12-02-2025

4504CMD303032240012 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The nature of EM wave is :-

(1) Longitudinal, non mechanical

(2) Longitudinal, mechanical
(3) Transverse, non mechanical
(4) Transverse, mechanical

2) In case of concave mirror, the minimum distance between a real object and its real image is :-

(1) ƒ
(2) 2 ƒ
(3) 4 ƒ
(4) zero

3) A square of side 3 cm is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10

cm. The centre of the square is at the axis of the mirror and the plane is normal to the axis. The area
enclosed by the image of the wire is :-

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 16 cm2
(4) 36 cm2

4) A small object of length L lies along the principal axis and at a distance u from a concave mirror
of focal length f. The size of image would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Assertion :- Time varying magnetic field induces electric field

Reason :- Time varying electric field does not induces magnetic field
 both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) both the assertion and reason are false

6) A short linear object is placed along optic axis of a concave mirror. If distance of nearer end of
the object from the mirror is greater than radius of curvature then

(1) a real and elongated image will be formed.

(2) a virtual and elongated image will be formed.
(3) a real and diminished image will be formed.
(4) a virtual and diminished image will be formed.

7) A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of refractive index μ. The angle of incidence is
twice the angle of refraction. Angle of incidence is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 sin–1 (μ)

8) The electric field and magnetic field components of an electromagnetic wave going through
vacuum is described by
Ex = E0 sin (kz – ωt)
By = B0 sin (kz – ωt)
Then the correct relation between E0 and B0 is given by :

(1) kE0 = ωB0

(2) E0B0 = ωk
(3) ωE0 = kB0
(4) E0 = kB0

9) A ray of light is coming from air to water. Which of the following figures show dispersion of light?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A candle placed 25 cm from a lens, forms an image on a screen placed 75 cm on the other end
of the lens. The focal length and type of the lens should be :-

(1) +18.75 cm and convex lens

(2) –18.75 cm and concave lens
(3) +20.25 cm and convex lens
(4) –20.25 cm and concave lens

11) A point source of light is kept at a depth of h in water of refractive index 4/3. The radius of the
circle at the surface of water through which light emits is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A ray of light incident at angle i is refracted at angle r into a glass slab of thickness t. Then the
lateral displacement of the emergent ray is :-

(1) t sin (i – r)/ cos r

(2) t sin (i + r) cos r
(3) t sin (i – r) cos r
(4) t sin (i + r)/ cos r

13) How much water would be filled in a container of height 21 cm, so that it appears half filled to

the observer when viewed from the top of the container :-

(1) 8 cm
(2) 10.5 cm
(3) 12 cm
(4) 14 cm

14) Phase difference between and in EM wave is:-

(1)

(2) π
(3) zero

(4)

15) Match the column I with column II -

Column-I (Law) Column-II (Mathematical formula)

(A) Faraday law (P)

(B) Ampere Maxwell law (Q)

(C) Gauss law for magnetism (R)

(D) Gauss law for electrostatics (S)

Options :-
(1) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
(2) A → P, B → Q, C → S, D → R
(3) A → P, B → S, C → Q, D → R
(4) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P

16) A lens of power 6 D is put in contact with a lens of power –4 D. The combination will behave like
a :-

(1) Divergent lens of focal length 25 cm

(2) Convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 20 cm
(4) Convergent lens of focal length 100 cm

17) Time taken by light to cross a 4 mm window glass of refractive index 1.5 will be-

(1) 2 × 10–8 sec

(2) 2 × 10 sec
8

(3) 2 × 10–11 sec

(4) 2 × 1011 sec
18) A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a screen. A plane parallel plate of glass whose
thickness in the direction of beam = t, refractive index = µ, is introduced in the path of the beam.
The convergence point is shifted by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If electric field for EM wave is given by = 12 × 108 sin (3 × 108 t + z) v/m then is :-

4 sin (3 × 108t + z)
(1)

(2) 4 sin (3 × 108t + z)

100 sin (200 t + z)
(3)

(4) 100 sin (200 t + z)

20) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 9
cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again :

(1) 3 cm upward
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 2 cm upward

21) When a glass prism of refracting angle 60° is immersed in a liquid its angle of minimum
deviation is 30°, then critical angle of glass with respect to the liquid medium is:-

(1) 42°
(2) 45°
(3) 50°
(4) 52°

22) If ε0 and µo represent the permittivity and permeability of vacuum and ε and µ represents the
permittivity and permeability of medium then refractive index of medium is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains :-

(1) yellow, orange, red

(2) violet, indigo, blue
(3) all colours
(4) all colours except green

24) In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence 45°, at the top surface, what is the minimum

refractive index needed for total internal reflection at vertical face ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The refractive index of the material of prism of 60º angle is . At what angle the ray of light be
incident on it so that minimum deviation takes place?

(1) 45º
(2) 60º
(3) 30º
(4) 75º

26) Deviation d produced by a prism of refractive index and small angle A is given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
27) Electromagnetic radiation propagating in free space has electrical average energy density (Ue)
and magnetic average energy density (Um)

(1) Ue = Um
(2) Ue > Um
(3) Ue < Um
(4) Ue ≠ Um

28) The image of a virtual object formed by a concave mirror -

(1) May be virtual

(2) May be real
(3) Is always real
(4) Is always virtual

29) A prism ABC of angle 30° at A has its face AC silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of 45°
at the face AB retraces its path after refraction at face AB and reflection at face AC. The refractive

index of the material of the prism is :-

(1) 1.5

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A point object is placed at the center of a glass sphere (μ = 1.5) of radius 6 cm and refractive
index 1.5. The distance of the virtual image from the surface of the sphere is :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 12 cm

31) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30

cm. The image would be formed at :-

(1) 30 cm left
(2) infinity
(3) 30 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

32) The ray diagram could be correct ?

(1) if n1 = n2 = ng
(2) if n1 = n2 and n2 > ng
(3) if n1 = n2 and n1 > ng
(4) None of these

33) Match List I with List II and select the codes given below the lists :

List I List II
(Position of the object) (Magnification)

An object is placed at
distance = focal Magnification
(I) (A)
length before a is –∞
convex mirror

An object is placed at
centre of curvature Magnification
(II) (B)
before a is 0.5
concave mirror

An object is placed at
focus before a Magnification
(III) (C)
concave mirror is +1

An object is placed at
distance = centre of Magnification
(IV) (D)
curvature before a is -1
convex mirror

Magnification
(E)
is 0.33
(1) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-E
(2) I-A, II-D, IIl-C, IV-B
(3) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-E
(4) I-B, Il-E, III-D, IV-C

34) Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for

(1) blue light

(2) yellow light
(3) green light
(4) red light

35) Find the power of given lens :-

(1) +5 D
(2) +7.5 D
(3) +2.5 D
(4) –2.5 D

36) If in a plano-convex lens. The radius of curvature of the convex surface is 10 cm and the focal
length of the lens is 30 cm, then the refractive index of the material of lens will be,

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.66
(3) 1.33
(4) 3

37) A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is:

(1) E/c
(2) 2E/c
(3) Ec
(4) E/c2

38) The energy of the EM waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it
belong ?

(1) γ-rays
(2) X-rays
(3) Infra-red rays
(4) Ultraviolet rays

39) A parallel beam of light is incident on a system of two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 = 20 cm
and f2 = 10 cm.
What should be the distance between the two lenses so that rays after refraction from both the
lenses pass undeviated ?

(1) 60 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 90 cm
(4) 40 cm

40) If I1 and I2 be the size of the images respectively for the two positions of lens in the displacement
method, then the size of the object is given by:-

(1) I1/I2
(2) I1 × I2
(3)
(4)

41) Angle between two plane mirrors are 60°. If object is placed symmetrically then number of
images formed.

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) Infinite

42) The dimensions of are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 ×
1010 Hz and amplitude 63 V/m.
Statement I: The wavelength of the wave is 1.5 m.
Statement II : The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is 0.21 µT.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II arc correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

44) If radius of curvature of spherical mirror is changing with time at the rate of 2.5 cm/sec then
rate of change of focal length will be :
(1) 5 cm/s
(2) 2.5 cm/s
(3) 1.25 cm/s
(4) 3 cm/s

45) An object is moving in front of mirror as shown in figure.

Column-I Column-II

i Velocity of image a 2 m/s

Velocity of image with

ii b 20 m/s
respect to mirror

Velocity of image
iii c 11 m/s
with respect to object

Velocity of image
iv d 22 m/s
if mirror is stopped
(1) (i-b), (ii-c), (iii-d), (iv-a)
(2) (i-a), (ii-b), (iii-c), (iv-d)
(3) (i-d), (ii-a), (iii-c), (iv-c)
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-B

1) An alcohol with molecular formula C5H12O does not change the colour of acidic dichromate
solution. The alcohol is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following SN1 reaction form racemic mixture ?

(1)

product

(2)
product

(3)
product
(4) All of these

3) A compound which does not react with sodium metal and forms only one type of product on
reaction with excess of HI is ?

(1) CH3–O–C2H5
(2) CH3CH2OH
(3) CH3–O–CH3

(4)

4) Product (major), find product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) ?
(1) C2H5–O–C2H5
(2) CH2=CH2
(3) C2H5–HSO4
(4) C2H6

6) The reaction products is

Product

(1) C6H5OH + CH3I

(2) C6H5I + CH3OH
(3) C6H5CH3 + HOI
(4) C6H6 + CH3OH

7) The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Major product :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

9) Which of the following can form primary alcohol, on treatment with grignard reagent :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Correct order of boiling point is

(i) CH3(CH2)3OH
(ii) C2H5–O–C2H5
(iii) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(iv) CH3–(CH2)3–Cl

(1) i > iv > ii > iii

(2) iii > ii > iv > i
(3) i > ii > iii > iv
(4) iv > iii > ii > i

11) Which among the following show tautomerism ?

(1) Alcohols
(2) Aldehydes
(3) Ethers
(4) Anisole

12) Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reaction with

(1) Na
(2) Br2/Water
(3) Neutral AlCl3
(4) 1 and 2 Both
13)
X is/are -

(1) CHCl3
(2) CH2Cl2
(3) CO2
(4) HCOOH

14) Major product of following reaction will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Which of the following alcohols gives a red colour in Victor Meyer test

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(2)

(3) (CH3)3C–OH

(4)

16) Hydrogen bonding is not possible in

(1) CH3OH
(2) CH3OCH3

(3)

(4) CH3COOH

17) Incorrect statement about two statements

(1) B is more acidic than A

(2) B is steam volatile
(3) Mixture of A and B can be separated by steam distillation
(4) Boiling point order : B > A

18)
The reaction is known as :-

(1) Williamson's synthesis

(2) Finkelstein reaction
(3) Wurtz reaction
(4) Darzen's reaction

19) Which alcohol produces turbidity with lucas reagent most slowly :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)

Under suitable conditions C6H5CH2OH (A) C6H5OH (B), and C6H5COOH (C) can act as acids. The
increasing order of their acidic strength is -

(1) A < B < C

(2) A < C < B
(3) B < A < C
(4) C < B < A

21)

Least soluble alcohol in water is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)

Diethyl ether acts as a -

(1) Lewis acid

(2) Lewis base
(3) Reducing agent
(4) Oxidising agent

23)

The most suitable reagent for conversion of

R–CH2–OH R–CHO

(1) KMnO4
(2) K2Cr2O7
(3) CrO3
(4) PCC

24) Which of the following reaction involves dichlorocarbene as electrophile ?

(1) Kolbe reaction

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Friedel craft's reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction

25)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26)

Phenol readily dissolves in which solution?

(1) in dilute HCl

(2) NaOH and HCl in both
(3) NaOH in solution
(4) in sodium bicarbonate solution

27) Major product is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Select the correct statement :-

(1) A is 2° alcohol
(2) B is 3° alcohol
(3) C is 1° alcohol
(4) A and C are 3° alcohol

29)
A and B are respectively:

(1) CH2=CH2

(2)

(3) CH2=CH2, CH2=CH2

CH2=CH2 ,

(4)

30) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence are

given by the set :-

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2=CHBr

(3)

(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, Br–CH2–CH2–Br

31) Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

(1) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(2) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(3) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
(4) C6H5CH2Br

32) In the following reaction,

The major product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The major product formed in the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34)
The product obtained in this reaction is

(1) CH3CH2OH
(2) (CH3)2CHOH
(3) CH3CH2CH2OH
(4) HO–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

35) Consider the following reaction :

Here, product 'X' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36)
In the above reaction sequence, the final product is:

(1) 2-Bromopropane
(2) 1-Bromopropane
(3) 3-Bromopropene
(4) 2-Bromopropene

37) Which of the following will gives characteristic colour with neutral FeCl3?
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) Only a
(4) a and b

38) Consider the following reaction sequence

The number of C–H bonds in ‘Y’ is

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 11
(4) 9

39) Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because
of electron withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have different acidic strength
even they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

40) Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of boiling point

(A) Propan-1-ol
(B) Butan-1-ol
(C) Butan-2-ol
(D) Pentan-1-ol

(1) A > C > B > D

(2) A > B > C > D
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) D > B > C > A

41) Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the
basis of their reactivity with cone. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

42) Statement-I :- Alkyl chloride is prepared from alcohols, preferably by the action of thionyl
chloride.
Statement-II :- The other products formed in the above reaction are escapable.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

43) Which of the following on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis will not form
alcohol?

(1) HCHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3OCH3

44)
What will be "C" ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) Compound A (Molecular formula C4H8) react with dil. H2SO4 to give compound Y which produce
turbidity immediately while treating with Lucas reagent compound A is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

SECTION-C

1) Statement I: Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism, is inherited as autosomal

recessive trait
Statement II: Phenylketonuria affected individuals lacks an enzyme that converts amino acid
phenylalanine into tyrosine.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.

2) In Drosophila melanogaster, the genes white eye and yellow bodied shows.....a...... recombination
and genes white eye and miniature wing shows .....b..... recombination

(1) a 98.7%, b 37.2%

(2) a 98.7%, b 62.8%
(3) a 1.3%, b 62.8%
(4) a 1.3%, b 37.2%

3) Drosophila melanogaster is found to be very suitable for genetic studies because

(i) They could be grown in simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
(ii) They complete their life-cycle in about 14 days
(iii) A single mating could produce a large number of progenies
(iv) Male and females are clearly distinguishable
(v) It has few hereditary variations that can be seen with high power microscopes
Select how many are correct statements

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

4) Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by ?

(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan

(2) Sutton
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(4) Alfred Sturtevant

5) Who gave the chromosomal theory of inheritance?

(1) Hershey and chase

(2) Sutton & Boveri
(3) Meselson & Stahl
(4) Bateson & Sturtevant

6) The chromosomal maps or genetic maps were first prepared by :

(1) Sturtevant
(2) Morgan
(3) Bateson
(4) Punnett

7) A diagram is given here that represents:

(1) Independent assortment of chromosome
(2) Linkage
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Co-dominance

8) The map distance between A and C = 30 cM, B and C = 20 cM, A and B is 50 cM, B and D = 10
cM C and D = 30 cM. What is the arrangement of ABCD gene on chromosome?

(1) ABCD
(2) ACBD
(3) BACD
(4) CABD

9) Physical association of two genes is known as

(1) Heterozygosis
(2) Linkage
(3) Recombination
(4) Homozygosis
10)
Above representative figure showing an individual affected with chromosomal disorder, The affected
individual have all the given features except :-

(1) Palm crease.

(2) Normal heart condition
(3) Mental retardation.
(4) Furrowed tongue

11) If a colourblind man marries a girl with normal vision but carrier, then what would be the
probability of their sons being colourblind?

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/8

12) Observe the given pedigree

Inheritance of which disorder can be explained by this pedigree ?

(1) Colourblindness
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

13) Point mutation is

(1) Loss of gene

(2) Change in a single base pair of DNA
(3) Addition of a gene
(4) Deletion of a segment of gene

14) β-Thalassemia gene is present on _____ chromosome.

(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 16
(4) 21

15) A person with 47 chromosome due to XXY condition suffers from disorder called:-

(1) Turner syndrome

(2) Down syndrome
(3) Klinfelter syndrome
(4) Edward syndrome

16) β-Thalassemia is controlled by gene:

(1) HBA
(2) HBC
(3) HBB
(4) HAB

17) Which disease is sex linked recessive disease ?

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Thalassemia

18) Statement I : Colour blindness occurs in about 8% of males and 0.4% of females.
Statement II : Colour blindness defect is due to mutation in certain gene present in the X-
chromosomes.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

19) Read the following features and identify the genetic disorder
a. Short statured with small round head
b. Big and wrinkled tongue.
c. Retarded physical, psychomotor and mental development.

(1) Klinefelter's syndrome

(2) Down's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome
(4) Both (2) & (3)

20) -Thalassemia is controlled by____(i)____ gene present on ____(ii)____ chromosome

(1) (i) HBA1 and HBA2, (ii) 16
(2) (i) HBB (ii) 11
(3) (i) HBB (ii) 16
(4) (i) HBB and HBA2 (ii) 11

21) The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is:

(1) Equal to male

(2) Extremely high
(3) Extremely rare
(4) All of these

22) If a haemophilic man marries a woman carrier for haemophilia, what would be the possibility
that their daughter would be haemophilic?

(1) 0%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

23) XO type of sex determination can be found in

(1) Grasshoppers
(2) Monkeys
(3) Drosophila
(4) Birds

24) Statement-I : The sex determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of
chromosomes an individual receives.
Statement-II : In honey bee female offspring is formed from the union of sperm and egg.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

25) How many of the following diseases are mendelian disorders?

(a) Haemophillia
(b) Sickel cell anaemia
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Colour blindness
(e) Myotonic dystrophy
(f) Turner syndrome

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

26) In which of the following male heterogamety occurs in?

(1) Pigeon
(2) Human
(3) Hen
(4) Honey bee

27) Haplodiploid sex determination system is found in:

(1) Honey bee

(2) Bird
(3) Drosophila
(4) Grasshopper

28) The X body that was named by Henking was observed by him in a few

(1) Insects
(2) Birds
(3) Mammals
(4) Protozoans

29) In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination in birds :

(1) Males are heterogametic

(2) Females are heterogametic
(3) Females are homogametic
(4) Both males and females are homogametic

30) How many chromosomes do male honey bees have ?

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 48
(4) 64

31) In which of the following organism males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes?

(1) Human
(2) Drosophila
(3) Bird
(4) Both 1 and 2

32) Conditions of a karyotype 2n –1 is known as:

(1) Monosomy
(2) Double monosomy
(3) Trisomy
(4) Tetrasomy

33) A person with short stature and under developed feminine character. This statement is true for

(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(2) Turner’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome
(4) Phenylketonuria

34) Assertion: Down's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome and Turner's syndrome are chromosomal
disorders.
Reason: In Klinefelter's syndrome, females are sterile.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both reason and reason are false.

35) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in

(1) Gain of chromosome

(2) Loss of chromosome
(3) Aneuploidy
(4) More than one option is correct

36) A haemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the probability that their son
will be haemophilic ?

(1) 100%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 0%

37) All the seven children of a couple are males. What is the probability that the eighth child will
also be a male?

(1) 1/8
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/16

38) Which of the given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal recessive gene. What is the
genotype of given parents?

(1) AA, aa
(2) Aa, AA
(3) aa,aa
(4) Aa, Aa

39) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a-female Drosophila, b-male Drosophila

(2) a-male Drosophila, b-female Drosophila
(3) a-female Musca domestica, b-female Musca domestica
(4) a female honey bee, b-honey bee

40) Statement I : Pedigree analysis is used to trace inheritance patterns of traits in human families.
Statement II : Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

41) Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia:-

(1) It is qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin

(2) It is a quantitative problem of synthesising too few globin molecules
(3) It is a X-linked recessive disease
(4) It is a Y-linked dominant disease

42) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct option:-

Column-I Column-II
 (a) (i) Consanguineous mating

(b) (ii) Unaffected female

(c) (iii) Mating

(d) (iv) Sex unspecified

(e) (v) Parents with male child unaffected

Option:-
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-v, e-ii
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii, e-i
(4) a-v, b-ii, c-iii, d-i, e-iv

43) Gynaecomastia is seen in case of:

(1) Down’s syndrome

(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) All of these

44) Identify A, B and C :-

(1) A – CAC ; B – GUG ; C – Val

(2) A – CAC ; Y – GAG ; C – Val
(3) A – CTC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(4) A – CTC ; B – GAG ; C – Glu

45) In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?

(1) 50%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 100%

46) There was an increase in the number of pesticide resistant mosquitoes towards the end of 1900s
in comparison with the early 1900s
Which factor was responsible for this sudden and drastic increase?

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Natural selection
(3) Special creation
(4) Chemical evolution

47) Statement I: Analogous structures are a result of divergent evolution, with similar structures
evolving for different functions.
Statement II: Sweet potato and potato are examples of analogous structures due to root
modification and stem modification, respectively.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

48) Which of the following statements is true regarding the evolutionary history of humans?

(1) The Neanderthal man had a smaller brain size than Homo erectus
(2) Homo sapiens did not arise in Africa
The skull of a baby chimpanzee resembles the adult human skull more than that of an adult
(3)
chimpanzee
(4) Homo erectus were known to be vegetarians

49) What was the brain capacity of Homo erectus as discovered from fossils in Java in 1891?

(1) 650-800cc
(2) 900cc
(3) 1000cc
(4) 1200cc

50) Which fish, thought to be extinct, was caught in 1938 in South Africa?

(1) Goldfish
(2) Coelacanth
(3) Catfish
(4) Salmon

51) Which of the following is associated with founder effect?

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Genetic drift

52) In a random mating population of 5000 individuals, frequency of dominant phenotype is 0.51,
then find out number of homozygous organisms?

(1) 2100
(2) 1620
(3) 4500
(4) 2900

53) According to Hugo deVries, what is the primary cause of evolution and speciation?

(1) Minor heritable variations

(2) Natural selection
(3) Mutations
(4) Genetic drift

54) According to Lamarck's theory, the evolution of giraffes' long necks was due to:

(1) Branching descent

(2) Natural selection
(3) Use and disuse of organs
(4) Random mutations

55) What does the term 'adaptive radiation' refer to in evolutionary biology?

The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from point.
(1)
Literally radiating to other area of geography
(2) The radiation of heat from organisms adapting to colder environments
(3) The divergence of a single species into a species that consumes seeds
The evolution of similar traits in unrelated groups of organisms due to similar environmental
(4)
pressures

56) What did Darwin observe on the Galapagos Islands that led him to conjecture about the
evolution of species?

(1) The similarity of finches on different islands

(2) The presence of a single variety of finch across the island
(3) The amazing diversity of creatures, particularly the varieties of finches
(4) The uniformity of the environment on the islands

57) Which of the following best describes the concept where different species have similar
anatomical structures in their forelimbs, such as humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and
phalanges, due to a common ancestor?

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Analogous structures
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Vestigial structures

58) According to the concept of biogenesis as mentioned in the text, the first cellular forms of life
originated approximately how many years ago?

(1) 3 billion years ago

(2) 2000 million years ago
(3) 1 billion years ago
(4) 500 million years ago

59) Statement I: Australopithecines were probably not taller than 4 feet and walked upright.
Statement II: Homo habilis, considered the first human-like being, lived over two million years ago
and primarily ate fruit but also hunted with stone weapons.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

60) Statement I: The first mammals were like shrews and their fossils are small sized.
Statement II: Mammals of that era were oviparous and did not protect their unborn young inside
the mother's body.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

61) Statement I: Dinosaurs disappeared from the earth about 65 million years ago due to climatic
changes.
Statement II: It is a well-established fact that most dinosaurs evolved into birds, which is why they
disappeared.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

62) Statement I: In genetic equilibrium, the sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1, where p and
q represent the frequency of alleles A and a respectively in a diploid organism.
Statement II: The frequency of AA individuals in a population is represented by the expression p +
q.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

63) Statement I: The ages of fossils can be calculated using a method known as radioactive-dating,
which is based on the principles of radioactive decay.
Statement II: Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian
theory of evolution.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

64) Statement I: S.L. Miller, an American scientist, demonstrated the chemical evolution by
creating electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3, and water vapor at 800C.
Statement II: The conditions on early earth conducive to the formation of life included low
temperatures and an oxidizing atmosphere containing O2 and CO2.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

65) Assertion (A): Ramapithecus was considered more man-like compared to Dryopithecus.
Reason (R): Fossils found in Ethiopia and Tanzania show hominid features indicating man-like
primates existed about 3-4 mya.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

66) Assertion (A): Some land reptiles evolved into fish-like reptiles such as Ichthyosaurs around
200 million years ago.
Reason (R): The land reptiles that returned to water to evolve into fish-like reptiles were primarily
dinosaurs like Tyrannosaurus rex.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

67) Assertion (A): The first organisms to invade land were plants, and they were already
widespread when animals invaded land.
Reason (R): Jawless fish evolved around 350 mya, indicating that vertebrate life was present before
plants colonized land.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

68) Assertion (A): In bacteria speciation can occur over a few generations due to natural selection.
Reason (R): Natural selection involves heritable variations that improve survival and reproductive
success, leading to changes in gene frequency over generations.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

69) Assertion (A): Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are examples of homologous
structures.
Reason (R): Both thorn and tendrils have evolved due to convergent evolution.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

70) Assertion (A): The concept of 'survival of the fittest' implies that individuals with characteristics
suitable for their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce.
Reason (R): Darwin's definition of fitness relates to an individual's reproductive success in a given
environment.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

71) Assertion (A): Earth was formed about 4.5 billion years ago without any atmosphere.
Reason (R): The early Earth's surface was covered with water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide,
and ammonia released from the molten mass.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

72) Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.

(1) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger

(2) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
(3) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(4) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole

73) Some characters of pre historic hominid species are given below:
(i) Brain capacity 900 cc
(ii) Lived near east and central Asia
(iii) First human being like
(iv) Used hides to protect their bodies
(v) Buried their dead
(vi) Existed around 10000 years back
Which characters are shared by Neanderthal man among these?

(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi)

(2) (ii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

74) Mutations are ____(A)____ and ____(B)_____ while Darwinian variations are _____(C)_____ and
_____(D)_____. Fill in the blanks for A, B, C and D from the options given in the table below:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Which type of natural selection is shown in given graphical representation?

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Artificial selection

76) What is not true about the organisms given below in the diagram?
(1) They all are example of convergent evolution
(2) They all are example of adaptive radiation
(3) They have evolved from a common ancestor
(4) They all are Australian marsupials

77) Hardy–Weinberg principle applicable on:

(1) Large population

(2) Random mating population
(3) Selective mating and small population
(4) Both 1 and 2

78) According to some early Greek philosophers life can transfer from planet to planet in form of a
unit. These units are called as:

(1) Spores
(2) Ebionts
(3) Pangenes
(4) Protobiont

79) Who experimentally disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Oparin & Haldane
(3) Stanley Miller
(4) Hugo deVries

80) Genetic drift always operates in :

(1) Medium sized population

(2) Large population
(3) Small population
(4) Never operates in any population

81) Hugo de Vries experimented on the:

(1) Garden pea
(2) Fruit fly
(3) China rose
(4) Evening primrose

82) Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because :

(1) High degree of environmental pollution

(2) A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(3) Very high atmospheric temperature
(4) Absence of raw materials

83) Gene pool is :

(1) Genotype of an individual of a population

(2) Total genes and their alleles in a population
(3) Pool of artificially synthesised genes
(4) Genes of a genus

84) In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average
weight between 3 to 3.3kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or
4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place ?

(1) Directional Selection

(2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
(4) None of the above

85) The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is :-

(1) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

(2) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(4) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

86) According to Big-Bang theory universe is about ____.

(1) 5 million years old

(2) 10 million years old
(3) 20 billion years old
(4) 30 billion years old

87) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which island ?

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archipelago

88) A process in which heritable variation enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and
leave greater number of progeny is called :-

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Natural selection
(3) Founder effect
(4) Both (1) and (3)

89) In a random mating population of 1000 individuals, frequency of recessive phenotype is 0.16,
then find out number of dominant organisms?

(1) 360
(2) 480
(3) 840
(4) 160

90) ‘Industrial melanism’ is an example of :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Evolution by anthropogenic action
(3) Balancing selection
(4) More than one options are correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 4 3 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-B

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 4 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 1 3

BIOLOGY

SECTION-C

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 3 4 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 2 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

6) When object is placed beyond center of curvature then image is formed between F and C.
Nature of image is real and small.

7)

or cos or

or i = 2 cos–1

8)

10)
f = 18.75 cm and convex lens

11)
n2 sin ic = n1 sin 90°

⇒ ic = sin–1

⇒ sin ic

⇒ sin ic =
⇒ 16R2 = 9R2 + 9h2
⇒ 7R2 = 9R2 ⇒ R =

20)

21) μ =

μ=

θc = 45°

24) At point A, by Snell's law

....(i)

At point B, for total internal reflection sin i1 =

From figure, i1 = 90° – r ∴ sin(90° – r) =

......(ii)

Now cos r = ...(iii)

From equations (ii) and (iii)

Squaring both side and then solving we get

29)
By snell's law
1 × sin45° = μsin30°

⇒μ=

31)

⇒
v = –30 cm

33) (I) u = –f , f = f

v = , m = 0.5
(II) u = –R , v = –R ; m = –1
(III) u = –f, f = –f ; v = –∞ ; m = –∞
(IV) u = –2f ; f = f

v= ;m= = 0.33.

35)

Using lens makers formula

44) R = 2F

2.5 cm/s = 2 ×

45)
 VI = 2Vm – V0 = 18 + 2 = 20 m/s
VIM = VI – VM = 20 – 9 = 11 m/s
VIO = VI – V0 = 20 + 2 = 22 m/s
if mirror is stopped
VI = – V0 = 2m/s

CHEMISTRY

52)

62) Para nitrophenol has intermolecular H-bonding so it is less volatile than ortho nitrophenol
in ortho nitrophenol, intramolecular H-bonding is present.

68)

69) :CCl2 Intermediate in Reimer-Tiemann Reaction

73)
Option-(3) → C is 1° alcohol (True)

75)
76) SN1 ∝ stability of intermediate carbocation.

77)

78)

80)
 86)

89)

BIOLOGY

94) NCERT 12th Class: 4.3.2 Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance

98)
 114) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71

120) NCERT pg # 71, para 3 (Class-12)

121) NCERT pg.no. 71

124) NCERT pg # 76

125)

NCERT-XII, Page # 75

126) xhy xx
Man Women
Then all sons will be normal.

129) Ncert Pg No. 83

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 76

134) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 89

135)

HbA HbS

HbA HbA HbA HbA HbS

HbS HbA HbS HbS HbS

∴ Phenotypic ratio : Normal : Sickle-cell : Diseased
1 : 2
Thus, 25% of progeny will be affected.

137)

Statement I: Incorrect. Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution, not

divergent evolution. Convergent evolution involves different structures evolving for the same
function, leading to similarities. Statement II: Correct. Sweet potato and potato are examples
of analogous structures, with sweet potato being a root modification and potato being a stem
modification, both serving similar functions of storage.

138) The skull of a baby chimpanzee is more like that of an adult human than an adult
chimpanzee, indicating a closer resemblance in skull structure between young chimpanzees
and adult humans. This statement is true and reflects the evolutionary similarities observed in
the developmental stages of chimpanzees and humans. The Neanderthal man, with a brain size
of 1400cc, lived much later than Homo erectus and is known to have used hides and buried
their dead. Homo sapiens are believed to have originated in Africa and spread across
continents, developing into distinct races. Homo erectus is not documented as being strictly
vegetarian; they probably ate meat.

139) Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed Homo erectus, which had a larger brain
capacity of around 900cc, indicating an evolutionary advancement in brain size from earlier
hominids with brain capacities between 650-800cc.

140) The Coelacanth, a fish that was believed to be extinct, was caught in 1938 in South
Africa. It is significant because it is related to lobefins, which are ancestral to the first
amphibians that could live on both land and water.

143) Hugo deVries proposed that mutations, which are large differences arising suddenly in a
population, are the primary cause of evolution and speciation, rather than the minor heritable
variations that Charles Darwin emphasized. DeVries's concept of mutation causing speciation
in a single step is known as saltation.

144) Lamarck's theory suggested that the evolution of life forms, such as the elongation of
giraffes' necks, was driven by the use and disuse of organs. Giraffes had to adapt by
elongating their necks to forage leaves on tall trees, according to Lamarck.

145) Adaptive radiation refers to the evolutionary process where organisms diversify rapidly
from an ancestral species into a multitude of new forms, particularly when a change in the
environment makes new resources available, creates new challenges, or opens new
environmental niches. Darwin's finches and Australian marsupials are classic examples of
adaptive radiation.

146) During his visit to the Galapagos Islands, Darwin observed an amazing diversity of
creatures, including many varieties of finches on the same island. This observation led him to
conjecture that all the varieties of finches may have evolved on the island itself, contributing to
his theory of evolution.

147) Divergent evolution refers to the process where organisms with a common ancestor
evolve and accumulate differences, leading to the formation of new species. The forelimbs of
whales, bats, cheetahs, and humans are structurally similar because they share a common
ancestor, and these structures are known as homologous structures. Despite performing
different functions, these forelimbs have evolved in different directions due to adaptations to
different needs.

148) The text states that the first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years
back, but the first cellular forms of life did not possibly originate until about 2000 million years
ago. These were probably single-celled organisms, and all life forms were in a water
environment only. This timeline is part of the concept of biogenesis, which describes the slow
evolution of life from non-living molecules.

149) Statement I: Correct. Australopithecines were likely not taller than 4 feet and were
bipedal, meaning they walked upright.
Statement II: Incorrect. While Homo habilis is considered the first human-like being and did
live around two million years ago, the text specifically states that they 'essentially ate fruit'
and does not confirm that they hunted with stone weapons, although evidence shows stone
weapons were used.

150) Statement I: Correct. The first mammals were indeed small-sized and resembled modern-
day shrews, as indicated by their fossils. Statement II: Incorrect. Mammals of that era were
viviparous, meaning they gave birth to live young rather than laying eggs, and they protected
their unborn young inside the mother's body.

151) Statement I: True to some extent. Dinosaurs did disappear from the earth around 65
million years ago, and climatic changes are one of the hypotheses for their extinction.
Statement II: False. While it is hypothesized that some dinosaurs may have evolved into birds,
it is not established as the sole reason for their disappearance, and the exact reasons for the
extinction of dinosaurs remain a subject of scientific research and debate.

152) Statement I: Correct. In genetic equilibrium, the sum total of all allelic frequencies is
indeed 1, where p and q represent the frequency of alleles A and a respectively in a diploid
organism.
Statement II: Incorrect. The frequency of AA individuals in a population is represented by the
expression p2, not p + q, which would instead represent the sum of the frequencies of alleles A
and a, not the frequency of the homozygous genotype AA.

154) Statement I: Correct. S.L. Miller's experiment in 1953 indeed involved creating electric
discharge in a closed flask with CH4, H2, NH3, and water vapor at high temperatures to
simulate early earth conditions and demonstrate chemical evolution.
Statement II: Incorrect. The early earth had high temperatures and a reducing atmosphere
rich in methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), etc., not low temperatures and an oxidizing
atmosphere.

155) The assertion is true as Ramapithecus is considered to be more man-like when compared
to the more ape-like Dryopithecus. The reason is also true; fossils with hominid features have
been found in Ethiopia and Tanzania, indicating the existence of man-like primates around 3-4
million years ago. However, the reason R does not directly explain assertion A, as the fossils
mentioned are not specifically of Ramapithecus but of hominids in general.

156) The assertion is true as some land reptiles did return to water and evolved into fish-like
reptiles such as Ichthyosaurs around 200 million years ago. However, the reason is false
because Tyrannosaurus rex was not among the reptiles that returned to water; it was a large
land-dwelling dinosaur. Therefore, A is true, but R is false.
157) The assertion is true as it is widely accepted that plants were the first organisms to
colonize land, and they had already formed widespread terrestrial ecosystems by the time
animals began to move onto land. The reason is false because the evolution of jawless fish
around 350 mya does not indicate that vertebrate life was present on land before plants;
rather, it indicates the presence of vertebrate life in aquatic environments. Therefore, A is
true, but R is false.

158) The assertion is true as speciation can indeed occur over several generations through the
process of natural selection. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for the
assertion because natural selection acts on heritable variations that confer a survival or
reproductive advantage, leading to changes in the frequency of genes and alleles in future
generations, which can result in speciation.

159) The assertion is true as thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are indeed
examples of homologous structures, indicating common ancestry and divergent evolution.
However, the reason is false because these structures do not result from convergent evolution,
which refers to the process where organisms not closely related independently evolve similar
traits as a result of having to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches. In the case of
homologous structures, the similarity is due to common ancestry, not independent adaptation.
Therefore, A is true, but R is false.

160) The assertion is true as the concept of 'survival of the fittest' indeed refers to the idea
that individuals with characteristics that are well-suited to their environment tend to survive
and reproduce more than those with less suitable traits. The reason is also true and provides
the correct explanation for the assertion, as Darwin's concept of fitness specifically relates to
the ability of an individual to pass on their genes to the next generation, which is a direct
result of reproductive success.

161) The assertion is true as it is widely accepted that Earth was formed about 4.5 billion
years ago and initially did not have an atmosphere. The reason is also true; the early Earth was
covered with gases like water vapor, methane, carbon dioxide, and ammonia. However, these
gases were not the result of an atmosphere being present, but rather they were part of the
process that led to the formation of Earth's early atmosphere. Therefore, while both A and R
are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.

162) NCERT XII Pg # 133

170) Module-2 Pg. # 200

175)

NCERT_XIIth Pg. No. 124,125

177)

NCERT : PAGE 129