Q

Static Analysis

A. A static testing

B. Done by the developers

C. Both A. and B

D. None of the above

C. Both A. and B
2

Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?

A. Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of
defect.

B. Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.

C. Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.

D. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of
defect they find.

D. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of
defect they find.
3

Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is
important to

enable which of the following test objectives?

A. Preventing defects in the system.

B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.

C. Gaining confidence in the system.

D. Finishing the project on time.

A. Preventing defects in the system.

4

Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

A. Planning, Individual Review, Initiate Review, Issue Comm & Analysis, Fixing &
reporting

B. Planning, Initiate Review, Individual Review, Issue Comm & Analysis, Fixing &
reporting

C. Planning, Issue Comm & Analysis, Individual Review, Initiate Review, Fixing &
reporting

D. Planning, Individual Review, Initiate Review, Fixing & reporting, Issue Comm &
Analysis

B. Planning, Initiate Review, Individual Review, Issue Comm & Analysis, Fixing &
reporting
5

The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following:

A. Explaining the objective

B. Fixing defects found typically done by author

C. Defining the entry and exit criteria

D. Individual Meeting preparations

C. Defining the entry and exit criteria

6

Q
Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.

B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.

C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.

D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during

inspections.

B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.

7

Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that
were

identified during the review meeting

A. Moderator

B. Scribe

C. Reviewers

D. Author

B. Scribe
8

Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).

ii. No individual Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true

D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

9

Which of the following are types of static Testing ?

A. Ad hoc & Perspective-based

B. Inspection & Walkthrough

C. Review & Static Analysis

D. White-Box & Black Box

C. Review & Static Analysis

10

Data flow analysis studies:

A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.

B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.

C. The use of data on paths through the code.

D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.

C. The use of data on paths through the code

11

Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?

A. Programming standard violations.

B. Errors in requirements.

C. Undeclared variables.
D. Dead Code.

B. Errors in requirements.
12

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

A. Walkthrough

B. Inspection

C. Management review

D. Post project review

B. Inspection
13

Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is

true?

A. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming
and require preparation

and follow up.

B. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.

C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.

D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.

D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.

14

Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?

A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.

C. Gather metrics.

D. Allocate the individual roles.

D. Allocate the individual roles.

15

Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review:

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

A. i,ii,iii,iv are true

B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.

D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

16

Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code

B. Static testing includes desk checking

C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections

D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code

17

Q
 _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code
and one or

two other programmers or testers.

A. Formal Reviews

B. Peer Reviews

C. Semi Formal Reviews

D. All of the above

Study These Flashcards

B. Peer Reviews
18

Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong

together?

1. Led by the author

2. Undocumented
3. Gaining Consensus
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
s. Inspection
t. Technical review
u. Informal review
v. Walkthrough

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1

B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4

D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

Study These Flashcards

B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
 19

Which characteristics BEST describe a walkthrough?

A. Documented, includes peers and experts

B. Formal process, collects metrics

C. Defined roles, led by trained moderator

D. Led by the author, may be documented

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D. Led by the author, may be documented

20

Which of the following would NORMALLY be identified by static testing?

A. Mistake

B. Defect

C. Failure

D. Error

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B. Defect
21

As a moderator in a typical formal review, what can be one of your

responsibilities?

A. Deciding on the execution of reviews

B. Documenting all the issues and problems

C. Leading the review of the documents

D. Identifying and describing the findings

Study These Flashcards

C. Leading the review of the documents

22

What is the main purpose of Informal review? (Chapter 3) A. improve the software
product

B. Detecting potential defects

C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding

D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

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B. Detecting potential defects

23

Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

A. no, because they apply to development documentation

B. no, because they are normally applied before testing

C. yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

D. yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

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C. yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

24

Which of the following is a Key Characteristic of Walk Through?

A. Scenario, Dry Run, Simulations

B. Pre-Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process

D. Includes Metrics

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A. Scenario, Dry Run, Simulations

25

Which of the following are good candidates for manual static testing?

A. Requirement specifications, test plan, code, memory leaks.

B. Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.

C. Requirement specifications, user guides, performance.

D. Requirement specifications, website, code, use cases.

Study These Flashcards

B. Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.

26

What is the best description of static analysis? (Chapter 3)

A. The analysis of batch programs

B. The reviewing of test plans

C. The analysis of program code

D. The use of black-box testing

Study These Flashcards

C. The analysis of program code

27

Q
The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below, arrange them in the
correct order. (Chapter 3)

i. Planning
ii. Individual Review
iii. Issue Communication & Analysis
iv. Initiate review v. Fixing & Reporting

A. i,ii,iii,iv,v
B. vi,i,ii,iii,v
C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,
D. i,iv,ii,iii,v

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D. i,iv,ii,iii,v
28

In a formal review, who is primarily responsible for the documents to be

reviewed?

A. Author

B. Manager

C. Moderator

D. Reviewers

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A. Author
29

Which statements correctly describe certain phases of a formal review?

A. Looking for defects occurs during the Initiate review phase Fixing defects found
happens during the Individual Review phase

B. Personnel selection occurs during the planning phase Fixing defects found
happens during the Fixing & Reporting
C. Personnel selection occurs during the planning phase
Gathering metrics happens during the Issue Communication & Analysis phase

D. Distributing documents occurs during the planning phase Personal review

happens during the individual Review

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B. Personnel selection occurs during the planning phase

Fixing defects found happens during the Fixing & Reporting

30

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?

a. Variables that are never used.

b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.

A. b, c and d are true; a and e are false

B. a is true; b, c, d and e are false

C. c, d and e are true; a and b are false

D. a, b and d are true; c and e are false

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D. a, b and d are true; c and e are false

31

Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

A. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.

B. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.

C. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.

D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, user guides and test plans.

Study These Flashcards

D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, user guides and test plans.

32

What can static analysis NOT find?

A. the use of a variable before it has been defined

B. unreachable (“dead”) code

C. memory leaks

D. array bound violations

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C. memory leaks
33

Which of the following is the responsibility of a Review leader?

A. Is responsible for review planning

B. Creates the work product under review

C. Is often the person upon whom the success of the review depends

D. Decides who will be involved and organizes when and where it will take place

Study These Flashcards

D. Decides who will be involved and organizes when and where it will take place
34

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. inspection is the most formal review process

B. inspections should be led by a trained leader

C. managers can perform inspections on management documents

D. inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Study These Flashcards

D. inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

35

Peer Reviews are also called as:

a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review

Study These Flashcards

c) Technical Review
36

Success Factors for a review include:

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective

ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct

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a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

37
Q

Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective:

A. identifying defects.

B. fixing defects.

C. 1 and 2

D. None

Study These Flashcards

A. identifying defects.
38

Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review?

a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager

Study These Flashcards

a. Test manager
39

Is often the person upon whom the success of the review depends.

A. Scribe

B. Author

C. Manager

D. Facilitator

Study These Flashcards

A
 D. Facilitator
40

Requires the reviewers to attempt to use the work product under review to
generate the product they would derive from it.

A. Role-based

B. Ad hoc

C. Perspective-based

D. Scenarios & D
The quiz lets qutiosn
639: Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool?
A. Test comparator
B. Database model checker
C. Coverage measurement tool
D. Memory leak detector
D
640: Which of the following statements are TRUE?
I. Regression testing and acceptance testing are alternative terms for the same thing.
II. Regression tests show that all faults have been resolved.
III. Regression tests are a good candidate for automation.
IV. Regression tests are executed to determine if side-effects have been introduced through changes
to the code.
V. Regression tests are primarily performed in integration testing.
A. I, III, IV and V.
B. III and IV.
C. I, III and V.
D. II and V.
B
641: A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill
paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into
production.
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
A. To build confidence in the application.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users.
size=2 face=Arial>
A
642: According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following
words?
A. Incident
B. Defect
C. Mistake
D. Error
B
643: According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
A. Negative feedback to the tester.
B. Negative consequences that will occur.
C. Negative consequences that could occur.
D. Negative consequences for the test object.
C
644: Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to
enable which of the following test objectives?
A. Preventing defects in the system.
B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
C. Gaining confidence in the system.
D. Finishing the project on time.
A

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

645: A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system
under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for
her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group,
saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the
system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the
following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and
executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
A
646: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
A. To verify the success of corrective actions.
B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
C
647: Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships
between testers and developers?
A. Understanding what managers value about testing.
B. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
C. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
D. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
B
648: Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across
the test life cycle?
A. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
B. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
C. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.D. Test principles affect activities
throughout the test life cycle.
D
649: Using an error guessing test design technique to convert temperature (Celsius to Fahrenheit,
and Fahrenheit to Celsius), experienced testers will MOST LIKELY use which set of test data?
A. -1, 0, 89.6 and 212
B. -40, 37.78, and 100
C. -1, 0, 1 and 37.78
D. -40, 0, 32 and 100
D
650: Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?
A. Objectives should be generic for any test level.
B. Objectives are the same for each test level.
C. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.
D. Each level has objectives specific to that level.
D
651: Which of the following is a test type?
A. Component testing
B. Functional testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing
B
652: Which of the following
is a non-functional quality characteristic?
A. Feasibility
B. Usability
C. Maintenance
D. Regression
B
653: Which of these is a functional test?
A. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
B. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
C. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the
information on the letter to the customers.
D. Checking how easy the system is to use.
C
654: Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency
changes?
A. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this
work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process.
B. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.
C. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been
adversely affected.
D. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the
whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
D
655: A regression test:
A. Is only run once.
B. Will always be automated.
C. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
D. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
C
656: Non-functional testing includes:
A. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.
B. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.
C. Gaining user approval for the system.
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.
B
657: Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?
A. Software code
B. Requirements specification
C. Test designs
D. All of the above
D
658: Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?
A. Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
B. Checks expected results against actual results.
C. Can detect memory leaks.
D. Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.
A
659: Which is not a type of review?
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Informal review
D. Management approval
D
660: What statement about reviews is true?
A. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.
B. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.
C. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.
D. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.
A
661: Which of the following faults can be found by a static analysis tool?
I. Incorrect branch conditions logic.
0in 0pt" class=MsoNormal>II. Variables which are used after being defined.
III. Variables which are defined but never used.
IV. Standards violations
V. Illegal calls to routinesA. III, IV and V
B. II only
B. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III, IV and V
A
662: Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together?
1. Led by the author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
s. Inspection
t. Technical review
u. Informal review
v. Walkthrough
A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
B
663: What statement about static analysis is true?
A. With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing.
B. Compiling is not a form of static analysis.
C. When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant.
D. Static analysis finds all faults.
A
664: Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?
1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix.
2. Early test design can find defects.
3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements.
4. Early test design takes more effort.
A. 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.
B. 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.
C. 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.
D. 2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false.
C
665: Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?
A. Unreachable code
B. Undeclared variables
C. Faults in the requirements
D. Too few comments
C
666: In which document described in IEEE 829 would you find instructions for the steps to be taken
for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement?
A. Test plan
B. Test design specification
C. Test case specification
D. Test procedure specification
D
667: With a highly experienced tester with a good business background, which approach to
defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time
pressure?
A. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.
B. Every step in the test spelled out in detail.
C. A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another
experienced tester.
D. Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.
A
668: Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test
execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database.
1. Print modified customer record.
2. Change customer address: house number and street name.
3. Capture and print the on-screen error message.
4. Change customer address: postal code.
5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record.
6. Close the customer record and close the database.
7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.
A. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 7, 6
B. 4, 2, 5,1, 6, 7, 3
C. 5, 4, 2, 1, 7, 3, 6
D. 5,1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6
C
669: Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?
A. They find different types of defect.
B. Using more techniques is always better.
C. Both find the same types of defect.
D. Because specifications tend to be unstructured.
A
670: What is a key characteristic of structure-based testing techniques?
A. They are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification.
B. They are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage.
C. They are based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. They use a formal or informal model of the software or component.
B
671: Which of the following would be an example of decision-table testing for a financial
application applied at the system-test level?
A. A table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen.
B. A table containing rules for interfaces between components.
C. A table containing rules for mortgage applications.
D. A table containing rules for chess.
C
672: Which of the following could be a coverage measure for state transition testing?
V. All states have been reached.
W. The response time for each transaction is adequate.
X. Every transition has been exercised.
Y. All boundaries have been exercised.
Z. Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.A. X, Y and Z
B. V, X, Y and Z
C. W,X and Y
D. V, X and Z
D
673: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which
sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded?
Sections
a) Test incident report identifier
b) Summary
c) Incident description
d) Impact
Details
1. Unique identifier
2. Version level of the test items
3. Inputs
4. Expected results
5. Actual results
6. Anomalies
7. Dale and time
A. a: 1; b: 2 and 7; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 6
B. a: 1; b: 6 and 7; c. 3, 4 and 5; d: 7
C. a: 1; b: 2; c: 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
D. a: 1; b: 6 and 7: c: 3, 4 and 5
C
674: Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based
(black-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. State transitions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
A. Y, W, Y, or Z
B. W, X or Y
C. V, X or Z
D. W, X, Y or Z
B
675: Which of the following is a potential pilot project objective when introducing a test support
tool into an organization?
A. Measuring the satisfaction of management for staying within scope
B. Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
C. Receiving compliments from the users on the aesthetic aspects of the tool
D. Reducing the amount of overtime need to finish the project on time
B
676: Use case testing is useful for which of the following?
P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers.
Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested.
R. Finding defects in the interaction between components.
S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field.
T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.A. P, Q and R
B. Q, S and T
C. P,Q and S
D. R, S and T
A
677: Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage and
decision coverage is correct?
A. 100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%.
B. 100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%.
C. 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage.
D. 100% statement coverage always means 100% decision coverage.
C
678: If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to
business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flier program. If you don't
hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you check
in late. This is shown in following Figure. Note that each box (i.e. statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
C
679: Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?
A. They can find defects missed by specification-based and structure-based techniques.
B. They don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques.
C. They can be used most effectively when there are good specifications.
D. They will ensure that all of the code or system is tested.
A
680: How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques?
A. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a
documented record of what the system should do.
B. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers.
C. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an individual's
personal view.
D. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the
system should do.
D
681: When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into
account?
V. previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems
W. the existing knowledge of the testers
X. regulatory standards that applyY. the type of test execution tool that will be used
Z. the documentation available
A. V, W, Y and Z
B. V, W and Y
C. X and Y
D. V, W and Y
size=2 face=Arial>
B
682: Given the state diagram in following Figure, which test case is the minimum series of valid
transitions to cover every state?
A. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
B. SS - S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S3 - S4 - ES
C. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
D. SS - S1 - S4 - S2 - S1 - S3 � ES
A
683: Why is independent testing important?
A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work.
B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.
C. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used.
D. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.
B
684: Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
A. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.
B. Handle all test automation duties.
C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.
D. Gather and report test progress metrics.
D
685: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
A. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders.
B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.
C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
D. A test manager reports to a test leader.
B
686: What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the
test procedure specification?
A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the
associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing
a test.
B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test
procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.
C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the
test design specification is midway between the two.D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the
project, the test design specification is finished in
the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the
project.
A
687: Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
A. Geographical separation of tester and programmers.
B. The departure of the test manager during the project.
C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests.
D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.
C
688: The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning
occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of
the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
A. Test tasks
B. Environmental needs
C. Exit criteria
D. Test team training
C
689: Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan:
I. No known customer-critical defects.
II. All interfaces between components tested.
III. 100% code coverage of all units.
IV. All specified requirements satisfied.
V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules.
Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance
test plan?
A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
D
690: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
A. A group of test activities that are organized together.
B. One or more test design specification documents.
C. A test type.
D. An ISTQB certification.
A
691: Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
A. Percentage of test cases written.
B. Number of test environments remainin to be configured.
C. Number of defects found and fixed.
D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.
C
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692: During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team:
'90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have
been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15
defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of
the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?A. The remaining 15
defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.
B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.
C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.
D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to
release.
B
693: In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The
payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is
considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the
following sections?
A. Evaluation
B. Summary of activities
C. Variances
D. Incident description
A
694: During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as
resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the
following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken
down?
A. Traceability
B. Confirmation testing
C. Configuration control
D. Test documentation management
C
695: You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores
and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market.
B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test.
C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing.
D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
D
696: A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the
following determines the level of risk?
A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
B. The harm that might result to the user
C. The price for which the software is sold
D. The technical staff in the meeting
B
697: You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks
and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
A. Unexpected illness of a key team member
B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time
C. Data corruption under network congestion
D. Failure to handle a key use case
A
698: You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the
planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency
actions required for the project risks.B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product
risk with tests and transfer
responsibility for the project risks to the project manager.
C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product
risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks.
D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
A
699: According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
A. Control of the test project
B. The test object
C. A single test item
D. A potential negative outcome
B
700: In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, 'At this point, I expect to
receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid
input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds
and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue."
'
This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident
report?
A. Summary
B. Impact
C. Item pass/fail criteria
D. Incident description
D
701: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that
occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report
C
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702: A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the
execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report
by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report
that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks.
What is one possible use of such a report?
A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing.
A
703: Which tools help to support static testing?
A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.
D
704: Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
A. Test management and control.
B. Test specification and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring.
C
705: What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.
B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.
C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.
D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.
B
706: What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.
B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been
purchased.
C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.
D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.
A
707: Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
B. Data-driven and capture-driven
C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven
A
708: Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?
A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.
B
709: Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?
A. Decide which tool to acquire.
B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.
D
710: What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the
software or its components.C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or
components.
B
711: An exhaustive test suite would include:
A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
B. All combinations of input values and output values.
C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
D. All states and state transitions.
A
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712: Which statement about testing is true?
A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team.
A
713: For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database, which two
steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all of the steps?
1. Open database and confirm existing customer
2. Change customer's marital status from single to married
3. Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4. Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5. Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name
6. Close the customer record and close the database
A. Tests 1 and 4
B. Tests 2 and 3
C. Tests 5 and 6
D. Tests 3 and 5
D
714: Consider the following list of either product or project risks:
I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following
statements is true?
A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.
C
715: Consider the following statements about regression tests:
I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
A. I and IIB. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
B
716: Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based
(white-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised
Z. Statements exercised
A. V, W or Y
B. W, X or Y
C. V, Y or Z
D. W, X or Z
C
717: Review the following portion of an incident report.
1. I place any item in the shopping cart.
2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.
4. I click the < Checkout > button.
5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message,
'No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.'
6. I click < Okay >.
7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing
items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4
and 6.
Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following
important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?
A. The steps to reproduce the failure.
B. The summary.
C. The check for intermittence.
D. The use of an objective tone.
B
718: Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing?
1. Over-reliance on the tool
2. Greater consistency and repeatability
3. Objective assessment
4. Unrealistic expectations
5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7. Repetitive work is reduced
A. Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
B. Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
C. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
D. Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
C
719: Which of the following encourages objective testing?A. Unit testing
B. System testing
C. Independent testing
D. Destructive testing
C
720: Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?
A. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require
preparation and follow up.
B. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.
D
721: Consider the following list of test process activities:
I. Analysis and design
II. Test closure activities
III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
IV. Planning and control
V. Implementation and execution
Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?
A. I, II,
III, IV and V.
B. IV, I, V, III and II.
C. IV, I, V, II and III.
D. I, IV, V, III and II.
B
722: Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of
the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?
A. Show that the system works before we ship it.
B. Find as many defects as possible.
C. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
D. Prevent defects through early involvement.
A
723: Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
A. Test management and control
B. Test specification and design
C. Test execution and logging
D. Performance and monitoring
B
724: Consider the following types of tools:
V. Test management tools
W. Static analysis tools
X. Modeling tools
Y. Dynamic analysis tools
Z. Performance testing tools
Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?
A. W, X and Y
B. V, Y and ZC. V, W and Z
D. X, Y and Z
A
725: What is a test condition?
A. An input, expected outcome, pre-condition and post-condition
B. The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
C. Something that can be tested
D. A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run
C
726: Which of the following general testing principles are t rue?
Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects
Testing of combinations of inputs and outputs will find all defects
Testing should start after the completion of key development tasks
Testing of safety-critical software is similar to testing web applications
A. I is true; II, III and IV are false
B. II is true; I, III and IV are false
C. I and II are true; III and N are false
D. II and III are true; I and IV are false
A
727: If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature
reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover
all valid equivalence partitions?
A. 15, 19 and 25 degrees
B. 17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees
C. 18, 20 and 22 degrees
D. 16 and 26 degrees
A
728: By creating future tests based on the results of previous tests, a tester is demonstrating what
type of informal test design technique?
A. Security testing
B. Non-functional testing
C. Exploratory testing
D. Interoperability testing
C
729: What is the purpose of confirmation testing?
A. To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.
B. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
C. To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes
made.
D. To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.
B
730: Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?
A. Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.
B. Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.
C. Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.D.
Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the
tool are maintained.
B
731: Which of the following best describes integration testing?
A. Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated
components.
B. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
C. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
D. Integration of automated software test suites with the product.
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A
732: According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:
A. Is part of the fundamental testing process.
B. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
C. Involves intentionally adding known defects.
D. Follows the steps of a test procedure.
B
733: Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an
incorrect interest rate is calculated?
A. Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
B. Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
C. Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest alculation rules.
D. Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.
C
734: Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are:
$0.25 up to 10 grams;
$0.35 up to 50 grams;
$0.45 up to 75 grams;
$0.55 up to 100 grams.
Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
A. 0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100
B. 10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000
C. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101
D. 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56
C
735: Consider the following decision table for Car rental.
Conditions
Rule 1
Rule 2
Rule 3
Rule 4
Over 23?F T T T
Clean driving record?
Don't care
FTT
On business?
Don't care
Don't care
FT
Actions Supply rental car?
FFTT
Premium charge
FFFT
Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases?
TC1: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record
TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record
A. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
B. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.C. TC1: Don't
supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
D. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.
C
736: What is exploratory testing?
A. The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
B. A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
C. The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
D. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.
D
737: What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?
A. 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
B. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
C. 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
D. 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.
B