09-02-2025

7501CMD303034240033 MD

PHYSICS

1) An RLC circuit has f1 and f2 as the half power frequency and f0 as the resonant frequency. The Q
factor of the circuit is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the choices given below the
columns.

Column-I Column-II

(P) Faraday's law

(A) of EMI

(Q) Gauss's law

(B) in magnetism

(R) Maxwell-Ampere's
(C) circuital law

(S) Gauss's law

(D) in electrostatics

(1) A - (S) , B - (Q) , C - (P) , A - (R)

(2) A - (S) , B - (Q) , C - (R) , A - (P)
(3) A - (Q) , B - (S) , C - (P) , A - (R)
(4) A - (S) , B - (P) , C - (Q) , A - (R)

3) If M, X, I, G, U, R and V denote microwaves, X rays, infrared, gamma rays, ultra-violet, radio

waves and visible parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, the following is the arrangement in
ascending order of wavelength.

(1) I, M, R, U, V, X and G
(2) R, M, I, V, U, X and G
(3) M, R, V, X, U, G and I
(4) G, X, U, V, I, M and R

4) Name the factor which is quantized as per the Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom.
(1) Angular velocity of electron
(2) Linear velocity of electron
(3) Angular momentum of electron
(4) Linear momentum of electron

5) Current in AC circuit is . Its r.m.s. value is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Match Column-I (electromagnetic wave type) with Column-II (its application) and select
the correct option from the choices given below the columns.

Column-I Column-II

(P) to treat
(A) Infrared waves
muscular strain

(B) Radio waves (Q) for broadcasting

(R) to detect of
(C) X-rays
fracture of bones

(S) absorbed by the

(D) Ultraviolet ozone layer of the
atmosphere
(1) A - (P) , B - (R) , C - (Q) , A - (S)
(2) A - (Q) , B - (P) , C - (R) , A - (S)
(3) A - (P) , B - (Q) , C - (S) , A - (R)
(4) A - (P) , B - (Q) , C - (R) , A - (S)

7) Assertion : Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor
when the charge on the capacitor does not change.
Reason : The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field and hence the
electric flux do not change with time.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

8) Assertion : If the angles of the base of the prism are equal, then in the position of minimum
deviation the refracted ray will pass parallel to the base of prism.
Reason : In the case of minimum deviation, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

9) In an ac circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100 t) volts, . The

power dissipated in circuit is

(1) 104 watt

(2) 10 watt
(3) 2.5 watt
(4) 5 watt

10) Ionization potential energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. If it is excited by a photon of energy 12.1 eV,
then the number of lines in the emission spectrum will be

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

11) In the given electromagnetic wave Ey = 600 sin (ωt – kx) Vm–1, intensity of the associated light
beam is (in W/m2); (Given ∈0 = 9 × 10–12C2N–1m–2)

(1) 486
(2) 243
(3) 729
(4) 972

12) Alternating current can be measured by

(1) Moving coil galvanometer

(2) Hot wire ammeter
(3) Tangent galvanometer
(4) All of these

13) A concave mirror of focal length is placed at a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal
length a beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens-concave mirror
combination returns to infinity. The distance d must equal

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) A nucleus of originally at rest emits particle with speed v. What will be the recoil speed
of the daughter nucleus?

(1) 4v/206
(2) 4v/214
(3) v/206
(4) v/214

15) When a lens of power P (in air) made of material of refractive index μ is immersed in liquid of
refractive index μ0. Then the power of lens is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

16) Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.
If and are wave lengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B,
B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following relation is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R series
circuit used for communication?

(1) R = 20Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35 µF

(2) R = 24Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 µF
(3) R = 15Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30 µF
(4) R = 25Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45 µF

18) Angle of a prism is A and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence of
2A on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflections at the second
silvered surface. Refractive index of the material is : -

(1) 2 sin A
(2) 2 cos A
(3) (1/2) cos A
(4) tan A

19) A small rod of length 0.1 cm lies along the principle axis of a concave mirror of focal length 15
cm at a distance of 30 cm from pole. Find length of image

(1) 0.25 mm
(2) 0.4 cm
(3) 0.05 cm
(4) 0.5 mm

20) Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic energy of electron with frequency of incident photon

in photo electric effect. The slope of curve will be:

(1) Charge of electron

(2) Work function of metal
(3) Planck’s constant
(4) Ratio of Planck’s constant and charge of electron

21) If c is the speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum, its speed in a medium of dielectric
constant K and relative permeability µr is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A pocket contains silver powder of mass (30.23 ± 0.01)g some of the powder of mass (6.75 ±
0.01)g is taken out from it. The mass of the power left back is ______

(1) (36.98 ± 0.02)g

(2) (23.48 ± 0.02)g
(3) (36.98 ± 0.0)g
(4) (36.98 ± 0.00)g

23) The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited state is

(1) 1/ 4
(2) 4/9
(3) 9/ 4
(4) 4

24) The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. By how many times, the radius of sulphur
nucleus is larger than that of helium?

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4)

25) The least count of a stop watch is 1/6 second. The time of 30 oscillation of a pendulum is
measured to be 45 sec by this watch. The percentage error in the measurement of time will be :

(1) 16.67%
(2) 66.67%
(3) 0.63%
(4) 0.37%

26) The image of point P when viewed from top of the slabs will be :

(1) 2.0 cm above P

(2) 1.5 cm above P
(3) 2.0 cm below P
(4) 1 cm above P

27) The vector of current and voltage for a circuit is as shown. The components of the circuit will be

(1) LCR
(2) LR
(3) LCR or LR
(4) None of these

28) Consider the following statements :

S1 : The nuclear force is independent of the charge of nucleons.
S2 : The number of nucleons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in the
atom.
S3 : All nuclei have masses that are less than the sum of the masses of constituent nucleons.
S4 : 2 isobars have same chemical properties.
Choose the correct statements from these -

(1) S1 only
(2) S1 and S4
(3) S2, S3 and S4
(4) S1 and S3

29) Match List - I with List - II

List - I List - II

A Purely capacitive circuit I

B Purely inductive circuit II

C LCR series at resonance III

D LCR series circuit IV

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

30) If x = a – b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of x will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The mass of an -particle is

(1) Less than the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons
(2) Equal to mass of four protons
(3) Equal to mass of four neutrons
(4) Equal to sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons

32) Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) The spectral series formula can be derived from the Rutherford model of the hydrogen atom.
(2) Balmer series is a line spectrum in the ultraviolet.
(3) Paschen series is a line spectrum in the infrared.
(4) Lyman series is a continuous spectrum

33) The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be

(1) 100 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 220 V
(4) 140 V

34)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In an LCR series circuit, current is maximum at resonance.
Statement II : Current in a purely resistive circuit can never be less than that in a series LCR circuit
when connected to same voltage source.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are false
35) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measure value
of thickness of a thin sheet. If diagram show reading without and with thin sheet.

(1) 3.40 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

36) When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases the binding energy per nucleon :

(1) Increases continuously with mass number

(2) Decreases continuously with mass number
(3) Remains constant with mass number
(4) First increases and then decreases with increase of mass number

37) The de-Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy of a particle is 2000Å and 1 eV respectively. If its
kinetic energy becomes 1 MeV, then its de-Broglie wavelength becomes

(1) 1Å
(2) 2Å
(3) 5Å
(4) 10Å

38) The stopping potential is 4.8 volt, when radiation of wavelength ' ' is incident on a metallic
surface. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of double the wavelength, then the
stopping potential becomes 1.6 volt. Then find the threshold wavelength for the surface.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) A bi-convex lens of radius of curvature 40 cm is placed in a liquid of refractive index and it is
found that its focal length becomes 80 cm. If refractive index of the material of lens is 1.5 then
refractive index of liquid ( ) will be

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.8
(3) 1.7
(4) 1.2

40) In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1 %, 2%, 3%
and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows % error in P is :

(1) 7%
(2) 4%
(3) 14%
(4) 10%

41) The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. Determine where an object must be placed to
form an image magnified two times when the image is real -

(1) 30 cm from the mirror

(2) 10 cm from the mirror
(3) 20 cm from the mirror
(4) 15 cm from the mirror

42) The voltage supplied to a circuit is given by V = V0t3/2, where t is time in second. Find the RMS
value of voltage for the period t = 0 to t = 1s :-

(1)

(2) V0

(3)

(4) 2V0

43) A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel to

the surface of water, then the value of µg would be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

44) A coil of resistance 100 ohm and self-inductance 0.5 henry is connected to an AC source of

frequency hertz. The phase difference between voltage and current is

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

45) To establish an instantaneous displacement current of I ampere in the space between the plates

of a parallel plate capacitor of farad, the value of is

(1) 2I

(2)

(3)

(4) I

CHEMISTRY

1) is true relationship for the following reaction:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) and (3) both

2) Which of the following statement is not true about Potash alum ?

(1) Its empirical formula is K.Al.(SO4)3.12H2O

(2) It is used in dyeing industry, to stop bleeding
(3) It is salt of (SA + SB) + (SA + WB).
(4) Its aqueous solution is basic in nature.

3) Glucose (A)
Major product 'A' is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) Statement-I : Electronically, Aldehydes are less reactive than ketones towards Nucleophilic
Addition Reaction.
Statement-II : Two Alkyl groups increase the electrophilicity of the carbonyl more effectively.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.

5) The solubility of A2X3 is Y mol dm–3. Its solubility product is :

(1) 6Y4
(2) 64 Y4
(3) 36 Y5
(4) 108 Y5

6) Assertion (A) :- Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be more stable than Cr(VI).
Reason (R) :- Cr(VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium act as a strong reducing agent.

(1) A and R are both true but R is not correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A and R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A.

7) Choose the correct matching :

Column-I Column-II
n
(P) NaBr + Conc . H2SO4 → (A) Colourless gas

(Q) Na2S + dil. HCl → (B) Brown Colour

(R) NaNO2 + dil HCl → (C) Rotten Egg smell

(S) NaNO3 + Conc. H2SO4 (D) Paramagnetic

(1) P–B,D; Q–A,C; R–B; S–B,D
(2) P–B; Q–A,C; R–B,D; S–B,D
(3) P–B,D; Q–A,C; R–B,D; S–B
(4) P–B; Q–A,C; R–A,C; S–B,D

8) A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to various products depending upon its pH. At pH < 7 it is
reduced to a colourless solution (A), at pH = 7 it forms a brown precipitate (B) and at pH > 7 it gives
a green solution (C), (A), (B) and (C) are
 (A) (B) (C)

(1) Mn2+ MnO2

(2) MnO2 Mn2+

(3) Mn2+ MnO2

(4) Mn2+ MnO2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Assertion (A):– The increasing oxidising power in the series .

Reason (R):– Due to increasing stability of the lower species in which they are reduced.

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

10) The final products obtained for the following reaction is:-
KMnO4 (excess) + H2SO4 (concentrated and cold)

(1) Mn2O7
(2) MnO
(3) Mn3O4
(4)

11)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) Which cation is detected by flame test?

+
(1) NH4
(2) K+
(3) Mg+2
(4) Al+3

13) Order of number of chelate ring is correct for :-

(i) [Co(en)2(Ox)]+ (ii) [Fe(Trien)(Ox)]+
(iii) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 (iv) [Pt(Ox)2 (H2O)2]

(1) iii > i > ii > iv

(2) iii > ii > i > iv
(3) iii > iv > i > ii
(4) ii > iii > i > iv

14) For the reaction the value of equilibrium constant is 9.0. The
degree of dissociation of HI will be

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.33
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.67

15) Hexaamminenickel(II) hexanitrocobaltate(III) can be written as

(1) [Ni(NH3)6]2[Co(NO2)6]3
(2) [Ni(NH3)6]3[Co(NO2)6]2
(3) [Ni(NH3)6] [Co(NO2)6]
(4) [Ni(NH3)6(NO2)6]Co

16) In salt analyses, group V radicals (Ba2+, Ca2+ and Sr2+) are precipitated as their carbonates by
adding soild NH4Cl and excess of NH4OH solution followed by solid (NH4)2CO3. Choose the correct
reagent used for the confirmation of Ca2+ ion from the following :

(1) Potassium chromate

(2) Ammonium oxalate
(3) Ammonium nitrate
(4) Ammonium sulphate

17) Which complex ion of cobalt will absorb light of highest wavelength ?
 +3
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
–3
(2) [Co(CN)6]
–3
(3) [CoCl6]
+3
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

18) Suppose the following reaction

The product 'C' will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) For which one of the following ion the colour is not due to a d-d transition ?

(1) (lemon yellow)

2+
(2) [Cu(NH3)4] dark blue
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]SO4 green
3+
(4) [Ti(H2O)6] purple

20) Identify True/False statements respectively :-

(1) Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured both in solid state and in aqueous solution.
(2) Abnormally low value of 3rd I.E. of 64Gd is due to less exchange energy.
(3) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
(4) 2nd I.E. of lanthanoids is comparable with aluminium about 1200 kJ/mol.

(1) TFTF
(2) TTFF
(3) FFFT
(4) TTTF

21) A solution of salt in dilute H2SO4 import deep blue colour with starch iodine solution, it confirm
the presence of which of the following ion :-

(1)
(2)
(3) I–
–
(4) CH3COO

22)
what is "P" ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Match the property given in Column-I with the element given in Column-II.

(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d

(2) i–d, ii–a, iii–b, iv–c
(3) i–b, ii–d, iii–a, iv–c
(4) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c

24) Out of the following, amphiprotic species are

I. HPO32– II. CO32–
III. H2PO4– IV. HCO3–

(1) I, III, IV
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) All

25) When pressure is applied to equilibrium system Ice water. Which of the following phenomenon
will happen?

(1) More ice will be formed

(2) Water will evaporate
(3) More water will be formed
(4) Equilibrium will not exist

26) The correct representation for the Ksp of SnS2 is

(1) [Sn2+][S–2]2
(2) [Sn4+][S–2]2
(3) [Sn2+][2S–2]
(4) [Sn4+][2S–2]2

27) Match the catalysts (Column I) with products (Column II)

Column-I
Column-II (Product)
(Catalyst)

A. V2O5 (i) Polyethylene

B. TiCl4/Al(Me)3 (ii) ethanal

C. PdCl2 (iii) H2SO4

D. Fe/Mo (iv) NH3

(1) A→(iii), B→(iv), C→(i), D→(ii)
(2) A→(ii), B→(iii), C→(i), D→(iv)
(3) A→(iii), B→(i), C→(ii), D→(iv)
(4) A→(iv), B→(iii), C→(ii), D→(i)

28) In which of the following oxo-anion, all M–O bond length are not identical ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) The colour developed when sodium sulphide is added to sodium nitroprusside is :

(1) violet
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) black

30) The compound which will given HVZ reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Give the correct order of electrical conductivity of aqueous solution of following complexes :-
(A) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (B) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(C) K2[PtCl6]

(1) A < B < C

(2) A > B > C
(3) A < B < C
(4) A > B < C
32) The pH of a 10–10 M NaOH solution is nearest to:

(1) 10
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) –10

33) Which of the following is not expected to show paramagnetism ?

2+
(1) [Fe(NH3)6]
(2) Ni(CO)4
2+
(3) [Cr(en)3]
2+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]

34) If the value of equilibrium constant is 15, then the rate constant of forward and backward
reaction respectively are

(1) and
(2) and
(3) and
(4) and

35) The incorrect statement is :-

(1) Ferric ion gives blood red colour with potassium thiocyanate
+2 +2
(2) Cu and Ni ion give black precipitate with H2S in presence of HCl solution.
(3) Cu+2 salts give red coloured borax bead test in reducing flame.
(4) Cu+2 ion gives chocolate coloured precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide solution.

36) Major product

(1)

(2)

(3) No reaction
(4)

37) Statement-1 :- Salt solution containing Br– and Cl– ion on treating with conc. H2SO4 produces
Br2 and HCl respectively but if MnO2 is used along with the acid then X2 (Br2, Cl2) is obtained as
general product.
Statement-2 :- Conc. H2SO4 can oxidize Br– but cannot oxidize Cl– whereas MnO2 can oxidize both
Br– and Cl– ions to Br2 and Cl2 respectively.
In the following set of questions, Statement 1 is given and a corresponding Statement 2 is given
below it. Mark the correct option as :

(1) If both the Statements are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(2) If both the Statements are true and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(3) If Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(4) If Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.

38) Which of the following is not present in complex [Co(NH3)4(SCN)2]Br ?

(1) Geometrical Isomerism

(2) Linkage Isomerism
(3) Ionisation Isomerism
(4) Optical Isomerism

39) In the following which one has highest degree of hydrolysis.

(1) 0.01 M HCOONa

(2) 0.1 M HCOONa
(3) 0.001 M HCOONa
(4) Same

40)
Product P is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The group reagent for the IV group radicals is :-

(1) H2S (acidic)

(2) NaOH
(3) H2S (basic)
(4) (NH4)2CO3

43) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

–
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

44) Which of the following is a buffer solution ?

(1) 500mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1N NaOH

(2) 500mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1N HCl
(3) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.2N NaOH
(4) 500 mL of 0.2 N CH3COOH + 500 mL to 0.1N NaOH

45) Statement-I :- Primary amines have higher boiling point than isomeric secondary amines.
Statement-II :- Primary amines have more H-bonding.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

BIOLOGY

1) Which one is not a secondary messenger?

(1) IP3
(2) Ca+2
(3) cAMP
(4) ATP

2) Release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicle is triggered by :-

(1) Mg2+, Sr2+

(2) Fe, S
(3) Cl
(4) Ca2+

3)

In a polygenic inheritance of skin colours controlled by two polygenes, how many phenotypes,
mulattoes and total progenies are formed in F2

(1) 3, 3, 16 respectively
(2) 7, 20, 64 respectively
(3) 5, 6, 16 respectively
(4) 7, 6, 16 respectively

4) Identify the correct option according to A, B, and C.

 (A)

(1) A → Transcription, B → Replication

(2) B → Replication, A → Translation
(3) A → Translation, B → Transcription
(4) B → Transcription, C → Translation

5) In lac operon model, lactose functions as :

(1) Inducer that binds to operator gene

(2) Repressor that binds to operator gene
(3) Inducer that binds to repressor protein
(4) Corepressor that binds to repressor protein

6) Gland which regulates sleep-wake cycle :-

(1) Adrenal gland

(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Thymus gland

7)

Glucocorticoids stimulate :-
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Lipolysis

(C) Proteolysis
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C

8) Pineal gland regulates .............

Thyroid gland regulates .............
Adrenal cortex regulates .............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :-

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Metabolism, Ca+2 metabolism, release of few amounts of sex steroids
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

9) Identify the symbols given below and the correct option with respect of A, B and C
(1) A-Male, B-Female, C-Sex unspecified
(2) A-Male, B-Female, C-Sterile
(3) A-Male, B-Female, C-Fertile
(4) A-Female, B-Male, C-Sex unspecified

10) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct option :-

Column -I Column-II

a Unipolar Neuron 1 Cerebral cortex

b Bipolar Neuron 2 Embryonic stage

c Multipolar neuron 3 Retina

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3

11) Find out correct points with the regarding of cardiac muscle.
(A) These are unstriated
(B) These are involuntary
(C) These are branched
(D) They have more mitochondria
(E) They have less blood supply

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) B, D, E
(4) A, C, E

12) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) E.Coli
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

13) DNA is considered as better genetic material as RNA because :-

(1) DNA is more reactive as RNA

(2) RNA also have catalytic activity
(3) DNA is more stable as RNA
(4) Both (1) and (3)

14) Which is correct for Turner's syndrome ?

(1) It is a case of monosomy

(2) It causes sterility in females
(3) Absence of Barr body
(4) All of the above

15) Which hormone is not released by pitutary gland.

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Somatrophin
(3) Prolactin
(4) Melatonin

16) Which of the following structure was discovered by Henking ?

(1) Y - body
(2) Bar body
(3) X - body
(4) Nu - body

17) Read the following statements (A-D):-

(A) DNA is a acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

18) Lipid come under acid insoluble fraction during analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Why
?

(1) It has low molecular weight

(2) It has high molecular weight
(3) It is polymer.
(4) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken into pieces and form insoluble vesicles.

19) The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

(1) hydroxyl and methyl

(2) carbonyl and methyl
(3) carbonyl and phosphate
(4) carbonyl and hydroxyl

20) (a) Failure of segregation of chromosomes during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of
chromosomes and it is called ___A___.
(b) Failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis results in an increase in a whole set of chromosome
in an organism and this phenomenon is known as ___B___.

(1) A – Polyploidy, B – Aneuploidy

(2) A – Aneuploidy, B – Polyploidy
(3) A – Aneuploidy, B – Translocation
(4) A – Polyteny, B – Polyploidy

21) Blood-brain barrier is formed by :-

(1) Oligodendrocyte
(2) Schwann cell
(3) Microglial cell
(4) Astrocyte

22)

The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C - ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A -XO males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males

23) Which segments of hnRNA are removed during splicing in eukaryotes?

(1) 5′-UTR
(2) 3′-UTR
(3) Introns
(4) Poly–A–tail

24)

Female are heterogamety with two sex chromosome in :

(1) Fruit fly

(2) Grasshopper
(3) Cockroch
(4) Birds

25) Melatonin hormone of pineal does not represent :-

(1) Sexual maturity regulation

(2) Antioxidant activity
(3) Anti activity to dark pigmentation
(4) Ageing hormone activity

26)

Which is responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance:-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(4) Mitochondria, chloroplast and nucleus

27)
(A) and (B) in the above diagram are :-

(A) (B)

(1) Guanine Cytosine

(2) Adenine Uracil

(3) Adenosine Uridine

(4) Guanine Uracil

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a :-

(1) Dominant trait and gene present on X-chromosome

(2) Recessive trait and gene present on Y-chromosome
(3) Recessive trait and gene present on X-chromosome
(4) Dominant trait and gene present on Y-chromosome

29) Placed below a karyotype of human being

On the basis of this karyotype ,which of the following conclusions can be drawn

(1) Normal human female

(2) Person is suffering from colour blindness
(3) Affected individual is a female with Down syndrome
(4) Affected individual is a female with Turners syndrome

30)

X-linked recessive gene easily express in :-

(1) Male
(2) Female
(3) Equal in male & female
(4) Not easily express

31) If thyroid gland of a tadpole is removed, it can metamorphose when :-

(1) Iodine is Injected into it's blood stream

(2) Antithyroid substance like thiourea is injected to provoke body's metabolism.
(3) Thyroxine is injected in tadpole larva.
(4) Insulin hormone is given orally.

32) Skeletal muscles are controlled by :-

(1) Sympathetic Nervous system
(2) Parasympathetic Nervous system
(3) Autonomic Nervous system
(4) Somatic Neural system

33) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Connects cerebellar
(i) Corpus callosum Tract of nerve fibres
hemisphere

At the base of
(ii) Hypothalamus Body temperature
thalamus

Inner parts of cerebral

(iii) Limbic system Pneumotaxic centre
hemisphere
(1) (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

34)

In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in-

(1) 60S subunit of ribosome

(2) 50S subunit of ribosome
(3) 30S subunit of ribosome
(4) 40S subunit of ribosome

35) Transfer of DNA bands from agarose gel to nitrocellulose or nylon membrane is :-

(1) Southern blotting

(2) Western blotting
(3) Northern blotting
(4) Eastern blotting

36) Plant with genotype aaBbccDdEe produces how many types of gametes ?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 32

37) Cortisol and Adrenaline are related with a common function :-

(1) both stimulates inflammatory reactions

(2) both stimulates glycogenolysis
(3) both stimulates piloerection
(4) both stimulates vasoconstriction

38) Operon contains :-

(1) Operator and regulator genes only

(2) Operator and structural genes only
(3) Operator and regulator genes, and repressor
(4) Operator gene, regulator gene, structural genes and promoter gene

39) The figure depicts :-

(1) Linkage of genes

(2) Independent assortment of chromosomes
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Equational division

40) Identify the correct match from the following table:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Alkaloid Abrin Ricin

(ii) Drug Vinblastin Curcumin

(iii) Toxins Codeine Cellulose

(1) i only
(2) ii only
(3) i and ii
(4) ii and iii

41) Select the mismatch :

(1) Chitin - Polymer of acetylated glucosamine

(2) Glycogen - Polymer of -D Glucose
(3) Cellulose - Homopolysaccharide of -D Glucose unit
(4) lnulin - Homopolysaccharide of -D Fructose units

42) The forebrain consists of :-

(1) Cerebellum, thalamus and hypothalamus

(2) Pons, cerebrum and medulla.
(3) Amygdala, hippocampus and brain stem
(4) Thalamus, hypothalamus and cerebrum

43) Haplodiploid sex- determination system is seen in

(1) Birds
(2) Honey bee
(3) Drosophila
(4) Moth

44)

The unmodified (functioning) allel which represents the original phenotype is the ......(a)........ and
the modified allele is .......(b)....... the .........(c)....... allele:

(1) (a) Recessive, (b) generally, (c) dominant

(2) (a) dominant, (b) always, (c) recessive
(3) (a) domimant, (b) generally, (c) recessive
(4) (a) recessive, (b) always, (c) dominant

45) Which one of the following is the main enzyme of DNA replication :-

(1) DNA-polymerase I
(2) DNA polymerase III
(3) RNA polymerase I
(4) RNA polymerase III

46) In the and thalassaemia, the affected chromosomes are respectively :

(1) 16th ; 11th

(2) 11th ; 16th
(3) 9th ; 4th
(4) 11th ; 11th

47) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct option:-

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-v, e-ii

(2) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii, e-i
(4) a-v, b-ii, c-iii, d-i, c-iv

48) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Functions same as norepinephrine to increase blood pressure.
(B) Stimulate reabsorption of water from distal part of DCT of nephron.
(C) Binds with the surface receptor on the target cell.
Keeping all the characteristics in mind the hormone can be identified as :-

(1) Aldosterone
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor
(3) Oxytocin
(4) ADH

49) The portion of the myofibril between two successive "Z" line is considered as :-

(1) H-zone
(2) Sarcomere
(3) A-band
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

50) Space between arachnoid and piamater is called :-

(1) Epidural space
(2) Subdural space
(3) Cranial venous sinus
(4) Sub-Arachnoid space

51) Observe the below diagrammatic representation and identify A to D.

(1) A-Hypothalamic Neurons, B-Hypothalamic Artery, C-Posterior Pituitary

(2) A-Pituitary, B-Hypothalamic Vein, C-Pars distalis, D-Pars Intermedia
(3) A-Hypothalamic Neurons, B-Portal Circulation, C-Anterior Pituitary, D-posterior Pituitary.
(4) A-Hypothalamic Neurons, B-Portal Circulation, C-Posterior Pituitary, D-Anterior Pituitary

52) Diabetes insipidus is not characterized by :

(1) Dehydration
(2) Polyuria
(3) Polydipsia
(4) Glycosuria

53) In polygenic inheritance a trait is controlled by three polygenes. Two individuals which are
heterozygous for three alleles, crossed with each other. Such type of cross produces what
phenotypic ratio :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1

54) In a sarcomere, only __________ filaments are present in H zone.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.

(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Troponin
(4) Tropomyosin

55) Nissl's granules are absent in :-

(1) Cyton
(2) Dendron
(3) Axon
(4) Both (2) and (3)

56) Which of the following disease is not related to blood of human :-

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Sickle cell Anaemia
(4) Thalassemia

57)

Complete linkage is found in :-

(1) Bat
(2) Birds
(3) Female drosophilla
(4) Male drosophilla

58) In the above diagram, bond represented by [A] is:

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) Ionic bond
(3) Phosphoester bond
(4) Glycosidic bond

59) How many statements are correct ?

(a) Cerebral hemispheres are connected together by a tract of white fibres called corpus callosum
(b) Limbic systems along with hypothalamus regulates sexual behaviour and expression of emotional
reactions
(c) Corpora quadrigemina is a part of forebrain
(d) Medulla contains centers which controls respiration, gastric secrection, cardiovascular reflex

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
60) Hormone of organised endocrine gland is :-

(1) ANF
(2) Renin
(3) PTH
(4) Erythropoeitin

61) Which of the following pair is correct match of a hormone with a disease resulting from its
deficiency ?

(1) Relaxin – Gigantism

(2) Prolactin – Cretinism
(3) Parathormone – tetany
(4) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus

62) Which of the following statements about hormone is/are correct ?

(A) Hormone may be protein or steroids.
(B) Hormones are non nutritive, non antigenic and non species specific.
(C) Hormones are not stored without exception.
(D) All hormone have same mechanism of binding for functioning.

(1) A & C are correct and B & D are false

(2) B & D are correct and A & C are false
(3) A & B are correct and C & D are false
(4) C & D are correct and A & B are false

63) In one complete turn of B-DNA, how many purine N2–bases are present :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 5

64) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy can not lead to ................ in newborn child.

(1) Low intelligence & mental retardation.

(2) Abnormal skin
(3) Deaf mutism
(4) Normal & healthy basal metabolic rate

65) Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option :-
 A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Secondary messenger is not generated by :-

(1) Somatotropic hormone

(2) Hypothalamic hormones
(3) All pituitary hormone
(4) Iodothyronine

67)

Sickle cell anemia is :

(1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

(2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

68) Given below is a flow chart of hormonal action, identify the hormones / glands labelled as A,B, C
and D :-
 (1) A–Neurohypophysis B–TSH C–Thyroid gland

D-Metabolism
(2) A–Pituitary gland B-GnRH
of body

D-Sleep-wake
(3) B-TSH C-Adenohypophysis
cycle

C-Thyroid
(4) A-Adenohypophysis B-TSH
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69)

Sucrose is made up of -

(1) Lactose + glucose

(2) Glucose + Galactose
(3) Glucose + fructose
(4) Glucose + Glucose

70)

In an organism DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-

(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

71)

Inheritance of Human blood group is a condition of :

(a) Codominance
(b) Incomplete dominance
(c) Multiple allelism
(d) Dominance

(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) a, c & d
(4) b, c

72)

Which of the following compound is absent in acid insoluble pool :-

(1) Protein
(2) Lipid
(3) Polysaccharide
(4) Monosaccharide

73) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues / cells in term of % of the total
cellular mass is –

(1) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O > Carbohydrates > Ions > Lipid
(2) H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrates > Lipid > Ions
(3) H2O > Proteins > Carbohydrates > Nucleic acid > Lipid > Ions
(4) Lipid > Ions > Carbohydrates > H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid

74)

One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence the code is

(1) Ambiguous and non-specific

(2) Unambiguous and specific
(3) Ambiguous and specific
(4) Unambiguous and non-specific

75) Which of the following diasaccharide gives two molecules of glucose on hydrolysis ?

(1) Maltose
(2) Lactose
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Sucrose

76)

Organism No. of nucleotides

 ϕ × 174
(i) (A) 4.6 × 106 bp
bacteriophage

Lambda
(ii) (B) 6.6 × 109 bp
bacteriophage

(iii) E.Coli (C) 5386 nucleotides

(iv) Human (D) 48502 bp

Following match is correct :-
(1) i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = A
(2) i = B, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
(3) i = A, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B
(4) i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B

77) Linkage can be broken by :-

(1) Gene mutation

(2) Segregation
(3) Crossing-over
(4) Independent assortment

78) Association areas is-

(1) Sensory in function

(2) Motor in function
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor in function
(4) Neurosecretory in function

79) Match the following terms with their concepts:

Column A Column B

A Phenotype 1 Physical expression of a trait

B Genotype 2 Genetic makeup

C Allele 3 Alternate form of a gene

D Homozygous 4 Identical alleles

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

80) In Griffith's experiment living bacterium takes up DNA from surrounding environment through
which process

(1) Conjugation
(2) Transduction
(3) Transformation
(4) Binary fission

81) The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings (lobes) called.

(1) Cerebral aqueduct

(2) Corpora quarigemina
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Cerebral hemisphere

82)

Given diagram is a presentation of :-

(1) Monohybrid cross

(2) Monohybrid test cross
(3) Dihybrid cross
(4) Reciprocal cross

83) In histone protein which amino acids are present more abundantly:-

(1) Lysine and alanine

(2) Arginine and valine
(3) Glycine and arginine
(4) Lysine and arginine

84) Which statement is correct regarding hormones released by posterior pituitary ?

(1) These are synthesised in pars nervosa

(2) These are synthesised by pars distalis
(3) These are synthesised by hypothalamus
(4) Vasopressin induces child birth.

85) All of the following would be found in an eukaryotic cell except :-

(1) hnRNA
(2) Split gene
(3) Simultaneous transcription and translation
(4) Sn RNA
86) Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?

(1) 1st, 3rd, 8th and 9th

(2) 2nd, 5th, 7th and 9th
(3) 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
(4) 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th

87) Which statement is incorrect regarding hormone ?

(1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical

(2) Act as intracellular secondary messenger
(3) Produce in trace amount
(4) Hormones are species non specific

88) During depolarisation of nerve :-

(1) Na+ VGC – Close, K+ VGC – open

(2) Na+ VGC – Open, Na+-K+ pump – on
(3) K+ VGC – Close, Na+-K+ pump – off
(4) Na+ VGC – Open, K+ leak channel close

89) Find out the correct match :-

(a) Limbic system – regulation of sexual behaviour with hypothalamus
(b) Thalamus – Co-ordinates sensory and motor signals
(c) Association – Intersensory association, memory and communication
(d) Pons – Consist fibre tracts that inter connect different brain regions

(1) only a, b, c correct

(2) only a, c correct
(3) only b, c, d correct
(4) All correct

90) Which of the following statements with respect to monosaccharides is false ?

(1) Monosaccharides are simplest carbohydrates

(2) Monosaccharides can be hydrolysed
(3) Monosaccharides can be oxidised
(4) Monosaccharides are soluble in water
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 1 2 1 2 2 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 4 3 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 3 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) {B.W. = f1 – f2}

2) Conceptual

3) Conceptual

4) Angular momentum of electron.

5)

6) Conceptual

7) Conceptual

8) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
If n be the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then according to Snell's law for the
refraction of light,

(At the point of incidence)

and (At the point of emergence)

Because, for minimum deviation
i = i', hence r = r'

9)

10) Final energy of electron will be

So n = 3, no of lines in the spectrum will be

11) Intensity

= × 36 × 3 = 486 w/m2

12) Conceptual.

14)
Using conservation of linear momentum

16)

17) The L-C-R circuit used for communication should possess high quality factor (Q-factor) of

resonance, which is given by To make Q high; R should be low; L should be high

and C should be low

18)
Given : i = 2A
From figure, r = A

∴
19)

20)
Slope represents, planck’s constant.

21) Speed of light of vacuum and in another medium

22) Δm = [30.23 – 6.75] ± [0.01 + 0.01]

Δm = [23.48 ± 0.02]g

23) First excited state i.e. second orbit (n = 2)

Second excited state i.e. third orbit (n = 3)

24) As

25)

P.E. = 0.37%.

26) Shift = + + +

27)

Voltage lead by

28) The nuclear force is charge independent.

No. of nucleons = No. of protons + no. of neutrons
= Mass number
All nuclei have masses that are less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. The
difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is known as mass defect.
29)

A- V lags by 90° from I hence option (I) is correct.

B- V lead by 90° from I hence option (IV) is correct
C- In LCR resonance XL = XC. Hence circuit is purely resistive so option (II) is correct
D- In LCR series V is at some angle from I hence (III) is correct
Hence option (4) is correct.

30)

31) This is due to mass defect because a part of mass is used in keeping the neutrons and
protons bound as –particle.

32) As Paschen series lies in the infrared region.

33)

34) Statement-I

at resonance XL = XC

Thus
Impedance is minimum therefore I is maximum at resonance.
Statement-II

in purely resistive circuit.

35) Least count of circular scale

Zero error = 5(0.01 mm) = 0.05 mm
Measured value = 3 mm + 45 (0.01 mm)
= 3.45 mm
True value = 3.45 mm – 0.05 = 3.40 mm

36)
37) De Broglie wavelength of a particle,
Where p is the momentum of the particle and h is the planck’s constant.

Kinetic energy of the particle,

Where m is the mass of the particle

Since mass of the particle remains constant

38) From

.....(i)

And .....(ii)
From equation (i) by (ii),

40) As
% error in P is

41) m = = –2
⇒ u = – 30cm

42) Vrms = ⇒

=
 therefore, Vrms =

43) Snell's law from glass to air

µg sin i = µair × sin 90°

µg =

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

49)

Conceptual

50)
KSP = (2Y)2 (3Y)3
KSP = 108.Y5

59)

61) Ammonium oxalate is used for the confirmation of Ca+2.

 67)

69) and both are amphiprotic species

70) Conceptual

71)

77) Read notes

79)

84) HCOONa → WASB

89) Read notes

BIOLOGY

94) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 98, last line

97) NCERT Pg. # 335, 22.2.7

98) NCERT 333, 335

99) A-Male, B-Female, C-Sex unspecified
A-नर, B-मादा, C-िलं ग का उले ख नहीं

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

103) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 103, para 4

108)

NCERT Pg. # 146

110) Ncert Pg No: 90

113) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 95

117) NCERT-XI Pg. # 145 Fig. 19.1

118) Ncert Pg No: 89

119) Ncert Pg No: 90

122)

NCERT Pg. No. # 231

123) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 321

129) Ncert Pg No: 66

132)

NCERT Pg. No. # 236

133) Ncert Pg No: 87

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 90

136) Ncert Pg No: 89

137) Ncert Pg No: 88

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 332

148) Pg. No. 96 - XII NCERT

153) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 152

156)

Pg. No. 340_XI NCERT

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 56, 57

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NCERT Pg. # 330, 22.1

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NCERT Pg. No. # 236