DNA: The Genetic Material

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

According to Chargaff's rule, the following proportion exists in DNA.

A) C=G

B) C»T

C) C»G

D) C=T

The actual synthesis of DNA in E. coli is the function of

A) polymerase I

B) primase

C) polymerase III

D) DNA ligase

The first nuclear transplant from an animal to an egg that produced a normal adult was performed on a
 A) frog

B) sheep

C) cat

D) dog

All of the following were outcomes of Avery's experiment on "the active principle" except

A) the array of the elements of purified principle agreed closely with DNA and the principle
centrifuged to the same level as DNA.

B) protein digesting enzymes did not affect the sample

C) the extraction of lipids and proteins from the principle only slightly reduced its activity

D) DNA-digesting enzyme, DNase, destroyed all transcription activity.

Polymerase III is actually a complex containing

A) catalytic subunits

B) proofreading subunits

C) "sliding clamp" subunits

D) All of the above

By convention, the sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is usually expressed in the _________ direction.

A) 3' to 1'
 B) 3' to 5'

C) 1' to 3'

D) 5' to 3'

E) clockwise

Since the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand in DNA replication,
___________ is required.

A) a DNA primer

B) DNA polymerase

C) ligase

D) an RNA primer

E) helicase

The fact that some viruses use DNA to direct their heredity was demonstrated by

A) finding radioactive sulfur from a bacteriophage in a bacterium.

B) finding radioactive phosphorus from a bacterium in a bacteriophage.

C) finding that radioactive phosphorus from a bacteriophage had mutated in bacterium.

D) finding radioactive phosphorus from a bacteriophage in a bacterium.

E) finding radioactive sulfur from a bacterium in a bacteriophage.

9
Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

A) the leading strand toward the replication fork

B) the lagging strand toward the replication fork

C) both strands in both directions

D) the leading strand away from the replication fork

E) the lagging strand away from the replication fork

10

In nucleic acids, the free hydroxyl group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.

A) 5'

B) 4'

C) 3'

D) 2'

E) 1'

11

A single enzyme is specified by a single

A) chromosome

B) gene

C) nucleotide

D) nucleosome

E) histone

12
Hammerling chose Acetabularia as his model organism because it was

A) large and differentiated

B) easier to grow than fruit flies

C) large and reproduced only asexually

D) grown abundantly in the Mediterranean area where he lived

E) large and contained only a few chromosomes

13

In DNA guanine always pairs with

A) adenine

B) cytosine

C) guanine

D) thymine

E) uracil

14

With few exceptions, all nuclei of eukaryotes contain

A) genes to specify the portion of the organism in which they are found

B) all the information needed for growing the whole organism

C) all of the chromosomes except sex chromosomes which are restricted to sex organs

D) single stranded DNA

E) only euchromatin except in the case of the Y-chromosome

15

In DNA, thymine always pairs with

A) adenine

B) cytosine

C) guanine

D) thymine

E) uracil

16

Each individual zone of a chromosome replicates as a discrete section called

A) telomere

B) euchromatin

C) Okazaki fragment

D) replication unit

E) linker DNA

17

DNA replication is called semiconservative because _______________ of the original duplex appears in
the duplex formed in replication.

A) none

B) most

C) half

D) hardly any

E) all
18

Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a

A) nucleolus

B) nucleotide

C) nucleosome

D) histone

E) genetisome

19

In replication of DNA, the helix is opened and untwisted by

A) ribase

B) ligase

C) deoxase

D) helicase

E) polymerase

20

In a nucleic acid, the bases are always attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.

A) 5'

B) 4'

C) 3'

D) 2'
 E) 1'

21

Although the work produced important results, Franklin's work was hindered by the lack of

A) electricity

B) strong x-rays

C) true crystals of DNA

D) thin layer chromatography

E) precision instruments

22

The identification of the transforming principle proved that

A) dead bacteria are as lethal as live ones

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae evolved from Pneumococcus

C) genetic information is contained in DNA

D) there is no protein in chromosomes

E) genetic information was transmitted by a polysaccharide

23

In nucleic acids, the phosphate group is attached to the _______________ carbon of the sugar.

A) 5'

B) 4'

C) 3'
 D) 2'

E) 1'

24

_______________ join DNA fragments to the lagging strand.

A) Telomeres

B) Centromeres

C) Helicases

D) Ligases

E) Antiparallel strands

25

DNA polymerase catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5'-->3' direction.

A) True

B) False

26

A DNA molecule has the same amount of adenine and thymine.

A) True

B) False

27
Which statement about the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication is correct?

A) It is synthesized in a 3' --> 5' direction.

B) It progresses (grows) toward the replication fork.

C) It requires a short RNA primer to proceed.

D) It is synthesized by DNA ligase.

E) It is synthesized continuously.

28

An actively dividing bacterial culture is grown in a medium containing radioactive adenine (A*). After all
the adenine is labeled, the bacteria are transferred to a medium containing nonradioactive adenine (A).
Following one round of DNA replication in the nonradioactive medium, the DNA is analyzed. Which of
the following sequences could represent this DNA?

A) A* A* T T G A* T C

TTAACTAG

B) A* A T T G A* T C

T T A* A* C T A G

C) AATTGATC

TTAACTAG

D) A* A* T T G A* T C

T T A* A* C T A* G

29

During semiconservative replication, the original double helix remains intact and a new double helix
forms.

A) True
 B) False

30

DNA polymerase uses a nucleoside triphosphate, bearing phosphates on the 5' carbon to form a
phosphodiester linkage to the free 3' hydroxyl group on the end of the DNA strand it is synthesizing.

A) True

B) False

31

The elongation of Okazaki fragments during DNA synthesis progresses away from the replication fork.

A) True

B) False

32

DNA is made up of a phosphate group, an organic base, and:

A) a protein

B) a sugar

C) a molecule of ATP

D) a fat

E) none of the above

33
In the DNA molecule:

A) adenine pairs with thymine

B) guanine pairs with thymine

C) cytosine pairs with thymine

D) adenine pairs with cytosine

E) All of the above are possible.

34

If one side of a DNA molecule contains the following sequence of nucleotides, AGTCCG, the
complementary sequence on the other side would be:

A) GCCTGA

B) AGTCCG

C) TCAGGC

D) CTGAAT

E) none of the above

35

During your summer job at Virotech, you isolate a previously unknown virus. Analysis of its genome
reveals that it is composed of a double stranded DNA molecule containing 14% T (thymine). Based on
this information, what would you predict the %C (cytosine) to be?

A) 14%

B) 28%

C) 36%

D) 72%

E) Cannot be determined from the information given.

36

The process of acquiring a gene from another organism is called transformation.

A) True

B) False

37

The Hershey-Chase experiment showed that the virus protein is responsible for directing the production
of new viruses.

A) True

B) False

38

The two sides of the double helix structure of DNA are held together with hydrogen bonds.

A) True

B) False

39

DNA replication is called semiconservative because half of each of the two new strands of DNA is "old"
DNA from the original DNA molecule and half is "new" DNA.

A) True
 B) False

Chapter 14 (p. 298)

1. The cap and stalk died when the foot was removed. When the cap was cut off, the foot and
stalk were not affected, and the cap regenerated. The A. mediterranea foot still grew an A.
mediterranea cap, even with an A. crenulata stalk grafted onto it.
2. Hershey and Chase labeled viral nucleic acid and viral protein coat with separate radioactive
isotopes. After infected cells were analyzed, they found only viral nucleic acid inside the infected
cells, not viral protein coat.
3. The three-dimensional shape of the molecule is a double helical strand. Hydrogen bonding
between nitrogenous bases is responsible for holding the two strands of the helix together.
Purines can only hydrogen-bond with pyrimidines, which is what accounts for the equal number of
purines and pyrimidines in a DNA molecule.
4. Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA replication was semiconservative by labeling new DNA
with a heavy isotope so that older and newer strands could be identified. After allowing the DNA
to replicate awhile, it was spun on a cesium gradient, showing the newly-replicated material to
weigh intermediate between the labeled and unlabeled DNA, suggesting that one chain (the new
one) was "heavy," while the older (original) chain was "light."
5. The leading strand is replicated continuously while the lagging strand is replicated in fragments
(Okazaki fragments). The reason for the discrepancy in replication strategy for the different
strands is that the two strands are anti-parallel.
6. Beadle and Tatum wanted to test the hypothesis that DNA coded for specific enzymes, and
tested their hypothesis on mold. They irradiated mold to see if they could create mutants
incapable of synthesizing necessary enzymes in certain biosynthetic pathways. They were
successful. Some of their mutants could not grow on a minimal medium unless they were
supplied with the missing enzyme.

DNA: The Genetic Material

Answers to Review Questions

Genes and How They Work

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions.

1
Transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to

A) a promoter

B) an initiator

C) a transcriptor

D) a codon

The promoter sequence in eukaryotes is

A) TAATAA

B) TATAAA

C) TTGACA

D) GTTAAA

Each time a nucleotide is added as the transcription bubble passes down the DNA, the RNA-DNA
complex

A) elongates

B) rotates

C) shrinks

D) disassembles

Eukaryotic mRNA transcripts are protected from modification by

 A) 5' caps

B) 5' poly-A caps

C) 3' caps

D) 5'-3' poly tails

The order in which nucleotides are moved along the ribosomes binding sites is

A) APE

B) PEA

C) EPA

D) EAP

In eukaryotes, there are _______________ codons that specify amino acids.

A) 21

B) 24

C) 61

D) 64

E) 60

In eukaryotes, the "start" codon also specifies the amino acid,

A) phenylalanine
 B) valine

C) aspartate

D) methionine

In mitochondrial genomes, _______________ is a "stop" codon.

A) UGA

B) UUU

C) AUA

D) UAA

E) AGA

Together with proteins, rRNA

A) provides a site for polypeptide synthesis

B) transports amino acids to the ribosome

C) travels to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides

D) transcribes DNA

E) translates DNA

10

In transcription, the nucleotide sequence CAT in DNA would specify _______________ in mRNA.

A) TAC
 B) GAU

C) CAT

D) GTU

E) GUA

11

The genetic code consists of groups of three nucleotides called

A) codons

B) introns

C) anticodons

D) reading frames

E) triplets

12

The function of tRNA is to

A) provide a site for polypeptide synthesis

B) transport amino acids to the ribosome

C) travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides

D) transcribe DNA

E) translate DNA

13

In the formation of an initiation complex, a _______________ is positioned first.

 A) met-tRNA

B) ser-tRNA

C) tyr-rRNA

D) mval-tRNA

E) cyst-tRNA

14

Enzymes called amino acyl-tRNA synthetases

A) synthesizes tRNA

B) attaches amino acids to tRNA

C) strips tRNA from its amino acid in the process of translation

D) destroys excess tRNA molecules

E) helps tRNA synthesize amino acids

15

In mRNA the "start" sequence is

A) UAA

B) UAG

C) UGA

D) AUG

E) GUU

16
In a process called _______________, the initial tRNA is ejected from the ribosome.

A) elongation

B) translocation

C) initiation

D) transcription

E) elimination

17

The function of mRNA is to

A) provide a site for polypeptide synthesis

B) transport amino acids to the ribosome

C) travel to the ribosome to direct the assembly of polypeptides

D) transcribe DNA

E) translate DNA

18

The process of _______________ cuts introns from the primary transcript and the final "processed"
mRNA is produced.

A) RNA cleaving

B) RNA translocation

C) RNA elongation

D) RNA splicing

E) RNA releasing
19

In the process of translation,

A) a strand of mRNA is formed with nucleotide sequences complementary to those of DNA

B) nucleotide sequences of tRNA are established

C) a polypeptide is formed in response to the rRNA nucleotide sequence

D) rRNA is synthesized with sequences complementary to those of tRNA

E) a polypeptide is formed as dictated by the nucleotide sequence in mRNA

20

In mRNA, the series of nucleotides CCC specifies

A) serine

B) proline

C) alanine

D) arginine

E) stop

21

A molecule of tRNA with the anticodon AAA will transport the amino acid

A) phenylalanine

B) lysine

C) proline

D) glycine

E) arginine
22

As polypeptides are formed at the ribosome, elongation continues until _______________ is exposed.

A) a release factor

B) an intron

C) a nonsense codon

D) an exon

E) polypeptidase

23

In the process of transcription

A) the base sequence of DNA is copied into tRNA

B) a polypeptide is formed as specified by the genes in a chromosome

C) rRNA is specified by exons in DNA

D) a strand of mRNA is formed with base sequences complementary to those of DNA

E) mRNA is formed as coded by introns

24

In messenger RNA, the nucleotide series UAG specifies

A) arginine

B) serine

C) stop

D) proline

E) aspartate
25

Which enzyme is incorrectly matched to its function?

A) RNA polymerase -- transcription

B) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase -- attaches an amino acid to a tRNA

C) peptidyl transferase -- translation

D) DNA ligase -- joins Okazaki fragments

E) All of the above are paired correctly.

26

Identify the polypeptide that would be produced as a result of transcribing and translating the following
DNA sequence.

DNA: ...3' A C C A A G T C T 5'...

A) arg - phe - trp

B) arg - leu - gly

C) thr - lys - ser

D) trp - phe - arg

E) gly - leu - arg

27

The strand of DNA used in the previous problem undergoes a mutation, such that the second C from the
3' end is changed to a T. The mutant DNA is shown below. What would change in the polypeptide?

Mutant DNA: ...3' A C T A A G T C T 5'...

 A) no change

B) polypeptide would be 1 amino acid shorter

C) polypeptide would be 1 amino acid longer

D) 1 amino acid would substitute for another

E) translation would terminate within this stretch

28

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase directs the synthesis of tRNA molecules from a DNA template.

A) True

B) False

29

Just as one amino acid may be specified by more than one codon, one codon may specify more than one
amino acid.

A) True

B) False

30

Which one of the following is not a kind of RNA?

A) tRNA (transfer RNA)

B) mRNA (messenger RNA)

C) rRNA (ribosomal RNA)

D) nRNA (nuclear RNA)

 E) All of the above are kinds of RNA.

31

The direct result of transcription is:

A) a duplicate DNA molecule

B) nRNA

C) a protein

D) mRNA

E) none of the above

32

The direct result of translation is:

A) a duplicate DNA molecule

B) nRNA

C) a protein

D) mRNA

E) all of the above

33

Which one of the following is not associated with transcription?

A) tRNA

B) mRNA

C) RNA polymerase
 D) DNA

E) a promoter

34

Which one of the following is not associated with translation?

A) rRNA

B) mRNA

C) tRNA

D) anticodon

E) All are involved with translation.

35

In the process of translation, the amino acids are arranged to form specific proteins because they are
attached to:

A) rRNA

B) tRNA

C) mRNA

D) promoter

E) none of the above

36

Transcription takes place in the nucleus using the DNA in the nucleus as a template for the formation of
proteins.
 A) True

B) False

37

Genes are composed of segments of "extra," nonessential materials called exons.

A) True

B) False

Gene Technology

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

1Clones are identified by hybridizing them with

a vector
A)
an antibody
B)
a virus
C)
a probe
D)
2The first step in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is
denaturation
A)
primer extension
B)
annealing
C)
cooling
D)
3In genome sequencing, it was found that ____ % of the Drosophila genes matched other species.
45
A)
72
B)
 98
C)
83
D)
4With the completion of the human genome project, the next frontier is
nucleonics
A)
proteomics
B)
cytomics
C)
agrinomics
D)
5By using the "reference sequence" developed in the human genome project, individual differences
are now being detected using
NPs
A)
PSNs
B)
SNPs
C)
"snaps"
D)
6In the discovery of introns, a DNA molecule called _______________ was formed that had the same
nucleotide sequence as the gene that produced the mRNA.
mDNA
A)
rDNA
B)
sDNA
C)
gDNA
D)
cDNA
E)
7Viruses containing RNA rather than DNA are called
riboviruses
A)
immunoviruses
B)
bacteriophages
C)
rotaviruses
D)
retroviruses
E)
8In a polymerase chain reaction, a synthetic sequence of nucleotides are involved in
denaturing
A)
 heating
B)
priming
C)
copying
D)
all of the above
E)
9Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with
ligases
A)
endonucleases
B)
methylases
C)
vectors
D)
probes
E)
10In preliminary screening of clones, it is common to use
restriction enzymes
A)
dyes
B)
antibiotics
C)
radiation
D)
milipore filters
E)
11To identify an individual by DNA analysis of their blood, investigators look for
primers
A)
DNA fingerprints
B)
probes
C)
nucleosomes
D)
transgenic fragments
E)
12All fragments cut by most restriction endonucleases have
complementary double-stranded ends
A)
supplementary single-stranded ends
B)
double-stranded "sticky" ends
C)
complementary single-stranded ends
 D)
double-stranded supplementary ends
E)
13In 1980, interferon was produced by splicing a human gene into the genome of
bacteria
A)
yeast
B)
viruses
C)
mice
D)
rabbits
E)
14The second step in most genetic engineering experiments is
screening
A)
production of recombinant DNA
B)
cleavage of DNA
C)
cloning
D)
testing
E)
15When "sticky ends" are paired, they can be joined by
restriction enzymes
A)
pSC101
B)
methylase
C)
X-gal
D)
DNA ligase
E)
16A successful vector in genetic engineering has been the
TMV plasmid
A)
HLF virus
B)
vaccinia virus
C)
Ti plasmid
D)
retrovirus
E)
17Humans are not affected by glyphosphate in plant crops because
while it is toxic to plants it is a normal metabolite of humans
 A)
humans do not produce aromatic amino acids
B)
it is used only on those crops that convert it to a harmless substance
C)
humans lack the enzymes to interact with it
D)
humans have EPSP synthetase
E)
18In the screening process, clones that metabolize X-gal turn
yellow
A)
orange
B)
red
C)
blue
D)
colorless
E)
19A powerful way to identify an individual using a particular gene as a marker is the analysis of
RFLP's
A)
X-gal reaction
B)
PCR's
C)
EcoRI's
D)
BST's
E)
20In attempts to confer special characteristics upon plants, genetic engineers find Agrobacterium
tumefaciens to be an effective vector for use with
corn
A)
rice
B)
wheat
C)
soy beans
D)
barley
E)
21A library of DNA fragments results from the use of
restriction endonucleases
A)
virus
B)
plasmids
C)
 recombinant DNA
D)
DNA ligase
E)
22One of the most useful methods for identifying a specific gene is
thin layer chromatography
A)
the Eastern blot
B)
the Western blot
C)
magnetic resonance imaging
D)
the Southern blot
E)
23Plant cells receiving Ti plasmids with a TMV viral gene encoding the viral coat protein become
immune to the TMV virus because
the introduction of the viral gene triggered an immune response in the plant's own immune
A)system
the gene causes the cell walls to become impermeable to the virus
B)
TMV does not infect cells already infected with TMV
C)
in plants, the gene encodes an antiviral substance
D)
none of the above
E)
24Bacterial DNA is not cleaved by their own restriction enzymes because bacteria add
_______________ to their own DNA.
nucleotides
A)
peptides
B)
methyl groups
C)
glyphosphate
D)
somototropin
E)
25A procedure called PCR is used to
cleave DNA
A)
produce recombinant DNA
B)
copy gene sequences
C)
clone cells
D)
screen clones
E)
26Wilt-proof flowers are being engineered by making them insensitive to
methylene
A)
propylene
B)
butylene
C)
acetylene
D)
ethylene
E)
27The ingestion of BST in milk is no threat to humans because
it is destroyed in the stomach
A)
it cannot be digested and will pass through as waste
B)
they do not have the hormones to utilize it
C)
it is destroyed in the pasteurization process
D)
the FDA has ruled that such milk cannot be sold
E)
28Genetic engineering has successfully transferred genes from eukaryotic cells into:
bacteria
A)
plants
B)
animals
C)
all of the above
D)
none of the above
E)
29DNA molecules can be cut into sections by using:
ATP
A)
gel electrophoresis
B)
restriction endonucleases
C)
plasmids
D)
a probe
E)
30In genetic engineering, DNA ligase is used as:
a probe
A)
a sealing enzyme
B)
 a restriction enzyme
C)
a mutagen
D)
none of the above
E)
31In Cohen and Boyer's transfer of toad genes to a bacterial cell, restriction endonucleases were
used to:
isolate sections of cloned bacterial plasmids
A)
isolate sections of toad DNA
B)
cleave bacterial plasmids
C)
Both a and b are correct.
D)
Both b and c are correct.
E)
32A probe is used in which stage of the gene transfer process?
cleaving DNA
A)
recombining DNA
B)
cloning
C)
screening
D)
both a and b
E)
33The Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to:
amplify a small amount of DNA
A)
cleave bacterial plasmids
B)
seal "sticky ends"
C)
identify target plasmids
D)
none of the above
E)
34Which of the following statements is true about developing cDNA?
mature mRNA directs the formation of the DNA.
A)
mature mRNA does not contain introns.
B)
DNA taken from the nucleus is used to produce the cDNA.
C)
Both a and b are true.
D)
 none of the above are true.
E)
35Genetic engineering has been used to do all of the following except:
make plants more resistant to frost
A)
make plants more resistant to disease
B)
make plants more resistant to herbicides
C)
improve the nutritional balance of plants
D)
all of the above are correct.
E)
36Engineering plants that are resistant to glyphosate was an important advancement because:
glyphosate promotes frost damage
A)
glyphosate encourages the production of fruit that is lower in protein
B)
glyphosate is the active ingredient in herbicide
C)
glyphosate prevents the transfer of genes into the plants
D)
none of the above
E)
37The use of bovine growth hormone:
has raised controversy with groups opposed to genetic engineering
A)
increased milk production in cows
B)
is being tested on increasing the weight gain of cows
C)
is being tested as a treatment for dwarfism in humans
D)
all of the above
E)
38The T plasmid provides a means to transfer genes into cereal plants, such as corn and rice.
i

True
A)
False
B)
39Genetic engineering has provided a method for the production of insulin to fight diabetes, but it
remains too expensive to be practical.
True
A)
False
B)
40Piggyback vaccines work by triggering the body's defense system with a harmless virus carrying
the surface proteins of a disease organism.
 True
A)
False
B)
41The second stage in genetic engineering experiments is cloning the plasmid.
True
A)
False
B)
42When using reverse transcriptase, DNA is made from mRNA.
True
A)
False
B)
43Genetically identical organisms derived from a single genetic source are called
populations
A)
varieties
B)
sibling species
C)
ecotypes
D)
clones
E)

The Evidence for Evolution

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

1
As oysters evolved, their shells became

A) narrower

B) flatter

C) thicker

D) more coiled

Over time, the horse has demonstrated a reduction in

A) toe number

B) body size

C) tooth length

D) tooth size

David Lack's contradiction of Darwin resulted from

A) changes in finches since Darwin's time

B) incorrect observations by Darwin

C) seasonal variations

D) failure to observe carefully

The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

A) analogy
 B) homology

C) digitality

D) convergence

The many objections raised against evolution can be characterized as

A) without scientific merit

B) religion-based

C) unintelligent

D) entirely arbitrary

As adults, humans have a vestige of a tail. It is called the

A) lanugo

B) vermiform

C) placenta

D) coccyx

E) melanic

Approximately how long ago did Australia become separated from the other continents?

A) 150 million years ago

B) 100 million years ago

 C) 50 million years ago

D) 10 million years ago

E) 5 million years ago

Biston betularia is the scientific name for

A) the peppered moth

B) the appendix

C) malaria

D) baleen whales

E) a Galapagos finch

The hypothetical ancestral link between whales and hooved animals are called

A) Archaeopteryx

B) Geospiza

C) euphorbs

D) titanotheres

E) mesonychids

10

How many species of Galapagos finch are there?

A) 1
 B) 7

C) 13

D) 28

E) hundreds

11

The Galapagos finches are believed to have evolved from __________ mainland species.

A) 1

B) 7

C) 13

D) 28

E) hundreds

12

Which of the following is not an example of a vestigial structure in humans?

A) coccyx

B) pelvis

C) appendix

D) all of the above are vestigial

13

During their early stages of development, the embryos of reptiles, birds, and mammals look very similar.
This suggests that reptiles, birds, and mammals
 A) have a common ancestor

B) live in the same types of environments

C) have undergone parallel evolution

D) are no longer undergoing evolution

E) have gotten rid of all their vestigial structures

14

In what type of environment would you expect melanic moths to be common?

A) in an unpolluted forest

B) in a polluted forest

C) in a formerly polluted forest that has been cleaned up

D) none of the above; melanic moths are never common

15

Which of the following presents evidence of progressive evolutionary change?

A) the fossil record of titanotheres

B) the fossil record of coiled oysters

C) the molecular record of nucleotide substitutions in the globin gene

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

16

Which of the following statements is true?

 A) All proteins evolve at the same rate.

B) Marsupial versus placental mammals are an example of divergent evolution.

C) The Galapagos finches are an example of convergent evolution.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above is true.

17

The similarities between marsupials in Australia and placental mammals elsewhere are examples of

A) industrial melanism

B) molecular clocks

C) relative dating

D) convergent evolution

E) absolute dating

18

Using the molecular record to determine phylogenetic relationships is based on the assumption that

A) nucleotide sequences do not change over time

B) nucleotide sequences change at a fairly constant rate over time

C) nucleotide sequences change randomly and erratically over time

D) evolutionary changes occur in phenotypes but not in genotypes

E) all mutations are harmful

19
Who demonstrated that industrial melanism had occurred in England?

A) Tult

B) Gould

C) Darwin

D) Lack

E) Kettlewell

20

If pollution is cleaned up, what should happen to the color of moths living in the woods?

A) color patterns shouldn't change

B) dark-colored moths should change to light-colored

C) light-colored moths should change to dark-colored

D) dark-colored moths should become more common

E) light-colored moths should become more common

21

Which of the following is an example of a nonscientific theory or concept?

A) scientific creationism

B) homologous structures

C) analogous structures

D) industrial melanism

E) all of the above are scientific theories

22
The fact that many forms of aquatic animals look alike even though they had diverse ancestors can be
attributed to __________________.

A) convergent evolution

B) divergent evolution

C) development of geographic races

D) chance alone

23

What types of events are typically seen in the fossil record?

A) speciation

B) successive change in structures

C) extinction

D) All of these are typical of the fossil record.

24

The forelimbs of mammals are an example of:

A) vestigial organs

B) analogous structures

C) homologous structures

D) none of the above

25
The change in coloration of the peppered moth is an example of:

A) a population with disruptive selection

B) a population with directional selection

C) a population with stabilizing selection

D) a population with no selection

E) none of the above

26

The presence of gill slits and a tail in the early stages of development of an embryo indicates its future as
a fish.

A) True

B) False

27

Which of the following does not apply when discussing the molecular evidence for evolution:

A) related organisms share a greater portion of their DNAs

B) the hemoglobin gene is less similar between humans and dogs than between humans
and chimpanzees

C) only DNA can be examined for establishing evolutionary differences

D) molecular evolution progresses more quickly when there is no selection for the gene

E) phylogenetic trees can be established using molecular evidence

The Origin of Species

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

Hybrids between tigers and lions, called tiglons, occur only in

A) India

B) captivity

C) Madagascar

D) central Africa

The leopard frogs of the eastern United States are

A) a group of related species

B) the same species

C) unrelated

D) entirely hybrids

Differences in mating ritual of Hawaiian Drosophila have likely resulted from

A) the founder effect

B) natural selection
 C) mutations

D) reinforcement

Speciation is more likely to occur in cases of

A) sympatry

B) antipatry

C) allopatry

D) copatry

Among plants, fertile individuals may arise from sterile ones by

A) haploidy

B) statiploidy

C) diploidy

D) polyploidy

Darwin explained his theory of evolution in a book called

A) On the Origin of Species

B) The Principles of

C) Survival of the Fittest

D) Around the World in Population Eighty Days

7

Evolutionary changes within a species are referred to as microevolution.

A) True

B) False

Changes in gene frequencies within a population are called

A) gene flow

B) macroevolution

C) polymorphism

D) microevolution

E) binomal expansion

Which of the following is not a prezygotic isolating mechanism?

A) prevention of gamete fusion

B) temporal isolation

C) production of sterile hybrids

D) geographical isolation

E) all of the above are prezygotic isolating mechanisms

10

Approximately how many species are there in the cluster of Drosophila and Scaptomyza species in
Hawaii?

A) 2

B) 14

C) 56

D) 200

E) 800

11

Which of the following terms is analogous to races?

A) subspecies

B) varieties

C) both of the above

D) neither of the above

12

How many species of finches did Darwin find on the Galapagos Islands?

A) 3

B) 13

C) 23

D) 300

E) 800
13

Which of the following is not one of the main groups into which the species of Darwin's finches can be
placed?

A) warbler finch

B) ground finches

C) tree finches

D) flightless finch

E) all of the above are groups of Darwin's finches

14

Behavioral isolating mechanisms may occur when two species have different

A) sized and shaped copulatory organs

B) courtship displays

C) times of the day that they are sexually active

D) habitat ranges

E) chemical compatibilities of their gametes

15

Periods of stasis are associated with

A) gradualism

B) punctuated equilibrium

C) ecotypes

D) sexual selection
 E) adaptive radiation

16

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Clusters of species are found only on islands, never on continents.

B) Despite its large size, California has a low number of plant species.

C) The stronger the selective forces, the faster a population will change.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

17

Two species of wild lettuce grow in the same areas, but one flowers in early spring and the other flowers
in summer. This is an example of a

A) postzygotic isolating mechanism

B) geographical isolating mechanism

C) behavioral isolating mechanism

D) mechanical isolating mechanism

E) temporal isolating mechanism

18

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about two species?

A) they occupy different niches

B) they can never hybridize

 C) they will intergrade extensively if they occur in the same area

D) none of the above is true

19

Under which of the following conditions would you expect rapid evolution of species to occur?

A) among populations in similar habitats

B) in large, randomly breeding populations

C) in populations with few reproductive isolating mechanisms

D) among populations exposed to climatic and other environmental changes

E) under all of the above conditions

20

Which of the following statements about species and speciation is true?

A) hybrids are always selected against in nature

B) polyploidy is very rare in plants

C) reproductive isolating mechanisms are usually selected against in nature

D) a single species can undergo adaptive radiation and produce a cluster of species

E) species usually have only one type of reproductive isolating mechanism

21

Geographical isolation is associated with

A) allopatric speciation

B) sympatric speciation
 C) clones

D) prides

E) polyploidy

22

Drosophila species

A) are an example of a cluster of species

B) are closely related to Scaptomyza species

C) exhibit behavioral isolating mechanisms

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

23

The sperm of species A dies when it comes in contact with the female reproductive tract of species B.
This is an example of

A) sexual selection

B) a prezygotic isolating mechanism

C) a postzygotic isolating mechanism

D) gradualism

E) polyploidy

24

Which of the following species would you be most likely to find in the chaparral habitat?
 A) Panthera tigris

B) Geospiza conirostris

C) Quercus dumosa

D) Lactuca graminifolia

25

Evolution depends largely on populations being at least partially isolated from one another, restricting
gene flow between them.

A) True

B) False

26

Human interference has sometimes caused the uncharacteristically rapid extinction of a number of
species, primarily due to ___________________.

A) hunting

B) encroachment on natural habitat

C) alteration of natural habitat

D) All of these are human interference that lead to extinction.

27

Extinction can be viewed as the failure of a species to keep up with changing environmental conditions.

A) True

B) False
28

Reproductive isolation cannot be tested with _________________ populations.

A) sympatric

B) parapatric

C) allopatric

D) Reproductive isolation can be tested with any of these.

29

Which of these isolating mechanisms occurs at the premating stage?

A) geographic isolation

B) gametic incompatibility

C) hybrid disadvantage

D) hybrid sterility

30

An example of adaptive radiation would be:

A) the peppered moth

B) the cheetah

C) domestic dogs

D) Darwin's finches

E) all of the above

31

Prezygotic isolating mechanisms include all of the following except:

A) hybrid sterility

B) courtship rituals

C) physical separation

D) seasonal reproduction

E) environmental requirements

32

Fossil evidence appears to support the hypothesis of gradualism over the hypothesis of punctuated
equilibrium.

A) True

B) False

Behavioral Ecology

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

1
The first assumption of the optimal foraging theory is

A)optimal foraging results from natural selection

B)natural selection will only favor behavior that maximizes energy return

natural selection selects foraging behavior that maximizes the size of the prey sought
 C)

D)optimal foraging is genetically determined

2
When birds such as the great tit are removed from their territory

A)they tend to be replaced by the same number of birds

B)the territories are left vacant

C)they are replaced by the local birds to the exclusion of new members

D)they are replaced by a greater number of birds

3
In species whose young are precocial, the father is more likely to be

A)monogamous

B)polyandrous

C)polygamous

D)monandrous

4
When a male fish defends a nest

A)it insures that only he will fertilize the eggs

B)it has no effect upon the identity of the fertilizing male

C)it only protects the eggs from predators

it increases the percentage of the eggs to be fertilized by him

 D)

5
The removal of shells from the nest as gull chicks hatch

A)proved to be a mistake because it left only good eggs to attract predators

B)is an inherited act that has outlived its usefulness

C)reduces predation on the remaining eggs

D)represents a fetish for a tidy nest

6
Sexual selection involves

A)fighting for the right to mate

B)acquiring characteristics that improve chances for mating

C)social factors that may outweigh ecological factors

D)sexual dimorphism

E)all of the above

7
Beak shape of the Huia (an extinct New Zealand bird) differs between male and female
individuals. Such structural differences are referred to as:

A)parental bonds.

B)sexual selection.

C)sexual fitness.
 D)sexual dimorphism.

E)visual contacts.

8
Male bighorn sheep fight each other to determine which male will mate with females. They fight
by charging each other, rearing up and clashing their horns together. The male with the bigger
set of horns usually wins. From this description, you would expect male bighorn sheep to be
affected by

A)sexual selection

B)mechanical isolating mechanisms

C)adaptive radiation

D)ecological races

E)gradualism

9
Saving the life of your _______________ would do the least for increasing your inclusive fitness.

A)father

B)sister

C)son

D)cousin

E)brother-in-law

10
The study of how natural selection shapes behavior is called
 A)sociobiology

B)socioecology

C)behavioral ecology

D)nepotism

E)cultural evolution

11
Behaviors that influence what an animal eats and how it obtains its food are called

A)foraging behaviors

B)social behaviors

C)territorial behaviors

D)eusocial behaviors

E)altricial behaviors

12
Pandas and koalas feed exclusively on bamboo and eucalyptus, respectively. This means they
are

A)eusocial

B)altruistic

C)monogamous

D)specialists
 E)generalists

13
Optimal foraging theory predicts that animals feed in such a way as to

A)maximize net energy intake

B)minimize net energy intake

C)maximize risk of predation

D)spend as much time as possible feeding

E)none of the above

14
Which of the following statements about territoriality is true?

A)territoriality is always beneficial to the animal

B)territories frequently overlap in time or space

C)territories rarely contain any resources

D)all of the above are true

E)none of the above are true

15
Which sex should show mate choice?

A)always males

B)always females
 C)the sex having higher parental investment

D)the sex having lower parental investment

E)neither sex

16
Which of the following is not associated with monogamy?

A)altricial young

B)sexual dimorphism

C)one male mating with one female

D)all of the above are associated with monogamy

E)none of the above are associated with monogamy

17
Exaggerated secondary sexual characteristics can occur as a result of

A)intrasexual selection

B)intersexual selection

C)runaway selection

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

18
Which mating system is most common in birds?
 A)monogamy

B)polygyny

C)polyandry

D)they are all equally common

19
Which mating system is most common in mammals?

A)monogamy

B)polygyny

C)polyandry

D)they are all equally common

20
Arguments that a particular behavior has been selected for because it benefits the population or
species are examples of arguments for

A)kin selection

B)sexual selection

C)group selection

D)natural selection

E)artificial selection
21
What type of selection is most likely responsible for the large antlers seen on male elk?

A)kin selection

B)group selection

C)territorial selection

D)intrasexual selection

E)intersexual selection

22
In the haplodiploidy sex determination of bees,

A)males are sterile

B)males are haploid

C)males are diploid

D)males are either haploid or diploid

E)males do not exist

23
In leafcutter ants, division of labor among workers is related to the

A)worker's sex

B)number of workers

C)worker's size

all of the above

D)
 E)none of the above

24
In most vertebrates, group members share a maximum of _____ percent of their genes while
naked mole rats share up to _____ percent.

A)10, 20

B)20, 10

C)30, 60

D)80, 50

E)50, 80

25
Which of the following Belding's ground squirrels is most likely to give an alarm call?

A)a female with no kin nearby

B)a female with kin nearby

C)a male with no kin nearby

D)a male with kin nearby

E)they are all equally likely to call

26
A whydah is a type of

A)insect

worm
 B)

C)mammal

D)bird

E)reptile

27
Tradition is associated with

A)cultural evolution

B)biological evolution

C)both of the above

D)none of the above

28
Fitness:

A)is a measure of the reproductive success of an organism.

B)is a measure of available resources.

C)is a measure of genetic similarity within a species.

D)is a measure of genetic diversity within a population.

E)none of the above.

29
Mate choice is usually exercised by
males
 A)

B)females

C)mate choice is only exhibited in a few species and so it has not been well documented

D)both sexes and those who end up mating have chosen each other

E)the sex defending a territory

30
Eusocial animals

A)exhibit sexual selection

B)live in colonies with many fertile females

C)exhibit territoriality within the colony

D)exhibit kin selection

E)all of the above

31
An animal will defend a selected area but will roam over a larger area over the course of daily
activities and this larger area is called

A)family home

B)resource site

C)foraging space

D)home range

territory
 E)

32
In species where the young are altricial

A)the male is more apt to leave and mate with many females

B)the male is the primary care giver and the female is not involved in rearing the young

C)the male is less apt to desert the young

D)the young immediately leave, there is no rearing of the young

E)both b and c

33
Foraging behaviors that maximize the amount of energy gained per unit of time spent foraging

A)are seen when defending very large territories for limited supply of food

B)are seen when defending a territory that is contained in an area very abundant in food

C)is favored by natural selection

D)must be examined from a behavioral standpoint only

E)both a and c

34
Selection that favors altruism for the propagation of alleles in a "family" is called kin selection.

A)True

B)False
35
Social insect colonies are composed of highly integrated groups called clades.

A)True

B)False

36
Group living increases the fitness of the individuals by decreasing the risk of predation and
increasing feeding success.

A)True

B)False

37
An animal will always feed on the largest prey they can find.

A)True

B)False

Animal Behavior

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

The study of the natural history of animal behavior is

 A) etiology

B) psychology

C) ethology

D) parapsychology

An example of associative learning would be

A) classical conditioning

B) operant conditioning

C) Pavlovian conditioning

D) all of the above

A songbird that hears the songs of other species as well as its own

A) will sing the song of its own species, but needs practice

B) will instinctively sing the song of its species perfectly

C) will sing other songs as well as its own

D) will be confused and not master any song

The level of specificity of signals may be

A) species-specific

B) individually specific
 C) anonymous

D) all of the above

Increased response to an increase in light intensity is called

A) positive phototaxis

B) kinesis

C) negative phototaxis

D) luminis

Which of the following is an example of a question about the ultimate causation of a behavior?

A) What muscles are involved when a hummingbird hovers over a flower?

B) When is the critical period for imprinting in young goats?

C) Which hormones must be present at what levels to make a female lizard receptive to
male courtship?

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

Which of the following involves trial-and-error learning?

A) habituation

B) classical conditioning
 C) sensitization

D) operant conditioning

E) all of the above

Human behavior, like other mammalian behavior, is determined

A) strictly by the genes

B) strictly by learning

C) by a mixture of genes and learning

D) none of the above

Learning to not respond to a stimulus is called

A) imprinting

B) sensitization

C) kinesis

D) habituation

E) taxis

10

A goose retrieving a stray egg and rolling it back into its nest is an example of

A) instinctive behavior

B) operant conditioning
 C) associative behavior

D) learning preparedness

E) kinesis

11

A "Skinner box" is used for experiments in

A) classical conditioning

B) operant conditioning

C) migration

D) taxis

E) aggression

12

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Animals can learn to associate any stimuli using classical conditioning.

B) Animals are innately programmed to learn some things more easily than others.

C) Instinctive learning programs explain why most people speak only one language.

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

13

A rat that is "maze-dull"

A) will pass on that trait to its offspring

 B) can never learn anything else either

C) both of the above

D) none of the above

14

Chemical signals between individuals of the same species are called

A) endogenous

B) hormones

C) kineses

D) dewlaps

E) pheromones

15

The component of an animal's nervous system that provides the instruction for carrying out a particular
fixed action pattern is called a(n)

A) sign stimulus

B) stimulus/response chain

C) innate releasing mechanism

D) suprachiasmatic nuclei

E) exogenous biological clock

16

All the thousands of human languages are based on the same set of how many consonant sounds?
 A) 26

B) 40

C) 4

D) 260

E) 12

17

How many of the basic consonant sounds can a normal human baby distinguish?

A) all of them

B) half of them

C) only 1

D) it depends on the child's ethnic background

18

A sensitive phase and critical period are associated with what type of behavior?

A) cognitive

B) kinesis

C) taxis

D) imprinting

E) conspecific

19

Which of the following animals is a brood parasite?

 A) lovebirds

B) Anolis lizards

C) fruit flies

D) geese

E) cuckoos

20

Circadian rhythms are based on approximately a

A) 2-hour period

B) 24-hour period

C) 7-day period

D) 30-day period

E) 365-day period

21

The biological clock of mammals is located in the

A) suprachiasmatic nuclei of the hypothalamus

B) suprachiasmatic nuclei of the pineal gland

C) melatonin of the pineal gland

D) androgens of the gonads

E) all of the above

22
Nonoriented changes in activity level or movement are called

A) exogenous

B) taxis

C) kinesis

D) migration

E) conspecific

23

How is the distance to a food source communicated by a dancing honeybee?

A) by the direction it waggles its abdomen

B) by how far it moves during the straight run portion of the dance

C) by which direction it turns after making the straight run

D) by the tempo or degree of vigor of the dance

E) none of the above - bees can't communicate the distance

24

Dog salivating at the sound of a can opener.

A) classical conditioning

B) fixed-action pattern

C) habituation

D) operant conditioning

E) imprinting

25
Humans ignoring night sounds while asleep.

A) classical conditioning

B) fixed-action pattern

C) habituation

D) operant conditioning

E) imprinting

26

A goose retrieves eggs that have rolled out of the nest with a stereotyped movement.

A) classical conditioning

B) fixed-action pattern

C) habituation

D) operant conditioning

E) imprinting

27

A rat in a box learns to associate pressing a lever with obtaining food.

A) classical conditioning

B) fixed-action pattern

C) habituation

D) operant conditioning

E) imprinting
28

Chemical messengers that are used for communication within an animal species are called

A) hormones

B) genes

C) pheromones

D) enzymes

E) all above are used in some species

29

Courtship behaviors in animals involve all of the following except:

A) visual cues

B) acoustic signals

C) chemical signals

D) auditory cues

E) all of the above are involved in courtship behaviors

30

Ethology is the study of how animals behave in their natural environments.

A) True

B) False

31
Conditioned behavior is strengthened more by intermittent reinforcement rather than by successive
reinforcements for each correct behavior.

A) True

B) False

32

The fact that environmental cues influence behavior can be shown by artificial selection and
hybridization.

A) True

B) False

33

The most obvious circadian rhythm in humans is the menstrual cycle.

A) True

B) False

Animal Behavior

Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 26 (p. 552)

1. Hybrid lovebirds have a nesting behavior intermediate between the two parental species, lending
strength to the genetic basis for behavior. This suggests that this particular type of behavior is
instinctive.
2. In associative learning, an animal forms an association between two stimuli, whereas in
nonassociative learning they do not. Classical conditioning involves forming an association between two
stimuli presented simultaneously (such as in Pavlov's dogs); in operant conditioning, the animal learns to
associate a behavior with a reward or a punishment.

3. Filial imprinting involves the formation of parent/offspring bonds. Sexual imprinting concerns how
early experience affects an animal’s ability to identify mates of it own species. A moving box is just as
good an imprinting stimulus as a real parent because the first object seen by a young animal is, in fact,
its parent.

4. The nature/nurture controversy involved whether behavior was instinctive or learned. Marler's work
on bird song development showed that both instinct and learning make important contributions in
shaping behavior.

5. Communication signals are species-specific, thus limiting sexual communication to members of one
species. Firefly flash patterns, bird song, and some insect sex pheromones are species-specific. Some
signals are individual specific to signal individual identity associated with protection of territory, nest,
and mate. Each individual is readily identified to prevent wasting energy in continual singing or
aggression.

6. A taxis is movement toward or away from a stimulus; kineses are changes in activity levels due to a
stimulus. These differ from migration in that migrations are long-range movements. Migration patterns
are genetically determined. Patterns do not change, but new information is added to the old. Migrating
birds use the sun, the stars, and the detection of the earth’s magnetic field to orient themselves on
migration.

7. Indeed, many will accept no evidence as indicative of animal thinking. The most compelling evidence
is that of an animal solving a problem that it had never seen before and had not been taught.

Fungi

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

1
Fungal mitosis is unusual in that

A) it occurs without spindle fibers

B) it resembles plant meiosis, having a reduction division

C) it results in clusters of chromosomes without a nuclear membrane

D) it takes place within the nucleus

Mushrooms and puffballs appear rapidly because of

A) rapid cell division

B) rapid elongation of hyphae

C) rapid water absorption

D) rapid multiplication and inflation of vacuoles

Deuteromycetes are called imperfect fungi because

A) the sexual cycle has not been observed

B) nothing about them indicates their relation to other fungi

C) they do not produce mycelia

D) they have no asexual reproduction

Most ectomycorrhizae are

 A) ascomycetes

B) deuteromycetes

C) zygomycetes

D) basidiomycetes

Fungi reproduce sexually with

A) swimming gametes

B) nuclear exchange

C) nonflagellate gametes

D) parthenogenesis

Zygomycete hyphae are unique in that they

A) have perforated septa

B) are monokaryotic

C) are dikaryotic

D) lack septa

E) have solid septa

The _______________ are not basidiomycetes.

A) toadstools
 B) puffballs

C) morels

D) shelf fungi

E) mushrooms

Parasexuality occurs

A) within heterokaryotic hyphae

B) between dikaryotic hyphae

C) between homokaryotic hyphae

D) between heterokaryotic hyphae

E) only in yeasts

Fungi are virtually the only organism capable of breaking down

A) cellulose

B) lignin

C) oil

D) chitin

E) starch

10

Basidiospores are borne on the ends of

 A) primary mycelia

B) basidiocarps

C) trichogynes

D) sterigmata

E) secondary mycelia

11

Conidia are multinucleate spores produced in

A) gametangia

B) basidia

C) sporangia

D) asci

E) none of the above

12

Athlete's foot is caused by a member of the

A) yeasts

B) Fungi Imperfecti

C) endomycorrhizae

D) basidiomycetes

E) zygomycetes

13
Fungi regulate the formation of microtubules during mitosis with

A) basal bodies

B) centromeres

C) centrioles

D) spindle plaques

E) heterochromatin

14

The cells of the secondary mycelium of basidiomycetes have _______________ nuclei.

A) many

B) 16

C) 8

D) 4

E) 2

15

In the zygomycetes, most spores are produced by

A) somatic meiosis

B) mitosis

C) syngamy

D) zygotic meiosis

E) sporic meiosis

16
Asexual reproduction occurs in _______________ by sporangia.

A) yeasts

B) basidiomycetes

C) ascomycetes

D) imperfect fungi

E) zygomycetes

17

Most yeast reproduction occurs by

A) budding

B) conidia

C) syngamy

D) ascospores

E) basidiospores

18

The fungal components of lichens are mostly

A) basidiomycetes

B) Fungi Imperfecti

C) ascomycetes

D) zygomycetes

E) mycorrhizae
19

Oomycetes are distinguished from fungi by all of the characteristics below except

A) source of nutrition

B) spore motility

C) cellulose walls

D) pattern of mitosis

E) diploid hyphae

20

Fungi have been incorrectly classified as plants because of their

A) types of chlorophyll

B) immobility

C) cell wall composition

D) mitotic activity

E) gametes

21

Cell walls of fungi are composed primarily of

A) lignin

B) cellulose

C) chitin

D) pectin

E) glycoprotein
22

Male gametes of ascomycetes enter the female gametangium by way of the

A) ascogonium

B) antheridium

C) thrichogyne

D) ascopore

E) hyphae

23

Fungi Imperfecti includes members of

A) ascomycetes

B) basidiomycetes

C) zygomycetes

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

24

Fungi most resemble plants in their

A) immobility

B) cell walls

C) sexuality

D) food acquisition

E) basic three dimensionality

25

Fungal hyphae with two genetically distinct nuclei are said to be

A) polykaryotic

B) monokaryotic

C) dikaryotic

D) karyotic

E) heterokaryotic

26

Fungi are classified into phyla primarily on differences in:

A) reproductive structures.

B) number of nuclei per cell.

C) cell wall composition.

D) preferred habitat of growth.

E) mode of locomotion.

27

With respect to the life cycle of mushroom-producing basidiomycete, which of the following structures
is haploid?

A) monokaryotic hypha

B) basidiospore

C) basidium
 D) clamp connection

E) more than one of the structures above are haploid

28

Fungi are different from plants because fungi:

A) are heterotrophs

B) have filamentous bodies

C) have cell walls made of chitin

D) have nuclear mitosis

E) all of the above

29

Which of the following is a reproductive structure of a fungus?

A) gametangia

B) sporangia

C) conidia

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

30

Which one of the following groups of fungi has not been observed to reproduce sexually?

A) Ascomycota

B) Imperfect fungi
 C) Basidiomycota

D) Zygomycota

E) both a and c

31

In which phylum of fungi does the fusion of hyphae lead directly to the formation of a zygote?

A) Ascomycota

B) Imperfect fungi

C) Basidiomycota

D) Zygomycota

E) all of the above

32

The common mushroom or toadstool belongs to the phylum:

A) Ascomycota

B) Imperfect fungi

C) Basidiomycota

D) Zygomycota

E) none of the above

33

When hyphae of basidiomycetes fuse in sexual reproduction, the resulting cell can best be called a:

A) monokaryon
 B) dikaryon

C) homokaryon

D) basidiocarp

E) none of the above

34

The phylum of fungi that predominantly reproduces sexually is:

A) Ascomycota

B) Imperfect fungi

C) Basidiomycota

D) Zygomycota

E) none of the above

35

The imperfect fungi include organisms related to:

A) penicillin

B) the fermentation of soy sauce

C) athlete's foot

D) the flavor of Roquefort cheese

E) all of the above

36

Fungi generally carry out external digestion.

 A) True

B) False

37

A lichen is a highly integrated mutualistic association between two different fungi.

A) True

B) False

38

The deuteromycetes are an artificial collection of fungi that are probably not very closely related.

A) True

B) False

39

Hyphae are made up of a long string of cells, separated by septa, that prevents the mixing of cytoplasm
between cells.

A) True

B) False

40

The main body of a fungus is the mushroom structure.

 A) True

B) False

41

In fungi, only the reproductive cells are haploid.

A) True

B) False

42

The button mushroom some of us put on our pizza is a basidiocarp.

A) True

B) False

43

All yeasts are single-celled organisms derived from the phylum Zygomycota.

A) True

B) False

44

Lichens are a special fungus belonging to the phylum Ascomycota.

A) True
 B) False

45

Mycorrhizae act as super-efficient root hairs for some plants.

A) True

B) False
Chapter 36 (p. 732)
1. Hyphae are slender filaments. Incomplete septa permit the movement of reproductive
materials between cells.
2. The fungal wall is composed of polysaccharide and chitin, which is an advantage because it
renders the wall more resistant to degradation bacteria.
3. The fungal nuclei that are diploid are those of the zygote. All the rest are haploid.
Heterokaryotic and dikaryotic hyphae contain two genetically distinct types of nuclei;
homokaryotic and monokaryotic hyphae contain nuclei that are all genetically similar.
4. The three reproductive structures are sporangia, which form spores; gametangia, in which
gametes form; and conidia, mostly multinucleate asexual spores not produced in sporangia.
5. Most fungi produce spores, often in prodigious amounts. These spores are typically "flung"
some distance by the fungus or picked up and dispersed by the wind.
6. These asexual spores are called conidia and are multinucleate. They are carried by
conidiophores, and the nonreproductive hyphae of this division are incompletely septate.
7. The yeasts belong mostly to the Ascomycota; they differ from other fungi because they are
unicellular. It is more likely that this characteristic is degenerate—derived from multicellular
ancestors.
8. The Fungi Imperfecti are those fungi in which sexual reproduction has not been observed; the
best represented by this group is the Ascomycota. Individuals in the phylum Deuteromycota are
classified by examination of hyphal structure and similarities in asexual reproduction.
9. Lichens are symbiotic associations between a fungus and a green alga and/or cyanobacterium.
The best represented of this group is the Ascomycota.
10. Mycorrhizae live in association with plant roots. Endomycorrhizae hyphae penetrate the outer
cells of the root; ectomycorrhizae surround but do not penetrate the roots.

Fungi

Answers to Review Questions

Vertebrate Development

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

1

In reptiles, birds, and mammals, mesoderm is formed by invagination and involution into the

A) archenteron

B) primitive streak

C) gastrocoel

D) amnion

Ectodermal cells thicken into placodes that develop into

A) sensory organs of the head

B) skeletal muscles

C) peripheral nerves

D) the spinal column

Contact of the optic stalk with ectoderm induces the formation of the

A) retina

B) lens

C) cornea

D) iris
4

Strictly speaking, "ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny" means

A) embryonic stages of an animal resemble adult ancestors

B) adults of an animal resemble embryonic stages of its ancestors

C) adult animals resemble adult ancestors

D) embryonic stages of an animal resemble embryonic stages of its ancestors

The allantois

A) occurs in birds but not in mammals

B) is an outgrowth of the amnion in all animals producing it

C) contributes blood vessels to the umbilical cord in mammals

D) becomes the placenta in mammals

Ectoderm cells associated with anterior neural crest cells thicken and form

A) the archenteron

B) the primitive streak

C) the dorsal lip

D) blastomeres

E) placodes
7

The lining of the uterus in which the mammalian embryo implants itself is called the

A) coccyx

B) trophoblast

C) endometrium

D) yolk plug

E) lanugo

In humans, organogenesis in the embryo is essentially complete by the end of which stage of the
pregnancy?

A) first week

B) first month

C) first trimester

D) second trimester

E) third trimester

The cavity inside the blastula is called the

A) gastrula

B) archenteron

C) blastomere

D) animal pole
 E) blastocoel

10

The trophoblast gives rise to the

A) chorion

B) amnion

C) allantois

D) yolk sac

E) egg shell

11

The glycoprotein layer between an egg cell and the granulosa cells is called the

A) acrosome

B) morula

C) zona pellucida

D) gray crescent

E) trophoblast

12

When does a human egg cell complete its meiotic division?

A) before the female is born

B) just before ovulation

C) after sperm penetration

 D) after cleavage has begun

E) after implantation in the uterus

13

Cleavage is characterized by

A) rapid cell division

B) rapid growth in the size of the embryo

C) each cell having the same components as its neighbors

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

14

In meroblastic cleavage, cleavage occurs only in the

A) placodes

B) blastodisc

C) trophoblast

D) yolk

15

What type of animal forms a trophoblast during its early development?

A) mammal

B) amphibian

C) bird
 D) reptile

E) fish

16

During what stage of development do the three primary tissue layers first appear?

A) cleavage

B) blastulation

C) neurulation

D) fertilization

E) gastrulation

17

The gut or digestive tract of a vertebrate arises from the

A) vegetal pole

B) primitive streak

C) archenteron

D) blastocoel

E) somites

18

Which of the following is not associated with the site of invagination during gastrulation?

A) dorsal lip

B) blastopore
 C) primitive streak

D) all of the above are associated with the site

E) none of the above is associated with the site

19

What type of tissue gives rise to the notochord?

A) ectoderm

B) mesoderm

C) endoderm

D) all of the above

20

The segmented blocks of tissue that develop on each side of the notochord are called the

A) somites

B) neural tube

C) neural crest

D) adrenal medulla

E) rubella

21

The first truly vertebrate phase of development is marked by the formation of the

A) archenteron

B) primitive streak
 C) coccyx

D) notochord

E) neural crest

22

When does neurulation occur during human pregnancy?

A) first week

B) second week

C) third week

D) fourth week

E) second trimester

23

What chemical messenger causes the uterus to contract during labor and birth?

A) oxytocin

B) prostaglandins

C) both of the above

D) none of the above

24

A newborn infant obtains maternal antibodies from the mother's

A) lanugo

B) colostrum
 C) rubella

D) afterbirth

E) thalidomide

25

What is the estimated average rate at which the human brain generates neurons during development?

A) 250 per day

B) 250,000 per minute

C) 25 million per minute

D) 25,000 per second

26

Cleavage divisions result in more but smaller cells in the embryo. One stage of cleavage is the morula
stage which is:

A) an embryo with 4 cells

B) an embryo with a darkly pigmented vegetal hemisphere

C) a collection of 16-32 cells resembling a raspberry

D) a group of cells that do not undergo DNA replication

E) a hollow ball of cells enclosing a fluid filled space

27

What is the function of the chorion in terrestrial vertebrate embryos?

A) to keep the embryo moist

 B) to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide with the environment

C) to absorb nutrients stored in yolk

D) to store nitrogenous waste

28

Which embryonic membrane forms the majority of the placenta?

A) allantois

B) amnion

C) chorion

D) endometrium

E) umbilical cord

29

The placenta functions as a(n):

A) excretory organ.

B) respiratory organ.

C) endocrine organ.

D) all of the above.

E) a and b, but not c.

30

By the end of _______________, distribution of cells into the three primary tissue types has been
accomplished.
 A) cleavage

B) gastrulation

C) the formation of the blastocyst

D) neurulation

E) none of the above

31

The order of events in early development is fertilization, cleavage, neurulation and then gastrulation.

A) True

B) False

32

During gastrulation, cells move from the outside of the embryo to the inside to establish 3 primary germ
layers of tissue, the outer ectoderm, the central endoderm and the inner mesoderm.

A) True

B) False

33

During cleavage, the size of the embryo increases with each doubling of the number of cells.

A) True

B) False
34

The formation of body organs begins in the fourth week of pregnancy.

A) True

B) False

35

By the end of the third month, the fetus has developed all the major organs and begins moving its arms
and legs.

A) True

B) False

36

Blood from the fetus and blood from the mother are exchanged in the placenta.

A) True

B) False

37

Neurulation occurs soon after the completion of the

A) zygote

B) gastrula

C) morula

D) larva
 E) blastula

38

Vertebrates develop bones from

A) ectoderm

B) endoderm

C) epiderm

D) mesoderm

E) notoderm

39

Cells that migrate from somites form the

A) respiratory system

B) digestive system

C) skeletal muscles

D) reproductive system

E) smooth muscles

40

Vertebrate lungs are derived from

A) ectoderm

B) endoderm

C) epiderm
 D) mesoderm

E) notoderm

41

In early stages of vertebrate cleavage, successive blastomeres

A) are equal in size to that of the original zygote

B) become smaller and smaller

C) grow larger and larger

D) migrate to positions of future development

E) begin immediate differentiation

42

The vertebrate nervous system is derived from

A) ectoderm

B) endoderm

C) epiderm

D) mesoderm

E) notoderm

43

When the vertebrate embryo develops into a hollow ball, it is called a

A) fistula

B) blastula
 C) gastrula

D) morula

E) planula

44

Soon after gastrulation, dorsal ectodermal cells thicken and form a tube called the _______________
tube.

A) anal

B) gastric

C) oral

D) interstitial

E) neural

Sex and Reproduction

Multiple Choice Quiz

Please answer all questions

If the queen bee lays eggs that are not fertilized, they will develop into

A) queens

B) female workers

C) drones
 D) male workers

In sequential hermaphroditism, the same animal may be first female and later become male. The
process as described is

A) protogyny

B) polygyny

C) polyandry

D) protandry

In mammals that are seasonal breeders, females are receptive only once a year. This is called

A) a follicular cycle

B) an estrous cycle

C) a menstrual cycle

D) a luteal cycle

After sperm are produced, they are delivered first to the

A) vas deferens

B) urethra

C) epididymis

D) seminal vesicle
5

A human male is generally considered sterile if his ejaculation contains less than

A) 100,000,000 sperm

B) 20,000,000 sperm

C) 100,000 sperm

D) 1,000 sperm

The first vertebrates to engage in sexual reproduction were

A) primitive terrestrial vertebrates

B) advanced terrestrial vertebrates

C) advanced marine vertebrates

D) primitive marine vertebrates

Which of the following animals has an amniotic egg?

A) a frog

B) a sea turtle

C) a fish

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

8

Which mammals are oviparous?

A) marsupials

B) placental mammals

C) monotremes

D) no mammals are oviparous

E) all mammals are oviparous

Some fish are

A) viviparous

B) ovoviviparous

C) oviparous

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

10

Compared with fish, most amphibians have

A) internal fertilization rather than external

B) a much longer development time

C) very few numbers of eggs produced during each reproductive cycle

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

11

Progesterone is produced by the

A) corpus luteum

B) hypothalamus

C) seminiferous tubules

D) pituitary gland

E) oviduct

12

Ovulation is caused by the hormone

A) FSH

B) progesterone

C) oxytocin

D) estrogen

E) LH

13

How many chromosomes does a normal, mature, human sperm cell contain?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 23

D) 46
14

Mature sperm cells are called

A) spermatogenesis

B) spermatids

C) secondary spermatocytes

D) primary spermatocytes

E) spermatozoa

15

What is the name of the vesicle at the tip of a sperm cell that contains enzymes that will help the sperm
cell penetrate an egg cell it encounters?

A) scrotum

B) amnion

C) chorion

D) Sertoli cell

E) acrosome

16

During the excitement phase of intercourse, what makes the human penis enlarge and become rigid?

A) blood

B) semen

C) bone
 D) contracted muscles

17

Which of the following is the largest in size?

A) mature sperm cell

B) mature egg cell

C) polar body

D) they are all approximately the same size

18

The lining or inner layer of the uterus is called the

A) cervix

B) vagina

C) labia

D) endometrium

E) epididymis

19

How long is the refractory period for men on average after intercourse?

A) men don't have a refractory period

B) about 20 seconds

C) about 2 minutes

D) about 20 minutes
 E) about 2 hours

20

Which of the following forms of birth control does not prevent conception (fertilization)?

A) an IUD

B) a condom

C) a diaphragm

D) a vasectomy

E) all of the above do prevent conception

21

Which of the following is the most reliable form of birth control?

A) the rhythm method

B) a douche

C) birth control pills

D) coitus interruptus

E) they are all equally reliable

22

What structure is cut and tied off in a vasectomy?

A) the penis

B) the epididymis

C) the urethra
 D) the seminiferous tubules

E) the vas deferens

23

Vasectomies and tubal ligations make the person

A) sterile

B) unable to produce sex hormones

C) lose their sex drive

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

24

Testosterone is produced by the

A) seminiferous tubules

B) germinal epithelium

C) SRY cells

D) Leydig cells

E) Sertoli cells

25

The majority of the semen is produced by the

A) seminal vesicles

B) prostate gland
 C) bulbourethral gland

D) seminiferous tubules

E) they all contribute equally

26

The follicular phase of the menstral cycle is also known as the _______________ phase of the
endometrium.

A) proliferative

B) luteal

C) secretory

D) menstruation

E) menarche

27

Reproduction in birds compares to reproduction in reptiles in that

A) both newly hatched birds and reptiles require parental care

B) they are both ovoviviparous

C) both exhibit external fertilization

D) male or female reptiles can reproduce asexually; birds do not

E) the eggs of both birds and reptiles have protective shells

28

In humans, fertilization of an egg normally takes place when the sperm and egg unite in the:
 A) vagina

B) uterus

C) fallopian tube

D) ovary

E) All of the above are possible locations for fertilization.

29

The corpus luteum produces _______________, which inhibits ovulation.

A) LH

B) FSH

C) estrogen

D) progesterone

E) prolactin

30

Approximately two-thirds of the male ejaculate is produced and secreted by the:

A) prostate gland.

B) bulbourethral gland.

C) testes and epididymis.

D) Cowper's gland.

E) seminal vesicles.

31
Shortly before menstruation:

A) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.

B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.

C) blood levels of FSH stabilize.

D) the corpus luteum secretes progesterone.

E) none of the above occur.

32

With reference to the ovary, the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the:

A) proliferative phase.

B) ovulatory phase.

C) luteal phase.

D) follicular phase.

E) estrogen phase.

33

The expulsion of seminal fluid from the male urethra into the female vagina is called fertilization.

A) True

B) False

34

In addition to producing the egg, the ovaries are also endocrine organs.

A) True
 B) False

35

In mammalian males, the reproductive and excretory systems share the same urethra.

A) True

B) False

36

The adaptation of the amniotic egg by reptiles and birds had little impact on their ability to survive a
terrestrial environment.

A) True

B) False

Sex and Reproduction

Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 59 (p. 1214)

1. Oviparity is reproduction through laying eggs. In ovoviviparity, the eggs hatch inside the mother,
simulating a live birth. Truly viviparous animals are born alive.

2. Monotremes are oviparous. Marsupials have embryos born very underdeveloped and continue
development in the pouch; in placentals, all development takes place in the mother’s body and internal
nourishment is provided by means of a network of blood vessels called the placenta.
3. Seminal vesicles contribute a fructose-rich nutrient to the semen, the fluid medium in which sperm
travel. The prostate gland is responsible for approximately 60% of the volume of semen. The
bulbourethral glands secrete a lubricant to facilitate sexual intercourse.

4. Ova start their meiosis when they are first formed, during embryological development. The first
meiotic division is completed during the follicular phase in the Graafian follicle.

5. The granulose cells secrete estrogen, which feeds back to the hypothalamus to stop FSH production;
estrogen also causes the uterine lining to proliferate.

6. The four periods are excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. In both the female and the male,
during excitation there is increased heartbeat, blood pressure, respiration, and vasodilation, as well as
increased sensitivity in the nipples and genital tissues. The male experiences vasocongestion in the
penis, resulting in erection. The female experiences increased circulation with swelling in the labia and
the clitoris, and the vaginal walls become moist and its muscles relax.

7. Birth control pills prevent the maturation of the egg by providing hormonal signals that ovulation has
already taken place.