1.

As a best practice, it is recommended to start with how many Availability Zones

per Region ?
Two

2. Which AWS service allows customers to centrally apply policy-based controls

across multiple accounts within the AWS Cloud ?
AWS Organizations

3. What are the benefits of AWS Organizations ?

An account management service that consolidates all of your AWS accounts and
Helps you better manage budgetary, security, and compliance needs.

4. Which of the following statements describes a private subnet ?

Is not directly accessible from the public internet and Does not have a routing
table entry to an internet gateway.

5. True or False ? Most AWS services reside in the Virtual Private Cloud (VPC).
False

6. Which statements describe the reason why fewer subnets of larger sizes are
preferred over higher numbers of subnets of smaller sizes ?
You are less likely to run out of IP addresses with fewer subnets, and Workload
placement is simplified with fewer subnets.

7. What type of subnet is not connected to an internet gateway, but allows indirect
access from the public internet via "jump boxes?"
Private

8. True or False? Virtual private cloud (VPC) network address translation (NAT)
gateways do not support port forwarding.
True

9. Which of the following statements are true about route tables?

Each subnet in a virtual private cloud (VPC) must be associated with a route
table, Each virtual private cloud (VPC) is given a route table by default when the
VPC is created, and Route tables can be shared between subnets.

10. True or false. A best practice is to use custom route tables for each subnet, which
enables granular routing for destinations.
True

11. Which describes the high availability factor of fault tolerance? The built-
in redundancy of an application's components.

12. Which services are inherently highly available?

 Amazon CloudFront, DynamoDB, and Simple Storage Service (S3)
13. Which type of load balancer would most benefit websites and mobile applications
that run containers on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances?
Application Load Balancer

14. True or False? An internal load balancer would distribute traffic to your Amazon
Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances from clients with access to the virtual
private cloud (VPC) for the load balancer
True

15. Which AWS service is highly available when there are at least two ports open,
and also allows for a connection from remote servers to the AWS Cloud at any
time?
AWS Direct Connect (DX)

16. True or False? Elastic Load Balancing is managed by AWS and scaled
automatically.
True

17. Which connections use a virtual private gateway in an Amazon Virtual Private
Cloud (VPC)?
AWS Direct Connect (DX) and Hardware virtual private network (VPN)

18. Which statement describes the purpose of simple routing with Amazon Route 53?
Distributes load to a single server

19. Which of the following are designed to be moved between Amazon Elastic
Compute Cloud (EC2) instances to enable higher availability?
Elastic IP addresses

20. What does enabling connection draining for a load balancer cause the load
balancer to do?
Stop sending new requests to the backend instances when those instances are
deregistering or become unhealthy.

21. Which AWS service can detect the total load that has exceeded the defined
threshold across multiple servers and provide an alarm, while supporting the best
practice of scalability?
Amazon CloudWatch

22. Statistics are metric data that is aggregated over specified periods of time. What
comprises these aggregations?
Data point, dimensions, namespace, and metric name

23. What actions can Amazon CloudWatch perform based on a defined metric that
has been exceeded?
 Scale an Auto Scaling group in or out, Send a message to Amazon Simple
Notification Service (Amazon SNS)., and Stop, terminate, reboot, or recover an
Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance.

24. True or False. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances are
immediately available for use once the OS has booted and status checks are
passed.
True

25. How are permissions granted for AWS Lambda to run code that can access the
AWS application programming interface (API) ?
AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles.

26. True or False. You want to avoid thrashing when you use Auto Scaling.
True

27. Which is true about Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?

It can automatically provision new instances with load balancers when specified,
and launch instances within the same Auto Scaling group across multiple
Availability Zones.

28. What part of Amazon Auto Scaling defines how to launch Amazon Elastic
Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances and defines which Amazon Machine
Image (AMI), instance type, security groups should be used?
Launch Configuration

29. What is the primary benefit of putting a cache in front of your Amazon
Relational Database Service (RDS) instance?
Increased speed of reads from your database

30. Which statement is the best example of a circumstance where an Amazon Elastic
Compute Cloud (EC2) instance could be replaced effectively with an AWS
Lambda function?
A small instance that is notified when an Amazon DynamoDB table is updated,
and responds with application programming interface (API) calls to DynamoDB.

31. Which service lets you drag and drop resources onto a design area to
automatically generate a JSON-formatted or YAML-formatted CloudFormation
template?
AWS CloudFormation Designer

32. True or False? Blue/green deployment on AWS Elastic Beanstalk provides a way
for you to test new hardware or applications without going fully into production.
True
33. Which part of an AWS CloudFormation template allows a customer to customize
things within the stack by passing a value to a template at runtime?
Parameter

34. True or False? A best practice associated with automation would include using
Amazon CloudWatch to detect an application server crash so that a new server
can be launched in parallel with notification to the administrator being sent.
True

35. Which AWS service provides configuration management services that can be
used as a lifecycle tool, and allows for an entire application's architecture to be
defined?
AWS OpsWorks

36. True or False? Templates must be created with a simple JavaScript Object
Notation (JSON) text editor.
False

37. Which other resource deployment and configuration automation options are
offered by AWS, in addition to Amazon CloudWatch?
Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) Run Command and AWS OpsWorks

38. What does the "Mappings" section in an AWS CloudFormation template do?
It allows you to customize a resource's properties based on specified conditions

39. What does the "Parameters" section in an AWS CloudFormation template do?
Contains a list of attributes that can define default values and allowed values.

40. Which AWS CloudFormation asset specifies that a resource must wait to be
created until after another resource has been created?
DependsOn attribute

41. Which statements describe a service-oriented architecture (SOA)?

Implementation details (such as operating system, language, or location) become
irrelevant, It loosens the coupling of an application's services, and It provides
services to other components via a communications protocol.

42. Which statements describe loose coupling?

Design architectures with interdependent components, Use managed solutions as
intermediaries between the layers of your system, and The change or failure in
one component does not affect the other components.

43. A customer wants to decouple components of a distributed application that might

not process the same amount of work simultaneously. Which use case for Amazon
Simple Queue Service (SQS) is described?
 Work Queues

44. True or False? A dead letter queue can sideline and isolate messages that could
not be processed for analysis out of band.
True
45. Which AWS service uses publishers and subscribers than can communicate with
a topic?
Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)

46. True or False? The best way to ensure that inter-service communication works
well in the long term is to use a middleware solution that unifies all of your
communications.
False

47. Which of the following statements about Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
are true?
Messages are stored redundantly on multiple servers and in multiple data
centers, and queues can be created in any Region.

48. What does the visibility timeout feature of Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
do?
It prevents multiple consumers from processing the same message at the same
time.

49. What is the benefit of using a dead-letter queue?

It separates unsuccessfully processed messages from unprocessed messages so
they can be inspected.

50. What is the maximum possible size of a single message sent through Amazon
Simple Notification Service (SNS)?
256 KB

51. Which AWS service is ideal for storing static assets from a website instead of
using an Amazon EC2 instance, and can eliminate the need to worry about
network loads and data capacity on a web server?
Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)

52. Which of the following options are responsibilities of a customer when a database
is hosted on Amazon Elastic compute Cloud (EC2)?
Application optimization and operating system patches

53. Which option describes an item that can be found within the Amazon DynamoDB
data model?
A collection of attributes
54. True or False? In a DynamoDB global table, the last write wins when two writes
are trying to reconcile between concurrent updates.
True

55. All of the following options are considerations when you select a database
solution, EXCEPT which one?
Minimum concurrent users to support

56. True or False? When choosing a Region for Amazon S3, you want to have
geographical proximity to your users.
True
57. Which is true about NoSQL databases?
They can process large amounts of data with high availability and they use
distributed fault tolerance.

58. Which would probably not be a good use case for a NoSQL database?
Customer orders

59. True or false? Amazon Aurora is compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL.
True

60. What is an Amazon CloudFront distribution?

A process that directs your Domain Name System (DNS) to your source content.

61. Which pillar of the Well-Architected Framework will deliver business value and
continually improve supporting processes and procedures?
Operational Excellence

62. Which pillar of the Well-Architected Framework will help recover from failures
and mitigate disruption?
Reliability

63. This pillar of the Well-Architected Framework delivers business value through
risk assessments, and mitigation strategies that protect assets and information.
Security

64. True or False? In the cloud, it is possible to automate and test on demand which
lowers the risk of impact from design changes.
True

65. What can the AWS Well-Architected Framework be used to do?

Evaluate architectures using a consistent set of principles

66. True or False? The AWS Well-Architected Framework provides implementation

details
 False

67. What are the main pillars of the Well-Architected Framework?

Security and Reliability

68. How can you easily create and replicate your systems in the AWS Cloud?
Use automation
69. True or False? An environment can be simulated at a fraction of the cost of
testing on premises.
True

70. In a traditional environment, when you make a capacity decision before you
deploy a system, you might end up with expensive idle resources or with the
performance implications of limited capacity. Which technique can help you
address this in a cloud-based environment?
Scale up and down automatically

71. Which AWS services can be used to create standards for workloads, and to
determine if an environment is compliant with defined standards before it goes
into production?
AWS Config and AWS Config Rules

72. Operational Excellence is supported by three best practices: Prepare, Operate,

and Evolve. Which AWS service(s) would best support the best practice of
Prepare?
AWS Config

73. All of the following statements support the best practice of Prepare, EXCEPT for
these two responses:
Include feedback loops and communicate current operating status of the business
through dashboards and Include feedback loops for procedures to identify areas
for improvement.

74. True or False? The best practice of Evolve can be supported through analyzing
trends for lessons learned, and performing cross-team retrospective analysis of
operations metrics.
True

75. Which factors should drive operational priorities in relation to the Operational
Excellence pillar?
Business needs, Compliance requirements, and Risk management

76. Which of the following options supports the Operational Excellence pillar, and
being ready to support a workload?
Checklists, Playbooks and Runbooks
77. Which of the following options is used to define the events and procedures that
are used within a workload?
Runbooks

78. True or False? To properly support a workload within the Operational

Excellence pillar, one needs to continuously experiment and evolve by acting on
opportunities to improve because change is constant.
True

79. True or False? Standards should be accessible, readily understood, and

measurable for compliance, but should also include a way for proposing changes
or requesting exceptions.
True

80. True or False? Required procedures should be adequately captured in runbooks

and playbooks to align with the best practice of Operate.
False

81. A customer decides to classify data into sensitivity levels, and use mechanisms
such as encryption and tokenization. Which security design principle is
described?
Protect data in transit and at rest.

82. All are AWS services that are key services for security in relation to data
protection, EXCEPT:
Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

83. True or False? A distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack attempts to make
your website unavailable to your end users.
True

84. For browsers that do not support SNI, what can you request in Amazon
CloudFront?
Dedicated IP Custom SSL

85. Which statements describe the responsibilities of the customer as part of the
shared responsibility model?
Evaluate soft limits and request increases ahead of time, and Front your
application with AWS services.

86. Which AWS service includes a regularly updated knowledge base of rules that
can be mapped to common security standards and vulnerability definitions?
Amazon Inspector

87. What does Amazon Inspector use to evaluate an application?

 Rules Packages

88. What can you request in Amazon CloudFront for browsers that do not support
Server Name Indication (SNI)?
Dedicated IP Custom SSL

89. What do you need to do when you configure an Amazon CloudFront distribution
to access an Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) private bucket?
Add trusted signers to your distribution, Create CloudFront key pairs for your
trusted signers, and Write the code that generates signed uniform resource
locators (URLs).

90. How many security groups can you assign to an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
(EC2) instance?
More than one

91. Which AWS key service is used to ensure reliability?

Amazon CloudWatch

92. Which architectural pattern has the highest recovery time objective (RTO) and
recovery point objective (RPO)?
Multi-site active-active

93. Which AWS service is key in providing a holistic view of how your workload is
performing, and ensuring reliability?
Amazon CloudWatch

94. Where should backups be stored when you use the pilot light architectural
pattern for disaster recovery?
Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)

95. True or False? Best practices for reliability include defining the recovery time
objective (RTO), the recovery point objective (RPO), and establishing a disaster
recovery strategy.
True

96. Which disaster recovery architectural pattern is best suited for low costs ?
Backup and Restore

97. Which disaster recovery architectural pattern has the highest upfront cost ?
Multi-site active-active

98. Which services fall under the category of change management ?

AWS CloudTrail and Config

99. Which service will help you monitor for sudden reliability issues ?
 Amazon CloudWatch

100. Which service will help you see an inventory of your AWS resources and
configurations ?
AWS Config

101. Which design principle for achieving performance efficiency uses an AWS
service, such as AWS Lambda, to remove the need to run and maintain servers ?
Use serverless architectures

102. Which AWS service is key for performance efficiency, and can trigger
actions to occur based on predefined thresholds ?
AWS Lambda

103. Which AWS service could improve efficiencies by offloading requests

from the main Database ?
Read Replicas in Amazon RDS

104. Which database option provides single-digit millisecond latency at any

scale?
Amazon DynamoDB

105. True or False? Amazon Kinesis Data Streams use the Amazon Kinesis
Client Library (KCL) to build applications, stream data to real-time dashboards,
and generate alerts.
True

106. Which types of data can Amazon Kinesis Data Streams continuously
capture and store?
Financial transactions, Social media feeds, Website clickstreams.

107. Which of the following services is considered a key service for managing
the space-time tradeoff component of the Performance Efficiency pillar?
Amazon CloudFront

108. Which of the following statements are keys to choosing the right Amazon
Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance size?
Avoid overprovisioning and underprovisioning, and Monitor your environment's
performance metrics.

109. Which is true about Amazon ElastiCache?

It can improve the latency of read-heavy workloads, It uses in-memory caching,
and You can monitor Amazon ElastiCache engine nodes via Amazon
CloudWatch.
 110. How do you monitor your instances, storage solutions, databases, and
proximity and caching solutions to ensure they are performing as
expected?
Use Amazon CloudWatch, Use alarm-based notifications to automatically
alert you, and Perform a periodic review of dashboards.

111. Which cost optimization design principle would allow a customer to save
on costs by stopping resources from running when they are not in use?
Adopt a consumption model

112. A customer needs per-second billing as an option. Which types of purchase

options do they have regarding instance type?
On-Demand Instances and Spot Instances

113. How long can a customer use AWS services within the AWS Free Tier after
they sign up for an account?
12 months

114. Which characteristic is shared between a Dedicated Instance and a

Dedicated Host ?
Automatic instance placement

115. True or False ? A customer has less infrastructure to maintain, scale, and pay for
when they optimize costs with caching by offloading popular traffic to
Amazon CloudFront and Amazon S3
True

116. Which option should users who have urgent computing needs for large
amounts of additional capacity use for optimizing costs ?
Spot instances

117. Which Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) pricing model should you
choose for applications with short-term, spiky, or unpredictable workloads that
cannot be interrupted ?
On-Demand Instances

118. True or False ? You can sell your unused Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
(EC2) Reserved Instances to other AWS customers in the AWS
Marketplace.
True

119. Which AWS services offer a Reserved Instance pricing model ?

Amazon RDS and EC2

120. How would you improve performance and cost for frequently accessed
data through Amazon Relational Database Service ? (RDS)
 Amazon ElastiCache

121. What is the first step that should be completed when you troubleshoot an
instance connection that timed out ?
Check your routes.

122. What port must be open for Linux instances in order to enable remote
control via Secured Shell (SSH) for Linux ?
22

123. What port must be open for Windows instances in order to enable remote
control via Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for Windows ?
3389

124. What is the first troubleshooting step that should be completed when I/O
to Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) is too low ?
Review the instance and Amazon EBS types

125. True or False ? When a customer is denied access to an AWS service, they
should fist check to see if they have permissions to call that action on that
resource.
True

126. Which AWS services have resource-based policies ?

Amazon SNS, S3, and SQS

127. Which statement describes what the AWS Support Concierge service
provides ?
Direct access to an agent to help optimize costs to identify underused resources.

128. True or False ? Infrastructure Event Management provides proactive

guidance and insight into ways you can optimize AWS through business and
performance reviews
False

129. Which of the following options are recommended for solving situations
where network performance is poort ?
Consider using an instance type with enhanced networking if you are not already
using one, and Consider using Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) endpoints.

130. Which Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) volume type has the highest
maximum IOPS ?
Provisioned IOPS Solid State Drive (SSD)
131. Case Study : An application's traffic does not scale organically, but has
huge humps at specific periods of the day, or for an event. What is the best
solution ?
Use Scaling by Schedule or Scaling by Policy.

132. What programming language is Hadoop written in ?

Java

133. True or False ? Hadoop has a distributed architecture, and it can handle
tremendous amounts of data.
True

134. Which of the following statements align with the stream processing ?

Monitor issues immediately, such as real-time spending alerts and caps, and
Offer the customer real-time detection, such as block fraudulent use now

135. Which AWS service is a fully managed, petabyte-scale data warehouse

service that can provision in minutes, monitor query performance, and offers
built-in security ?
Amazon Redshift

136. Which statement describes what a Multi-AZ pattern involves ?

At least one instance in more than one Availability Zone that is behind a
load balancer.

137. Which statement describes what a floating IP pattern involves ?

Attaching an Elastic IP address to a backend instance, and swapping it to
a replacement instance if the original instance goes down.

138. Which statement describes the benefit of using scheduled scale out
patterns ?
It allows you to scale in advance of a traffic spike that you know will occur.

139. What is Amazon EMR designed for ?

Processing a query over a dataset, dividing it, and running it in parallel over
multiple nodes.

140. Which is best designed for real-time data processing over large distributed
data streams ?
Amazon Kinesis