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Fortinet NSE Vouchers & Dumps Are Available

The document provides information about Fortinet NSE vouchers and exam dumps, along with multiple-choice questions and answers related to FortiGate firewall configurations and features. It covers topics such as firewall policies, web filtering, IPS profiles, SSL VPN settings, and application control. The document emphasizes the availability of accurate and corrected dumps for exam preparation at a specified website.

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
251 views90 pages

Fortinet NSE Vouchers & Dumps Are Available

The document provides information about Fortinet NSE vouchers and exam dumps, along with multiple-choice questions and answers related to FortiGate firewall configurations and features. It covers topics such as firewall policies, web filtering, IPS profiles, SSL VPN settings, and application control. The document emphasizes the availability of accurate and corrected dumps for exam preparation at a specified website.

Uploaded by

dabbousi oussama
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
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Fortinet NSE Vouchers & Dumps are Available

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1-
Refer to the exhibit to view the firewall policy.

Which statement is correct if well-known viruses are not being blocked?

A. The firewall policy does not apply deep content inspection.

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B. The firewall policy must be configured in proxy-based inspection mode.

C. The action on the firewall policy must be set to deny.

D. Web filter should be enabled on the firewall policy to complement the antivirus profile.

Answer is B

2-
The HTTP inspection process in web filtering follows a specific order when multiple
features are enabled in the web filter profile.
What order must FortiGate use when the web filter profile has features enabled, such as
safe search?

A. DNS-based web filter and proxy-based web filter

B. Static URL filter, FortiGuard category filter, and advanced filters

C. Static domain filter, SSL inspection filter, and external connectors filters

D. FortiGuard category filter and rating filter

Answer is B

3-
Refer to the exhibit.

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Review the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) profile signature settings.


Which statement is correct in adding the FTP.Login.Failed signature to the IPS sensor
profile?

A. Traffic matching the signature will be silently dropped and logged.

B. The signature setting uses a custom rating threshold.

C. The signature setting includes a group of other signatures.

D. Traffic matching the signature will be allowed and logged.

Answer is A

4-
Which three pieces of information does FortiGate use to identify the hostname of the
SSL server when SSL certificate inspection is enabled? (Choose three.)

A. The subject field in the server certificate

B. The serial number in the server certificate

C. The server name indication (SNI) extension in the client hello message

D. The subject alternative name (SAN) field in the server certificate

E. The host field in the HTTP header

Answer is A,C,D

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5-
Refer to the exhibit.

The Root and To_Internet VDOMs are configured in NAT mode. The DMZ and Local
VDOMs are configured in transparent mode.
The Root VDOM is the management VDOM. The To_Internet VDOM allows LAN users
to access the internet. The To_Internet VDOM is the only VDOM with internet access
and is directly connected to ISP modem.
With this configuration, which statement is true?

A. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and Root VDOMs.

B. A default static route is not required on the To_Internet VDOM to allow LAN users to
access the internet.

C. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and DMZ VDOMs.

D. Inter-VDOM links are not required between the Root and To_Internet VDOMs because
the Root VDOM is used only as a management VDOM.

Answer is A

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6-
Which three statements about a flow-based antivirus profile are correct? (Choose
three.)

A. IPS engine handles the process as a standalone

B. Flow-based inspection uses a hybrid of scanning modes available in proxy-based


inspection.

C. If the virus is detected, the last packet is delivered to the client.

D. Optimized performance compared to proxy-based inspection.

E. FortiGate buffers the whole file but transmits to the client simultaneously.

Answer is: BDE

7-
Refer to the exhibit.

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An administrator is running a sniffer command as shown in the exhibit.


Which three pieces of information are included in the sniffer output? (Choose three.)

A. Interface name

B. IP header

C. Application header

D. Packet payload

E. Ethernet header

Answer is: ABD

8-
When a firewall policy is created, which attribute is added to the policy to support
recording logs to a FortiAnalyzer or a FortiManager and improves functionality when a
FortiGate is integrated with these devices?

A. Policy ID

B. Log ID

C. Universally Unique Identifier

D. Sequence ID

Answer is C

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9-Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the IPS sensor configuration.


If traffic matches this IPS sensor, which two actions is the sensor expected to take?
(Choose two.)

A. The sensor will block all attacks aimed at Windows servers.

B. The sensor will gather a packet log for all matched traffic.

C. The sensor will allow attackers matching the NTP.Spoofed.KoD.DoS signature.

D. The sensor will reset all connections that match these signatures.

Answer is A,C

10- Which two statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)

A. In flow-based inspection mode, FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously
transmits it to the client

B. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning,
before sending it to the client

C. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned

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D. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned

Answer is A,B

11- FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories. To


create a web rating override for example.com home page, the override must be
configured using a specific syntax.
Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating override for the home page?
(Choose two.)

A. www.exaple.com

B. www.example.com/index.html

C. example.com

D. www.example.com:443

Answer is A,C

12- Which three statements about a flow-based antivirus profile are correct? (Choose
three.)

A. IPS engine handles the process as a standalone

B. Flow-based inspection uses a hybrid of scanning modes available in proxy-based


inspection.

C. If the virus is detected, the last packet is delivered to the client.

D. Optimized performance compared to proxy-based inspection.

E. FortiGate buffers the whole file but transmits to the client simultaneously.

Answer is BDE

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13- Which two configuration settings are synchronized when FortiGate devices are in an
active-active HA cluster? (Choose two.)

A. NTP

B. DNS

C. FortiGate hostname

D. FortiGuard web filter cache

Answer is A,B

14- FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and is configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN)
subinterfaces added to the same physical interface.
In this scenario, what are two requirements for the VLAN ID? (Choose two.)

A. The two VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP
addresses in the same subnet.

B. The two VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different
VDOMs.

C. The two VLAN subinterfaces must have different VLAN IDs.

D. The two VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP
addresses in different subnets.

Answer is B,C

15- Which statement is correct regarding the use of application control for inspecting
web applications?

A. Application control can identify child and parent applications, and perform different
actions on them.

B. Application control signatures are organized in a nonhierarchical structure.

C. Application control does not require SSL inspection to identify web applications.

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D. Application control does not display a replacement message for a blocked web
application.

Answer is A

16- Refer to the exhibits.


Exhibit A.

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Exhibit B.

The exhibits show the SSL and authentication policy (Exhibit A) and the security policy
(Exhibit B) for Facebook.
Users are given access to the Facebook web application. They can play video content
hosted on Facebook but they are unable to leave reactions on videos or other types of
posts.
Which part of the policy configuration must you change to resolve the issue?

A. Add Facebook in the URL category in the security policy.

B. Additional application signatures are required to add to the security policy.

C. Force access to Facebook using the HTTP service.

D. The SSL inspection needs to be a deep content inspection.

Answer is D

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17- Which two settings are required for SSL VPN to function between two FortiGate
devices? (Choose two.)

A. The client FortiGate requires a manually added route to remote subnets.

B. The client FortiGate requires a client certificate signed by the CA on the server
FortiGate.

C. The server FortiGate requires a CA certificate to verify the client FortiGate certificate.

D. The client FortiGate requires the SSL VPN tunnel interface type to connect SSL VPN.

Answer is C,D

18- Which two protocols are used to enable administrator access of a FortiGate device?
(Choose two.)

A. SSH

B. HTTPS

C. FTM

D. FortiTelemetry

Answer is A,B

19- By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering
with FortiGuard servers.
Which CLI command will cause FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate
with FortiGuard servers for live web filtering?

A. set fortiguard-anycast disable

B. set webfilter-force-off disable

C. set webfilter-cache disable

D. set protocol tcp

Answer A

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20- By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering
with FortiGuard servers.
Which CLI command will cause FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate
with FortiGuard servers for live web filtering? (Choose two)

A. set fortiguard-anycast disable

B. set webfilter-force-off disable

C. set webfilter-cache disable

D. set protocol UDP

Answer A,D

21- Which engine handles application control traffic on the next-generation firewall
(NGFW) FortiGate?

A. Intrusion prevention system engine

B. Detection engine

C. Flow engine

D. Antivirus engine

Answer is A

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22- Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the ZTNA tag, the security posture of the remote endpoint has changed.
What will happen to endpoint active ZTNA sessions?

A. They will be re-evaluated to match the endpoint policy.

B. They will be re-evaluated to match the firewall policy.

C. They will be re-evaluated to match the ZTNA policy.

D. They will be re-evaluated to match the security policy.

Answer is C

23- Which two statements about FortiGate FSSO agentless polling mode are true?
(Choose two.)

A. FortiGate uses the AD server as the collector agent.

B. FortiGate uses the SMB protocol to read the event viewer logs from the DCs.

C. FortiGate does not support workstation check.

D. FortiGate directs the collector agent to use a remote LDAP server.

Answer is B,C

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24- Which two statements about FortiGate FSSO agentless polling mode are true?
(Choose two.)

A. FortiGate uses the AD server as the collector agent.

B. FortiGate uses the SMB protocol to read the event viewer logs from the DCs.

C. FortiGate quenes AD by using the LDAP to retrieve user group Information

D. FortiGate directs the collector agent to use a remote LDAP server.

Answer is B,C

25- Refer to exhibit.

An administrator configured the web filtering profile shown in the exhibit to block access
to all social networking sites except Twitter. However, when users try to access
twitter.com, they are redirected to a FortiGuard web filtering block page.

Based on the exhibit, which configuration change can the administrator make to allow
Twitter while blocking all other social networking sites?

A. On the FortiGuard Category Based Filter configuration, set Action to Warning for Social
Networking.

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B. On the Static URL Filter configuration, set Type to Simple.

C. On the Static URL Filter configuration, set Action to Exempt.

D. On the Static URL Filter configuration, set Action to Monitor.

Answer is C

26- On FortiGate, which type of logs record information about traffic directly to and from
the FortiGate management IP addresses?

A. Forward traffic logs

B. Local traffic logs

C. Security logs

D. System event logs

Answer is B

27- Which two types of traffic are managed only by the management VDOM? (Choose
two.)

A. PKI

B. FortiGuard web filter queries

C. DNS

D. Traffic shaping

Answer is B,C

28- Which timeout setting can be responsible for deleting SSL VPN associated
sessions?

A. SSL VPN idle-timeout

B. SSL VPN http-request-body-timeout

C. SSL VPN login-timeout

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D. SSL VPN dtls-hello-timeout

Answer is A

29- Refer to the exhibits.


Exhibit A.

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Exhibit B.

The SSL VPN connection fails when a user attempts to connect to it.
What should the user do to successfully connect to SSL VPN?

A. Change the SSL VPN port on the client.

B. Change the Server IP address.

C. Change the idle-timeout.

D. Change the SSL VPN portal to the tunnel.

Answer is A

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30- A network administrator is configuring a new IPsec VPN tunnel on FortiGate. The
remote peer IP address is dynamic. In addition, the remote peer does not support a
dynamic DNS update service.
What type of remote gateway should the administrator configure on FortiGate for the
new IPsec VPN tunnel to work?

A. Dialup User

B. Static IP Address

C. Pre-shared Key

D. Dynamic DNS

Answer is A

31- Refer to the exhibit.


The exhibit shows the output of a diagnose command.

What does the output reveal about the policy route?

A. It is an ISDB route in policy route.

B. It is a regular policy route.

C. It is an ISDB policy route with an SDWAN rule.

D. It is an SDWAN rule in policy route.

Answer is D

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32- Which two attributes are required on a certificate so it can be used as a CA


certificate on SSL inspection? (Choose two.)

A. The keyUsage extension must be set to keyCertSign.

B. The CA extension must be set to TRUE.

C. The issuer must be a public CA.

D. The common name on the subject field must use a wildcard name.

Answer is A,B

33- An administrator is configuring an IPsec VPN between site A and site B. The
Remote Gateway setting in both sites has been configured as Static IP Address. For
site A, the local quick mode selector is 192.168.1.0/24 and the remote quick mode
selector is 192.168.2.0/24.
Which subnet must the administrator configure for the local quick mode selector for site
B?

A. 192.168.2.0/24

B. 192.168.0.0/8

C. 192.168.1.0/24

D. 192.168.3.0/24

Answer is A

33-Refer to the exhibits.


The exhibits contain a network diagram, and virtual IP, IP pool, and firewall policies
configuration information.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.
The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.
The first firewall policy has NAT enabled using IP pool.
The second firewall policy is configured with a VIP as the destination address.

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This part of question 33

34- Which IP address will be used to source NAT (SNAT) the internet traffic coming
from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10?

A. 10.200.1.1

B. 10.0.1.254

C. 10.200.1.10

D. 10.200.1.100

Answer is D

35- Which statement describes a characteristic of automation stitches?

A. They can have one or more triggers.

B. They can be run only on devices in the Security Fabric.

C. They can run multiple actions simultaneously.

D. They can be created on any device in the fabric.

Answer is C

36- Which two statements about SSL VPN between two FortiGate devices are true?
(Choose two.)

A. The client FortiGate requires a client certificate signed by the CA on the server
FortiGate.

B. The client FortiGate requires a manually added route to remote subnets.

C. The client FortiGate uses the SSL VPN tunnel interface type to connect SSL VPN.

D. Server FortiGate requires a CA certificate to verify the client FortiGate certificate.

Answer is C,D

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37- Refer to the exhibit:

Given the routing database shown in the exhibit, which two statements are correct?
(Choose two.)

A. The port3 default route has the lowest metric.

B. The port3 default route has the highest distance.

C. There will be eight routes active in the routing table.

D. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table.

Answer is B,D

38- Refer to the exhibit.

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39- Based on the routing database shown in the exhibit, which two conclusions can you
make about the routes? (Choose two.)

A. The port3 default route has the lowest metric.

B. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table.

C. The ports default route has the highest distance.

D. There will be eight routes active in the routing table.

Answer is B,C

40- Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the intrusion prevention system (IPS) diagnostic command.


Which statement is correct if option 5 was used with the IPS diagnostic command and
the outcome was a decrease in the CPU usage?

A. The IPS engine will continue to run in a normal state.

B. The IPS engine was unable to prevent an intrusion attack.

C. The IPS engine was blocking all traffic.

D. The IPS engine was inspecting high volume of traffic.

Answer Is D

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41- Refer to the exhibit showing a debug flow output.

Which two statements about the debug flow output are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The default route is required to receive a reply.

B. A new traffic session is created.

C. A firewall policy allowed the connection.

D. The debug flow is of ICMP traffic.

Answer: BD

42- A network administrator enabled antivirus and selected an SSL inspection profile on
a firewall policy. When downloading an EICAR test file through HTTP, FortiGate detects
the virus and blocks the file. When downloading the same file through HTTPS,
FortiGate does not detect the virus and does not block the file, allowing it to be
downloaded.
The administrator confirms that the traffic matches the configured firewall policy.
What are two reasons for the failed virus detection by FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. The website is exempted from SSL inspection.

B. The EICAR test file exceeds the protocol options oversize limit.

C. The selected SSL inspection profile has certificate inspection enabled.

D. The browser does not trust the FortiGate self-signed CA certificate.

Answer is A,C

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43- What are two functions of ZTNA? (Choose two.)

A. ZTNA manages access through the client only.

B. ZTNA manages access for remote users only.

C. ZTNA provides a security posture check.

D. ZTNA provides role-based access.

Answer Is C,D

44- An administrator wants to configure Dead Peer Detection (DPD) on IPSEC VPN for
detecting dead tunnels. The requirement is that FortiGate sends DPD probes only when
no traffic is observed in the tunnel.
Which DPD mode on FortiGate will meet the above requirement?

A. On Demand

B. Disabled

C. On Idle

D. Enabled

Answer is C

45- Which statement correctly describes the use of reliable logging on FortiGate?

A. Reliable logging is enabled by default in all configuration scenarios.

B. Reliable logging is required to encrypt the transmission of logs.

C. Reliable logging can be configured only using the CLI.

D. Reliable logging prevents the loss of logs when the local disk is full.

Answer is B

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46- Refer to the exhibits.


The exhibits show the firewall policies and the objects used in the firewall policies.
The administrator is using the Policy Lookup feature and has entered the search criteria
shown in the exhibit.

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Which policy will be highlighted, based on the input criteria?

A. Policy with ID 4.

B. Policy with ID 5.

C. Policies with ID 2 and 3.

D. Policy with ID 4.

Answer is B

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47- Refer to the exhibits.


Exhibit A shows system performance output.

Exhibit B shows s FortiGate configured with the default configuration of high memory
usage thresholds.

Based on the system performance output, which two statements are correct? (Choose
two.)

A. FortiGate will start sending all files to FortiSandbox for inspection.

B. FortiGate has entered conserve mode.

C. Administrators cannot change the configuration.

D. Administrators can access FortiGate only through the console port.

Answer is B,C

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48- An administrator has configured the following settings:


config system settings
set ses-denied-traffic enable
end
config system global
set block-session-timer 30
end
What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Device detection on all interfaces is enforced for 30 minutes.

B. Denied users are blocked for 30 minutes.

C. The number of logs generated by denied traffic is reduced.

D. A session for denied traffic is created.

Answer is C,D

49- Refer to the exhibit.


The exhibit shows a diagram of a FortiGate device connected to the network, the
firewall policy and VIP configuration on the FortiGate device, and the routing table on
the ISP router.
When the administrator tries to access the web server public address (203.0.113.2)
from the internet, the connection times out. At the same time, the administrator runs a
sniffer on FortiGate to capture incoming web traffic to the server and does not see any
output.

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Based on the information shown in the exhibit, what configuration change must the
administrator make to fix the connectivity issue?

A. Configure a loopback interface with address 203.0.113.2/32.

B. In the VIP configuration, enable arp-reply.

C. Enable port forwarding on the server to map the external service port to the internal
service port.

D. In the firewall policy configuration, enable match-vip.

Answer is B

50- An administrator has configured a strict RPF check on FortiGate.


Which statement is true about the strict RPF check?

A. The strict RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.

B. Strict RPF checks the best route back to the source using the incoming interface.

C. Strict RPF checks only for the existence of at least one active route back to the source
using the incoming interface.

D. Strict RPF allows packets back to sources with all active routes.

Answer is B

51-Refer to the exhibit.


An administrator added a configuration for a new RADIUS server. While configuring, the
administrator selected the Include in every user group option.

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What is the impact of using the Include in every user group option in a RADIUS
configuration?

A. This option places all users into every RADIUS user group, including groups that are
used for the LDAP server on FortiGate.

B. This option places the RADIUS server, and all users who can authenticate against that
server, into every FortiGate user group.

C. This option places all FortiGate users and groups required to authenticate into the
RADIUS server, which, in this case, is FortiAuthenticator.

D. This option places the RADIUS server, and all users who can authenticate against that
server, into every RADIUS group.

Answer is B

52- Which two statements are true about the FGCP protocol? (Choose two.)

A. FGCP elects the primary FortiGate device.

B. FGCP is not used when FortiGate is in transparent mode.

C. FGCP runs only over the heartbeat links.

D. FGCP is used to discover FortiGate devices in different HA groups.

Answer is A,C

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53- An administrator wants to configure timeouts for users. Regardless of the user's
behavior, the timer should start as soon as the user authenticates and expire after the
configured value.
Which timeout option should be configured on FortiGate?

A. soft-timeout

B. new-session

C. idle-timeout

D. hard-timeout

E. auth-on-demand

Answer is D

54- Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A shows a network diagram. Exhibit B shows the firewall policy configuration
and a VIP object configuration.

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.


The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.

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55- If the host 10.200.3.1 sends a TCP SYN packet on port 10443 to 10.200.1.10, what
will the source address, destination address, and destination port of the packet be, after
FortiGate forwards the packet to the destination?

A. 10.0.1.254, 10.0.1.10, and 443, respectively

B. 10.0.1.254, 10.200.1.10, and 443, respectively

C. 10.200.3.1, 10.0.1.10, and 443, respectively

D. 10.0.1.254, 10.0.1.10, and 10443, respectively

Answer is A
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56- Which three criteria can a FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to
process traffic? (Choose three.)

A. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy.

B. Services defined in the firewall policy.

C. Source defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.

D. Lowest to highest policy ID number.

E. Destination defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.

Answer is B,C,E

57- An administrator does not want to report the logon events of service accounts to
FortiGate.
What setting on the collector agent is required to achieve this?

A. Add user accounts to the Ignore User List.

B. Add the support of NTLM authentication.

C. Add user accounts to the FortiGate group filter.

D. Add user accounts to Active Directory (AD).

Answer is A

58- Which two statements are true about the Security Fabric rating? (Choose two.)

A. The Security Fabric rating is a free service that comes bundled with all FortiGate
devices.

B. Many of the security issues can be fixed immediately by clicking Apply where available.

C. The Security Fabric rating must be run on the root FortiGate device in the Security
Fabric.

D. It provides executive summaries of the four largest areas of security focus.

Answer is B,C

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59- How can you disable RPF checking?

A. Disable fail-detect on the interface level settings.

B. Disable strict-src-check under system settings.

C. Unset fail-alert-interfaces on the interface level settings.

D. Disable src-check on the interface level settings.

Answer is C

60- What are two scanning techniques supported by FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Machine learning scan

B. Antivirus scan

C. Ransomware scan

D. Trojan scan

Answer is A,B

61- Which two features of IPsec IKEv1 authentication are supported by FortiGate?
(Choose two.)

A. Extended authentication (XAuth) for faster authentication because fewer packets are
exchanged

B. Extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and
password

C. No certificate is required on the remote peer when you set the certificate signature as
the authentication method

D. Pre-shared key and certificate signature as authentication methods

Answer is B,D

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62- What is a reason for triggering IPS fail open?

A. The IPS socket buffer is full and the IPS engine cannot process additional packets.

B. The IPS engine cannot decode a packet.

C. The IPS engine is upgraded.

D. The administrator enabled NTurbo acceleration.

Answer is A

63- Which statement is correct regarding the security fabric?

A. FortiManager is one of the required member devices.

B. FortiGate devices must be operating in NAT mode.

C. A minimum of two Fortinet devices is required.

D. FortiGate Cloud cannot be used for logging purposes.

Answer is B

64- What are two benefits of flow-based inspection compared to proxy-based


inspection? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate uses fewer resources.

B. FortiGate performs a more exhaustive inspection on traffic.

C. FortiGate adds less latency to traffic.

D. FortiGate allocates two sessions per connection.

Answer is A,C

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65- An organization requires remote users to send external application data running on
their PCs and access FTP resources through an SSL/TLS connection.

Which FortiGate configuration can achieve this goal?

A. SSL VPN bookmark

B. SSL VPN tunnel

C. Zero trust network access

D. SSL VPN quick connection

Answer is B

66- A network administrator has enabled full SSL inspection and web filtering on
FortiGate. When visiting any HTTPS websites, the browser reports certificate warning
errors. When visiting HTTP websites, the browser does not report errors.
What is the reason for the certificate warning errors?

A. The browser requires a software update.

B. FortiGate does not support full SSL inspection when web filtering is enabled.

C. There are network connectivity issues.

D. The CA certificate set on the SSL/SSH inspection profile has not been imported into the
browser.

Answer is D

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67- Which statement about the deployment of the Security Fabric in a multi-VDOM
environment is true?

A. VDOMs without ports with connected devices are not displayed in the topology.

B. Downstream devices can connect to the upstream device from any of their VDOMs.

C. Security rating reports can be run individually for each configured VDOM.

D. Each VDOM in the environment can be part of a different Security Fabric.

Answer is A

68- An administrator configures FortiGuard servers as DNS servers on FortiGate using


default settings.
What is true about the DNS connection to a FortiGuard server?

A. It uses UDP 8888.

B. It uses UDP 53.

C. It uses DNS over HTTPS.

D. It uses DNS over TLS.

Answer is D

69- An administrator wants to simplify remote access without asking users to provide
user credentials.

Which access control method provides this solution?

A. ZTNA IP/MAC filtering mode

B. ZTNA access proxy

C. SSL VPN

D. L2TP

Answer is B

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70- What are two functions of ZTNA? (Choose two.)

A. ZTNA manages access through the client only.

B. ZTNA manages access for remote users only.

C. ZTNA provides a security posture check.

D. ZTNA provides role-based access.

Answer is C,D

71- Which two statements are true about the ZTNA rule? (Choose two.)

A. It enforces access control.

B. It redirects the client request to the access proxy.

C. It applies security profiles to protect traffic.

D. It defines the access proxy.

Answer is A,C

72- Refer to the exhibit.


The exhibit shows a diagram of a FortiGate device connected to the network and the
firewall policy and IP pool configuration on the FortiGate device.

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Which two actions does FortiGate take on internet traffic sourced from the subscribers?
(Choose two.)

A. FortiGate allocates port blocks per user, based on the configured range of internal IP
addresses.

B. FortiGate allocates port blocks on a first-come, first-served basis.

C. FortiGate generates a system event log for every port block allocation made per user.

D. FortiGate allocates 128 port blocks per user.

Answer is: BC

73- Refer to the exhibits.


Exhibit A shows a topology for a FortiGate HA cluster that performs proxy-based
inspection on traffic. Exhibit B shows the HA configuration and the partial output of the
get system ha status command.

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Based on the exhibits, which two statements about the traffic passing through the
cluster are true? (Choose two.)

A. For non-load balanced connections, packets forwarded by the cluster to the server
contain the virtual MAC address of port2 as source.

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B. The traffic sourced from the client and destined to the server is sent to FGT-1.

C. The cluster can load balance ICMP connections to the secondary.

D. For load balanced connections, the primary encapsulates TCP SYN packets before
forwarding them to the secondary.

Answer is A,D

74- Refer to the exhibits.


Exhibit A.

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Exhibit B.

The exhibit contains a network interface configuration, firewall policies, and a CLI
console configuration.
How will FortiGate handle user authentication for traffic that arrives on the LAN
interface?

A. If there is a fall-through policy in place, users will not be prompted for authentication.

B. Authentication is enforced at a policy level; all users will be prompted for authentication.

C. All users will be prompted for authentication, users from the Sales group can
authenticate successfully with the correct credentials.

D. All users will be prompted for authentication, users from the HR group can authenticate
successfully with the correct credentials.

Answer is D

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75- Refer to the exhibits to view the firewall policy (Exhibit A) and the antivirus profile
(Exhibit B).
Exhibit A.

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Exhibit B.

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Which statement is correct if a user is unable to receive a block replacement message


when downloading an infected file for the first time?

A. The flow-based inspection is used, which resets the last packet to the user.

B. The volume of traffic being inspected is too high for this model of FortiGate.

C. The firewall policy performs the full content inspection on the file.

D. The intrusion prevention security profile needs to be enabled when using flow-based
inspection mode

The Answer is A

76- Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows a diagram of a FortiGate device connected to the network and the
firewall policy and IP pool configuration on the FortiGate device.

Two PCs, PC1 and PC2, are connected behind FortiGate and can access the internet
successfully. However, when the administrator adds a third PC to the network (PC3),
the PC cannot connect to the internet.

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Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which three configuration changes
should the administrator make to fix the connectivity issue for PC3? (Choose three.)

A. In the IP pool configuration, set type to overload.

B. Configure 192.2.0.12/24 as the secondary IP address on port1.

C. In the firewall policy configuration, disable ippool.

D. In the IP pool configuration, set endip to 192.2.0.12.

E. Configure another firewall policy that matches only the address of PC3 as source, and
then place the policy on top of the list.

Answer is A, C, D

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77- Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A shows a network diagram. Exhibit B shows the firewall policy configuration
and a VIP object configuration.

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.


The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.

The administrator disabled the WebServer firewall policy.

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Which IP address will be used to source NAT the traffic, if a user with address 10.0.1.10
connects over SSH to the host with address 10.200.3.1?

A. 10.200.1.10

B. 10.0.1.254

C. 10.200.1.1

D. 10.200.3.1

The Answer is C

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78- Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the FortiGuard Category Based Filter section of a corporate web filter
profile.

An administrator must block access to download.com, which belongs to the Freeware


and Software Downloads category. The administrator must also allow other websites in
the same category.

What are two solutions for satisfying the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a separate firewall policy with action Deny and an FQDN address object for
*.download.com as destination address.

B. Configure a web override rating for download.com and select Malicious Websites as the
subcategory.

C. Set the Freeware and Software Downloads category Action to Warning.

D. Configure a static URL filter entry for download.com with Type and Action set to
Wildcard and Block, respectively.

Answer is B,D

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79- IPS Engine is used by which three security features? (Choose three.)

A. Application control

B. Antivirus in flow-based inspection

C. Web filter in flow-based inspection

D. DNS filter

E. Web application firewall

Answer is A,B,C

80- Refer to the exhibits.


An administrator creates a new address object on the root FortiGate (Local-FortiGate) in
the security fabric. After synchronization, this object is not available on the downstream
FortiGate (ISFW).

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What must the administrator do to synchronize the address object?

A. Change the csf setting on ISFW (downstream) to set configuration-sync local.

B. Change the csf setting on ISFW (downstream) to set authorization-request-type


certificate.

C. Change the csf setting on both devices to set downstream-access enable.

D. Change the csf setting on Local-FortiGate (root) to set fabric-object-unification default.

The Answer: C

81- Refer to the FortiGuard connection debug output.

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Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose
two.)

A. There is at least one server that lost packets consecutively.

B. One server was contacted to retrieve the contract information.

C. A local FortiManager is one of the servers FortiGate communicates with.

D. FortiGate is using default FortiGuard communication settings.

Answer is B,D

82- What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall
policy, in NGFW policy-based mode?

A. It limits the scanning of application traffic to the browser-based technology category only.

B. It limits the scanning of application traffic to the DNS protocol only.

C. It limits the scanning of application traffic to use parent signatures only.

D. It limits the scanning of application traffic to the application category only.

Answer is A

83- A network administrator wants to set up redundant IPsec VPN tunnels on FortiGate
by using two IPsec VPN tunnels and static routes.
1- All traffic must be routed through the primary tunnel when both tunnels are up
2-The secondary tunnel must be used only if the primary tunnel goes down
3- In addition, FortiGate should be able to detect a dead tunnel to speed up tunnel
failover

Which two key configuration changes are needed in FortiGate to meet the design
requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a higher distance on the static route for the primary tunnel, and a lower
distance on the static route for the secondary tunnel.

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B. Enable Dead Peer Detection.

C. Enable Auto-negotiate and Auto Keep Alive on the phase 2 configuration of both
tunnels.

D. Configure a lower distance on the static route for the primary tunnel, and a higher
distance on the static route for the secondary tunnel.

Answer is B,D

84- Which two settings can be separately configured per VDOM on a FortiGate device?
(Choose two.)

A. Operating mode

B. NGFW mode

C. System time

D. FortiGuard update servers

Answer is A,B

85- Which three CLI commands can you use to troubleshoot Layer 3 issues if the issue
is in neither the physical layer nor the link layer? (Choose three.)

A. execute ping

B. diagnose sys top

C. get system arp

D. execute traceroute

E. diagnose sniffer packet any

Answer is ADE

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86- Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate


devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 status is up, but phase
2 fails to come up.
Based on the phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit, what configuration change will
bring phase 2 up?

A. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Auto-negotiate.

B. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Diffie-Hellman Group 2.

C. On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256.

D. On Remote-FortiGate, set Seconds to 43200.

Answer is C

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87- An administrator needs to configure VPN user access for multiple sites using the
same soft FortiToken. Each site has a FortiGate VPN gateway.
What must an administrator do to achieve this objective?

A. The administrator must use the user self-registration server.

B. The administrator must use a FortiAuthenticator device.

C. The administrator can register the same FortiToken on more than one FortiGate.

D. The administrator can use a third-party radius OTP server.

Answer is B

88- Which two statements are true about collector agent advanced mode? (Choose
two.)

A. Security profiles can be applied only to user groups, not individual users.

B. FortiGate can be configured as an LDAP client and group filters can be configured on
FortiGate.

C. Advanced mode supports nested or inherited groups.

D. Advanced mode uses Windows convention ‫ג‬€" NetBios: Domain\Username.

Answer is B,C

89- An organization's employee needs to connect to the office through a high-latency


internet connection.
Which SSL VPN setting should the administrator adjust to prevent the SSL VPN
negotiation failure?

A. Change the session-ttl.

B. Change the udp-idle-timer.

C. Change the idle-timeout.

D. Change the login-timeout.

Answer is D

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90- Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate


devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 failed to come up. The
administrator has also re-entered the pre-shared key on both FortiGate devices to make
sure they match.

Based on the phase 1 configuration and the diagram shown in the exhibit, which two
configuration changes can the administrator make to bring phase 1 up? (Choose two.)

A. On both FortiGate devices, set Dead Peer Detection to On Demand.

B. On HQ-FortiGate, set IKE mode to Main (ID protection).

C. On HO-FortiGate, disable Diffie-Helman group 2.

D. On Remote-FortiGate, set port2 as Interface.

Answer is B,D
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91- Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration, what will happen to Apple FaceTime if there are only a few
calls originating or incoming?

A. Apple FaceTime will be blocked, based on the Excessive-Bandwidth filter configuration.

B. Apple FaceTime will be allowed, based on the Apple filter configuration.

C. Apple FaceTime will be allowed, based on the Categories configuration.

D. Apple FaceTime will be allowed only if the Apple filter in Application and Filter Overrides
is set to Allow.

Answer is A

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92- Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose
three.)

A. WMI

B. Novell API

C. WinSecLog

D. NetAPI

E. FortiGate polling

Answer is ACD

93- Which two statements are correct about NGFW Policy-based mode? (Choose two.)

A. NGFW policy-based mode supports creating applications and web filtering categories
directly in a firewall policy.

B. NGFW policy-based mode can only be applied globally and not on individual VDOMs.

C. NGFW policy-based mode does not require the use of central source NAT policy.

D. NGFW policy-based mode policies support only flow inspection.

Answer is A,D

94- Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate HA cluster virtual IP
addresses? (Choose two.)

A. A change in the virtual IP address happens when a FortiGate device joins or leaves the
cluster.

B. Virtual IP addresses are used to distinguish between cluster members.

C. Heartbeat interfaces have virtual IP addresses that are manually assigned.

D. The primary device in the cluster is always assigned IP address 169.254.0.1.

Answer is A, B

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95- If Internet Service is already selected as Destination in a firewall policy, which other
configuration objects can be selected for the Destination field of a firewall policy?

A. IP address

B. User or User Group

C. No other object can be added

D. FQDN address

Answer is C

96- Which statement correctly describes NetAPI polling mode for the FSSO collector
agent?

A. NetAPI polling can increase bandwidth usage in large networks.

B. The NetSessionEnum function is used to track user logouts.

C. The collector agent must search security event logs.

D. The collector agent uses a Windows API to query DCs for user logins.

Answer is B

97- Which inspection mode does FortiGate use if it is configured as a policy-based next-
generation firewall (NGFW)?

A. Flow-based inspection

B. Full content inspection

C. Certificate inspection

D. Proxy-based inspection

Answer is A

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98- Refer to the exhibit.

Why did FortiGate drop the packet?

A. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY.

B. The next-hop IP address is unreachable. On the real exam, the logs is different as you see but same answer D

C. It failed the RPF check.

D. It matched the default implicit firewall policy.

Answer is D
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99- Which statement about video filtering on FortiGate is true?

A. Full SSL inspection is not required.

B. It is available only on a proxy-based firewall policy.

C. It inspects video files hosted on file sharing services.

D. Video filtering FortiGuard categories are based on web filter FortiGuard categories.

Answer is B

100- An administrator needs to increase network bandwidth and provide redundancy.


What interface type must the administrator select to bind multiple FortiGate interfaces?

A. Aggregate interface

B. VLAN interface

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C. Redundant interface

D. Software Switch interface

Answer is A

101- What is the effect of enabling auto-negotiate on the phase 2 configuration of an


IPsec tunnel?

A. FortiGate automatically negotiates different local and remote addresses with the remote
peer.

B. FortiGate automatically negotiates a new security association after the existing security
association expires.

C. FortiGate automatically brings up the IPsec tunnel and keeps it up, regardless of activity
on the IPsec tunnel.

D. FortiGate automatically negotiates different encryption and authentication algorithms


with the remote peer.

Answer is C

102- You have enabled logging on your FortiGate device for Event logs and all Security
logs, and you have set up logging to use the FortiGate local disk.
What is the default behavior when the local disk is full?

A. No new log is recorded after the warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the
threshold of 95%.

B. Logs are overwritten and the only warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the
threshold of 95%.

C. No new log is recorded until you manually clear logs from the local disk.

D. Logs are overwritten and the first warning is issued when log disk usage reaches the
threshold of 75%.

Answer is D

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103- Which two statements describe how the RPF check is used? (Choose two.)

A. The RPF check is a mechanism that protects FortiGate and the network from IP
spoofing attacks.

B. The RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.

C. The RPF check is run on the first sent packet of any new session.

D. The RPF check is run on the first reply packet of any new session.

Answer is A,C

104- What is the primary FortiGate election process when the HA override setting is
disabled?

A. Connected monitored ports > System uptime > Priority > FortiGate Serial number

B. Connected monitored ports > HA uptime > Priority > FortiGate Serial number

C. Connected monitored ports > Priority > HA uptime > FortiGate Serial number

D. Connected monitored ports > Priority > System uptime > FortiGate Serial number

Answer is B

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105- Refer to the exhibit.

In the network shown in the exhibit, the web client cannot connect to the HTTP web
server. The administrator runs the FortiGate built-in sniffer and gets the output as
shown in the exhibit.
What should the administrator do next to troubleshoot the problem?

A. Run a sniffer on the web server.

B. Capture the traffic using an external sniffer connected to port1.

C. Execute another sniffer in the FortiGate, this time with the filter ‫ג‬€host 10.0.1.10‫ג‬€

D. Execute a debug flow.

Answer is D

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106- Refer to the exhibit, which contains a static route configuration.

An administrator created a static route for Amazon Web Services.


What CLI command must the administrator use to view the route?

A. diagnose firewall proute list

B. get internet-service route list

C. get router info routing-table database

D. get router into routing-table all

Answer is A

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107- Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit contains a network diagram, firewall policies, and a firewall address object
configuration.
An administrator created a Deny policy with default settings to deny Webserver access
for Remote-user2. Remote-user2 is still able to access Webserver.
Which two changes can the administrator make to deny Webserver access for Remote-
User2? (Choose two.)

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A. Disable match-vip in the Deny policy.

B. Set the Destination address as Deny_IP in the Allow-access policy.

C. Enable match-vip in the Deny policy.

D. Set the Destination address as Web_server in the Deny policy.

Answer is C,D

108- Refer to the exhibit.

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Based on the administrator profile settings, what permissions must the administrator set
to run the diagnose firewall auth list CLI command on
FortiGate?

A. Read/Write permission for Firewall

B. CLI diagnostics commands permission

C. Custom permission for Network

D. Read/Write permission for Log & Report

Answer is B

109- Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the raw log, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Log severity is set to error on FortiGate.

B. Traffic belongs to the root VDOM.

C. Traffic is blocked because Action is set to DENY in the firewall policy.

D. This is a security log.

Answer is BD

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110- Refer to the exhibits.


The exhibits contain a network diagram, central SNAT policy, and IP pool configuration.
Exhibit A.

Exhibit B.

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.


The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.
A firewall policy is configured to allow all destinations from LAN (port3) to WAN (port1).
Central NAT is enabled, so NAT settings from matching Central SNAT policies will be
applied.
Which IP address will be used to source NAT the traffic, if the user on Local-Client
(10.0.1.10) pings the IP address of Remote-FortiGate (10.200.3.1)?

A. 10.200.1.99

B. 10.200.1.149

C. 10.200.1.1

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D. 10.200.1.49

Answer is A

An administrator has configured outgoing interface any in a firewall policy.


Which statement is true about the policy list view?

A. Interface Pair view will be disabled.

B. Search option will be disabled.

C. Policy lookup will be disabled.

D. By Sequence view will be disabled.

Answer is A

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