0% found this document useful (0 votes)
27 views11 pages

BTB M - 05-2

The document outlines a classroom test consisting of 90 objective questions across subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, with a total score of 360 marks. Each question carries 4 marks, with a penalty of 1 mark for incorrect answers, and specific instructions regarding the use of materials and the completion of the OMR sheet. The syllabus includes topics like electrostatics, thermodynamics, and molecular biology, with the test scheduled for February 5, 2025.

Uploaded by

kjha8135
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
27 views11 pages

BTB M - 05-2

The document outlines a classroom test consisting of 90 objective questions across subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, with a total score of 360 marks. Each question carries 4 marks, with a penalty of 1 mark for incorrect answers, and specific instructions regarding the use of materials and the completion of the OMR sheet. The syllabus includes topics like electrostatics, thermodynamics, and molecular biology, with the test scheduled for February 5, 2025.

Uploaded by

kjha8135
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 11

CLASSROOM TEST

[Time: 2 Hrs.] [Total Marks: 360]

INSTRUCTIONS
• This Paper has 90 Objective type questions. All questions are
compulsory.
• The Maximum marks for each question is 4.
• 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the
total marks.
• Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trigonometric tables is
NOT PERMITTED.
• Some questions of this question paper may be from syllabus other
than the given syllabus for this test. Solve if you can.

BTBM
• Ensure that you fill in the OMR SHEET correctly. If any of the
following details (Name, Roll number, Phone number) are missing
or filled wrong, your result will be withheld.

05

[DATE : 05th FEBRUARY 2025]

PHYSICS : Electrostatics, Capacitor, Current Electricity & Magnetic Effect of


Current
CHEMISTRY : Thermodynamics, Reaction Mechanism & Chemical Bonding
BIOLOGY : Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Plant Kingdom, Human
Reproduction & Reproductive Health

Corporate Office : B-58, Buddha Colony, Patna -1, Website : www.goalinstitute.org | Helpline : 0612-3508700
BTBM-05
Time : 2 Hrs. | Total Marks : 360

PHYSICS
01. Charge Q is given a displacement
A
 ^ ^ +Q
r  a i  b j in an electric field

 ^ ^
E  E1 i  E 2 j. The work done is
–Q +Q
(1) Q  E 1 a  E 2 b  B C

2 2
(2) Q  E1a    E2b  (1) Q2 /4 0 a 2 (2) –Q2 /4 0 a 2

(3) Q  E1  E2  a 2  b2 (3) zero (4) Q2 /2 0 a 2

06. Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –q are placed


(4) Q  E12  E22  a 2  b2
at the corners of a square of side 2L, Fig. The
electric potential at point A, midway between
02. An -particle and a proton are accelerated the two charges + q and + q, is
through same potential difference from rest.
Find the ratio of their final velocity
+q –q
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2
03. A long string with a charge of  per unit length –A
passes through an imaginary cube of edge a.
The maximum flux of the electric field through +q –q
the cube will be

(1)  a / 0 (2) 2  a / 0 1 2q 1 2q  1 
0

(1) 4   L 1  5  (2) 1 
4  0 L 

5
(3) 6  a 2 / 0 (4) 3  a / 0

04. Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the 1 2q  1 


vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle as (3) 1 –  (4) zero
4  0 L  5
shown in Fig. The net electrostatic enregy of
the configuration is zero if Q is equal to 07. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within
Q it, Fig. If  is electric flux in units of voltmeter
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
linked with the plane surface A in units of
a voltmeter will be

B
+q a +q
A A
–q –2 q
(1) (2)
1 2 2 2
q 
(3) – 2q (4) + q (1) (2)
20 3

05. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an


equilateral triangle of side a as shown Fig. The  q  1 q 
force experienced by the charge placed at the (3)   –   (4) 2   –  
 0   0 
vertex A in a direction parallel to BC is

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 2


08. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential
Q  t1 t  0 Q  t1 t 
difference across the 4.5 F capacitor is (1) A   2  (2)   2 
0 k
 1 k 2 A  k1 k 2 
3 F
4.5 F
Q  k1 k 2  0 Q
(3) A  t  t  (4) (k1t1  k 2t 2 )
0  1 2  A
6 F
12. The plates of parallel plate capacitor are charged
12 V to 100 V. A 2 mm thick plate is inserted between
the plates. Then to maintain the same potential
difference, the distance between the plates is
8 increased by 1.6 mm. The dielectric constant
(1) V (2) 4V (3) 6V (4) 8V
3 of the plate is :
09. Parallel plate capacitor is constructed using (1) 5 (2) 1.25 (3) 4 (4) 2.5
three different dielectric materials as shown 13. A parallel plate capacitor with air as medium
in the figure. The parallel plates, across which between the plates has a capacitance of 10 µF.
a potential difference is applied of area A metre2 The area of capacitor is divided into two equal
and separated by a distance d metre. The halves and filled with two media as shown in
capacitance across A and B is the figure having dielectric constant k1 = 2 and
k2 = 4. The capacitance of the system will now
A + be :
A/2
K2 d/2
d K1
K3 d/2

B –
(1) 10 µF (2) 20 µF
 0 A  K1 K 2K 3  (3) 30 µF (4) 40 µF
(1)   
d  2 K2  K 3  14. A capacitor when filled with a dielectric K = 3
has charge Q0, voltage V0 and field E0. If the
0 A  K1  K 2  K 3   dielectric is replaced with another one having
(2)    K = 9 the new values of charge, voltage and field
d 2 K 2K 3 
will be respectively :
(1) 3Q0, 3V0, 3E0 (2) Q0, 3V0, 3E0
0 A 2 K 2K 3 
(3)    V0 V0 E 0
d K
 1 K 2  K3  (3) Q0 , , 3E 0 (4) Q0 , ,
3 3 3
0 A  K1 2K 2K 3  15. The area of the plates of a parallel plate
(4)    condenser is A and the distance between the
d  2 K2  K3 
plates is 10 mm. There are two dielectric sheets
10. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity in it, one of dielectric constant 10 and thickness
50 µF are charged to a potential of 100 volts and 6mm and the other of dielectric constant 5 and
then separated from each other so that the thickness 4 mm. The capacity of the condenser
distance between them is doubled. How much is
is the energy spent in doing so :
12 2
(1) 25 × 10–2 J (2) –12.5 × 10–2 J (1) 0 A (2) 0 A
35 3
(3) 50 × 10–2 J (4) 12.5 × 10–2 J
5000
11. Between the plates of a parallel plate condenser, (3) 0 A (4) 1500 0A
a plate of thicknes t1 and dielectric constant 7
k1 is placed. In the rest of the space, there is 16. A 220 V, 1000 W bulb is connected across a 110
another plate of thickness t 2 and dielectric V mains supply. The power consumed will be
constant k2. The potential difference across the
(1) 750 W (2) 500 W
con denser w ill be : (Assume battery is
disconnected and q is charge on the capacitor) (3) 250 W (4) 1000 W

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 3


17. The current-voltage graphs for a given metallic 22. The spe cifi c re sistance of mang anin is
wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 50 ×10-8 × m. The resistance of a cube of
(T2 > T1) would be : manganin of length 50cm across two sides will
be :
(1) 10-6  (2) 2.5 × 10-5
(3) 10-8 (4) 5 × 10-4
23. A circular loop of area 1cm2, carrying a current
(1) (2) of 10A, is placed in a magnetic field of 0.1 T,
which is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.
The torque on the loop due to the magnetic field
is
(1) zero (2) 10–4 Nm
(3) 10–2 Nm (4) 1 Nm
24. A wire PQR is bent as shown in figure and is
placed in a region of uniform magnetic field B.
(3) (4) The length of PQ=QR= l. A current I ampere flows
through the wire as shown. The magnitude of
the force on PQ and QR will be

18. In the circuit shown in the figure, the voltmeter R


reading is :
B
l
l
P Q

(1) BIl, 0 (2) 2BIl,0 (3) 0,BIl (4) 0,0


25. The magnetic field at the centre of coil of n
turns, bent in the form of a square of side 2l,
carrying current i, is
(1) 2V (2) 2.5V (3) 3V (4) 5V
19. In the given figure, what is the current (in amp) 2o ni 2o ni
through the 1 resistor? (1) (2)
l 2l

2o ni 2o ni
6V 8 8 (3) (4)
4 4l l
26. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire
1
carry currents I c and Ie, respectively as shown
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 9 in figure. Assuming that these are placed in
the same plane. The magnetic fields will be zero
20. The least number of cells each of emf 2.0 V at the centre of the loop when the separation H
and internal resistance 0.5 to produce a
is
current of 2A in an external resistance 4.0
will be:
wire
(1) 12 cell (2) 10 cell
R
(3) 8 cell (4) 14 cell
Ic
21. A metallic resistor is connected across a
battery. If the number of collision of the free H
electrons with the lattice is somehow decreased
in the resistor (For example, by cooling it), the Ie
Straight
current will :
(1) increase (2) decrease
IeR IcR Ic Ie 
(3) remain constant (4) become zero (1) I  (2) I  (3) I R (4) I R
c e e c

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 4


27. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of 32. The entropy of vaporization of a liquid is 58JK–1.
a current carrying coil of the radius a and at a If 100g of its vapour condenses at its boiling point
distance ‘a’ from centre of the coil, on the axis of 123°C, the value of entropy change for the
of coil is process is
1 1 (Molar mass of the liquid = 58g mol–1)
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 2 2 (1) –100 J K–1 (2) 100 JK–1
2 2 2 –1
(3) –123 JK (4) 123 K–1
28. A current of 10 ampere is flowing in a wire of
length 1.5m. A force of 15 N acts on it when it is 33. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat
placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2 tesla. takes place between system and surroundings.
The angle between the magnetic field and the Choose the correct option for free expansion of
direction of the current is an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° following
29. What is the net force on the rectangular coil ? (1) q = 0, T 0 (2) q  0, T = 0
(3) q = 0, T = 0 (4) q = T < 0
10cm 34. Calculate the standard enthalpy change (in kJ
mol–1) for the reaction, H2(g )  O2(g )  H2O2(g ),
2A 1A 15cm given, that bond enthalpies of H–H, O=O, O–H
and O–O (in kJ mol–1) are respectively 438, 498,
464 and 138
2 cm
(1) –130 (2) –65 (3) + 130 (4) –334
(1) 25 × 10–7 N moving towards wire 35. The volume of a gas decreases from 500 cc to
(2) 25 × 10–7 N moving away from wire 300 cc when a sample of gas is compressed by
(3) 35 × 10–7 N moving towards wire an average pressure of 0.6 atm. During the
(4) 35 × 10–7 N moving away from wire process, 10 J of heat is liberated. The change
in internal energy is
30. Three long straight wires A, B and C are carrying
current as shown figure. Then the resultant (1) –2.16 J (2) 12.156 J
force on B is direction (3) 2.16 J (4) 101.3 J
A B C 36. Bond dissociation energies of H2, Cl2 and HCl(g)
are 104, 58 and 103 KCal/mol respectively.
Calculate the enthalpy of formation of HCl gas.
1A 2A 3A (1) –22Kcal (2) + 22 Kcal
(3) + 184 Kcal (4) – 184 Kcal
37. A reaction is at equilibrium at 100°C and the
d d enthalpy change for the reaction is 42.6 KJ/
(1) Towards A mol. What will be the value of  S is J/K-mol.
(2) Towards C
(1) 120 (2) 426.2 (3) 373.1 (4) 114.2
(3) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and
outward 38. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water is
an endothe rmic reactio n, y et i t is a
(4) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and
spontaneous process:
inward
This is due to the fact that :
CHEMISTRY (1)  H is +ve,  S is –ve
31. Which of the following statements is correct ? (2)  H is –ve,  S is +ve
(1) The presence of reacting species in a (3)  H is +ve,  S is +ve and  H < T  S
covered beaker is an example of open system
(4)  H is +ve, and  H > T  S
(2) There is an excehange of energy as well as
matter betw een the system and the 39. For combustion of 1 mole of benzene at 25°C,
surroundings in a closed system the heat of reaction at constent pressure is
(3) The presence of reactants in a closed vessel –780.9 Kcal. What will be the heat of reaction
made up of copper is an example of a closed at constant volume?
system C6H6(l) + 7½O2 (g)  6CO2(g) + 3H2O (l)
(4) the presence of reactants in a thermos flask (1) – 781.8 Kcal (2) –780.0 Kcal
or any other closed insulated vessel is an (3) + 781.8 Kcal (4) + 780.0 Kcal
example of a closed system
Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 5
40. Which of the following relationships is not In this reaction, H2SO4 acts as
correct for the relation between H and U ? (1) a base (2) a catalyst
(1) When ng =0then H  U (3) both (1) and (2) (4) none of these
47. In case of addition of HX to an alkene,
(2) When  ng  0 then H  U Markovnikov originally stated that
(3) When  ng  0 then H  U (1) the H atom adds to the carbon atom of the
double bond that already has greater of H
(4) When ng RT = 0 then H  U atoms and halide ion adds to the carbon
41. Electrophilic addition occurs on atom of the double bond that has fewer
number of H atoms.
C
(1) C = C (2) (2) the H atom adds to the carbon atom of the
C – Cl double bond that has fewer number of H atom
and halide ion adds to the carbon atom of
C
the double bond that has greater number of
(3) > C = O (4) H atom.
– C – OCH3
(3) both of these depending upon situation
42. X+H– R HX + R (4) none of these
48. The basis of Markovnikov’s rule is
Based o n th is rate-dete rmin ing step of
halogenation of alkanes, the reactivity order of (1) the stability of carbonium ion intermediate-
the various H atoms should be more stable carbocation should form
(1) 3ºH > 2ºH > 1ºH (2) 1ºH > 2ºH > 3ºH (2) the stability of carbanion intermediate more
stable carbanion should form.
(3) 2ºH > 3ºH > 1ºH (4) 3ºH > 1ºH > 2ºH
(3) the stability of free radical intermediate-
CH3 – CH2 – OH I more stable free radical should form.
43.
(4) none of these
CH3 – CH – CH3
II Br
OH
Br2
CH3 49. >C=C< >C–C<
CCl4
CH3 – C – CH3 Br
III
OH This reaction is a case of :
Among these alcohols, which of the following (1) nucleophilic addition
orders is correct about their ease of dehydration (2) electrophilic addition
under acidic condition? (3) free radical addition
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (4) none of these
(3) II > I > III (4) III > I > II
44. If question of orientation stands in electrophilic 50. > C = C < + Br2
additions, then it is decided by applying CCl4
(1) Zaitsev’s rule (2) Hoffman’s rule
Br
(3) Markovnikov’s rule (4) Bredt’s rule
>C–C<
Br
Br
HBr
45. >C=C< > CH–C <
Which of the following intermediates is involved
Which of the following intermediates is involved
in this reaction
in this reaction ?
(1) Carbanion (2) Free radical (1) > C – C < (2) > C – C <
(3) Carbocation (4) None of these
Br Br
NO2
Cone. HNO3
46. (3) > C – C < (4) > C – C <
Cone. H2 SO4
Br Br

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 6


51. Which of the following atom uses sp3 hybridized 62. Number of thymine bases in DNA is equal to :
orbitals ? (1) Guanine (2) Cytosine
* * (3) Uracil (4) Adenine
(1) CH3 C HO (2) CH3 C OCH3
63. A nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose sugar
through :
* *
(3) CH3CH2 C H2OH (4) CH3 C OOH (1) N-glycosidic linkage
52. If x-axis is the molecular axis of a diatomic (2) Hydrogen bond
molecule then  molecular orbitals are formed (3) Peptide bond
by overlap of :
(4) Phosphodiester linkage
(1) s-atomic orbitals (2) s and px orbitals
64. The 5’ end of a polynucleotide chain contains :
(3) py and pz orbitals (4) px and pz orbitals
(1) Hydroxyl group (2) Methyl group
53. The d-orbital involved in sp3d hybridization is :
(3) Carboxyl group (4) Phosphate group
(1) d x 2  y 2 (2) dxy (3) d z2 (4) dzx 65. The two strands of DNA are held together by :
54. In the change of NO+ to NO, electron is added (1) Peptide bond (2) Sulphide bond
to : (3) Hydrogen bond (4) Phosphodiester bond
(1)  orbital (2)  orbital 66. DNA is acidic due to :
(3) * orbital (4) * orbital (1) Sugar (2) Purine
55. The molecule which has the largest dipole (3) Pyrimidine (4) Phosphoric acid
moment amongst the following is :
67. Variable part of DNA molecule is :
(1) CH4 (2) CHCl3 (3) CCl4 (4) CHI3
(1) Phosphate (2) Sugar
56. Among the following, the maximum covalent
character is shown by the compound : (3) Nitrogen base (4) All of the above
(1) SnCl2 (2) AlCl3 (3) MgCl2 (4) FeCl2 68. Strobili is seen in –
57. Boron cannot form which one of the following (1) Cycas (2) Pinus
anions ? (3) Equisetum (4) All of the above
(1) BH4 (2) B(OH)4 (3) BO2 (4) BF63 69. Moss form dense mat on soil to –
58. Out of CHCl3, CH4 and SF4, the molecules (1) Prevent soil erosion
having regular geometry are : (2) Reduce impact of falling rain
(1) CHCl3 (2) CH4 (3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’
(3) CHCl3 and SF4 (4) CH4 and SF4 (4) None of the above
59. The hybridization of orbitals of N atom in 70. Algae has association with –
NO3 , NO2 and NH4 are respectively (1) Fungi (2) Sloth Bear
(1) sp2, sp, sp3 (2) sp, sp3, sp2 (3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ (4) None of the above
(3) sp2, sp3, sp (4) sp, sp2, sp3 71. Vegetative reproduction in moss is by –
60. In which of the following pairs the two species (1) Fragmentation
are not isostructural ? (2) Budding in Primary protonema
(1) CO23 and NO3 (2) PCl 4 and SiCl4 (3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’
(4) None of the above
(3) PF5 and BrF5 (4) Both (2) and (3)
72. Hydrocolloid –
(1) Algin (2) Carrageen
BIOLOGY (3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ (4) None of the above
61. Length of DNA usually depends on : 73. Oogamy is seen in –
(1) Position of nucleotides (1) Volvox (2) Fucus
(2) Number of nucleotides (3) Gelidium (4) All of the above
(3) Orientation of nucleotides 74. Asexual reproduction in liveworts is by –
(4) All of the above (1) Fragmentation (2) Gemmae
(3) Both ‘1’ &‘2’ (4) None of the above

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 7


75. Laminarin is .......... carbohydrate – 83. The test tube baby programme employs which
one of the following techniques ?
(1) Sweet (2) Structural
(1) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(3) Storage (4) All of the above
(2) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
76. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. male sex accessory
ducts : (3) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(4) Zygote intra Fallopain transfer (ZIFT)
(1) Vas deferens
84. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian
(2) Vasa efferentia and epididymis Transfer (GIFT) is recomended for those females
(3) Rete testis (1) who cannot produce an ovum
(4) Seminiferous tubules (2) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
77. The seminiferous tubules open into ————— (3) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
— through —————— . passage for the ova
(1) Vasa efferentia; epididymis (4) who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilization
(2) Testicular tubules; epididymis
(3) Vasa efferentia; rete testes 85. Hormone releasing IUDs among the following
are
(4) Rete testes; vasa efferentia
(1) copper-T (2) LNG-20
78. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside
(3) saheli (4) diaphragm
by two types of cells called.
86. In delaying pregnancy or spacing among
(1) Leydig cells and Sertoli cells
children, the ideal cotnraceptive is
(2) Sertoli cells and spermatogonial cells
(1) IUD
(3) Leydig cells and spermatogonial cells
(2) natural method
(4) Interstitial cells and spermatogonial cells
(3) Diaphragm
79. _________ cells provide nutrition to germ cells :
(4) Amneocentesis
(1) Interstitial cells
87. Find out the natural contraception methods
(2) Sertoli cells
I. Implantation
(3) Leydig cells
II. Lactational amenorrhoea
(4) Immunologically competent cells
III. Condoms
80. Which of the following cells undergo second
IV. Vasectomy
meiotic division?
V. Tubectomy
(1) Spermatids (2) Spermatogonia
VI. Sterilisation
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Ovum
(1) I and II (2) III and IV
81. The male sex accessory ducts include : (3) V and VI (4) Only II
(1) Epididymis and vas deferens only 88. Detection technique for AIDS is
(2) Urethra and ejaculatroy duct (1) PCR (2) ELISA
(3) Ureter and urethra (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) clinical culture
(4) Retes testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and 89. In vasectomy, incision is given on the
vas deferens (1) Scrotum (2) Vas deferens
82. The unpaired gland in the male reproductive (3) epididymis (4) (2) or (3)
system is : 90. The quality of cervical mucus is altered by
(1) Prostate gland (1) pills (2) CuT
(2) Seminal vesicle (3) Condoms (4) Diaphragms
(3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Cowper’s gland

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 8


Space for Rough Work

If you find any probable mistake in the Question, you can send at :
whatsapp on 7564901784
with following details:
Date of Test, Batch Name
Name, Roll No., Contact No. and Explanation of the mistake.
Note: All the request will be accepted till
Tomorrow 01.00 PM.

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 9


Space for Rough Work

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 1 0


BTBM-05
05- 02 - 2025
Answer Key
01. (1) 46. (2)
02. (3) 47. (1)
03. (4) 48. (1)
04. (2) 49. (2)
05. (3) 50. (4)
06. (3) 51. (3)
07. (4) 52. (3)
08. (4) 53. (3)
09. (1) 54. (4)
10. (1) 55. (2)
11. (1) 56. (2)
12. (1) 57. (4)
13. (3) 58. (2)
14. (4) 59. (1)
15. (3) 60. (4)
16. (3) 61. (2)
17. (3) 62. (4)
18. (1) 63. (1)
19. (2) 64. (4)
20. (3) 65. (3)
21. (1) 66. (4)
22. (1) 67. (3)
23. (1) 68. (4)
24. (3) 69. (3)
25. (1) 70. (3)
26. (1) 71. (1)
27. (4) 72. (3)
28. (1) 73. (4)
29. (1) 74. (3)
30. (2) 75. (3)
31. (3) 76. (4)
32. (1) 77. (3)
33. (3) 78. (2)
34. (1) 79. (2)
35. (3) 80. (3)
36. (1) 81. (4)
37. (4) 82. (1)
38. (3) 83. (4)
39. (2) 84. (1)
40. (4) 85. (2)
41. (1) 86. (1)
42. (1) 87. (4)
43. (2) 88. (3)
44. (3) 89. (1)
45. (3) 90. (1)

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | BTBM-05 1 1

You might also like