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The document consists of two tests focused on environmental protection, including questions on pronunciation, stress, vocabulary, and comprehension related to environmental issues. It covers topics such as pollution, conservation, and wildlife, along with various types of questions including multiple choice and sentence formation. The tests aim to assess knowledge and understanding of environmental concepts and language skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

814 views48 pages

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hangle.shc

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UNIT 7.

ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
TEST 01

Question 13: A. in B. around C. at D. behind

Question 14: A. used B. use C. using D. to use
Question 15: A. a B. an C. the D. X
Question 16: A. changer B. changing C. changed D. change
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. The city was bustling with activity.
b. I decided to visit the local museum
c. After a day of exploration, I returned to my hotel, feeling content.
d. I started my day with a hearty breakfast at a café near my hotel
e. The museum had a fascinating collection of artifacts.
A. d – a – b- e – c C. a – d - b– e – c
B. d – a – e – b – c D. a – d – e – b – c
Question 18.
a. I hope this letter finds you well.
b. I wanted to share some exciting news with you.
c. I look forward to hearing from you soon.
d. I have been promoted at work
e. It’s been a challenging journey, but I’m thrilled about this new opportunity.
f. Please write back when you get a chance.
A. a-d-e-b-f-c B. a-b-e-d-f-c C. a-d-b-e-f-c D. a-b-d-e-f-c
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Light pollution is not (19) ____ serious as water or air pollution. Moreover, it is the type of pollution that (20)
____ more in cities than in rural areas. In the past, we could sit out at night and gaze at glittering stars in the
sky and light from objects in the out space. Nowadays, cities are covered with lights from buildings, streets,
advertising displays, many of which direct the lights up into the sky and into many unwanted places. The real
problem is that it is very (21) ____ to apply light to almost everything at night. Millions of tons of oil and coal
(22) ____ to produce the power to light the sky. Eye strain, loss of vision and stress are what people may get
from light pollution. (23) ____ light at night can harm our eyes and also harm the hormones that help us (24)
____ things properly.
Question 19: A. more B. as C. much D. only
Question 20: A. happen B. occur C. occurs D. is occurred
Question 21: A. waste B. wastes C. wasting D. wasteful
Question 22: A. used B. using C. is used D. are used
Question 23: A. Very much B. Too much C. Too much D. So many
Question 24: A. to use B. useful C. used D. using
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: If we want to save the environment, we need to stop using so much energy.
A. Using so much energy, we want to save the environment
B. We need to stop using so much energy when we can save the environment
C. We want to save the environment if we need to stop using so much energy
D. We won’t save the environment unless we stop using so much energy.
Question 26: It was not until midnight that Mike stopped practising.
A. Mike stopped practising before it was midnight.
B. Mike only stopped practising before midnight.
C. Mike stopped practising after midnight.
D. I wanted Mike to stop practising before midnight.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Endangered animals/ wild/ face/ risk/ extinction.
A. Endangered animals in the wild face risking of extinction.
B. Endangered animals in the wild are facing a high risk of extinction.
C. Endangered animals in the wild faces risk of extinction.
D. Endangered animals from the wild are facing a risk of extinction.
Question 28: I/ call/ you/ as soon as/ I/ arrive/ airport.
A. I call you as soon as I arrive at the airport.
B. I will call you as soon as I will arrive at the airport.
C. I will call you as soon as I arrive at the airport.
D. I would call you as soon as I arrive at the airport.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign say?
A. You can make noise and talk loudly in this area.
B. This area is for quiet and no loud noises are allowed.
C. Making noise is encouraged and allowed in this area.
D. The area is not watched, so noise is not controlled.
Question 30: What does the notice say?

A. You can visit the garden any day, not just next week.
B. The garden is open for planting and visitors are allowed in now.
C. The garden is always open and is not closed for planting.
D. The garden will be open after planting is completed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Yellowstone National Park was established in 1872. Located in northwestern Wyoming and extending
into Montana and Idaho, the park is known for its spectacular geysers, hot springs, canyons, and fossil forests.
Yellowstone was the world's first national park. Yellowstone National Park encompasses a large area of
unspoiled wilderness that is almost entirely forested. The most common tree is the lodgepole pine, but other
varieties of pine, as well as spruce, fir, and juniper are also found in Yellowstone.
The park is one of the largest wildlife sanctuaries in the United States. Among the more than 300 animal
species found here are grizzly bears, elk, deer, antelope, moose, bighorn sheep, coyotes, and lynx. During
summer, thousands of wapiti, or American elk graze in the park. More than 1,300 bison, which almost became
extinct in the park, roam the eastern sections. Wolves, once thought to be a menace, were reintroduced to the
park in 1995 after being hunted and trapped to the brink of extinction early in the 20th century. Nearly 300
species of birds, including bald eagles, osprey, white pelicans, California gulls, and Canada geese, either live
in or visit the park. The rare trumpeter swan also frequents the area and is protected within the park.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. To discuss the dangers the flora of the park has to face.
B. To discuss the dangers the fauna of the park has to face
C. To show the bad condition of the park
D. To give information about the park
Question 32: What do wapiti do during summer?
A. They roam in the park C. They graze in the park
B. They visit the park D. They frequent the park
Question 33: Which kind of animal almost became extinct early in the 20th century?
A. Bison B. bald eagles C. trumpeter swan D. wolves
Question 34: Which statement is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Yellowstone was establised in 1872.
B. Yellowstone was the world’s first national park
C. Yellowstone is located totally in northwestern Wyoming.
D. Yellowstone is famous for its spectacular geysers, hot springs, canyons and fossils forests.
Question 35: The word “ encompasses” in paragraph 2 CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. Includes B. has C. contains D. surrounds
Question 36: The word “unspoiled” in paragraph 2 OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. Damaged B. protested C. protected D. established
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
About 65 million years ago, the dinosaurs became extinct. The hot, dry cilmate of the Cretaceous Period
quickly changed as a result of an asteroid hitting the Earth. (37) _____. The dinosaurs could not quickly adapt
to the Earth’s colder climate and eventually became extinct. While the dinosaurs are no longer with us, today
a number of plant, insect, (38) _____, and they too are in danger of extinction. Human activities that are
destructive to the environment such as the development of industry, housing, and (39)_____. For example, in
the Amazon Rainforest, thousands of hectares of forest are being destroyed as trees are being cut down to make
way for cattle farms, logging and housing. Scientists warn that many plant and animal species from this area
of the world will become extinct soon unless we quickly stop destroying their habitats. (40) _____.

A - farming are destroying the habitats of many species.

B – This collision sent dust and debris into the atmosphere which blocked sunlight from reaching the Earth’s
surface.
C – and animal species are finding their habitats being destroyed
D – Therefore, more feasible and urgent actions should be taken.
Question 37 B Question 38 C Question 39 A Question 40 D
UNIT 7. ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
TEST 02

Question 13: A. in B. for C. at D. behind

Question 14: A. a B. an C. the D. X
Question 15: A. education B. educate C. educating D. educational
Question 16: A. down B. in C. up D. forward
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. I hope thí letter finds you in good health.
b. We are planning a family reunion next month and would love for you to join.
c. Please let us know if you can make it.
d. It’s been too long since we last caught up
e. The reunion will be at our usual spot by the lake
f. Looking forward to your positive response
A. a-b-e-d-c-f B. a-d-b-e-c-f C. a-b-d-e-c-f D. a-d-b-c-e-f
Question 18.
a. The weather was perfect for a day at the beach
b. We packed our bags with sandwiches, fruits, and cold drinks.
c. As the sun set, we packed up our things and headed home, tired but happy.
d. We spent the day building sandcastles, playing beach volleyball, and swimming in the sea.
A. a-b-d-c-e B. b-a-d-e-c C. a-b-c-d-e D. b-a-c-d-e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Have a walk on a beach, listen to the sound of the sea waves, (19) _____ suddenly you see a lot of
rubbish on the beach. Pollution takes away all the (20) ____ of our beaches. I feel really very annoyed when I
see plastic bags lying on the sand, cigarette ends buried in the sand, and soda cans floating in the sea.
There are a lot of things that we can do. (21) ____ we see rubbish, we should do our part in the protecting
the land by picking it up and throwing it (22) ____ dust bins. Moreover, we can form some kind of organzation
that helps (23) ____ the beaches. If everyone does their part, the beaches will be a wonderful and beautiful
place. We need to start now (24) ____ the beaches are damaged beyond repair.
Question 19: A. or B. but C. and D. so
Question 20: A. beauty B. beautiful C .beautifully D. being beautiful
Question 21: A. While B. If C. Unless D. Soon
Question 22: A. on B. in C. forward D. up
Question 23: A. cleaning up B. clean up C. clean off D. clean off
Question 24: A. before B. after C. until D. when
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: They travelled across India, and then flew on to Japan.
A. They travelled across India as soon as they flew on to Japan.
B. After flying on to Japan, they travelled across India
C. They didn’t travel across India until they flew on to Japan.
D. After travelling across India, they flew on to Japan.
Question 26: My sister rides his bike to work every day to help protect the environment.
A. My sister rides his bike to work and to help protect the environment.
B. My sister rides his bike to work by helping protect the environment.
C. To go to work by bike every day, my sister helps protect the environment.
D. To help protect the environment, my sister goes to work by bike every day.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: She/ decide/ come/ party/ though/ she/ not/ like
A. She decided to come to the party eventhough she didn’t like it.
B. She decided to come to the party if though she didn’t like
C. She decided coming to the party though she didn’t like it.
D. She decided to come to the party if though she doesn’t it.
Question 28: Serious/ accident/ happen/ we/ wait/ bus/ yesterday.
A. A serious accident was happening while we were waiting for the bus yesterday.
B. A serious accident happened while we were waiting for the bus yesterday.
C. A serious accident happended when we waited for the bus yesterday.
D. A serious accident was happended when we were waiting for the bus yesterday.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign say?
A. You are allowed to go into this area anytime you want.
B. You should stay away and not enter this area.
C. This area is used for special events or activities.
D. You are allowed to enter only if you have a special pass or permission

Question 30: What does the sign say?

A. Dogs are welcome everywhere and can go anywhere.
B. Dogs are not allowed to enter or be in this area.
C. You may bring dogs here if they are on a leash
D. Only small dogs are allowed in this area.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Saving the Environment: One Home at a Time
Pollution can be seen not only throughout the world, but also in our own homes. It comes from
household chemicals, the amount of water people use and the waste people produce and throw away. What can
be done to stop this pollution? Surprisingly, a person can help save the environment by doing simple things.
First, we need to recyle, which allows products to be used over and over again. Recycling can also
reduce the number of trees cut down to produce paper products. It takes very little effort. It is not hard to place
plastic and glass bottles, aluminum cans and paper in a bin. Anyone can do it.
Second, we need to control the amount of water used at home. It can be conserved by taking short
showers instead of baths, repairing leaky faucets, using the dishwasher or washing machine only when fully
loaded, or simply turning the faucet off while brushing your teeth.
Third, we need to reduce waste. We need to recycle whenever possible, but should also try to use this
waste effectively. For example, grass clippings and food scraps can be made into compost for plants. The
average person produces 4.3 pounds of waste every day, but we can reduce that amount by recycling and
reusing.
If we do out part in our own homes, we can help keep the planet from becoming more polluted.
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Recycling is the only way to help the environment.
B. Reducing water usage and waste are more important than recycling.
C. Individuals can help reduce pollution through simple actions at home
D. Pollution in homes is caused only by household chemicals
Question 32: Why does recycling help to reduce waste?
A. Plants need to develop
B. Waste can be recycled and reused
C. A person can do it in his home
D. An average man produces compost for plants.
Question 33: Recylcing can help us ____.
A. Never cut down trees C. produce more paper products
B. Place garbage bins easily D. use products again and again.
Question 34: Pollution is caused from the following sources EXCEPT ______
A. Water in rivers B. water from households C. wastes D. house chemicals
Question 35: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Cutting down B. the number C. recycling D. effort
Question 36: The word “effectively” in paragraph 4 OPPOSITE to _____.
A. Attractively B. worthlessly C. harmfully D. efficiently
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Environmental pollution is one of the impacts of human activities on the Earth. There are four types of
pollution, namely, (37) _____.
Most of the air pollution results from the buring of fossil fuels, motor vehicles, factories, aircraft and
rockets. (38) ____. Air pollution also contributes to the greenhouse effect.
Soil pollution is a result of dumping plastic or other waste in the ground and the overuse of chemicals
in growing crops. The long-term effects of soild pollution are contaminated vegetation and the decrease of
soild fertility.
Water pollution is a result of dumping pollutants such as oil and other chemicals in rivers, (39) ____.
Rubbish blockages in rivers can also cause pollution.
The effects of water pollution include the destruction of rivers, lakes and the pollution of grounwater, surface
water and seawater.
Environmenal pollution is becoming an increasingly serious problem or threat that needs to be taken
care of as soon as possible, (40)____.

A. Air pollution, soil pollution, water pollution and noise pollution.

B. This can cause acid rain which damages water, soild and plants
C. Not only for the sake of the environment, but also for the people that live in it.
D. Which makes the water unclean or contaminated.
Question 37 A Question 38 C Question 39 D Question 40 B
UNIT 8. SHOPPING
TEST 01

Question 13: A. enjoy B. join C. participate D. take part

Question 14: A. about B. above C. alike D. again
Question 15: A. why B. if C. that D. whether
Question 16: A. brings B. bringing C. bring D. to bring
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. Then, destinations include the Grand Canyon, the Great Barrier Reef, Mount Everest, and Victoria
Falls. Also, these locations are famous for their breathtaking beauty.
b. Finally, to join the trip, please register by June 15th. Therefore, make sure to sign up on time.
c. First, an upcoming trip will take you to see some of the world’s most incredible natural wonders.
Additionally, this adventure will provide a unique experience.
d. Next, the trip starts on July 1st and lasts for two weeks. Moreover, you will enjoy both guided tours and
free time to explore.
A. c-d-a-b B. c-a-d-b C. a-c-d-b D. c-d-b-a
Question 18.
a. More than 300 students attended the fair and enjoyed Vietnamese dishes, songs and games.
b. In my view, the day was a great success. All the attendees felt happy.
c. There were 30 stalls where various activities were offered.
d. Yesterday, our school organized the Spring Fair in the playground.
e. However, it would be better if we could make Banh Chung during the night.
A. d-a-c-b-e B. d-b-a-c-e C. b-d-a-e-c D. b-c-d-e-a
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
The most important (19) _____ that influences a person to go shopping is the needs or wants of the
individual or people related (20) ____ him/ her. For example, everyone goes to the mall to buy basic
necessities like food, clothes, health supplies and others. Irrespective of the age being 16 or 60, the person
will have to go to the shop or buy it only. They will ship less if they have (21) ____mouth to feed and shop
more if the number of dependents is (22) _____. Secondly, a person cannot purchase anything (23) _____ he/
she has the monetary means to do so. This means that if one has more money, one will spend equally on
luxury items and fundamental needs. On the other hand, a person with less (24) _____ stability will focus
more on vital merchandise.
Question 19: A. effect B. factor C. reaction D. person
Question 20: A. to B. with C. about D. within
Question 21: A. less B. more C. much D. many
Question 22: A. least B. less C. many D. more
Question 23: A. when B. if C. unless D. whether
Question 24: A. finance B. financial C. financials D.
financially
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I like spending time with my sister over the weekend to browse instead of buying.
A. I enjoy getting out with my sister on the weekends to browse and buy.
B. I prefer getting out with my sister on the weekends to buy something.
C. I’m interested in spending time with my sister to browse
D. On the weekends, I like to spend time with my sister to browse instead of making purchases.
Question 26: Due to the supermarket’s set prices, I am unable to bargain there.
A. Because the fixed prices at supermarkets, I can never haggle there.
B. Since grocery pricing are set, I can never haggle there.
C. I can never bargain at a supermarket because the prices is fixed.
D. Since grocery pricing are fixed, I never can haggle there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: They/ often/ spend/ hours/ bargain/ shop/ for discounts.
A. They often spend hours bargaining and shopping for discounts
B. They often spend hours to bargain and shopping for discounts
C. They often spend hours to bargain and shop for discounts
D. They often spend hours bargain and shop for discounts.
Question 28: Online shopping/ convenient/ it/ sometimes/ disappoint/ quality.
A. Online shopping is convenient, but it sometimes disappoints in quality
B. Online shopping is convenient, but it sometimes disappoint in quality
C. Online shopping is convenient, it sometimes disappoints in quality
D. Online shopping is convenient, and it sometimes disappoint in quality.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign mean?
A. You should use this door if you want to enter
B. Please use a different door to go inside the building
C. This door can only be used for emergencies and is not for general
use
D. This door cannot be opened because it is blocked.
Question 30: What does the notice say?
The parking lot will be full on Saturday due to a A. Please don’t park on Saturday, we have an
big event. Please park on the street. event.
B. You can park in the parking lot on Saturday
without any problems.
C. There will be more parking on Saturday.
D. There will be more cars in the parking lot on
Saturday, park on the street.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Online shopping
My name is Sara, and I love shopping online. I prefer mobile phone apps, but sometimes I use my
computer. The phone is more convenient for me, and I can even do my shopping from bed.
I love shopping so much that I buy everything I need at home. I get food, electronics, books, and even
large pieces of furniture like my sofa and bookshelves all online! But I still prefer getting clothes from a store
so I can try them on to be sure they fit me fine.
Yesterday, I bought a birthday present for my mother, and it arrived today! That saves me a lot of time.
I am a very busy person, and I am a little forgetful too. If I think of something I need, then it is wonderful that
I can buy it that moment.
My friends aren't as comfortable with buying things online as I am because they think that it can be
dangerous. Of course, bad things sometimes happen, but I am very careful with all of my personal details. I
think the biggest fear that people have with using their credit cards online is that someone will steal their
number. It is important to be sure that the web page is secure. You can see this if the address has got an "s" in
it, like http://. That "s" means it is safe.
People should not be afraid of shopping online. I think it will be the only way we will do our shopping
in the future!
Question 31: What is Sara’s favorite way of shopping?
A. On her computer B. On her phone C. In a shop D. In an open-air
market
Question 32: What doesn’t Sara buy online?
A. Books B. Clothes C. Furniture D. Electronics
Question 33: Why does Sara think online shopping is very convenient?
A. It’s cheap B. It’s slow C. It’s fast D. It’s beautiful
Question 34: What does “Steal” mean in paragraph 4?
A. To shop online C. To make public
B. To use something that is not yours D.To take without permission.
Question 35: Sara thinks that shopping online _____.
A. is complex B. is often dangerous C. is always safe D. is safe if you are
careful
Question 36: Sara thinks that in the future ________.
A. Everybody will only shop online C. Nobody will shop online
B. Only shopping will be safer D. a lot of people will shop online
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Shopping can sometimes be a challenging experience, (37) ______. Many people choose to give gift
vouchers, allowing recipients to shop at their convenience. (38) _____ , as it lets them purchase essential or
luxury items from home or while on the go. Deliveries are often free, and prices are usually lower than those
in physical stores. However, the description or quality of online products may differ from expectations, (39)
_____. For in-store shopping, self-service payment machines are commonly used to save time by avoiding
long queues, (40) _____.

A - especially when selecting gifts for others on special occasions

B - Online shopping is a popular choice for those with busy schedules
C - but they can cause frustration when technical issues arise and assistance is unavailable
D - leading to disappointment and the need to return items at the customer’s expense

Question 37 A Question 38 B Question 39 D Question 40 C

UNIT 8 - SHOPPING
TEST 02

Question 13: A. better B. improving C. mastering D. increase

Question 14: A. higher games B. higher marks C. higher presents D. higher friends
Question 15: A. satisfacted B. satisfy C. satisfaction D. satifying
Question 16: A. call us B. Phone us C. Visit us D. Contact us at
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. Moreover, she has shown excellence in her product knowledge and customer service skills.
b. Erica has been an absolute joy to work with. She is very pleasant and courteous to our customers.
c. Dear Sir/ Madam,
d. Besides, Erica demonstrates the characters and qualities that you look for in an employee.
e. Sincerely,
f. It is with great pleasure that I write this recommendation letter for Erica Rudi. I have been Errica’s
supervisor for the last five years.
A. c-f-d-a-b-e B. c-a-f-b-d-e C. c-f-b-d-a-e D. c-b-f-a-d-e
Question 18.
A. Shall we meet at 10 a.m?
B. I am so glad to come and try some recipes from the book with you.
C. Hi Gloria ,
D. Please tell me if I need to buy something in advance
E. Thank you for inviting me to your house this Sunday.
A. c-a-e-d-b B. c-e-a-b-d C. c-e-b-a-d D. c-e-a-d-b
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
If you have some favorite stores or online retailers, you may already have their shopping apps on your phone.
Or, you might (19) ____ an app to get a discount on your first purchase with a business, or early access to
sales. Some shopping apps do several things. They might let you (20) ____ a shopping list and will send you
sale alerts, (21) ____ codes, coupons, special promotions, or other rewards based on how much you (21)
____.
When you set up your profile or buy something with a shopping app for the first time, it will likely ask you to
link or store your (23) _____ information. Some apps charge your credit or debit card or your bank account
each time you buy something. (24) ____ apps let you store value with the app and spend down the stored
value every time you buy something. Before you install an app, check its desciption or user agreement to see
if it tells you how the payment system works and what to do if there is a(n) billing problem.
Question 19: A. upload B. download C. report D. uninstall
Question 20: A. store B. to store C. storing D. stored
Question 21: A. password B. recovery C. account D. discount
Question 22: A. buy B. make C. sell D. take
Question 23: A. paid B. payment C. paying D. payer
Question 24: A. Other B. Another C. Others D. One
another
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I don’t often buy clothes online because they don’t look as they do in person.
A. I don’t like purchase clothing online since it doesn’t appear like what I see in person
B. Because they don’t appear like in real life; I usually purchase clothing online
C. Because they don’t look like they do in real life, I seldom ever purchase clothing online.
D. I buy rarely clothing online since it doesn’t appear like what I see in person.
Question 26: Do you usually go shopping at a speciality shop?
A. Do usually you go shopping at a speciality shop.
B. Do you frequently visit speciality stores to shop?
C. Do you go shopping at a speciality shop frequently?
D. Do you typically shopping at speciality stores?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: I/ interested/ hang out/ chat/ browse/ shopping malls.
A. I am interested in hang out, chat and browse through shopping malls.
B. I am interested in hanging out, chatting and browsing through shopping malls.
C. I am interested of hanging out, chatting and browsing through shopping malls.
D. I am interested of hang out, chat and browse through shopping malls.
Question 28: Her income/ low/ she/ not/ resist/ buy/ new things.
A. Despite her income to be low, she cann’t resist buying new things
B. Although her income is low, she cann’t resist buying new things
C. Although her income to be low, she cann’t resist buying new things
D. Despite of her low income, she cann’t resist buying new things.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign say?
A. Dogs are allowed to roam without any rules
B. Dogs must wear muzzles while they are in this area
C. Only some dogs need to wear muzzles here
D. Dogs do not need to wear muzzles in this area.

Question 30: What does the notice say?

Please clean up the kitchen after using it. A. Just throw away leftovers in the trash
Throw away any leftover food and wash your B. Throw away leftover food and wash dishes immediately
dishes. C. Only clean up if you make a mess
This keeps the kitchen clean for everyone. D. You don’t need to clean up if you’re in a hurry.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Shopping is a necessary part of life which very few people can avoid. Some people go shopping more
regularly than other people to browse products in shops even when they do not have much money. This is
known as window shopping and allows people to plan ahead and save for the things they want to buy in the
future or wait for the items to drop in price. Some people spend a lot of time looking for bargains while others
do not think of the price and are happy to spend a lot. Some people believe that the more expensive the item,
the better the quality, but this is not always true. It is sensible to buy items which are affordable, but some
people use a credit card or borrow money from the bank so that they can buy the items they really want rather
than wait for it.
Sometimes shopping can be stressful when choosing a gift to buy for other people for a special occasion.
It is common to buy a gift voucher so that a friend or loved one can go shopping themselves at their own
convenience. Shopping online is often popular with people who have a busy lifestyle. People are able to order
their necessary and luxury items from the comfort of their own home, or even on the move. Delivery is usually
free and ietms are often cheaper than in shops on the high street. The only real problem is that the item
description and quality may be more different than what they hoped for. This could mean the customer may
become disappointed with the item they receive and will need to retuern it at their own cost. People who go to
shops to do their shopping often use self-service payment machines. This usually saves time as the shopper
does not need to join a long queue. However, it can be frustrating when the machine has a problem and the
sales assistant is not always available to help.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Shopping online is always better than shopping in stores
B. People have different shopping habits, and read has its own advantages and disadvantages
C. Shopping is stressful and should be avoided
D. Bargain hunting is the best way to stop
Question 32: Which word is CLOSEST in meaning to “bargains” as used in the passage?
A. Discounts B. loans C. vouchers D. expenses
Question 33: Which word is OPPOSITE in meaning to “affordable” as used in the passage?
A. Expensive B. cheap C. sensible D. convenient
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Window shopping helps people plan purchases and save money
B. Shopping online is always cheaper than shopping in physical stores
C. People sometimes buy gifts like vouchers for others to choose their own items.
D. Self-service machines can save time but may cause frustration when they malfunction
Question 35: Which is one reason people prefer online shopping?
A. Online shopping guarantees better products quality
B. Delivery is usually free, and items are often cheaper
C. Sales assistants are always available online.
D. Customers never have to return items purchased online.
Question 36: Why do some people use credit cards or borrow money to shop?
A. They want to avoid long queues in physical stores
B. They prefer to buy items immediately instead of waiting
C. It helps them find better bargains
D. They do not care about the item’s quality
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Black Friday and Cyber Monday promote mindless consumption, excessive packageing and shipping
waste, especially with the rise of online shopping. The sales produce massive waste not just from the unwanted
single-use plastic and cardboard packaging, (37) _____. This mindset also ensures that the earth overshoot day
keeps moving back.
This is especially true of the clothing industry, (38) ______ and cost of putting the item back on the
shelf are much too complicated. Britons throw away approximately 300,000 tonnes of clothes every year and
many of them are only worn a handful of times.
(39) ______. Mostly plastic toys, to e-waste, to fast fashion that is only used for one season. In fact, in
France, (40) _____.

A – The government is considering banning Black Friday due to the impact on the planet and the promotoin of
unsustainable consuming habits.
B – The negative impact of Black Friday is also significant from non-recyclable.
C – but also from the return of unwanted items.
D – where much of the online returns are tossed into the landfill because the logistics
Question 37 C Question 38 D Question 39 B Question 40 A
UNIT 9 – NATURAL DISASTER
TEST 01

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mud B. numerous C. thunderstorm D. suddenly
Question 2: A. violent B. whistle C. practical D. lightning
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. develop B. funnel C. damage D. funnel
Question 4: A. rescue B. strengthen C. system D. towards
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The volcanic _____sent plumes of ash and smoke high into the sky.
A. Eruption B. outbreak C. burst D. discharge
Question 6: The ____ shook the region, leaving buildings damaged and roads cracked.
A. Earthquake B. shock C. tornado D. thunderstorm
Question 7: The hurricane hit the coastal village with incredible force, leaving a trail of __ in its wake.
A. Warning B. prediction C. destruction D. property
Question 8: He is good ____ meteorology.
A. On B. in C. at D. for
Question 9: How fast _____when the accident happened?
A. Were you driving B. did you drive C. would you drive D. were you driven
Question 10: While Steven and Rachel _____ around the Canary Islands, their boat ___.
A. Were sailing – sank B. sailed – sank
C. sailed – was sinking D. were sailing – was sinking
Question 11: Indonesia _____ by a powerful 6.9 magnitude earthquake on Friday.
A. Was stuck B. was stucking C. stuck D. was stucken
Question 12: There was a heavy rain which supported to _______ the forest fire.
A. Put up B. put out C. give out D. give up
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE GRADUATION CEREMONY
The school Youth Union would like to announce
- All students of Grade 12 (13) ______ present by 17:00 on Jun 29, 2024.
- Girls are required to wear the traditional (14) ______, while boys must wear white shirts and dark
pants.
(15) _____parents need further information, feel free to contact Mr. Cuong at 0356.211.439.
Please contact if you (16) _____ anyone.
Question 13: A. must B. have to be C. due to D. going to
Question 14: A. customs B. activities C. cultures D. costumes
Question 15: A. Had B. Should C. Were D. Do
Question 16: A. brings B. bring C. bringing D. have brought
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. Thank you for your continued support and for being a valued VIP member.
b. Enjoy special benefits like extended warranties and priority customer service.
c. We are excited to offer you exclusive access to our latest electronic gadgets
d. Hi, Sarah! Welcome to the VIP club at our electronics store
e. Please reach out if you have any questions or need assistance with your new benefits.
A. d-a-b-c-e B. d-c-a-b-e C. d-a-c-b-e D. d-b-c-a-e
Question 18.
a. To start using your new phone, first, take it out of the box and charge it fully.
b. Next, turn on the phone by pressing the power button on the side.
c. After that, use the setip guide to connect to your Wi-fi network and sign in
d. Then, explore the settings to change things like brightness and volume.
e. Finally, download any apps you need from the app store.
A. a-b-c-d-e B. b-a-c-d-e C. a-c-b-e-d D. a-b-e-d-c
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Erosion in America
Erosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and
grassland under the plow in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, (19) _____282 million acres of farmland
(20) _____ by erosion. After 40 years of (21) _____ efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new demands
(22) _____ on the land by heavy crop (23) _____. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems
it causes are likely to replace petroleum scracity as the nations’s most critical (24) ____ resource problem.
Question 19: A. more than B. more C. less D. than
Question 20: A. damaged B. was damaged C. were damaged D. damages
Question 21: A. conserve B. conservation C. conserving D. conservations
Question 22: A. were placed B. was placed C. which placed D. placed
Question 23: A. produce B. product C. production D. produce
Question 24: A. nature B. natural C. nation D. national
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I was studying for my exam. My brother was playing video games in his room.
A. I studied for my exam while my brother played video games in his room.
B. While I was studying for my exam, my brother was playing video games in his room.
C. When I was studying for my exam, my brother was playing video games in his room.
D. While I studied for my exam, my brother was playing video games in his room.
Question 26: This morning, I was cleaning the house. My sister was baking a cake in the kitchen.
A. This morning, I was cleaning the house, I was hearing my sister baking a cake in the kitchen.
B. This morning, when I cleaned the house, my sister baked a cake in the kitchen.
C. This morning, while I was cleaning the house, my sister was baking a cake in the kitchen.
D. This morning, I cleaned the house while my sister was baking a cake in the kitchen.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Sometimes / more / one disaster / occur / same time.
A. Sometimes, more than one disaster occurs the same time.
B. Sometimes, more than one disaster occur at same time.
C. Sometimes, more than one disaster occur same time.
D. Sometimes, more than one disaster occurs at the same time.
Question 28: Scientist / can predict / many / the disasters / ahead / time.
A. Scientist can predict many of the disasters ahead of time.
B. Scientists can predict many the disasters ahead of time.
C. Scientists can predict many of the disasters ahead time.
D. Scientists can predict many of the disasters ahead of time.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the notice say?
A. Restrooms are in the direction shown by this sign
B. The restroom is closed and you cannot use it now.
C. There are no restrooms here or nearby
D. Restrooms are on the other side of this place.

Question 30: What does the notice say?

Students will have Tet holiday from A. Students will return to school after 8 days of holiday and
February 8, 2025. They will return to prepare for exams.
school on February 15, 2025 to B. Students’ exams will come when they return to school
prepare for mid-term exams. C. Students will have to prepare for exams after the holiday.
D. Students will return to school after February 14 and prepare
for exams.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
WHAT IS A TSUNAMI
A tsunami is a string of large ocean waves. Some people call it a "wave train" or a "tidal wave." Tsunamis,
unlike normal ocean waves, are not caused by tides. The word tsunami comes from the Japanese. Tsunamis are
caused by a sudden, large motion on the ocean floor. They can be caused by an earthquake under the ocean.
Sometimes an underwater landslide or volcano is the cause. When one of these things happens, the energy
passes through the ocean water. Just like the ripples from a rock being thrown into a pond, the energy released
by one of these motions spreads out in all directions. The energy can travel many miles away. Tsunamis move
at high speeds. Most tsunamis happen in the Pacific Ocean. In the deep waters, a tsunami may travel 450 miles
per hour. Out in the ocean, a tsunami may be hard to see. As it comes close to shore, its speed slows down. The
height of the wave builds. The tsunami may suddenly rise into a wave ten to one hundred feet high. These large
waves are a disaster for coastal regions and people living there. Tsunami warning networks alert people living
along coastlines in the Pacific Ocean. When a warning is sounded, people can move away from the coast to
higher ground. The wavelength can be as long as 150 miles. This means the time (wave period) between the
giant waves is long, too. Giant waves on shore can last for hours or even days after the earthquake or other
disturbance.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How tsunamis are formed and their impact
B. How tides affect the ocean
C. The history of the word “tsunami”
D. How earthquakes destroy coastal cities.
Question 32: Which word has the same meaning as “disaster” in the text?
A. Warning B. Tragedy C. Motion D. Ground
Question 33: Which word is the OPPOSITE of “shallow” as used in the text?
A. High B. Deep C. Slow D. Low
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the text?
A. Most tsunamis happen in the Pacific Ocean
B. Tsunamis are caused by tides
C. Tsunamis can travel at high speeds in deep water
D. People are wanered about tsunamis through special networks.
Question 35: What usually causes a tsunami to form?
A. High tides on the ocean surface
B. Large movements on the ocean floor
C. Strong winds blowing across the sea
D. Ripples causes by boats
Question 36: Why are tsunamis hard to see in the middle of the ocean?
A. They travel too slowly C. Their speed makes them invisible
B. Their height is low in deep water D. The ocean water blocks the waves
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Vietnam usually has a dozen storms every year from June through the end of November. November 2nd, 1997,
however, (37) ______ . Linda was the worst typhoon in Southern Vietnam over 100 years. (38) _______ ,
Linda strengthened as it moved westward. (39) ______ . Over 300p people were reported lost and died. Ca
Mau province, suffered a direct hit by the storm, had the most damage. Gusts and heavy rainfalls caused
flooding, destroyed crops, damaged about 200,000 houses and left about 383,000 people homeless. Linda later
struck Thailand, (40) _____ . The storm also affected Myanmar, Indonesia, Malaysia, and Cambodia to a lesser
degree.
A - causing flash flooding and at least 164 deaths
B - Formed in the sea of the Philippines
C - was an unexpected day when the major storm Linda raged in the South
D - Later, it struck extreme Southern Vietnam with winds of 100 kilometres an hour
Question 37 C Question 38 B Question 39 D Question 40 A
UNIT 9 – NATURAL DISASTER
TEST 02

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wave B. landslide C. damage D. natural
Question 2: A. rescue B. effect C. marvelous D. tremble
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. pacific C. tornado D. fortunate
Question 4: A. destruction B. emergency C. government D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Despite all the modern technology available to us, we’re still helpless ____natural disasters.
A. Against B. to C. with D. for
Question 6: Many villagers were ____ to public shelters to avoid the volcanic eruption.
A. Evacuated B. given C. brought D. provided
Question 7: Last year, a terrible storm ______ the rural area of Son La Province.
A. Struck B. did C. made D. deployed
Question 8: He ________his homework before he went to bed last night.
A. Was B. am C. had done D. have been
Question 9: By the time I started primary school, I _______ how to ride a bike.
A. Finish B. finished C. had finished D. was finished
Question 10: When there is a plane crash, a lot of ____ is left.
A. Dust B. debris C. waste D. piece
Question 11: After the flood, many people in that village were _____ homeless.
A. Put B. felt C. given D. left
Question 12: Bin: ‘ How about collecting more waste for recycling?” – Lena: “ _____”
A. That sounds terrible C. I can agree with you more
B. Yeah, I beg in you D. That’s a good idea.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
SUPPORT WORKER
Do you have the ability to care for others? Can you understand how older people feel? Are you good (13)
____ communication? Do you have good listening skills?
If you have answered YES to (14) _____ questions above, we would like to hear from you:
• Starting rate of $ 8 per hour
• Free uniform
• Excellent training
For further (15) _____, you can contact:
Email: [email protected]
Phone manager (16) ____ 01234567789
Question 13: A. for B. with C. in D. at
Question 14: A. the B. a C. an D. X
Question 15: A. inform B. information C. informative D. informatively
Question 16: A. on B. in C. at D. from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. Finally, enjoy special discounts and early access to new products as a VIP member
b. Hi, John! Thank you for being a VIP member of our tech store.
c. We are grateful for yoru support and loyalty to our brand.
d. As a VIP, you will get special offers and invites to special events
e. We look forward to helping you and giving you the best tech experiences.
A. b-c-d-e-a B. b-d-c-e-a C. b-c-d-a-e D. b-e-d-a-c
Question 18.
a. Next, look at different jobs and see which one fits your skills and interests.
b. Finally, make sure to learn about the job market to find out if there are many opportunites.
c. Choosing a job is very important and can change your life
d. First, think about what you like to do and what you are good at.
A. d-c-a-b B. c-d-a-b C. c-d-b-a D. d-c-b-a
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Tornadoes are storms with very (19) _____ turning winds and dark clouds. These winds are perhaps the
strongest on (20) _____. They reach speeds of 300 miles per hour. The dark clouds are shaped like a funnel –
wide at the top and narrow at the bottom. The winds are strongest in (21) _____centre of the tunnel. Tornadoes
are especially common in the US, but only in certain parts. They occur mainly in the (22) ____ states.
A hot afternoon in the spring is the most likely time for a tornado. (23) ____ become dark. There is
thunder, lightning and rain. A cloud forms a funnel and begins to twist. The funnel moves faster and faster. The
faster the winds, the louder the noise. Tornadoes always move in a northeastern (24) _____. They never last
longer than eight hours.
Question 19: A. angry B. weak C. cruel D. strong
Question 20: A. space B. earth C. ground D. planet
Question 21: A. the B. that C. this D. a
Question 22: A. unknown B. central C. foreign D. farther
Question 23: A. sun B. sky C. clouds D. winds
Question 24: A. direct B. direction C. directly D. directing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: At 8 pm yesterday, I was drawing pictures in my room and Lan was watching her films
A. When I was drawing pictures in my room, Lan watched her films at 8 pm yesterday
B. While I was drawing pictures in my room, Lan was watching her films at 8 pm yesterday
C. At 8 pm yesterday, I drew pictures in my room and Lan watched her films
D. I drew pictures in my room while Lan was watching her films at 8 pm yesterday.
Question 26: Last night, I was sleeping. I heard a strange noise from the kitchen.
A. Last night, I was sleeping, I was hearing a strange noise from the kitchen.
B. Last night, while I was sleeping, I hear a strange noise from the kitchen
C. Last night, when I was slept, I heard a strange noise from the kitchen
D. Last night, while I was sleeping, I heard a strange noise from the kitchen.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: All / natural disaster / cause / damage / and destruction / humans.
A. All natural disasters cause damage and destruction for humans.
B. All natural disaster cause damage and destruction to humans.
C. All natural disasters cause damage and destruction to humans.
D. All natural disasters cause damage and destruction with humans.
Question 28: most / common type / natural disasters / the world / are / floods and storms.
A. The most common types of natural disasters in the world are floods and storms.
B. The most common type of natural disasters in the world are floods and storms.
C. The most common types of natural disasters on the world are floods and storms.
D. The most common type of natural disasters of the world are floods and storms.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign mean?
A. You are allowed to eat and drink here without any restrictions.
B. Eating and drinking are not permitted in this area at all times.
C. You can bring drinks but not food into this area.
D. Food is permitted but drinks are not allowed in this area.

Question 30. What does the notice say?

The library will be closed on Sunday for A. The library will be open on Sunday for cleaning
cleaning. It will open again on Monday B. The library will be closed on Sunday and open again on
morning. Monday.
C. The library will close early on Sunday for cleaning.
D. The library will be closed all weekend.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
At the top of the list of the costliest natural disasters in the history of the United States is Hurricane Katrina.
Hurricane Katrina was the third strongest hurricane ever to hit the U. S. It affected 90,000 square miles in
Louisiana, Mississippi, Florida, and Alabama. The hurricane formed over the Bahamas and turned into a
Category 1 hurricane by the time it hit the southeastern tip of Florida. It got stronger as it traveled across the
Gulf of Mexico. It made its second landfall off the coast of southeast Louisiana on Monday, August 29, 2005.
It had become a category 4 hurricane by then. The storm surge that followed caused jestruction from central
Florida to Texas. New Orleans, Louisiana, experienced even more damage because its levees were breeched,
letting water flood a large portion of the city. The National Weather Service warned people of the tropical
monster that was heading towards the southern coast. Residents were told to expect power outages. They were
told they might lose their rooftops and to expect water shortages. The National Hurricane Director was very
concerned. He personally called the governors of Louisiana and Mississippi. He even called President Bush at
his ranch in Texas. He spoke directly with New Orleans mayor Ray Nagin. Nagin issued an evacuation order
for his city. Most people left. About eighty percent of the population evacuated. The estimate was that around
100,000 people remained in the metro area. Some were stranded tourists; others did not own a car and had no
way out. Those who were not able to leave were instructed to go to the New Orleans Convention Center and
the Superdome.
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The history of the United Sates hurricanes
B. A hurricane in the history of the United States
C. Hurricanes in the world, especially in the United States.
D. What the United States does to prevent hurricanes
Question 32: According to the passage, what is NOT TRUE about hurricance Katrina?
A. It is the costliest natural disaster in the history of the US
B. It is the third strongest hurricane ever to hit the US
C. It affected 90,000 square miles in Louisiana, Mississippu Florida, Alabama.
D. It formed over the Bahamas
Question 33: What can be true from the passage about Hurricane Katrina when it hit the southeastern tip of
Florida?
A. It was very weak
B. It was very strong
C. It was not as weak as it started
D. It was not as strong as it started
Question 34: What is NOT TRUE about the National Hurricane Director?
A. He called the governor of Mississppi.
B. He called President Bush at his ranch in Texas
C. He spoke directly with the New Orleans mayor.
D. He was very unconcerned.
Question 35: Which word has the closest meaning to "evacuated" as used in the passage?
A. Stayed B. left C. returned D. arrived
Question 36: Which word is the opposite of "strongest" as used in the passage?
A. Weakest B. Fastest C. Tallest D. Smallest
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
A storm is a natural disaster that often happens in Viet Nam. It happens every year, (37) ______. Before a
storm, people usually strengthen their homes and bring in outdoor things like flowerpots or rubbish bins. (38)
______. After the storm, (39)______. They listen to important instructions from local authorities to know which
parts of their area are dangerous and should be avoided. (40)_______.

A - and the storm season lasts from June to November

B - people usually do not leave their homes right away
C - They also prepare some food and drinks in case they cannot go out.
D - They also stay away from broken power lines.

Question 37 A Question 38 C Question 39 B Question 40 D

UNIT 10 COMMUNICATION IN THE FUTURE
TEST 01

Question 13: A. has postponed B. posted C. has been posted D. postpones

Question 14: A. habitants B. conditions C. pollution D. living
Question 15: A. Had B. Were C. Do D. Should
Question 16: A. on B. in C. at D. from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
a. Shall we meet at 10 am?
b. Hi Mai,
c. Please tell me if I need to buy something in advance to prepare for the meal.
d. See you soon.
Linda
e. I am so glad to come to try some recipes from the book with you
f. Thank you for inviting me to your house this Sunday.
A. a-c-d-e-f-b B. b-f-e-a-c-d C. c-a-e-b-d-f D. f-b-a-c-d-e
Question 18.
a. Firstly, smart technologies make people’s lives easier by reducing household chores.
b. There are some good things of living in a smart city.
c. Besides, smart technologies help the city operate more efficiently
d. Finally, the negative impact on the environment is less
e. Secondly, the city infrastructure which includes sensors and cameras collects information about
people and their activities, and uses it to provide faster, cheaper, and better services.
A. b-a-e-c-d B. a-b-e-c-d C. b-c-a-e-d D. a-c-b-e-d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
There are a wide range of ways in which we communicate. Here are some major ways of communication.
Spoken or (19) ________communication, which includes face-to-face or telephone conversations, news and
stories on the radio or television. Non-verbal communication, which covers (20) ______ - language, how we
dress or act, where we stand, and even our scent. There are many subtle ways that we communicate (sometimes
unintentionally) with others. For example, the tone of voice can give clues to mood or emotional state (21)
_____ hand signals or facial gestures communication, which includes letters, emails, social media, books,
(22)______ the Internet and other media. Until recently, several writers and publishers were very (23) _____
when it came to communicating the written word. Today, we can all write and publish our ideas online, which
has led to an explosion of information and communication possibilities. Visualizations, which (24) _____
graphs, charts, maps logos, pictures, and many other visual objects to communicate messages.
Question 19: A. written B. verbal C. physical D. visual
Question 20: A. spoken B. foreign C. sign D. body
Question 21: A. while B. so C. during D. when
Question 22: A. talks B. paintings C. recordings D. magazines
Question 23: A. power B. powerful C. powering D. empower
Question 24: A. drawns B. affects C. uses D. communicates
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: My close friend gave me a wonderful present on my birthday.
A. I gave my friend a wonderful present on my birthday.
B. A wonderful present was given me on my birthday.
C. I was given a wonderful present on my birthday.
D. My birthday gave me a wonderful present.
Question 26: He hates playing board games.
A. He doesn’t want playing board games.
B. He doesn’t detest playing board games.
C. He doesn’t dislike playing board games.
D. He doesn’t like playing board games.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Telepathy/ way/ communicate/ instantly/ thought
A. Telepathy is a way to communicate instantly by thought.
B. Telepathy is a way communicate instantly by thought
C. Telepathy is a way communicate instantly through throught
D. Telepathy is a way to communicate instantly thought.
Question 28: Chatting/ webcam/ friends/ allow/ watch/ body language.
A. Chatting via webcam with friends allows you watch their body languages
B. Chatting via webcam with friends allows you to watch their body languages.
C. Chatting via webcam with friends allows you watching their body languages.
D. Chatting via webcam with friends allow you to watch their body languages.

Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign say?
A. You are allowed to enter and exit through this door
B. This door is meant only for entering and not for exiting
C. This door is used for both entering and exiting purposes
D. This door is locked and cannot be used

Question 30: What does the notice say?

The restaurant will have a new menu starting A. The restaurant has a new menu next week
next week. Check online for updates and new B. Check online for the new menu next week
dishes C. The new menu starts this month, check online for
updated dishes
D. The restaurant will stay the same.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
BENEFITS OF VIDEO CONFERENCING
Video conferencing is the technology that allows you to hold meetings with people who are in different places
while seeing them and talking to them in real time. It is different from simple video calling, which is often one-
to-one video communication. In the past, video conferencing needed complex and expensive equipment.
Today, it's easy to join in a video conference on your computer or smart phone with Internet connectivity.
Moreover, video conferencing is also an important tool for people who work away from the office, often at
home because it helps to save time and money for them.
Video conferencing can help teachers in teaching, too. Video conferencing is a great way of learning and
sharing knowledge beyond distance. Courses can take place with the teacher and each different student living
in a different location. This will help education spread even to remote mountainous areas.
Question 31: Video conferencing helps people ____.
A. Send message B. send snail mail C. send snail mail D. hold meetings
Question 32: How does video conferencing help people?
A. It helps connect people in different places in real time
B. It helps connect people in different places in future time
C. It helps connect people in same places in real time
D. It helps connect people in same places in future time
Question 33: What can people do with video conferencing?
A. People can see and touch each other
B. People can see and use telepathy
C. People can see and talk to each other
D. People can talk and touch each other.
Question 34: Which statement below is NOT TRUE?
A. Video calling is often one-to-one communication
B. Video conferencing can happen between many people
C. In the past, video conferencing needed simple equipment
D. Today, video conferencing only needs smartphone with Internet connectitvity.
Question 35: The word “allow” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. Enable B. permit C. let D. prevent
Question 36: The word “expensive” is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. Unaffordable B. cheap C. reasonable D. consumable
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Email and chat rooms let children communicate with friends and family members. (37) _____. Knowing a little
about each of these communication services can help parents keep children safer while online. Through email,
users can easily send and receive messages. (38) _____. Signing up for an email account is simple because
most services offer them for free. Sometimes these messages contain viruses, or other inappropriate content,
so parents should warn children to be wary of emails from unknown people. Chat rooms are online hang-out
spots where anyone can talk about anything – (39) _____. Users often do not know each other in real life, (40)
_____.
A - These messages may also have text, audio, and picture files attached.
B - They can also allow children to connect with people that they have never met in person.
C - so it is important that parents keep a close eye on the content of any conversations.
D - current events, books, and other common interests

Question 37 B Question 38 A Question 39 D Question 40 C

UNIT 10 COMMUNICATION IN THE FUTURE
TEST 02

Question 13: A. bring B. keep C. borrow D. return

Question 14: A. take B. make C. create D. give
Question 15: A. the B. an C. your D. a
Question 16: A. on B. in C. with D. by
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
Our local library started a new reading program this month. It is quite popular. _____.
a. The program includes book clubs and reading challenges for all ages.
b. Many people in the community have joined the program and are enjoying it.
c. The library launched this program to encourage more people to read.
A. c-a-b B. a-c-b C. b-a-c D. c-b-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in question 18) most appropriately.
A. The reading program has helped increase library visits significantly
B. The library is planning to add more books to the collection.
C. Some participants have found the reading challenges difficult.
D. The program also includes author visits and book signings.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Telepathy: Mind to Mind communication
The (19) _____”telepathy” has been derived from the words “tele” meaning “distance” and “pathy”
meaning “feeling”. So telepathy actually means getting feelings through a distance. Telepathy is the
communication (20) ____ two minds, seperated over a distance, without the (21) _____of the five known
senses.
At some point of time or the other, we all have (22) ____ telepathy. Maybe you were thinking of
someone you haven’t talked to for months and you suddenly get a call from them. Or when two people are
together; they might say the same thing at the same time. These are (23) ____ mind-to-mind (24) ____ between
that tend to occur frequently closely related individuals.
Question 19: A. word B. phrase C. letter D. signal
Question 20: A. through B. among C. between D. across
Question 21: A. using B. use C. take D. taking
Question 22: A. experienced B. brought C. made D. taken
Question 23: A. spontane B. spontaneous C. spontaneously D. sponse
Question 24: A. ways B. methods C. techniques D. communications
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I’ll ask the shopkeeper how much the shawl is.
A. I’ll ask the shopkeeper how many the shawl is there.
B. I’ll ask the shopkeeper what the shawl is.
C. I’ll ask the shopkeeper what the price of the shawl is.
D. I’ll ask the shopkeeper how much is the shawl.
Question 26: I last visited my grandfather two weeks ago.
A. I haven’t visited my grandfather for two weeks.
B. My grandfather wasn’t visited by me two weeks ago.
C. I have visited my grandfather for two weeks.
D. I haven’t visited my grandfather for two weeks ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Telepathy/ help/ us feel/ calm/ concentrated/ difficult times.
A. Telepathy helps us to feel calm and concentrated during difficult times.
B. Telepathy helps us feeling calm and concentrated in difficult times.
C. Telepathy helps us feel calm and concentrate during difficult times.
D. Telepathy help us feel calm and concentrated in difficult times.
Question 28: If/ we/ sad/ we/ not want/ receive telepathic messages
A. If we are sad, we not want to receive telepathic messages.
B. If we are sad, we do not want to receive telepathic messages.
C. If we sad, we not want to receive telepathic messages.
D. If we are sad, we will not want receiving telepathic messages.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign say?
A. The elevator is working well and you can use it
B. The elevator is not working and you cannot use it
C. The elevator is being repaired and will work again soon.
D. The elevator is for special use only and not for everyone.

Question 30: What does the notice say?

A. The bookshop is closed all day

B. The bookshop is open in the morning
C. The bookshop is open in the afternoon
D. The bookshop is closed in the morning.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Nobody can deny that technology development has done a lot to make our lives much better. However, there
are some questions that worry us: will technology replace us in personal communication? What if humans no
longer feel the need to communicate in person? Nowadays, with just one click, we can communicate with
anyone, from anywhere through emails, video calls, messages, and other social media. It's quick and
convenient. No trouble for dressing up or travelling for a personal meeting. We might become addicted to
having conversations online instead of in person. What if emojis become the only way we express our
emotions? There are various emojis that we can now use with an email or message to express our different
emotions: a smiley or crying face, a winked eye, or an o-shaped mouth. The emojis are still increasing in
number. We might no longer need facial expressions because the emojis do it for us, and the person in the chat
box gets it from us. The future is perhaps for our generation to decide.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The benefits of technology in communication
B. The possibility of technology replacing personal communication
C. The convenience of using emojis
D. How to use social media effectively
Question 32: Which word has a CLOSEST meaning to “convenient” as used in the passage?
A. Quick B. Difficult C. Comfortable D. Simple
Question 33: Which word has the OPPOSITE meaning to “addicted” as used in the passage?
A. Dependent B. independent C. attached D. influenced
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Technology makes communication faster and easier.
B. Emojis can express various emotions in chats.
C. Travelling for personal meetings is necessary for communication.
D. The future of personal communication depends on our generation.
Question 35: Why might people prefer online communication over in-person communication, according
to the text?
A. It is more emotional
B. It saves time and effort
C. It requires face-to-face interaction
D. It involves using more technology.
Question 36: What does the text suggest could happen if emojis replace facial expressions?
A. Personal communication will improve.
B. People might no longer use facial expressions.
C. Emojis will disappear in the future.
D. Communication will require more effort.
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
A lot of people communicate by emails these days. An email is a letter that people send to each other via the
Internet. (37) _____. First, it is time-saving. An email can reach the recipients within seconds, (38) _____. In
addition, it is efficient. (39) ______. However, email users sometimes feel irritated when they receive spam
and emails that carry viruses. Anyway, sending emails is very convenient, (40) _____.

A - An email can carry a lot of information because the sender can attach pictures, sounds, and videos to it
B - so it will continue being a popular way of communication in the future
C - so people can exchange information very quickly
D - There are many advantages of using an email.
Question 37 D Question 38 C Question 39 A Question 40 B
UNIT 11 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
TEST 01

Question 13: A. ignore B. follow C. break D. forget

Question 14: A. bag B. money C. ticket D. map
Question 15: A. Shout B. Listen C. Speak D. Turn
Question 16: A. see B. hide C. lose D. forget
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
A new sports center opened in our city last week. It has been popular. ______.
a. The center offers various sports facilities like a swimming pool and a gym.
b. Many people are excited to use the new sports center
c. The city built the center to encourage people to be more active.
A. a-b-c B. c-a-b C. b-c-a D. c-b-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in question 17) most appropriately.
A. The sports center has become a favorite place for families and athletes.
B. Some people were disappointed with the opening hours of the center
C. The center also provides free sports equipment for everyone
D. There were some problems with the center’s facilities initially.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Developments in science and technology have brought a number of advantages in education. First, it increases
efficiency and motivation for students. Students learn more (19) _____ through visual presentations or videos.
They can also feel moremotivated to learn in this way. Secondly, digital search and internet (20) _____ have
apositive impact on the research habits of learners. Technology has opened doors for learners to access
information sources to find (21) _____ to problems by themselves. Thus, students feel willing (22) ____
research on their own. Third, students can access more information when they study. For example, learners
who desire to write qualityessays can find samples to guide them in their writing process. They can learn the
best ways to present and structure their essays. Moreover, (23)_____ in science andtechnology can increase
flexibility for learning. With online classes, students don't need to (24)_____ lessons at specific times,
especially when there is a pandemic or in stormy weather. They can read materials online and complete their
assignments when they have time.
Question 19: A. effectively B. effect C. efficiency D. affected
Question 20: A. utensils B. tools C. equipment D. gadgets
Question 21: A. answers B. questions C. progress D.
development
Question 22: A. to do B. do C. doing D. did
Question 23: A. growth B. increase C. progress D.
development
Question 24: A. come B. attend C. learn D. study
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: NASA said that they could send people to Mars the following year.
A. “We will send people to Mars next year.” NASA said
B. “We can send people to Mars next year.” NASA said
C. “We could send people to Mars last year.” NASA said
D. “We would sned people to Mars last year.” NASA said
Question 26: My rooommate told me “ While you are away, I’ll do the cleaning.”
A. My roommate told me that while she was away, I would have to do the cleaning.
B. My roommate told me that while I was away, I would have to do the cleaning.
C. My roommate told me that while I was away, she would do the cleaning
D. My roommate told me that while I am away, she will do the cleaning.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Schools/ use/ advanced technology/ monitor/ students/ better.
A. Schools use advanced technology to monitor students better.
B. Advanced technology uses schools to monitor better students.
C. Better schools use technology to monitor students advanced.
D. Students use advanced technology in schools to monitor better.
Question 28: The scientists/ say/ they/ work/ a vehicle/ look like/ flying cars.
A. The scientists said they were working on a vehicle that looks like flying cars.
B. The scientists said they work a vehicle that looks like flying cars.
C. The scientists worked on a vehicle that they say looks like flying cars.
D. The scientists said they work on a vehicle looking like flying cars.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign instruct?
A. Wash your hands only if they look dirty before eating
B. It is fine to eat without washing your hands first.
C. Wash your hands before you eat to keep everything clean
D. Wash your hands after eating, not before you start.

Question 30: What should you bring?

A. A picnic basket
B. Gloves and a bottle of water
C. A towel
D. Sunglasses

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
STAYING SAFE
When you ask more people about the benefits of apps on their smartphone, they say they use them to play
games, surf the net, keep in touch with people and organise social events. But Jenny Harlow, a scientist from
London, has got an app that does something much more important: it warns her when she is in danger. The app
is called Safety Tips and it gives users real-time earthquake and tsunami warnings. The Japan Tourist Agency
had the idea for the app after the 2011 earthquake in Japan, when many foreign tourists in the country were
confused about what was happening and what they should do. Jenny was on a business trip to Japan when the
earthquake struck. 'Although there are a lot of earthquakes in Japan, it was the first time I experienced one. All
the warnings and information on the internet, radio and TV were in Japanese, and I couldn't understand. It was
really confusing and I didn't know what to do.' She had to rely on Japanese colleagues to help her. The Safety
Tips app sends an alert to users when a major earthquake happens, and also tells them if a tsunami is likely to
arrive at the coast. The-app gives lots of tips about what to do, where to go and how to stay safe, as well as a
list of useful Japanese phrases such as 'Is this an earthquake?' and 'Is it safe here?' Importantly, all the
information is in English, and there are plans to add other languages. The Japan Tourist Agency plans to
advertise the app at airports and tourist information centres in Japan. In order to get the app, people visit a
website and download it. 'I'm coming to Japan again next year and I will definitely watch out for alerts from
the app,” says Jenny.
Question 31: What is the main purpose of the Safety Tips app?
A. To help users organize social events
B. To provide real-time earthquake and tsunami warnings
C. To help users play games and surf the net
D. To teach Japanese language
Question 32: Which word has the same meaning as "confused" in the text?
A. Alerted B. uncertain C. safe D. simple
Question 33: Which word is the OPPOSITE of “SAFE” as used in the text?
A. Confusing B. dangerous C. helpful D. important
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the text?
A. The Safety Tips app was created after the 2011 earthquake in Japan.
B. Jenny understood Japanese warnings during the earthquake.
C. The app provides earthquake and tsunami alerts in English.
D. Jenny plans to use the app on her next trip to Japan.
Question 35: Why did Jenny find the 2011 earthquake confusing?
A. She didn’t know earthquakes were common in Japan.
B. The warnings were in Japanese, which she couldn't understand.
C. She didn’t have a smartphone to get alerts.
D. She wasn’t in Japan during the earthquake.
Question 36: What does the Safety Tips app provide besides earthquake and tsunami alerts?
A. Weather forecasts for Japan
B. A list of helpful Japanese phrases
C. Social event organization tools
D. Directions for downloading other apps
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Computers are helpful in many ways. First, they are fast. They can work with information even more quickly
than a person. (37) ______. Third, they can keep information for a long time. They do not forget things that
the common people do. (38) ______. They are not perfect, (39) _____. Recently, it is important to know about
computers. There are a number of things to learn. Some companies have classes at work. In addition, most
universities offer day and night course offers in Computer Science. Another way to learn is from a book, or
from a friend. After a few hours of practice, (40) _____. You may not be an expert, but you can have fun.

A – Moreover, computers are almost always correct

B - Second, computers can work with a lot of information at the same time
C - but they usually do not make mistakes
D - you can work with computers

Question 37 B Question 38 A Question 39 C Question 40 D

UNIT 11 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
TEST 02

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Computers are helpful in many ways. First, they are fast. They can work with information even (19) ____ than
a person. Second, computers can work with a lot of information at the same time. Third, they can store
information for a long time. They do not forget things that the common people do. (20)_____, computers are
almost always correct. They are not perfect, but they usually do not make mistakes. Recently, it is important
(21) about computers. There are a number of things to learn. Many companies have computers at work. (22)
____, most universities (23)____ day and night courses in Computer Science. Another way to learn is from a
book, or from a friend. After a few hours of practice, you can (24) ______ with computers.
Question 19: A. quickly B. quicklier C. more quickly D. most quickly
Question 20: A. Finally B. Finish C. Final D. Finishing
Question 21: A. know B. knew C. knowing D. to know
Question 22: A. In addition B. However C. Therefore D. So
Question 23: A. have B. has C. had D. having
Question 24: A. do B. play C. get D. work
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: The head of technology department said: "Space tourism will broaden our knowledge of space".
A. The head of technology department said that space tourism will broaden our knowledge of space.
B. The head of technology department said that space tourism would broaden our knowledge of space.
C. The head of technology department said that space tourism would have broadened our knowledge of space.
D. The head of technology department said that space tourism broadened our knowledge of space.
Question 26: The factory's manager said that they were going to hire a group of robots the following
week.
A. The factory's manager said: "We are going to hire a group of robots the following week".
B. The factory's manager said: "We were going to hire a group of robots the following week"
C. The factory's manager said: "They are going to hire a group of robots next week".
D. The factory's manager said: "We are going to hire a group of robots next week"
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The students / study / hard / pass / the exam / with good results.
A. The students should study hard to pass the exam with good results.
B. The students pass the exam hard with good results to study.
C. To passing the exam, the students study hard with good results.
D. The students study hard passing the exam with good results.
Question 28: The company / announce / they / launch / a new product / next month.
A. The company announces that they will launch a new product next month.
B. The company announce launching a new product next month.
C. They announce the company launching a new product next month.
D. The company announce they launch a new product next month.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign instruct?
A. The shallow water is only for children.
B. Do not dive here because it is not safe; the water is shallow
C. Diving is allowed here; so you should dive into the water
D. Swimiming is not allowed here, so you cannot enter the water

Question 30: Which information is correct from the announcement?

A. A picnic basket
B. Gloves and a bottle of water
C. A towel
D. Sunglasses

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
As the name implies green technology is the one that has a "green" purpose. Green inventions are
environmentally friendly inventions that often involve: energy efficiency, recycling, safety and health
concerns, renewable resources, and more. One of the best known examples of green technology would be the
solar cell. A solar cell directly converts the energy in light into electrical energy. Generating electricity from
solar energy means less consumption of fossil fuels, reducing pollution and greenhouse gas emissions. Another
simple invention that can be considered green is the reusable water bottle. Drinking lots of water is healthy.
Reducing plastic waste is great for the environment. Hence, trendy reusable water bottles that you can refill
yourself are health-promoting, eco-friendly, and green. Inventors should know that green inventions and clean
technologies are good business. These are fast growing markets with growing profits. Consumers should know
that buying green inventions can reduce your energy bill and that green inventions are often safer and healthier
products.
Question 31: Which can be topic of the passage?
A. A brief introduction to green technology
B. A deep investigation into green technology
C. A comparision between green and traiditional technology
D. The development of green technology
Question 32: Which item is NOT MENTIONED as an example of green technology?
A. Solar cell B. Reuseable water bottle C. Refillable water bottle
D Fossil fuel
Question 33: Why should green technology be a good choice for consumer?
A. Because it can help consumer save money
B. Because its products are often safer
C. Because its products are often healthier
D. All are correct
Question 34: Which sentence is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. A solar cell indirectly converts the energy in light into electrical energy
B. Using solar cell can reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
C. Green technology is a fast-growing market
D. Green investions are environmentally friendly
Question 35: The word “convert” is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. Change B. mix C. create D. produce
Question 36: The word “efficiency” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. Wasteful B. effective C. well-done D. unproductiveness
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
The impact that technology has had on today’s schools has been quite significant. (37) _____. Teachers are
learning how to teach with emerging technologies (tablets, iPads, Smart Boards, digital cameras, computers),
(38) _____.
According to a study by IT Trade Association CompTIA, students prefer technology as (39) _____. They
especially like laptops and tablets. Subject that students find challenging or boring can become more interesting
with virtual lessons, through a video, or when using a tablet. (40 )____.

A – students are using advanced technology to shape the way they learn.
B – This widespread adoption of technology has changed how teachers and students work.
C – Results from another study even shows that technology indeed helps students remember what they learn
D – they believe that it makes learning more interesting and fun
Question 37 B Question 38 A Question 39 D Question 40C
UNIT 12 – LIFE ON OTHER PLANETS
TEST 01

Question 13: A. sit B. check C. stay D. skip

Question 14: A. old B. casual C. proper D. heavy
Question 15: A. carefully B. correctly C. freely D. slowly
Question 16: A. Forget B. Remember C. Ignore D. Delay
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
Our school had a health day last month. The day was full of activities. _____.
a. The school planned this day to help everyone understand the importance of health.
b. Many students and teachers took part in the activities and learned a lot.
c. The day included free health checks and advice on staying healthy.
A. c-a-b B. a-c-b C. b-c-a D. c-b-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in question 17) most appropriately.
A. Everyone felt that the health day was a great success.
B. The students were given free health magazines
C. Some people missed the event because of other commitments
D. The health checks were only available for teachers.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
ARE THERE ANY ALIENS OUT THERE?
For years we Earthlings have wondered (19) _____ we are alone in the universe or we've got company in the
shape of aliens. People have claimed to have met aliens, seen UFOs and some people even say they've been
abducted by extraterrestrials. But what do we really know about them - if they (20) ____ at all?
Ever since we realised there (21)_____ be something out there our imaginations have created thousands
of bizarre creatures. But at the moment no one knows what an alien might look like. Even if we do ever come
(22) ____ aliens in space, most scientists agree they probably won't look like little green men.
(23) ______aliens exists, experts reckon they're probably very small and look something like a bug.
Over the years thousands of people have been (24)_____ that we Earthlings have been visited by aliens from
other civilizations.
Question 19: A. when B. where C. whether D. whereas
Question 20: A. exist B. happen C. live D. survive
Question 21: A. can B. must C. may D. might
Question 22: A. over B. through C. across D. along
Question 23: A. Although B. If C. Because D. Since
Question 24: A. convinced B. satisfied C. affected D. consulted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: “I think there are 9 planets in the solar system” David said.
A. David thought there are 9 planets in the solar system.
B. David thought there were 9 planets in the solar system
C. David said he thought there are 9 planets in the solar system
D. David said to be have 9 planets in the solar system
Question 26: “Will aliens be friendly to people on Earth?” Nick asked his father.
A. Nick asked his father if would aliens be friendly to people on Earth
B. Nick asked his father whether aliens be friendly to people on Earth
C. Nick asked his father if aliens would friendly to people on Earth
D. Nick asked his father will aliens be friendly to people on Earth
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Mary/ asked/ John/ he/ finish/ his homework.
A. Mary asked John if he had finished his homework.
B. Mary asked to John if he finished his homework.
C. Mary asked John if he finish his homework.
D. Mary asked John he has finished his homework.
Question 28: Peter/ wanted to know/ Anna/ she/ enjoy/ reading books.
A. Peter wanted to know Anna whether she enjoyed reading books.
B. Peter wanted to know if Anna enjoys reading books.
C. Peter wanted to know if Anna enjoy reading books.
D. Peter wanted to know did Anna enjoy reading books.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign mean?
A. Only pets with short fur are allowed here.
B. No pets are allowed here unless you have permission.
C. Only big pets are allowed, small pets are not allowed
D. Pets and other animals are not allowed here.

Question 30: What does Mark want to do?

A. Borrow some money
B. Travel home with Jim
C. Invite Jim to visit him
D. Hire Mark’s Mom Home

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
THE INNER PLANETS
Planets are large bodies that rotate around the sun. The inner planets, or terestrial planets, are the four
planets closest to the Sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. Even though these planets are all small and rocky,
they have differences than they have things in common.
Because Mercury is the closest to the sun, the side that faces the sun gets as hot as 427 Celsius. At the
same time, the side that faces away from the sun is a freezing -173 Celsius .The extreme temperatures alone
make it a very unlikely place for life. With an atmosphere too thin for human breathing, it’s obvious that people
won’t be living on Mercury any time soon.
The next planet from the sun is Venus. Below clouds of sulfuric gas lies 96% carbon dioxide
atmosphere. That might be nice for a plant, since a plant “ breathes” carbon dioxide, but not for a person. If
you managed to survive the atmosphere, the surface of the planet is hot enough to melt solid metal. Venus has
temperature that is maintained at 462 Celsius, no matter where you go on the planet.
You are probably most familiar with Earth because it is your home planet. It has the perfect conditions
for life. Earth’s atmosphere and oceans help contro; the trickiest part of making a planet life-friendly:
temperature. Earth is the only planet known to have liquid water.
Mars is the fourth farthest from the sun. Some people think it may be possible for life to exist there.
Although scientists have not been able to find actual water on Mars, there seems to be evidence of water
erosions on its surface. Its canyons and mountains are very similar to those found on Earth .The main difference
is that there is no plant life. Some sicentists believe that Mars may have been very much like Earth until
something happened that made the water supply evaporate.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. All planets have similar atmosphere
B. The inner planets have unique features and conditions
C. Life exists on Mercury and Mars
D. The Sun controls the weather on Earth
Question 32: Which word is CLOSEST in meaning to “maintained”?
A. Created B. conserved C. increased D. destroyed
Question 33: Which word is OPPOSITE in meaning to “freezing”?
A. Cold B. Hot C. Cool D. Chilly
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Venus has clouds made of sulfuric gas.
B. Mars has evidence of water erosion.
C. Mercury’s surface temperature is always freezing.
D. Earth has the perfect conditions for life.
Question 35: What makes Mercury unlikely to support life?
A. Its thick atmosphere.
B. Extreme temperature differences.
C. The presence of sulfuric gas.
D. Lack of carbon dioxide.
Question 36: Why is Venus not suitable for human life?
A. It is too far from the Sun.
B. Its surface is too cold to support life.
C. Its atmosphere contains mostly carbon dioxide and sulfuric gas.
D. There is too much liquid water on the surface.
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
The moon very likely has a very small core, just 1 to 2 percent of the moon’s mass and roughly 420
miles (680 km) wide. (37) ______, but may also contain large amounts of sulphur and other elements.
Its rocky mantle is about 825 miles thick and made up of dense rocks rich in iron and magnesium.
Magmas in the mantle made their way to the surface in the past and erupted volcanically for more than a
billions years – (38) _____.
The crust on top averages some 42 miles deep. The outermost part of the crust is broken and jumbled
due to all the large impacts it has received, (39) _____. Beneath its surface, the Moon’s core is believed to be
partially molten, extending about 250 miles (400 km) in radius. This core is made up of iron, with small
amounts of sulfur and nickel. Despite its small size, the Moon’s core plays a significant role in generating its
weak magnetic field. Scientists theorize that the Moon once had a stronger magnetic field billions of years ago,
but over time, as the Moon cooled, (40) ____. This decline in activity also impacted its geological features,
making the Moon geologically inactive today compared to its volcanic past.

A - its magnetic activity diminished

B – It likely consists mostly of iron
C – from at least four billion years ago to fewer than three billion years past.
D – a shattered zone that gives way to intact material below a depth of 6 miles.

Question 37B Question 38 C Question 39D Question 40A

UNIT 12 – LIFE ON OTHER PLANETS
TEST 02

Question 13: A. look B. search C. read D. take

Question 14: A. with B. for C. at D. on
Question 15: A. the B. a C. an D. X
Question 16: A. exact B. clear C. specific D. detailed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions 17.
The local news talked about a new library project. The details are as follows. _______
a. Many people visited the library and used the resources often.
b. The town decided to build a new library to help students and families.
c. The library offered free books and study materials for everyone.
A. b-a-c B. a-b-c C. c-b-a D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that you can end the text (in question 17) most appropriately.
A. The library became a popular place for learning and meeting friends.
B. The library organized reading competitions for children.
C. The town planned to build more libraries in other areas.
D. The library faced problems with damaged books.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
option that best fits each numbered blank from 19 to 24.
Mercury is the smallest planet in our solar system. It's just (19) _____ bigger than the Earth's moon. It is the
closest planet to the sun, (20) _____ it's actually not the hottest. Venus is hotter. Along with Venus, Earth, and
Mars, Mercury is (21) ____ of the rocky planets. It has a solid surface that is covered with craters. It has no
atmosphere, and it doesn't have any moons. This small planet spins around slowly compared to Earth, so one
day lasts a long time. Mercury takes 59 Earth days to (22) ____ one full rotation. A year on Mercury goes by
fast. Because it's the closest planet to the sun, it doesn't take very long to go all the way around. It completes
one revolution around the sun in just 88 Earth days. A day on Mercury is not (23) a day here on Earth. For us,
the sun rises and sets each and every day. (24) ____ Mercury has a slow spin and a short year, it takes a long
time for the sun to rise and set there. Mercury only has one sunrise every 180 Earth days!
Question 19: A. a little B. a few C. many D. little
Question 20: A. but B. so C. and D. or
Question 20: A. first B. another C. one D. other
Question 21: A. take B. do C. get D. make
Question 22: A. same B. similar C. like D. different
Question 23: A. Therefore B. When C. If D. Because
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25: “How many stars are there in our galaxy?” Tom asked.
A. Tom asked how many stars there were in our galaxy.
B. Tom asked how many stars are there in our galaxy
C. Tom asked how many would stars be there in our galaxy
D. Tom asked how many stars having in our galaxy
Question 26: “Where did you go last night?” the Mom talked to the son.
A. The mom talked to the son where he had gone the previous night.
B. The mom asked the son where he had gone the previous night.
C. The mom talked to the son where had he gone the previous night.
D. The mom asked the son where had he gone previous night.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given cues
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Alice/ told/ Tom/ she/ want/ buy/ ice cream.
A. Alice told to Tom that she wanted to buy an ice cream
B. Alice told Tom that she wanted buy an ice cream
C. Alice told Tom that she wanted to buy an ice cream
D. Alice told Tom she wants to buy an ice cream
Question 28: Huy/ ask/ Linh/ prefer/ quiet/ or/ bustling places.
A. Huy asked Linh if prefered quiet or bustling places
B. Huy asked Linh would she prefers quiet or bustling places
C. Huy asked Linh if she prefers quiet or bustling places
D. Huy asked if Linh prefered quiet or bustling places
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29: What does the sign mean?
A. The door should always be open and you should never lock
it unless there is no one around.
B. You should always make sure to close the door after use
always close it.
C. Only open the door at specific times when allowed and
close it otherwise.
D. You should leave the door open at all times and never close
it.

Question 30: What can’t theatre customers do?

A. Ask for different seats after they’ve paid
B. Choose where they sit before they book
C. Get their money back on tickets
D. Buy tickets at the City Theatre

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Astronomy is the studying of the planets and the stars, and people who study astronomy are astronomers.
Telescopes help people to learn about our solar system. In 1609, Galileo used one of the first telescopes to look
at the night sky. He saw mountains and craters on the Moon, and four moons around Jupiter. The first telescopes
were very small. Later, people made' bigger telescopes, and they discovered new planets and moons. When
Galileo looked at a bright area in the night sky, he discovered that It was made of many stars. Later, people
discovered that this is the center of our galaxy, the Milky Way. For a long time, astronomers thought that the
Milky Way was the only galaxy in the universe. Then in 1930, an American astronomer called Edwin Hubble
discovered another galaxy. Now we know that there are billions of galaxies in the universe.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The invention of telescopes
B. The discoveries made by astronomers about the universe
C. The structure of the Milky Way galaxy
D. Galileo’s contributions to astronomy.
Question 32: The word has the OPPOSITE meaning of bigger as used in the text?
A. Smaller B. larger C. wider D. heavier
Question 33: The word has the CLOSEST meaning of discovered as used in the text?
A. Observed B. lost C. imagined D. created
Question 34: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Galileo used a telescope to see Jupiter’s moons.
B. Edwin Hubble discovered the Milky Way galaxy.
C. Early telescopes were very small.
D. The Milky Way is made of many stars.
Question 35: What did Galileo observe on the Moon when he used his telescope?
A. Mountains and craters B. Oceans and craters C. Valleys and rivers D. Rings and
craters
Question 36: Who discovered that there are billions of galaxies in the universe?
A. Galileo Galilei B. Edwin Hubble C. Isaac Newton D. Nicolaus
Copernicus
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A, B, C
or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37
to 40.
Mars is called the Red Planet because of its reddish surface. (37) _____. Scientists hope that we can find
another planet to accommodate human life. There are major reasons why the climate on Mars is unsuitable for
human life. Temperatures on Mars can be as low as -87 degrees Celsius and rarely get above 0 degrees Celsius.
(38)_ ____. 95% of the atmosphere is carbon dioxide (CO2), (39) _____. Moreover, there is no water on Mars
even though scientists have found traces of it. However, as early as the mid-19th century, scientists discovered
that Mars had some similarities to Earth. A day on Mars is 24 hours, 39 minutes and 35 seconds, almost the
same as a day on Earth. (40) ____. However, the seasons are twice as long because a year on Mars lasts about
twice as long as an Earth year.
A - But the bigger problem is the lack of oxygen
B - and this is poisonous to breathe
C - There have been many explorations to Mars by humans since the mid-20th century
D - Mars also experiences seasons just as Earth does
Question 37 C Question 38 A Question 39 B Question 40D

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UNIT 7.

Question 13: A. in B. around C. at D. behind

A - farming are destroying the habitats of many species.

Question 13: A. in B. for C. at D. behind

Question 30: What does the sign say?

A. Air pollution, soil pollution, water pollution and noise pollution.

Question 13: A. enjoy B. join C. participate D. take part

A - especially when selecting gifts for others on special occasions

Question 37 A Question 38 B Question 39 D Question 40 C

Question 13: A. better B. improving C. mastering D. increase

Question 30: What does the notice say?

Question 30: What does the notice say?

Question 30. What does the notice say?

A - and the storm season lasts from June to November

Question 37 A Question 38 C Question 39 B Question 40 D

Question 13: A. has postponed B. posted C. has been posted D. postpones

Question 30: What does the notice say?

Question 37 B Question 38 A Question 39 D Question 40 C

Question 13: A. bring B. keep C. borrow D. return

Question 30: What does the notice say?

A. The bookshop is closed all day

Question 13: A. ignore B. follow C. break D. forget

Question 30: What should you bring?

A – Moreover, computers are almost always correct

Question 37 B Question 38 A Question 39 C Question 40 D

Question 30: Which information is correct from the announcement?

Question 13: A. sit B. check C. stay D. skip

Question 30: What does Mark want to do?

A - its magnetic activity diminished

Question 37B Question 38 C Question 39D Question 40A

Question 13: A. look B. search C. read D. take

Question 30: What can’t theatre customers do?

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