18-09-2024

7601CMD30313224007 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In the circuit shown in figure, current is zero through

(1) R4 only
(2) R3 and R4
(3) R2 and R4
(4) R2, R3 and R4

2) A galvanometer can be used as a voltmeter by connecting a:

(1) High resistance in series

(2) Low resistance in series
(3) High resistance in parallel
(4) Low resistance in parallel

3) The equivalent resistance between A and B is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be :–

(1) 300%
(2) 200%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%

5) A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of :

(1) Each of the them increases

(2) Each of them decreases
(3) Copper increases and germanium decreases
(4) Copper decreases and germanium increases

6) The galvanometer shown in the figure reads 3A, while the ideal voltmeter reads 24volt.The value

of R = 7 Ω. The galvanometer resistance is:

(1) 10Ω
(2) 5Ω
(3) 1Ω
(4) 20Ω

7) In the circuit shown, the galvanometer shows zero current. The value of resistance R is :

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 4 Ω
(4) 9 Ω

8) An ammeter and a voltmeter are joined in series to a cell. Their readings are A and V respectively.
If a resistance is now joined in parallel with the voltmeter

(1) both A and V will decrease

(2) both A and V will increase
(3) A will increase, V will decrease
(4) A will decrease, V will increase

9) The capacitance between the points P and Q in the following circuit is

(1) 3.5 µF
(2) 3 µF
(3) 2 µF
(4)

10) For the circuit shown in the figure, determine the charge on capacitor in steady state?

(1) 4 μC
(2) 6 μC
(3) 1 μC
(4) Zero

11) Five identical capacitor plates are arranged such that they make four capacitors each of 2μF.
The plates are connected to a source of emf 10 V. The charge on plate C is :

(1) +20 μC
(2) +40 μC
(3) +60 μC
(4) +80 μC

12) The capacity of an isolated conducting sphere of radius R is proportional to :

(1) R2

(2)

(3)

(4) R

13) A parallel plate condenser is charged by connecting it to a battery. Without disconnecting the
battery, the space between the plates is completely filled with a medium of dielectric constant k.
Then

(1) potential becomes 1/k times

(2) charge becomes k times
(3) energy becomes 1/k times
(4) electric intensity becomes k times.

14) Two condensers of unequal capacities are connected in series across a constant voltage d.c.
source. The ratio of the potential differences across the condensers will be

(1) direct proportion to their capacities

(2) inverse proportion to their capacities
(3) direct proportion to the square of their capacities
(4) inverse proportion to the square root of their capacities

15) A metal plate of thickness half the separation between the capacitor plates of capacitance C is
inserted. The new capacitance is

(1) C
(2) C/2
(3) Zero
(4) 2C

16) A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then
slipped between the plates, which results in :-

(1) Reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the plates.
Increase in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(2)
in the charge on the plates.
Decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(3)
in the charge on the plates
(4) None of the above

17) Equivalent capacitance across XY will be -

(1) 3C/2
(2) 2C/3
(3) 2C
(4) 3C

18) Three capacitors are connected in the arms of a triangle ABC as shown in figure. A 5V cell is
applied between A and B. The voltage between B and C is

(1) 2 V
(2) 1 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 1.5 V

19) A spherical drop of capacitor 1 μF is broken into eight drops of equal radius. The capacitance of
each small drop is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The equivalent capacity of the combination shown in figure is :

(1)

(2) 2C

(3)

(4) 3C

21) Statement 1 :- A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key. A dielectric
slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy which is stored becomes K
times.
Statement 2 :- The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.

(1) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

(2) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
(3) Both the statement are true.
(4) Both the statements are false.
22) Two capacitors (uncharged) of 2µF and 3µF are connected in series. A battery of 10 V is
connected across the second capacitor. The charge on the first capacitor is :-

(1) 30µC
(2) 20µC
(3) 10µC
(4) zero

23) Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. A is
given a charge +Q while B is earthed. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is :

(1)

(2) 4πε0(a + b)
(3) 4πε0b

(4)

24) The earth has Volume 'V' and Surface area 'A' then capacitance would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged
capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :

(1) Decreases by a factor of 2

(2) Remains the same
(3) Increases by a factor of 2
(4) Increases by a factor of 4
26) Equivalent capacitance between X and Y = ?

(1) 2µF
(2) 4µF
(3) 6µF
(4) 8µF

27) In the circuit shown charge on 2μF capacitor is

(1) 160 μC
(2) 80 μC
(3) 40 μC
(4) 20 μC

28)

For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4µF capacitor is :

(1) 30 µC
(2) 40 µC
(3) 24 µC
(4) 54 µC

29) A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric
constant K and having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as
to fill one-fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be :-
 (K + 3)
(1)

(K + 2)
(2)

(K + 1)
(3)

(4)

30) Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal distances d from one another. The area of
each plate is equal to S. Find the capacitance of the system between points A and B if plates are

interconnected as shown :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Three copper wires have their lengths in the ratio 5 : 3 : 1 and their masses are in the ratio 1 : 3
: 5. Their electrical resistance will be in the ratio

(1) 5 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 125 : 15 : 1
(4) 1 : 15 : 125

32) The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length, its
new resistance will be :-

(1)

(2) n2R

(3)

(4) nR
33) Reading of ammeter A1, A2 and A3 will be respectively :-

(1) 1A, 0A, 1A

(2) 2A, 1A, 1A
(3) 1A, 0.5A, 0.5A
(4) None of these

34) Current i in circuit is :

(1) 1.5 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 2 A

35) In the given circuit, it is observed that the current I is independent of the value of the resistance

R6. Then, the resistance values must satisfy :

(1) R1R2R5 = R3R4R6

(2)

(3) R1R4 = R2R3

(4) R1R3 = R2R4 = R5R6

SECTION-B

1) Mark the correct option regarding drift speed:

(1) Drift speed is of the order of 10–4 m/s

(2) Drift speed increases with decrease in temperature.
(3) Drift speed is depending on applied electric field
(4) All of the above
2) A conductor becomes superconductor :-

(1) Below room temperature

(2) Above freezing temperature
(3) Above critical temperature
(4) Below critical temperature

3) Two identical heaters rated 220 V, 1000W are placed in series with each other across 220V line;
then the combined power is :-

(1) 1000 W
(2) 2000 W
(3) 500 W
(4) 4000 W

4) Find current in the branch CD of the circuit (in ampere).

(1) 15 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 5 A
(4) 20 A

5) A part of a circuit is shown in the figure. Here reading of ammeter is 5A and reading of voltmeter

is 96V and voltmeter resistance is 480Ω. Then value of R :

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 100 Ω
(4) 200 Ω

6)

If in the circuit shown below, the internal resistance of the battery is 1.5 Ω and VP and VQ are the
potentials at P and Q respectively, what is the potential difference between the points P and Q
(1) Zero
(2) 4 volts (VP > VQ)
(3) 4 volts (VQ > VP)
(4) 2.5 volts (VQ > VP)

7)

The area of cross-section of cylindrical wire increases uniformly from left to right as shown in figure.
When steady current flows in the wire, then in the direction of current

(1) Drift speed increases

(2) Drift speed decreases
(3) Electric field intensity increases
(4) Current density increases

8) Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3V battery. If the power
dissipated by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3 respectively.

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P1 > P3 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P3 > P2 > P1

9) In a network as shown in the figure the potential difference across the resistance 2R is (the cell
has an emf E with no internal resistance) :
(1) 2E

(2)

(3)

(4) E

10)

Q1 charge is given to one plate of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and Q2 charge is given
to other plate. The potential difference developed between two plates is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A metallic plate of thickness (t) and face area of one side 'A' is inserted between the plates of a
parallel plate air capacitor with a separation 'd' and face are 'A'. Then the equivalent capacitance is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R both have same surface charge
density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. The surface charge density of bigger sphere
becomes

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

A slab of material of dielectric constant K has same area as that of the plates of parallel plate
capacitor but has thickness , where d is separation of plates. The ratio of capacitance C. (in
presence of dielectric) to the capacitance C (in absence of dielectric) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) What is the area of the plates of a 3F parallel plate capacitor, if the separation between the
plates is 5 mm?

(1) 1.694 × 109 m2

(2) 4.529 × 109 m2
(3) 9.281 × 109 m2
(4) 12.981 × 109 m2

15) A dielectric is placed in between the two parallel plates of a capacitor as shown in figure, the
dielectric constant of the dielectric being K. If the initial capacity is C, then the new capacity will be

(1) KC
(2) (K + 1)C
(3) C(K + 1)/2
(4) (K – 1)C

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Saturated solution of KNO3 with agar-agar is used to make ‘salt bridge’ because :-

(1) size of K+ is greater than that of

(2) velocity of is greater than that of K+
(3) velocities of K+ and are nearly the same
(4) both velocity and sizes of K+ and ions are same

2) At equilibrium :
(1)
(2)
(3) both are correct
(4) none is correct

3) Consider the cell potential = –2.37 V and = –0.04 V. The best reducing agent
would be :

(1) Mg2+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Mg
(4) Fe

4) The standard potential for the reaction,

Cl2(g) + 2Br–(aq) → Br2(l) + 2Cl–(aq) is 0.283 volts. What is the equilibrium constant for this reaction
at 25℃?

(1) 1.6 × 10–5

(2) 22
(3) 6.1 × 104
(4) 3.9 × 109

5) Zn|Zn2+ (C1) ||Zn2+(C2) |Zn. For this cell ∆G is negative if:

(1) C1 = C2
(2) C1 > C2
(3) C2 > C1
(4) none of these

6) A current of 5.0 A flows for 4.0 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of metal M.
This results in deposition of 0.25 mol of the metal at the cathode. The oxidation state of M in the
molten salt is : (1Farday = 96485 C mol–1)

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) +4

7) The equivalent conductance of solution of a weak monobasic acid is 10 mho cm2 eq–1 and at ∞
dilution is 200 mho cm2 eq–1 the dissociation constant of acid is :-

(1) 1.23 × 10–7

(2) 1.25 × 10–4
(3) 1.25 × 10–6
(4) 6.25 × 10–3

8) The efficiency of a cell is given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A certain current liberates 0.5 g of hydrogen in 2 hr. How many gm of copper can be deposited by
the same current flowing for the same time in a CuSO4 solution ?

(1) 12.7 g
(2) 15.9 g
(3) 31.8 g
(4) 63.5 g

10) The ionic conductivity of Ba+2 and Cl– at infinite dilution are 127 and 76 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
respectively. The molar conductivity of BaCl2 at infinite dilution is :-

(1) 203 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

(2) 406 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(3) 279 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(4) 127 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

11) Equivalent conductance can be expressed in terms of specific conductance (k) and concentration
(N) in gram equivalent per dm–3 as–

(1) k × N

(2)

(3)

(4) k × N × 1000

12) What is the sign of ΔG° and the value of K for an electrochemical cell for which = 0.80 V?

ΔG° K

(1) – >1

(2) + >1

(3) + <1

(4) – <1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) During electrolysis of concentrated solution of aqueous sodium chloride, the correct statement
about the gas liberated at anode:

(1) O2, due to high concentration of NaCl

(2) Cl2, due to over potential of Cl2
(3) O2, due to overpotential of O2
(4) Cl2, due to overpotential of O2

14) Which of the following is not a function of salt bridge in an electrochemical cell ?

(1) To maintain electrical neutrality of the solution

(2) To complete the circuit so that current can flow
(3) To supply ions to cathodic and anodic compartment
(4) To increase cell voltage

15) Assertion : E°cell is negative for electrolytic cell.

Reason : ΔG° is +ve for electrolytic cell.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explantion of the
(1)
assertion
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If the assertion is false but reason is true

16) The specific conductivity of N/10 KCl solution at 20°C is 0.012 Ω–1 cm–1 and the resistance of the
cell containing this solution at 20°C is 56 Ω. The cell constant is :

(1) 4.616 cm–1

(2) 0.672 cm–1
(3) 2.173 cm–1
(4) 3.324 cm–1

17) Three Faradays of electricity are passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and
molten NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells. Then the mole ratio of Al, Cu and Na
deposited on the cathode will be :-

(1) 3 : 4 : 6
(2) 2 : 1 : 6
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3 : 6
18) On passing 3 ampere of electricity for 50 minutes, 1.8 gram metal deposits. The equivalent mass
of metal is

(1) 20.5
(2) 25.8
(3) 19.3
(4) 30.7

19) Equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of aqueous solution of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl are x1,
x2 and x3 respectively. Equivalent conductance of BaSO4 solution at infinite dilution is :

(1) x1 + x2 – x3
(2) x1 – x2 – x3
(3) x1 + x2 – 2x3
(4) x1 – 2x2 + x3

20) If for the reaction, is 1.56V, then e.m.f. for the cell

reaction: is

(1) 0.78 V
(2) 3.12 V
(3) 1.56 V
(4)

21) A conducting cell is filled with 0.1 M NaCl solution. Its resistance is found to be 100 Ω whereas
its conductivity is 10–4 S cm–1. When the same cell is filled with 0.01 M KCl solution, its resistance is
found to be 50 Ω. Calculate molar conductance of 0.01 M KCl solution.

(1) 2 Scm2/mole
(2) 20 Scm2/mole
(3) 200 Scm2/mole
(4) 100 Scm2/mole

22) Rechargeable batteries include which of those below?

(P) Dry cell
(Q) Lead-acid storage battery
(R) Nickel-cadmium battery

(1) Q only
(2) P and Q only
(3) Q and R only
(4) P, Q and R

23) The standard reduction potential for Fe2+/Fe and Sn2+/Sn electrodes are –0.44 and –0.14 volt
respectively. For the given cell reaction Fe2+ + Sn → Fe + Sn2+, the standard EMF is
(1) + 0.30 V
(2) – 0.58 V
(3) + 0.58 V
(4) – 0.30 V

24) If the specific resistance of a solution of concentration C g equivalent litre–1 is R, then its
equivalent conductance is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

0
25) Cu+ + e¯ → Cu, E = x1 volt ;
0
Cu2+ + 2e¯ → Cu, E = x2 volt, then for
0
Cu2+ + e¯ → Cu+, E (volt) will be :

(1) x1 – 2x2
(2) x1 + 2x2
(3) x1 – x2
(4) 2x2 – x1

26) If eq–1 & eq–1. Calculate of ?

(1) 350 Sm2 eq–1

(2) 2100 Sm2 eq–1
(3) 850 Sm2 eq–1
(4) 600 Sm2 eq–1

0
27) E of Mg2+ | Mg, Zn+2 | Zn, and Fe2+ |Fe are –2.37 V, –0.76 V and – 0.44 V respectively. Which of
the following is correct ?

(1) Mg oxidizes Fe
(2) Zn oxidizes Fe
(3) Zn reduces Mg2+
(4) Zn reduces Fe2+
28) A and B respectively are :-

(1) HCN, NaCl

(2) KCl, NaCl
(3) KCl, CH3COOH
(4) CH3COOH, HCN

29) The number of Faradays required to deposit 1 g equivalent of aluminium (At.wt. 27) from a
solution of AICI3.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) When 0.1 mole Cr2O7–2 is reduced then quantity of electricity required to reduced Cr+3 completely
is :-

(1) 9650 C
(2) 96500 C
(3) 57900 C
(4) 54900 C

31) The conductance is the :-

(1) Reciprocal of specific resistance

(2) Reciprocal of resistance
(3) Reciprocal of current
(4) Reciprocal of concentration

32) Limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH

(i.e. ) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)
During electrolysis of aqueous solution of AgNO3 using silver electrodes. Find gain in weight of
cathode when current of 3.86 amperes flows for 250 sec.

(1) 1.08 g
(2) 0.54 g
(3) 2.16 g
(4) 3.2 g

34) Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuSO4 using inert electrode will cause :-

(1) An increase in pH
(2) A decrease in pH
(3) Either decrease or increase in pH
(4) no change in pH

35) The conductivity of 0.1 M electrolyte solution is 1.29 Sm–1. Find molar conductivity of this
solution :-

(1) 12900
(2) 1.29
(3) 1.29 × 10–2
(4) 1290

SECTION-B

1) Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z

are and respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2)

Molar conductance of 0.5 M solution of AB type weak electrolyte is 200 times less than its limiting
equivalent conductance. Degree of dissociation of AB in 0.5M solution is.

(1) 0.5
(2) 5×10-3
(3) 20
(4) 50

3) The standard reduction potentials at 25°C for the following half reactions are : Zn2+(aq) + 2e–
Zn(s), E°RP = –0.762V
Cr3+(aq) + 3e– Cr(s), E°RP = –0.740V
2H+(aq) + 2e– H2(g), E°RP = 0.00 V
Fe3+(aq) + e– Fe2+(aq), E°RP = 0.77V
Which is the strongest reducing agent ?

(1) Zn
(2) Cr
(3) H2(g)
(4) Fe2+ (aq)

4) In the process of electroplating, 'm' g of silver is deposited when 4 ampere of current flows 2
minutes. The amount (in g) of silver deposited by 6 ampere of current flowing for 40 seconds will be

(1) 4m

(2)

(3)

(4) 3m

5) The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.75 × 10–5 and 370.6 × 10–4 mho m2 mol–1.
The specific conductance of 0.01 molar acidic acid solution will be:

(1) 1.55 × 10–4 Scm2 mol–1

(2) 1.55 × 10–5 Scm2 mol–1
(3) 1.55 × 10–6 Scm2 mol–1
(4) 1.55 × 10–8 Scm2 mol–1

6) The passage of current liberates H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode the solution contains :

(1) CuSO4 (aq)

(2) CuCl2 (aq.)
(3) NaCl(aq.)
(4) Water

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The electrolysis of molten sodium hydride liberates H2 gas at the anode.
Statement-II : In electrolytic refining of an impure metal, the pure metal is obtained at anode.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.

8) The standard oxidation potential of zinc and silver in water at 298 K are
Zn(s) → Zn2+ + 2e¯ ; E = 0.76V
Ag(s) → Ag2+ + 2e¯ ; E = –0.80V
Which of the following reactions actually take place ?

(1) Zn(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Zn+2 (aq) + 2Ag(s)

(2) Zn+2 (aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Ag+ (aq) + Zn(s)
(3) Zn(s) + Ag(s) → Zn+2 (aq) + Ag+ (aq)
(4) Zn+2 (aq) + Ag+ (aq) → Zn(s) + Ag(s)

9) From the electrochemical series, it can be concluded that

2+
(1) Zn will liberate H2 from 1M HCl
(2) Ag metal reacts spontaneously with Zn2+
(3) Zn metal will liberate H2 from 1M HCl
(4) Ag metal will liberate H2 from 1 M HCl

10) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Ecell and ΔG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.

(2) Ecell and ΔG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(3) Ecell is an intensive property while ΔG of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(4) Ecell is an extensive property while ΔG of cell reaction is an intensive property.

11) Match the following with the products produced upon electrolysis at cathode and anode
respectively.

(A) aq.NaCl (P) Na and Cl2

(B) aq.K2SO4 (Q) H2 and Cl2

(C) aq.CuSO4 (R) H2 and O2

(D) aq. NaCl with

(S) Cu and O2
Hg electrode

(T) Cu and SO2

(1) A – Q; B – R; C – T; D – P
(2) A – Q; B – R; C – S; D – P
(3) A – P; B – R; C – T; D – Q
(4) A – P; B – R; C – S; D – Q

12) The standard reduction potentials at 25°C of Li+/Li, Ba2+/Ba, Na+/Na and Mg2+/Mg are –3.03,
–2.73, –2.71 and –2.37 respectively. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent ?

(1) Na+
(2) Li+
(3) Ba2+
(4) Mg2+

13) The standard electrode potential (reduction) of Pt|Fe2+, Fe3+ and Pt|Sn4+, Sn2+ are + 0.77 V and +
0.15 V respectively at 25°C. The standard EMF of the reaction Sn4+ + 2Fe2+ → Sn2+ + 2Fe3+ is :

(1) –0.62 V
(2) – 0.92 V
(3) +0.31V
(4) +0.85 V

14) Given: = - 0.42V

The potential for the cell
cr |cr3+ (0.1 M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe, is:

(1) 0.339V
(2) –0.339V
(3) –0.26V
(4) 0.26V

15) 50 ml of 0.1 M Ni(NO3)2 solution is electrolysed using Ni electrode and passing 2 × 10–3 Faraday
charge. The millimole of Ni(NO3)2 left in solution are :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 5

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Exarch and Polyarch vascular bundles are the characteristic of :-

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot root

2) Shape of guard cells in dicot is :-

(1) Oval
(2) Dumb-bell shape
(3) Bean or kidney shaped
(4) Polygonal
3) The specialised parenchymatous cells, which are closely associated with sieve tube element.

(1) Vessel
(2) Tracheids
(3) Strasburger cells
(4) Companion cells

4) Given below is the diagrammatic view of a monocot leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D

and select the right option about them.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) a - parenchyma and thin

cellulosic cell wall
(2) b - sclerenchyma and thick walled lignified cell
(3) c - collenchyma - thickned cell wall at corner.
(4) d - xylem elements - form cortex.
From given correct statement is/are

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6)

Which of the following is true about conjunctive tissue ?

(1) Parenchymatous and lie outside phloem.

(2) Parenchymatous and lie outside endodermis.
(3) Collenchymatous and lie between xylem and phloem
(4) Parenchymatous and lie between xylem & phloem of roots

7)

In a monocot stem, if we move from periphery to centre the size of vascular bundles usually :

(1) Remain same

(2) Decrease
(3) Increases
(4) First increase then decrease

8) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is present in :

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot root
(4) Monocot stem

9) In the given diagram 'x' represents, primary wall thickening at corners. Which one of the

following material is absent in 'x' ?

(1) Pectin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Lignin

10) The cells of vascular cambium cut off towards pith, mature into __A__ and cells out off towards
periphery mature into __B__
 A-secondary xylem
(1)
B-secondary phloem
A - Secondary phloem
(2)
B - Secondary xylem
A- Secondary medullary rays
(3)
B - Secondary phloem
A- Secondary medullary rays
(4)
B- Secondary xylem

11) In the vascular bundle of dorsiventral leaf, proto xylem lying towards_A_ and phloem lying
towards _B_.

A B
Adaxial Palisade
(1)
epidermis tissue
Adaxial Abaxial
(2)
epidermis epidermis
Abaxial Palisade
(3)
epidermis tissue
Spongy Abaxial
(4)
parenchyma epidermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Removed parts of grasses by the grazing herbivores are regenerated fast by :

(1) Both apical and intercalary meristems

(2) Lateral meristems only
(3) Secondary meristems
(4) Intercalary meristems

13) Dead, long cylindrical tube like most advance conducting element of xylem, present in mustard
plant is :

(1) Wood fibres

(2) Vessels
(3) Tracheids
(4) Xylem parenchyma

14) Assertion :- Collenchyma forms the hypodermis of dicot stem

Reason :- This is the reason for flexibility of young dicotyledonous stems.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason in false.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is correct
15) Statement I : Cuticle is absent in roots.
Statement II : Epidermal layer is often covered with a waxy thick layer called the cuticle which
prevent the loss of water.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

16) In dicot roots

(1) Xylem is endarch type

(2) Both vascular cambium and cork cambium are secondary in origin
(3) Protoxylem is situated in centre
(4) Pith is large and well developed

17) Select the correct statement for exarch condition of xylem.

(1) It is arrangement of secondary xylem

(2) It is seen in stem
(3) Protoxylem is situated towards periphery
(4) First formed primary xylem is situated towards pith in roots in exarch condition.

18) The function of sieve tubes are controlled by nucleus of

(1) Sieve cells elements

(2) Companion cells
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Xylem parenchyma

19) How does the number of xylem bundles in monocot roots compare to dicot roots?

(1) Monocot roots have 2-4 xylem bundles

(2) Monocot roots have more than 6 xylem bundles
(3) Both have the same number of xylem bundles
(4) Monocot roots lack xylem bundles

20) What are the characteristic features of cells in the meristematic area/phase?

(1) Thick secondary cell walls

(2) Small nuclei with minimal protoplasm
(3) Thin primary cell walls with abundant plasmodesmatal connections
(4) Large vacuoles with scarce cytoplasm

21) Tissue can be defined as :

(1) Group of similar cells which is dissimilar in origin and function.
(2) Group of dissimilar cells which is similar in origin and function.
(3) Group of similar or dissimilar cells, similar in origin and generally perform similar function.
(4) Group of similar and dissimilar cells, dissimilar in origin but similar in function.

22) Which of the following is correct for the figure given :-

(1) T.S. of stem having conjoint, colletral and closed VB

(2) T.S. of stem having colletral and open VB
(3) T.S. of midvein of dicot leaf
(4) T.S. of petiole of dicot leaf

23) Which of following is not considered in stele ?

(1) Pith
(2) Vascular bundle
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pericycle

24) A mechanical tissue having cellulosic wall thickening is :

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Collenchyna
(3) Parenchyma
(4) Aerenchyma

25) Various function like photosynthesis, storage, secretion performed by :-

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Parenchyma
(4) Arenchyma

26) Usually more than six exarch xylem bundles and large pith are found in ?

(1) Dicot root

(2) Monocot root
(3) Dicot stem
(4) Monocot stem

27)

Which of the following is not an example of Lateral Meristem :

(1) Vascular Cambium

(2) Interfascicular Cambium
(3) Intercalary Meristem
(4) Cork Cambium

28)

The protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
organ. This type of primary xylem is called :

(1) Exarch
(2) Mesarch
(3) Endarch
(4) Polyarch

29) Which types of tissue are usually present in Cortex, Pericycle, Pith and medullary rays _______ :

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Parenchyma
(4) Meristematic cells

30)

In leaves, the ground tissue consist of thin-walled chloroplast containing cells called as :

(1) Vascular bundle

(2) Mesophyll
(3) Root hair
(4) Epidermis

31)

When xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii, the
arrangement is called_______such as in roots :

(1) Cojoint
(2) Bicolateral
(3) Concentric
(4) Radial

32)
Find out incorrect match :

(1) Dicotyledonous root – Casperian strips present

(2) Monocotyledonous root – polyarch xylem bundle
(3) Dicotyledonous stem – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(4) Monocotyledonous stem – Cojoint closed type vascular bundle

33)

Intrafascicular cambium present between :

(1) Primary xylem and secondary xylem

(2) Primary phloem and secondary xylem
(3) Primary xylem and primary phloem
(4) Secondary xylem and secondary phloem

34) Which of the following one is not part of stomatal apparatus ?

(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) A

35) A vascular bundle in which a group of xylem and a group of phloem are on the same radius with
xylem near the pith and phloem near the cortex and the both are not separated by the cambium,
called as :-

(1) Radial
(2) Conjoint, colletral and open
(3) Conjoint, colletral and closed
(4) Concentric

SECTION-B

1) Statement I :- In dorsiventral leaves, abaxially placed palisade parenchyma is arranged vertically

and parallel to each other.
Statement II :- Such type of arrangement helps to maximise water loss.

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
2)

Find out incorrect statement about phloem :

Phloem in angiosperm is composed of sieve tube elements, Albuminous cell, Phloem

(1)
parenchyma and phloem fibres
A mature sieve element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks a
(2)
nucleus
(3) In phloem parenchyma, plasmodesmatal connections exist between the cells
(4) Phloem fibres of jute, flax and hemp are used commercially

3)

Choose the incorrect statement-

(1) The first formed primary xylem elements are called protoxylem and later are metaxylem.
(2) Protoxylem lies towards centre (pith) and metaxylem at periphery in endarch condition.
(3) Vessel is short spherical tube like structure mode up of some cells called "Vessel members"
(4) Xylem functions as a conducting tissue for H2O & mierals.

4)

Choose the correct one -

(a) Casparian strip is present in dicot root.
(b) Conjuctive tissue are parenchymatenus in dicot root
(c) Close conjoint collateral vascular bundle example is dicot stem.
(d) Stems have radial vascular bundles

(1) All are correct

(2) a and b are correct
(3) c and d are correct
(4) b, c and d are correct

5) Match the following and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

A. Cuticle (i) Guard cells

B. Bulliform cells (ii) Single layered

C. Stomata (iii) Waxy layer

D. Epidermis (iv) Empty colourless cells

(1) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)
(2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(3) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)

6) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Guard cells of stomata have outer thin and inner thick walls.
(b) In roots, protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre.
(c) Phloem fibres are pointed needle like apices found in secondary phloem usually.
(d) Root hairs are unicellular branched elongation of epidermal cells.
Options :

(1) a,b and c only

(2) a and b only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) a, b and d only

7) Match the following and choose the correct combination

A. Endodermis 1. No nucleus

B. Stomata 2. Cork + cork cambium + Secondary cortex

C. Sieve tube 3. Palisade cells

D. Periderm 4. Casparian strips

E. Mesophyll 5. Gaseous exchange

(1) A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-3
(2) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2, E-4
(3) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-3
(4) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-4, E-1

8) How many of the given structures are redifferentiated structures developed during secondary
growth?
Primary xylem, Secondary cortex, Secondary phloem, Primary cortex, Cork, Phellogen, Sap wood,
Primary phloem

(1) Five
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

9) Assertion : In stems, the primary xylem is called endarch.

Reason : In stems the protoxylem lies towards the centre (Pith) and metaxylem lies towards the
periphery.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

10) Select the correct option after reading the following statements.
Statement A : The meristem which occurs between mature tissues is known as intercalary
meristem.
Statement B : During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells 'left behind' from
shoot apical meristem, constitute the axillary bud.

(1) Only A is incorrect.

(2) Only B is incorrect.
(3) Both A & B are correct.
(4) Both A & B are incorrect.

11) Which of the following do not constitute the ground tissue system in plants?
a. Pericycle b. Endodermis
c. Mesophyll d. Epidermis
e. Veins in leaf f. Xylem and phloem

(1) a, b & c
(2) c, d & e
(3) a, c & f
(4) d, e & f

12) State true (T) or false (F) to the following statements and select the correct option.
A. When bulliform cells are flaccid, they make the leaves curl inwards to minimize water loss.
B. In dicot leaves, the size of the vascular bundles is dependent on the size of the veins.

A B

(1) T F

(2) F F

(3) T T

(4) F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Assertion : Both apical meristems and intercalary meristems are primary meristems.
Reason : Both apical meristems and intercalary meristems appears early in life of a plant and
contribute to the formation of primary plant body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Casparian strips are made-up of

(a) Lignin (b) Suberin
(c) Pectin (d) Cellulose
Choose the correct one.

(1) a and b
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and c

15)

Which of the following character is not a character of dorsiventral leaf :

(1) Conspicuous cuticle on both adaxial and abaxial surface

(2) Mesophyll has only spongy parenchyma
(3) Size of the vascular bundles are dependent on the size of the veins
(4) The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Number of bones in cranium, face, hyoid and each middle ear are respectively :-

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 8, 14, 1 and 3
(3) 3, 8, 14 and 1
(4) 14, 8, 3 and 1

2)

In scapula, just below the __A__, a cavity called __B__ is located, which articulate with head of
__C__.
Identify the A, B & C.

(1) A-Coracoid process, B-Acetabulum, C-Femur

(2) A-Coranoid process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(3) A-Acromion process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(4) A-Spinous process, B-Acetabulum, C-Tibia

3) Read the following statements and select the correct option with regards to pelvic girdle ?
(A) It consists of two coxal bones.
(B) Each coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis.
(C) Ilium bone has a cavity called glenoid cavity
(D) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis.

(1) Statements A, B and C are correct while D is incorrect.

(2) Statements A and B are correct while C and D are incorrect
(3) Statement A and B are incorrect while C and D are correct
(4) Only statement A is correct while B, C and D are incorrect.

4) Tetany is the rapid spasm in muscles due to -

(1) High Ca+2 in body fluid

(2) Low Ca+2 in body fluid
(3) High uric acid in body fluid
(4) High urea in blood

5)

Cartilaginous joint found between _______ :-

(A) Atlas and axis
(B) Carpal and metacarpal
(C) Adjacent vertebrae

(D) Humerus and pectoral girdle

(E) Pubis symphysis
(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) C, E
(4) B, E

6) In skeletal muscles, number of muscle bundles are held together by a common collagenous
connective tissue layer called

(1) Fasicles
(2) Fascia
(3) Parimysium
(4) Epimysium

7) Mark the mismatched pair :-

(1) Fibrous joint - Metacarpo - Phalangeal Joint

(2) Pivot joint - Radio - Ulnar joint
(3) Hinge joint - Elbow joint
(4) Saddle joint - Carpometacarpal joint of thumb

8) Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following :-

Myasthenia gravis : Auto immune disorder affecting myofibrils leading to weakening of

(1)
skeletal muscles
Muscular dystrophy : Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic
(2)
disorder.
(3) Tetany : Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca2+ in body fluids
(4) Muscular fatigue: Due to lactic acid accumulation, muscle contraction is stopped
9) Red muscle are called as red muscle due to presence of high amount of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Myoglobin
(3) Sarcoplasmic Recticulum
(4) Haemoglobin

10) Which of the following is not a part of pectoral girdle ?

(1) Spine
(2) Glenoid cavity
(3) Acetabulum
(4) Acromian process

11) Sarcomere is the area between :-

(1) I to I band
(2) Z to Z line
(3) A to I band
(4) I-band to Z-line

12) In above figure how many sarcomeres are seen ?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

13) Which of the following statement is correct about striated muscles ?

(1) They are found in urinary bladder and alimentary canal.

(2) Cytoplasm is known as exoplasm.
(3) It is syncytial or multinucleated.
(4) In sarcoplasmic reticulum potassium ions are stored.

14) The type of joint characterised by presence of a fluid filled cavity between the articulating
surfaces of two bones is :-

(1) Fibrous joint

(2) Cartilagineous joint
(3) Synovial joint
(4) Both 1 and 2

15) Number of vertebrochondral ribs in human are ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Seven
(4) Six

16) Decreased level of estrogen is common cause of :-

(1) Arthritis
(2) Gout
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Tetany

17) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decrease length of myosin filament
(3) Decrease length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged

18) Store house of calcium ions in muscle fibre is :-

(1) Sarcoplasm
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Myofibrils
(4) Sarcomere

19) Myosin head contains :-

(1) ATPase enzyme activity

(2) ATP binding sites
(3) Active sites for actin binding
(4) All of these

20)

Match the Column-

Column-I Column-II

Types of
synovial Example
joint

Between Atlas &

A. Saddle 1.
axis

B. Hinge 2. Knee joint

 Between carpal and
C. Pivot 3. metacarpal of
thumb

D. Gliding 4. Between the carpals

(1) ABCD/1234
(2) ABCD/3214
(3) ABCD/2134
(4) ABCD/2341

21) Cross arm of myosin filament contains :-

(1) Only head

(2) Head and Short arm
(3) Short arm and tail
(4) Head, Short arm, tail

22) Select the set of bones that are same in number in human body

(1) Hyoid, clavicle, sternum

(2) Temporal, mandible, frontal
(3) Parietal, clavicle, temporal
(4) Collar bone, floating ribs, occipital

23) Statement which is incorrect w.r.t. red muscle fibres is

(1) Myoglobin content in them is high.

(2) Contain plenty of mitochondria.
(3) Contain high amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(4) Also termed as aerobic muscles.

24) Assertion: In case of gout inflammation of a skeleton joint may immobilize the movements of the
joint.
Reason: Uric acid crystals deposition in the joint cavity leading to difficulty to move bones.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Human rib has two articulation surface on its dorsal end so ribs are called as :-

(1) Monocondylic
(2) Bicephalic
(3) Dicondylic
(4) Monocephalic
26) Read the following statements (A to D)
(A) Rib is a thin flat bone connected ventrally to the vertebral column and dorsally to the sternum
(B) First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs
(C) 8th, 9th & 10th pairs of ribs are called vertebro sternal ribs.
(D) 10th and 11th pairs of ribs are not connected dorsally and are therefore called floating ribs
How many statements are incorrect :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Which of the following disorder is not related to inflamation of joint ?

(1) Osteoporosis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Osteoarthritis
(4) Gouty arthritis

28) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A) : Synovial joints play a significant role in locomotion.
Reason (R) : Synovial joints allow considerable movements of bones at Joints.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

29) Choose the correct one :-

(1) Amoeboidal movement → Macrophages, Trachea

(2) Ciliary movement → Fallopian tube, leukocytes
(3) flagellar movement → Spermatozoa, euglena
(4) muscular movement →Limbs, cyclosis

30) Statement-I : Each limb of human is made of 30 bones.

Statement-II : The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join
the seventh rib with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Choose the correct option given below :

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect

31) Fill in the blanks from the options given below :-

All ....A... are movements but all .....B..... are not .......C....... .

(1) Movement, Locomotion, Locomotion

(2) Locomotion, movement, Locomotion
(3) Locomotions, Locomotion, movement
(4) Movement, Movement, Movement

32) The cross bridges of the sarcomere in skeletal muscle are made up of -

(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Troponin
(4) Myelin

33) Electrical excitation in a muscle fibre most directly causes -

(1) Movement of tropomyosin from MBS

(2) Attachment of the cross bridges to actin
(3) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Splitting of ATP to release energy to sarcoplasm

34) Assertion : Human has dicondylic skull.

Reason : Skull articulates with superior region of the vertebral column with the help of two occipital
condyles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) Cardiac/heart muscles are -

(1) Striated and involuntary

(2) Not fatigued
(3) Branched
(4) All

SECTION-B

1) Choose the correct pairs

(A) Actin binding site Myosin

(B) Myosin binding site Actin

(C) Tropomyosin binding site Troponin

(D) Calcium binding site Troponin

(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

2) Rigor mortis is :-

(1) Contraction of muscles after death

(2) Contraction of muscles before death
(3) Shivering of muscles
(4) Paralysis of muscles

3) Gout disease is due to accumulation of :-

(1) Cholesterol
(2) Uric acid
(3) Urea
(4) Lactic acid

4) The correct sequence of events during contraction of muscle will be :-

(A) Action potential is generated in sarcolemma
(B) Ca++ binds with subunit of troponin
(C) Release of Ca++ ions into the sarcoplasm
(D) A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular function releases a neurotransmitter-acetylcholine
(E) Removal of masking of active sites at actin for myosin
(F) Myosin head binds to exposed active sites on actin to form cross bridge.

(1) D, A, B, C, E, F
(2) D, C, A, B, E, F
(3) D, A, C, B, E, F
(4) A, B, C, E, F, D

5) Match the following and mark the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin

(B) Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid

(C) Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit

(D) Sarcomere (iv) I-band

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
6) Statement-I : Axial skeleton comprise 126 bones distributed along the main axis of the body.
Statement-II : The skull is composed of two sets of bones – cranial and facial that totals to 29
bones.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

7) The hand contains ______ carpals ( wrist bones), ___ metacarpals (palm bones), and __ phalanges.

(1) 14, 5, 8
(2) 5, 8, 14
(3) 8, 5, 14
(4) 1, 5, 5

8) Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify A, Band C.

(1) A - Tropomyosin, B - Troponin, C - F-actin

(2) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-Myosin
(3) A - Troponin, B - Myosin, C - Tropomyosin
(4) A - Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - F-actin

9) Match the list I with list II

List-I List-II

A. Axial skeleton i. 22

B. appendicular ii. 80

C. Skull iii. 126

D. Facial iv. 14
(1) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv

10) Assertion : Ca2+ ion plays important role in muscle contraction.

Reason : Calcium ion binds to subunit of troponin on actin filament and removes the masking of
active sites for myosin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

11) Which of the following structures is correctly organised from large to small?

(1) Muscle, Muscle fibre, Myofibril, Sarcomeres, Filaments.

(2) Muscle, muscle fibre, sarcomere, Filaments, myofibril.
(3) Muscle, Filaments, Myofibrils, Sarocomere, muscle fibre
(4) Filaments, Sarcomere, myofibril, Muscle fibre, muscle

12) The type of joint between the human skull bones is called :-

(1) Cartilaginous joint

(2) Hinge joint
(3) Synovial joint
(4) Fibrous joint

13) Assertion: Striated Muscles are said to be voluntary in nature.

Reason: Striated muscles can be moved according to will power.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Assertion (A) : 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
Reason (R) : All the ribs attaches to the vertebral column dorsally.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, whereas (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, whereas (R) is correct.

15) In humans, the rib cage is formed by -

(a) Sternum
(b) Cervical vertebrae
(c) Ribs
(d) Thoracic vertebrae
Choose the correct option

(1) a, b, c only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) a and c only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 1 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 4 3 1 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 2 4 1 4 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 3 2 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 3 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 3 1 2 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 3 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

11) Four capacitors are in parallel charge across each is q = CV. Two surfaces of plate C
marks two capacitors, one with B and other with D and C is connected to positive terminal of
the battery. Hence
qC = 2CV = +40 μC

12)
CαR

18)

Ceq = +2

= μF

Q= × 5 = 16μC
Q2 = 6μC

VBC = = 2V

19)

Let R and r be the radii of large drop and each small drop respectively

or r = R / 2
Since capacity of a spherical drop is direct proportional to its radius, hence each small drop has

capacitance of

26) It is balanced W.S.B.

So CT = 4μF

29)

The two condensers with K and with air are in parallel.

With air :

With medium :

∴ C' = C1 + C2

or

or C' =

30)

Simplified circuit

31)

R=
where σ → density of copper

R= So R1 : R2 : R3 =

=
R1 : R2 : R3 = 125 : 15 : 1
Hence option (3)

32)

⇒ R2 = n2R1

35)

As current is independent of R6 so it means no current flows through R6 and hence

⇒ R1R4 = R2R3

36)
Drift velocity is given by as temperature increases, τ decreases and hence vd decreases

39)

⇒ Apply KCL
Hence current in CD branch is = 15 A.

40)

iR = (5 – i)480 = 96
(5 – i)480 = 96

5–i=
5 – i = 0.2
i = 4.8
4.8 × R = 9.6
R = 20Ω

43)

(Req)3 = 1.5Ω

{∵ V = 3 volt}

44)
i=

V = (2R) =

45)

46)

47)

48)

49)

A = 1.69 × 109 m2

50) Parallel combination

CHEMISTRY

51)

Velocities of ions are nearly the same.

52)

At equilibrium, ΔG = 0, Ecell = 0

53)

R.A. itself gets oxidised easily, i.e., Mg.

54)

55)

56)

W = ZIt

W= I.t

57)

⇒
⇒ 1.25 × 10–4

58)

Efficiency of cell =
 59) Faraday's second law

60)

= 406 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1

61)

62)

63)

NCERT page # 87 (Part-1 (12th))

64) To increase cell voltage

65) [ΔG° = - nFE°cell]

66) K =

= R × K = 56 × 0.012
= 0.672 cm–1

67)

nF = 1 mole of metal deposited

N = n factor for metal
For Al2O3
(i) 3F = 1 mole of Al from Al2O3
2F = 1 mole of Cu from CuSO4

3F = = moles Cu from CuSO4

 (iii) 1 F = 1 mole Na from NaCl

3F = moles Na
Molar Ratio
Al : Au : Na

1 : :3
2 :3 :6

68)

w = Zit

w=

Eq. wt. =

= = 19.3 gm

69)
= x1 + x2 – x3

70)

Emf is intensive preoperty.

71)

⇒ G* = 0.01 cm–1

72)

Dry cell is a primary storage battery and hence, cannot be recharged.

73)

= – 0.44 – (– 0.14)= – 0.30V

The negative EMF suggests that the reaction goes spontaneously in reversed direction.

74)
 75)

0
–2x2 = E – x1
0
⇒ E = 2x2 – x1

76)

77)

> 0 for reduction of Fe2+ by Zn.

78)

A → Strong electrolyte (KCl)

B → Weak electrolyte (CH3COOH)

79)

The number of faradays required to deposit 1 g equation of Al is 1 faraday.

Al+3 + 3e– → Al
Gram equivalent = mole × n-factor

Gram equivalent = × 3 = 1
For 3 mole of electron → 1 mole of A+3
or 1 mole of Al+3 → 3F

mole of Al+3 → 3 × = 1F

80)

→ 2Cr+3 + 6e–
0.1 mole 0.6 mole
Charge required = 0.6 F = 0.6 × 96500
= 57900C

81)
As, R = ρ ,∴G=

82)

According to Kohlrausch law

83) NCERT pg # 86

84) CuSO4(aq) ⇌ Cu2+ + SO42– + H+ + OH–

at anode 2H2O(ℓ) → O2(g) + 4H+ + 4e–
at cathode Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu
So, concentration of H+ will be increased in electrolysis of CuSO4(aq).
On increasing [H+], pH will decrease.

86)

As the electrode potential drops, reducing power increases.

So,

87) For AB type weak electrolyte nf = 1

So =

88)

Reducing power
So RP of Zn2+ is high and RP of Zn is min.
Hence, strongest reducing agent is Zn.

89)

90)
^M = α^°M = 4.2 × 10–2 × 390.6 × 10–4

91) NaCl(aq)
C : H2O → H2↑
A : Cl⊖ → Cl2↑

92)

Statement-I : molten NaH ⇒ Na+ ; H¯

Cathode :- Na+ + e¯ → Na(s)
Anode :- 2H+ → H2(g) + 2e¯
Statement-II : In electrolytic refining
Impure metal ⇒ Anode
Pure metal ⇒ Cathode

93)

The standard reduction potential of Zn & Ag are given below:

Anode → Zn+2 + 2e– → Zn(s) E° = –0.76 V
Cathode → Ag+ + 1e– → Ag(s) E° = 0.80 V
Cell representation
Zn(s) | Zn+2 (aq) || Ag+ (aq) | Ag(s)
Cell reaction:
Zn(s) → Zn+2(aq) + 2e–
2Ag+(aq) + 2e– → 2Ag(s)

Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Zn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)

94)

S.R.P of H+ > S.R.P of Zn+2

95) Ecell is an intensive property while ΔG of cell reaction is an extensive property.

96)

Theory

97)
Higher the reduction potential, stronger is the oxidising agent.

98)

= +0.15 - 0.77 = -0.62V;

99)

Net cell reaction :

2Cr + 3Fe2+ 2Cr3+ + 3Fe

Ecell =

BOTANY

101) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 91

102) NCERT Pg. # 89

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88

104)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 94

105) NCERT XI Page # 36/37

106) NCERT Based.

107) NCERT Page no. 93

108) NCERT Page no. 92

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 86

110)

NCERT Pg. No.95

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93, 94

112) NCERT XI, Pg # 85

 113) NCERT XI, Pg # 87

114)

NCERT Pg. # 86

115)

NCERT Pg. # 89

116)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 91

117)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 87

118) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 13,14

119)

NCERT 11th Class

120)

NCERT 11th Class :

121)

Module-4 (Plant anatomy) Pg # 67

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 92,

Fig. 6.7

123)

NCERT XI Pg # 91

124)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 86

125)

NCERT Pg. # 86, Para-1

126) NCERT XI, Page # 91

127) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 85

 128) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 90

129) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 89

130) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 89

131) NCERT XI, Pg. No. # 73

132) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 90/93

133) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 94

134) NCERT Page No. 72

135) NCERT-XI Pg#90

136)

NCERT XI Pg. # 93, Para-3

137) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 88

138) NCERT XII Page # 87

139) NCERT XI Page # 90/91

140) NCERT-XI Pg. # 89, 94

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87, 88, 89

142) NCERT XI, Pg # 87 to 89

143) NCERT XI, Pg # 95 to 97

144)

NCERT - XI, PAGE NO. 87

145)
Axillary bud is mass of undifferentiated tissue.

146)

Epidermis is included in epidermal tissue system. Xylem, phloem and veins in leaf constitute
vascular tissue system.

147)

Bulliform cells help monocot leaves to survive in H2O scarcity.

148)

NCERT XI Pg. # 85

149)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 91

150) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 93

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 309

152)

NCERT XIth Pg # 311

153)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 311

155)

NCERT Pg. # 312

157)

NCERT Pg.# 312

158)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 312

159)

NCERT Pg. #308, Para : 20.2.2

160)
Module-8 Pg # 144, NCERT XIth Pg # 311

161)

NCERT XIth, Pg # 305

162)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 308 Fig. 3

163)

NCERT Pg. # 105

164)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 312

165)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 310

166)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 312

167)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 308

168)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 304

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 306 para 20.2.1

170) NCERT Page # 312

171)

Sol. NCERT Pg. # 306

172)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 306 Fig.20.3

173)

NCERT Reference:
XI (Page No. 308)

174)
NCERT XII Page No. # 312

175)

NCERT Page No.# 310

176)

NCERT XI Pg. # 310

177)

NCERT, Pg. # 312

178)

NCERT Pg # 309 (E)

179)

NCERT Pg. # 217, 218

180) NCERT Pg. # 310

181) NCERT XI Pg.# 217

184)

NCERT Pg. No. # 309(E), 310(H)

185)

NCERT Pg. # 307

186)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 306, para 1, 2

NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 305, para 2, 3
Pg.# 306, para 1

187)

Module

188)

NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 312

189)

NCERT Page # 307

190) NCERT XI, Pg. # 308

 191)

NCERT Pg. # 309,

194)

NCERT Pg. # 224

195) NCERT Pg. # 308

196)

NCERT, Pg.No - 304

197)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 312 para 20.4

198)

NCERT Pg. # 303 (E), 304 (H)

199)

NCERT XI Pg. # (E) 310, (H) 311

200)

NCERT Pg. No. # 225