23 Jan Shift 1 PDF
23 Jan Shift 1 PDF
1 26 1 13
e2
e e I 37 I 24
4 52 4 39
(1) loge2 (2) 2
1 1 1
(3) 1 (4) e2 = 2/13 2/13
4 2 3
Ans. (3)
1 1 1
dx =
Sol. Let lnx = t dt 4 41/13 91/13
x
1
b = 4, c = 9
4
e 1 t 2 3(b + c) = 39
I 1
dt
2
1
2
3. If the function
2 1 6 t
e1 t e
2
1 sin k1 1 x sin k 2 1 x , x 0
4
e
1 6 t
2
x
I dt
1 1
f (x) 4 , x0
2 2
e e 1t 2 k1 x
1 6 t 2
2
log e , x0
4 x 2 k2x
2I dt t 2 = 4 – 2 = 2
4
dx (3) 5 (4) 10
2. Let I(x) .
11 15
Ans. (4)
x 1113 x 1513
Sol. lim
2
sin k1 1 x sin k 2 1 x 4
1 1 1 x 0 x
If I(37) – I(24) = 1 1 , b, c , then
4 13 2(k1 + 1) + 2(k2 – 1) = 4
b c13
k1 + k2 = 2
3(b + c) is equal to
(1) 40 (2) 39 2 2 k1x
lim ln 4
(3) 22 (4) 26
x 0 x 2 k2x
Ans. (2) 1 k k x
lim ln 1 1 2 2
dx x 0 x
2 k 2x
Sol. I(x) 11 15
x 11 x 1513 13 k1 k 2
2
x 11 2
26
Put t dx dt
x 15 x 5
2 k1 – k2 = 4
k1 = 3, k2 = – 1
1 dt 1 t 2/13
Ix 11/13
. k12 k 22 9 1 10
26 t 26 2 / 13
1
4. If the line 3x – 2y + 12 = 0 intersects the parabola 1 6e2x
7 e2x 7 32x 2
y. dx
4y = 3x2 at the points A and B, then at the vertex of
the parabola, the line segment AB subtends an
angle equal to y 3
C
11 3 7e 2x
7 e 2x
(1) tan 1 (2) tan 1
9 2 2 5 3
(0, 5) C C=1
8 8
4 9
(3) tan 1 (4) tan 1
5 7 y = – 3 + 7 + e2x
Ans. (4) y = e2x + 4
k=8
Sol. B(4,12) x 4 2x 3 3x 2 2x 2
6. Let f(x) = logex and g(x)
2x 2 2x 1
. Then the domain of fog is
A(–2, 3)
(1) (2) (0, )
x 4 2x 3 3x 2 2x 2
x – 2x – 8 = 0
2 g(x) =
2x 2 2x 1
x = – 2, 4
Dg R
mOA = – 3/2, mOB = 3
Df (0, )
3
2 3 9 For Dfog g(x) > 0
tan
1 9 7 x 4 2x 3 3x 2 2x 2
2 0
2x 2 2x 1
9
tan 1 (angle will be acute) x4 – 2x3 + 3x2 – 2x + 2 > 0
7
5. Let a curve y = f(x) pass through the points (0, 5) Clearly x < 0 satisfies which are included in option
and (loge2, k). If the curve satisfies the differential (1) only.
equation 2(3 + y)e dx – (7 + e2x)dy = 0, then k is
2x
Sol.
dy 2 3 y .e
2x
OC OA OB , then 2
3 1 is equal
dx 7 e 2x
to
dy 2y.e2x 6.e2x
dx 7 e2x 7 e2x (1) 2 3 (2) 2 3
2x
2e
7 e2 x dx 1 (3) 5 3 (4) 2 3
I.F. e
7 e2x
2
Ans. (1) Sol. a = 3
Sol. 1
S4 = (S8 – S4)
B 5 5
1
5S4 = S8 – S4
A C 6S4 = S8
4
6. 2 3 4 1 d
15° 2
75° 8
= 2 3 8 1 d
2
12(6 + 3d) = 4(6 + 7d)
18 + 9d = 6 + 7d
c a b ….(1)
d=–6
a.c a.a b.a 20
S20 = 2 3 20 1 6
0 = + cos 15° ….(2) 2
= 10 [6 – 114]
b.c a.b b.b = – 1080
cos75° = cos 15° + ….(3) 9. Let P be the foot of the perpendicular from the point
x 3 y 2 z 1
(2) & (3) cos75° = – cos215° + Q(10, –3, –1) on the line . Then
7 1 2
cos75o 1 2 2 the area of the right angled triangle PQR, where R is
2
sin 15o
sin15o
3 1 the point (3, –2, 1), is
(1) 9 15 (2)
30
cos15o 3 1
(2) (3) 8 15 (4) 3 30
sin15o 3 1 Ans. (4)
3 1 a 2 2 b
Q(10,–3,–1)
Sol.
c
3 1 3 1
Now
3 1 2
P() =(10,1,–3)
3 1 .2 2
2 3 1
3 1 3 1
R(3,–2,1)
x 3 y 2 z 1
2
3 1
= 4 7 1 2
2
7 + 3, – + 2, – 2 – 1
3 1 2 3 8 dr’s of QP
=
2 7 – 7, – + 5, – 2
= 2 3 Now
8. If the first term of an A.P. is 3 and the sum of its (7 – 7) . 7 – (– + 5) + (2).2 = 0
54 – 54 = 0 = 1
first four terms is equal to one-fifth of the sum of
P = (10, 1, – 3)
the next four terms, then the sum of the first
PQ 4jˆ 2kˆ
20 terms is equal to
PR 7iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ
(1) –1200 (2) –1080
i j k
(3) –1020 (4) –120 1
Area 0 4 2 = 3 30
2
Ans. (2) 7 3 4
3
z i 1 12. The number of words, which can be formed using
10. Let , z , be the equation of a circle
2z i 3 all the letters of the word “DAUGHTER”, so that all
with center at C. If the area of the triangle, whose the vowels never come together, is
vertices are at the points (0, 0), C and (, 0) is 11 (1) 34000 (2) 37000
square units, then equals
2
z i 2 = 8! – 6! × 3!
i 3 = 6! [56 – 6]
z
2 = 720 × 50
i = 36000
3|x – iy – i| = 2 |x – iy + |
2
2 2 2 2 Ans.(3)
9(x + (y+1) ) = 4 (x + (y – 1/3) )
2 2 2 2
9x + 9y + 18 y + 9 = 4x + 4y – 4y + 1 13. Let the area of a PQR with vertices P(5, 4), Q(–2, 4)
5x2 + 5y2 + 22y + 8 = 0 and R(a, b) be 35 square units. If its orthocenter
22 8 14
x2 + y 2 + y+ =0 and centroid are O 2, and C(c, d) respectively,
5 5 5
11 then c + 2d is equal to
centre (0, – )
5
7
0 0 1 (1) (2) 3
1 3
0 11 / 5 1 11
2 8
0 1 (3) 2 (4)
3
2
11
11 2 Ans. (2)
2
5 P(5, 4)
= 100
2
Sol.
11. Let R = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3,3)} be a relation defined
O(2, )
on the set {1, 2, 3, 4}. Then the minimum number
of elements, needed to be added in R so the R
Q(–2,4) R(a,b)
becomes an equivalence relation, is :
(1) 10 (2) 8 Equation of lines QR = 5x + 2y + 2 = 0
(3) 9 (4) 7 Equation of lines PR = 10x –3y – 38 = 0
Ans. (4) Point R (2, –6)
Sol. A = {1, 2, 3, 4}
52 2 4 46
Centroid = ,
For relation to be reflexive 3 3
R = {(1,2), (2, 3), (3,3)}
5 2
Minimum elements added will be = ,
3 3
(1,1), (2,2), (4,4) (2,1) (3,2) (3,2) (3,1) (1,3)
5 4
Minimum number of elements = 7 c + 2d = 3
3 3
Option : (4)
4
3 12 5 17. Let the position vectors of the vertices A, B and C
14. If x , then cos 1 cos x sin x is
2 4 13 13 of a tetrahedron ABCD be ˆi 2jˆ kˆ , ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ
equal to
–1 4 –1 5
and 2iˆ ˆj kˆ respectively. The altitude from the
(1) x – tan (2) x – tan
3 12 vertex D to the opposite face ABC meets the
–1 4 –1 5
(3) x + tan (4) x + tan median line segment through A of the triangle
5 12
Ans. (2) ABC at the point E. If the length of AD is
110
3 3
Sol. x
2 4 805
and the volume of the tetrahedron is , then
12 5
cos 1 cos x sin x 6 2
13 12
the position vector of E is
cos–1(cosx cos+sinx sin)
cos–1(cos(x–))
(1)
2
1 ˆ ˆ
i 4 j 7kˆ (2)
12
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
7i 4 j 3k
x – because x – (– , )
2 2
5
(3)
6
1 ˆ
12i 12ˆj kˆ (4)
6
1 ˆ
7i 12ˆj kˆ
x – tan–1 .
12
Ans. (4)
15. The value of (sin70°)(cot10°cot70° – 1) is
(1) 1 (2) 0 D
(3) 3/2 (4) 2/3
Ans. (1)
Sol. sin70º (cot 10º cot70º – 1)
cos 80 Sol.
1
sin10 C(2,1,–1)
16. Marks obtains by all the students of class 12 are A(1,2,1
presented in a frequency distribution with classes ) E 3 3
F ,2,
of equal width. Let the median of this grouped data 2 2
be 14 with median class interval 12-18 and median
class frequency 12. If the number of students B(1,3,–2)
whose marks are less than 12 is 18, then the total
number of students is
(1) 48 (2) 44 1
Area of ABC = AB AC
(3) 40 (4) 52 2
Ans. (2) 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1
5i 3j k 35
N 2 2
2 F
Sol. medain h volume of tetrahedron
f
1 805
N = × Base area × h =
3 6 2
2 18
12 6 14
12 1 1
35 h
805
3 2 6 2
N
2 18 23
6 2 h
12 2
13 13
N AE 2 AD2 DE 2 AE
18 4 N = 44 18 18
2
5
ˆi 5kˆ Ans. (2)
AE AE .
26 Sol. 1 x 4 y z 5
13 ˆi 5kˆ x 1 y 4 z 7
.
18 26
1 x 2 y 2 z 9
13 ˆi 5kˆ ˆi 5kˆ For infinitely many solutions
.
18 26 6 1 4
ˆi 5kˆ D 1 4 0
P.V. of E
6
1
6
ˆi 2ˆj kˆ 7iˆ 12ˆj kˆ 1 2 2
18.
–1
If A, B and (adj(A ) + adj(B )) are non-singular
–1
( – 3) (2+ 1) = 0
matrices of same order, then the inverse of 5 4
–1 –1
A(adj(A ) + adj(B )) B, is equal to –1
Dx 7 1 4 0
–1
(1) AB–1 + A B (2) adj(B–1) + adj(A–1) 9 2 2
1
20. One die has two faces marked 1, two faces marked
1
1 1
Sol. A adj A adj B .B 2, one face marked 3 and one face marked 4.
Another die has one face marked 1, two faces
1
adjB .A
B . adj A 1 1 1
marked 2, two faces marked 3 and one face marked
B1 A 1 1 3
(1) (2)
A B 2 5
2 4
adjB adjA (3) (4)
3 9
BA A B
Ans. (1)
1
adjB adjA Sol. a = number or dice 1
A B
( – 1)x + ( – 4)y + z = 5 (a,b) = (1,3), (3,1), (2,2), (2,3), (3,2), (1,4), (4,1)
x + ( – 1)y + ( –4)z = 7 Required probability
( + 1)x + ( + 2)y – ( + 2)z = 9 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 2
has infinitely many solutions, then + is equal 2
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
to 18 1
(1) 10 (2) 12 36 2
(3) 6 (4) 20
6
SECTION-B r1 r2 r 3
21. If the area of the larger portion bounded between 6 0 0
1 4 0 2
the curves x2 + y2 = 25 and y = |x – 1| is (b + c),
4 2 0 4
b, c , then b + c is equal to ________ 0 0 6
3 3 0
Ans. (77)
1 3 2
(–3,4)
y = x–1 0 6 0
y = –x+1
Sol. (4,3
) 6 6 6 6
sum = (3) + (3)2 (3)3
600 402 204 006
0 1 5
6 6 6
+ (2) (2)1 (3)1 (2)2
330 132 060
6 2r
r 2
= (1) r1 (2) 3 (3) 3
r1 r2 r3 2
7
2 2
3 0 1 2 2
now r
9 4 13 10
y =f(x)
(3 + 1) + 4 = 13 r ......(2)
2 2
( 1)2 –1 1
(1) & (2) (3 + 1)2 + 4 = 13
2
–10 y =f(x)
182 + 12 + 2 + 8 = 132 + 26 + 13
5 – 14 –3 = 0
a(–10,10)
5 – 15 + – 3 = 0
= –10, = 10
5 – 15 + – 3 = 0
– 2 = 10 + 20 = 30
1
,3 25. If the equation a(b – c)x2 + b(c – a)x + c(a – b) = 0
5
36
has equal roots, where a + c = 15 and b , then
r= 2 2 5
a2 + c2 is equal to ________
How e = 3 and 2 = 4 2 Ans. (117)
2
Sol. a(b – c) x + b (c – a) x + c(a – b) = 0
e =9 = 2 2 =8
2 2 2
8
JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY 2025
(HELD ON THURSDAY 23rd JANUARY 2025) TIME : 9 : 00 AM TO 12 : 00 NOON
E : Work needs to be done against self-induced (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
e.m.f. in establishing the current. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans. (2)
below: Sol. Hot water is less viscous then cold water.
(1) A, B, C, D only (2) A, C, D, E only Surfactant reduces surface tension.
–30
(3) A, B, C, E only (4) B, C, D, E only 29. A sub-atomic particle of mass 10 kg is moving
6
Ans. (2) with a velocity 2.21 × 10 m/s. Under the matter
Sol. Self inductance of coil wave consideration, the particle will behave
–34
N2 A closely like ______. (h = 6.63 × 10 J.s)
L= 0
2R (1) Infra-red radiation (2) X-rays
27. A light hollow cube of side length 10 cm and mass (3) Gamma rays (4) Visible radiation
10g, is floating in water. It is pushed down and Ans. (2)
released to execute simple harmonic oscillations. h 6.63 10 34
–2 Sol. = –30
The time period of oscillations is y × 10 s, p 10 2.21 10 6
where the value of y is –10
= 3 × 10 m
2
(Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s , density Hence particle will behave as x-ray.
3 3
of water = 10 kg/m ) 30. A spherical surface of radius of curvature R,
(1) 2 (2) 6 separates air from glass (refractive index = 1.5).
(3) 4 (4) 1
The centre of curvature is in the glass medium. A
Ans. (1)
point object ‘O’ placed in air on the optic axis of
Sol. a2x g = manet
the surface, so that its real image is formed at ‘I’
L2g inside glass. The line OI intersects the spherical
x a net
m
surface at P and PO = PI. The distance PO equals
m
T = 2 to-
L2g
(1) 5R (2) 3R
where m = 10g, L = 10 cm, = 1000 kg/m 3
(3) 2R (4) 1.5R
Ans. (1)
1
=1.5 32. Identify the valid statements relevant to the given
Sol. =1
air glass circuit at the instant when the key is closed.
O P I
R Key
A
PO = u = –x air B 5V
PI = v = x
PO = PI A. There will be no current through resistor R.
2 1 2 1 B. There will be maximum current in the
v u R
connecting wires.
1.5 1 1
C. Potential difference between the capacitor
x x 2R
plates A and B is minimum.
5 1
D. Charge on the capacitor plates is minimum.
2x 2R
X = 5R Choose the correct answer from the options given
N2 ABC
e 2 t is time. The dimension of is-
N1 D
3 –2
ln 2 (1) L (2) L T
t half lifeofN1 t 1
(3) L2 T–2
2
(4) L
n
N0 Ans. (3)
N 0 et
2 Sol. Dimension [x(t)] = [L]
t = ln2 [A] = [L]
ln 2 [B] = [L]
t
[C] = [LT–2]
ln 2
2
e [D] = [L]
ABC L L LT
N2 1 –2
D
2 –2
= [L T ]
N1 4 L
2
34. Match the List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given
List-I List-II below :
A. Pressure varies I. Adiabatic (1) A, B only (2) A, D, only
inversely with volume process (3) B, D, E only (4) A, B, E only
of an ideal gas.
Ans. (1)
B. Heat absorbed goes II. Isochoric
Sol. (A) = C[ML2T–2] = [C][1]
partly to increase process
internal energy and BNA
(B) C.S = ;
partly to do work. I C
C. Heat is neither III Isothermal BNA
absorbed nor released . process V.S. = [R also depends on ‘N’]
RC
by a system
NAB
D. No work is done on or IV Isobaric (C) V.S. R → NR
CR
by a gas . process
Choose the correct answer from the options given (D) False [Theory]
below : (E) E [False] C.S N
(1) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III NAB
(2) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II C.S.
C
(3) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
36. A point particle of charge Q is located at P along
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
the axis of an electric dipole 1 at a distance r as
Ans. (4)
shown in the figure. The point P is also on the
1
Sol. A → P equatorial plane of a second electric dipole 2 at a
V
distance r. The dipoles are made of opposite charge
PV = constant
q separated by a distance 2a. For the charge
nRT = const. T = const.
Hence Isothermal III particle at P not to experience any net force, which
B → IV of the following correctly describes the situation?
W 0, U 0, Q 0 [only isobaric]
P +q –q
C → IQ = 0 Adiabatic Dipole 1
D → II w = 0 Isochoric r
r
III IV I II 2a
35. Consider a moving coil galvanometer (MCG) :
A : The torsional constant in moving coil +q –q
galvanometer has dimensions [ML T ]2 –2 Dipole 2
2a
B : Increasing the current sensitivity may not
necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity.
C : If we increase number of turns (N) to its double a a
(2N), then the voltage sensitivity doubles. (1) 20 (2) ~ 10
r r
D : MCG can be converted into an ammeter by
a a
introducing a shunt resistance of large value in (3) ~ 0.5 (4) ~3
r r
parallel with galvanometer.
Ans. (4)
E : Current sensitivity of MCG depends inversely
on number of turns of coil.
3
37. A gun fires a lead bullet of temperature 300K into
a wooden block. The bullet having melting
temperature of 600 K penetrates into the block and
Sol.
melts down. If the total heat required for the
process is 625 J, then the mass of the bullet is ___
grams.
r 2
a
2 2 Ans. (3)
Sol. 625 = msT + mL
1 1 2a
625 = m[125 × 300 + 2.5 × 104]
r a r a
2 2 3
r 2
a
2 2
625 = m[37500 + 25000]
625 = m[62500]
4ra 2a
1
r a2 m
2 3
r kg
2
2
a 2 2
100
2r 1 M = 10 grams
r a2
38. What is the lateral shift of a ray refracted through a
2 3
r2 a2 2
2
h tan(i r) h cos(i r)
(1) (2)
4r (r + a ) = (r – a )
2 2 2 3 2 2 4
tan r sin r
3 4 h sin(i r)
a2 a2 (3) h (4)
4r 1 2 r 8 1 2
8
cos r
r r Ans. (4)
3 4
a2 a2 Sol. Formula base
4 1 2 1 2
r r h sin(i r)
cos r
Exact value cannot be solved in exam for this
39. A solid sphere of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ is
equation to be true
allowed to roll without slipping from the highest
a point of an inclined plane of length ‘L’ and makes
1 a > r
r an angle 30º with the horizontal. The speed of the
But point charge Q lies between charges of dipole particle at the bottom of the plane is v1. If the angle
of inclination is increased to 45º while keeping L
1 hence electric field cannot be zero.
constant. Then the new speed of the sphere at the
There for it should be bonus. bottom of the plane is v2. The ratio of v12 : v22 is
But by solving from mathematical software we are (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
getting a/r 3. (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
Ans. (1)
4
A C
L
Sol. Lsin 4
Sol.
A
6V D
using WET 4 4
Wg = kf – ki
B
Mg L sin = kf – ki
1 1
2
K.E. in pure rolling mVcm Icm 2
2 2 4
2
1 1 2 V 6
mV 2 mR 2 2
2 2 5 R 4 4
7
mV 2
10
7 4
mgL sin mVf2 0
10 6 6
6
V sin
f
2
2
2
V1 sin 1 sin 30 1
V2 sin 2 sin 45 2
Current through ammeter = 1 A
40. Refer to the circuit diagram given in the figure,
Rnet = 6
which of the following observation are correct?
A C
A. Total resistance of circuit is 6. 1A
B. Current in Ammeter is 1A
6V D A
C. Potential across AB is 4 Volts.
D. Potential across CD is 4 Volts. 0.5A 0.5A
5
Sol. = + 1 – 1 R1 R 2 2
2 2
[ = [ = [ feq 1 R1R 2 R 2
2 (2 – 1 )(R1 R 2 ) 1R1
=
R2 1R1
1 2[2 R1 2 R 2 – 1R 2 ]
L feq 1R1R 2
For same size of image
42. Given a thin convex lens (refractive index 2), kept
u = 2f
in a liquid (refractive index 1, 1 < 2) having
1R1R 2
radii of curvature |R1| and |R2|. Its second surface is u=
2 R1 2 R 2 – 1R 2
silver polished. Where should an object be placed
on the optic axis so that a real and inverted image
43. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in
is formed at the same place ?
free space is
1 R1 . R 2
(1) E = 57 cos[7.5 × 10 t – 5 × 10
6 –3
(3x + 4y)]
2 R1 R 2 1 R1
1 R1 . R 2
4iˆ 3jˆ N/C.
(2)
2 R1 R 2 1 R 2 The associated magnetic field in Tesla is-
(3)
1 R1 . R 2 (1) B
57
3 10 8
–3
cos [7.5 × 10 t – 5 × 10 (3x + 4y)] 5kˆ
6
2 2 R1 R 2 1 R1 . R 2
(2) B
57 6 –3
cos [7.5 × 10 t – 5 × 10 (3x + 4y)] k̂
2 1 R1 3 10 8
(4)
2 1 (3) B
57
3 10 8
6 –3
cos [7.5 × 10 t – 5 × 10 (3x + 4y)] 5kˆ
Ans. (2)
Sol. 57
(4) B 6 –3
cos [7.5 × 10 t – 5 × 10 (3x + 4y)]
3 10 8
|R1| |R2|
k̂
1 Ans. (3)
Sol. K 3iˆ 4ˆj
2 3iˆ 4ˆj
1 K̂
5
1 2 1
–
feq fL fm 4iˆ – 3jˆ
Ê
5
| R2 |
fm – ˆ K
ˆ Eˆ
2 B
ˆ –Zˆ
B
1 2 1 1
– 1
fL 1 R1 R 2 E0 57
B0 =
C 3 108
6
44. The motion of an airplane is represented by 46. A positive ion A and a negative ion B has charges
velocity-time graph as shown below. The distance 6.67 × 10–19 C and 9.6 × 10–10 C, and masses
19.2 × 10–27 kg and 9 × 10
–27
covered by airplane in the first 30.5 second is ____ kg respectively. At an
km. instant, the ions are separated by a certain distance
v(m/sec)
r. At that instant the ratio of the magnitudes of
A
400 electrostatic force to gravitational force is P × 10–13,
where the value of P is ____.
200 B
1
(Take = 9 × 109 Nm2C–1 and universal
4 0
0 2 10 20 30 40 t(sec) gravitational constant as 6.67 × 10–11 Nm kg )
2 –2
15 Sol. A.B 0
4 – 6 n + 8p = 0
Sol.
1 | A || B|
mass of disc = m 4 + 9n2 + 4 = 4 + 4 + 16p2
m 9n 2 = 16p2
mass of cut part =
16
3
P=+ n
m 4
m0 – 15
Xcom = 16
m 4 – 6n + 6n = 0
m–
16 12n = 4
= 1 cm. 1
n=
3
7
48. An ideal gas initially at 0ºC temperature, is 3H
compressed suddenly to one fourth of its volume.
50.
If the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to
12V
that at constant volume is 3/2, the change in
temperature due to the thermodynamics process R
V
0.5 Ans. (3)
273 V00.5 T 0
4 LdI
Sol. – – IR 0
dt
T = 273 × 2 = 546
12 – 3 × (–8) – I × 12 = 0
T = 273
I=3
49. A force f x2 yiˆ y2ˆj acts on a particle in a plane
x + y = 10. The work done by this force during a
displacement from (0, 0) to (4m, 2m) is _____
Joule (round off to the nearest integer)
Ans. (152)
4 2
x (10 – x)dx y dy
2 2
Sol.
0 0
4 2
10x3 x 4 y3 640 8
= = 64 = 152
3 4 0 3 0 3 3
8
JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY 2025
(HELD ON THURSDAY 23rd JANUARY 2025) TIME : 9 : 00 AM TO 12 : 00 NOON
line of H atom is suitable for this ? 54. CrCl3.xNH3 can exist as a complex. 0.1 molal
Given: Rydberg constant aqueous solution of this complex shows a
5 –1 –34 8
RH = 10 cm , h = 6.6 × 10 J s, c = 3 × 10 m/s)
depression in freezing point of 0.558ºC. Assuming
(1) Paschen series, 3
100% ionisation of this complex and coordination
(2) Lyman series, 1
number of Cr is 6, the complex will be
(3) Balmer series, 2
(Given Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(4) Paschen series, 5 3
Sol. (1) (1) [Cr(NH3)6] Cl3
1
55. 2.0V
FeO24 Fe3
0.8V 0.5V
Fe2 Fe0 57. Given below are two statements:
In the above diagram, the standard electrode Statement I: Fructose does not contain an
potentials are given in volts (over the arrow). aldehydic group but still reduces Tollen‟s reagent
The value of E FeO24 /Fe2
is Statement II : In the presence of base, fructose
(1) 1.7 V (2) 1.2 V undergoes rearrangement to give glucose.
(3) 2.1 V (4) 1.4 V In the light of the above statements, choose the
Sol. (1)
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
G G G
o
4
o
1
o
2 (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
n 4 FE o4 n1FE10 n 2 FE2o Sol. (2)
4 E o4 3 2 (1 0.8) CH2–OH CH–OH
C=O C – OH
6.8 –
E o4 V HO H OH HO H
4 H OH H OH
H OH H OH
Eo4 1.7V CH2OH CH2OH
(D. Fructose) (Enediol)
56. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
CH=O CH=O
LIST-I LIST-II
H OH HO H
Name reaction Product HO H H
+ HO
H OH H OH
obtainable H OH H OH
A. Swarts reaction I. Ethyl benzene CH2OH CH2OH
D-Glucose D-Mannose
B. Sandmeyer‟s reaction II. Ethyl iodide
C. Wurtz Fittig reaction III. Cyanobenzene 58. 2.8 × 10–3 mol of CO2 is left after removing 1021
D. Finkelstein reaction IV. Ethyl fluoride molecules from its „x‟ mg sample. The mass of
Choose the correct answer from the options given CO2 taken initially is
below:
Given : NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (1) 196.2 mg (2) 98.3 mg
2
59. Ice at –5°C is heated to become vapor with 60. The d-electronic configuration of an octahedral
Co(II) complex having magnetic moment of 3.95
temperature of 110°C at atmospheric pressure. The BM is :
entropy change associated with this process can be (1) t 62g e1g (2) t 32g e 0g
(3) t 52g e 2g (4) e 4 t 32
obtained from :
Sol. (3)
383K
H melting H boiling Co+2 = (Ar)18 3d7 4s°
(1)
268K
C p dT
273
373
3
63. The correct stability order of the following 66. The correct set of ions (aqueous solution) with
species/molecules is : same colour from the following is :
H
(–) (1) V2+, Cr3+, Mn3+ (2) Zn2+, V3+, Fe3+
(–)
(3) Ti4+, V4+, Mn2+ (4) Sc3+, Ti3+, Cr2+
p q r
Sol. (1)
(1) q > r > p (2) r > q > p (1) V2+(Violet), Cr3+(Violet), Mn3+(Violet)
(3) q > p > r (4) p > q > r
(2) Zn2+(Colourless), V3+(Green), Fe3+(Yellow)
Sol. (1)
q is aromatic r is nonaromatic p is antiaromatic (3) Ti4+(Colourless), V4+(Blue), Mn2+ (Pink)
64. Propane molecule on chlorination under (4) Sc3+(Colourless), Ti3+(Purple), Cr2+ (Blue)
photochemical condition gives two di-chloro 67. Given below are two statements :
products, “x” and “y”. Amongst “x” and “y”, “x” is
Statement I : In Lassaigne's test, the covalent
an optically active molecule. How many tri-chloro
products (consider only structural isomers) will be organic molecules are transformed into ionic
obtained from “x” when it is further treated with compounds.
chlorine under the photochemical condition? Statement II : The sodium fusion extract of an
(1) 4 (2) 2
organic compound having N and S gives prussian
(3) 5 (4) 3
Sol. (4) blue colour with FeSO4 and Na4[Fe(CN)6]
*
“X” is CH3–CH–CH In the light of the above statements, choose the
2
4
Sol. (1) 70. Which among the following react with Hinsberg's
Condition for precipitation Qip > Ksp reagent?
NH2 N(CH3)2
For [A(OH)2] (A) (2)
5
73. Consider the following sequence of reactions to 104 P = 0.6(104 – 1)
produce major product (A) P = (6000 – 0.6) × 10–4
CH3 i) Br2, Fe = 5999. × 10–4
ii) Sn, HCl
(A) = 0.59994
iii) NaNO2, HCl, 273 K
NO2 Major Product P
iv) H3PO2, H2O PTotal 0.6
2
Molar mass of product (A) is ______ g mol–1.
= 0.6 + 0.29997
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 of C : 12, H : 1,
= 0.89997
O : 16, Br : 80, N : 14, P : 31)
= 899.97 × 10–3
Sol. (171)
Ans. 900
CH3 CH3 CH3
Br2
Br
Sn
Br Given by NTA
Fe HCl
NO2 NO2 NH2
Given : 2N2O5(g) → 2N2O4(g) + O2(g)
t=0 0.6 0 0
NaNO2/HCl
t = 100s 0.6 - x x x/2
CH3 CH3
x
Br
H3PO2
Br PTotal 0.6
2
(A) As given in equation
Molar mass of product (C7H7Br) (A) is 171 g mol–1 Kr = 4.606 × 10–2 sec–1
74. For the thermal decomposition of N2O5(g) at (Here language conflict in question)
constant volume, the following table can be KA
( Kr not considered)
formed, for the reaction mentioned below : 2
2N2O5(g) → 2N2O4(g) + O2(g) 0.6
K r t ln
0.6 x
S.No. Time/s Total pressure / (atm)
0.6
1. 0 0.6 4.606 × 10–2 × 100 = 2.303 log
0.6 x
2. 100 'x'
0.594
–3
x = ________ × 10 atm [nearest integer] PTotal 0.6 0.897 atm
2
Given : Rate constant for the reaction is 4.606 × 10–2 s–1.
= 897 × 10–3 atm
Sol. (900)
75. The standard enthalpy and standard entropy of
NTA. (897)
decomposition of N2O4 to NO2 are 55.0 kJ mol–1
–2 –1
KN2O5 = 2 × 4.606 ×10 S and 175.0 J/K/mol respectively. The standard free
2N2O5 (g)
2N2O4 (g) O2 (g) energy change for this reaction at 25°C in J mol–1
Pi 0.6 0 0 is _______ (Nearest integer)
P Sol. (2850)
Pf 0.6 – P P
2 H orxn = 55 kJ/mol, T = 298 K
2.303 0.6 Sorxn = 175 J/mol
2 × 4.606 × 10–2 = log
100 0.6 P
G orxn Horxn TSorxn
0.6
4 log10
0.6 P G orxn J/mol – 298 × 175 J/mol
0.6
10 4 G orxn – 52150
0.6 P
0.6 × 104 –104 P = 0.6 G orxn J/mol