SET-4

NEET

PHYSICS
In a gravitational force field a particle is taken from A to B along different paths as
shown in figure. Then
1.

1) Work done along path I will be maximum

2) Work done along path III will be minimum

3) Work done along path IV will be minimum

4) Work done along all the paths will be the same

2. The density of a material in SI units is 128 kg m−3 . In certain units in which the unit of
length is 25 cm and the unit of mass is 50 g, the numerical value of density of the
material is
1) 410

2) 640

3) 16

4) 40

3. The linear momentum of a particle varies with time t as p=a+bt +c t 2

Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Force varies with time in a quadratic manner

2) Force is time-dependent

3) The velocity of the particle is proportional to time

4) The displacement of the particle is proportional to t

A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in

figure. The spring balance, measure
4.

1) 50 N 2) 25 N 3) 500 N 4) 10 N

An object is subjected to a force in the north-east direction. To balance this force, a

second force should be applied in the direction
5.

1) North-East 2) South 3) South-west 4) West

6. If the surface is smooth, the acceleration of the block m 2 will be

 1) m2 g 2) 2m 2 g 3) 2m 1 g 4) 2 m1 g
4 m1 +m2 4 m1 +m2 m 1+ 4 m 2 m1+ m2
A block of mass 4 kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of static
friction is 0.8. If a force of 19 N is applied on the block parallel to the floor, then the
7.

force of friction between the block and floor is

1) 32 N 2) 18 N 3) 19 N 4) 9.8 N

A cork is submerged in water by a spring attached to the bottom of a pail. When the pail
is kept in a elevator moving with an acceleration downwards, the spring length
8.

1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Remains 4) Data insufficient

unchanged
A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v . If μ
is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest
9.

after a time

1) v 2) g μ 3) g 4) v

10. To get output ‘1’ at R, for the given logic gate circuit the input values must be :
gμ v v g

1) X=0, Y=1 2) X=1, Y=1

3) X=0, Y=0 4) X=1, Y=0

11. A mass M is split into two parts m and (M −m), which are then separated by a certain
distance. The ratio m/ M which maximizes the gravitational force between the parts is
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 2 3) 4 : 1 4) 2 : 1

12. The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R . A platform is arranged at a height R

from the surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv ,
where v is its escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. The value of f is
1) 1 2) 1 3) 4) 1
√2
13. Two particles of equal mass m go around a circle of radius R under the action of their
3 2 √2

mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle with respect to their center of
mass is
1) Gm
√ R √
2) Gm
4R
3) Gm
√ 3R √
4) Gm

14. A block of mass m is kept on a platform which starts from rest with constant acceleration
2R
 g/2 upward, as shown in fig. work done normal reaction on block in time t is :

2 2 2 2 2 2
1) 0 2) 3 mg t 3) −mg t 4) mg t

15. The relay satellite transmits the T.V. programme continuously from one part of the world
8 8 8

to another because its

1) Period is greater than the period of rotation of the earth

2) Period is less than the period of rotation of the earth about its axis

3) Period has no relation with the period of the earth about its axis

4) Period is equal to the period of rotation of the earth about its axis

16. The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2kms−1. The escape velocity from a planet having
twice the radius and the same mean density is (¿ kms¿ ¿−1)¿
1) 11.2 2) 5.6 3) 15 4) 22.4

If the earth were ¿ suddenly contract ¿ thof its present radius without any change
17. 1

in its mass, the duration of the new day will be nearly

n

1) 24 h 2) 24 n h 3) 24 h 4) 2
2 24 n h
n
18. A satellite is to revolve round the earth in a circle of radius 8000 km . The speed at which
n

this satellite be projected into an orbit, will be

1) 3 km/ s 2) 16 km/ s 3) 7.15 km/s 4) 8 km/ s

19. Amount of heat required to convert 10 g of ice to water at 20℃ is

1) 80 cal 2) 100 cal 3) 1000 cal 4) 540 cal

20. A rectangular block is heated from 0℃ to 100℃ . The percentage increase in its length is
0.2%. What is the percentage increase in its volume?
1) 0.6% 2) 0.10% 3) 0.2% 4) 0.4%

21. There is some change in length when a 33000 N tensile force is applied on a steel rod of
area of cross-section10−3 m2. The change of temperature required to produce the same
elongation, if the steel rod is heated, is (The modulus of elasticity is 3 ×1011 Nm−2 and the
coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 1.1 ×10−5 ℃−1.
1) 20℃ 2) 15 ℃ 3) 10 ℃ 4) 0 ℃

22. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t+ ∆ t , its moment of inertia increases

from I to I + ∆ I . If α be the coefficient of linear expansion of the rod, then the value of
∆I

is
I

1) 2 α ∆t 2) α ∆ t 3) α ∆ t 4) ∆ t
2 α
23. Two plates of same thickness, of coefficients of thermal conductivity K 1∧K 2 and areas of
cross section A1∧ A 2 are connected as shown in figure. The common coefficient of
thermal conductivity K will be
 1) K A + K A 2) K 1 A1 3) K 1 A1 + K 2 A 2 4) K 1 A2 + K 2 A 1
1 1 2 2
K2 A2 A1 + A 2 K1+ K2
24. A piece of glass is heated to a high temperature and then allowed to cool. If it cracks, a
probable reason for this is the following property of glass
1) Low thermal conductivity 2) High thermal conductivity

3) High specific heat 4) High melting point

25. Which of the curves in figure represents the relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit
temperatures
°C

2 3

°F
4 1

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

26. A hot and a cold body are kept in vacuum separated from each other. Which of the
following cause decrease in temperature of the hot body
1) Radiation 2) Convection

3) Conduction 4) Temperature remains unchanged

27. If the temperature difference on the two sides of a wall increases from 100 ℃ to 200 ℃ ,
its thermal conductivity
1) Remains 2) Is doubled 3) Is halved 4) Becomes four times
unchanged
28. The time period of a simple pendulum, when it is made to oscillate on the surface of
moon
1) Increases 2) Decreases

3) Remains unchanged 4) Becomes infinite

The acceleration 2 of a particle varies with displacement

x as 2 = −kx where k is a
29. 2
d x
2
d x

constant of the motion. The time period T of the motion is equal to

dt dt

1) 2 πk 2) 3) 4) 2 π /k
2 π √k 2 π /√k
30. Two identical blocks A and B, each of mass m resting on smooth floor, are connected by
a light spring of natural length L and the spring constant k , with the spring at its natural
length. A third identical block at C (mass m ) moving with a speed ( v ) along the line
joining A and B collides with A . The maximum compression in the spring is proportional
to
1)
v
√ m
2k
2)
m
√ v
2k
3)
√ mv
2k
31. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum angular displacement θ , then the
k
4) mv

maximum kinetic energy of bob of mass m is

1) 1 × l
2 g () 2) 1 × mg
2 l
 3) mgl × ¿) 4) 1 ×mgl sinθ

32. The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 16 J when it is in its mean position. If
2

the amplitude of oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12 kg , the time
period of its oscillation is
1) π s 2) 2 π s 3) 20 π s 4) 5 π s
5
33. Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is, x=4 sin ωt +3 sin ⁡(ωt+ π /3 ¿). ¿
Here x is in centimeter and t in second. The amplitude of oscillation of the particle is
approximately
1) 5 cm 2) 6 cm 3) 7 cm 4) 9 cm

34. An ideal spring with spring-constant K is hung from the ceiling and a block of mass M is
attached to its lower end. The mass is released with the spring initially unstretched.
Then the maximum extension in the spring is
1) 4 Mg /K 2) 2 Mg /K 3) Mg / K 4) Mg /2 K

35. A mass 1 kg suspended from a spring shoes force constant is 400 N m−1, executes simple
harmonic oscillation. When the total energy of the oscillator is 2j, the maximum
acceleration experienced by the mass will be
1) −2 2) −2 3) −2 4) −2
2 ms 4 ms 40 ms 400 ms
36. A spring having a spring constant ' K ' is loaded with a mass ' m' . The spring is cut into
two equal parts and one of these is loaded again with the same mass. The new spring
constant is
1) K /2 2) K 3) 2 K 4) 2
K
37. A source of sound of frequency 600 Hz is placed inside water. The speed of sound in
water is 1500 m s−1 and in air it is300 m s−1. The frequency of sound recorded by an
observer who is standing in air is
1) 200 Hz 2) 300 Hz 3) 120 Hz 4) 600 Hz

38. Two wires are fixed in a sonometer. Their tensions are in the ratio 8:1. The lengths are in
the ratio 36:35. The diameters are in the ratio 4:1. Densities of the materials are in the
ratio 1:2. If the higher frequency in the setting is 360 Hz, the beat frequency when the
two wires are sounded together, is
1) 8 2) 5 3) 10 4) 6

39. Speed of sound in mercury at a certain temperature is 1450 m/s . Given the density of
mercury as 13.6 ×10 3 kg /m 3 , the bulk modulus for mercury is
1) 10 3 2) 10 3 3) 10 3 4) 10 3
2.86 ×10 N /m 3.86 ×10 N /m 4.86 × 10 N /m 5.86 ×10 N /m
40. The harmonic which are present in a pipe open at one end are

1) Odd harmonics 2) Even harmonics

3) Even as well as odd harmonics 4) None of these

41. To raise the pitch of a stringed musical instrument the player can

1) Loosen the string 2) Tighten the string 3) Shorten the string 4) Both (b) and (c)

42. If two tuning forks A and B are sounded together, they produce 4 beats per second. A is
then slightly loaded with wax, they produce 2 beats when sounded again. The frequency
of A is 256. The frequency of B will be
 1) 250 2) 252 3) 260 4) 262

43. A long glass tube is held vertically in water. A tuning fork is struck and held over the
tube. Strong resonances are observed at two successive lengths 0.50 m and 0.84 m
above the surface of water. If velocity of sound is 340 m s−1, then the frequency of the
turning fork is
1) 128 Hz 2) 256 Hz 3) 384 Hz 4) 500 Hz

44. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 produce interference. The ratio of
maximum to the minimum intensity, is equal to
1) 2 : 1 2) 4 : 1 3) 9 : 1 4) 10 : 8

45. An open organ pipe is closed suddenly with the result that the second overtone of the
closed pipe is found to be higher in frequency by 100 than the first overtone of the
original pipe. Then the fundamental frequency of the open pipe is
1) −1 2) −1 3) −1 4) −1
200 s 100 s 300 s 250 s
 CHEMISTRY
46. The velocity of an electron must possess to acquire a momentum equal to the photon of
wavelength 5200 A° , will be
1) −1 2) −1 3) 1400 −1 4) 1300 −1
1398 m s 1298 m s ms ms
47. In hydrogen atom, which energy level order is not correct:

1) 1 s <2 p 2) 2 p=2 s 3) 2 p >2 s 4) 2 p <3 s

48. Water filled in two glasses A and B have BOD values of 10 and 20, respectively. The
correct statement regarding them, is :
1) A is more polluted than B
2) A is suitable for drinking, whereas B is not
3) B is more polluted than A
4) Both A and B are suitable for drinking
49. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom :

1) The linear velocity of the electron is quantised

2) The angular velocity of the electron is quantised

3) The linear momentum of the electron is quantised

4) The angular momentum of the electron is quantised

50. The increasing order of the pKa values of the following compounds is :

1) D<A<C<B

2) B<C<D<A

3) C<B<A<D

4) B<C<A<D

51. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy level
in an atom?
1) n=4 ,l=0 , m=0 , s= + 1 2) n=3 ,l=1 ,m=1 , s= +1
2 2
3) n=3 ,l=2 ,m=−2 , s= +1 4) n=3 ,l=0 , m=0 , s= +1

52. Splitting of spherical lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric field is called:
2 2

1) Zeeman effect 2) Stark effect 3) Decay 4) Disintegration

53. The number of naturally occurring p- block elements that are diamagnetic is

1) 18 2) 6 3) 5 4) 7

54. The elements having the electronic configuration [ Kr ] 4 d 10 f 14 ,5 s2 p 6 d2 , 6 s 2 belongs to

1) s-block 2) p-block 3) d -block 4) f -block

55. Proton plays an important role in … bonding .

1) Electrovalent 2) Hydrogen 3) Covalent 4) Coordinate

56. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

1) CaF 2) CaCl 3) CaBr 4) CaI

57. The increasing order of first ionisation enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest
2 2 2 2

first) is
1) F< S < P< B 2) P< S< B< F 3) B< P< S< F 4) B< S< P< F

58. Which of the following has maximum bond energy?

1) C l 2) F 3) Br 4) I

59. The species showing pπ−dπ overlapping is:

2 2 2 2

1) NO−¿¿ 2) PO 3−¿¿ 3) CO 2−¿¿ 4) NO−¿¿

60. Which has zero dipole moment?

3 4 3 2

1) ClF 2) PC l 3) Si F 4) CFC l

61. Which has the largest distance between the carbon hydrogen atom?
3 4 3

1) Ethane 2) Ethene 3) Ethyne 4) Benzene

62. The pair of molecules forming strongest hydrogen bonds are

C H 3 −C−C H 3∧CHC l 3
1) Si H and Si F
||
2)
4 6
O
H−C−OH andC H 3 −C−OH
|| ||
3) 4) H O∧H
2 2

63. o -hydroxy benzaldehyde, although contains enolic group but does not give test of group
OO

with FeC l 3 because:

1) It is steam volatile

2) Of intermolecular H-bonding

3) Of intramolecular H-bonding

4) All of the above

64. The correct order of dipole moment is:

1) C H < N F < N H < H O

4 3 3 2

2) N F <C H < N H < H O

3 4 3 2

3) N H < N F <C H < H O

3 3 4 2

4) H O< N H < N F < C H

65. The angle between the overlapping of one s-orbital and one p-orbital is:
2 3 3 4

1) 180 2) 120 3) 10928′ 4) 12060′

66. A molecule which cannot exist theoretically is:

1) S F 2) O F 3) O F 4) O F

67. This graph expresses the various steps of the system containing 1 mole of gas. Which
4 2 4 2 2

type of process, system has when it moves from C to A ?

1) Isochoric 2) Isobaric 3) Isothermal 4) Cyclic

68. For a given crystal, the lattice parameter ‘a ’ is 318 pm. The d -spacing for a (III) plane is

1) 318 pm 2) 184 pm 3) 390 pm 4) 225 pm

69. The density of CCl 4 vapour at 0 ℃ and 76 cm Hg in g/litre is:

1) 11.2 2) 77 3) 6.88 4) None of these

70. 6.4 g of SO 2 at 0 ℃∧0.99 atm pressure occupies a volume of 2.241 L. Predict which of the
following is correct?
1) The gas is ideal

2) The gas is real with intermolecular attraction

3) The gas is real without intermolecular repulsion

4) The gas is real with intermolecular repulsion greater than intermolecular attraction

71. Which one of the following volume ( V )−¿temperature ( T ) plots represents the behaiour of
one mole of an ideal gas at one atmospheric pressure?
V (L) 36.8 L
373 K

22.4 L
1) 273 K 2)

T(K)

3) 4)

72. Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and
10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u . Molecular mass of B will be:
1) 25.00 u 2) 50.00 u 3) 12.25 u 4) 6.50 u

73. The gases in the liquid form are held together by a weak attraction among the
 molecules, called as:
1) Nuclear attraction

2) Bond attraction

3) Van der Waals’ attraction

4) Gravitational attraction

74. A gas is found to have formula [ CO ] x . Its VD is 70. The value of x must be:

1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 2.5

75. When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly, the final temperature is:

1) Higher than the initial temperature

2) Lower than the initial temperature

3) The same as the initial temperature

4) Dependent on the rate of compression

Enthalpy of C H 4 + O 2 → C H 3 OH is negative. If enthalpy of combustion of C H 4and

76. 1
2
C H 3 OH are x and y respectively. Then which relation is correct?
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x= y 4) x ≥ y

77. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol . The molar entropy change for the
melting of ice at 0 ℃ is:
1) 5.260 cal/(mol K ) 2) 0.526 cal /(mol K ) 3) 10.52 cal/(mol K ) 4) 21.04 cal/(mol K )

78. The heat of formation of water is exothermic in nature because :

1) H (g) and O (g) have higher temperature than water

2 2

2) H (g) and O (g) have lower temperature than water

2 2

3) H (g) and O (g) have higher internal energy than water

4) None of the above

2 2

79. Molar heat of vaporisation of a liquid is 6 kJmo l−1. If the entropy change is 16 J mol −1 K−1,
the boiling point of the liquid is
1) 273 K 2) 375 ℃ 3) 375 K 4) 102 ℃

80. Theenthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is ∆ H vap=37.3 kJ mol −1 at
373 K. The entropy change for the process is
1) −1 −1 2) −1 −1 3) −1 −1 4) −1 −1
132.5 J mol K 100 J mol K 135.3 J mol K 75.5 J mol K
81. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H 2 ,C l 2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mo l−1 respectively.
Enthalpy of formation of HCl is :
1) −1 2) −1 3) −1 4) −1
−245 kJ mol −93 kJ mol 245 kJ mol 93 kJ mol
82. The enthalpy of formation of H 2 O ( l ) is given by :

1) −¿ (aq )⟶ H 2 O ( l ); ∆H =−X 1 kJ ¿

H +¿ (aq) +O H ¿
 2) H ( g )+ 1 O ( g ) ⟶ H O ( l ) ; ∆ H =−X kJ
2 2 2 2
2
3) C O ( g ) + H ( g ) ⟶ CO ( g ) + H O ( l ) ; ∆ H =−X kJ
2 2 2 3

4) C H ( g ) + 5 O ( g ) ⟶ 2C O ( g ) + H O ( l ) ; ∆ H=−X kJ
2 2 2 2 2 4
2
83. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X −¿¿ and H X . The K a for H X is
10. The pH of the buffer is:
1) 7 2) 8 3) 11 4) 14

84. Liquids A and B from an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the
vapor pressures of pure A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 ×10 3 Pa, respectively. The
composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole percent of A
at this temperature is :
1) X A = 0.37; X B= 0.63 2) X A = 0.28; X B= 0.72 3) X A = 0.76; X B= 4) X A = 0.4; X B= 0.6
0.24
85. Solubility of Ca (OH )2 is a s mol L−1. The solubility product (K sp ) under the same condition
is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 3
4s 3s 4s s
86. 1.1 mole of A are mixed with 2.2 mole of B and the mixture is then kept in one litre flask
till the equilibrium is attained A+2 B ⇌ 2 C+ D . At the equilibrium 0.2 mole of C are
formed. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is :
1) 0.001 2) 0.002 3) 0.003 4) 0.004

87. K c for A+ B ⇌3 C is 20 at 25C. If a 2 litre vessel contains 1,2 and 4 mole of A , B and C
respectively, the reaction at 25C shall :
1) Proceed from left to right

2) Proceed from right to left

3) Be at equilibrium

4) Not occur

88. Electrophiles are:

1) Lewis acids 2) Lewis bases 3) Bronsted acids 4) Bronsted bases

89. If K 1 and K 2 are equilibrium constants for reactions (I) and (II) respectively for,
N 2 +O2 ⇌2 NO …(i)
1 1
N 2 + O2 ⇌ NO …(ii)
Then:
2 2

1) K =K 2) K = K 3) K =2 K 4) K = 1 K
2 1 2 √ 1 1 2 1 2

90. For the reaction,

2

PC l 3 ( g )+C l 2 ( g ) ⇌ PC l 5 (g) the position of equilibrium can be shifted to the right by

1) Doubling the volume

2) Increasing the temperature

3) Addition of equimolar quantities of PC l ∧PC l

3 5
4) Addition of C l at constant volume
2
 BIOLOGY

91. One of the most important functions of botanical garden is

1) One can observe tropical plants there They allow ex situ conservation of
germplasm
2)

3) They provide the natural habitat for 4) They provide a beautiful area for
wildlife recreation
92. Cladistics can be defines as
1) The relationship between sub-species and species
2) Relationship between two most forward races
3) Relationship between endangered and surviving species
4) Method of classification that attempt to interface phylogenetic relationship
93. Which of the following set of organisms reproduce by fragmentation (asexual mode of reproduction)?
1) Amoeba, fungi and earthworm 2) Fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses
3) Hydra, fungi, Amoeba and bacteria 4) Earthworm, bacteria and fungi
94. In hierarchial classification, class occupied a place between

95. Linnaean system of plant classification is based on

1) Kingdom and phylum 2) Order and family 3) Phylum and order 4) Family and genus

1) Morphological and anatomical characters 2) Evolutionary trends

3) Floral characters 4) None of the above
96. Arrange the following in the ascending order of Linnaean hierarchy.
1) Kingdom-Order-Species-Genus-Class-Family-Phylum
2) Kingdom-Family-Genus-Species-Class-Phylum-Order
3) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
4) Species-Genus-Family-Order-Class-Phylum-Kingdom
97. Which one of the following branch is applicable to both plants and animals?
1) Herpetology 2) Saurology 3) Taxonomy 4) Ichthyology
98. Growth in unicellular organisms can be observed by
1) Counting the mass of cultured cells
2) Analysing the amount of nutrient absorb by living organism
3) Growth can not be observed

99. The phylogenetic system of classification was put forth by

4) In vitro culture by simply counting the number of cells under microscope

1) Carolus Linnaeus 2) George Bentham and Joseph Dalton

Hooker
3) Aristotle 4) Adolf Engler and Karl Prantl
100. Leprosy occurs due to
1) TMV
101. Which of the following are the common parasite of class-Basidiomycetes?
2) Monocystis 3) Salmonella 4) Mycobacterium

1) Ustilago and Puccinia 2) Agaricus and Trichoderma

3) Alternaria and Colletotrichum 4) Colletotrichum and puccinia
102. In the diagram, which of the following process is/are shown in Amoeba?

1) Exocytosis 2) Phagocytosis 3) Pinocytosis 4) All of these

103. Eubacteria is also known as
 1) False bacteria 2) True bacteria
3) Archaebacteria 4) Heterotrophic bacteria
104. Reproduction in most of the bacteria is by a process known as
1) Binary fission 2) Budding 3) Sexual 4) Sporulation
105. Consider the following statement about plants
I. Kingdom-Plantae includes eukaryotic autotrophic, chlorophyll containing organisms
II. It includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms but not angiosperms
III. Plants shows alternation of generation [between haploid gametophytic (n ) phase and
diploid sporophytic (2 n) phase]
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
106. Lomasomes are found in
1) Algal cell 2) Fungal cell 3) Bacterial cell 4) Cyanobacterial cell
107. Silica gel is obtained by
1) Red algae 2) Diatoms 3) Euglena 4) Mycoplasma
108. Five kingdom classification was given by
1) Huxley 2) Hooker 3) Whittaker 4) Linnaeus
109. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes and the mature seed, which bears only one
embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of
1) Polypetalous angiosperms 2) Gamopetalous angiosperms
3) Conifers 4) Cycads
110. Which of the following is true about bryophytes?
1) They are thalloid 2) They contain chloroplast
3) They possess archegonia 4) All of the above
111. Consider the following statements
I. Hydropterides are only plant among the heterosporous pteridophytes that are
leptosporangiate
II. Heterosporous pteridophytes were the first land flora of earth
III. The difference in size between microspore and megaspore in Seleginella kraussiana is
1:200
IV. Female gametophyte of Seleginella mostly have single archenogium
Which of the above statement are correct?
1) I and II 2) IV 3) I, II and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
112. Fusion of two gametes, which are dissimilar in size is termed as
1) Oogamy 2) Isogamy 3) Anisogamy 4) Zoogamy
113. Pollen sac in Cycas is called
1) Megasporophyll 2) Megasporangium 3) Microsporophyll 4) Microsporangium
114. Fruits are not found in gymnosperms because
1) They are not seedless 2) They are not pollinated
3) They have no ovary 4) Fertilization does not takes place
115. The sclerenchyma of the hypodermis in the Pinus needle helps in
1) Increasing the absorptive surface of the 2) Checking transpiration
cell
3) Mechanical support 4) Photosynthesis
116. In green algae vegetative reproduction takes place by
1) Fragmentation 2) Different types of spores
3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Conidia
117. Fern gametophyte bears
1) Archegonia 2) Antheridia 3) Sporangia 4) Both (a) and (b)
118. Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. These smaller DNA
 are called
1) Plasmids 2) Mesosome 3) Nucleoid 4) None of these
119. Phosphorus is present in
1) Protein 2) DNA 3) RNA 4) Both (b) and (c)
120. Glycocalyx is associated with
1) Nucleolus 2) Plasma membrane 3) Nucleus 4) Nucleosome
121. Which of the following subunits of ribosome is composed of 23 S r RNA and a 5 S m RNA
+ 32 different proteins?
1) 50S 2) 70S 3) 30S 4) 60S
122. In which cell organelles, a lipoprotein covering is absent?
1) Ribosomes 2) Lysosomes 3) Mitochondria 4) Peroxisomes
123. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species
1) A+G/C+T 2) T+C/G+A 3) G+C/A+T 4) A+C/T+G
124. An organelle with an internal cross section showing characteristic 9 +2 morphology is
the
1) Microtubule 2) Microfilament 3) Cilium or flagellum 4) Cytoskeleton
125. Assembly of two subunits 40 S and 60 S of the ribosome is
1) 100 S 2) 80 S 3) 70 S 4) 50 S
126. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
1) Cholesterol 2) Glycolipids 3) Proline 4) Phospholipids
127. A competitive inhibitor, competes with the substrate, for the substrate binding site of
enzymes due to its
1) Structural similarity with substrate
2) Molecular weight similarity with substrate
3) Both (a) and (b)
4) Larger size than that of substrate
128. Amino acids are organic compounds and are called α -amino acids. Why?
1) Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and acidic group as
substituents n two different carbons
2) Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and an acidic group as
substituents on the same carbon
3) Amino acids are inorganic compounds containing an amino group and acidic group as
substituents on two different carbons
4) Amino acids are inorganic compounds containing an amino group and acidic group as
substituents on the same carbon
129. Acidic amino acids carry two −COOH and one −N H 2 groups per molecule. Keeping this
in mind, select the correct pair of acidic amino acid
1) Lysine and arginine 2) Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
3) Glycine and alanine 4) Both (a) and (b)
130. Types of amino acids found in proteins are
1) 21 2) 19 3) 20 4) 23
131. Malonate inhibits succinate dehydrogenase, is an example of
1) Allosteric inhibition 2) Negative feedback
3) Competitive inhibition 4) Non-competitive inhibition
132. Many physiological functions are performed by proteins. One such function involves that
some proteins discharge
1) Antibiotics
2) Hormones
3) Pigment making colours of flowers
4) Pigment conferring colour to skin
133. The double helical model of the DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick based on what
data produced by Wilkins and Franklin?
1) Hybridization 2) DNA sequencing
3) Southern blotting 4) X-ray diffraction
134. Primary structure of proteins is due to the presence of
1) Peptide bond 2) Covalent bond 3) Disulphide bond 4) Ionic bonds
135. Enzymes are functional at
1) 10-15℃ 2) 15-25℃ 3) 25-30℃ 4) 30-50℃
136. Identify A-C in the given statements, and choose the correct option
I. Spindle microtubules that extend from the two poles of a dividing cell are called …A…
II. A centromere connects two identical copies of a single chromosomes. These two
copies are called …B…
III. In ‘X’ phase, the paired chromosomes separate and begin moving to opposite ends of
the cell. This ‘X’ is called …C…
1) A-kinetochore fibres; B-chromatids; C-metaphase
2) A-polar fibres; B-homologous chromosomes; C-Prophase
3) A-polar fibres; B-sister chromatids; C-anaphase
4) A-kinetochore fibres; B-asters; C-anaphase
137. Select the event of cell cycle which shows the importance of synapsis and the formation
of chiasmata
1) An increase in the variation of progeny 2) The DNA on homologous chromosomes
occurs mix
3) Reciprocal exchange of chromosomal 4) All of the above
sections occurs
138. Alleles of different genes that are on the same chromosome may occasionally separated
by a phenomenon known as
1) Pleiotropy 2) Epistasis
3) Continuous variation 4) Crossing over
139. Read the following statements and select the correct option
I. M-phase represents the phase when the actual cell division or mitosis occurs
II. Interphase represents the phase between two successive M-phases
III. In the 24 hrs average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts
for only about an hour
IV. The M-phase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle
1) I, II and III 2) II and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) I and IV
140. Which of the following CdKs and cyclins comes under G 1 check point?
1) Cd K 4/ Cyclin D 2) Cd K 6 / Cyclin D 3) Both (a) and (b) 4) Cd K 2/ Cyclin B
141. The M-phase starts with the …A…, corresponding to the separation of daughter
chromosomes, known as …B… and usually ends with division of cytoplasm which is
known as …C…
Identify A-C to complete the given NCERT statement
1) A-cell division; B-cytokinesis; C-karyokinesis
2) A-nuclear division; B-karyokinesis; C-cytokinesis
3) A-cell division; B-karyokinesis; C-cytokinesis
4) A-nuclear division; B-cytokinesis; C-karyokinesis
142. Which is synthesized in G 1-phase?
1) DNA polymerase 2) Histones 3) Nucleolar DNA 4) Tubulin protein
143. Maximum percentage of lipoprotein is in
1) Chylomicron 2) HDL 3) Arthritis 4) None of these
144. Which one is not associated with the secretion of saliva in human being?
1) Paratoids glands 2) Sublinguals glands
3) Zymogenic cells 4) Sub-maxillary glands
145. Which of the following symptoms is related to the deficiency of antioxidant vitamins?
1) Retrolental fibroplasia 2) Truncal and limb atoxia
3) Scurvy 4) All of these
146. Production of glucose from amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol is called
1) Glycogenesis 2) Gluconeogenesis 3) Glycogenolysis 4) Glycolysis
147. Read the following statements regarding the digestive system and select the correct
statement
1) Oesophagus passes through neck, thorax and diaphragm and open into stomach
2) Stomach is located in the upper right portion of the abdominal cavity
3) Stomach, a J-shaped organ is the longest organ of alimentary canal
4) Caecum, a small blind sac is a part of small intestine and host symbiotic bacteria
148. In the process of digestion and absorption, the peristalsis movement in alimentary canal
from oesophagus to rectum is produced by
1) Unstriped muscle of muscular coat 2) Visceral peritoneum
3) Meissner’s plexus of submucosa 4) Epithelium layer of mucosa
149. Find out the correctly matched pair.
1) Pepsinogen - Zymogenic cells 2) HCl - Goblet cells
3) Mucus - Oxyntic cells 4) Pancreatic juice - Salivary glands
150. Wisdom teeth are
1) Last molars 2) Last premolars 3) Incisors 4) Canines
151. The epithelial cells lining the stomach of vertebrates is protected from damage by HCl
because
1) Hydrochloric acid is too dilute 2) The epithelial cells are resistant to the
action of HCl
3) HCl is neutralized by alkaline gastric juice4) The epithelial cells are covered with a
mucous secretion
152. The expiratory reserve volume will be
1) 1000 mL 2) 2000 mL 3) 4000 mL 4) 5000 mL
153. Which of the following statements are true/false?
I. The blood transports carbon dioxide comparatively easily because of its highest
solubility.
II. Approximately 8.9% of carbon dioxide is transported being dissolved in the plasma of
blood.
III. The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream
and passes into red blood corpuscles and react with water to form H 2 C O3.
IV. The oxyhaemoglobin( Hb O 2 ) of the erythrocytes is basic.
V. The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
1) I, III and V are true , II and IV are false 2) I, III and V are false, II and IV are true
3) I, II and IV are true, III and V are false 4) I, II and IV are false, III and V are true
154. Which two of the following changes (I-IV) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers
when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
VI. Increase in red blood cell size.
VII. Increase in red blood cell production.
VIII. Increased breathing rate.
IX. Increase in thrombocyte count.
Changes occurring are
 1) I and III 2) III and IV 3) I and IV 4) I and II
155. When the nutrients are oxidised without using molecular O 2 called …A… in yearst
glucose formed …B… and C O2 . Endoparasite also respire …C… . It gives low energy.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C
1) A-fermentation, R-ethyl alcohol, C-anaerobically
2) A-fermentation, B-methyl alcohol, C-anaerobically
3) A-fermentation, B-alcohol, C-aerobically
4) A-fermentation, B-ethyl alcohol, C-aerobically
156. What happens in Hamburger shift?
1) HC O3 ions move out from plasma and C l ions enters into RBC
−¿¿ −¿ ¿

ions move out from plasma and C l ions enters into RBC
−¿¿ −¿ ¿
2) C O3
ions move out from plasma and C l ions enters into RBC
+¿¿ −¿ ¿
3) H
4) HCO3 ions move out from plasma and H ions enters into RBC
+¿¿

157. When the body is rapidly oxidizing fat, excessive ketone bodies gets accumulated in the
body, resulting in the formation of
1) Pyruvic acid 2) Lactic acid 3) Ketoacidosis 4) ATP
158. During normal respiration without any effort the volume of air inspired or expired is
called
1) Tidal volume 2) Reserve volume 3) Residual volume 4) None of these
159. Floating ribs of thoracic cage are
1) 1st to 7th pair 2) 8th to 9th pair 3) 8th to 10th pair 4) 11th to 12th pair
160. Which of the following equation is correct?

1) 2)

3) 4)

161. The opening of auricles and ventricles on the right side is guarded by
1) Tricuspid valve 2) Bicuspid valve 3) Semilunar valve 4) Eustachian tube
162. The valves in the heart allows the blood flow in which direction?
I. From atria to ventricles
II. From ventricles to pulmonary artery
III. From pulmonary artery to aorta
Choose the correct option
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and I 4) All of these
163. Lymphatic system is an elaborated network of vessels which collect the
1) Interstitial fluid 2) Intrastitial fluid 3) Plasma fluid 4) Protein fluid
164. Organisms which circulate water from their surrounding through their body cavities to
facilitate the cells to exchange the substances are
1) Porifera 2) Sponges 3) Both (a) and (b) 4) None of the above
165. Serum is
1) Blood without corpuscles 2) Blood without fibrinogen
3) Blood without fibrinogen and corpuscles 4) Otherwise called as plasma
166. All reptiles have a three-chambered heart except
1) Snake 2) Crocodile 3) Lizard 4) Both (b) and (c)
167. The blood pumped by the …A… ventricle enters the …B… artery, whereas the …C…
 ventricle pumps blood into the …D…
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D
1) A-right, B-pulmonary, C-left, D-aorta 2) A-left, B-pulmonary, C-right, D-aorta
3) A-left, B-pulmonary, C-right, D-vena cava 4) A-right, B-pulmonary, C-left, D-vena cava
168. Choose the mismatched part of nephron with their function
1) Bowman’s capsule – Glomerular filtration 2) PCT – Aeabsorption of N a+¿ ¿ and K +¿ ¿
3) DCT – Aeabsorption of glucose 4) Loop of Henle – Urine concentration
169. A child has single kidney since birth. This variation is
1) Hybridization 2) Negative meristic 3) Blastogenic 4) Substantive
170. Marine teleost fishes excrete
1) Uric acid 2) Ammonia 3) Urea 4) None of these
171. The structural unit of human kidney is
1) Nephron 2) Ureter 3) Loop of Henle 4) Bowman’s capsule
172. Out of the four parts given below, which parts play significant role in forming
concentrated urine in human?
I. Loop of Henle
II. Glomerulus
III. Bowman’s capsule
IV. Vasa recta
The correct option is
1) I and II 2) III and IV 3) II and III 4) I and IV
173. Which one is the component of ornithine cycle?
1) Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid 2) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine
3) Ornithine, citrulline and alanine 4) Amino acids are not used
174. Urea cycle was discovered in
1) 1940 2) 1945 3) 1950 4) 1932
175. Which one of the following is not a part of ear osicles?
1) Malleus 2) Incus 3) Stapes 4) Elium
176. Breast bone is also called
1) Sternum 2) True rib 3) False rib 4) Axis vertebrae
177. Action potential in the sarcolemma of muscles is generated by
1) Neuroinhibitors 2) Acetylcholine 3) Methylcholine 4) Ethylcholine
178. In which of the following, growth is possible through increase in volume?
1) Cartilage 2) Striated muscle 3) Never fiber 4) Lens of eye
179. The parashenoid bone in frog forms
1) Base of cranium 2) Floor of cranium
3) Dorsal side of cranium 4) Dorsolateral side of cranium
180. Pick the true statements with reference to human beings
I. Vertebral column consists of 26 vertebrae
II. Vertebeal is dorsally placed
III. Neural canal invertebra is the passage for spinal cord
IV. Netural canal is ventrally placed
The option with all correct statements is
1) II, III and IV 2) I, III and IV 3) I, II and IV 4) I, II and III