Dr.

Brijesh Dabhi
Class: 12th Subject: Chemistry
3

PART-1
1. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A (pA0 = 150 torr) pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane
and 2 mol B (pB0 = 240 torr) is 200 torr. In this case - and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane - 100 g mol–
(a) There is positive deviation from Raoult's law 1 and of octane = 114 g mol–1)
(b) There is negative deviation from Raoult's law
(a) 72.0 kPa (b) 36.1 kPa (c) 96.2 kPa (d) 144.5 kPa
(c) There is no deviation from Raoult's law
13. Persons are medically considered to have lead poisoning if they
(d) Molecular masses of A and B are also required for
have a concentration greater than 10 micrograms of lead per
calculating the deviation
decilitre of blood. Concentration in parts per billion is :
2. Two liquids A and B have PA0 : PB0 = 1 : 3 at a certain
(a) 1000 (b) 100 (c) 10 (d) 1
temperature. If the mole fraction ratio of xA : xB = 1 : 3, the
14. Given at 350 K pA0 = 300 torr and pB0 = 800 torr, the
mole fraction of A in vapour in equilibrium with the solution
at a given temperature is - composition of the mixture having a normal boiling point of
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.5 (d) 1.0 350 K is :
3. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have : (a) XA = 0.08 (b) XA = 0.06
(a) Same boiling point but different freezing point (c) XA = 0.04 (d) XA = 0.02
(b) Same freezing point but different boiling point 15. What is the mole fraction of glucose in 10 % w/W glucose
(c) Same boiling and same freezing points solution?
(d) Different boiling and freezing points
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.03 (d) 0.04
4. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02
g/mL. The molality of the solution is 16. The molarity of 648 g of pure water is
(a) 3.28 mol Kg–1 (b) 2.28 mol Kg–1 (a) 36 m (b) 55.5m (c) 3.6 m (d) 5.55 m
(c) 0.44 mol Kg–1 (d) 1.14 mol Kg–1 17. What is mass percentage of carbon tetrachloride if 22 g
–1 benzene is dissolved in 122 g of carbon tetrachloride
5. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol . If your automobile radiator
(a) 84.72% (b) 15.28 % (c) 50% (d) 44%
holds 1.0 kg of water, how may grams of ethylene glycol
(C2H6O2) must you add to get the freezing point of the 18. What is the molarities of a solution containing 10 g of NaOH
solution lowered to –2.80C ? in 500 mL of solution?
−1 −1
(a) 72 g (b) 93 g (c) 39 g (d) 27 g (a) 0.25mol L (b) 0.75mol L
6. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the −1 −1
lowest freezing point ? (c) 0.5mol L (d) 1.25mol L
(a) K2SO4 (b) NaCl (c) Urea (d) Glucose 19. What will be the molarity of 30 mL of 0.5 M H 2SO 4
7. A 5 % solution of cane sugar (mol. mass = 342) is isotonic with 1
% solution of a substance X. The molecular mass of X is - solution diluted to 500 Ml
(a) 34.2 (b) 171.2 (c) 68.4 (d) 136.8 (a) 0.3 M (b) 0.03 M (c) 3M (d) 0.103M
20
8. 6.02 × 10 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its 20. A solution is obtained by mixing 200 g of 30% and 300 g of
solution. The concentration of urea solution is : 20% solution by weight. What is the percentage of solute in the
(a) 0.001 M (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.1 M. final solution
9. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit (a) 50% (b) 28% (c) 64% (d) 24%
highest boiling point ? 21. When 1.04 g of BaCl2 is present in 10 g of solution the
5
(a) 0.01 M Na2SO4 (b) 0.01 M KNO3
concentration of solution is
(c) 0.015 M urea (d) 0.015 M glucose
(a) 0.104 ppm (b) 10.4 ppm
10. If a is the degree of dissociation of Na 2SO4, the vant Hoff’s
factor (i) used for calculating the molecular mass is : (c) 0.0104 ppm (d) 104 ppm
(a) 1 + a (b) 1 – a (c) 1 + 2a (d) 1 – 2a. 22. Henry’s law constant molality of methane in benzene at 298 K
11. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated
into cations and anions in aqueous solution, the change in 4.27  10 5 mm Hg. The molefraction of methane in benzene
freezing point of water (DT f), when 0.01 mole of sodium at 298 under 760 mm Hg is
−3
(a) 1.78  10 (b) 17.43 (c) 0.114 (d) 2.814
sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–
23. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100 mL water at 298 K if
1) −3
partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm and K H =1.4  10
(a) 0.0372 K (b) 0.0558 K (c) 0.0744 K (d) 0.0186 K
12. On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 mol/ L/ atm
K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid components (heptane (a) 22.4 mg (b) 22.4g (c) 2.24g (d) 2.24 mg
and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour
24. For an ideal solution with PA  PB which of the following is 36. At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a
volatile liquid solvent is ________.
true.
(a) Less than the rate of crystallization
(a) ( X A )liquid = ( X A )vapour (b) Greater than the rate sofcrystallisation
(b) ( X A )liquid  ( X A )vapour (c) Equal to the rate of crystallisation
(d) Zero
(c) ( X A )liquid  ( X A )vapour 37. In comparisons to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the
(d) ( X A )liquid and ( X A )vapour do not bear any depression in freezing point of a 0.01M MgCl 2 solution is
(a) The same (b) About twice
relationship with each other.
(c) About three times (d) About six times
25. A solution is made by dissolving 20 g of substance in 500 mL
of water. Its osmotic pressure was found to be 600 mm of Hg 38. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to
prepare pickle, shrivels because_____
at 15º C . Find the molecular weight of the substance.
(a) It gains water due to osmosis
(a) 1198 (b) 500 (c) 1200 (d) 1000
(b) It loses water due to reverse osmosis
26. A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in a
(a) Hypotonic solution (b) Hypertonic solution (c) It gains water due to reverse osmosis
(c) Isotonic solution (d) Pure water (d) It loses water due to osmosis
27. An aqueous solution of 2% non volatile solute exerts a pressure 39. Value of Henry’s constant K H _________.
of 1.004 bar at the normal boiling point of the solvent what is (a) Increases with increase in temperature
the molecular mass of the solute? (b) Decreases with increase in temperature
−1 −1
(a) 23.4 g mol (b) 41.35 g mol (c) Remains constant
−1 −1 (d) First increases then decreases
(c) 10 g mol (d) 20.8 g mol
40. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at
28. What weight of glycerol should be added to 600 g of water in
some specific composition then ____.
order to lower its freezing point by 10º C ? (a) A – B interactions are stronger than those between A – A or
−1
( K f = 1.8º C m ) B–B
(a) 496 g (b) 297 g (c) 310 g (d) 426 g (b) Vapour pressure of solution increase because more
29. Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow covered roads in number of molecules of liquids A and B can escape from the
hills the phenomenon involved in the process is solution
(a) Lowering in vapour pressure of snow (c) Vapour pressure of solution decreases because less
(b) Depression in freezing point of snow number of molecule only one of the liquid escape from the
(c) Increase in freezing point of snow solution.
(d) Melting of ice due to increase in temperature by putting salt. (d) A – B interaction are weaker than those between A – A or
−1
30. If 1 g of solute (molar mass = 50 g mol ) is dissolved in 50 B–B
g of solvent and the elevation in boiling point is 1 K. the molar 41. K H values for Ar( g ), CO2 , HCHO ( g ) , and CH 4 are
(g) (g )
boiling constant of the solvent is
−5
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2.5 (d) 5 40.39,1.67,1.83  10 and 0.413 respectively arrange
31. Which of the following will have the highest f.pt at one these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
atmosphere? (a) HCHO  CH 4  CO2  Ar
(a) 0.1 M NaCl solution (b) 0.1 M sugar solution
(b) HCHO  CO2  CH4  Ar
(c) 0.1M BaCl 2 solution (d) 0.1 M FeCl3 solution
(c) Ar  CO2  CH4  HCHO
32. A solute X when dissolved in a solvent associates to form a
pentamer. The value of van’t Hoff factor (i) for the solute will (d) Ar  CH4  CO2  HCHO
be
(a) 0.5 (b) 5 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 42. Vapour pressure of a pure liquid X is 2 atm at 300K. it is
lowered to 1 atm on dissolving 1 g of Y in 20 g of liquid x. if
33. What amount of CaCl2 ( i = 2.47 ) is dissolved in 2 litres of molar mass of X is 200, what is the molar mass of Y.
water so that its osmotic pressure is 0.5 atmat 27º C ? (a) 20 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 200
(a) 3.42 g (b) 9.24 g (c) 2.834 g (d) 1.820 g
43. For a cell reaction involving a two electron change, the
34. For which of the following solutes the van’t Hoff factor is not standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25 0C. The
greater than one? equilibrium constant of the reaction at 250C will be :
(a) NaNO3 (b) BaCl 2 -10
(d) 1 × 1010
-2
(a) 1 × 10 (b) 29.5 × 10 (c) 10
(c) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) NH2CONH2 44. Standard electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are +
0.5 V, – 3.0 V and – 1.2 V respectively. The reducing power of
35. The Van’t Hoff factor of 0.005 M aqueous solution of KCl is these metals is in the order
1.95 the degree of ionization of KCl is (a) B > C > A (b) A > B > C
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.97 (c) 0.94 (d) 0.96 (c) C > B > A (d) A > C > B
45. The highest electrical conductivity among the following
aqueous solutions is of :
 (a) 0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid (a) 3.14  10 −3 mho cm −1 (b) 3.14  10 −3 mho −1 cm
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid
46. For (c) 3.14 mho cm −1 (d) 3.14 mho −1 cm −1
Zn 2+ / Zn, E 0 = - 0.76 V, for Ag + /Ag E 0 = 0.799 V 60. Molar conductivity of a solution is 1.26 × 102  1cm2 mol 1 . Its
The correct statement is molarity is 0.01. Its specific conductivity will be
(a) The reaction Zn getting reduced Ag getting oxidized is (a) 1.26  10 −5 (b) 1.26  10 −3
spontaneous (c) 1.26  10 −4 (d) 0.0063
(b) Zn undergoes reduction and Ag is oxidized 61. Molar ionic conductivities of a bivalent electrolyte are 57 and
(c) Zn undergoes oxidation Ag+ gets reduced 73. The molar conductivity of the solution will be
(d) No suitable answer (a) 130 S cm 2 mol −1 (b) 65 S cm 2 mol −1
47. The electrode potential becomes equal to standard electrode
potential when reactants and products concentration ratio is (c) 260 S cm 2 mol −1 (d) 187 S cm 2 mol −1
(a) Equal to 1 (b) Greater than 1 62. The standard emf for the cell reaction
(c) Less than 1 (d) None of the above Zn + Cu 2 + → Cu + Zn 2 + is 1.1 volt at 25 o C .
48. One g equivalent of Na metal is formed from electrolysis of The emf for the cell reaction, when 0.1 M Cu 2+ and 0.1 M
fused NaCl. No. of mole of Al from the fused Na 3AlF6 with
Zn 2+ solution are used, at 25 o C is
the same current passed is
(a) 1.10 V (b) 0.10 V (c) –1.10V (d) –0.110 V
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 1/3 (d) 2
63. Electrolysis of dil H2SO4 liberates gases at anode and cathode
49. If 0.224 L of H2 gas is formed at the cathode, the volume of
(a) O2 & SO2 respectively (b) SO2 & O2 respectively
O2 gas formed at the anode under identical conditions, is
(c) O2& H2 respectively (d) H2 & O2 respectively
(a) 0.224 L (b) 0.448 L (c) 0.112 L (d) 1.12 L
0
2Ce 4+ + Co →2Ce 3+ + Co 2+ E 0 cell = 1.89 V, E 0 CO 2 +/ CO 64. E RP or Fe+/Fe and Sn+2/Sn are - 0.44 and 0.14 volts
50. is respectively. The standard emf for cell.
= - 0.277 V hence, E 0 Ce 4 +/ Ce3+
(a) 0.805 V (b) 1.62 V (c) – 0.805 V (d) – 1.61 V Fe+2 + Sn ⎯ ⎯→ Sn +2 + Fe is
51. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode when placed in (a) + 0.30 V (b) - 0.58 V (c) + 0.58 V (d) - 0.30 V
a buffer solution is found to be – 0.413V. The pH of the buffer 65. Emf of the cell
is – Ni | Ni2+ ( 0.1 M ) || Au3+ (1.0 M) | Au will be
(a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 12 E 0 Ni / Ni2+ = 0.25, E 0 Au / Au3+ = −1.5 V
52. Silver is monovalent and has atomic mass of 108. Copper is
(a) 1.75 V (b) + 1. 7795 V
divalent and has an atomic mass of 63.6. The same electric
(c) + 0.7795 V (d) - 1.7795 V
current is passed for the same length of time through a silver + 2+
coulometer and a copper coulometer. If 27.0 g of silver is 66. For a cell given below : Ag | Ag || Cu | Cu
deposited, then the corresponding amount of copper deposited - +
is
(a) 63.60 g (b) 31.80 g (c) 15.90 g (d) 7.95 g
Ag + e ⎯
+ -
⎯→ Ag E0 = x
The value of
53. When 9.65 Coulombs of electricity is passed through a solution Cu 2+ + 2e- ⎯ ⎯→ Cu, E0 = y
of silver nitrate (At. wt. of Ag =107.87 taking as 108) the
amount of silver deposited is E 0 cell is :
(a) 10.8 mg (b) 5.4 mg (c) 16.2 mg (d) 21.2 mg (a) x + 2y (b) 2x + y (c) y – x (d) y – 2x
54. Three faradays of electricity are passed through molten Al 2 O 3 67. Conductance (with unit Siemens S) is directly proportional to
area of the electrode plates and the concentration of the
, aqueous solution of CuSO 4 and molten NaCl taken in
solution in the cell and is inversely proportional to the
different electrolytic cells. The amount of Al Cu and Na separation between the electrode plates. Then the unit of the
deposited at the cathodes will be in the ratio of constant of proportionality is
(a) Smmol–1 (b) Sm2mol–1
(a) 1mole : 2mole : 3mole (b) 3mole : 2mole : 1mole
(c) 1mole : 1.5mole : 3mole (d) 1.5mole : 2mole : 3mole
55. When electricity is passed through the solution of AlCl 3 , 13.5 (c) S–2m2mol (d) S2m2mol–1.
68. The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative,
gm of Al are deposited. The number of Faraday must be if :
(a) 0.50 (b) 1.00 (c) 1.50 (d) 2.00
56. A metal wire carries a current of 1 A. How many electrons (a) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M
move past a point in the wire in one second (b) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M
(a) 6.02  10 23 (b) 3.12  10 18
(c) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M
(c) 3.02  10 23 (d) 6.24  10 18
57. How long will it take for a current of 3 Amperes to decompose (d) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M
36 g of water? (Eq. wt. of hydrogen is 1 and that of oxygen 8)
69. The limiting molar conductivities  for NaCl, KBr and KCl
0
(a) 36 hours (b) 18 hours (c) 9 hours (d) 4.5 hours
58. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The value of
to be 210 Ohm at 298 K. Its conductance is, 0 for NaBr is
(a) 4.76  10 −3 mho (b) 4 .76 mho (a) 128 S cm2mol–1 (b) 176 S cm2mol–1
(c) 210 mho (d) None of these (c) 278 S cm mol 2 –1 (d) 302 S cm2mol–1
59. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found 70. How many Coulombs of electricity are required for reduction
to be 210 Ohm at 298 K, using a conductivity cell of cell of 1 mole of MnO 4− to Mn 2 +
−1
constant 0.66 cm . The specific conductance of solution is, (a) 96500 C (b) 1.93  10 5 C
 (c) 4.83  10 5 C (d) 9.65  10 6 C 
d NO2 
71. Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction, 82. In the reaction 2 N 2 O 5 ⎯ ⎯→ 4 NO2 + O 2 +
dt
at
2 Ag + 2 H + → H 2 + 2 Ag + E 0 for
any time t was found to be 2.4 x 10-4 mole L-1 min-1 with rate
+ −
Ag + e → Ag is 0.80 V
constant 4.4 x 10-4 min-1.Hence −

d N 2O5  at the same time
(a) +154 .4 kJ (b) +308 .8 kJ dt
(c) −154 .4 kJ (d) – 308.8kJ t and the corresponding rate constant of the reaction
72. Which of the following would occur when lead storage cell is
respectively would be
charged ?
(a) Sulphuric acid is consumed (b) Sulphuric acid is formed (a) 1.2 x 10-4 mole L-1 min-1, and 2.2 x 10-4 min-1
(c) Lead sulphate is formed (d) Lead is consumed (b) 1.2 x 10-4 mole L-1 min-1, and 8.8 x 10-4 min-1
+ + 2+ 3+
73. Given that Eº values of Ag /Ag, K / K, Mg / Mg and Cr / Cr (c) 4.8 x 10-4 mole L-1 min-1, and 2.2 x 10-4 min-1
are 0.80V, –2.93V, –2.37V and –0.74V respectively. Therefore
the order for the reducing power of the metal is – (d) 2.4 x 10-4 mole L-1 min-1, and 4.4 x 10-4 min-1
(a) Ag > Cr > Mg > K (b) Ag < Cr < Mg < K 83. In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C → A4 B2 C3, what will be the
(c) Ag > Cr > K > Mg (d) Cr > Ag > Mg > K number moles of product formed, starting from one mole of A,
74. Given that E H O | H | Pt = 0 at 298 K. The pressure of H2(g) 0.6 mole of B and 0.72 mole of C -
2 2 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.3 (c) 0.24 (d) 2.32
would be – 84. For the reaction 2A + 3B → 4C the rate of reaction may be
(a) 10–7 bar (b) 10–10bar (c) 10–12 bar (d) 10–14 bar represented as
Given : E Cr 3+ / Cr = −0.72, E Fe2+ / Fe = −0.42 V The
0 0
d[ A ] d[ B] d[C]
75. (a) r = – 2 =–3 =4
3+ 2+
potential for the cell Cr | Cr (0.1 M) || Fe (0.01 M) | Fe dt dt dt

2.303R (298)
d[ A ] d[ B] d[C]
(b) r = – 6 =–4 =3
at 298 K is : (Take = 0.06) dt dt dt
F 1 d[ A ] 1 d[ B] 1 d[C]
(a) 0.339 V (b) – 0.339 V (c) – 0.26 V (d) 0.26 V (c) r = – = =
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
76. For a certain redox reaction, E º is positive this means that
1 d[ A ] 1 d[ B] 1 d[C]
(a) Gº is positive, K is greater than 1 (d) r = – =– =
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
(b) Gº is positive, K is less than 1
85. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N2O5→ 4NO2 + O2 is 3 ×
(c) Gº is negative, K is greater than 1 10–5 s–1. If the rate of reaction is 2.4 × 10–5mol L–1 s–1 , then
(d) Gº is negative, K is less than 1 concentration of N2O5 is-
(a) 1.4 (M) (b) 1.2 (M) (c) 0.04 (M) (d) 0.8 (M)
77. Electrical conductor through metals is called metallic or 86. The rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction: 2SO2 +
electronic conductance and is due to the movement of O2⎯→ 2SO3 is 10 g sec–1. The rate of disappearance of O2 will
electrons. The electronic conductance depends on be -
(a) The nature and structure of the metal (a) 5 g sec–1 (b) 100 g sec–1 (c) 20 g sec (d) 2 g sec–1
(b) The number of valence electrons per atom
87. For reaction A + 2B ⎯ ⎯→ C + D rate law
(c) Change in temperature R = k[A]1[B]2. By what factor would the rate changes if
(d) All of these concentration of A is doubled & that of B is halved ?
78. When water is added to an aqueous solution of an electrolyte (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) ½
what is the change in specific conductivity of the electrolyte? 88. For the reaction A + 2B → C, rate is given by R = [A] [B]2
(a) Conductivity decreases then the order of the reaction is :
(b) Conductivity increase (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7
(c) Conductivity remains same 89. Graph between concentration of the product and time of the
(d) Conductivity does not depend on number of ions reaction A → B is of the type Hence graph between – d[A]/dt
and time will be of the type :
(–d[A]/dt)
79. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 3  10 −6 per
second. If the initial concentration is 0.10mol, the initial rate of
reaction is Time
(a) (b)
(a) 3  10 −5 mol s −1 (b) 3  10 −6 mol s −1
(c) 3  10 −8 mol s −1 (d) 3  10 −7 mol s −1
80. In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant decreases (c) (d)
from 800 mol / dm 3 to 50 mol / dm 3 in 2  10 2 sec . The rate 90. Radioactive element has a half life of one day. After three days
constant of reaction in sec −1 is the amount of the element left will be :
(a) 2  10 4
(b) 3.45  10 −5 (a) 1/2 of the original amount
(b) 1/4 of the original amount
(c) 1.386  10 −2 (d) 2  10 −4 (c) 1/8 of the original amount
o
81. The rate of reaction becomes 2 times for every 10 C rise in (d) 1/16 of the original amount
temperature. How the rate of reaction will increases when 91. For the reaction N + 3H ⇌ 2NH , if
2 2 3
temperature is increased from 30 o C to 80 o C [ NH 3 ] − [H 2 ]
−4 −1 −1
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 64 (d) 128 = 2  10 mol l s , the value of would
t t
be
 (a) 1  10 −4 moll −1s −1 (b) 3  10−4 mol l −1s −1 (c) (d)
−4 −1 −1 −4 −1 −1
(c) 4  10 moll s (d) 6  10 mol l s t3/4
t1/2
92. A gaseous hypothetical chemical equation 2 A ⇌ 4B + C is
carried out in a closed vessel. The concentration of B is found [A]0 [A]0
to increase by 5  10 −3 mol l −1 in 10 second. The rate of 102. If the instantaneous rate of appearance of NO (g) is 0.0400 M/s
2
appearance of B is at some moment in time, what is the rate of
(a) 5  10 −4 mol l −1 sec −1 (b) 5  10 −5 mol l −1 sec −1 disappearance of N2O5 (g) in M/s?
−5 −1 −1 −4 −1 −1 (a) 0.02 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.08
(c) 6  10 mol l sec (d) 4  10 mol l sec 103. The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction
93. For a reaction, activation energy (Ea ) = 0 and rate constant of NO with Br2 to from NOBr
6 −1
(k ) = 3 . 2  10 s at 300K. What is the value of the rate NO(g) + Br2(g) NOBr2(g)
constant at 310K. NOBr 2(g) + NO(g) ⎯→ 2NOBr(g)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the
(a) 3.2  10 −12 s −1 (b) 3.2  10 6 s −1
reaction with respect to NO(g) is
(c) 6.4  10 12 s −1 (d) 6.4  10 6 s −1 (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
94. 87.5% of a radioactive substance disintegrates in 40 minutes. 104. The rate constant for a first order reaction whose half-life, is
What is the half life of the substance 480 seconds is –
(a) 13.58 min (b) 135.8 min (a) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1 (b) 2.72 × 10–3 sec–1
(c) 1358 min (d) None of these (c) 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1 (d) 1.44 sec–1
95. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 100 sec. The rate 105. Rate constant k of a reaction varies with temperature according
constant of the reaction is to the equation
(a) 6.93  10 −3 sec−1 (b) 6.93  10 −4 sec−1 Ea
−1 −1 log k = constant – . When a graph is plotted for log
(c) 0.693 sec (d) 69 .3 sec 2.303 RT
96. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of N 2 O5 is 1
k versus a straight line with a slope – 5632 is obtained. The
−4 −1
6.2  10 sec . The half-life period for this decomposition in T
seconds is energy of activation for this reaction is –
(a) 1117.7 (b) 111.7 (c) 223.4 (d) 160.9 (a) 127.67 kJ mol–1 (b) 107.84 kJ mol–1
–1
97. For a reaction A + 2 B → C + D , the following data were (c) 86 kJ mol (d) 246.8 kJ mol–1
obtained 106. The rate of a reaction increased by 2.5 times when the
Expt. Initial concentration Initial Rate of temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. If k is the rate
(moles litre ) –1
formation of D constant at 300 K, then the rate constant at 310 K will be equal
–1
(moles litre min ) –1 to -
S. No. [A] [B] (a) k (b) 2.5 k (c) 2k (d) 3k
107. Half life of radioactive substance is 20 days. What fraction of
1. 0.1 0.1 6.0  10 −3 sample will remain after 60 days?
2. 0.3 0.2 7 .2  10 −2 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 8 16
3. 0.3 0.4 2.88  10 −1
108. For a first order reaction (a) products the concentration of A
4. 0.4 0.1 2.4  10 −2 changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes. The rate of
The correct rate law expression will be reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M is :
(a) Rate = k[ A][B] (b) Rate = k[ A] [B] 2 -5
(a) 1.73 × 10 M/min
-4
(b) 3.47 × 10 M/min
(c) Rate = k [ A] 2 [B] 2 (d) Rate = k [ A] 2 [B] -5
(c) 3.47 × 10 M/min
-4
(d) 1.73 × 10 M/min
98. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by 109. A reaction, which is second order, has a rate constant of 0.002
–
L mol–1 s–1. If the initial conc. of the reactant is 0.2 M. how
(a) Evaluating rate constants at two different temperatures
long will it take for the concentration to become 0.0400 M?
(b) Evaluating velocities of reaction at standard temperatures
(a) 1000 s (b) 400 s (c) 200 s (d) 10, 000 s
(c) Evaluating rate constant at standard temperatures
(d) Changing concentration of reactants
110. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired
99. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 3 × 10–6 sec–1. If
electrons?
Initial concentration is 0.10 M, the initial rate is (M s –1) -?
(a) Mg+2 (b) Ti+3 (c) V+3 (d) Fe+2
(a) 3 × 10–6 (b) 3 × 10–5 (c) 3 × 10–8 (d) 3 × 10–7 4+
111. Ti is isoelectronic with -
100. The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression
(a) Mn4+ (b) Cl– (c) Cr3+ (d) V3+
R = k [A] [B]. If the volume of the vessel is suddenly reduced
112. Which of the following ions would be paramagnetic?
to 1/4 of initial volume, new rate relating to original rate will
(a) Zn2+ (b) Cu2+ (c) Sc3+ (d) None of these
be
113. Most common oxidation state foCe (Cerium) are :
(a) 1/10 (b) 1/8 (c) 8 (d) 16
(a) +3, +4 (b) +2, +3 (c) +2, +4 (d) +3, +5
101. Which graph represents zero order reaction [A (g) → B (g)] :
2+
114. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe (At. no. Fe = 26)
(a) (b)
ions are :
d[ A ]
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
[B] dt 115. Across the lanthanide series, the basicity of the lanthanoide
hydroxides :
t t
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) First increases and then decreases (d) Does not change
116. Lanthanoid and actinides resemble in : 128. Which of the following d- block element has half filled
(a) Electronic configuration (b) Oxidation state penultimate as well as valence subshell?
(c) Ionization energy (d) Formation of complexes (a) Cu (b) Au (c) Ag (d) Cr
117. Transition metals :
(a) Exhibit only diamagnetism 129. Arrange the following order in increasing order of magnetic
(b) Undergo inert pair effect moment -
(c) Do not form alloys (a) [Mn(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]4–
(d) Show variable oxidation states (b) [Fe(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]4–< [Mn(CN)6]3–
118. The aqueous solution of the following salts will be coloured in (c) [Fe(CN)6]4–< [Fe(CN)6]3–< [Mn(CN)6]3–
the case of : (d) [Fe(CN)6]4–< [Mn(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]3–
(a) Zn (NO3)2 (b) LiNO3 130. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(c) Co(NO3)2 (d) Potash alum (a) On heating potassium dichromate, the gas evolved is
119. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition oxygen
metals is associated with their catalytic activity? (b) Compounds of La+3 are diamagnetic
(a) Colour of hydrated ions. (c) Nd+3 has greater tendency to form complex compounds than
(b) Variable oxidation states. Eu+3
(c) High enthalpy of atomization. (d) Sm+2 acts as reducing agent
(d) Paramagnetic behaviour. 131. The atomic numbers of V,Cr,Mn and Fe are respectively
120. Zn and Cd do not show variable valency like 'd' block elements 23,24,25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have
due to - the highest second ionization enthalpy?
(a) Softness (a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) V
(b) Completely filled 'd' orbital 132. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statement
(c) Twoelectrons in outermostorbit is not correct?
(d) Lowmeltingpoint (a) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with
121. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lanthanoide. increasing atomic number in the series.
Which of the following statement about cerium is incorrect? (b) All the member exhibit +3 oxidation state.
(a) The common oxidation state of cerium are +3 and +4. (c) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids
(b) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than +4 is not easy.
oxidation state. (d) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of
(c) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solution. compounds in +4 state for all the members of the series.
(d) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent. 133. Four successive members of the first row transition elements
122. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that are listed below with atomic numbers. Which one of them is
0
(a) Zr and Y have about the same radius expected to have the highest E M3+ / M 2+ value?
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state (a) Cr(Z = 24) (b) Mn(Z = 25)
(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius (c) Fe(Z = 26) (d) Co(Z = 27)
(d) Zr and Zn have same oxidation state. 134. Which forms interstitial compounds?
123. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the main (a) Fe (b) Co (c) Ni (d) All
cause of lanthanide contraction? 135. In dilute alkaline solution, MnO4– changes to :
(a) Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons
(b) Poorer shielding of 5d electron by 4f electrons (a) MnO42– (b) MnO2 (c) Mn2O3 (d) MnO
(c) Effective shielding of one of 4f electrons by another in the 136. Which of the following transition metal ions has the lowest
sub-shell density?
(d) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in the sub- (a) Copper (b) Nickel (c) Scandium (d) Zinc
shell.
124. Knowing that the Chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated 137. Arrange the following order in increasing order of magnetic
by its +3 oxidation state, which of the following statement is moment -
incorrect? (a) [Mn(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]4–
(a) The ionic sizes of Ln (III) decrease in general with (b) [Fe(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]4–< [Mn(CN)6]3–
increasing atomic number. (c) [Fe(CN)6]4–< [Fe(CN)6]3–< [Mn(CN)6]3–
(b) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless. (d) [Fe(CN)6]4–< [Mn(CN)6]3–< [Fe(CN)6]3–
(c) Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character 138. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(d) Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions the bonding in (a) On heating potassium dichromate, the gas evolved is
its compounds is predominently ionic in character. oxygen
125. The outer electron configuration of Lu (Atomic No : 71) is : (b) Compounds of La+3 are diamagnetic
(a) 4f3 5d5 6s2 (b) 4f8 5d0 6s2 (c) Nd+3 has greater tendency to form complex compounds than
Eu+3
(c) 4f4 5d4 6s2 (d) 4ƒ14 5d1 6s2 (d) Sm+2 acts as reducing agent
126. The transition elements have a general electronic configuration 139. The atomic numbers of V,Cr,Mn and Fe are respectively
:
23,24,25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have
(a) ns2np6nd1–10 the highest second ionization enthalpy?
(b) (n – 1) d1 – 10 ns0 – 2np0 – 6 (a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) V
(c) (n – 1) d 1 – 10 ns 1 – 2 140. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statement
(d) None. is not correct?
127. Which of the following transition element shows the highest (a) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with
oxidation state : increasing atomic number in the series.
(a) Mn (b) Fe (c) V (d) Cr (b) All the member exhibit +3 oxidation state.
 (c) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids three ion in one formula unit. Treatment with AgNO3 produces
is not easy. no precipitate of AgCl. What is the co-ordination number of Pt
(d) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of in this complex?
compounds in +4 state for all the members of the series. (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3
141. Four successive members of the first row transition elements 156. The complex [Cr(H O) Br ]Cl gives the test for :
2 4 2
are listed below with atomic numbers. Which one of them is
0 3+ (a) Br – (b) Cl – (c) Cr3+ (d) Br– and Cl– both
expected to have the highest E M / M 2+ value? 157. Which of the following complexes produces three moles of
(a) Cr(Z = 24) (b) Mn(Z = 25) silver chloride when its one mole is treated with excess of silver
(c) Fe(Z = 26) (d) Co(Z = 27) nitrate?
142. Which forms interstitial compounds? (a) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3] (b) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl
(a) Fe (b) Co (c) Ni (d) All
(c) [Cr(H O) Cl]Cl (d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
143. In dilute alkaline solution, MnO4– changes to : 2 5 2
158. The number of chloride ions which would be precipitated when
(a) MnO42– (b) MnO2 (c) Mn2O3 (d) MnO the complex PtCl4.4NH3 is treated with silver nitrate is:(here
144. Which of the following transition metal ions has the lowest coordination number of platinum is 6).
density? (a) Four (b) One (c) Three (d) Two
(a) Copper (b) Nickel (c) Scandium (d) Zinc 159. The complexes [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl6] and [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4]
are :
145. Co-ordination compounds have great importance in biological (a) Linkage isomers (b) Optical isomers
systems. In this context, which statement is incorrect? (c) Co-ordination isomers (d) Ionisation isomers
(a) Carboxypeptidase–A is an enzyme and contains zinc. 2+
(b) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron. 160. The complex [Fe(H O)
2 5 NO] is formed in the brown ring
(c) Cyanocobalmin is B12 and contains cobalt. test for nitrates when freshly prepared FeSO4 solution is added
(d) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain to aqueous solution of NO3– ions followed by addition of conc.
calcium H2SO4. Select correct statement about this complex.
146. The correct order of magnetic moments (only spin value in
BM) among is : (a) Hybridisation of iron is sp3d2.
(b) Iron has +1 oxidation state.
(a) Fe(CN)64–> [CoCl4]2–> [MnCl4]2– (c) It has magnetic moment of 3.87 B. M. confirming three
(b) [MnCl4]2–> [Fe(CN)6]4–> [CoCl4]2– unpaired electrons in Fe.
(d) All the above are correct statements.
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4–> [MnCl4]2–> [CoCl4]2– 161. Which among the following complexes is diamagnetic?
(d) [MnCl4]2–> [CoCl4]2–> [Fe(CN)6]4– (a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b) [CoF6]3–
(c) Ni(CO)4 (d) [CuCl4]2–
+
147. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2] is : 162. Which of the following is not optically active ?
(a) 0 (b) +1 (c) +2 (d) +3 (a) [Co(en)3]3+ (b) [Cr(ox)3]3–
+
148. Which of the following will show optical isomerism? (c) Cis-[CoCl2(en)2] (d) Trans-[CoCl2(en)2]+
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (b) [ZnCl4]2– 163. In the coordination compound K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation
state of nickel is :
(c) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (d) [Co(CN)6]3–
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (c) + 1 (d) + 2
149. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules 164. Which one is an outer orbital complex?
are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ion? (a) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (b) [Mn(CN)6]4–
(a) Six (b) Three (c) One (d) Two
150. Which one of the following has a square planar geometry? (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(a) [NiCl4]2– (b) [PtCl4]2– (c) [CoCl4]2– (d) [FeCl4]2– 165. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at no.
27), will the magnitude of D0 be the highest?
151. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element
'E' in the complex [E(en)2(C2O4)] NO2 (when 'en' is ethylene (a) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (b) [Co(H2O)6]3+
diamine) are, respectively, (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Co(CN)6]3–
(a) 4 and 2 (b) 4 and 3 (c) 6 and 3 (d) 6 and 2
2–
152. Which among the following will be named as dibromidobis 166. The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiCl4] is :
(ethylene diamine) chromium (III) bromide? (a) 1.82 BM (b) 5.46 BM
(a) [Cr (en)3]Br3 (b) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br (c) 2.82 BM (d) 1.41 BM
(c) [Cr(en)Br4] – (d) [Cr(en)Br2]Br 167. In the complex [CoCl 2 (en)2 ]Br, the co-ordination number and
153. Which of the following complex species is not expected to oxidation state of cobalt are :
exhibit optical isomerism? (a) 6 and +3 (b) 3 and +3
(c) 4 and +2 (d) 6 and +1
(a) [Co(en)3]3+ (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ 168. The formula of the complex tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III)
sulphate is :
(c) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (d) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+
(a) [Co(en)2SO4] (b) [Co(en)3SO4]
154. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic
(c) [Co(en)3]2SO4 (d) [Co(en)3]2SO4
conductivity?
(a) K4 [Fe(CN6] (b) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3 169. A complex of platinum, ammonia and chloride produces four
ions per molecule in the solution. The structure consistent with
(c) [Cu(NH3)4] Cl2 (d) [Ni (CO)4]
the observation is:
155. A co-ordination complex has the formula PtCl4.2KCl. (a) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
Electrical conductance measurements indicate the presence of
 (c) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (a) Dichloromethane (b) 1,2-dichloroethane
170. Low spin complex is formed by : (c) Ethylidene chloride (d) Allyl chloride
(a) sp3d2 hybridization (b) sp3d hybridization 10. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction
(c) d2sp3 hybridization (d) sp3 hybridization most readily?
171. Cis-trans isomerism is found in square planar complexes of (a) (CH 3 )3 C − F (b) (CH 3 )3 C − Cl
molecular formula ('a' and 'b' are monodentate ligands) :
(a) Ma4 (b) Ma3b (c) Ma2b2 (d) Mab3 (c) (CH 3 )3 C − Br (d) (CH 3 )3 C − I
11. Which of the following compounds can yield only one
172. Both geometrical and optical isomerism are shown by :
monochlorinated product upon free radical chlorination?
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (a) 2,2-Dimethylpropane (b) 2-Methylpropane
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (d) [Cr(OX) ]3–
3 (c) 2-Methylbutane (d) n- Butane
12. Butane nitrile can be prepared heating.
173. Which of the following is correct value of x in Cr(CO)x ?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (a) Propyl alcohol with KCN
(d) unpredictable
174. One mole of Co(NH3)5Cl3 gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution
(b) Butyl chloride with KCN
in water. One mole of this reacts with two moles of AgNO 3 to
(c) Butyl alcohol with KCN
give two moles of AgCl. The complex is : (d) Propyl chloride with KCN.
(a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.NH3 (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2.NH3
13. Methyl bromide reacts with AgF to give methyl fluoride and
(c) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3].2NH3 silver bromide, this reaction is called.
(a) Fittig reaction (b) Swarts reaction
PART-2 (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Finkelstein reaction
1. Elimination of HBr from B-bromobutane result in the 14. Grignard reagents are formed by the reaction of alkyl halides
formation of : by warming.
(a) Predominantly B-butyne (a) With alcoholic solution (b) With MgCl 2
(b) Predominantly 1-butene
(c) Predominantly 2-butene (c) Mg in presence of dry ether (d) With MgCO 3
(d) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene 15. Among the choices of alkyl bromide, the last reactive bromide
in S N 2 reaction is
2. What is DDT among the following :
(a) Greenhouse gas (b) A fertilizer (a) 1-Bromopentane (b) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(c) Biodegradable pollutan t (d) Non-biodegradable pollutant (c) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane (d) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane.
3. Consider the following reaction. 16. On treating a mixture of tow alkyl halides with sodium metal
SOCl in dry ether, 2-methylpropane was obtained, the alkyl halides
⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ 2
→ are.
ether (a) 2-Chloropropane and chloromethane
(b) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
(c) Chloromethane and chloroethane
In the above reaction which phenomenon will take place (d) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane
(a) Inversion (b) Retention 17. 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane on reaction with alc. KOH gives X
(c) Racemisation (d) Isomerisation as the product. X is
16. Which of the following is not an allylic halide? (a) But-2-ene (b) 2-methylbut-1-ene
(a) 4- Bromopent – 2 – ene (c) 2-methyloprop-1-ene (d) 2-methylbutan -2-ol.
(b) 3- bromo -2- methylbut -1-ene 18. Cyanide ions acts as an ambident nucleophile. From which end
(c) 1-Bromobut -2- ene it acts as a stronger nucleophile in aqueous medium?
(d) 4-bromobut -1-ene (a) It acts as a stronger nucleophile from carbon end.
5. Which of the following is a primary halide? (b) It acts as a stronger nucleophile from nitrogen end.
(a) Iso-propyliodide (b) Sec-Butyliodide (c) It depends on the nature of the alky halide
(c) Ter-butylbromide (d) Neo-Hexylchloride (d) It has same strength from both the ends.
19. An organic halogen compound which is used as refrigerant in
refrigerators and air conditioners is
6. The IUPAC name of the compound is (a) BHC (b) CCl 4 (c) Freon (d) CHCl 3
(a) 1-fluoro-4-methyl -2-nitrobenzene 20. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III)
(b) 4-fluoro-1-methyl -3-nitrobenzene chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction
(c) 4-methyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene is
(a) Electrophilic elimination reaction
(d) 2-fluoro-5-methyl -1-nitrobenzene
(b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
7. Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
(a) CH 3Cl (b) CH 2 Cl 2 (c) CHCl 3 (d) CCl 4 (c) Free radical addition reaction
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
8. Which of the following compounds will have highest melting
21. The position of –Br in the compound in
points.
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) o-Dichlorobenzene CH 3CH = CHC (Br )(CH 3 ) 2 can be classified as________.
(c) m- Dichlorobenzene (d) p- Dichorobenzene. (a) Allyl (b) Ary (c) Vinyl (d) Secondary
9. Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide? 22. Ethylidene chloride is a/an__________
 (a) Vic - dihalide (b) Gem-dihalide
⎯⎯ SOCl
⎯⎯ 2
→
(c) Allylic halide (d) Vinylic halide
ether
23. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the
following compounds.
1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, Butane
(a) Butane<1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobuatane <1-Iodobutane In the above reaction which phenomenon will take place
(b) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobuatane < 1-Chlorobuatne < (a) Inversion (b) Retention
Butane (c) Racemisation (d) Isomerisation
(c) Butane < 1-Idobutane < 1-Bromobutane< 1-Chlorobutane 33. Which of the following has lowest solubility in water ?
(d) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1- Idobutane < 1- (a) CH3CH2CH2OH (b) CH3 − C HCH 2 OH
|
Bromobuatane CH3
(c) HOCH2 – CH2OH (d) C6H5CH2CH2OH
24. Sec. Butyl chloride will undergo alkaline hydrolysis in the
polar solvent by 34. The C − O − C angle in either is about
(a) SN2 (b) SN1 (c) SN1 and SN2 (d) None (a) 180º (b) 190º 28' (c) 110º (d) 105º
25. Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 35. The reaction between phenol and chloroform in the presence of
reactivity? aqueous NaOH is
(a) RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX (a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophilic addition reaction
(b) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
(c) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(c) R3CX > R2CHX > RCH2X
(d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(d) R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X
36. Tertiary butyl alcohol gives tertiary butyl chloride on treatment
26. From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react with
fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2, is
(a) Conc. HCl/anyhydrous ZnCl 2 (b) KCN
(a) 2-Butanol (b) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(c) 2-Methylpropanol (d) 1-Butanol (c) NaOCl (d) Cl2
27. DDT is-
37. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of glucose to
(a) Biodegradable pollutant
ethanol is
(b) Non degradable contaminant
(a) Invertase (b) Zymase (c) Maltase (d) Diastase
(c) Air pollutant
(d) An antibiotic 38. IUPAC name of m-cresol is
28. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution (a) 3-methylphenol (b) 3-chlorophenol
reactions as compared to alkyl halides due to (c) 3-methoxyphenol (d) Benzene-1,3-diol.
(a) Formation of a less stable carbonium ion in aryl halides. 39. Phenol is less acidic than
(b) Resonance stabilization in aryl halides (a) Ethanol (b) o-nitrophenol
(c) Presence of double bonds in alkyl halides (c) o- methylphenol (d) o-methoxyphenol
(d) Inductive effective in aryl halides. 40. Which of the following are the products shown by the reaction
29. Identify (Z) in the following reaction series, of methoxyethane with HI?
C2 H5 I ⎯Alcoholic
⎯⎯⎯→(X) ⎯Br
⎯→
2
(Y) ⎯
⎯→(Z) (a) C 2 H 5 I + CH3OH (b) CH3I + H 2 O
KOH
(c) C 2 H 5OH + H 2 O (d) C 2 H 5OH + Cl3I
(a) CH 3 − CH 2 − CN (b) C H 2 − C H 2
| |
CN CN
41. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the
following reaction?
(c) C H 2 − C H 2 (d) C H = C H
|
Br
|
CN
|
Br
|
CN
R − OH + HCl ⎯⎯ ⎯→ R − Cl + H 2 O
ZnCl 2

30. Chloroform is kept in dark coloured bottles because (a) 1º  2º  3º (b) 1º  2º  3º

(a) It reacts with clear glass (c) 3º  2º  1º (d) 3º  1º  2º
(b) It undergoes chlorination in transparent glass bottles
(c) It is oxidized to poisonous gas, phosgene in sunlight 42. When aldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a
(d) It starts burning when exposed to sunlight. precipitate of
31. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction (a) Cu (b) CuO (c) Cu2O (d) Cu + Cu2O + CuO
CH3CH2CH2CH3 ⎯
⎯→ CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl + CH3CH2CHClCH3 43. Aldol condensation is not given by
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3
(a) Cl 2 / UV light (c) CH3CH2CHO (d) HCHO
(b) NaCl + H 2SO 4 44. The strongest acid among the following is –
(a) CF3COOH (b) CCl3COOH
(c) Cl 2 gas in dark (c) CBr3COOH (d) CH3COOH
Re d P + Br2
(d) Cl 2 gas in the presence of iron in dark 45. CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
CH3 − CH 2 − C H − COOH This reaction is called
32. Consider the following reaction. |
Br
(a) Cannizzaro reaction
 (b) Schmit reaction 57. 2-pentanone can be distinguished from 3- pentanone by the
(c) Hell Volhard Zelinsky reaction reagent?
(d) Reimer tiemann reaction (a) 2, 4- Dinitrophenyl hydrazine (b) Tollen's reagent
46. The oxidation of toluene to benzadehyde by chromyl chloride (c) I2 and dilute NaOH (d) NaHSO3
is called.
(a) Etard reaction (b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction 58. C6H5COOH + CH3MgI ⎯⎯→ ?
(c) Wurtz-reaction (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction. (a) C6H5COOMgI (b) CH4
47. Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro (c) Both A & B (d) None
reaction? 59. Iodoform can be prepared from all except :
(a) CH 3 CHO (b) CH 3 COCH3 (a) Ethyl methyl ketone (b) Isopropyl alcohol
(c) 3–Methyl–2–butanone (d) Isobutyl alcohol
(c) C 6 H 5 CHO (d) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CHO 60. Which of the following gives positive iodo form test and
positive Fehling’s solution test?
48. Benzoyl chloride on reduction with H 2 / Pd − BaSO 4 (a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde
Produces (c) Ethanol (d) Formaldehyde
(a) Benzoci acid (b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Benzoyl sulphate (d) Benzaldehyde. 61. Which one of the following method is neither meant for the
49. Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzaro’s synthesis nor for separation of amines?
reaction? (a) Hinsberg method (b) Hofmann method
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpropanal (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Curtius reaction
62. Secondary amines can be prepared by.
(c) p-Methoxybenzxaldehyde (d) 2,2-Dimethylpropanal
(a) Reduction of nitro compounds. (b) Reduction of amides.
50. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and
(c) Reduction of isonitriles (d) Rduction of nitriles.
benzaldehyde is _________.
(a) Sodium Hydrogensulphite (b) Phenyl hydrazine 63. Which of the following amides will give ethylamine on
reaction with sodium hypobromide?
(c) Fehling’s solution (d) Grignard reagent
(a) Butanamide (b) Propanamite
51. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?
(c) Acetamide (d) Benzamide
(a) Phenyl acetaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpentanal
64. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel–phthalimide
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) 1-Phenylpropanone
synthesis is.
52. Which of the following compounds does not reacts with (a) Aniline (b) Benzyl amine
NaHSO3 ? (c) Methyl amine (d) iso – butylamine
(a) HCHO (b) C 6 H 5 COCH3 65. Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by.
(a) Br2 / KOH (b) HClO (c) HNO2 (d) NH 3
(c) CH 3 COCH3 (d) CH 3 CHO
66. Which of the following can exist as zwitter ion?
53. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their (a) P – Aminoacetophenone (b) Sulphanilic acid
reactivity in nucleophilic additioni reactions.
(a) Butanone < Propanone < Butanone < Ethanal (c) P – Nitroaminobenzene (d) P – Methoxyphenol
(b) Propanone < Propanone < Propanal > Propanal 67. Primary amines react with benzyol chloride to give
(a) Benzamides (b) Ethanamides (c) Imides (d) Imines
(c) Propanal < Ethanal < Propanone < Butanone
68. Which of the following compounds cannot be identified by
(d) Ethanal < Propanal < Propanone < Butanone carbylamines test?
54. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are (a) CH3CH 2 NH2 (b) (CH3 ) 2 CHNH 2
(a) Ethanal only (b) Ethanal and methanal
(c) Propanal and methanol (d) Methanal only (c) C6 H5 NH2 (d) C6 H5 NHC6 H5
55. Which of the following compound will undergo self aldol
condensation in the presence of cold diluted alkali? 69. Which of the following has highest pK b value?
(a) CH  C − CHO (b) CH 2 = CHCHO (a) (CH3 )3 CNH2 (b) NH3
(c) C 6 H 5 CHO (d) CH 3 CH 2 CHO (c) (CH3 ) 2 NH (d) CH3 NH2
70. Primary and secondary amines react with acid chloride or acid
O anhydride to form
|| (a) Tertiaryammonium salts (b) Substituted amides
H O+
56. CH3MgBr + CH2 = CH – C – H ⎯⎯3 ⎯→ X. X is
(c) Diazonium salts (d) Nitro compounds
71. The action of nitrous acid on aliphatic primary amine gives.
(a) Secondary amine (b) Nitroalkane
(c) Alcohol (d) Alkyl nitrite
72. The coupling reaction of aryldiazonium chloride with aniline
(a) are carried out in
(a) Strongly acidic medium (b) Strongly basic medium
(c) Mild basic medium (d) Mild acidic medium
(b) 73. Which of the following is a 3º amine?
(c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO (a) 1-Methylcyclohexylamine (b) Triethylamine
(d) None is correct (c) Tert-Butylamine (d) N-Methylaniline
74. The correct IUPAC name for CH2 = CHCH 2 NHCH3 is (d) The aqueous solution of these salts are poor conductors of
(a) Allylmethylamine (b) 2-amino-4-pentene electricity.
(c) 4-aminopent-1-ene (d) N-Methylprop-2-en-1-amine 86. Which of the following reagent would not be a good choice for
reducing an aryl nitro compound to an amine?
75. Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Fe and HCl
gives (a) H 2 ( excess ) / Pt (b) LiAlH 4 in ether
(a) Aromatic oxime (b) Aromatic hydrocarbon (c) Fe and HCl (d) Sn and HCl
(c) Aromatic primary amine (d) Aromatic amide
87. Methylamine reacts with HNO2 to form
76. When excess of ethyl iodide is treated with ammonia, the (a) CH 3 − O − N = 0 (b) CH3 − O − CH3
product is.
(a) Ethylamine (b) Diethylamine (c) CH 3OH (d) CH 3 CHO
(c) Triethylamine (d) Tetraethylammonium iodide. +
88. The reaction Ar N 2 Cl − ⎯⎯ ⎯→ ArCl + N 2 + CuCl is
Cu / HCl
77. Which of the following amines will give carbylamines
reaction? named as ________.
(a) (C 2 H 5 )3 N (b) (C 2 H 5 )2 NH
(a) Sandmeyer reaction (b) Gatterrman reaction
(c) Claisen reaction (d) Carbylamine reaction
(c) C 2 H 5 NH 2 (d) C 3 H 7 NHC 2 H 5 89. Which of the following compounds will not undergo azo
78. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) Aniline (b) Phenol (c) Anisole (d) Nitrobenzene
basicity: CH3 NH2 , (CH3 ) 2 NH, NH3 , C6 H 5 NH2
(a) C 6 H 5 NH 2  NH3  (CH3 )2 NH  CH 3 NH 2 90. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives

(b) CH3 NH 2  (CH3 )2 NH  NH3  C 6 H 5 NH 2

(a) D-fructose (b) D-ribose (c) D-glucose (d) L-glucose
91. Hydrolysis of sucrose into (+) glucose and (-) fructose is known
(c) C 6 H 5 NH2  NH3  CH3 NH 2  (CH3 )2 NH
as
(a) Muta rotation (b) Inversion
(d) (CH 3 )2 NH  CH3 NH 2  NH3  C 6 H 5 NH 2 (c) Pyrolysis (d) None of these
92. The letter D in D-glucose signifies
79. Which of the following will from isocyanide on reaction with (a) Dextro rotator (b) Mode of synthesis
CHCl 3 and KOH? (c) Its configuration (d) Its diamagnetic nature
93. The sugar present in DNA is :
(a) C 6 H 5 NHCH 3 (b) CH 3C 6 H 4 NH 2 (a) Glucose (b) Deoxyribose (c) Ribose (d) Fructose
(c) C 6 H 5 NHC 4 H 9 (d) C 6 H 5 N(C 2 H 5 )2 94. The pentose sugar in DNA and RNA has the :
(a) Open chain structure (b) Pyranose structure
80. Which of the following is used as hindsberg’s reagent? (c) Furanose structure (d) None of the above
(a) C6 H 5SO 2 Cl (b) C 6 H 5SO 3 H 95. Invert sugar is
(a) A type of cane sugar
(c) C 6 H 5 NHCH 3 (d) C 6 H 5 COCH3 (b) Optically inactive form of sugar
81. Electrophilic substitution of aniline with bromine water at (c) Mixture of glucose and galactose
room temperature gives. (d) Mixture of glucose and fructose in equimolar quantities.
(a) 2- bromoaniline (b) 3 – bromoaniline 96. Which of the following compounds is found abundantly in
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromonaniline (d) 3, 5, 6 - tribromoaniline. nature?
82. The most basic amine among the following is. (a) Fructose (b) Starch (c) Glucose (d) Cellulose
97. Glycosidic linkage is an
(a) Amide linkage (b) Ester linkage
(c) Ether linkage (d) Acetyl linkage
98. Starch is composed of two polysaccharides which are
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Amylopectin and glycogen (b) Amylose and glycogen
83. The reaction of bezenesulphonyl chloride with ethylamine (c) Amylose and amylopectin (d) Cellulose and glycogen
yields. 99. Maltose is made up of
(a) N-ethylbenzenesulphonamide, insoluble in alkali (a) Two  -D-glucose (b) Normal  -D-glucose
(b) N, N-diethylbenzenesulphonamide, soluble in alkali (c)  - and  − D – glucose (d) Fructose
(c) N, N-diethylbezenesulphonamide, insoluble in alkali.
100. What is the basic formula is starch?
(d) N-ethylbenzenesulhonamide, soluble in alkali.
(a) (C 6 H12O 6 ) n (b) (C6 H10O5 ) n
84. Among the following the weakest base is
(a) CH3 NHCHO (b) C6 H5CH2 NH2 (c) C12H22O11 (d) (C6 H12O 4 ) n

(c) NO2CH2 NH2 (d) C6 H5CH2 NHCH3 101. What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose?
(a) Fructose + Fructose (b) Glucose + Glucose
85. Which of the following is not a property of diazonium slats? (c) Glucose + Galactose (d) Glucose + Fructose
(a) Diazonium salts are colourless crystalline solids.
102. Carbohydrates are stored in human body as the
(b) Being ionic in nature they are soluble in water. Polysaccharide
(c) Most of these slats explode when dried. (a) Starch (b) Glycogen (c) Cellulose (d) Amylose
103. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar? (a) Cn H2n+1O (b) Cn H2n O (c) C x (H 2 O) y (d) Cn (H 2O) 2n
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Maltose (d) Lactose
125. Amino acid generally exists in the form of Zwitter ions. This
104. The anomeric carbon in D(+) glucose is means they contains
(a) C – 1 carbon (b) C – 2 carbon
(a) Basic − NH 2 group and acidic – COOH group
(c) C – 5 carbon (d) C – 6 carbon
+
105. Glucose ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ Product is
Br water −
(b) The basic − N H 3 group and acidic − COO Group
2

(a) Hexanoic acid (b) Gluconic acid

(c) Sacccharic acid (d) Bromohexane (c) Basic − NH2 and acidic − H + group
106. How many C-atoms are there in a pyranose ring? +
−
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (d) Basic − COO group and acidic − N H 3 group.
107. Cellulose is a 126. Which of the following is not true about amino acid?
(a) Hexapolysaccharide (b) Pentapolysaccharide (a) They are constituents of all proteins.
(c) Tripolysaccharide (d) None of these (b) Alanine having one amino and one carboxylic group.
108. Globular proteins are present in (c)Most naturally occurring amino acids have D –
(a) Blood (b) Eggs (c) Milk (d) All of these configurations.
109. Which of the amino acids can be synthesized in the body? (d) Glycine is the only naturally occurring amino acid which is
(a) Alanine (b) Lysine (c) Valine (d) Histidine
optically inactive.
110. Proteins are condensations polymers of
(a)  − amino acids (b) − amino acid 127. Denaturation of protein leads to loss of its biological activity
by
(c)  − hydroxyl acids (d)  − hydroxyl acids (a) Formations of amino acids
111. Which of the following is an acidic amino acid? (b) Loss of primary structure
(a) Glycine (b) Valine (c) Leucine (d) Glutamic acid (c) Loss of both primary and secondary structure
112. Helical structure of protein is stabilized by (d) Loss of both secondary and tertiary structure.
(a) Peptide bond (b) Hydrogen bond 128. Vitamin A is present in
(c) Van der Waals force (d) Dipole associations (a) Fish liver oil (b) Milk (c) Butter (d) All of these
113. Keratin, a structural protein is present in 129. Which is a fat soluble vitamin?
(a) Hair (b) Wool (c) Silk (d) All of these (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B6
114. Which of the following is basic amino acid?
(a) Lysine (b) Proline (c) Alanine (d) Aspartic acid (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B2
115. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble? 130. The double helix structure of DNA was proposed by
(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin D (c) Riboflavin (d) Retinol (a) Har Gobind Khoorana (b) Watson and Crick
116. Vitamin B 2 , a water soluble vitamin is also known as (c) A.R. Todd (d) G.W. Kenner.
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Riboflavin 131. Which of the following polymer is stored in the liver of
(c) Thiamine (d) Pyridoxine animals?
(a) Amylose (b) Cellulose (c) Amylopectin (d) Glycogen
117. Vegetable oils like wheat germ oil, sunflower oil, etc are the
good sources of
(a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin A.
118. Deficiency of vitamin E causes
(a) Rickets (b) Scurvy
(c) Muscular weakness (d) Beri beri
119. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA?
(a) Thymine (b) Quinoline (c) Adenine (d) Cytosine
120. A unit in nucleic acid which contains ‘base-sugar phosphate’
units is called.
(a) Nucleotide (b) Nucleoside
(c) Phosphotide (d) Polypeptide
121. RNA is a
(a) Single helix strand
(b) Double helix strand
(c) Right hands twisted double helix strand
(d) Triple helix strand.
122. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
(a) Aspartic acid (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Adipic acid (d) Saccharic acid
123. During acetylations of glucose it needs x moledx of acetic
anhydride. The value of x would be
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 1
124. The general formula of carbohydrates is