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com
 UGC NET MEMORY BASED QUESTION-PAPER 1
TOPICS ASKED IN UGC NET PAPER - 1 (7 JANUARY 2025 SHIFT- 2)

D.I. TABLE - EASY

ICT- WIMAX, HTML, SITE FULL FORM,
L.R.- CODING DECODING, FALLACY, NO. SERIES (1,5,14,30, 55)
MATHS- BOAT AND STREAM, AVERAGE, PROFIT LOSS
TEACHING- MOODLE, LMS, SWAYAM, THINKING HATS (WHITE, GREEN, YELLOW, RED BLACK, BLUE),
THINKING BASED QUES
COMM.- GESTURES(KINESICS), PSYCHOLOGICAL BARRIERS
P.D.- POLLUTANTS, BIO DIVERSITY, PROTOCOLS, NAPCC, NEW QUES AS WELL
H.E.- UNIVERSITIES, NEP 2020
RESEARCH- PLAGRSIM, SAMPLING

MEMORY BASED QUES

Q1. A motor boat covers certain distance downstream in 5 h but takes 6 h to return upstream to the
starting point. It the speed of the stream be 4 km/h, then what is the speed of the motor boat in still water?
(a) 40 km/h
(b) 42 km/h
(c) 44 km/h
(d) 46 km/h
Ans.(c)
Sol. Given:
Time taken downstream = 5 hours.
Time taken upstream = 6 hours.
Speed of the stream = 4 km/h.
Formula - Distance = Speed × Time
Speed of boat in still water = (Downstream speed + Upstream speed) / 2
Speed of water current = (Downstream speed - Upstream speed) / 2
Downstream speed = Speed of boat in still water + Speed of stream
Upstream speed = Speed of boat in still water - Speed of stream
Solution-
Let the speed of the boat in still water be x km/h
Downstream speed = x + 4 km/h
Upstream speed = x - 4 km/h
Distance covered downstream = Downstream speed × Time taken downstream
Distance covered upstream = Upstream speed × Time taken upstream
Since the distance covered in both directions is the same,
Distance = Speed × Time
(x + 4) × 5 = (x - 4) × 6
5x + 20 = 6x - 24
x = 44 km/h

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Q2. Match List I with List II
List I. (channels of SWAYAM Prabha) List II. (subjects Covered)
I. Social Science-3, Management, Library science, Information
A. Channels 03: PRABODH
Science and related subjects.
B. Channels 04: SAARASWAT II. Social science-1, Social and Behavioural sciences
III. Social science-4, Law, Legal studies, Human rights and related
C. Channels 05: PRABANDHAN
subjects.
IV. Social science-2, Education, Psychology, Home science and
D. Channel 06: VIDHIK
related subjects.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct matching is:
A-II: Channel 03: PRABODH covers Social science-1, Social and Behavioural sciences.
B-IV: Channel 04: SAARASWAT covers Social science-2, Education, Psychology, Home science and related
subjects.
C-I: Channel 05: PRABANDHAN covers Social Science-3, Management, Library science, Information Science, and
related subjects.
D-III: Channel 06: VIDHIK covers Social science-4, Law, Legal studies, Human rights, and related subjects.

Q3. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Moodle is an example of a Learning Management System (LMS)
Statement II: Mentimeter is a tool used for creating online surveys.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is (a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
Moodle is indeed an example of a Learning Management System (LMS), widely used for online education, course
management, and collaboration.
Mentimeter, on the other hand, is a tool primarily utilized for creating interactive presentations and engaging
online surveys. Both platforms serve distinct purposes in the realm of digital education and are recognized tools
in their respective domains.

Q4. Kinesics, when used, will communicate a person's

(A) Social status
(B) Level of involvement
(C) Emotional quotient
(D) Political mobility
(E) Language ambiguity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, C, D Only
(c) D, C, E Only
(d) A, D, E Only
Ans.(a)
Sol. Kinesics, which refers to body language and non-verbal communication, often communicates a person's
level of involvement (B), emotional quotient (C), and sometimes even social status (A). Body language,
gestures, facial expressions, and posture all give insights into a person's level of engagement and emotional state.
Social cues and gestures may also reflect one's standing or confidence, indirectly indicating social status.
Information Booster: 1. Kinesics is the study of body movements, facial expressions, and gestures.
2. It plays a critical role in non-verbal communication and can indicate involvement, attention, or engagement in
a conversation.
3. Emotional states such as happiness, anger, or anxiety can be easily conveyed through kinesics.
4. Social status can sometimes be inferred from one's body language, posture, and gestures.
5. Kinesics does not directly communicate political mobility or language ambiguity.
Additional Knowledge:
Political mobility: This is not typically conveyed through kinesics, which focuses more on immediate social and
emotional cues.
Language ambiguity: Kinesics does not directly address language ambiguity but can sometimes clarify intent
when words are ambiguous.

Q5. Identify the correct sequence of barriers to effective communication.

(A) Physical
(B) Perceptual
(C) Emotional
(D) Cultural
(E) Semantic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (B), (C), (D), (Ε), (A)
(c) (D), (C), (A), (Ε), (Β)
(d) (E), (D), (B), (A), (C)
Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct sequence of barriers to effective communication is:
(A) Physical: Barriers related to the environment, such as noise, distance, and physical obstructions.
(B) Perceptual: Barriers arising from how individuals perceive information differently due to their experiences,
attitudes, and cognitive biases.
(C) Emotional: Barriers stemming from emotional states like anger, stress, or anxiety, which can distort
understanding.
(D) Cultural: Barriers that arise from differences in cultural norms, values, and practices that can lead to
misunderstandings.
(E) Semantic: Barriers caused by language issues, such as jargon, ambiguous words, or misinterpretation of
meanings.
Information Booster: · Physical barriers include external factors like noise, faulty equipment, or large
distances that hinder clear communication.
Perceptual barriers relate to differences in how people interpret messages, often based on individual biases or
perspectives.
Emotional barriers involve the emotional state of the individuals, which can affect how messages are received
and processed.
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Cultural barriers occur when communicators come from different cultural backgrounds, leading to
misunderstandings due to differences in language, values, and customs.
Semantic barriers arise when words or symbols are misinterpreted, often due to differences in language or use
of jargon.

Q6. Which one of the following pollutants is responsible for acid rain formation?
(a) CH4 (Methane)
(b) C6H6 (Benzene)
(c) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
(d) CO (carbon monoxide)
Ans.(c)
Sol. Acid rain is primarily caused by the release of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the
atmosphere. When these gases react with water vapor, oxygen, and other chemicals in the atmosphere, they form
sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3), which then fall to the ground as acid rain.
Information booster: Methane (CH4), benzene (C6H6), and carbon monoxide (CO) are not significant
contributors to acid rain formation. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide).

Q7. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must have at least 15000 species of vascular plants.
Statement II: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must have 50% or more of its original vegetation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Ans.(b)
Sol.
1. Species Richness Criterion:
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must have at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics
(species that are found nowhere else).
Statement I is incorrect because the threshold is 1,500, not 15,000.
2. Habitat Loss Criterion:
The area must have lost at least 70% of its original vegetation, not retained 50% or more as stated.
Statement II is also incorrect.
Information Booster: · Biodiversity hotspots were first identified by Norman Myers in 1988. The concept
highlights areas with exceptional levels of plant endemism and significant habitat loss.
There are 36 biodiversity hotspots globally, including regions like the Amazon, Congo Basin, and Indo-Burma.
India is home to four biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Sundaland (Nicobar Islands), and the
Western Ghats.

Q8. Identify the features associated with Kyoto Protocol.

(A) Heavier burden on developed countries to cut down greenhouse gas emissions.
(B) International emissions trading.
(C) Nationally determined contributions.
(D) Clean Development Mechanism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, B and D Only
(d) A, C and D Only

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Ans.(c)
Sol.
1. (A) Heavier burden on developed countries to cut down greenhouse gas emissions:
True. The Kyoto Protocol places a heavier responsibility on developed countries (Annex I countries) to reduce
emissions, recognizing their historical contribution to greenhouse gas levels.
2. (B) International emissions trading:
True. The Kyoto Protocol established a market-based mechanism allowing countries to trade emissions
allowances. This system helps countries meet their targets cost-effectively.
3. (D) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM):
True. The CDM allows developed countries to invest in emission reduction projects in developing countries and
earn certified emission reduction credits to meet their targets under the protocol.
Information Booster: · The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in 1997 and entered into force in 2005. Its primary
goal was to reduce greenhouse gas emissions globally, with legally binding targets for developed countries.
It introduced three market-based mechanisms:
1. International Emissions Trading (IET)
2. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
3. Joint Implementation (JI)
Additional Knowledge: (C) Nationally determined contributions (NDCs):
False. NDCs are a feature of the Paris Agreement, not the Kyoto Protocol. The Kyoto Protocol imposed binding
targets for developed countries, unlike the voluntary commitments under the Paris Agreement.
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):
Introduced by the Paris Agreement in 2015, NDCs represent voluntary commitments by countries to achieve
their climate goals.
Kyoto Protocol vs. Paris Agreement:
The Kyoto Protocol focused on legally binding targets for developed countries.
The Paris Agreement emphasizes global participation, including developing countries, with non-binding
commitments.

Q9. Which University in India was first to throw all University examinations open to girls?
(a) Punjab University
(b) Calcutta University
(c) Savitribai Phule University
(d) Bombay University
Ans.(b)
Sol. Calcutta University was one of the earliest institutions in India to take progressive steps toward gender
equality in education. In 1871, it became the first university in India to open its examinations to female students.
While the University of Bombay did take steps to admit women into higher education and exams in the later part
of the 19th century, Calcutta University was notable for this early inclusion of women in university-level
examinations.
Calcutta University’s decision was significant because, at the time, education for women was not widely accepted
or encouraged. This move helped pave the way for more women to enter the fields of higher education and
participate in academic and professional spheres. Over time, this progressive stance influenced other universities
in India to follow suit, expanding opportunities for women across the country.
Information Booster: · Calcutta University was founded in 1857, and it played a key role in India's educational
reforms during the British era.
The inclusion of women in university exams in 1871 set a precedent for gender equality in education.
The decision was part of a broader social reform movement, with leaders like Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
advocating for women's education.
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Women were allowed to enroll in higher education programs and sit for exams, contributing to the increasing
participation of women in India's intellectual life.
Bombay University and Punjab University (options a and d) also contributed significantly to women’s
education, but Calcutta University led the way in allowing women to take university exams.

Q10. In a State government university or Central University, recommendation of the Selection Committee
for the recruitment of the faculty is approved by the
(a) Academic Council
(b) Executive Council
(c) Finance Committee
(d) Chancellor of University
Ans.(b)
Sol. The Executive Council in a university serves as the principal executive authority, responsible for the
approval of recommendations made by the Selection Committee for faculty recruitment. While the Selection
Committee evaluates and shortlists candidates, the Executive Council provides final approval to ensure
alignment with institutional goals, statutory provisions, and governance norms.
Information Booster: 1. Academic Council (a): Responsible for academic decisions like curriculum design,
examination policies, and research promotions, not faculty recruitment.
2. Executive Council (b): Handles administrative, financial, and staffing matters, including the final approval of
faculty appointments.
3. Finance Committee (c): Manages budgetary allocations and financial oversight, with no role in recruitment
approvals.
4. Chancellor (d): Acts as the titular head of the university, often approving statutory amendments but not
directly involved in faculty selection.

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