number 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010
translates to 236.17.12.10.
13. How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?
 32
 48
 64
 128
 256
Explanation: IPv4 addressing space is exhausted by the rapid growth of the Internet
and the devices connected to the Internet. IPv6 expands the IP addressing space by
increasing the address length from 32 bits to 128 bits.
14. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?
 11101000
 11000110
 10011000
 11110010
Explanation: 232 in binary is 11101000. 128+64+32+8 = 232

6.4.2 Module Quiz – Data Link Layer Answers

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1. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI
model? (Choose two.)
 It encrypts data packets.
 It determines the path to forward packets.
 It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into
frames.
 It provides media access control and performs error
detection.
 It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.
Explanation: The data link layer is responsible for the exchange of frames between
nodes over a physical network media. Specifically the data link layer performs two
basic services:
 It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
 It provides media access control and performs error detection.
Path determination is a service provided at Layer 3. A Layer 2 switch builds a MAC
address table as part of its operation, but path determination is not the service that is
provided by the data link layer.
2. What does a router do after de-encapsulating a received frame?
 determines the best path
 de-encapsulates the frame
 re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
 forwards the new frame onto the network medium
Explanation: Routers are responsible for encapsulating a frame with a proper format
for the physical network media the routers connect. At each hop along the path, a
router does the following:
1. Accepts a frame from a medium
2. De-encapsulates the frame
3. Determines the best path to forward the packet
4. Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
5. Forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical
network
3. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the
OSI model?
 attached Ethernet cable
 IP address
 MAC address
 RJ-45 port
 TCP/IP protocol stack
Explanation: The data link layer describes media access and physical addressing.
The encoding of a MAC address on a NIC places it at that layer. Ports and cables are

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placed at the physical layer of the OSI model. IP addresses are placed at the network
layer. The TCP/IP protocol stack describes a different model.
4. Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no
longer necessary?
 the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
 the use of CSMA/CA
 the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
 the development of half-duplex switch operation
 the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Explanation: The use of Layer 2 switches operating in full-duplex mode eliminates
collisions, thereby eliminating the need for CSMA/CD.
5. What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all
Ethernet cables to a central device?
 bus
 ring
 star
 mesh
Explanation: Devices connected to the Ethernet star topology connect to either a
hub or a switch.
6. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a
network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical
topology requires that every node is attached to every other node
on the network?
 bus
 hierarchical
 mesh
 ring
 star
Explanation: The mesh topology provides high availability because every node is
connected to all other nodes. Mesh topologies can be found in WANs. A partial mesh
topology can also be used where some, but not all, end points connect to one another.
7. Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data
transmission?
 Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.
 Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one
direction at a time.
 Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many
different destinations simultaneously.
 Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same
time.

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Explanation: The data that is transmitted over the network can flow using one of
three modes:
 Simplex – Data can only flow in one direction.
 Half-duplex – Data flows in one direction at a time.
 Full-duplex – Data flows in both directions at the same time.

8. Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?

 to define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware
 to provide data link layer addressing
 to identify which network layer protocol is being used
 to accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets
Explanation: Defining the media access processes that are performed by the
hardware and providing data link layer addressing are functions of the MAC sublayer.
The data link layer accepts Layer 3 packets and packages them into data units that are
called frames.
9. Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet
use?
 CSMA/CD
 determinism
 turn taking
 token passing
Explanation: CSMA/CD is used by Ethernet networks. CSMA/CA is used by 802.11-
based wireless networks.
10. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer?
(Choose two.)
 internet
 physical
 LLC
 transport
 MAC
 network access
Explanation: The data link layer of the OSI model is divided into two sublayers: the
Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer and the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer.
11. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a
wireless network?
 CSMA/CD
 priority ordering
 CSMA/CA
 token passing
Explanation: Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is
used with wireless networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense

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multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet
technology to mediate media contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not
used (or not a method) for media access control.
12. What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify
an Ethernet device?
 IP address
 MAC address
 sequence number
 TCP port number
 UDP port number
Explanation: Ethernet frames are identified at the data link layer by their MAC
addresses, which are unique to each NIC. IP addresses are used at the network layer,
and TCP and UDP port numbers are used at the transport layer. Sequence numbers
are fields in TCP headers.
13. Which two engineering organizations define open standards and
protocols that apply to the data link layer? (Choose two.)
 Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
 Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
 International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
 Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
 Internet Society (ISOC)
Explanation: The IANA is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address
allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers. The EIA is an
international standards and trade alliance for electronics organizations, and is best
known for its standards related to electrical wiring, connectors, and the 19-inch racks
used to mount networking equipment. IEEE defines open standards and protocols that
apply to the network access layer.
14. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the
encapsulation method used for specific types of media?
 application
 transport
 data link
 physical
Explanation: Encapsulation is a function of the data link layer. Different media types
require different data link layer encapsulation.
15. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
 The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
 Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
 Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.

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  Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data
between devices.
Explanation: Physical topologies show the physical interconnection of devices.
Logical topologies show the way the network will transfer data between connected
nodes.

7.5.2 Module Quiz – Ethernet Switching Answers

1. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a
destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
 It will discard the frame.
 It will forward the frame to the next host.
 It will remove the frame from the media.
 It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
Explanation: In an Ethernet network, each NIC in the network checks every arriving frame to see if
the destination MAC address in the frame matches its own MAC address. If there is no match, the
device discards the frame. If there is a match, the NIC passes the frame up to the next OSI layer.
2. What is auto-MDIX?
 a type of Cisco switch
 an Ethernet connector type
 a type of port on a Cisco switch
 a feature that detects Ethernet cable type
Explanation: Auto-MDIX is a feature that is enabled on the latest Cisco switches and that allows
the switch to detect and use whatever type of cable is attached to a specific port.
3. Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer?
(Choose two.)
 It is responsible for Media Access Control.
 It performs the function of NIC driver software.
 It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
 It handles communication between upper and lower layers.
 It adds control information to network protocol layer data.
Explanation: The MAC sublayer is the lower of the two data link sublayers and is closest to the
physical layer. The two primary functions of the MAC sublayer are to encapsulate the data from the
upper layer protocols and to control access to the media.
4. What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?
 an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet
 an address that reaches one specific host
 an address that reaches every host in the network
 an address that reaches a specific group of hosts

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Explanation: The multicast MAC address is a special value that begins with 01-00-5E in
hexadecimal. It allows a source device to send a packet to a group of devices.
5. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?
 The frame is dropped.
 The frame is returned to the originating network device.
 The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
 The frame is sent to the default gateway.
Explanation: In an attempt to conserve bandwidth and not forward useless frames, Ethernet devices
drop frames that are considered to be runt (less than 64 bytes) or jumbo (greater than 1500 bytes)
frames.
6. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame?
(Choose two.)
 56 bytes
 64 bytes
 128 bytes
 1024 bytes
 1518 bytes
Explanation: The minimum Ethernet frame is 64 bytes. The maximum Ethernet frame is 1518
bytes. A network technician must know the minimum and maximum frame size in order to recognize
runt and jumbo frames.
7. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC
address table?
 the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets
 the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames
 the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets
 the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames
Explanation: A switch builds a MAC address table by inspecting incoming Layer 2 frames and
recording the source MAC address found in the frame header. The discovered and recorded MAC
address is then associated with the port used to receive the frame.
8. Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
 It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards.
 It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.
 It typically uses an average of 16 Mb/s for data transfer rates.
 It uses the CSMA/CD access control method.
 It uses a ring topology.
Explanation: The 802.3 Ethernet standard specifies that a network implement the CSMA/CD access
control method.
9. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?
 They must be globally unique.
 They are only routable within the private network.
 They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.
 They have a 32-bit binary value.

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Explanation: Any vendor selling Ethernet devices must register with the IEEE to ensure the vendor
is assigned a unique 24-bit code, which becomes the first 24 bits of the MAC address. The last 24 bits of
the MAC address are generated per hardware device. This helps to ensure globally unique addresses for
each Ethernet device.
10. What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast
MAC address?
 01-5E-00
 FF-00-5E
 FF-FF-FF
 01-00-5E
Explanation: Just as with multicast IP addresses, there is a special assigned value for multicast
MAC addresses. The first 24 bits are set in hex to: 01-00-5E. The remaining 6 hex digits are derived
from the lower 23 bits of the IP multicast.
11. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the
destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?
 repeater
 hub
 switch
 router
Explanation: Switches are the central connection point for a LAN and they maintain a MAC
address table. The MAC address table has a port number associated with a MAC address for
each particular device. The switch inspects a frame to look at the destination MAC address. The switch
then looks in its MAC address table and if that MAC address is found, the switch forwards the data to
the port that is associated with that particular MAC address.
12. Which network device has the primary function to send data to a
specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address
table?
 hub
 router
 switch
 modem
Explanation: If a MAC address is found in the MAC address table, then data is sent to the
associated switch port. If the MAC address is not found in the MAC address table, the data is sent to all
switch ports that have devices attached to the same network.
13. Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?
 It performs data encapsulation.
 It communicates with upper protocol layers.
 It is responsible for media access control.
 It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
Explanation: The Ethernet LLC sublayer has the responsibility to handle communication between
the upper layers and the lower layers of the protocol stack. The LLC is implemented in software and
communicates with the upper layers of the application to transition the packet to the lower layers for
delivery.

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14. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?
 MAC addresses are implemented by software.
 A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
 The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
 The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.
Explanation: A MAC address is composed of 6 bytes. The first 3 bytes are used for vendor
identification and the last 3 bytes must be assigned a unique value within the same OUI. MAC addresses
are implemented in hardware. A NIC needs a MAC address to communicate over the LAN. The IEEE
regulates the MAC addresses.

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