Objective Question on Current Affairs

1. Who is the President of Ukraine?

- A. Vladimir Putin
- B. Donald Trump
- C. Volodymyr Zelenskyy
- D. Olayemi Cardosso

2. Who is the President of Russia?

- A. Joe Biden
- B. Donald Trump
- C. Vladimir Putin
- D. Emmanuel Macron

3. Who is the President of the United States?

- A. Barack Obama
- B. Donald Trump
- C. George Washington
- D. Joe Biden

4. Which country is hosting the 2025 African Cup of Nations (AFCON)?

- A. Nigeria
- B. Morocco
- C. Egypt
- D. South Africa

5. Which country won the 2024 AFCON?

- A. Nigeria
- B. Cote d’Ivoire
- C. South Africa
- D. Egypt

6. How many members does the Nigerian House of Representatives have?

- A. 360
- B. 109
- C. 774
- D. 50

7. Where is Kainji Dam located in Nigeria?

- A. Lagos State
- B. Niger State
- C. Kaduna State
- D. Kano State
8. What does the green in the Nigeria Police flag represent?
- A. Peace
- B. Agriculture
- C. Unity
- D. Justice

9. Who was the first President of the USA?

- A. Abraham Lincoln
- B. George Washington
- C. Thomas Jefferson
- D. John Adams

10. How many Senators make up the National Assembly of Nigeria?

- A. 360
- B. 109
- C. 50
- D. 774

11. When did Nigeria become a British colony?

- A. 1960
- B. 1901
- C. 1914
- D. 1945

12. What is the name of the highest mountain in the world?

- A. K2
- B. Kilimanjaro
- C. Mount Everest
- D. Mount Fuji

13. Who is the current Inspector General of Police in Nigeria?

- A. Kayode Egbetokun
- B. Ibrahim Idris
- C. Mohammed Adamu
- D. Abba Kyari

14. Who is the Comptroller General of Customs in Nigeria?

- A. Bashir Adewale Adeniyi
- B. Hameed Ali
- C. Abba Kyari
- D. Olayemi Cardosso

15. What does ECOMOG stand for?

- A. Economic Community of West African States Monitoring Group
 - B. Economic Community of West African Nations Organization
- C. Economic Council of West African Governments
- D. Economic Community of West African Leaders

16. Who is the Director-General of the Independent Corrupt Practices Commission (ICPC)?
- A. Dr. Musa Adamu Aliyu
- B. Mr. Ola Olukoyode
- C. Kayode Egbetokun
- D. Ibrahim Geidam

17. Who is the Director-General of the Economic and Financial Crimes Commission (EFCC)?
- A. Dr. Musa Adamu Aliyu
- B. Mr. Ola Olukoyode
- C. Ibrahim Magu
- D. Mr. Ibrahim Geidam

18. Who is the Governor of the Central Bank of Nigeria?

- A. Olayemi Cardosso
- B. Godwin Emefiele
- C. Lamido Sanusi
- D. Charles Chukwuma Soludo

19. Who is the Minister of Education in Nigeria?

- A. Dr. Tunji Alausa
- B. Adamu Adamu
- C. Chukwuemeka Nwajiuba
- D. Olayemi Cardosso

20. Where will the 2028 Olympics be held?

- A. Tokyo, Japan
- B. Los Angeles, USA
- C. Paris, France
- D. Beijing, China

21. Who is the Secretary-General of the United Nations?

- A. Ban Ki-moon
- B. Kofi Annan
- C. Antonio Guterres
- D. Boutros Boutros-Ghali

22. Name the first member of the UN Security Council.

- A. China
- B. Brazil
- C. Argentina
 - D. Germany

23. What is the capital of Nigeria?

- A. Lagos
- B. Abuja
- C. Kano
- D. Port Harcourt

24. Which of the following is an Anglophone country?

- A. Mali
- B. Senegal
- C. Nigeria
- D. Burkina Faso

25. Which is NOT a Francophone country?

- A. Togo
- B. Niger
- C. Nigeria
- D. Senegal

26. Which two countries in West Africa are non-members of ECOWAS?

- A. Nigeria and Ghana
- B. Mauritania and Cameroon
- C. Liberia and Sierra Leone
- D. Benin and Togo

27. What is Nigeria's motto?

- A. Peace and Unity
- B. Unity & Faith, Peace & Progress
- C. Freedom and Justice
- D. Strength in Diversity

28. What does ICPC stand for?

- A. Independent Corrupt Practices Commission
- B. Independent Community of Public Conduct
- C. International Commission for Public Corruption
- D. Independent Committee on Political Conduct

29. When was ICPC signed into law?

- A. 2000
- B. 2004
- C. 1999
- D. 2002
30. What is EFCC?
- A. Economic and Financial Crimes Commission
- B. Economic and Fiscal Commission
- C. Economic Fraud Control Commission
- D. Economic Financing and Credit Commission

31. Which of the following is an offence listed in the Anti-Corruption Bill?

- A. Tax Evasion
- B. Accepting Gratifications
- C. Money Laundering
- D. Identity Theft

32. What does OPEC stand for?

- A. Organization of Public Exporting Countries
- B. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
- C. Organization of People’s Economies
- D. Organization of Petroleum and Energy Cooperation

33. Name one African member of OPEC.

- A. Egypt
- B. Nigeria
- C. Kenya
- D. Ghana

34. Which state in Nigeria shares a boundary with Cameroon?

- A. Kano
- B. Lagos
- C. Adamawa
- D. Enugu

35. What is the appellation for Abia State?

- A. God's Own State
- B. Home of Peace
- C. Center of Excellence
- D. Pearl of Tourism

36. Who is the current Chairman of the National Sports Commission?

- A. Mallam Shehu Dikko
- B. Solomon Dalung
- C. Sunday Dare
- D. Amaju Pinnick

37. Who is the Minister of Defence?

- A. Mohammed Badaru
 - B. Bashir Magashi
- C. Mansur Dan-Ali
- D. Dan Ali

38. Who is the Minister of State for Health?

- A. Dr. Iziak Salako
- B. Dr. Tunji Alausa
- C. Dr. Osagie Ehanire
- D. Dr. Abubakar Bukola Saraki

39. Who is the current Minister of Foreign Affairs?

- A. Geoffrey Onyeama
- B. Yusuf M. Tuggar
- C. Olugbenga Ashiru
- D. Aminu Wali

40. Who is currently serving as the Attorney General of the Federation?

- A. Abubakar Malami
- B. Lateef Fagbemi
- C. Adebayo Shittu
- D. Kanu Agabi

41. Who is the current Group Managing Director of NNPC?

- A. Mele Kyari
- B. Mohammed Sanusi Barkindo
- C. Ibe Kachikwu
- D. Mohammed Aliyu

42. How many Local Government Councils are recognized in the Nigerian Constitution?
- A. 774
- B. 360
- C. 109
- D. 50

43. Who is the Director-General of the National Action Committee on Aids (NACA)?
- A. Dr. Temitope Ilori
- B. Dr. Osagie Ehanire
- C. Dr. Chikwe Ihekweazu
- D. Dr. Aliyu Sabi Abdullahi

44. Who is the Permanent Secretary of the Federal Ministry of Health and Social Welfare?
- A. Ms. Kachollom Daju Shangti
- B. Dr. Osagie Ehanire
- C. Dr. Abubakar Bukola Saraki
 - D. Dr. Tunji Alausa

45. Who is the current Chairman of INEC?

- A. Prof. Yakub Mohammed
- B. Attahiru Jega
- C. Amina Zakari
- D. Mahmood Yakubu

46. What is the capital of Niger State?

- A. Minna
- B. Bida
- C. Kontagora
- D. Suleja

47. How many members are in the Nigerian Senate?

- A. 360
- B. 109
- C. 50
- D. 774

48. Who is the current Minister of Water Resources & Sanitation?

- A. Joseph Utsev
- B. Suleiman Adamu
- C. Engr. Abubakar Aliyu
- D. Adebayo Adelabu

49. What is the capital of Lagos State?

- A. Lagos
- B. Ikeja
- C. Victoria Island
- D. Lekki

50. Who is the Governor of Bayelsa State?

- A. Douye Diri
- B. Seriake Dickson
- C. Timipre Sylva
- D. Nyesom Wike

51. Which state is known as the "Food Basket of the Nation"?

- A. Benue
- B. Kaduna
- C. Sokoto
- D. Osun
52. What is the capital of Ekiti State?
- A. Ado-Ekiti
- B. Ikere
- C. Ijero
- D. Efon

53. Who is the current Minister of State for Works?

- A. David Umahi
- B. Barr. Bello M. Goronyo
- C. Babatunde Fashola
- D. Uche Nnaji

54. Who is the current Minister of Transportation?

- A. Chibuike Amaechi
- B. Sa’idu Alkali
- C. David Umahi
- D. Femi Fani-Kayode

55. Which state is known as the "Gateway State"?

- A. Ogun
- B. Lagos
- C. Oyo
- D. Benue

56. What is the capital of Rivers State?

- A. Port Harcourt
- B. Abuja
- C. Calabar
- D. Uyo

57. Who is the current Head of the Civil Service of the Federation?
- A. Mrs. Didi Esther Walson Jack
- B. Mrs. Winifred Oyo-Ita
- C. Dr. Folashade Yemi-Esan
- D. Dr. Eileen Okwudire

58. Who is the Minister of Humanitarian Affairs and Poverty Reduction?

- A. Dr. Nentawe Yilwatda
- B. Sadiya Umar Farouq
- C. Dati Kachalla
- D. Zainab Ahmed

59. What is the capital of Kaduna State?

- A. Kaduna
 - B. Zaria
- C. Kafanchan
- D. Jaji

60. Who is the current Minister of Youth Development?

- A. Ayodele Olawande
- B. Sunday Dare
- C. Abdurrahman Dambazau
- D. Mohammed Badaru

61. What is the capital of Ogun State?

- A. Abeokuta
- B. Ijebu-Ode
- C. Sagamu
- D. Ota

62. Who is the current Minister of Agriculture and Food Security?

- A. Abubakar Kyari
- B. Sabo Nanono
- C. Audu Ogbeh
- D. Akinwumi Adesina

63. Who is the current Minister of Communication, Innovation and Digital Economy?
- A. Bosun Tijani
- B. Isa Ali Pantami
- C. Adebayo Shittu
- D. Lai Mohammed

64. Which state is referred to as the "Treasure Base" of Nigeria?

- A. Rivers
- B. Delta
- C. Lagos
- D. Bayelsa

65. Who is the current Minister of Information and National Orientation?

- A. Femi Adesina
- B. Mohammed Idris
- C. Lai Mohammed
- D. Abike Dabiri

66. What is the capital of Imo State?

- A. Owerri
- B. Aba
- C. Okigwe
 - D. Orlu

67. Who is the current Minister of Environment?

- A. Mohammed Abdullahi
- B. Balarabe Abbas Lawal
- C. Ibrahim Jibril
- D. Amina Mohammed

68. Who is the current Secretary to the Federal Government of Nigeria?

- A. George Akume
- B. Babachir Lawal
- C. Anyim Pius Anyim
- D. Abba Kyari

69. What is the capital of Sokoto State?

- A. Sokoto
- B. Gusau
- C. Kebbi
- D. Kaura Namoda

70. What is the capital of Cross River State?

- A. Calabar
- B. Ugep
- C. Ikom
- D. Ogoja

71. Who is the current Minister of State for Finance?

- A. Dr. Doris Ozoka-Anite
- B. Zainab Ahmed
- C. Wale Edun
- D. Abubakar Malami

72. Who is the current Minister of State for Trade and Investment?
- A. Nkiruka Onyejeocha
- B. John Owan Enoh
- C. Adeniyi Adebayo
- D. Adebayo Shittu

73. What is the capital of Yobe State?

- A. Damaturu
- B. Potiskum
- C. Nguru
- D. Gashua
74. Who is the current Minister of Solid Minerals Development?
- A. Dele Alake
- B. Olamilekan Adegbite
- C. Abubakar Bwari
- D. Kayode Fayemi

75. What is the capital of Ebonyi State?

- A. Abakaliki
- B. Afikpo
- C. Ivo
- D. Izzi

76. Who is the current Minister of Steel Development?

- A. Shuaibu A. Audu
- B. Olamilekan Adegbite
- C. Dele Alake
- D. Kayode Fayemi

77. What is the capital of Gombe State?

- A. Gombe
- B. Bajoga
- C. Kaltungo
- D. Billiri

78. Who is the current Minister of Defence (State)?

- A. Bello Matawalle
- B. Mohammed Badaru
- C. Dan Ali
- D. Danjuma Goje

79. Who is the current Minister of State for Works?

- A. Barr. Bello M. Goronyo
- B. David Umahi
- C. Babatunde Fashola
- D. Uche Nnaji

80. What is the capital of Taraba State?

- A. Jalingo
- B. Wukari
- C. Bali
- D. Zing

81. Who is the current Minister of Special Duties and Inter-Governmental Affairs?
- A. Zephaniah Jisalo
 - B. Abubakar Momoh
- C. Femi Adesina
- D. Lai Mohammed

82. What is the capital of Nasarawa State?

- A. Lafia
- B. Keffi
- C. Doma
- D. Akwanga

83. Who is the current Minister of Regional Development?

- A. Abubakar Momoh
- B. Nyesom Wike
- C. David Umahi
- D. Babatunde Fashola

84. What is the capital of Borno State?

- A. Maiduguri
- B. Bama
- C. Gubio
- D. Chibok

85. Who is the current Minister of State for Agriculture and Food Security?
- A. Aliyu Sabi Abdullahi
- B. Abubakar Kyari
- C. Audu Ogbeh
- D. Sabo Nanono

86. What is the capital of Kebbi State?

- A. Birnin Kebbi
- B. Argungu
- C. Zuru
- D. Jega
Sure! Here’s the continuation of the objective questions:

87. Who is the current Minister of State for Petroleum Resources (Gas)?
- A. Ekperipe Ekpo
- B. Heineken Lokpobiri
- C. Timipre Sylva
- D. Mohammed Barkindo

88. What is the capital of Adamawa State?

- A. Yola
- B. Mubi
 - C. Ganye
- D. Numan

89. Who is the current Minister of State for Women Affairs?

- A. Imaan Sulaiman Ibrahim
- B. Aisha Jummai Alhassan
- C. Pauline Tallen
- D. Zainab Ahmed

90. Who is the current Minister of Power?

- A. Adebayo Adelabu
- B. Sale Mamman
- C. Babatunde Fashola
- D. Chinedu Nebo

91. What is the capital of Osun State?

- A. Osogbo
- B. Ife
- C. Ilesha
- D. Ede

92. Who is the current Minister of Aviation and Aerospace Development?

- A. Festus Keyamo
- B. Hadi Sirika
- C. Sen. Iyiola Omisore
- D. Abubakar Momoh

93. What is the capital of Enugu State?

- A. Enugu
- B. Nsukka
- C. Oji River
- D. Udi

94. Who is the current Minister of Labour and Employment?

- A. Chris Ngige
- B. Muhammadu Maigari Dingyadi
- C. Festus Keyamo
- D. Simon Lalong

95. What is the capital of Benue State?

- A. Makurdi
- B. Gboko
- C. Otukpo
- D. Katsina-Ala
96. Who is the current Minister of Information and Culture?
- A. Lai Mohammed
- B. Mohammed Idris
- C. Femi Adesina
- D. Abike Dabiri

97. What is the capital of Kano State?

- A. Kano
- B. Zaria
- C. Katsina
- D. Funtua

98. Who is the current Minister of Solid Minerals Development?

- A. Dele Alake
- B. Abubakar Bwari
- C. Olamilekan Adegbite
- D. Kayode Fayemi

99. What is the capital of Oyo State?

- A. Ibadan
- B. Ogbomosho
- C. Saki
- D. Iseyin

100. Who is the current Minister of Housing and Urban Development?

- A. Ahmed M. Dangiwa
- B. Babatunde Fashola
- C. Nyesom Wike
- D. Chris Ngige

101. Who is the current President of Ukraine?

- A. Volodymyr Zelenskyy
- B. Viktor Yanukovych
- C. Yulia Tymoshenko
- D. Petro Poroshenko

102. Who is the current President of Russia?

- A. Dmitry Medvedev
- B. Boris Yeltsin
- C. Vladimir Putin
- D. Mikhail Gorbachev

103. Who is the current President of the United States?

 - A. Donald Trump
- B. Joe Biden
- C. Barack Obama
- D. George W. Bush

104. Which country is hosting the 2025 African Cup of Nations (AFCON)?
- A. Nigeria
- B. Morocco
- C. Egypt
- D. Cameroon

105. Which country won the 2024 AFCON?

- A. Nigeria
- B. Cote d’Ivoire
- C. South Africa
- D. Algeria

106. What is the total number of members in the Nigerian House of Representatives?
- A. 360
- B. 109
- C. 774
- D. 50

107. Where is the Kainji Dam located in Nigeria?

- A. Lagos State
- B. Niger State
- C. Ogun State
- D. Kaduna State

108. What does the green in the Nigeria Police flag represent?
- A. Peace
- B. Agriculture
- C. Justice
- D. Unity

109. Who was the first President of the United States?

- A. Thomas Jefferson
- B. George Washington
- C. Abraham Lincoln
- D. John Adams

110. How many Senators are in the National Assembly of Nigeria?

- A. 360
- B. 109
 - C. 50
- D. 774

111. When did Nigeria become a British colony?

- A. 1960
- B. 1901
- C. 1914
- D. 1945

112. What is the name of the highest mountain in the world?

- A. K2
- B. Kilimanjaro
- C. Mount Everest
- D. Aconcagua

113. Who is the current Inspector General of Police in Nigeria?

- A. Ibrahim Idris
- B. Kayode Egbetokun
- C. Mohammed Adamu
- D. Abba Kyari

114. Who is the Comptroller General of Customs in Nigeria?

- A. Hameed Ali
- B. Bashir Adewale Adeniyi
- C. Kayode Egbetokun
- D. Olayemi Cardosso

115. What does ECOMOG stand for?

- A. Economic Community of West African States Monitoring Group
- B. Economic Community of West African Nations Organization
- C. Economic Council of West African Governments
- D. Economic Community of West African Leaders

116. Who is the Director-General of the Independent Corrupt Practices Commission (ICPC)?
- A. Dr. Musa Adamu Aliyu
- B. Mr. Ola Olukoyode
- C. Ibrahim Magu
- D. Kayode Egbetokun

117. Who is the Director-General of the Economic and Financial Crimes Commission (EFCC)?
- A. Ibrahim Magu
- B. Mr. Ola Olukoyode
- C. Dr. Musa Adamu Aliyu
- D. Abba Kyari
118. Who is the Governor of the Central Bank of Nigeria?
- A. Godwin Emefiele
- B. Olayemi Cardosso
- C. Lamido Sanusi
- D. Charles Chukwuma Soludo

119. Who is the current Minister of Education in Nigeria?

- A. Dr. Tunji Alausa
- B. Adamu Adamu
- C. Chukwuemeka Nwajiuba
- D. Olayemi Cardosso

120. Where will the 2028 Olympics be held?

- A. Tokyo, Japan
- B. Los Angeles, USA
- C. Paris, France
- D. Beijing, China

121. Who is the Secretary-General of the United Nations?

- A. Ban Ki-moon
- B. Kofi Annan
- C. Antonio Guterres
- D. Boutros Boutros-Ghali

122. Name a permanent member of the UN Security Council.

- A. Brazil
- B. Germany
- C. Russia
- D. India

123. What is the capital of Nigeria?

- A. Lagos
- B. Abuja
- C. Port Harcourt
- D. Kano

124. Which of the following is an Anglophone country?

- A. Mali
- B. Senegal
- C. Nigeria
- D. Burkina Faso

125. Which of the following is NOT a Francophone country?

 - A. Niger
- B. Nigeria
- C. Mali
- D. Senegal

126. Which two countries in West Africa are non-members of ECOWAS?

- A. Nigeria and Ghana
- B. Mauritania and Cameroon
- C. Liberia and Sierra Leone
- D. Benin and Togo

127. What is Nigeria's motto?

- A. Peace and Unity
- B. Unity & Faith, Peace & Progress
- C. Freedom and Justice
- D. Strength in Diversity

128. What does ICPC stand for?

- A. Independent Corrupt Practices Commission
- B. Independent Community of Public Conduct
- C. International Commission for Public Corruption
- D. Independent Committee on Political Conduct

129. When was the ICPC signed into law?

- A. 2000
- B. 2004
- C. 1999
- D. 2002

130. What is EFCC?

- A. Economic and Financial Crimes Commission
- B. Economic and Fiscal Commission
- C. Economic Fraud Control Commission
- D. Economic Financing and Credit Commission

131. Which of the following is an offence listed in the Anti-Corruption Bill?

- A. Tax Evasion
- B. Accepting Gratifications
- C. Money Laundering
- D. Identity Theft

132. What does OPEC stand for?

- A. Organization of Public Exporting Countries
- B. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
 - C. Organization of People’s Economies
- D. Organization of Petroleum and Energy Cooperation

133. Name one African member of OPEC.

- A. Egypt
- B. Nigeria
- C. Kenya
- D. Ghana

134. Which state in Nigeria shares a boundary with Cameroon?

- A. Kano
- B. Lagos
- C. Adamawa
- D. Enugu

135. What is the appellation for Abia State?

- A. God's Own State
- B. Home of Peace
- C. Center of Excellence
- D. Pearl of Tourism

136. Who is the current Chairman of the National Sports Commission?

- A. Mallam Shehu Dikko
- B. Solomon Dalung
- C. Sunday Dare
- D. Amaju Pinnick

137. Who is the current Minister of Defence?

- A. Mohammed Badaru
- B. Bashir Magashi
- C. Mansur Dan-Ali
- D. Dan Ali

138. Who is the current Minister of State for Health?

- A. Dr. Iziak Salako
- B. Dr. Tunji Alausa
- C. Dr. Osagie Ehanire
- D. Dr. Abubakar Bukola Saraki

139. Who is the current Minister of Foreign Affairs?

- A. Geoffrey Onyeama
- B. Yusuf M. Tuggar
- C. Olugbenga Ashiru
- D. Aminu Wali
140. Who is the current Group Managing Director of NNPC?
- A. Mele Kyari
- B. Mohammed Sanusi Barkindo
- C. Ibe Kachikwu
- D. Mohammed Aliyu

141. How many Local Government Councils are recognized in the Nigerian Constitution?
- A. 774
- B. 360
- C. 109
- D. 50

142. Who is the Director-General of the National Action Committee on Aids (NACA)?
- A. Dr. Temitope Ilori
- B. Dr. Osagie Ehanire
- C. Dr. Chikwe Ihekweazu
- D. Dr. Aliyu Sabi Abdullahi

143. Who is the Permanent Secretary of the Federal Ministry of Health and Social Welfare?
- A. Ms. Kachollom Daju Shangti
- B. Dr. Osagie Ehanire
- C. Dr. Abubakar Bukola Saraki
- D. Dr. Tunji Alausa

144. Who is the current Chairman of INEC?

- A. Prof. Yakub Mohammed
- B. Attahiru Jega
- C. Amina Zakari
- D. Mahmood Yakubu

145. What is the capital of Niger State?

- A. Minna
- B. Bida
- C. Kontagora
- D. Suleja

146. Who is the current Minister of State for Works?

- A. David Umahi
- B. Barr. Bello M. Goronyo
- C. Babatunde Fashola
- D. Uche Nnaji

147. Who is the current Minister of Transportation?

 - A. Chibuike Amaechi
- B. Sa’idu Alkali
- C. David Umahi
- D. Femi Fani-Kayode

148. Which state is known as the "Gateway State"?

- A. Ogun
- B. Lagos
- C. Oyo
- D. Benue

149. What is the capital of Rivers State?

- A. Port Harcourt
- B. Abuja
- C. Calabar
- D. Uyo

150. Who is the current Head of the Civil Service of the Federation?
- A. Mrs. Didi Esther Walson Jack
- B. Mrs. Winifred Oyo-Ita
- C. Dr. Folashade Yemi-Esan
- D. Dr. Eileen Okwudire

151. Who is the current Minister of Humanitarian Affairs and Poverty Reduction?
- A. Dr. Nentawe Yilwatda
- B. Sadiya Umar Farouq
- C. Dati Kachalla
- D. Zainab Ahmed

152. What is the capital of Kaduna State?

- A. Kaduna
- B. Zaria
- C. Kafanchan
- D. Jaji

153. Who is the current Minister of Youth Development?

- A. Ayodele Olawande
- B. Sunday Dare
- C. Abdurrahman Dambazau
- D. Mohammed Badaru

154. What is the capital of Ogun State?

- A. Abeokuta
- B. Ijebu-Ode
 - C. Sagamu
- D. Ota

155. Who is the current Minister of Agriculture and Food Security?

- A. Abubakar Kyari
- B. Sabo Nanono
- C. Audu Ogbeh
- D. Akinwumi Adesina

156. Who is the current Minister of Communication, Innovation and Digital Economy?
- A. Bosun Tijani
- B. Isa Ali Pantami
- C. Adebayo Shittu
- D. Lai Mohammed

157. Which state is referred to as the "Treasure Base" of Nigeria?

- A. Rivers
- B. Delta
- C. Lagos
- D. Bayelsa

158. Who is the current Minister of Information and Culture?

- A. Lai Mohammed
- B. Mohammed Idris
- C. Femi Adesina
- D. Abike Dabiri

159. What is the capital of Imo State?

- A. Owerri
- B. Aba
- C. Okigwe
- D. Orlu

160. Who is the current Minister of Environment?

- A. Mohammed Abdullahi
- B. Balarabe Abbas Lawal
- C. Ibrahim Jibril
- D. Amina Mohammed

161. Who is the current Secretary to the Federal Government of Nigeria?

- A. George Akume
- B. Babachir Lawal
- C. Anyim Pius Anyim
- D. Abba Kyari
162. What is the capital of Sokoto State?
- A. Sokoto
- B. Gusau
- C. Kebbi
- D. Kaura Namoda

163. What is the capital of Cross River State?

- A. Calabar
- B. Ugep
- C. Ikom
- D. Ogoja

164. Who is the current Minister of State for Finance?

- A. Dr. Doris Ozoka-Anite
- B. Zainab Ahmed
- C. Wale Edun
- D. Abubakar Malami

165. Who is the current Minister of State for Trade and Investment?
- A. Nkiruka Onyejeocha
- B. John Owan Enoh
- C. Adeniyi Adebayo
- D. Adebayo Shittu

166. What is the capital of Yobe State?

- A. Damaturu
- B. Potiskum
- C. Nguru
- D. Gashua

167. Who is the current Minister of Solid Minerals Development?

- A. Dele Alake
- B. Olamilekan Adegbite
- C. Abubakar Bwari
- D. Kayode Fayemi

168. What is the capital of Ebonyi State?

- A. Abakaliki
- B. Afikpo
- C. Ivo
- D. Izzi

169. Who is the current Minister of Steel Development?

 - A. Shuaibu A. Audu
- B. Olamilekan Adegbite
- C. Dele Alake
- D. Kayode Fayemi

170. What is the capital of Gombe State?

- A. Gombe
- B. Bajoga
- C. Kaltungo
- D. Billiri

171. Who is the current Minister of Defence (State)?

- A. Bello Matawalle
- B. Mohammed Badaru
- C. Dan Ali
- D. Danjuma Goje

172. Who is the current Minister of State for Works?

- A. Barr. Bello M. Goronyo
- B. David Umahi
- C. Babatunde Fashola
- D. Uche Nnaji

173. What is the capital of Taraba State?

- A. Jalingo
- B. Wukari
- C. Bali
- D. Zing

174. Who is the current Minister of Special Duties and Inter-Governmental Affairs?
- A. Zephaniah Jisalo
- B. Abubakar Momoh
- C. Femi Adesina
- D. Lai Mohammed

175. What is the capital of Nasarawa State?

- A. Lafia
- B. Keffi
- C. Doma
- D. Akwanga

176. Who is the current Minister of Regional Development?

- A. Abubakar Momoh
- B. Nyesom Wike
 - C. David Umahi
- D. Babatunde Fashola

177. What is the capital of Borno State?

- A. Maiduguri
- B. Bama
- C. Gubio
- D. Chibok

178. Who is the current Minister of State for Agriculture and Food Security?
- A. Aliyu Sabi Abdullahi
- B. Abubakar Kyari
- C. Audu Ogbeh
- D. Sabo Nanono

179. What is the capital of Kebbi State?

- A. Birnin Kebbi
- B. Argungu
- C. Zuru
- D. Jega

180. Who is the current Minister of State for Petroleum Resources (Gas)?
- A. Ekperipe Ekpo
- B. Heineken Lokpobiri
- C. Timipre Sylva
- D. Mohammed Barkindo

181. Who is the current President of Nigeria?

- A. Muhammadu Buhari
- B. Bola Ahmed Tinubu
- C. Goodluck Jonathan
- D. Abdulsalami Abubakar

182. What is the capital of Nigeria?

- A. Lagos
- B. Abuja
- C. Port Harcourt
- D. Kano

183. Who is the current Governor of Lagos State?

- A. Babajide Sanwo-Olu
- B. Akinwunmi Ambode
- C. Bola Ahmed Tinubu
- D. Raji Fashola
184. What is the capital of Abia State?
- A. Umuahia
- B. Aba
- C. Ohafia
- D. Ikwuano

185. Who is the current Minister of Interior in Nigeria?

- A. Rauf Aregbesola
- B. Mohammed Badaru
- C. Ogbeni Rauf Aregbesola
- D. Abba Kyari

186. Which state is known as the "Home of Peace" in Nigeria?

- A. Abia
- B. Yobe
- C. Gombe
- D. Adamawa

187. Who is the current Governor of Ekiti State?

- A. Kayode Fayemi
- B. Biodun Oyebanji
- C. Ayo Fayose
- D. Abiodun Abayomi

188. Who is the current Minister of Information and Culture in Nigeria?

- A. Lai Mohammed
- B. Mohammed Idris
- C. Femi Adesina
- D. Abike Dabiri

189. What does NAFDAC stand for?

- A. National Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control
- B. National Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Certification
- C. National Agency for Food Development and Control
- D. National Authority for Food and Drug Administration and Control

190. Who is the current Chief Justice of Nigeria?

- A. Tanko Muhammad
- B. Walter Onnoghen
- C. Olukayode Ariwoola
- D. Mary Odili

191. What is the capital of Niger State?

 - A. Minna
- B. Bida
- C. Kontagora
- D. Suleja

192. Who is the current Chairman of the Nigerian Governors' Forum?

- A. Kayode Fayemi
- B. Aminu Waziri Tambuwal
- C. David Umahi
- D. Dapo Abiodun

193. What is the capital of Osun State?

- A. Osogbo
- B. Ife
- C. Ilesha
- D. Ede

194. Who is the current Minister of Youth and Sports Development?

- A. Sunday Dare
- B. Solomon Dalung
- C. Sadiya Umar Farouq
- D. Abubakar Malami

195. What is the capital of Benue State?

- A. Makurdi
- B. Gboko
- C. Otukpo
- D. Katsina-Ala

196. Who is the current Minister of Works and Housing?

- A. Babatunde Fashola
- B. David Umahi
- C. Raji Fashola
- D. Abubakar Malami

197. What is the capital of Ebonyi State?

- A. Abakaliki
- B. Afikpo
- C. Ivo
- D. Izzi

198. Who is the current Minister of State for Petroleum Resources?

- A. Timipre Sylva
- B. Heineken Lokpobiri
 - C. Mohammed Barkindo
- D. Abubakar Kyari

199. What is the capital of Kano State?

- A. Kano
- B. Zaria
- C. Katsina
- D. Funtua

200. Who is the current Governor of Rivers State?

- A. Nyesom Wike
- B. Rotimi Amaechi
- C. Ezenwo Nyesom Wike
- D. Chibuike Amaechi

Answers
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18.
A 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. B 32. B 33. B 34.
C 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. A 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. A
51. A 52. A 53. B 54. B 55. A 56. A 57. A 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. A 62. A 63. A 64. A 65. B 66. A
67. B 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. A 81. A 82. A
83. A 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. A 90. A 91. A 92. B 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. A
99. A 100. A 101. A 102. C 103. B 104. B 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. C 110. B 111. B
112. C 113. B 114. B 115. B 116. D 117. B 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. A 122. A 123. B 124. A
125. B 126. B 127. B 128. A 129. A 130. A 131. B 132. B 133. A 134. B 135. A 136. A 137. A
138. A 139. B 140. A 141. B 142. B 143. A 144. A 145. A 146. A 147. A 148. A 149. A 150. A
151. A 152. A 153. A 154. A 155. A 156. A 157. A 158. A 159. A 160. A 161. A 162. B 163. A
164. A 165. A 166. A 167. B 168. A 169. A 170. A 171. B 172. A 173. A 174. A 175. A 176. A
177. A 178. D 179. A 180. A 181. B 182. B 183. A 184. A 185. A 186. C 187. B 188. A 189. A
190. A 191. A 192. A 193. A 194. A 195. A 196. A 197. A 198. B 199. A 200. A
General

1. What is the Patient Bill of Rights?

- A. A list of patient privileges
- B. A healthcare policy document
- C. A legal requirement for hospitals
- D. None of the above

2. What does "right" mean in the context of patient rights?

- A. A privilege granted by law
- B. A moral entitlement
- C. A suggestion from healthcare providers
- D. A temporary allowance

3. What is a responsibility attached to patient rights?

- A. To demand specific treatments
- B. To provide accurate health information
- C. To refuse all treatments
- D. To ignore medical advice

4. Why are patients more knowledgeable today?

- A. Increased access to information
- B. More training for healthcare providers
- C. Fewer treatment options
- D. Less reliance on technology

5. What is the first item in the Patient Bill of Rights?

- A. Information disclosure
- B. Choices of providers
- C. Access to emergency services
- D. Confidentiality of health information

6. Do patients have the right to choose their healthcare provider?

- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Only in emergencies
- D. Only for specialists

7. What does "information disclosure" entail for patients?

- A. Sharing personal information with anyone
- B. Receiving accurate health information
- C. Disclosure of financial records
- D. None of the above
8. Are patients entitled to access emergency services?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Only during business hours
- D. Only if they have insurance

9. Can patients participate in treatment decisions?

- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Only with a guardian
- D. Only if they ask

10. What does respect and non-discrimination mean for patients?

- A. Equal treatment regardless of background
- B. Special treatment for certain individuals
- C. No rights for minority groups
- D. Varying rights based on insurance

11. How is confidentiality of health information maintained?

- A. By sharing information freely
- B. Through secure systems and practices
- C. By notifying family members
- D. None of the above

12. What are patients’ rights regarding complaints and appeals?

- A. No rights in this area
- B. To voice concerns without repercussions
- C. To file complaints only in writing
- D. To appeal only to hospital administration

13. Why is it important for patients to make informed decisions?

- A. To comply with hospital policies
- B. To advocate for their own health
- C. To avoid financial costs
- D. None of the above

14. How does technology influence patient rights?

- A. It decreases patient knowledge
- B. It increases access to information
- C. It complicates healthcare
- D. It has no effect

15. What role does the healthcare provider play in informing patients?
- A. To decide for the patient
 - B. To provide necessary information
- C. To withhold information
- D. None of the above

16. What is informed consent?

- A. A verbal agreement
- B. An agreement based on complete information
- C. A document without explanation
- D. None of the above

17. Who provides the information for informed consent?

- A. The patient
- B. The healthcare provider
- C. Family members
- D. Insurance companies

18. What must be included in the information for informed consent?

- A. Risks and benefits of treatment
- B. Cost of treatment only
- C. Personal opinions
- D. None of the above

19. Is a signed form the same as informed consent?

- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Only sometimes
- D. Depends on the situation

20. What are exceptions in obtaining consent?

- A. Only for adults
- B. Minors and unconscious individuals
- C. Only for emergency cases
- D. None of the above

21. Who is considered a minor in the context of informed consent?

- A. Anyone under 18
- B. Anyone under 21
- C. Anyone under 16
- D. None of the above

22. What happens if a patient is unconscious?

- A. Consent is not needed
- B. Consent must be obtained anyway
- C. Care can be given without consent
 - D. None of the above

23. What are the major elements of informed consent?

- A. Voluntary agreement and understanding
- B. Written documentation only
- C. Verbal consent only
- D. None of the above

24. What does it mean for consent to be given voluntarily?

- A. It is coerced
- B. It is given freely without pressure
- C. It is given only in writing
- D. None of the above

25. Who must understand the information provided for informed consent?
- A. The healthcare provider only
- B. The patient
- C. Family members
- D. Insurance representatives

26. What does TSA stand for?

- A. Treasury Single Account
- B. Total Savings Account
- C. Tax Savings Account
- D. None of the above

27. What is the purpose of the Treasury Single Account?

- A. To manage personal finances
- B. To consolidate government cash resources
- C. To provide loans to citizens
- D. None of the above

28. How does TSA provide a view of government cash resources?

- A. By separating accounts
- B. By consolidating funds into one account
- C. By limiting access to funds
- D. None of the above

29. What is one advantage of the TSA?

- A. Increased borrowing
- B. Complete cash visibility
- C. Higher transaction fees
- D. None of the above
30. How does TSA assist in budget execution?
- A. By making funds unavailable
- B. By providing full cash information
- C. By complicating budget planning
- D. None of the above

31. What does efficient cash management refer to in TSA?

- A. Poor fund allocation
- B. Effective use of government funds
- C. Increased financial risks
- D. None of the above

32. How does TSA minimize bank transaction fees?

- A. By using multiple banks
- B. By consolidating transactions
- C. By withdrawing funds frequently
- D. None of the above

33. What impact does TSA have on borrowing requirements?

- A. It increases borrowing
- B. It reduces borrowing needs
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

34. How does TSA facilitate e-payment?

- A. By restricting electronic transactions
- B. By simplifying payment processes
- C. By complicating financial systems
- D. None of the above

35. Why is lowering liquidity reserves important?

- A. To increase financial risk
- B. To improve cash flow management
- C. To limit access to funds
- D. None of the above

36. How is management defined?

- A. An act of controlling resources
- B. An act of using human and material resources
- C. An act of ignoring employee needs
- D. None of the above

37. What does POSDCORB stand for?

- A. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting
 - B. Planning, Organizing, Structuring, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting
- C. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Controlling, Reporting, Budgeting
- D. None of the above

38. What is the concept of division of labor?

- A. All employees do the same tasks
- B. Specialization in different areas
- C. No division among employees
- D. None of the above

39. How does specialization promote efficiency?

- A. By creating confusion
- B. By enhancing skills in specific areas
- C. By limiting employee engagement
- D. None of the above

40. What are common service departments in an organization?

- A. Finance and IT
- B. Marketing and Production
- C. Finance and Personnel
- D. None of the above

41. How can managers motivate staff?

- A. Through punishment
- B. By providing incentives
- C. By limiting communication
- D. None of the above

42. What does "lead by example" mean in management?

- A. To set a poor standard
- B. To model desired behaviors
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

43. Why is a good working environment important?

- A. To lower costs
- B. To improve employee satisfaction
- C. To increase turnover
- D. None of the above

44. How can participation in workshops benefit employees?

- A. By wasting time
- B. By enhancing skills and knowledge
- C. By limiting development
 - D. None of the above

45. What is the role of remuneration in motivation?

- A. To discourage productivity
- B. To ensure employees are compensated fairly
- C. To confuse employees
- D. None of the above

46. How can the payment of admission deposits curb patient debts?
- A. By increasing costs
- B. By providing immediate funds
- C. By discouraging admissions
- D. None of the above

47. What is the purpose of routine assessments by assessors?

- A. To increase patient bills
- B. To monitor payment capabilities
- C. To ignore financial situations
- D. None of the above

48. How can installment payments help prevent bill accumulation?

- A. By allowing larger debts
- B. By spreading out payment over time
- C. By increasing financial burdens
- D. None of the above

49. Why is it important to encourage patients to pay for investigations?

- A. To increase hospital profits
- B. To prevent financial strain
- C. To disregard treatment quality
- D. None of the above

50. How can monitoring evidence of payment reduce debts?

- A. By ignoring payments
- B. By tracking payment history
- C. By complicating payment processes
- D. None of the above

51. What is the role of assessment sheets in managing patient debts?

- A. To complicate billing
- B. To streamline financial assessments
- C. To ignore financial situations
- D. None of the above
52. What does the principle of unity of command mean?
- A. Multiple managers for each employee
- B. One manager gives orders to each employee
- C. No clear authority
- D. None of the above

53. How does unity of direction enhance organizational focus?

- A. By allowing disparate goals
- B. By aligning activities towards common objectives
- C. By complicating team efforts
- D. None of the above

54. What is the importance of discipline in management?

- A. It encourages disobedience
- B. It fosters obedience and respect
- C. It has no effect on performance
- D. None of the above

55. How does centralization affect decision-making?

- A. It distributes decision-making
- B. It concentrates authority at the top
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

56. What are the types of remuneration?

- A. Non-monetary only
- B. Monetary only
- C. Both monetary and non-monetary
- D. None of the above

57. Why is subordination of individual interest important?

- A. To prioritize personal goals
- B. To focus on organizational goals
- C. To ignore teamwork
- D. None of the above

58. How do authority and responsibility relate to each other?

- A. They are unrelated
- B. Authority gives the right to give orders, responsibility follows
- C. Responsibility comes before authority
- D. None of the above

59. What resources must employees have according to the order principle?
- A. None
 - B. The right tools and environment
- C. Only financial resources
- D. None of the above

60. What does the scalar chain principle entail?

- A. No hierarchy in management
- B. Clear lines of authority from top to bottom
- C. Equal authority for all employees
- D. None of the above

61. What does esprit de corps stand for in management?

- A. Individual efforts only
- B. Teamwork and unity among employees
- C. Competition among staff
- D. None of the above

62. Why is equity important in employee treatment?

- A. To promote favoritism
- B. To ensure fair treatment for all
- C. To prioritize certain employees
- D. None of the above

63. How does stability of tenure benefit an organization?

- A. By increasing turnover
- B. By fostering continuity and loyalty
- C. By complicating management
- D. None of the above

64. What are some methods to reduce industrial action?

- A. Ignoring employee concerns
- B. Counseling and dialogue
- C. Reducing benefits
- D. None of the above

65. How can counseling help in the workplace?

- A. By increasing stress
- B. By addressing employee grievances
- C. By discouraging communication
- D. None of the above

66. What role does dialogue play in employee relations?

- A. It complicates relationships
- B. It fosters understanding and resolution
- C. It has no impact
 - D. None of the above

67. Why are peaceful meetings important?

- A. To foster conflict
- B. To promote collaboration
- C. To ignore issues
- D. None of the above

68. What is mediation, and how does it help?

- A. A way to ignore conflicts
- B. A process to resolve disputes
- C. A method to increase tensions
- D. None of the above

69. How can educational workshops improve workplace relations?

- A. By increasing ignorance
- B. By enhancing skills and knowledge
- C. By complicating policies
- D. None of the above

70. Why is a cordial relationship with unions essential?

- A. To promote conflict
- B. To foster collaboration and dialogue
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

71. What does the principle of initiative encourage?

- A. Employee passivity
- B. Employee creativity and involvement
- C. Strict adherence to rules
- D. None of the above

72. How can management encourage innovation among employees?

- A. By restricting ideas
- B. By allowing expression of new ideas
- C. By ignoring suggestions
- D. None of the above

73. What are the benefits of allowing employees to take initiative?

- A. Decreased engagement
- B. Increased motivation and value
- C. Increased confusion
- D. None of the above
74. How does employee initiative contribute to organizational success?
- A. By promoting competition
- B. By fostering a sense of ownership
- C. By limiting creativity
- D. None of the above

75. What resources should be available to support employee initiatives?

- A. No resources needed
- B. Information and tools
- C. Only financial resources
- D. None of the above

76. What is one way to improve patient engagement?

- A. Ignore patient feedback
- B. Provide clear information about rights
- C. Limit patient choices
- D. None of the above

77. What is the significance of effective management in healthcare settings?

- A. To increase patient dissatisfaction
- B. To improve patient outcomes and satisfaction
- C. To complicate operations
- D. None of the above

78. How can healthcare providers ensure compliance with patient rights?
- A. By ignoring complaints
- B. By training staff on patient rights
- C. By limiting patient information
- D. None of the above

79. What are the long-term benefits of effective management?

- A. Increased turnover
- B. Improved employee satisfaction and productivity
- C. Decreased patient care quality
- D. None of the above

80. Why is it important to monitor employee workload?

- A. To increase stress
- B. To prevent burnout and improve performance
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

81. How can organizations support employee mental health?

- A. By ignoring mental health issues
 - B. By providing resources and support
- C. By increasing workloads
- D. None of the above

82. What is the role of feedback in employee performance?

- A. To discourage improvement
- B. To provide guidance and recognition
- C. To complicate evaluations
- D. None of the above

83. How can effective communication prevent industrial action?

- A. By increasing misunderstandings
- B. By fostering transparency and trust
- C. By ignoring employee concerns
- D. None of the above

84. What is the impact of management principles on organizational success?

- A. They have no impact
- B. They guide effective operations and strategy
- C. They complicate decision-making
- D. None of the above

85. How does the principle of equity ensure fair treatment?

- A. By promoting favoritism
- B. By ensuring equal opportunities for all employees
- C. By ignoring differences
- D. None of the above

86. What is the importance of leadership in fostering a positive workplace

87. What is the importance of leadership in fostering a positive workplace?

- A. To enforce strict rules
- B. To inspire and guide employees
- C. To ignore employee morale
- D. None of the above

88. How can management practices evolve in the next decade?

- A. By becoming more authoritarian
- B. By embracing technology and flexibility
- C. By discouraging employee input
- D. None of the above

89. What changes in employee relations might we see in the future?

- A. Increased conflict
 - B. Greater emphasis on collaboration
- C. More hierarchical structures
- D. None of the above

90. How can healthcare systems improve patient engagement?

- A. By limiting patient access to information
- B. By encouraging patient involvement in decision-making
- C. By ignoring patient preferences
- D. None of the above

91. What is the relationship between patient rights and ethical healthcare?
- A. They are unrelated
- B. Ethical healthcare supports patient rights
- C. Ethical healthcare conflicts with patient rights
- D. None of the above

92. How can informed consent processes be standardized?

- A. By providing uniform information
- B. By ignoring patient needs
- C. By varying the process by provider
- D. None of the above

93. What are the long-term implications of not obtaining informed consent?
- A. Increased patient trust
- B. Potential legal consequences
- C. Improved patient outcomes
- D. None of the above

94. How does the concept of TSA reflect financial responsibility?

- A. By allowing unchecked spending
- B. By consolidating government funds for better oversight
- C. By complicating financial management
- D. None of the above

95. What methods can be used to motivate employees effectively?

- A. Providing incentives and recognition
- B. Ignoring employee contributions
- C. Increasing workloads without support
- D. None of the above

96. How can organizations balance centralization and decentralization?

- A. By ignoring organizational structure
- B. By assessing decision-making needs and delegating appropriately
- C. By centralizing all decisions
 - D. None of the above

97. What role does communication play in management?

- A. It complicates processes
- B. It fosters understanding and cooperation
- C. It has no impact
- D. None of the above

98. Why is it essential to invest in employee development?

- A. To increase turnover
- B. To enhance skills and improve retention
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

99. What is the purpose of employee feedback?

- A. To discourage improvement
- B. To provide constructive criticism and support
- C. To create confusion
- D. None of the above

100. How can organizations address the needs of diverse employee populations?
- A. By ignoring diversity
- B. By implementing inclusive policies and practices
- C. By treating all employees the same
- D. None of the above

101. How can healthcare providers enhance informed consent?

- A. By providing clear and comprehensive information
- B. By limiting patient questions
- C. By using technical jargon
- D. None of the above

102. What steps should be taken to ensure compliance with patient rights?
- A. Training staff and reviewing policies
- B. Ignoring patient complaints
- C. Limiting patient access to information
- D. None of the above

103. How can patient rights influence healthcare quality?

- A. By prioritizing profits over care
- B. By ensuring patient-centered practices
- C. By complicating treatment processes
- D. None of the above
104. What is a key benefit of a well-implemented TSA?
- A. Increased complexity in financial management
- B. Improved transparency in government finances
- C. Higher borrowing needs
- D. None of the above

105. How do management principles guide organizational success?

- A. By complicating operations
- B. By providing a framework for decision-making
- C. By ignoring employee needs
- D. None of the above

106. What is the significance of recognizing employee achievements?

- A. To increase competition
- B. To foster motivation and morale
- C. To discourage teamwork
- D. None of the above

107. How can effective management reduce industrial action?

- A. By ignoring employee concerns
- B. By fostering open communication and addressing issues
- C. By increasing workloads
- D. None of the above

108. What is the impact of employee morale on performance?

- A. Higher morale leads to better performance
- B. Morale has no impact on performance
- C. Lower morale leads to better performance
- D. None of the above

109. How can managers create a positive workplace culture?

- A. By promoting competition
- B. By fostering collaboration and respect
- C. By ignoring employee feedback
- D. None of the above

110. How does effective leadership influence team dynamics?

- A. It creates division
- B. It fosters trust and collaboration
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

111. What is one challenge in maintaining employee engagement?

- A. High turnover rates
 - B. Consistent communication
- C. A supportive work environment
- D. None of the above

112. How can organizations ensure fair treatment of employees?

- A. By prioritizing certain individuals
- B. By implementing equitable policies
- C. By ignoring performance
- D. None of the above

113. What is a common barrier to effective communication in the workplace?

- A. Open dialogue
- B. Hierarchical structures
- C. Regular feedback
- D. None of the above

114. How can technology support informed consent processes?

- A. By complicating access to information
- B. By providing clear digital resources
- C. By ignoring patient needs
- D. None of the above

115. What is the significance of providing incentives in the workplace?

- A. To discourage performance
- B. To motivate employees and enhance productivity
- C. To limit engagement
- D. None of the above

116. How can organizations create a culture of innovation?

- A. By restricting new ideas
- B. By encouraging creativity and risk-taking
- C. By punishing mistakes
- D. None of the above

117. What role does trust play in employee relations?

- A. It complicates interactions
- B. It fosters collaboration and loyalty
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

118. How can employee training improve organizational performance?

- A. By increasing turnover
- B. By enhancing skills and knowledge
- C. By complicating processes
 - D. None of the above

119. What is the role of feedback in enhancing employee performance?

- A. To discourage improvement
- B. To provide constructive guidance
- C. To confuse employees
- D. None of the above

120. How does a positive work environment affect employee retention?

- A. It decreases retention
- B. It increases retention
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

121. What is one way to improve communication among team members?

- A. By limiting meetings
- B. By encouraging open dialogue
- C. By restricting information sharing
- D. None of the above

122. How can organizations assess employee satisfaction?

- A. By ignoring feedback
- B. By conducting regular surveys
- C. By limiting communication
- D. None of the above

123. What is the importance of having clear policies in place?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To provide guidance and consistency
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

124. How can managers effectively handle conflicts in the workplace?

- A. By ignoring the issues
- B. By facilitating open discussions
- C. By taking sides
- D. None of the above

125. What is the impact of company culture on employee morale?

- A. A positive culture boosts morale
- B. Culture has no effect
- C. A negative culture improves morale
- D. None of the above
126. How can organizations promote diversity in the workplace?
- A. By hiring only similar individuals
- B. By implementing inclusive hiring practices
- C. By ignoring diversity
- D. None of the above

127. What is the role of mentorship in employee development?

- A. To limit growth opportunities
- B. To provide guidance and support
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

128. How can organizations ensure a safe work environment?

- A. By ignoring safety protocols
- B. By conducting regular safety training
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

129. What is the significance of setting clear goals for teams?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To provide direction and motivation
- C. To ignore progress
- D. None of the above

130. How can organizations foster a sense of community among employees?

- A. By isolating individuals
- B. By encouraging teamwork and collaboration
- C. By promoting competition
- D. None of the above

131. What is one challenge managers face in today’s workplace?

- A. Lack of resources
- B. Managing remote teams
- C. Ignoring employee feedback
- D. None of the above

132. How can organizations measure the effectiveness of their management practices?
- A. By ignoring results
- B. By evaluating performance metrics
- C. By conducting random assessments
- D. None of the above

133. What is the impact of employee empowerment on organizational success?

- A. It decreases motivation
 - B. It fosters ownership and commitment
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

134. How can organizations ensure compliance with regulations?

- A. By ignoring laws
- B. By providing training and resources
- C. By limiting access to information
- D. None of the above

135. What is the role of strategic planning in management?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To provide a roadmap for success
- C. To ignore long-term goals
- D. None of the above

136. How can organizations improve their public image?

- A. By ignoring community needs
- B. By engaging in corporate social responsibility
- C. By limiting transparency
- D. None of the above

137. What is the significance of conducting performance reviews?

- A. To criticize employees
- B. To provide feedback and support development
- C. To ignore performance issues
- D. None of the above

138. How can effective delegation benefit an organization?

- A. By increasing workloads
- B. By empowering employees and improving efficiency
- C. By complicating processes
- D. None of the above

139. What is the impact of a positive organizational culture on employee engagement?

- A. It decreases engagement
- B. It increases engagement
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

140. How can organizations address employee burnout?

- A. By ignoring workloads
- B. By providing support and resources
- C. By increasing expectations
 - D. None of the above

141. What is the importance of transparency in management?

- A. To create distrust
- B. To build trust and accountability
- C. To complicate communications
- D. None of the above

142. How can organizations foster creativity among employees?

- A. By restricting ideas
- B. By encouraging experimentation and risk-taking
- C. By ignoring suggestions
- D. None of the above

143. What is the role of HR in fostering a positive workplace culture?

- A. To enforce strict rules
- B. To support employee needs and development
- C. To ignore employee feedback
- D. None of the above

144. How can organizations ensure effective team collaboration?

- A. By promoting competition
- B. By encouraging open communication
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

145. What is the significance of recognition programs in the workplace?

- A. To create jealousy
- B. To motivate and engage employees
- C. To ignore contributions
- D. None of the above

146. How can organizations implement successful change management?

- A. By ignoring employee input
- B. By communicating transparently and providing support
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

147. What is the impact of leadership styles on employee performance?

- A. Leadership styles have no effect
- B. Different styles can motivate or demotivate employees
- C. Only authoritative styles are effective
- D. None of the above
148. How can organizations create a culture of accountability?
- A. By ignoring responsibilities
- B. By setting clear expectations and consequences
- C. By promoting ambiguity
- D. None of the above

149. What is the importance of fostering a diverse workplace?

- A. To create division
- B. To enhance creativity and innovation
- C. To ignore different perspectives
- D. None of the above

150. How can organizations ensure that their policies are effective?
- A. By ignoring feedback
- B. By regularly reviewing and updating policies
- C. By keeping policies static
- D. None of the above

151. What is the role of a performance appraisal in employee development?

- A. To provide constructive feedback
- B. To create tension
- C. To ignore weaknesses
- D. None of the above

152. How can organizations promote work-life balance?

- A. By increasing workloads
- B. By offering flexible schedules and resources
- C. By ignoring employee needs
- D. None of the above

153. What is the significance of teamwork in achieving organizational goals?

- A. It complicates processes
- B. It fosters collaboration and efficiency
- C. It has no impact
- D. None of the above

154. How can organizations measure employee engagement?

- A. By ignoring feedback
- B. By conducting regular surveys and assessments
- C. By limiting communication
- D. None of the above

155. What is the role of communication in effective management?

- A. To create confusion
 - B. To foster understanding and cooperation
- C. To ignore employee input
- D. None of the above

156. How can organizations support career advancement for employees?

- A. By limiting development opportunities
- B. By providing training and mentorship
- C. By ignoring performance
- D. None of the above

157. What is the impact of organizational structure on employee performance?

- A. It has no effect
- B. It can enhance or hinder efficiency
- C. It complicates roles
- D. None of the above

158. How can effective leadership improve team morale?

- A. By enforcing strict rules
- B. By inspiring and supporting team members
- C. By ignoring employee needs
- D. None of the above

159. What is the significance of employee involvement in decision-making?

- A. It complicates processes
- B. It fosters a sense of ownership and commitment
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

160. How can organizations create a culture of continuous improvement?

- A. By ignoring feedback
- B. By encouraging innovation and learning
- C. By limiting growth opportunities
- D. None of the above

161. What is the role of ethics in management?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To guide decision-making and behavior
- C. To ignore consequences
- D. None of the above

162. How can organizations foster a sense of belonging among employees?

- A. By isolating individuals
- B. By promoting teamwork and inclusivity
- C. By ignoring diversity
 - D. None of the above

163. What is the impact of employee feedback on organizational success?

- A. It complicates processes
- B. It provides valuable insights for improvement
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

164. How can organizations ensure effective training programs?

- A. By ignoring employee needs
- B. By assessing skills and providing relevant training
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

165. What is the importance of setting clear expectations for employees?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To provide direction and accountability
- C. To ignore performance
- D. None of the above

166. How can organizations build trust with employees?

- A. By being transparent and honest
- B. By ignoring concerns
- C. By creating ambiguity
- D. None of the above

167. What is the significance of employee wellness programs?

- A. To discourage health
- B. To promote well-being and productivity
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

168. How can organizations leverage technology for employee engagement?

- A. By complicating processes
- B. By using tools for communication and collaboration
- C. By ignoring tech advancements
- D. None of the above

169. What is the role of leadership in fostering innovation?

- A. To restrict ideas
- B. To encourage creativity and risk-taking
- C. To ignore suggestions
- D. None of the above
170. How can organizations ensure that their culture aligns with their values?
- A. By ignoring discrepancies
- B. By regularly assessing and adjusting practices
- C. By keeping culture static
- D. None of the above

171. What is the impact of a positive organizational culture on employee performance?

- A. It decreases performance
- B. It enhances motivation and productivity
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

172. How can organizations promote effective teamwork?

- A. By encouraging competition
- B. By fostering collaboration and communication
- C. By ignoring team dynamics
- D. None of the above

173. What is the significance of diversity in the workplace?

- A. It creates division
- B. It enhances creativity and problem-solving
- C. It has no impact
- D. None of the above

174. How can organizations ensure fair hiring practices?

- A. By prioritizing certain demographics
- B. By implementing unbiased recruitment processes
- C. By ignoring qualifications
- D. None of the above

175. What is the role of training in employee development?

- A. To limit growth opportunities
- B. To enhance skills and knowledge
- C. To ignore employee needs
- D. None of the above

176. How can organizations assess the effectiveness of their training programs?
- A. By ignoring outcomes
- B. By measuring performance improvements
- C. By conducting random evaluations
- D. None of the above

177. What is the importance of having clear communication channels?

- A. To create confusion
 - B. To facilitate information flow and collaboration
- C. To ignore employee feedback
- D. None of the above

178. How can organizations address workplace stress?

- A. By ignoring mental health
- B. By providing resources and support
- C. By increasing workloads
- D. None of the above

179. What is the significance of recognition in the workplace?

- A. To create jealousy among employees
- B. To motivate and engage staff
- C. To ignore contributions
- D. None of the above

180. How can organizations create a safe working environment?

- A. By ignoring safety protocols
- B. By implementing health and safety measures
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

181. What is the role of strategic vision in management?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To guide long-term planning and decision-making
- C. To ignore organizational goals
- D. None of the above

182. How can organizations promote a culture of learning?

- A. By ignoring mistakes
- B. By encouraging continuous education and development
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

183. What is the significance of feedback loops in organizations?

- A. To create confusion
- B. To facilitate continuous improvement
- C. To ignore employee input
- D. None of the above

184. How can organizations ensure accountability at all levels?

- A. By ignoring responsibilities
- B. By setting clear expectations and consequences
- C. By promoting ambiguity
 - D. None of the above

185. What is the impact of effective conflict resolution on team dynamics?

- A. It creates division
- B. It fosters collaboration and trust
- C. It has no effect
- D. None of the above

186. How can organizations improve their customer service?

- A. By ignoring customer feedback
- B. By training employees and fostering a customer-centric culture
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

187. What is the role of emotional intelligence in leadership?

- A. To create division
- B. To enhance interpersonal skills and relationships
- C. To ignore team dynamics
- D. None of the above

188. How can organizations promote sustainability in their practices?

- A. By ignoring environmental impact
- B. By implementing eco-friendly policies
- C. By increasing waste
- D. None of the above

189. What is the significance of employee surveys?

- A. To create division
- B. To gather insights for improvement
- C. To ignore employee opinions
- D. None of the above

190. How can organizations leverage data analytics for decision-making?

- A. By ignoring data
- B. By using data to inform strategies and improvements
- C. By complicating processes
- D. None of the above

191. What is the role of a mentor in an employee's career?

- A. To limit growth opportunities
- B. To provide guidance and support
- C. To ignore professional development
⁹ - D. None of the above
192. How can organizations ensure effective onboarding for new employees?
- A. By providing little information
- B. By offering comprehensive training and support
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

193. What is the impact of leadership on organizational culture?

- A. It has no effect
- B. Leadership shapes and influences culture
- C. It complicates culture
- D. None of the above

194. How can organizations address issues of workplace harassment?

- A. By ignoring complaints
- B. By implementing clear policies and training
- C. By limiting resources
- D. None of the above

195. What is the significance of collaboration in achieving goals?

- A. It complicates processes
- B. It enhances efficiency and outcomes
- C. It has no impact
- D. None of the above

196. How can organizations promote ethical behavior among employees?

- A. By ignoring ethics
- B. By providing training and clear guidelines
- C. By complicating policies
- D. None of the above

197. What is the role of innovation in maintaining competitiveness?

- A. To create stagnation
- B. To drive growth and adaptability
- C. To ignore market changes
- D. None of the above

198. How can organizations ensure that their values are reflected in their practices?
- A. By ignoring discrepancies
- B. By consistently aligning actions with stated values
- C. By keeping values static
- D. None of the above

199. What is the importance of resilience in the workplace?

- A. To promote vulnerability
 - B. To enhance adaptability and recovery
- C. To ignore challenges
- D. None of the above

200. How can organizations create a culture of recognition?

- A. By ignoring contributions
- B. By regularly acknowledging and rewarding achievements
- C. By promoting competition
- D. None of the above

Answers

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. B 17.

B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. B
32. B 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. B 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. B 47. B
48. B 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. B 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. B 63. B
64. B 65. B 66. B 67. B 68. B 69. B 70. B 71. B 72. B 73. B 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. B 79. B
80. B 81. B 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. B 89. B 90. B 91. B 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. A
96. B 97. B 98. B 99. B 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. B 105. B 106. B 107. B 108. B 109. B
110. B 111. B 112. B 113. B 114. B 115. B 116. B 117. B 118. B 119. B 120. B 121. B 122. B 123.
B 124. B 125. B 126. B 127. B 128. B 129. B 130. B 131. B 132. B 133. B 134. B 135. B 136. B
137. B 138. B 139. B 140. B 141. B 142. B 143. B 144. B 145. B 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. B
150. B 151. B 152. B 153. B 154. B 155. B 156. B 157. B 158. B 159. B 160. B 161. B 162. B
163. B164. B 165. B 166. B 167. B 168. B 169. B 170. B 171. B 172. B 173. B 174. B 175. B
176. B 177. B 178. B 179. B 180. B 181. B 182. B 183. B 184. B 185. B 186. B 187. B 188. B
189. B 190. B 191. B 192. B 193. B 194. B 195. B 196. B 197. B 198. B 199. B 200. B
PUBLIC SERVICE RULES(PSR)

1. Who qualifies as a child of a public servant?

a) Someone under 21 years
b) The officer’s biological offspring
c) A child of a relative
d) A child born outside of marriage

2. Which of the following is NOT an ethical value for civil servants?

a) Discipline
b) Arrogance
c) Integrity
d) Political Neutrality

3. What is the age range for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 16-40 years
b) 18-50 years
c) 21-60 years
d) 25-45 years

4. Which document is NOT required for a newly recruited officer?

a) Letter of Appointment
b) Birth Certificate
c) Driving License
d) Certificate of Medical Fitness

5. What type of appointment does NOT provide for the payment of pension?
a) Permanent appointment
b) Contract appointment
c) Temporary appointment
d) Pensionable appointment

6. Under which condition would a candidate NOT be considered for employment?

a) If they are a Nigerian
b) If they are under 18 years
c) If they have a university degree
d) If they are medically fit

7. What is the maximum period for secondment if initiated by the officer?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
8. What must accompany an application for transfer of service?
a) Evidence of Qualifications
b) Letter of Leave
c) Marriage Certificate
d) Tax Clearance

9. What is defined as a specific act of wrongdoing or improper behavior?

a) General Inefficiency
b) Misconduct
c) Professionalism
d) Discipline

10. What is the penalty for general inefficiency?

a) Warning
b) Termination of appointment
c) Suspension
d) Promotion

11. What is the total period for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

12. How many working days of annual leave are allocated for officers at SGL 04 to 06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

13. Which of the following is NOT a type of leave?

a) Sick Leave
b) Casual Leave
c) Extended Leave
d) Annual Leave

14. What is an allowance in the context of public service?

a) A type of salary
b) A monetary benefit for a specific purpose
c) A form of punishment
d) An additional duty

15. What must officers do when proceeding on medical treatment abroad?

a) Inform their supervisor
 b) Seek approval from the President
c) Fill out a medical report
d) Cancel all leave

16. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 01 - 06?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

17. Which of the following is a type of misconduct?

a) General Inefficiency
b) Habitual lateness
c) Financial embarrassment
d) All of the above

18. Which document is NOT classified in the Federal Public Service?

a) Confidential Documents
b) Public Documents
c) Top Secret Documents
d) Restricted Documents

19. What does the acronym IPPIS stand for?

a) Integrated Payroll and Personnel Information System
b) International Payroll and Personnel Information System
c) Internal Payroll and Personnel Information System
d) Independent Payroll and Personnel Information System

20. What is the duration for study leave with pay?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

1. b 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. d 18. b 19.
a 20. b
1. Who qualifies as a child of a public servant?
a) Someone under 21 years
b) The officer’s biological offspring
c) A child of a relative
d) A child born outside of marriage

2. Which of the following is NOT an ethical value for civil servants?

a) Discipline
b) Arrogance
c) Integrity
d) Political Neutrality

3. What is the age range for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 16-40 years
b) 18-50 years
c) 21-60 years
d) 25-45 years

4. Which document is NOT required for a newly recruited officer?

a) Letter of Appointment
b) Birth Certificate
c) Driving License
d) Certificate of Medical Fitness

5. What type of appointment does NOT provide for the payment of pension?
a) Permanent appointment
b) Contract appointment
c) Temporary appointment
d) Pensionable appointment

6. Under which condition would a candidate NOT be considered for employment?

a) If they are a Nigerian
b) If they are under 18 years
c) If they have a university degree
d) If they are medically fit

7. What is the maximum period for secondment if initiated by the officer?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years

8. What must accompany an application for transfer of service?

 a) Evidence of Qualifications
b) Letter of Leave
c) Marriage Certificate
d) Tax Clearance

9. What is defined as a specific act of wrongdoing or improper behavior?

a) General Inefficiency
b) Misconduct
c) Professionalism
d) Discipline

10. What is the penalty for general inefficiency?

a) Warning
b) Termination of appointment
c) Suspension
d) Promotion

11. What is the total period for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

12. How many working days of annual leave are allocated for officers at SGL 04 to 06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

13. Which of the following is NOT a type of leave?

a) Sick Leave
b) Casual Leave
c) Extended Leave
d) Annual Leave

14. What is an allowance in the context of public service?

a) A type of salary
b) A monetary benefit for a specific purpose
c) A form of punishment
d) An additional duty

15. What must officers do when proceeding on medical treatment abroad?

a) Inform their supervisor
b) Seek approval from the President
 c) Fill out a medical report
d) Cancel all leave

16. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 01 - 06?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

17. Which of the following is a type of misconduct?

a) General Inefficiency
b) Habitual lateness
c) Financial embarrassment
d) All of the above

18. Which document is NOT classified in the Federal Public Service?

a) Confidential Documents
b) Public Documents
c) Top Secret Documents
d) Restricted Documents

19. What does the acronym IPPIS stand for?

a) Integrated Payroll and Personnel Information System
b) International Payroll and Personnel Information System
c) Internal Payroll and Personnel Information System
d) Independent Payroll and Personnel Information System

20. What is the duration for study leave with pay?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

21. What is the maximum number of children allowed for a male officer to take paternity
leave?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

22. What should an officer do if they wish to leave the country while under interdiction?
a) Ignore the rules
b) Notify the Head of Civil Service
c) Leave immediately
 d) Seek approval from a colleague

23. Which of the following is NOT a core value of the Federal Civil Service?
a) Professionalism
b) Loyalty
c) Disrespect
d) Accountability

24. Which of the following is a condition for transfer of service?

a) The officer must have a pending disciplinary action
b) The appointment must have been confirmed
c) The officer must be under probation
d) The officer must be less than 30 years old

25. What is the purpose of the annual performance evaluation report (APER)?
a) To evaluate training needs
b) To assess performance for promotion
c) To determine salary increments
d) To prepare for retirement

26. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination three times?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Exit from the service
c) Reassessment
d) None

27. What is required for an officer to be considered for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for five years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

28. What is the meaning of "interdiction" in public service?

a) Complete dismissal from service
b) Temporary removal from duty
c) Permanent transfer to another department
d) Promotion to a higher position

29. What documents are required for maternity leave?

a) Medical report
b) Application letter
c) Approval from the supervisor
d) All of the above
30. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave?
a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

31. Which of the following is a type of contract appointment?

a) Permanent appointment
b) Temporary appointment
c) Pensionable appointment
d) None

32. What is the definition of "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts leading to suspension
c) Severe wrongdoing that can lead to dismissal
d) General inefficiency

33. How is a "nominal roll" used in public service?

a) To track financial expenditures
b) To capture employee details
c) To monitor attendance
d) To evaluate performance

34. What is the full meaning of the acronym "KIV"?

a) Keep in View
b) Knowledge is Vital
c) Keep in Vision
d) Knowledge is Value

35. How long is the period for study leave without pay?
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 1 year
d) 3 years

36. What is the punishment for serious financial embarrassment?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Reduction in rank

37. Which of the following allows for transfer within the same service?
a) Scheduled Service
 b) Temporary Service
c) Contract Service
d) Casual Service

38. What type of leave is maternity leave classified as?

a) Authorized absence
b) Unpaid leave
c) Casual leave
d) Emergency leave

39. What constitutes general inefficiency?

a) A single failure
b) A series of omissions or incompetence
c) A minor error
d) A lack of training

40. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15 - 17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

41. Which of the following is NOT a document required for transfer of service?
a) Evidence of Qualifications
b) Letter of Confirmation of Appointment
c) Last Tax Return
d) APER for three years

42. What is the role of the Federal Civil Service Commission?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor performance

43. Who is responsible for the emoluments during secondment?

a) The original MDA
b) The benefitting agency
c) The officer
d) The Federal Government

44. What is the primary focus of the Public Service Rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for civil service conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
 d) To manage public projects

45. Which document is required for medical treatment abroad?

a) Invitation letter
b) Approval from the President
c) Medical report
d) Travel itinerary

46. What is the purpose of an acting appointment?

a) To provide temporary leadership
b) To evaluate potential candidates
c) To postpone decisions
d) To increase workload

47. What does "leave on compassionate grounds" refer to?

a) Leave for personal reasons
b) Leave for family emergencies
c) Leave for medical treatment
d) Leave for vacation

48. Which of the following is NOT a condition for study leave with pay?
a) Confirmation of appointment
b) No disciplinary action pending
c) Proof of financial need
d) Course relevance

49. What is the standard duration for annual leave at SGL 07 and above?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

50. What does the acronym "LPO" stand for?

a) Local Purchase Order
b) Leave Payment Order
c) Long-term Purchase Offer
d) Limited Purchase Offer

51. What is the maximum number of working days for paternity leave?
a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days
52. What is a primary responsibility of an interdicted officer?
a) To keep in touch with their office
b) To seek new employment
c) To avoid all communication
d) To leave the country

53. What is the meaning of "conversion" in public service terms?

a) Change of employment
b) Elevation to a higher rank
c) Movement between cadres
d) Change of department

54. How many years must an officer spend in a post before being eligible for promotion
at GL 15-17?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years

55. What is the consequence of not following leave procedures?

a) Automatic approval
b) Suspension of leave
c) Dismissal
d) No consequences

56. What is the required document for maternity leave?

a) Pregnancy test
b) Medical certificate
c) Birth certificate
d) None of the above

57. What is the penalty for committing serious misconduct?

a) Written warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Demotion

58. What is the duration of a temporary appointment?

a) Indefinite
b) Specified period
c) Permanent
d) Until retirement

59. Which of the following is a type of financial allowance?

 a) Resettlement Allowance
b) Casual Leave
c) Maternity Leave
d) Sick Leave

60. What is the definition of "increment" in public service?

a) A bonus payment
b) A deduction from salary
c) An addition to annual emoluments
d) A temporary raise

61. What is the purpose of the "leave of absence"?

a) Authorizing absence for personal reasons
b) Mandatory absence for training
c) Scheduled absence for vacation
d) None of the above

62. What must an officer provide for a study leave with pay?
a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) A letter from their family
d) None of the above

63. What constitutes a serious financial embarrassment?

a) Minor debts
b) Total debt exceeding three times monthly emoluments
c) Temporary cash flow issues
d) All of the above

64. What is the consequence of failing a confirmation examination three times?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Exit from service
c) Reassessment
d) None

65. What is the role of the Department of Human Resource Management?

a) To handle financial issues
b) To manage employee relations
c) To oversee procurement
d) To plan projects

66. What is the minimum age requirement for appointment into the Federal Public
Service?
a) 16 years
 b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 21 years

67. What is the duration of leave for cultural activities?

a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days

68. Which of the following is a document required for employment?

a) Birth Certificate
b) Marriage Certificate
c) Driving License
d) Passport

69. What is the maximum amount of duty tour allowance for GL 12-13?
a) N15,000
b) N17,500
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

70. What is the primary focus of the Civil Service Handbook?

a) Financial management
b) Employee conduct
c) Performance evaluation
d) Public relations

71. What is the standard duration for study leave without pay?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 1 year

72. How many days of leave are granted for maternity purposes before delivery?
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 8 weeks

73. What should be included in a petition for it to be entertained?

a) Must be anonymous
b) Must be routed through proper channels
c) Must not be legible
 d) Must not repeat previous issues

74. What is the role of the Federal Executive Council?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To provide legal advice
d) To monitor public health

75. What is required for an officer to exit the Federal Public Service?
a) Resignation
b) Dismissal
c) Retirement
d) All of the above

76. What is a common service department in the Federal Public Service?

a) Health Department
b) Department of General Services
c) Department of Education
d) Department of Defense

77. What does the acronym "SRV" stand for?

a) Service Record Voucher
b) Stores Receipt Voucher
c) Salary Record Voucher
d) Service Release Voucher

78. What is the maximum duration for a contract appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

79. How is a disciplinary action initiated?

a) By employee request
b) By management decision
c) By public complaint
d) None of the above

80. What is the primary responsibility of a public servant?

a) To serve personal interests
b) To uphold public trust and service
c) To manage personal finances
d) To avoid accountability
81. What is the penalty for being late to work habitually?
a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

82. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07 - 14?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N400,000

83. What must officers do if they want to request a leave of absence?

a) Submit a formal application
b) Inform their friends
c) Leave without notice
d) Seek approval from their colleagues

84. What is the consequence of general inefficiency?

a) Suspension
b) Termination of appointment
c) Increase in salary
d) None of the above

85. What is the focus of the Financial Regulations?

a) Employee behavior
b) Financial management
c) Recruitment processes
d) Public relations

86. What is the maximum number of years allowed for a temporary appointment?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

87. What is a major responsibility of the Auditor General for the Federation?
a) To oversee public health
b) To manage financial audits
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor recruitment

88. What is the purpose of a contract appointment?

a) To provide permanent employment
 b) To fill temporary positions
c) To ensure financial security
d) To establish a career path

89. What is required for an officer to qualify for annual leave?

a) Must have been employed for six months
b) Must be under 40 years
c) Must have a degree
d) None of the above

90. How is a grievance addressed in the public service?

a) By submitting a petition
b) By ignoring it
c) By discussing it with friends
d) By writing a personal letter

91. What is the standard amount for transport and local running allowance?
a) N5,000
b) N10,000
c) N15,000
d) N20,000

92. What is the duration of leave for urgent private affairs?

a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 14 days
d) 30 days

93. What is the consequence of unauthorized removal of public records?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Increase in salary

94. What is the purpose of the Civil Service Handbook?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for civil service conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d)
95. What must be done if an officer has been convicted of a criminal charge?
a) They can continue their service
b) They are automatically promoted
c) They will not be considered for employment
d) They can appeal the decision
96. What is the term for the temporary release of an officer to another organization?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

97. How many types of leave are mentioned in the document?

a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
d) 30

98. Which of the following is NOT a type of allowance?

a) Resettlement Allowance
b) Maternity Allowance
c) Travel Allowance
d) Housing Allowance

99. Who should approve a leave of absence for public policy?

a) The officer’s supervisor
b) The Head of the Civil Service
c) The President
d) The officer’s colleagues

100. How long is the probation period for new recruits?

a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) 2 years

101. What is the minimum age for appointment in the Federal Public Service?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 21 years

102. Which of the following is NOT a document for transfer of service?

a) Letter of Last Promotion
b) Evidence of Qualifications
c) Marriage Certificate
d) Letter of Confirmation of Appointment

103. What does "misconduct" refer to in public service?

 a) Minor errors
b) Specific acts of wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) All of the above

104. What is the duration of a temporary appointment in the Federal Public Service?
a) Indefinite
b) Specified period
c) Permanent
d) Until retirement

105. What type of leave is defined as absence for urgent private affairs?
a) Casual Leave
b) Annual Leave
c) Leave of Absence
d) Maternity Leave

106. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 03 and below?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

107. Which of the following is a common service department?

a) Department of Internal Affairs
b) Department of Human Resource Management
c) Department of Security
d) Department of Education

108. What does the acronym "LPC" stand for?

a) Last Pay Certificate
b) Leave Payment Certificate
c) Long-term Payment Certificate
d) Local Purchase Certificate

109. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

110. What is the consequence of habitual lateness to work?

a) Promotion
b) Warning
 c) Suspension
d) Dismissal

111. What is a primary responsibility of the Federal Civil Service Commission?

a) To manage financial audits
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor performance

112. What is the duration of paternity leave?

a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days

113. What is the consequence of not submitting a leave application on time?

a) Automatic approval
b) Denial of leave
c) Promotion
d) None

114. What is the focus of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

115. What is the role of the Head of the Civil Service?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor recruitment

116. What is the term for the temporary removal of an officer from duty?
a) Interdiction
b) Suspension
c) Termination
d) Promotion

117. What must an officer provide to be eligible for study leave?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) A letter from their family
d) None of the above
118. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave?
a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

119. Which of the following is NOT a condition for transfer of service?

a) Must have a confirmed appointment
b) Must possess required qualifications
c) Must have a pending disciplinary action
d) Must have a letter of release

120. What is the consequence of failing to comply with disciplinary instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

121. What is the penalty for general inefficiency after warnings?

a) Warning
b) Termination of appointment
c) Increase in salary
d) None of the above

122. What is the maximum age for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

123. Which document is NOT required for maternity leave?

a) Medical certificate
b) Evidence of pregnancy
c) Marriage certificate
d) Application letter

124. What is the role of the Department of General Services?

a) To oversee financial resources
b) To manage logistical support
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

125. What is the focus of the Civil Service Handbook?

 a) Financial management
b) Employee conduct
c) Performance evaluation
d) Public relations

126. What does the acronym "FYI" stand for?

a) For Your Information
b) For Your Instruction
c) Follow Your Ideas
d) For Your Interest

127. What is the definition of a "nominal roll"?

a) A list of employee duties
b) A management system for employee details
c) A record of financial transactions
d) A list of pending applications

128. What is required for an officer to qualify for annual leave?

a) Must have been employed for six months
b) Must be under 40 years
c) Must have a degree
d) None of the above

129. What is the consequence of unauthorized absence from duty?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Increase in salary

130. What is the maximum duration for study leave without pay?
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 1 year
d) 3 years

131. What is the role of the Auditor General for the Federation?
a) To oversee public health
b) To manage financial audits
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor recruitment

132. What is the primary purpose of the Public Service Rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for civil service conduct
 c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

133. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Reassessment
c) Exit from service
d) None

134. How is misconduct defined in public service?

a) A minor error
b) A specific act of wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) All of the above

135. What is the maximum burial expense for GL 01-06?

a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

136. What is the definition of "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Severe wrongdoing that can lead to dismissal
c) General inefficiency
d) A single error

137. What is the duration of maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

138. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for five years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

139. What is the maximum amount for travel allowance for GL 12-13?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000
140. What does "leave of absence" refer to?
a) Authorizing absence for personal reasons
b) Mandatory absence for training
c) Scheduled absence for vacation
d) None of the above

141. What is a type of financial allowance for employees?

a) Resettlement Allowance
b) Casual Leave
c) Maternity Leave
d) Sick Leave

142. What is the duration of paternity leave for a male officer?

a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days

143. What is the maximum number of years for a contract appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

144. How is the "nominal roll" used in public service?

a) To capture financial transactions
b) To track employee details
c) To monitor attendance
d) To evaluate performance

145. What is the consequence of failing to comply with disciplinary instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

146. What is the primary responsibility of a public servant?

a) To serve personal interests
b) To uphold public trust and service
c) To manage personal finances
d) To avoid accountability

147. What document is NOT required for employment in the Federal Public Service?
 a) Birth Certificate
b) Marriage Certificate
c) Medical Certificate
d) Driving License

148. What is the maximum number of children allowed for a male officer to take paternity
leave?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
⁹
149. What is the penalty for financial embarrassment?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Demotion

150. What must an officer do when proceeding on medical treatment abroad?

a) Inform their supervisor
b) Seek approval from the President
c) Fill out a medical report
d) Cancel all leave

151. What is the focus of financial regulations?

a) Employee behavior
b) Financial management
c) Recruitment processes
d) Public relations

152. How long is the probation period for new recruits?

a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) 2 years

153. What is the term for the temporary release of an officer to another organization?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

154. What document is required for maternity leave?

a) Pregnancy test
 b) Medical certificate
c) Birth certificate
d) None of the above

155. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N200,000
d) N300,000

156. What is the consequence of unauthorized removal of public records?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Increase in salary

157. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 04-06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

158. What is the primary focus of the Federal Civil Service?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To provide efficient public service
c) To oversee political matters
d) To conduct training programs

159. What is the maximum duration for study leave with pay?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

160. What is the definition of a "contract appointment"?

a) Permanent employment
b) Temporary and non-pensionable appointment
c) A promotional position
d) A retired position

161. What is the term for the permanent release of an officer from one service to another?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
 d) Interdiction

162. How is misconduct defined in public service?

a) A minor error
b) A specific act of wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) All of the above

163. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination three times?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Exit from the service
c) Reassessment
d) None

164. What is the maximum amount for a travel allowance for GL 10?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

165. What is the role of the Department of Planning, Research and Statistics?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To conduct research and statistical analysis
d) To monitor recruitment

166. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

167. What is the duration of casual leave?

a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

168. What must be included in a petition for it to be entertained?

a) It must be anonymous
b) It must be routed through proper channels
c) It must not be legible
d) It must not repeat previous issues
169. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Executive Council?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To provide legal advice
d) To monitor public health

170. What is the term for the temporary removal of an officer from duty?
a) Interdiction
b) Suspension
c) Termination
d) Promotion

171. What is the purpose of a contract appointment?

a) To provide permanent employment
b) To fill temporary positions
c) To ensure financial security
d) To establish a career path

172. What is the role of the Department of Finance and Accounts?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee procurement
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

173. What is the maximum duration of a temporary appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

174. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 12-13?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

175. What is the maximum amount for a duty tour allowance for GL 01-04?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N17,500
d) N20,000

176. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for five years
 b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

177. What is the consequence of failing to comply with disciplinary instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

178. What is the focus of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

179. What is the role of the Department of Reform Coordination and Service
Improvement?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To improve service delivery
d) To monitor recruitment

180. What is the maximum age for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

181. What is the consequence of not submitting a leave application on time?

a) Automatic approval
b) Denial of leave
c) Promotion
d) None

182. What document is NOT required for maternity leave?

a) Medical certificate
b) Evidence of pregnancy
c) Marriage certificate
d) Application letter

183. What is the primary focus of the Federal Civil Service?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To provide efficient public service
 c) To oversee political matters
d) To conduct training programs

184. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave?

a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

185. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 01-06?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

186. What is the definition of "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Severe wrongdoing that can lead to dismissal
c) General inefficiency
d) A single error

187. What is the duration of maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

188. What is required for an officer to qualify for annual leave?

a) Must have been employed for six months
b) Must be under 40 years
c) Must have a degree
d) None of the above

189. What is the consequence of unauthorized absence from duty?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Increase in salary

190. What is the maximum duration for study leave without pay?
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 1 year
d) 3 years
191. What is the role of the Auditor General for the Federation?
a) To oversee public health
b) To manage financial audits
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor recruitment

192. What is the primary purpose of the Public Service Rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for civil service conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

193. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Reassessment
c) Exit from service
d) None

194. How is misconduct defined in public service?

a) A minor error
b) A specific act of wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) All of the above

195. What is the maximum burial expense for GL 07-14?

a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N400,000

196. What is the role of the Department of Human Resource Management?

a) To manage employee relations
b) To oversee procurement
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor financial audits

197. What is the maximum number of years for a temporary appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

198. What is the duration of paternity leave for a male officer?

 a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days

199. What is the maximum amount for a duty tour allowance for GL 01-04?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N17,500
d) N20,000

200. What document is required for an officer to transfer their service?

a) Letter of Last Promotion
b) Evidence of Qualifications
c) Letter of Appointment
d) All of the above

201. What is the primary purpose of the Federal Civil Service?

a) To manage public affairs
b) To serve the public interest
c) To ensure financial accountability
d) To coordinate international relations

202. What is the maximum duration for a contract appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

203. What is required for an officer to apply for study leave?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) A letter from their supervisor
d) None of the above

204. How many days of leave are allocated for officers at GL 10-12?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

205. What does the acronym "HR" stand for in public service?
a) Human Relations
b) Human Resources
 c) High Ranking
d) Health Regulations

206. What is the maximum number of days for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

207. What is the focus of the Civil Service Commission?

a) Financial management
b) Recruitment and appointments
c) Employee training
d) Public relations

208. What is the consequence of unauthorized absence from duty?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

209. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

210. What is the purpose of an acting appointment?

a) To provide temporary leadership
b) To evaluate candidates for promotion
c) To increase workload
d) To postpone decisions

211. What is the duration of casual leave?

a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

212. How is a disciplinary action initiated?

a) By employee request
b) By management decision
c) By public complaint
d) None of the above
213. What is the primary responsibility of a public servant?
a) To serve personal interests
b) To uphold public trust and service
c) To manage personal finances
d) To avoid accountability

214. What is required for an officer to exit the Federal Public Service?
a) Resignation
b) Dismissal
c) Retirement
d) All of the above

215. What is the consequence of failing to comply with disciplinary instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

216. What is the maximum age for appointment in the Federal Public Service?
a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

217. What is the definition of "general inefficiency"?

a) A minor error
b) A series of omissions or incompetence
c) A single failure
d) All of the above

218. What is the role of the Department of General Services?

a) To oversee financial resources
b) To manage logistical support
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

219. What is the purpose of the Civil Service Handbook?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for civil service conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

220. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 07-14?
 a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

221. What is the maximum amount for duty tour allowance for GL 01-06?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

222. What is the consequence of habitual lateness to work?

a) Promotion
b) Warning
c) Suspension
d) Dismissal

223. What is the primary focus of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

224. What is the maximum number of years for a temporary appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

225. What is the term for the temporary release of an officer to another organization?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

226. What is the maximum duration for study leave with pay?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

227. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Reassessment
 c) Exit from service
d) None

228. What does the acronym "IPPIS" stand for?

a) Integrated Payroll and Personnel Information System
b) International Payroll and Personnel Information System
c) Internal Payroll and Personnel Information System
d) Independent Payroll and Personnel Information System

229. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N200,000
d) N300,000

230. How long is the period for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

231. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for five years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

232. What is the consequence of general inefficiency?

a) Suspension
b) Termination of appointment
c) Increase in salary
d) None

233. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave?

a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

234. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Civil Service Commission?
a) To manage financial audits
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor performance
235. What is the penalty for serious financial embarrassment?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Demotion

236. What is the maximum amount for a travel allowance for GL 10?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

237. What is the focus of the Department of Planning, Research and Statistics?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To conduct research and statistical analysis
d) To monitor recruitment

238. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

239. What is the definition of a "contract appointment"?

a) Permanent employment
b) Temporary and non-pensionable appointment
c) A promotional position
d) A retired position

240. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 12-13?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

241. What is the role of the Department of Reform Coordination and Service
Improvement?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To improve service delivery
d) To monitor recruitment
242. What is the maximum age for appointment in the Federal Public Service?
a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

243. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination three times?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Exit from the service
c) Reassessment
d) None

244. What is the maximum amount for a duty tour allowance for GL 01-04?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N17,500
d) N20,000

245. What is required for an officer to apply for leave of absence?

a) Written request
b) Approval from a supervisor
c) Medical certificate
d) All of the above

246. What is the primary purpose of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

247. What is the consequence of unauthorized removal of public records?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Increase in salary

248. What is the maximum number of days for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

249. What is the role of the Department of Human Resource Management?

a) To manage employee relations
 b) To oversee procurement
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor financial audits

250. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N200,000
d) N300,000

251. What is the consequence of failing to comply with instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

252. What is the term for the permanent release of an officer from one service to another?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

253. What is the duration of annual leave for officers at SGL 04-06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

254. What is the maximum number of children allowed for a male officer to take paternity
leave?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

255. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for three years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

256. What is the maximum duration of leave for urgent private affairs?
a) 5 days
b) 10 days
 c) 14 days
d) 30 days

257. How is a disciplinary action initiated?

a) By employee request
b) By management decision
c) By public complaint
d) None of the above

258. What is the primary responsibility of a public servant?

a) To serve personal interests
b) To uphold public trust and service
c) To manage personal finances
d) To avoid accountability

259. What is required for an officer to exit the Federal Public Service?
a) Resignation
b) Dismissal
c) Retirement
d) All of the above

260. What is the consequence of failing to comply with disciplinary instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

261. What is the maximum age for appointment in the Federal Public Service?
a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

262. What is the definition of "general inefficiency"?

a) A minor error
b) A series of omissions or incompetence
c) A single failure
d) All of the above

263. What is the role of the Department of General Services?

a) To oversee financial resources
b) To manage logistical support
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance
264. What is the primary focus of the Civil Service Handbook?
a) Financial management
b) Employee conduct
c) Performance evaluation
d) Public relations

265. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 12-13?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

266. What is the maximum amount for duty tour allowance for GL 01-06?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

267. What is the consequence of habitual lateness to work?

a) Promotion
b) Warning
c) Suspension
d) Dismissal

268. What is the primary focus of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

269. What is the maximum number of years for a temporary appointment?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

270. What is the term for the temporary release of an officer to another organization?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

271. What is the maximum duration for study leave with pay?
 a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

272. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Reassessment
c) Exit from service
d) None

273. What does the acronym "IPPIS" stand for?

a) Integrated Payroll and Personnel Information System
b) International Payroll and Personnel Information System
c) Internal Payroll and Personnel Information System
d) Independent Payroll and Personnel Information System

274. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N200,000
d) N300,000

275. How long is the period for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

276. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for five years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

277. What is the consequence of general inefficiency?

a) Suspension
b) Termination of appointment
c) Increase in salary
d) None

278. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave?

a) 5 days
b) 7 days
 c) 10 days
d) 14 days

279. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Civil Service Commission?
a) To manage financial audits
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor performance

280. What is the penalty for serious financial embarrassment?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Demotion

281. What is the maximum amount for a travel allowance for GL 10?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

282. What is the focus of the Department of Planning, Research and Statistics?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To conduct research and statistical analysis
d) To monitor recruitment

283. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

284. What is the definition of a "contract appointment"?

a) Permanent employment
b) Temporary and non-pensionable appointment
c) A promotional position
d) A retired position

285. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 12-13?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days
286. What is the role of the Department of Reform Coordination and Service
Improvement?
a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To improve service delivery
d) To monitor recruitment

287. What is the maximum age for appointment in the Federal Public Service?
a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

288. What is the consequence of failing a promotion examination three times?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Exit from the service
c) Reassessment
d) None

289. What is the maximum amount for a duty tour allowance for GL 01-04?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N17,500
d) N20,000

290. What is required for an officer to apply for leave of absence?

a) Written request
b) Approval from a supervisor
c) Medical certificate
d) All of the above

291. What is the primary purpose of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

292. What is the consequence of unauthorized removal of public records?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) Increase in salary
293. What is the maximum number of days for maternity leave?
a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

294. What is the role of the Department of Human Resource Management?

a) To manage employee relations
b) To oversee procurement
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor financial audits

295. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N200,000
d) N300,000

296. What is the consequence of failing to comply with instructions?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

297. What is the term for the permanent release of an officer from one service to another?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

298. What is the duration of annual leave for officers at SGL 04-06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

299. What is the maximum number of children allowed for a male officer to take paternity
leave?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

300. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

 a) Must have been employed for three years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must be married

301. What is the primary function of the Federal Public Service?

a) To manage public funds
b) To provide services to the public
c) To oversee international relations
d) To conduct scientific research

302. What is the minimum educational qualification for entry into the Federal Public
Service?
a) Primary education
b) Secondary education
c) Higher National Diploma
d) Bachelor's degree

303. Which document is required for verifying an officer's service record?

a) Birth Certificate
b) Certificate of Employment
c) Marriage Certificate
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

304. How long is the probationary period for new recruits in the Federal Public Service?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 1 year

305. What is the maximum duration of sick leave for officers?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

306. What is the purpose of a performance appraisal?

a) To determine salary increases
b) To evaluate employee performance
c) To assess training needs
d) All of the above

307. What document is used to request leave of absence?

a) Leave Application Form
 b) Medical Certificate
c) Resignation Letter
d) Employment Contract

308. What is the maximum amount for a housing allowance for GL 12?
a) N30,000
b) N50,000
c) N70,000
d) N100,000

309. What is the consequence of a public servant engaging in private business?

a) Automatic promotion
b) Warning
c) Suspension
d) None

310. Which of the following is NOT a type of leave?

a) Annual Leave
b) Study Leave
c) Maternity Leave
d) Holiday Leave

311. What is the minimum service requirement for an officer to qualify for a long-term
loan?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

312. Who is responsible for approving travel allowances?

a) The officer’s supervisor
b) The Head of Department
c) The Ministry of Finance
d) The Federal Executive Council

313. What does "interdiction" refer to in the context of public service?

a) Promotion
b) Temporary removal from duty
c) Permanent separation from service
d) Transfer to another department

314. What is the role of the Federal Civil Service Commission?

a) To conduct financial audits
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
 c) To implement training programs
d) To evaluate employee performance

315. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave?

a) 7 days
b) 10 days
c) 14 days
d) 30 days

316. What is the main purpose of the Public Service Rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To define employee conduct
c) To establish operational procedures
d) All of the above

317. What is the consequence of submitting false information in an application?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

318. How many days of annual leave are allocated to officers at GL 01-03?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

319. What is the maximum duration for study leave with pay?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

320. What is required for an officer to qualify for maternity leave?

a) Medical certificate
b) Evidence of pregnancy
c) Application letter
d) All of the above

321. What is the consequence of not attending mandatory training?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None
322. What is the role of the Department of Public Service?
a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To oversee public health
c) To monitor government projects
d) To conduct financial audits

323. What is the definition of "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Severe wrongdoing that can lead to disciplinary action
c) General inefficiency
d) A single error

324. What is the penalty for a public servant found guilty of corruption?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

325. What is the maximum age for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 40 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

326. What is the term for the permanent separation of an officer from the service?
a) Termination
b) Resignation
c) Dismissal
d) Retirement

327. What is the duration of maternity leave for female officers?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

328. How is a disciplinary action initiated?

a) By employee request
b) By management decision
c) By public complaint
d) None

329. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

 a) Must have been employed for five years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must have a clean service record

330. What is the maximum duration for leave of absence for personal reasons?
a) 10 days
b) 15 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days

331. What is the consequence of failing to comply with leave application procedures?
a) Automatic approval
b) Denial of leave
c) Promotion
d) None

332. How many types of financial allowances are typically available to public servants?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

333. What is the focus of the Department of Human Resource Management?

a) Employee recruitment
b) Employee training and development
c) Employee relations
d) All of the above

334. What is the function of the Auditor General for the Federation?
a) To oversee public health
b) To manage financial audits
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor recruitment

335. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

336. What is the definition of "general inefficiency"?

a) A series of omissions or incompetence
b) A minor error
 c) A single failure
d) All of the above

337. What document is necessary for an officer to apply for leave?

a) Leave Application Form
b) Employment Contract
c) Medical Certificate
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

338. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 12-13?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

339. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Executive Council?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To provide legal advice
d) To monitor public health

340. What is required for an officer to qualify for paternity leave?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of childbirth
c) A letter from their supervisor
d) None of the above

341. What is the term for a temporary appointment to fill a vacancy?

a) Acting Appointment
b) Contract Appointment
c) Permanent Appointment
d) Interdiction

342. What is the maximum number of days for sick leave without medical certification?
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 10 days

343. What is the consequence of repeated misconduct in public service?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) All of the above
344. What is the primary focus of the Public Service Commission?
a) Recruitment and appointments
b) Financial management
c) Employee training
d) Public relations

345. What is the maximum amount for travel allowances for GL 10?
a) N10,000
b) N15,000
c) N20,000
d) N25,000

346. What is the consequence for officers found guilty of falsifying records?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

347. What is the definition of a "nominal roll"?

a) A list of employee duties
b) A record of employee details
c) A list of salaries
d) A record of pending applications

348. What is the maximum duration for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

349. What is required for an officer to be eligible for a study leave?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) A letter from their family
d) None of the above

350. What is the primary focus of the Department of Finance?

a) To oversee procurement
b) To manage financial resources
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

351. What is the consequence of unauthorized absence from duty?

 a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

352. What is the maximum amount for a relocation allowance?

a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

353. What is the role of the Department of Planning?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To conduct research and statistical analysis
d) To monitor recruitment

354. What is the consequence of failing to attend mandatory training?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None

355. What is the role of the Department of Reforms?

a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To improve service delivery
c) To oversee public health
d) To monitor financial audits

356. What is the maximum duration for study leave without pay?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

357. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave in a year?
a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

358. What document is required for an officer to apply for annual leave?
a) Leave Application Form
b) Medical Certificate
 c) Employment Contract
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

359. What is the consequence of failing to comply with financial regulations?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

360. What is the focus of the Department of Human Resources?

a) Employee recruitment
b) Employee training and development
c) Employee relations
d) All of the above

361. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Public Service Commission?
a) To manage financial audits
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor performance

362. What is the penalty for general misconduct in public service?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) All of the above

363. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 01-06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

364. What is the definition of "contract appointment"?

a) Permanent employment
b) Temporary and non-pensionable appointment
c) A promotional position
d) A retired position

365. What is required for an officer to exit the Federal Public Service?
a) Resignation
b) Dismissal
c) Retirement
d) All of the above
366. What is the consequence of habitual lateness to work?
a) Promotion
b) Warning
c) Suspension
d) Dismissal

367. What is the term for a temporary release of an officer to another organization?
a) Transfer of service
b) Secondment
c) Promotion
d) Interdiction

368. What is the maximum amount for a travel allowance for GL 15-17?
a) N20,000
b) N30,000
c) N50,000
d) N70,000

369. What is the role of the Federal Executive Council?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To provide legal advice
d) To monitor public health

370. What is required for an officer to apply for leave of absence?

a) Written request
b) Approval from a supervisor
c) Medical certificate
d) All of the above

371. What is the primary purpose of the Public Service Rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

372. What is the consequence of submitting false information in an application?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

373. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 01-06?
 a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

374. What is the role of the Department of General Services?

a) To oversee financial resources
b) To manage logistical support
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

375. What is the focus of the Department of Finance?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public health
c) To conduct research and statistical analysis
d) To monitor recruitment

376. What is the maximum age for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 40 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

377. What is the consequence of failing to comply with leave application procedures?
a) Automatic approval
b) Denial of leave
c) Promotion
d) None

378. What is the maximum duration for maternity leave?

a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

379. What is the term for a temporary appointment to fill a vacancy?

a) Acting Appointment
b) Contract Appointment
c) Permanent Appointment
d) Interdiction

380. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Civil Service Commission?
a) To manage financial audits
b) To oversee recruitment and appointments
 c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor performance

381. What document is necessary for an officer to apply for leave?

a) Leave Application Form
b) Employment Contract
c) Medical Certificate
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

382. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 07-14?
a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

383. What is the maximum number of days for casual leave in a year?
a) 5 days
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

384. What is the primary focus of public service rules?

a) To outline financial regulations
b) To provide guidelines for conduct
c) To establish budgetary allocations
d) To manage public projects

385. What is the consequence of failing to attend mandatory training?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None

386. What is the maximum amount for a relocation allowance?

a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

387. What is the role of the Department of Reforms?

a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To improve service delivery
c) To oversee public health
d) To monitor financial audits
388. What is the maximum number of years for a temporary appointment?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

389. What is required for an officer to be eligible for promotion?

a) Must have been employed for five years
b) Must have passed the promotion examination
c) Must have a college degree
d) Must have a clean service record

390. What is the term for the temporary removal of an officer from duty?
a) Interdiction
b) Suspension
c) Termination
d) Promotion

391. What is the maximum duration of sick leave for officers?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

392. What is the purpose of a performance appraisal?

a) To determine salary increases
b) To evaluate employee performance
c) To assess training needs
d) All of the above

393. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 12-13?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

394. What is the primary function of the Federal Public Service?

a) To manage public funds
b) To provide services to the public
c) To oversee international relations
d) To conduct scientific research
395. What is the minimum educational qualification for entry into the Federal Public
Service?
a) Primary education
b) Secondary education
c) Higher National Diploma
d) Bachelor's degree

396. What is the consequence of failing to comply with official directives?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None

397. What is the maximum duration for leave of absence for personal reasons?
a) 10 days
b) 15 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days

398. What is required for an officer to qualify for a long-term loan?

a) Must have been employed for one year
b) Must have a clean credit record
c) Must have a guarantee from a supervisor
d) All of the above

399. What is the maximum amount for a housing allowance for GL 12?
a) N30,000
b) N50,000
c) N70,000
d) N100,000

400. What is the role of the Public Service Ethics Committee?

a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To oversee public service conduct
c) To provide legal advice
d) To conduct financial audits
401. What is the maximum leave duration for an officer to attend a funeral?
a) 2 days
b) 5 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days

402. What document is typically required for an officer's annual performance review?
a) Leave Application
 b) Performance Appraisal Form
c) Medical Certificate
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

403. What is the primary goal of the Civil Service Training Institute?
a) To provide vocational training
b) To enhance public service skills
c) To offer financial management courses
d) To conduct research

404. What is the maximum amount for overtime pay for GL 01-06?
a) N5,000
b) N10,000
c) N15,000
d) N20,000

405. What is the consequence for officers found guilty of insubordination?

a) Promotion
b) Warning
c) Dismissal
d) None

406. Which of the following is a valid reason for leave without pay?
a) Vacation
b) Personal study
c) Family emergency
d) All of the above

407. What is the required notice period for resignation from the Federal Public Service?
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 2 months
d) 3 months

408. Which of the following is NOT considered a valid leave category?

a) Sick Leave
b) Annual Leave
c) Casual Leave
d) Optional Leave

409. Who is responsible for approving sick leave?

a) The officer’s supervisor
b) The Head of Department
c) The Ministry of Health
 d) The Civil Service Commission

410. What is the maximum number of days for leave of absence without pay?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

411. What is required for an officer to be eligible for an education grant?

a) Proof of enrollment
b) Employment confirmation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

412. What does "acting capacity" refer to in public service?

a) Temporary appointment to a higher position
b) Permanent appointment to a lower position
c) A role filled by multiple officers
d) None of the above

413. What is the primary purpose of the Public Service Ethics Code?
a) To outline financial regulations
b) To ensure integrity and accountability
c) To manage employee benefits
d) To establish job descriptions

414. What is the consequence of failing to submit a performance report on time?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Reassessment
d) None

415. How often should public servants undergo performance evaluations?

a) Annually
b) Bi-annually
c) Quarterly
d) Monthly

416. What is the role of the Federal Public Service Commission in recruitment?
a) To conduct interviews
b) To manage job postings
c) To ensure merit-based selection
d) To oversee training programs
417. What is the maximum number of days for compassionate leave?
a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 20 days

418. What should an officer do if they wish to appeal a disciplinary decision?

a) Submit a letter of complaint
b) File a formal appeal
c) Discuss with their supervisor
d) None of the above

419. What is the eligibility criterion for retirement benefits?

a) Age of 60 years
b) Minimum service of 10 years
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

420. What is the primary responsibility of the Human Resource Officer?

a) Financial management
b) Employee relations and welfare
c) Project management
d) Public relations

421. What action can be taken against an officer found guilty of harassment?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) All of the above

422. Which of the following is a requirement for promotion?

a) Completion of training
b) Clean disciplinary record
c) Satisfactory performance
d) All of the above

423. What document must be submitted for a travel request?

a) Travel Application Form
b) Medical Certificate
c) Leave Application
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

424. What is the maximum amount for a special duty allowance?

a) N10,000
 b) N20,000
c) N30,000
d) N50,000

425. What is the primary role of the Ministry of Finance in public service?
a) To oversee employee recruitment
b) To manage public funds
c) To conduct employee training
d) To monitor project implementation

426. What is the maximum duration for unpaid leave?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

427. What is the consequence for neglecting official duties?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

428. How often should public servants attend training sessions?

a) Once a year
b) Twice a year
c) Quarterly
d) As required

429. What is the requirement for receiving a hardship allowance?

a) Employment in a remote area
b) Proof of financial need
c) Health certification
d) None of the above

430. What is the role of the Public Complaints Commission?

a) To manage employee grievances
b) To oversee public service performance
c) To handle complaints from the public
d) To monitor financial audits

431. What is the definition of "misconduct" in public service?

a) Minor infractions
b) Serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
 d) All of the above

432. What is the maximum amount for a medical allowance?

a) N10,000
b) N20,000
c) N30,000
d) N50,000

433. What is the purpose of a disciplinary hearing?

a) To evaluate performance
b) To determine the outcome of a misconduct case
c) To assess training needs
d) None of the above

434. What action can an officer take if they disagree with their performance evaluation?
a) Accept it
b) Discuss it with HR
c) File an appeal
d) None of the above

435. What is the maximum duration for maternity leave in the Federal Public Service?
a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

436. What is required for an officer to apply for a scholarship?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

437. What does "secondment" mean in public service?

a) Permanent transfer to another department
b) Temporary assignment to another organization
c) Dismissal from service
d) Promotion

438. What is the maximum number of days for special leave?

a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 20 days
439. What is the penalty for an officer found guilty of fraud?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) None

440. What is the primary focus of the Department of Policy and Planning?
a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To develop public service policies
c) To oversee public health
d) To monitor financial audits

441. What should an officer do if they wish to transfer to another department?

a) Submit a transfer request
b) Wait for a promotion
c) Resign
d) None of the above

442. What is the maximum age for appointment into the Federal Public Service?
a) 40 years
b) 50 years
c) 55 years
d) 60 years

443. What is the maximum number of days for travel leave?

a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 20 days

444. What is the consequence of failing to comply with training requirements?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None

445. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Executive Council?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To provide legal advice
d) To monitor public health

446. What is the purpose of an employee handbook?

a) To outline company policies
 b) To provide contact information
c) To list employee benefits
d) To manage payroll

447. What is the consequence for not reporting misconduct?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) None
d) Promotion

448. What is the role of the Department of General Administration?

a) To manage public health
b) To oversee office management
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

449. What is the maximum number of days for leave of absence due to illness?
a) 10 days
b) 20 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days

450. What is the definition of "gross misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Actions that severely violate policy
c) General inefficiency
d) A single error

451. What is the maximum duration for leave without pay?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 180 days

452. What is the purpose of the Performance Management System?

a) To evaluate and improve employee performance
b) To manage financial resources
c) To outline job descriptions
d) To handle public complaints

453. What is the consequence of submitting false information in a job application?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
 d) None

454. What document is needed to apply for a housing allowance?

a) Housing Application Form
b) Medical Certificate
c) Employment Contract
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

455. What is the role of internal auditors in public service?

a) To oversee financial audits
b) To ensure compliance with regulations
c) To provide financial advice
d) Both a and b

456. What is the maximum amount for a special duty allowance?

a) N10,000
b) N20,000
c) N30,000
d) N50,000

457. What is the primary responsibility of the Department of Internal Affairs?

a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To handle public complaints
d) To monitor financial audits

458. What is the consequence for officers found guilty of financial misconduct?
a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) All of the above

459. What is the eligibility criterion for receiving a hardship allowance?

a) Employment in a remote area
b) Proof of financial need
c) Health certification
d) None of the above

460. What is the maximum age for retirement in the Federal Public Service?
a) 60 years
b) 65 years
c) 70 years
d) 75 years
461. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 01-06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

462. What is the primary goal of the Civil Service Training Institute?
a) To provide vocational training
b) To enhance public service skills
c) To offer financial management courses
d) To conduct research

463. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

464. What is the role of the Department of Finance and Accounts?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee procurement
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

465. What is the primary function of the Public Complaints Commission?

a) To manage employee grievances
b) To oversee public service performance
c) To handle complaints from the public
d) To monitor financial audits

466. What is the maximum duration for sick leave with medical certification?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

467. What is the maximum amount for a relocation allowance?

a) N50,000
b) N100,000
c) N150,000
d) N200,000

468. What document is required to apply for vacation leave?

a) Vacation Application Form
 b) Medical Certificate
c) Employment Contract
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

469. What is the primary focus of the Department of Policy and Planning?
a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To develop public service policies
c) To oversee public health
d) To monitor financial audits

470. What is the consequence of failing to comply with training requirements?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None

471. What is the primary role of the Federal Public Service Commission?
a) To conduct interviews
b) To manage job postings
c) To ensure merit-based selection
d) To oversee training programs

472. What is the definition of "gross misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Actions that severely violate policy
c) General inefficiency
d) A single error

473. What is the maximum duration for leave of absence due to illness?
a) 10 days
b) 20 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days

474. What is required for an officer to apply for a scholarship?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

475. What is the purpose of a disciplinary hearing?

a) To evaluate performance
b) To determine the outcome of a misconduct case
c) To assess training needs
 d) None of the above

476. What is the maximum amount for a medical allowance?

a) N10,000
b) N20,000
c) N30,000
d) N50,000

477. What is the consequence of submitting false information in a job application?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) Promotion
d) None

478. What is the role of the Department of General Administration?

a) To manage public health
b) To oversee office management
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

479. What is the maximum number of days for leave of absence without pay?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

480. What is the primary responsibility of the Federal Executive Council?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To provide legal advice
d) To monitor public health

481. What is the purpose of an employee handbook?

a) To outline company policies
b) To provide contact information
c) To list employee benefits
d) To manage payroll

482. What is the consequence for not reporting misconduct?

a) Warning
b) Dismissal
c) None
d) Promotion
483. What is the primary focus of the Department of Human Resources?
a) Employee recruitment
b) Employee training and development
c) Employee relations
d) All of the above

484. What is the consequence of failing to submit a performance report on time?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Reassessment
d) None

485. How often should public servants undergo performance evaluations?

a) Annually
b) Bi-annually
c) Quarterly
d) Monthly

486. What is the maximum duration for maternity leave in the Federal Public Service?
a) 12 weeks
b) 14 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 18 weeks

487. What is required for an officer to be eligible for an education grant?

a) Proof of enrollment
b) Employment confirmation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

488. What is the definition of "misconduct" in public service?

a) Minor infractions
b) Serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) All of the above

489. What is the role of the Department of Finance and Accounts?

a) To manage financial resources
b) To oversee procurement
c) To conduct training programs
d) To monitor employee performance

490. What is the primary focus of the Department of Policy and Planning?
a) To manage employee recruitment
 b) To develop public service policies
c) To oversee public health
d) To monitor financial audits

491. What is the maximum amount for burial expenses for GL 15-17?
a) N100,000
b) N200,000
c) N300,000
d) N500,000

492. What is required for an officer to apply for a scholarship?

a) Proof of financial need
b) Evidence of admission
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

493. What is the primary goal of the Civil Service Training Institute?
a) To provide vocational training
b) To enhance public service skills
c) To offer financial management courses
d) To conduct research

494. What is the maximum number of days for annual leave for GL 01-06?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days

495. What is the consequence of failing to comply with training requirements?

a) Warning
b) Promotion
c) Dismissal
d) None

496. What is the primary responsibility of the Department of Internal Affairs?

a) To manage employee recruitment
b) To oversee public service operations
c) To handle public complaints
d) To monitor financial audits

497. What is the maximum duration for leave of absence due to illness?
a) 10 days
b) 20 days
c) 30 days
 d) 60 days

498. What is required for an officer to apply for a housing allowance?

a) Housing Application Form
b) Medical Certificate
c) Employment Contract
d) Tax Clearance Certificate

499. What is the primary goal of the Civil Service Reform Program?
a) To reduce employee numbers
b) To improve service delivery
c) To increase budget allocations
d) To minimize training costs

500. What is the consequence for failing to report a conflict of interest?

a) Warning
b) Suspension
c) Dismissal
d) All of the above

Answers

1. b 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. d 18. b 19.
a 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. b
36. c 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. b 52.
a 53. c 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. a
69. c 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. b 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. b 83. a 84. b 85.
b 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. b 99. b 100. b 101. b
102. c 103. b 104. b 105. c 106. a 107. b 108. a 109. c 110. c 111. b 112. b 113. b 114. b 115.
b 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. c 120. b 121. b 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. b 126. a 127. b 128. a
129. b 130. b 131. b 132. a 133. b 134. b 135. b 136. b 137. c 138. b 139. c 140. a 141. a 142.
b 143. b 144. b 145. b 146. b 147. b 148. d 149. c 150. b 151. b 152. b 153. b 154. b 155. b
156. c 157. b 158. b 159. b 160. b 161. a 162. b 163. b 164. c 165. c 166. c 167. b 168. b 169.
b 170. b 171. b 172. a 173. b 174. b 175. c 176. b 177. b 178. b 179. c 180. b 181. b 182. c
183. b 184. b 185. b 186. b 187. c 188. a 189. b 190. b 191. b 192. b 193. b 194. b 195. b 196.
a 197. b 198. b 199. c 200. d 201. b 202. b 203. b 204. b 205. b 206. b 207. b 208. b 209. b
210. a 211. d 212. b 213. b 214. d 215. b 216. b217. b 218. b 219. b 220. b 221. c 222. d 223.
b 224. b 225. b 226. b 227. b 228. a 229. c 230. a 231. b 232. b 233. d 234. b 235. c 236. c
237. c 238. b 239. b 240. b 241. c 242. b 243. b 244. c 245. d 246. b 247. c 248. a 249. a 250.
b 251. b 252. a 253. b 254. a 255. b 256. c 257. b 258. b 259. d 260. b 261. b 262. b 263. b
264. b 265. b 266. c 267. d 268. b 269. b 270. b 271. b 272. b 273. a 274. b 275. a 276. b 277.
b 278. a 279. b 280. c 281. c 282. c 283. b 284. b 285. b 286. c 287. b 288. b 289. c 290. d
291. b 292. b 293. a 294. a 295. b 296. a 297. a 298. b 299. a 300. b 301. b 302. d 303. b 304.
b 305. c 306. d 307. b 308. d 309. c 310. d 311. c 312. b 313. b 314. a 315. c 316. d 317. b
318. a 319. d 320. d 321. d 322. c 323. b 324. c 325. d 326. a 327. a 328. b 329. d 330. c 331.
b 332. d 333. d 334. b 335. b 336. a 337. a 338. b 339. b 340. a 341. a 342. b 343. d 344. a
345. c 346. c 347. b 348. a 349. c 350. b 351. c 352. c 353. c 354. a 355. d 356. b 357. d 358.
a 359. b 360. d 361. c 362. d 363. a 364. b 365. d 366. d 367. b 368. c 369. b 370. d 371. d
372. b 373. b 374. b 375. a 376. a 377. b 378. a 379. a 380. b 381. a 382. b 383. b 384. d 385.
a 386. b 387. b 388. a 389. d 390. b 391. a 392. d 393. a 394. b 395. d 396. d m397. a 398. d
399. d 400. b 401. b 402. b 403. b 404. b 405. c 406. d 407. b 408. d 409. a 410. c 411. c 412.
a 413. b 414. a 415. a 416. c 417. c 418. b 419. c 420. b 421. d 422. d 423. a 424. c 425. b
426. c 427. c 428. c 429. a 430. c 431. b 432. d 433. b 434. c 435. c 436. c 437. b 438. c 439.
c 440. b 441. a 442. d 443. a 444. a 445. b 446. a 447. c 448. b 449. c 450. b 451. b 452. a
453. b 454. a 455. d 456. c 457. b 458. d 459. a 460. a 461. a 462. b 463. b 464. a 465. c 466.
b 467. b 468. a 469. b 470. a 471. c 472. b 473. c 474. c 475. a 476. b 477. b 478. b 479. c
480. b 481. a 482. d 483. d 484. a 485. a 486. a 487. c 488. d 489. a 490. b 491. b 492. c 493.
b 494. a 495. a 496. b 497. c 498. a 499. b 500. d

Chapter 10 Only

1. What is the primary duty of every officer according to Section 1?

a) To manage finances
b) To familiarize themselves with disciplinary rules
c) To supervise other officers
d) To conduct audits

2. Who has the authority to dismiss officers in the Federal Civil Service?
a) Director-General
b) Chief Executive Officer
c) Federal Civil Service Commission
d) Office of the Head of Service

3. Which officers can be removed from service without Board approval?

a) Officers on GL 06 and below
b) All officers
c) Permanent Secretaries
d) None of the above

4. General inefficiency is characterized by:

a) A single omission
b) Incompetence over time
c) Exceptional performance
d) Lack of training
5. What should a superior officer do upon observing inefficiency in a subordinate?
a) Ignore it
b) Bring it to the subordinate's notice
c) Report to the media
d) Transfer the officer immediately

6. What constitutes misconduct?

a) General inefficiency
b) A specific act of wrongdoing
c) Poor performance review
d) Personal conflicts

7. Which of the following is NOT considered misconduct?

a) Immoral behavior
b) Habitual lateness
c) Attending a conference
d) Refusal to accept posting

8. What action must be taken when an officer's misconduct is reported?

a) Immediate suspension
b) Report to the Director of Human Resource
c) Public announcement
d) Written warning

9. What is serious misconduct?

a) A minor offense
b) An act of very serious wrongdoing
c) A performance issue
d) A training deficiency

10. Which of the following is an example of serious misconduct?

a) Falsification of records
b) Lateness to work
c) Personal conflicts
d) Unprofessional attire

11. What happens if an officer is found guilty of misconduct?

a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination or retirement
c) No action taken
d) Written commendation

12. What should be done if an officer is to have their increment withheld?

a) Inform the officer in writing
 b) No notification is required
c) Announce it publicly
d) Discuss it in a meeting

13. How long must disciplinary procedures be completed?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

14. What is required before an officer can be dismissed?

a) A public announcement
b) Written notice of grounds for discipline
c) Meeting with colleagues
d) No requirements

15. Which of the following acts can lead to dismissal?

a) Sleeping on duty
b) Refusal to take lawful instructions
c) Engaging in partisan political activities
d) All of the above

16. What is the consequence of unauthorized removal of public records?

a) No consequence
b) Minor reprimand
c) Possible dismissal
d) Promotion

17. In what scenario can an officer be suspended during an investigation?

a) If they request it
b) If deemed necessary by the Permanent Secretary
c) Automatically
d) Only if they agree

18. When can disciplinary proceedings against a female staff member be postponed?
a) During annual leave
b) During maternity leave
c) When they are absent
d) Never

19. What must be included in the notification of withholding an increment?

a) The officer’s performance history
b) The reason for withholding
c) A public announcement
 d) A personal apology

20. Who can issue a query to the officer for misconduct?

a) Any colleague
b) The officer’s superior
c) The public
d) No one

21. What does the term "insubordination" refer to?

a) Refusal to accept lawful instructions
b) General inefficiency
c) Sleeping on duty
d) Excessive tardiness

22. What is a key requirement during a disciplinary inquiry?

a) The officer must be present
b) The officer can be absent
c) It can be held in secret
d) No documentation is needed

23. What should be done if further grounds for dismissal are found during an inquiry?
a) The inquiry must restart
b) The officer must be informed in writing
c) The findings should be ignored
d) The officer should be immediately dismissed

24. How can an officer respond to a query issued to them?

a) Verbally
b) In writing
c) By ignoring it
d) By calling a meeting

25. What is prohibited regarding money lending by officers?

a) Lending to colleagues
b) Guaranteeing loans on interest
c) Borrowing from banks
d) None of the above

26. What is the consequence of engaging in hawking merchandise during working hours?
a) No consequence
b) Minor reprimand
c) Possible dismissal
d) Promotion
27. Which of the following is considered "serious misconduct"?
a) Failure to keep records
b) Absence from duty without leave
c) Habitual lateness
d) Poor performance

28. What should happen if a Permanent Secretary decides to defer an increment?

a) Inform the officer verbally
b) Inform the officer in writing
c) No notification is necessary
d) Notify only the media

29. What action must be taken if an officer is found to be negligent?

a) Immediate termination
b) Report it to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

30. What document must accompany the officer during a disciplinary inquiry?
a) Performance review
b) Query letter
c) Attendance records
d) Personal file

31. What is the role of the board of inquiry?

a) Conduct financial audits
b) Hear witnesses and make recommendations
c) Manage employee promotions
d) Monitor attendance

32. What happens if an officer fails to appear before the board of inquiry?
a) The inquiry is invalidated
b) The inquiry continues without them
c) They are automatically dismissed
d) They receive a warning

33. What type of behavior is considered discourteous to the public?

a) Friendly service
b) Rudeness or neglect
c) Professional conduct
d) Timely responses

34. Which of the following behaviors is NOT considered misconduct?

a) Assault
 b) Malingering
c) Attending training seminars
d) Dishonesty

35. What is required for an officer to be reinstated after suspension?

a) Approval from the public
b) A successful defense in the inquiry
c) A public apology
d) No requirements

36. What should an officer do upon receiving a notification of misconduct?

a) Ignore it
b) Respond in writing
c) Publicly deny it
d) Call a meeting

37. What is the maximum duration for disciplinary proceedings?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

38. What is the consequence for filing false claims against government officials?
a) No consequence
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
d) Promotion

39. What is considered "foul language" in the context of misconduct?

a) Professional communication
b) Inappropriate or offensive language
c) Casual conversation
d) None of the above

40. Which of the following is a duty of every superior officer?

a) Oversee financial audits
b) Report misconduct of subordinates
c) Manage public relations
d) Conduct training sessions

41. What action can be taken against an officer for engaging in partisan political activities?
a) Promotion
b) Dismissal
c) No action
 d) Warning

42. Which type of misconduct can lead to immediate termination?

a) Minor lateness
b) Serious financial embarrassment
c) Unauthorized disclosure of official information
d) Being unprofessional

43. What should an officer do if they are accused of misconduct?

a) Remain silent
b) Defend themselves at the inquiry
c) Deny all allegations
d) Leave the service

44. What does "nepotism" refer to in the context of misconduct?

a) Favoritism shown to relatives
b) Hiring based on qualifications
c) General efficiency
d) None of the above

45. How must the grounds for discipline be communicated to the officer?
a) Verbally
b) In writing
c) Through social media
d) During team meetings

46. What happens if an officer is found guilty of insubordination?

a) They are ignored
b) They may face disciplinary action
c) They receive a bonus
d) They are promoted

47. In which case can an officer be interdicted?

a) If they request it
b) If the Human Resource Director recommends it
c) Automatically for any misconduct
d) Only if they are absent

48. What is the appropriate action if an officer's behavior is deemed prejudicial to state security?
a) No action
b) Inform the public
c) Immediate investigation and possible dismissal
d) Ignore it
49. What is the purpose of the disciplinary procedure?
a) To punish without investigation
b) To ensure fair treatment and due process
c) To promote officers
d) To conduct audits

50. What is the penalty for unauthorized removal of public records?

a) Warning
b) Possible dismissal
c) Promotion
d) No penalty

51. What role does the Federal Civil Service Commission play in disciplinary actions?
a) They conduct performance reviews
b) They have the authority to dismiss officers
c) They manage office supplies
d) They schedule training sessions

52. In cases of misconduct, what should the superior officer do first?

a) Report to the media
b) Ignore the issue
c) Bring it to the officer’s notice
d) Immediately suspend the officer

53. What is the definition of misconduct as per Chapter 10?

a) General inefficiency
b) A specific act of wrongdoing
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

54. Which of the following is NOT a type of misconduct?

a) Refusal to take lawful instructions
b) Engaging in personal hobbies
c) Habitual lateness
d) Dishonesty

55. What does the term "malingering" refer to?

a) Taking unnecessary leave
b) Engaging in training
c) Working overtime
d) Promoting team spirit

56. How should the officer be notified of a decision to withhold an increment?

a) By phone
 b) In writing
c) Verbally during a meeting
d) Through social media

57. Which of the following acts can lead to disciplinary proceedings?

a) Regular attendance
b) Failure to keep records
c) Participation in team-building activities
d) Professional development

58. What must happen if an officer is found guilty during the inquiry?
a) They are immediately dismissed
b) They may receive a penalty or reinstatement
c) They are promoted
d) They are ignored

59. What is the consequence of engaging in corrupt practices?

a) No consequence
b) Possible dismissal
c) A commendation
d) A warning

60. What is the primary purpose of disciplinary procedures?

a) To punish employees swiftly
b) To ensure fair treatment and due process
c) To promote a positive work culture
d) To manage performance reviews

61. How should an officer respond to a query regarding misconduct?

a) Ignore it
b) Provide a written explanation
c) Publicly deny the allegations
d) Call a meeting

62. What is the definition of serious misconduct?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) Training deficiencies

63. Which of the following behaviors is considered a violation of office dress code?
a) Wearing formal attire
b) Dressing inappropriately
c) Casual business wear
 d) Seasonal clothing

64. What must an officer do if they wish to appeal a disciplinary decision?

a) Write a letter to the media
b) Follow the appeal process outlined in policy
c) Ignore the decision
d) Go directly to court

65. What type of behavior is considered "unruly" in this context?

a) Professional interactions
b) Disrespectful or disruptive actions
c) Friendly conversations
d) Team collaboration

66. Which action is NOT permissible for an officer during working hours?
a) Taking breaks
b) Engaging in personal business
c) Attending meetings
d) Collaborating with colleagues

67. What should a Permanent Secretary do if an officer's increment is to be restored?

a) Inform the officer immediately
b) Notify the media
c) Wait for a month
d) Ignore the officer

68. What is the consequence of violating the oath of secrecy?

a) No consequence
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
d) Promotion

69. What is "advance fee fraud" in the context of serious misconduct?

a) A legitimate financial transaction
b) A criminal act
c) A marketing strategy
d) A training program

70. How should disciplinary actions be documented?

a) Verbally
b) In writing
c) Through social media
d) Not required
71. What happens if an officer is found guilty of bribery?
a) They may be promoted
b) They could face dismissal
c) They receive a warning
d) No action is taken

72. Which of the following is NOT defined as misconduct?

a) Failure to report misconduct
b) Participating in training sessions
c) Refusal to follow lawful instructions
d) Engaging in dishonest behavior

73. How are officers informed about the grounds for their disciplinary action?
a) Through public announcements
b) In writing
c) Verbally
d) By email only

74. What should an officer do if they are accused of misconduct?

a) Remain silent
b) Defend themselves during the inquiry
c) Leave the service
d) Ignore the allegations

75. What is meant by "serious financial embarrassment" in this context?

a) Temporary financial issues
b) Bankruptcy or severe financial problems
c) Regular financial management
d) None of the above

76. What is the role of the Director of Human Resource in cases of misconduct?
a) To manage office supplies
b) To report misconduct to higher authorities
c) To conduct financial audits
d) To train new employees

77. What should be done when an officer is guilty of sleeping on duty?

a) Ignore it
b) Report it to a superior
c) Promote the officer
d) Publicly announce it

78. Which of the following is a form of misconduct?

a) Engaging in team activities
 b) Refusal to accept lawful orders
c) Participating in workshops
d) Attending conferences

79. What action should be taken if an officer is involved in nepotism?

a) No action required
b) Immediate promotion
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) Public recognition

80. How should the Permanent Secretary handle a recommendation to interdict an

officer?
a) Ignore it
b) Act according to the rules
c) Discuss it with colleagues
d) Publicly announce it

81. What is required for an officer to be reinstated after being interdict?

a) A public apology
b) Evidence of innocence
c) A successful defense in the inquiry
d) No requirements

82. What is meant by "conduct prejudicial to the security of the State"?

a) Actions that support government initiatives
b) Any actions that compromise state security
c) Public service announcements
d) Community engagement

83. What is the procedure if an officer is found guilty of misconduct?

a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination or other penalties
c) No consequences
d) A public announcement

84. What constitutes "improper behavior" in the workplace?

a) Professional conduct
b) Actions that harm the image of the service
c) Engaging in training
d) Attending meetings

85. How should officers dress in accordance with office policy?

a) In any manner they choose
b) In a manner considered appropriate and modest
 c) Only formal attire
d) Casual wear

86. What happens if an officer is guilty of unauthorized disclosure of official information?

a) No action is taken
b) Possible dismissal
c) They receive a commendation
d) They are promoted

87. Which of the following is a reason for withholding an officer's increment?

a) Outstanding performance
b) General inefficiency
c) Participation in training
d) Team collaboration

88. What should an officer do if they receive a formal letter of advice?

a) Ignore it
b) Acknowledge its receipt in writing
c) Publicly deny it
d) Leave the service

89. How should misconduct be reported?

a) Verbally to anyone
b) Through the proper channels
c) To social media
d) Not reported

90. What is the role of a board of inquiry?

a) To investigate allegations of misconduct
b) To manage office supplies
c) To conduct performance reviews
d) To train new hires

91. What constitutes a "specific act of wrongdoing"?

a) General inefficiency
b) A clear violation of rules
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

92. What is the definition of "dishonesty" in the workplace?

a) Truthfulness
b) Engaging in deceitful acts
c) Transparency
d) Professional conduct
93. What happens if the Commission finds that an officer does not deserve dismissal?
a) They are promoted
b) They are reinstated
c) They face no consequences
d) They are suspended

94. Which of the following is a violation of office behavior?

a) Professional interactions
b) Engaging in personal business during work hours
c) Attending meetings
d) Collaborating with colleagues

95. What should occur if new evidence arises during an inquiry?

a) The inquiry must restart
b) The officer must be informed in writing
c) The findings should be ignored
d) The officer should be immediately dismissed

96. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action
d) A commendation

97. What is the appropriate attire for officers in an official capacity?

a) Casual wear
b) Formal and modest clothing
c) Any clothing they prefer
d) Seasonal attire

98. What happens if an officer is found guilty of engaging in partisan political activities?
a) They are promoted
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
d) No consequences

99. What should be done if an officer engages in embezzlement?

a) No action is required
b) Possible dismissal
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

100. How must all disciplinary procedures be conducted?

 a) Publicly announced
b) Fairly and within a specified timeframe
c) Informally
d) Without documentation

101. What is the primary function of the Federal Civil Service Commission?
a) To oversee financial audits
b) To manage disciplinary actions and dismissals
c) To conduct employee training
d) To issue public statements

102. Which of the following is a type of serious misconduct?

a) Attending workshops
b) Falsification of records
c) Regular attendance
d) Maintaining good relationships

103. What action should be taken if an officer is found sleeping on duty?

a) Promote the officer
b) Report to a superior
c) No action required
d) Ignore it

104. How should an officer’s performance issues be addressed?

a) By ignoring them
b) By documenting and discussing with the officer
c) By reporting to the media
d) By transferring the officer

105. What is the consequence of engaging in unauthorized removal of public records?

a) No consequence
b) Minor reprimand
c) Possible dismissal
d) Promotion

106. What should be included in a written notification of misconduct?

a) Personal opinions
b) The specific grounds for discipline
c) General comments
d) Praise for past performance

107. What is the penalty for officers involved in bribery?

a) Promotion
b) Possible dismissal
 c) No action
d) A warning

108. In what case can an officer’s increment be deferred?

a) Outstanding performance
b) General inefficiency
c) Participation in training
d) Team collaboration

109. What should be the focus of disciplinary procedures?

a) Punishment without investigation
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Speed over accuracy
d) Public opinion

110. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

111. How long can disciplinary proceedings take to complete?

a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days

112. What should happen if an officer is found guilty of serious misconduct?

a) They should be ignored
b) They may face penalties up to dismissal
c) They receive a bonus
d) They are promoted

113. What behavior is considered "discourteous" to the public?

a) Friendly service
b) Rudeness or neglect
c) Timely responses
d) Professional conduct

114. What must be documented in cases of general inefficiency?

a) Performance history
b) Specific instances of inefficiency
c) General comments
 d) Personal opinions

115. What is required for an officer to be reinstated after being suspended?

a) A public apology
b) Evidence of innocence
c) A successful defense in the inquiry
d) No requirements

116. What is the definition of "nepotism" in the workplace?

a) Promoting teamwork
b) Favoritism shown to relatives
c) General efficiency
d) None of the above

117. How should an officer respond to a written query regarding misconduct?

a) Ignore it
b) Provide a written explanation
c) Publicly deny the allegations
d) Leave the service

118. What is the consequence of conducting partisan political activities while in service?
a) No action required
b) Possible dismissal
c) Promotion
d) A warning

119. What is the role of a superior officer when misconduct is reported?

a) To ignore the report
b) To investigate and report to higher authorities
c) To manage office supplies
d) To conduct performance reviews

120. What does "insubordination" mean in the context of workplace conduct?

a) Refusal to follow lawful directions
b) General inefficiency
c) Professional behavior
d) Engaging in training

121. What is the definition of "general inefficiency"?

a) A single mistake
b) A series of omissions or incompetence
c) Exceptional performance
d) Lack of training
122. What should happen if an officer is found guilty of negligence?
a) Immediate termination
b) Report to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

123. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action
d) A commendation

124. What is the immediate action required if an officer's increment is to be withheld?

a) Inform the officer verbally
b) Inform the officer in writing
c) No notification is required
d) Notify only the media

125. What is required for disciplinary procedures to be valid?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
d) No documentation

126. How should the grounds for discipline be communicated to an officer?

a) Publicly
b) In writing
c) Verbally
d) Through email only

127. What constitutes "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) Training deficiencies

128. What is the penalty for engaging in embezzlement?

a) No action required
b) Possible dismissal
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

129. What action should a Permanent Secretary take if misconduct is reported?

a) Ignore it
 b) Investigate and take appropriate action
c) Publicly announce it
d) Transfer the officer

130. What should be done if an officer is guilty of engaging in malfeasance?

a) Promote them
b) No consequences
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) A warning

131. How is "foul language" defined in the context of misconduct?

a) Casual conversation
b) Inappropriate or offensive language
c) Professional communication
d) None of the above

132. What is the purpose of a board of inquiry?

a) To investigate allegations of misconduct
b) To manage office supplies
c) To conduct financial audits
d) To train new employees

133. What should an officer do if they receive a formal letter of advice?

a) Ignore it
b) Acknowledge its receipt in writing
c) Publicly deny it
d) Leave the service

134. What happens if an officer is found guilty of misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

135. What is the term for financial misconduct involving deception?

a) General inefficiency
b) Embezzlement
c) Professional behavior
d) Training deficiencies

136. What should happen if an officer engages in unauthorized political activities?

a) Promote them
b) Possible disciplinary action
 c) No consequences
d) A commendation

137. Which of the following is a form of misconduct?

a) Engaging in team activities
b) Refusal to accept lawful orders
c) Participating in training sessions
d) Attending conferences

138. What is the appropriate response if an officer is guilty of serious financial

embarrassment?
a) No action required
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

139. What type of behavior does "malingering" refer to?

a) Taking unnecessary leave
b) Engaging in training
c) Working overtime
d) Promoting team spirit

140. What is the consequence of engaging in nepotism?

a) No action required
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) Immediate promotion
d) Public recognition

141. How should an officer dress according to office policy?

a) In any manner they choose
b) In a manner considered appropriate and modest
c) Only formal attire
d) Casual wear

142. What happens if an officer is found guilty of misconduct during a disciplinary

inquiry?
a) They are immediately dismissed
b) They may receive a penalty or reinstatement
c) They are promoted
d) They are ignored

143. What action should an officer take if they are accused of misconduct?
a) Remain silent
b) Defend themselves during the inquiry
 c) Leave the service
d) Ignore the allegations

144. What should an officer do upon receiving a notification of misconduct?

a) Ignore it
b) Respond in writing
c) Publicly deny it
d) Call a meeting

145. What constitutes a "specific act of wrongdoing"?

a) General inefficiency
b) A clear violation of rules
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

146. What is the definition of "dishonesty" in the workplace?

a) Truthfulness
b) Engaging in deceitful acts
c) Transparency
d) Professional conduct

147. What is the penalty for officers involved in bribery?

a) Promotion
b) Possible dismissal
c) No action
d) A warning

148. What actions should be taken if further grounds for dismissal are disclosed during
an inquiry?
a) The inquiry must restart
b) The officer must be informed in writing
c) The findings should be ignored
d) The officer should be immediately dismissed

149. What happens if an officer is found guilty of negligence?

a) Immediate termination
b) Report to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

150. What is required to ensure fairness in disciplinary procedures?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
 d) No documentation

151. What should be done if an officer is found guilty of insubordination?

a) They are ignored
b) They may face disciplinary action
c) They receive a bonus
d) They are promoted

152. What type of behavior is considered "unruly" in this context?

a) Professional interactions
b) Disrespectful or disruptive actions
c) Friendly conversations
d) Team collaboration

153. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

154. What is the role of a superior officer when misconduct is reported?

a) To ignore the report
b) To investigate and report to higher authorities
c) To manage office supplies
d) To conduct performance reviews

155. What action should be taken if a Permanent Secretary decides to defer an

increment?
a) Inform the officer verbally
b) Inform the officer in writing
c) No notification is necessary
d) Notify only the media

156. How should the grounds for discipline be communicated to an officer?

a) Publicly
b) In writing
c) Verbally
d) Through email only

157. What constitutes "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
 d) Training deficiencies

158. What is the penalty for engaging in embezzlement?

a) No action required
b) Possible dismissal
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

159. What should happen if an officer is guilty of engaging in malfeasance?

a) Promote them
b) No consequences
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) A warning

160. What should be documented in cases of general inefficiency?

a) Performance history
b) Specific instances of inefficiency
c) General comments
d) Personal opinions

161. What actions should be taken if further grounds for dismissal are disclosed during
an inquiry?
a) The inquiry must restart
b) The officer must be informed in writing
c) The findings should be ignored
d) The officer should be immediately dismissed

162. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action
d) A commendation

163. What is required for disciplinary procedures to be valid?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
d) No documentation

164. What is the role of the Federal Civil Service Commission?

a) To oversee financial audits
b) To manage disciplinary actions and dismissals
c) To conduct employee training
d) To issue public statements
165. What should an officer do if they receive a formal letter of advice?
a) Ignore it
b) Acknowledge its receipt in writing
c) Publicly deny it
d) Leave the service

166. What is considered "conduct prejudicial to the security of the State"?

a) Actions that support government initiatives
b) Any actions that compromise state security
c) Public service announcements
d) Community engagement

167. What is the immediate action required if an officer's increment is to be withheld?

a) Inform the officer verbally
b) Inform the officer in writing
c) No notification is required
d) Notify only the media

168. What type of behavior does "malingering" refer to?

a) Taking unnecessary leave
b) Engaging in training
c) Working overtime
d) Promoting team spirit

169. What should be included in a written notification of misconduct?

a) Personal opinions
b) The specific grounds for discipline
c) General comments
d) Praise for past performance

170. What happens if an officer is found guilty of misconduct during a disciplinary

inquiry?
a) They are immediately dismissed
b) They may receive a penalty or reinstatement
c) They are promoted
d) They are ignored

171. What is the definition of "dishonesty" in the workplace?

a) Truthfulness
b) Engaging in deceitful acts
c) Transparency
d) Professional conduct
172. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

173. What is required for an officer to be reinstated after being suspended?

a) A public apology
b) Evidence of innocence
c) A successful defense in the inquiry
d) No requirements

174. How should an officer respond to a query regarding misconduct?

a) Ignore it
b) Provide a written explanation
c) Publicly deny the allegations
d) Leave the service

175. What constitutes a "specific act of wrongdoing"?

a) General inefficiency
b) A clear violation of rules
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

176. What is the appropriate response if an officer is guilty of serious financial

embarrassment?
a) No action required
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

177. What happens if an officer is guilty of engaging in partisan political activities?

a) They are promoted
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
d) No consequences

178. What is the role of a superior officer when misconduct is reported?

a) To ignore the report
b) To investigate and report to higher authorities
c) To manage office supplies
d) To conduct performance reviews
179. What should happen if an officer is found guilty of negligence?
a) Immediate termination
b) Report to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

180. What is the purpose of a board of inquiry?

a) To investigate allegations of misconduct
b) To manage office supplies
c) To conduct financial audits
d) To train new employees

181. How should officers be notified of the grounds for their disciplinary action?
a) Through public announcements
b) In writing
c) Verbally
d) By email only

182. What is the definition of "general inefficiency"?

a) A single mistake
b) A series of omissions or incompetence
c) Exceptional performance
d) Lack of training

183. What should happen if new evidence arises during an inquiry?

a) The inquiry must restart
b) The officer must be informed in writing
c) The findings should be ignored
d) The officer should be immediately dismissed

184. What type of behavior is considered "discourteous" to the public?

a) Friendly service
b) Rudeness or neglect
c) Timely responses
d) Professional conduct

185. What is the immediate consequence of engaging in unauthorized political activities?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No consequences
d) A commendation

186. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
 b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action
d) A commendation

187. What is the appropriate action if an officer's behavior is deemed prejudicial to state
security?
a) No action
b) Inform the public
c) Immediate investigation and possible dismissal
d) Ignore it

188. What should be done if an officer is guilty of engaging in malfeasance?

a) Promote them
b) No consequences
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) A warning

189. What is the role of the Director of Human Resource in cases of misconduct?
a) To manage office supplies
b) To report misconduct to higher authorities
c) To conduct financial audits
d) To train new employees

190. What is the penalty for officers involved in bribery?

a) Promotion
b) Possible dismissal
c) No action
d) A warning

191. What should happen if an officer is found guilty of fraud?

a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible dismissal
c) No consequences
d) A commendation

192. What is required for disciplinary procedures to ensure fairness?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
d) No documentation

193. What is the role of a superior officer when misconduct is reported?

a) To ignore the report
b) To investigate and report to higher authorities
 c) To manage office supplies
d) To conduct performance reviews

194. What should be done if an officer is guilty of engaging in fraudulent activities?

a) Promote them
b) Immediate dismissal
c) A warning
d) No action

195. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

196. What should an officer do if they are accused of misconduct?

a) Remain silent
b) Defend themselves during the inquiry
c) Leave the service
d) Ignore the allegations

197. What is the definition of "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) Training deficiencies

198. What is the primary duty of every officer regarding disciplinary rules?
a) To familiarize themselves with them
b) To ignore them
c) To enforce them on others
d) To report violations only

199. What is the immediate consequence if an officer is found guilty of sleeping on duty?
a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action required
d) A warning

200. What is the consequence of violating the oath of secrecy?

a) No consequence
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
 d) Promotion

201. What should happen if an officer is guilty of negligence?

a) Immediate termination
b) Report to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

202. What is considered a "specific act of wrongdoing"?

a) General inefficiency
b) A clear violation of rules
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

203. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action
d) A commendation

204. What is required for disciplinary procedures to be valid?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
d) No documentation

205. What constitutes "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) Training deficiencies

206. What is the penalty for engaging in embezzlement?

a) No action required
b) Possible dismissal
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

207. What should happen if an officer is guilty of engaging in malfeasance?

a) Promote them
b) No consequences
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) A warning
208. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

209. What is the appropriate response if an officer is guilty of serious financial

embarrassment?
a) No action required
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

210. What happens if an officer is found guilty of misconduct during a disciplinary

inquiry?
a) They are immediately dismissed
b) They may receive a penalty or reinstatement
c) They are promoted
d) They are ignored

211. What is the definition of "dishonesty" in the workplace?

a) Truthfulness
b) Engaging in deceitful acts
c) Transparency
d) Professional conduct

212. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

213. What is required for an officer to be reinstated after being suspended?

a) A public apology
b) Evidence of innocence
c) A successful defense in the inquiry
d) No requirements

214. How should an officer respond to a query regarding misconduct?

a) Ignore it
b) Provide a written explanation
c) Publicly deny the allegations
 d) Leave the service

215. What constitutes a "specific act of wrongdoing"?

a) General inefficiency
b) A clear violation of rules
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

216. What is the appropriate response if an officer is guilty of serious financial

embarrassment?
a) No action required
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

217. What happens if an officer is guilty of engaging in partisan political activities?

a) They are promoted
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
d) No consequences

218. What is the role of a superior officer when misconduct is reported?

a) To ignore the report
b) To investigate and report to higher authorities
c) To manage office supplies
d) To conduct performance reviews

219. What should happen if an officer is found guilty of negligence?

a) Immediate termination
b) Report to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

220. What is the purpose of a board of inquiry?

a) To investigate allegations of misconduct
b) To manage office supplies
c) To conduct financial audits
d) To train new employees

221. How should officers be notified of the grounds for their disciplinary action?
a) Through public announcements
b) In writing
c) Verbally
d) By email only
222. What is the definition of "general inefficiency"?
a) A single mistake
b) A series of omissions or incompetence
c) Exceptional performance
d) Lack of training

223. What should happen if new evidence arises during an inquiry?

a) The inquiry must restart
b) The officer must be informed in writing
c) The findings should be ignored
d) The officer should be immediately dismissed

224. What type of behavior is considered "discourteous" to the public?

a) Friendly service
b) Rudeness or neglect
c) Timely responses
d) Professional conduct

225. What is the immediate consequence of engaging in unauthorized political activities?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No consequences
d) A commendation

226. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action
d) A commendation

227. What is the appropriate action if an officer's behavior is deemed prejudicial to state
security?
a) No action
b) Inform the public
c) Immediate investigation and possible dismissal
d) Ignore it

228. What should be done if an officer is guilty of engaging in malfeasance?

a) Promote them
b) No consequences
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) A warning
229. What is the role of the Director of Human Resource in cases of misconduct?
a) To manage office supplies
b) To report misconduct to higher authorities
c) To conduct financial audits
d) To train new employees

230. What is the penalty for officers involved in bribery?

a) Promotion
b) Possible dismissal
c) No action
d) A warning

231. What should happen if an officer is found guilty of fraud?

a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible dismissal
c) No consequences
d) A commendation

232. What is required for disciplinary procedures to ensure fairness?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
d) No documentation

233. What is the role of a superior officer when misconduct is reported?

a) To ignore the report
b) To investigate and report to higher authorities
c) To manage office supplies
d) To conduct performance reviews

234. What should happen if an officer is guilty of engaging in fraudulent activities?

a) Promote them
b) Immediate dismissal
c) A warning
d) No action

235. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

236. What should an officer do if they are accused of misconduct?

 a) Remain silent
b) Defend themselves during the inquiry
c) Leave the service
d) Ignore the allegations

237. What is the definition of "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) Training deficiencies

238. What is the primary duty of every officer regarding disciplinary rules?
a) To familiarize themselves with them
b) To ignore them
c) To enforce them on others
d) To report violations only

239. What is the immediate consequence if an officer is found guilty of sleeping on duty?
a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) No action required
d) A warning

240. What is the consequence of violating the oath of secrecy?

a) No consequence
b) Possible dismissal
c) A warning
d) Promotion

241. What should happen if an officer is guilty of negligence?

a) Immediate termination
b) Report to a superior
c) Ignore it
d) Promote the officer

242. What is considered a "specific act of wrongdoing"?

a) General inefficiency
b) A clear violation of rules
c) Poor attendance
d) Lack of training

243. What is the consequence of habitual lateness?

a) Promotion
b) Possible disciplinary action
 c) No action
d) A commendation

244. What is required for disciplinary procedures to be valid?

a) Public announcement
b) Fair treatment and due process
c) Informal discussions
d) No documentation

245. What constitutes "serious misconduct"?

a) Minor infractions
b) Acts of very serious wrongdoing
c) General inefficiency
d) Training deficiencies

246. What is the penalty for engaging in embezzlement?

a) No action required
b) Possible dismissal
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

247. What should happen if an officer is guilty of engaging in malfeasance?

a) Promote them
b) No consequences
c) Possible disciplinary action
d) A warning

248. What is the consequence of engaging in misconduct that harms the service’s
image?
a) Immediate promotion
b) Possible termination
c) A commendation
d) No consequences

249. What is the appropriate response if an officer is guilty of serious financial

embarrassment?
a) No action required
b) Possible disciplinary action
c) A commendation
d) Promotion

250. What happens if an officer is found guilty of misconduct during a disciplinary

inquiry?
a) They are immediately dismissed
b) They may receive a penalty or reinstatement
c) They are promoted
d) They are ignored