MCQ ON HUMAN

RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
“MAGNETS OF CURIOSITY, KNOWLEDGE, AND WISDOM IN THE PUPILS”

Mrs.B.SAMUNDEESWARI
 ST. JOSEPH’S COLLEGE OF ARTS AND SCIENCE
FOR WOMEN-HOSUR

HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

1. What is Human Resources Management (HRM)?

a) Organizing company events

b) Managing an organization's workforce

c) Financial planning for the company
d) IT system administration

2. What is the primary objective of HRM?

a) Maximizing profits

b) Enhancing employee well-being

c) Minimizing production costs

d) Increasing product innovation

3. Which HRM function focuses on attracting, selecting,

and hiring suitable candidates?
a) Training and Development

b) Recruitment and Selection

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c) Compensation and Benefits
d) Employee Relations

4. What does the term "Employee Relations" in HRM

encompass?

a) Conflict resolution and communication

b) Health and safety regulations
c) Financial incentives
d) Market analysis

5. Which HRM activity aims at enhancing employees'

skills and knowledge?

a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Performance Management

c) Training and Development

d) Succession Planning

6. What does HRM stand for?

a) Human Resource Mechanism

b) Human Resource Management

c) High Responsibility Module

d) Hiring and Retention Model

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7. What is the primary focus of HRM?

a) Financial Management
b) Operations Management

c) Human Capital Management

d) Marketing Management

8. Which HRM function is responsible for recruiting and

selecting employees?
a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Relations

c) Recruitment and Selection

d) Training and Development

9.What does HRIS stand for in the context of HRM?

a) Human Resource Information System

b) Hiring and Recruitment Integration System
c) High-Resolution Imaging Software

d) Human Relations Improvement Strategy

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10.Which term refers to the process of evaluating and
improving employee performance?
a) Compensation Management

b) Performance Appraisal
c) Employee Engagement

d) Succession Planning

11. What is the purpose of Human Resource Planning?

a) Assessing Financial Resources
b) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

c) Determining HR Needs
d) Establishing Operational Procedures

12. Which aspect of HRM focuses on resolving

workplace conflicts?

a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Engagement

c) Employee Relations
d) Training and Development

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13.What does the term "workforce diversity" refer to in
HRM?
a) Uniformity in Job Roles

b) Variety of Employee Backgrounds

c) Exclusive Hiring Practices

d) Limited Employee Skills

14. What is the primary goal of employee engagement

efforts?
a) Reducing Workforce

b) Enhancing Employee Commitment

c) Decreasing Job Responsibilities

d) Limiting Training Opportunities

15. What is the significance of compensation and benefits

in HRM?
a) Improving Work Environment
b) Enhancing Employee Skills

c) Attracting and Retaining Talent

d) Minimizing Job Roles

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16. In HRM, what does the term "organizational

development" focus on?

a) Job Analysis

b) Creating a Positive Culture

c) Workforce Diversity
d) Training and Development

17. What is the purpose of HR analytics in HRM?

a) Assessing Employee Attire

b) Using Data for Informed Decisions

c) Evaluating Workplace Decor

d) Improving Cafeteria Services

18.Which HRM function involves managing relationships

with labor unions?
a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Relations
c) Recruitment and Selection

d) HR Analytics

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19. What is the objective of diversity and inclusion

initiatives in HRM?

a) Limiting Employee Differences

b) Reducing Employee Engagement

c) Creating an Inclusive Workplace

d) Ignoring Employee Backgrounds

20. How does HRM contribute to organizational success?

a) Minimizing Employee Commitment

b) Maximizing Operational Costs

c) Ensuring Effective Human Capital Management

d) Limiting Employee Training

21. Which HRM function involves attracting, selecting,

and hiring employees?
a) Compensation and Benefits
b) Employee Relations

c) Recruitment and Selection

d) Training and Development

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22. What is the primary goal of performance management

in HRM?

a) Determining Compensation
b) Enhancing Employee Engagement

c) Evaluating and Improving Performance

d) Managing Employee Relations

23. In HRM, what does the term "training and

development" refer to?

a) Evaluating Employee Performance

b) Improving Workplace Decor

c) Enhancing Employee Skills and Knowledge

d) Assessing Compensation and Benefits

24.Which HRM function involves creating a positive work

environment and resolving workplace conflicts?
a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Relations
c) Recruitment and Selection

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d) HR Analytics

25. What is the purpose of human resource planning in

HRM?
a) Assessing Financial Resources

b) Determining HR Needs
c) Improving Workplace Decor

d) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

26. What does HRIS stand for in the context of HRM?

a) Human Resource Information System

b) Hiring and Recruitment Integration System

c) High-Resolution Imaging Software

d) Human Relations Improvement Strategy

27. Which HRM function involves managing relationships

with labor unions?
a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Relations
c) Recruitment and Selection

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d) HR Analytics

28.What is the purpose of job analysis in HRM?

a) Assessing Financial Resources

b) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

c) Defining Job Roles and Responsibilities

d) Improving Workplace Decor

29. Which term refers to using data and metrics to make

informed HR decisions?

a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Engagement

c) HR Analytics
d) Recruitment and Selection

30. What does the term "employee engagement" mean in

HRM?
a) Limiting Employee Differences
b) Reducing Employee Commitment

c) Enhancing Employee Motivation and Commitment

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d) Creating an Inclusive Workplace

31. What is the significance of compensation and benefits

in HRM?
a) Improving Work Environment

b) Enhancing Employee Skills

c) Attracting and Retaining Talent

d) Minimizing Job Roles

32. In HRM, what is the role of organizational

development?
a) Defining Job Roles and Responsibilities

b) Creating a Positive Culture

c) Managing Employee Relations
d) Assessing Compensation and Benefits

33.Which HRM function focuses on creating a pipeline of

talent for key positions?

a) Succession Planning
b) Employee Engagement

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c) Recruitment and Selection
d) Training and Development

34. What is the primary objective of diversity and inclusion

initiatives in HRM?

a) Limiting Employee Differences

b) Reducing Employee Engagement

c) Creating an Inclusive Workplace

d) Ignoring Employee Backgrounds

35. How does HRM contribute to organizational success?

a) Minimizing Employee Commitment

b) Maximizing Operational Costs

c) Ensuring Effective Human Capital Management

d) Limiting Employee Training

36.What is the primary purpose of HRM functions?

a) Maximizing shareholder value

b) Enhancing employee satisfaction

c) Minimizing environmental impact
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d) Reducing corporate taxes

37.Which HRM function involves assessing and improving

employee performance?
a) Recruitment

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Performance Management
d) Employee Relations

38.What does the Compensation and Benefits function in

HRM cover?
a) Conflict resolution

b) Employee training

c) Financial rewards and perks

d) Workplace safety measures

39.Which HRM function deals with maintaining a positive

work environment and resolving conflicts?

a) Recruitment and Selection

b) Employee Relations

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c) Training and Development
d)Succession Planning

40. What is the focus of the Succession Planning function

in HRM?

a) Hiring new talent

b) Developing leadership pipeline

c) Conducting employee appraisals
d)Administering payroll

41.What is the primary role of the personnel function in an

organization?

a) Financial Management

b) Human Resource Management

c) Marketing Strategies

d) Operational Efficiency

42. Which function of HR is responsible for recruitment,

selection, and onboarding of employees?
a) Compensation and Benefits

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b) Personnel Function
c) Employee Relations

d) Training and Development

43. What does the term "personnel function" encompass in

an organization?
a) All Financial Operations

b) Only Employee Relations

c) Activities Related to Human Resources

d) Marketing and Sales

44. In the context of the personnel function, what is the

significance of job analysis?
a) Assessing Financial Resources
b) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

c) Defining Job Roles and Responsibilities

d) Improving Workplace Decor

45.Which aspect is typically managed by the personnel

function?

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a) Production Efficiency

b) Employee Recruitment and Selection

c) Sales and Marketing
d) Financial Auditing

46.What is the purpose of personnel planning?

a) Assessing Financial Resources

b) Determining HR Needs
c) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

d) Improving Workplace Decor

47.Which term refers to the process of evaluating and

improving employee performance within the personnel
function?
a) Compensation Management

b) Performance Appraisal
c) Employee Engagement

d) Succession Planning

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48.What is the role of the personnel function in employee
relations?
a) Managing Financial Disputes

b) Resolving Workplace Conflicts

c) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

d) Improving Workplace Decor

49. Which function involves ensuring employees receive

fair and competitive compensation?
a) Personnel Function

b) Employee Engagement

c) Compensation and Benefits

d) Organizational Development

50. What does HRIS stand for in the context of the

personnel function?
a) Hiring and Recruitment Integration System

b) Human Resource Information System

c) High-Resolution Imaging Software
d) Human Relations Improvement Strategy

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51. What is the significance of employee training and
development in the personnel function?
a) Assessing Financial Resources

b) Enhancing Employee Skills

c) Improving Workplace Decor

d) Evaluating Marketing Strategies

52.Which function of the personnel department involves

managing relationships with labor unions?
a) Recruitment and Selection

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Employee Relations
d) HR Analytics

53. What is the primary objective of diversity and inclusion

initiatives within the personnel function?
a) Limiting Employee Differences
b) Reducing Employee Engagement

c) Creating an Inclusive Workplace

d) Ignoring Employee Backgrounds

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54.How does the personnel function contribute to
organizational success?
a) Minimizing Employee Commitment

b) Maximizing Operational Costs

c) Ensuring Effective Human Capital Management

d) Limiting Employee Training

55.Which term refers to using data and metrics to make

informed personnel decisions?
a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Engagement

c) HR Analytics
d) Recruitment and Selection

56.What is the primary role of the personnel function in an

organization?
a) Marketing strategy development
b) Managing financial accounts

c) Human resource management

d) IT infrastructure maintenance

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57. Which personnel function involves recruiting,
selecting, and placing employees in an organization?
a) Training and Development

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Recruitment and Selection

d) Employee Relations

58. What does the term "Training and Development" in the

personnel function focus on?
a) Employee compensation packages

b) Enhancing employees' skills and knowledge

c) Employee conflict resolution

d) Workplace safety measures

59.Which aspect is typically covered under Compensation

and Benefits in the personnel function?
a) Recruitment planning

b) Financial incentives and rewards

c) Employee performance evaluations
d) Workplace diversity initiatives

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60. How does the personnel function contribute to
employee relations?
a) Conducting market analysis

b) Resolving conflicts and maintaining a positive

work environment
c) Administering IT systems

d) Managing organizational finances

61. What is the typical hierarchical position of the head of

the personnel function in an organization?
a) Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

b) Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

c) Chief Human Resources Officer (CHRO)

d) Chief Marketing Officer (CMO)

62. In the structure of the personnel function, what

department often handles recruitment and selection?
a) Finance

b) Marketing

c) Human Resources (HR)

d) Operations
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63.Which personnel function unit focuses on employee

compensation, benefits, and payroll?

a) Employee Relations

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Training and Development
d) Organizational Development

64.What is the primary responsibility of the Employee

Relations unit within the personnel function?

a) Recruitment and Selection

b) Conflict Resolution and Employee Well-being

c) Compensation Management
d) Training and Development

65.In the personnel function structure, which unit is

responsible for assessing future human resource needs?
a) Recruitment and Selection

b) Employee Relations

c) Human Resource Planning

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d) Compensation and Benefits

66.What does the term "HRIS" refer to in the structure of

the personnel function?
a) Hiring and Recruitment Information System

b) Human Resource Improvement Strategy

c) High-Resolution Imaging Software

d) Human Resource Information System

67.Which unit in the personnel function structure focuses

on developing employee skills and knowledge?
a) Employee Relations

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Training and Development

d) Human Resource Planning

68. In the structure of the personnel function, what unit is

responsible for maintaining positive workplace culture?

a) Compensation and Benefits

b) Employee Relations

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c) Recruitment and Selection

d) Organizational Development

69.What is the role of the Compensation and Benefits unit

in the personnel function structure?

a) Conflict Resolution
b) Employee Training

c) Assessing Financial Resources

d) Managing Employee Compensation and Benefits

70. In the personnel function structure, what unit is

responsible for managing relationships with labor unions?

a) Recruitment and Selection

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Employee Relations
d) HR Analytics

71.What is the purpose of the HR Analytics unit in the

structure of the personnel function?
a) Managing Employee Relations

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b) Assessing Financial Resources

c) Using Data for Informed HR Decisions

d) Recruitment and Selection

72.Which unit in the personnel function structure is

concerned with creating an inclusive workplace?
a) Recruitment and Selection

b) Compensation and Benefits

c) Employee Relations

d) Diversity and Inclusion

73.What does the term "succession planning" involve in

the structure of the personnel function?
a) Employee Recruitment

b) Developing Future Leaders

c) Compensation Management
d) Training and Development

74.What is the primary objective of the Human Resource

Planning unit in the personnel function structure?

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a) Improving Workplace Decor
b) Managing Employee Relations

c) Determining HR Needs for the Future

d) Recruitment and Selection

75.In the personnel function structure, what unit is

responsible for creating a positive organizational culture?

a) Employee Relations

b) Organizational Development
c) Compensation and Benefits

d) HR Analytics

76.What is the typical structure of the personnel function

within an organization?

a) Centralized structure
b) Decentralized structure
c) Matrix structure
d) Hierarchical structure

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77.Which department is often responsible for overseeing
the personnel function in a centralized structure?
a) Marketing

b) Finance

c) Human Resources (HR)

d). Information Technology (IT)

78.. In a decentralized structure, who holds the

responsibility for personnel activities?

a) Department managers
b) Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
c) Customers

d) External consultants

79. What advantage does a matrix structure offer to the

personnel function?
a) Streamlined decision-making
b) Clear chain of command

c) Enhanced collaboration across departments

d) Minimal coordination

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80. Which organizational structure emphasizes a clear

hierarchy in the personnel function?

a) Flat structure

b) Tall structure
c) Project-based structure
d) Network structure

81. What is the primary purpose of establishing personnel

principles and policies in an organization?

a) Maximizing shareholder profits

b) Creating bureaucratic processes

c) Ensuring fair and consistent treatment of

employees
d) Minimizing workplace diversity

82. Which personnel policy focuses on providing

guidelines for hiring and promoting employees based on
merit and qualifications?

a) Diversity and Inclusion Policy

b) Equal Opportunity Policy

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c) Performance Appraisal Policy
d) Recruitment Policy

83. What does a Workplace Safety Policy in personnel

management typically address?

a) Employee benefits

b) Procedures during emergencies

c) Performance evaluations
d) Recruitment strategies

84. Which personnel principle emphasizes treating all

employees with dignity and respect regardless of their
position within the organization?

a) Equal Pay for Equal Work

b) Non-Discrimination Principle
c) Whistleblower Protection
d) Employee Confidentiality

85. What is the purpose of a Whistleblower Protection

Policy in personnel management?
a) Ensuring employee confidentiality
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b) Encouraging reporting of unethical behavior
c) Regulating employee attire

d) Establishing break time policies

86.What is the primary purpose of personnel principles and

policies in an organization?
a) Financial Management

b) Operational Efficiency

c) Ensuring Fair and Consistent Treatment of

Employees
d) Marketing Strategies

87.Which personnel principle emphasizes treating all

employees with fairness and impartiality?

a) Equal Opportunity
b) Performance Appraisal
c) Employee Engagement
d) Compensation and Benefits

88.What does the term "job analysis" contribute to

personnel principles and policies?
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a) Assessing Financial Resources

b) Defining Job Roles and Responsibilities

c) Evaluating Marketing Strategies
d) Improving Workplace Decor

89.Which personnel policy ensures that employees are paid

in accordance with their job responsibilities and industry
standards?

a) Equal Opportunity Policy

b) Compensation and Benefits Policy

c) Training and Development Policy
d) Employee Relations Policy

90.What is the purpose of an Equal Opportunity Policy in

personnel principles?

a) Managing Employee Relations

b) Promoting Diversity and Inclusion

c) Assessing Financial Resources

d) Recruitment and Selection

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91.Which personnel principle focuses on creating a safe
and healthy work environment?
a) Employee Engagement

b) Workplace Safety
c) Compensation and Benefits

d) Performance Appraisal

92. What does the term "conflict resolution" contribute to

personnel policies?
a) Equal Opportunity Policy

b) Employee Relations Policy

c) Compensation and Benefits Policy

d) Training and Development Policy

93. In personnel principles, what does "whistleblower

protection" aim to achieve?
a) Protecting Employee Benefits

b) Encouraging Open Communication

c) Evaluating Marketing Strategies
d) Improving Workplace Decor

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94.What is the significance of a Training and Development
Policy in personnel principles?
a) Ensuring Fair Compensation

b) Enhancing Employee Skills and Knowledge

c) Managing Workplace Conflicts

d) Assessing Financial Resources

95.Which personnel principle emphasizes providing

opportunities for career growth and advancement?
a) Employee Engagement

b) Career Development
c) Compensation and Benefits

d) Organizational Development

96. What does the term "performance appraisal" contribute

to personnel policies?
a) Defining Job Roles and Responsibilities

b) Evaluating and Improving Employee

Performance
c) Creating an Inclusive Workplace
d) Recruitment and Selection
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97. In personnel principles, what does "flexible work
arrangements" support?
a) Workplace Safety

b) Equal Opportunity
c) Employee Engagement

d) Work-Life Balance

98. What is the primary focus of a Diversity and Inclusion

Policy in personnel principles?
a) Limiting Employee Differences

b) Reducing Employee Engagement

c) Creating an Inclusive Workplace

d) Ignoring Employee Backgrounds

99. Which personnel policy emphasizes protecting

employees from discrimination and harassment?
a) Equal Opportunity Policy

b) Employee Relations Policy

c) Compensation and Benefits Policy
d) Whistleblower Protection Policy

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100. What does the term "workplace ethics" contribute to
personnel principles?
a) Employee Engagement

b) Workplace Safety
c) Equal Opportunity

d) Ensuring Ethical Conduct

101.The scope of HRM includes

a) Training and development
b) performance appraisal

c) job evaluation

d) all of the above

102.The human resource planning is done based on the

a) Market condition
b) financial condition

c) external environment

d) organizational plan

103.The job redesign includes

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a) Person
b) system
c) provide task closure
d) casting

104. Process of studying and collecting information about a

job is known as

a) HRP
b) Job design
c) Job analysis
d) job evaluation

105.Which of these is the most important external factor

governing recruitments?
a) Sons of soil
b) Lab our market
c) unemployment rate
d) supply and demand

106.____________ refers to the process of identifying and

attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job
applicants.
a) Selection
b) training

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c) induction
d) Recruitments

107.___________is the systematic, periodic and impartial

rating of an employee excellence in matters pertaining to
his present job and his potential for a better job.

a) Performance appraisal
b) compensation and motivation
c) Training and development
d) performance indicator

108. Grievance procedures are based on the principle of

natural

a) justice
b) principle
c) procedure
d) commitment

109. Adopting a step-by-step approach in dealing with

indiscipline problems is the fundamental principle of

a) progressive discipline
b) negative discipline
c) positive discipline
d) none of the above

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110.Conflict causes predictable and destructive changes in
the disputant’s attitudes, perceptions and interaction is
called___________.
a) perceived conflict
b) real conflict
c) escalating conflict
d) data type conflict

111. leadership is the

a) ability to influence other people

b) ability to create within people an urge to do
c) ability to obtain willing co-operation of the followers
d) all the above

112. A most conflicts have their roots in uncertainty and

negotiation is a way of managing the

a) resultant risk
b) failure
c) uncertainty
d) inputs

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UNIT II

1. What is the primary goal of human resource planning?

a) Cost reduction
b) Employee satisfaction
c) Profit maximization
d) Workforce optimization

2. Which of the following is not a step in the human

resource planning process?

a) Forecasting
b) Recruitment
c)Training
d) Controlling

3. What is the key benefit of effective human resource

planning?
a) Employee turnover
b) Skill gaps
c) Labor shortages
d) Strategic alignment

4. Which factor is least likely to influence human resource

planning?

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a) Economic conditions
b) Technological advancements
c) Political stability
d) Market competition

5. What does SWOT analysis stand for in the context of

human resource planning?

a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

b) Strategy, Workforce, Objectives, Tactics
c) Skills, Workers, Organization, Tools
d) Staffing, Workflows, Optimization, Training

6.. Which method involves hiring individuals from outside

the organization to fill vacant positions?

a) Succession planning
b) Internal recruitment
c) External recruitment
d) Job rotation

7. What is the purpose of workforce analysis in human

resource planning?
a) Assessing employee satisfaction
b) Evaluating organizational culture
c) Understanding skill gaps
d) Measuring employee productivity
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8. Which metric helps measure the time it takes to fill a job

vacancy?

a) Absenteeism rate
b) Time-to-fill
c)Turnover ratio
d)Recruitment cost ratio

9. Which demographic factor is commonly considered

in workforce planning?
a) Job satisfaction
b) Age distribution
c)Team collaboration
d) Performance metrics

10. What is the purpose of a skills inventory in human

resource planning?
a) Assessing employee morale
b) Identifying training needs
c) Measuring job satisfaction
d) Evaluating team dynamics

11. Which strategy involves adjusting the workforce size

based on business needs?

a) Downsizing
b) Outsourcing
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c) Rightsizing
d) Offshoring

12. In the context of human resource planning, what does

ERP stand for?
a) Employee Resource Planning
b) Enterprise Resource Planning
c) Efficiency and Recruitment Planning
d) Essential Role Planning

13.What is the primary focus of workforce diversity in

human resource planning?

a) Age
b) Gender
c) Ethnicity
d) All of the above

14. Which factor is NOT typically considered a constraint

in human resource planning?
a) Budget
b) Legal requirements
c)Employee preferences
d) Market demand

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15. Which method involves assessing employees' potential
to take on higher-level roles in the future?
a) Performance appraisal
b) Job rotation
c) Succession planning
d) Training and development

16. What is the purpose of a gap analysis in human

resource planning?

a) Identifying discrepancies between current and

desired performance
b) Assessing employee satisfaction levels
c) Measuring productivity
d) Evaluating training effectiveness

17. What does the acronym KSAOs stand for in the context
of human resource planning?

a) Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Opportunities

b) Key Success Areas and Objectives
c) Know-how, Strategies, Achievements, Objectives
d) Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Other attributes

18. Which factor is NOT typically considered in external

environmental scanning for human resource planning?
a) Economic trends
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b) Technological advancements
c) Employee motivation
d) Legal and regulatory changes

19. What is the purpose of a workforce plan?

a) Identifying employee grievances
b) Assessing training effectiveness
c) Aligning workforce needs with business goals
d) Measuring absenteeism

20. What is the term for the process of moving employees

horizontally within the organization to develop their skills?

a) Job rotation
b) Succession planning
c) Cross-training
d) Mentoring

21. What is the first step in the Human Resources

Planning process?
a) Recruitment
b) Job analysis
c) Forecasting
d) Training

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22. In the context of Human Resources Planning, what
does "forecasting" primarily involve?

a) Projecting future employee turnover

b) Analyzing current job roles
c) Conducting employee surveys
d) Implementing training programs

23.Which factor is NOT typically considered during

demand forecasting in Human Resources Planning?

a) Economic conditions
b) Technological advancements
c) Current employee skills
d) Organizational culture

24. The process of assessing the external labor market and

identifying potential candidates is known as:

a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Job analysis
d) Onboarding

25. What does "job analysis" involve in the Human

Resources Planning process?

a) Evaluating employee performance

b) Identifying skills needed for a job

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c) Conducting exit interviews
d) Implementing employee benefits

26. Which type of planning focuses on identifying and

developing employees for future leadership roles?

a) Succession planning
b) Recruitment planning
c) Training planning
d) Compensation planning

27.The Human Resources Planning process involves

assessing the current supply of:

a) Job candidates
b) Technology
c) Organizational resources
d) Skilled employees

28.Which method involves moving employees horizontally

within the organization to develop their skills?

a) Job rotation
b) Succession planning
c) External recruitment
d) Training and development

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29. What is the primary purpose of demand forecasting in
Human Resources Planning?
a) Assessing employee satisfaction
b) Identifying future workforce needs
c) Analyzing job roles
d) Measuring training effectiveness
30. In the Human Resources Planning process, what does
"supply forecasting" focus on?

a) Projecting future employee turnover

b) Assessing the external labor market
c) Analyzing current workforce skills
d) Identifying potential candidates

31. Which factor is NOT typically considered during

supply forecasting in Human Resources Planning?
a) Employee turnover rates
b) Retirements
c) Technological advancements
d) Employee satisfaction

32. What is the purpose of matching demand and supply in

Human Resources Planning?

a) Reducing workforce diversity

b) Minimizing employee turnover

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c) Balancing workforce needs with available
resources
d) Ignoring external market trends

33. Which metric helps measure the effectiveness of the

Human Resources Planning process?
a) Employee satisfaction rate
b) Time-to-fill
c) Job rotation ratio
d) Turnover ratio

34. What is the role of workforce analysis in the Human

Resources Planning process?

a) Assessing employee morale

b) Evaluating organizational culture
c) Understanding skill gaps
d) Measuring employee productivity

35.Which method involves assessing employees' potential

to take on higher-level roles in the future?
a) Performance appraisal
b) Job rotation
c) Succession planning
d) Training and development

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36.What does "skills inventory" refer to in the Human
Resources Planning process?
a) Identifying employee grievances
b) Evaluating team dynamics
c) Assessing employee skills and qualifications
d) Measuring absenteeism

37. The Human Resources Planning process aims to

ensure:

a) High turnover rates

b) Strategic alignment of workforce and
organizational goals
c) Isolation of departments
d) Reactive decision-making

38. External environmental scanning in Human Resources

Planning involves analyzing:

a) Employee preferences
b) Economic trends
c) Training programs
d) Internal communication

39.What is the primary focus of workforce diversity in the

Human Resources Planning process?
a) Age
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b) Gender
c) Ethnicity
d) All of the above

40. In the Human Resources Planning process, what is the

purpose of a gap analysis?

a) Identifying discrepancies between current and

desired performance
b) Assessing employee satisfaction levels
c) Measuring productivity
d) Evaluating training effectiveness

41. Planning is essential in organizations because it:

a) Increases employee turnover
b) Enhances flexibility and adaptability
c) Reduces communication
d) Promotes uncertainty

42.The primary purpose of planning is to:

a) Increase bureaucracy
b) Eliminate creativity
c) Achieve organizational goals
d) Minimize change

43.Planning helps in:

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a) Avoiding decision-making
b) Managing resources efficiently
c) Creating chaos in the organization
d) Reducing collaboration

44.The need for planning arises due to:

a) Predictable environments
b) Static organizational structures
c) Unforeseeable changes
d) Limited competition

45. Effective planning contributes to:

a) Increased confusion
b) Improved decision-making
c) Decreased innovation
d) Stagnation

46.Planning is crucial for:

a) Ignoring external factors
b) Achieving coordination and control
c) Reducing employee engagement
d) Isolating departments

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47.Which of the following is a benefit of long-term
planning?
a) Increased myopia
b) Short-term success only
c) Sustainability and stability
d) Rapid changes

48. The absence of planning can lead to:

a) Efficient resource allocation

b) Increased organizational performance
c) Crisis and chaos
d) Proactive decision-making

49. Planning helps in setting:

a) Unclear objectives
b) Ambiguous goals
c) Realistic and achievable objectives
d) Short-term priorities

50.The need for planning is more pronounced in:

a) Stable environments
b) Dynamic and complex environments
c) Isolated organizations
d) Hierarchical structures

51. Planning facilitates:

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a) Ad hoc decision-making
b) Reactive problem-solving
c) Proactive decision-making
d) Minimizing communication

52.Which type of planning focuses on day-to-day

operations?
a) Strategic planning
b) Tactical planning
c) Operational planning
d) Long-term planning

53. Planning is crucial for resource allocation, which

involves:

a) Mismanagement of resources
b) Equitable distribution of resources
c) Ignoring resource needs
d) Promoting resource hoarding

54. Planning helps in minimizing:

a) Organizational learning
b) Redundancies and inefficiencies
c) Employee empowerment
d) Dynamic changes

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55.The need for planning is evident in:

a) Small organizations only

b) All organizations, regardless of size
c) Large organizations only
d) Nonprofit organizations only

56. Planning is crucial for:

a) Maintaining status quo
b) Facilitating change and innovation
c) Ignoring market trends
d) Limiting organizational growth

57.The dynamic nature of the business environment

requires organizations to engage in:
a) Reactive planning
b) Static planning
c) Inflexible planning
d) Proactive planning

58. Planning helps in:

a) Minimizing accountability
b) Overlooking competitive forces
c) Achieving competitive advantage
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d) Promoting siloed thinking

59. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of

effective planning?

a) Flexibility
b) Consistency
c) Rigidity
d) Collaboration

60. Planning is an ongoing process that involves:

a) Single-point decision-making
b) Continuous assessment and adjustment
c) Ignoring feedback
d) Isolated decision-making

61.What is the first step in the Human Resources

Planning process?

a) Recruitment
b) Job analysis
c) Forecasting
d) Training

62.In the context of Human Resources Planning, what

does "forecasting" primarily involve?

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a) Projecting future employee turnover
b) Analyzing current job roles
c) Conducting employee surveys
d) Implementing training programs

63.Which factor is NOT typically considered during

demand forecasting in Human Resources Planning?

a) Economic conditions
b) Technological advancements
c) Current employee skills
d) Organizational culture

64.The process of assessing the external labor market and

identifying potential candidates is known as:

a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Job analysis
d) Onboarding

65.What does "job analysis" involve in the Human

Resources Planning process?

a) Evaluating employee performance

b) Identifying skills needed for a job
c) Conducting exit interviews
d) Implementing employee benefits

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66.Which type of planning focuses on identifying and
developing employees for future leadership roles?

a) Succession planning
b) Recruitment planning
c) Training planning
d) Compensation planning

67.The Human Resources Planning process involves

assessing the current supply of:

a) Job candidates
b) Technology
c) Organizational resources
d) Skilled employees

68. Which method involves moving employees

horizontally within the organization to develop their skills?

a) Job rotation
b) Succession planning
c) External recruitment
d) Training and development

69. What is the primary purpose of demand forecasting

in Human Resources Planning?
a. Assessing employee satisfaction
b. Identifying future workforce needs
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c. Analyzing job roles
d. Measuring training effectiveness

70.In the Human Resources Planning process, what does

"supply forecasting" focus on?
a) Projecting future employee turnover
b) Assessing the external labor market

c) Analyzing current workforce skills

d) Identifying potential candidates

71.Which factor is NOT typically considered during supply

forecasting in Human Resources Planning?
a) Employee turnover rates
b) Retirements
c) Technological advancements
d) Employee satisfaction

72.What is the purpose of matching demand and supply in

Human Resources Planning?

a) Reducing workforce diversity

b) Minimizing employee turnover
c) Balancing workforce needs with available
resources
d) Ignoring external market trends

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73.Which metric helps measure the effectiveness of the
Human Resources Planning process?
a) Employee satisfaction rate
b) Time-to-fill
c) Job rotation ratio
d) Turnover ratio

74. What is the role of workforce analysis in the Human

Resources Planning process?

a) Assessing employee morale

b) Evaluating organizational culture
c) Understanding skill gaps
d) Measuring employee productivity

75. Which method involves assessing employees' potential

to take on higher-level roles in the future?

a) Performance appraisal
b) Job rotation
c) Succession planning
d) Training and development

76. What does "skills inventory" refer to in the Human

Resources Planning process?
a) Identifying employee grievances
b) Evaluating team dynamics
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c) Assessing employee skills and qualifications
d) Measuring absenteeism

77.The Human Resources Planning process aims to ensure:

a) High turnover rates

b) Strategic alignment of workforce and
organizational goals
c) Isolation of departments
d) Reactive decision-making

78. External environmental scanning in Human Resources

Planning involves analyzing:

a) Employee preferences

b) Economic trends
c) Training programs
d) Internal communication

79.What is the primary focus of workforce diversity in the

Human Resources Planning process?
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Ethnicity
d) All of the above

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80. In the Human Resources Planning process, what is the
purpose of a gap analysis?

a) Identifying discrepancies between current and

desired performance
b) Assessing employee satisfaction levels
c) Measuring productivity
d) Evaluating training effectiveness

81.What is the primary purpose of job analysis?

a) Employee motivation
b) Determining job requirements
c) Setting organizational goals
d) Reducing turnover

82.Which of the following is a method used in job

analysis?

a) Employee surveys
b) Financial audits
c) Market research
d) Social media monitoring

83.Job analysis involves the systematic process of:

a) Employee termination

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b) Collecting, documenting, and analyzing job-
related information
c) Implementing new technologies
d) Ignoring employee feedback

84.Which component of job analysis focuses on the

physical and mental tasks associated with a job?
a) Job description
b) Job specification
c) Job evaluation
d) Task analysis

85.What is the purpose of a job description in job analysis?

a) Identifying potential candidates

b) Outlining the employee's career path
c) Providing an overview of job duties and
responsibilities
d) Assessing employee satisfaction

86.Which method of job analysis involves direct

observation of employees in their work environment?
a) Questionnaires
b) Interviews

c) Observation
d) Job performance evaluations
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87. Job analysis helps in:
a) Reducing employee engagement
b) Identifying training needs
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Decreasing job satisfaction

88. In job analysis, which method involves gathering

information from multiple sources, such as supervisors,
employees, and job experts?

a) Questionnaires
b) Interviews
c) Critical incident technique
d) Task inventory approach

89.Which aspect of job analysis focuses on the

qualifications, skills, and abilities required for a job?
a) Job description
b) Job specification
c) Task analysis
d) Job evaluation

90.The critical incident technique in job analysis involves:

a) Observing routine tasks

b) Documenting exceptional employee
performance

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c) Ignoring employee behavior
d) Minimizing communication

91.Which method of job analysis is most suitable for jobs

with routine tasks and well-defined duties?

a) Task inventory approach

b) Observation
c) Job performance evaluations
d) Position analysis questionnaire

92. What is the primary focus of the Position Analysis

Questionnaire (PAQ) method in job analysis?

a) Analyzing employee behavior

b) Identifying job characteristics
c) Assessing employee motivation
d) Measuring job satisfaction

93. In job analysis, what does the term "competency" refer

to?

a) Employee turnover rates

b) Job-related skills, knowledge, and behaviors
c) Job performance evaluations
d) Task analysis

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94.Which method of job analysis involves employees
keeping a diary of their daily tasks and activities?
a) Task inventory approach
b) Critical incident technique
c) Observation
d) Diary method

95. Job analysis is essential for:

a) Increasing turnover rates
b) Strategic workforce planning
c) Ignoring employee feedback
d) Minimizing job satisfaction

96.Which component of job analysis focuses on the

relative worth of a job within an organization?

a) Job description
b) Job specification
c) Job evaluation
d) Task analysis

97.The purpose of task analysis in job analysis is to:

a. Assess employee motivation
b. Identify training needs
c. Evaluate job performance

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d. Document routine tasks

98.Which method of job analysis involves employees

providing written responses to a series of job-related
questions?
a) Interviews
b) Questionnaires
c) Observation
d) Critical incident technique

99. Job analysis helps in creating:

a) Job dissatisfaction

b) Role ambiguity

c) Employee engagement
d) Job turnover

100.Which aspect of job analysis provides a summary of

job-related information, including duties, responsibilities,
and qualifications?

a) Task analysis
b) Job description
c) Job specification
d) Job evaluation

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101.What is the primary goal of job design?
a) Increasing turnover rates
b) Enhancing employee engagement and
satisfaction
c) Ignoring organizational goals
d) Minimizing job variety

102. Which approach to job design emphasizes fitting the

job to the individual worker?

a) Mechanistic approach
b) Biological approach
c) Job enrichment
d) Ergonomic approach

103.What is the primary purpose of a job description?

a) Employee turnover

b) Enhancing organizational flexibility

c) Providing an overview of job duties and
responsibilities
d) Ignoring employee feedback

104.Which section of a job description typically outlines

the key responsibilities and tasks associated with a
position?
a) Qualifications
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b) Job title
c) Job summary
d) Responsibilities

105. What is the primary purpose of a job specification?

a) Outlining organizational goals
b) Identifying job duties and responsibilities
c) Defining the skills and qualifications required
for a position
d) Ignoring employee feedback

106. In a job specification, the "Education" section

typically includes:

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Required educational qualifications for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

107.What is the purpose of job rotation in job design?

a) Increasing specialization
b) Minimizing employee skills
c) Enhancing employee learning and variety
d) Reducing job complexity

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108.The approach that focuses on increasing the depth of a
job by adding tasks and responsibilities is known as:

a) Job enrichment
b) Job enlargement
c) Job rotation
d) Job simplification

109. What does job simplification aim to achieve?

a) Increasing job satisfaction

b) Reducing workload
c) Minimizing job variety
d) Enhancing employee autonomy

110.Which principle of job design emphasizes increasing

the number of tasks an employee performs to provide more
variety?
a) Job enrichment
b) Job enlargement
c) Job rotation
d) Job simplification

111.The concept of job characteristics model (JCM)

includes which of the following core job dimensions?

a) Variety, autonomy, and feedback

b) Skill variety, task identity, and task significance

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c) Job rotation, job simplification, and job

enlargement
d) Centralization, decentralization, and empowerment

112.Which job design approach focuses on increasing

employee autonomy and decision-making authority?
a) Job simplification
b) Job enrichment
c) Job enlargement
d) Job rotation

113.What is the primary purpose of the flexible work

arrangement in job design?

a) Decreasing employee engagement

b) Reducing organizational flexibility
c) Enhancing work-life balance and job
satisfaction
d) Minimizing employee learning opportunities

114. In job design, what does the term "job crafting" refer
to?

a) Adjusting the work environment to suit

individual preferences
b) Creating new job positions
c) Reducing job variety
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d) Ignoring employee feedback

115.Which principle of job design involves the degree to

which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable
piece of work?
a) Autonomy

b) Task identity
c) Feedback
d) Skill variety

116.The term "telecommuting" in job design refers to:

a) Job simplification
b) Working in an office
c) Working from a remote location
d) Employee turnover

117.What does the term "job sharing" refer to in job

design?

a) Employees sharing responsibilities informally

b) Employees rotating job positions
c) Two or more employees sharing the
responsibilities of a single full-time job
d)Temporary job assignments

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118. The concept of "telecommuting" is most closely
associated with which principle of job design?

a) Autonomy
b) Variety
c) Feedback
d) Task significance

119. The method of job design that emphasizes the

importance of employee feedback and recognition is:

a) Job rotation
b) Job enrichment

c) Job enlargement
d) Job simplification

120. Which job design approach focuses on empowering

employees to make decisions and have control over their
work?
a) Job rotation
b) Job simplification
c) Job enrichment
d) Job enlargement

121. In job design, what does "empowerment" refer to?

a) Limiting employee decision-making

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b) Reducing employee engagement
c) Enabling employees to take ownership and
control over their work
d) Ignoring employee feedback

122.The process of redesigning a job to include a greater

range of tasks and responsibilities is known as:
a) Job simplification
b) Job enrichment
c) Job enlargement
d) Job rotation

123.Which core job dimension in the job characteristics

model (JCM) focuses on the degree to which the job
requires the use of a variety of skills?

a) Skill variety
b) Autonomy
c) Feedback
d) Task significance

121.What is the purpose of job rotation in job design?

a) Reducing employee learning opportunities
b) Minimizing job variety
c) Enhancing employee skills and knowledge
d) Ignoring employee preferences

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122.What is the primary purpose of a job description?
a) Employee turnover
b) Enhancing organizational flexibility
c) Providing an overview of job duties and
responsibilities
d) Ignoring employee feedback

123.Which section of a job description typically outlines

the key responsibilities and tasks associated with a
position?

a) Qualifications
b) Job title
c) Job summary
d) Responsibilities

124.In a job description, the section that includes the

educational and experience requirements for a position is
called:

a) Responsibilities
b) Qualifications
c) Job summary
d) Skills

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125.What information is typically included in the "Job
Summary" section of a job description?
a) Detailed responsibilities
b) Brief overview of the job
c) Employee testimonials
d) Compensation details

126.The section of a job description that outlines the skills

and competencies required for the job is known as:

a) Responsibilities
b) Job summary
c) Skills
d) Qualifications

127. What does the term "essential functions" refer to in a

job description?
a) Non-essential tasks
b) Key responsibilities of the job
c) Employee preferences
d) Job rotation opportunities

128.In a job description, the "Qualifications" section

typically includes:

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a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details
c) Education, experience, and skills required
d) Job rotation opportunities

129.What is the role of the "Job Title" in a job description?

a) Outlining employee expectations
b) Providing a brief job overview
c) Identifying the position within the
organizational hierarchy
d) Describing compensation details

130.Which section of a job description provides

information about the reporting structure and relationships
within the organization?

a) Job summary
b) Responsibilities
c) Job title
d) Organizational relationships

131.What is the primary purpose of including the "Job

Location" in a job description?
a) Providing commute details
b) Identifying the geographical location of the job
c) Outlining job responsibilities
d) Ignoring employee preferences
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132.In a job description, the "Responsibilities" section
should be:
a) Brief and vague
b) Detailed and specific
c) Omitted for brevity
d) Focused only on management tasks

133.The "Qualifications" section of a job description

typically includes:

a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details
c) Education, experience, and skills required
d) Job rotation opportunities

134. What does the term "Supervision Received" in a job

description refer to?
a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details
c) Reporting structure and relationships
d) Level of oversight and direction from superiors

135.The "Working Conditions" section in a job description

typically includes information about:

a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details

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c) Environmental factors and physical
requirements
d) Job rotation opportunities

136.What does the "Job Code" in a job description

represent?
a) Compensation details
b) A unique identifier for the job position
c) Employee testimonials
d) Responsibilities

137.In a job description, the "Salary Range" is included to:

a) Provide information about employee testimonials

b) Outline the range of compensation for the
position
c) Omit details about compensation
d) Focus on job rotation opportunities

138.The "Benefits" section in a job description typically

includes details about:
a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details
c) Additional perks and advantages offered by the
organization
d) Job rotation opportunities

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139.What does the "Exempt" or "Non-exempt" status
indicate in a job description?
a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details
c) The position's eligibility for overtime pay
d) Job rotation opportunities

140.In a job description, the term "Full-time Equivalent

(FTE)" refers to:

a) Compensation details
b) The employee's workload and responsibilities
c) Employee testimonials
d) Job rotation opportunities

141.The "Closing Date" in a job description indicates:

a) The date when employee testimonials are accepted
b) The final day to submit applications for the
position
c) Compensation details
d) Job rotation opportunities

142. What is the primary purpose of a job specification?

a) Outlining organizational goals

b) Identifying job duties and responsibilities

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c) Defining the skills and qualifications required
for a position
d) Ignoring employee feedback

143.In a job specification, the "Education" section typically

includes:
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Required educational qualifications for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

144.What does the "Experience" section in a job

specification outline?

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Necessary work-related background and
qualifications
d) Job rotation opportunities

145. In a job specification, the term "Skills" refers to:

a) Employee testimonials
b) Compensation details
c) Technical and soft skills required for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

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146.The "Qualifications" section in a job specification
typically includes details about:
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) A combination of education, experience, and
skills required for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

147. What is the primary focus of the "Certifications"

section in a job specification?

a) Compensation details
b) Professional certifications or licenses required
for the job
c) Employee testimonials
d) Job rotation opportunities

148.In a job specification, the "Physical Requirements"

section typically includes information about:

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Necessary physical abilities or limitations for
the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

149.The "Language Proficiency" section in a job

specification outline:
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a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Required language skills for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

150.What does the "Technical Knowledge" section in a job

specification focus on?
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Necessary technical skills and knowledge for the
job
d) Job rotation opportunities

151. In a job specification, the term "Personal Attributes"

refers to:

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Desirable personal characteristics or qualities
for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

152. The "Competencies" section in a job specification

typically includes information about:
a. Compensation details
b. Employee testimonials

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c. Key behavioral and interpersonal competencies
required for the job
d. Job rotation opportunities

153.What is the purpose of the "Other Requirements"

section in a job specification?
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Job rotation opportunities
d) Additional requirements not covered in other
sections

154.The "Years of Experience" section in a job

specification outline:

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) The number of years of relevant work
experience required for the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

155.What is the role of the "Travel Requirements" section

in a job specification?
a) Compensation details
b) Identifying the extent of travel expected for the
job
c) Employee testimonials
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d) Job rotation opportunities

156.In a job specification, the "Salary Range" typically

outlines:

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c)The minimum and maximum salary associated
with the position
d) Job rotation opportunities

57.What does the "Location" section in a job specification

indicate?

a) The physical location or region where the job

is based
b) Compensation details
c) Employee testimonials
d) Job rotation opportunities

158.The "Working Hours" section in a job specification

typically includes information about:
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) The expected working hours and schedule for
the job
d) Job rotation opportunities

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159.In a job specification, the term "Level" refers to:
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c)The job's position within the organizational
hierarchy
d) Job rotation opportunities

160.What is the purpose of including "Job Type" in a job

specification?

a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Identifying whether the position is full-time,
part-time, or contractual
d) Job rotation opportunities

161.In a job specification, the "Benefits" section typically

includes details about:
a) Compensation details
b) Employee testimonials
c) Additional perks and advantages offered by the
organization
d) Job rotation opportunities

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UNIT – III

1.What is the primary goal of the recruitment process?

a) Increasing turnover
b) Enhancing organizational flexibility
c) Identifying and attracting qualified candidates
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

2.In the recruitment process, what does "sourcing" refer to?

a) Selecting candidates for interviews
b) Identifying and attracting potential candidates
c) Conducting background checks
d) Training new hires

3.Which recruitment source involves hiring individuals

who are recommended by current employees?

a) Internal recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Campus recruitment
d) Social media recruitment

4.The process of assessing candidates' qualifications, skills,

and suitability for a job is known as:
a) Sourcing
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b) Recruitment
c) Selection
d) Onboarding

5.What is the purpose of a job interview in the selection

process?
a) Verifying candidates' personal interests
b) Assessing cultural fit within the organization
c) Gathering information about candidates'
qualifications and suitability
d) Ignoring candidates' past experiences

6.The selection process involves:

a. Identifying and attracting candidates

b. Training new hires
c. Assessing and choosing the best candidate for a
position
d. All of the above

7. Which assessment method involves evaluating

candidates' skills and performance in a simulated work
environment?
a) Personality tests
b) Group interviews
c) Assessment centers
d) Reference checks
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8.In the selection process, what is the purpose of

conducting reference checks?

a) Verifying candidates' personal interests

b) Gathering information about candidates' past
performance and experiences
c) Assessing cultural fit within the organization

d) Ignoring candidates' qualifications

9.The "offer stage" in the recruitment and selection process

involves:
a) Assessing candidates' qualifications
b) Extending a job offer to the selected candidate
c) Conducting reference checks
d) Ignoring candidates' skills

0.What does the term "onboarding" refer to in the

recruitment and selection process?

a) Identifying and attracting candidates

b) Training new hires and integrating them into
the organization
c) Conducting interviews
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

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11.Which recruitment source involves hiring individuals
from educational institutions before they graduate?
a) Internal recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Campus recruitment
d) Social media recruitment

12. The "job description" is most closely associated with

which stage of the recruitment and selection process?

a) Sourcing

b) Recruitment
c) Selection
d) Onboarding

13. In the recruitment and selection process, what does the

term "applicant tracking system (ATS)" refer to?

a) Conducting interviews
b) A software system that automates the hiring
process and manages candidate data
c) Reference checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

14.The concept of "culture fit" in the selection process

refers to:

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a) Matching candidates' skills with job requirements
b) Assessing candidates' experience
c) Evaluating candidates' compatibility with the
organization's values and culture
d) Ignoring candidates' qualifications

15.Which type of interview involves multiple interviewers

questioning a candidate simultaneously?
a) Structured interview
b) Panel interview
c) Behavioral interview
d) Unstructured interview

16.The "pre-employment tests" in the selection process are

designed to assess:

a) Cultural fit
b) Candidates' qualifications and skills
c) Personal interests
d) Reference checks

17. What is the primary purpose of a "skills assessment" in

the selection process?
a) Assessing cultural fit
b) Evaluating candidates' communication skills
c) Testing candidates' technical or job-specific
skills
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d) Ignoring candidates' experiences

18.The "selection criteria" in the recruitment and selection

process are:

a) Job requirements used to evaluate candidates'

suitability
b) Candidates' personal preferences
c) Employee testimonials
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

19.In the recruitment and selection process, what does the

term "candidate experience" refer to?

a) Candidates' personal interests

b) The overall experience candidates have during
the hiring process
c) Employee testimonials
d) Ignoring candidates' qualifications

20. The "background check" in the selection process is

primarily conducted to:
a) Assess cultural fit
b) Verify candidates' personal interests
c) Confirm candidates' qualifications and check
for any red flags
d) Ignore candidates' past experiences

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21.What is the primary goal of the placement process?
a) Employee training
b) Identifying suitable job positions for new hires
c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

22. In the context of placement, what does "job matching"

involve?

a) Assigning new hires to random positions

b) Aligning candidates' skills and qualifications
with appropriate job roles
c) Conducting induction programs
d) Ignoring candidates' preferences

23.The purpose of induction programs is to:

a) Conduct reference checks
b) Provide new employees with information and
training about the organization
c) Evaluate candidates' qualifications
d) Ignore workforce diversity

24. What is the role of the "buddy system" in induction?

a) Conducting background checks

b) Assigning mentors or experienced employees to
assist new hires

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c) Job matching based on personal interests
d) Ignoring candidates' preferences

25.The placement process involves:

a) Employee training
b) Identifying suitable job positions for new hires
c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

26. In the context of induction, what does "onboarding"

refer to?

a) Providing new employees with information and

training about the organization
b) Conducting reference checks
c) Assigning mentors to new hires
d) Ignoring candidates' preferences

27.What is the primary purpose of the "orientation" phase

in induction?
a) Conducting reference checks
b) Job matching based on personal interests
c) Introducing new employees to the
organization's culture, policies, and procedures
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

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28.The placement process helps in:
a) Assessing candidates' personal interests
b) Identifying suitable job positions for new hires
c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

29. In the context of induction, what does "cultural

assimilation" involve?

a) Ignoring candidates' preferences

b) Assisting new hires in adapting to the
organization's culture
c) Conducting reference checks
d) Job matching based on personal interests

30.The "probationary period" in placement typically refers

to:

a) A period of assessing new hires' suitability for

the job
b) Conducting background checks
c) Job matching based on personal interests
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

31. In induction, what is the purpose of the "welcome kit"?

a) Ignoring candidates' preferences

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b) Providing new hires with essential information,
materials, and resources
c) Conducting reference checks
d) Job matching based on personal interests

32.The placement process is closely associated with:

a) Conducting reference checks
b) Identifying suitable job positions for new hires
c) Employee training
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

33.The induction process includes:

a) Employee training
b) Introducing new employees to the
organization's culture, policies, and procedures
c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring candidates' preferences

34.What is the role of the "induction manual" in the

induction process?
a) Ignoring candidates' preferences
b) Providing new hires with detailed information
about the organization, policies, and procedures
c) Conducting reference checks
d) Job matching based on personal interests

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35.The "mentorship program" in induction involves:
a) Job matching based on personal interests
b) Conducting reference checks
c) Assigning experienced employees to guide and
support new hires
d) Ignoring candidates' preferences

36. In the context of placement, what does "job rotation"

involve?

a) Ignoring candidates' preferences

b) Assigning mentors or experienced employees to
new hires
c) Exposing employees to different roles within
the organization
d) Conducting background checks

37.What is the primary goal of training and development?

a) Employee turnover
b) Enhancing organizational flexibility
c) Improving employee skills and performance
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

38.In the context of training, what does "needs assessment"

involve?
a) Evaluating training effectiveness

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b) Identifying gaps between employees' current
skills and required skills
c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

39.The training method that involves learning from

experienced employees on the job is known as:
a) Classroom training
b) On-the-job training
c) E-learning
d) Workshop training

40.What is the purpose of the "performance appraisal" in

the context of training and development?

a) Identifying gaps in employees' skills

b) Evaluating training effectiveness
c) Assessing employees' job performance
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

41.The concept of "e-learning" in training refers to:

a) Traditional classroom training
b) Learning from experienced employees on the job
c) Online or electronic learning modules
d) Workshop training

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42.The training method that involves simulations, role-
plays, and case studies is known as:
a) Classroom training
b) On-the-job training
c) Experiential learning
d) E-learning

43.The process of systematically designing, developing,

implementing, and evaluating training programs is known
as:

a) Needs assessment
b) Training and development cycle
c) Performance appraisal
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

44.What is the role of a "mentor" in the context of

employee development?

a) Conducting background checks

b) Providing guidance and support to less
experienced employees
c) Identifying gaps in employees' skills
d) Ignoring workforce diversity
45.The training method that involves face-to-face
interaction between an instructor and participants is known
as:
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a) Classroom training
b) On-the-job training
c) E-learning
d) Experiential learning

46.In the context of employee development, what does

"succession planning" involve?

a) Identifying and preparing employees for future

leadership roles
b) Conducting background checks
c) Assessing employees' current job performance
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

47.The training method that involves employees learning at

their own pace using digital resources is known as:

a) Classroom training
b) On-the-job training
c) Self-paced learning
d) Experiential learning

48.What is the purpose of the "360-degree feedback" in the

context of employee development?
a) Identifying gaps in employees' skills
b) Assessing employees' job performance from
multiple perspectives

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c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

49.The concept of "cross-training" involves:

a) Exposing employees to different roles within

the organization
b) Classroom training
c) E-learning
d) On-the-job training

50.What is the role of a "training needs analysis" in the

training and development process?

a) Conducting background checks

b) Identifying the specific skills and knowledge
employees need to perform their jobs
c) Assessing employees' job performance
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

51.The training method that involves off-site learning

activities and discussions is known as:
a) Classroom training
b) On-the-job training
c) Workshop training
d) E-learning

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52.In the context of training and development, what does
"job rotation" involve?

a) Exposing employees to different roles within

the organization
b) Classroom training
c) E-learning
d) On-the-job training

53.What is the primary purpose of a promotion in an

organization?

a) Employee turnover
b) Enhancing organizational flexibility
c) Recognizing and advancing employees to higher
positions
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

54.The process of moving an employee to a higher-level

job with more responsibilities and authority is known as:

a) Demotion
b) Lateral move
c) Transfer
d) Promotion

55. In the context of promotions, what is a "vertical

move"?

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a) Moving laterally within the organization
b) Moving to a higher-level position
c) Moving to a lower-level position
d) Moving between departments

56.Which of the following is a potential benefit of

promoting employees?
a) Decreased job satisfaction
b) Increased employee morale and motivation
c) Higher turnover rates
d) Ignoring performance metrics

57. The practice of filling a higher-level job with an

internal candidate is known as:

a) Internal recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Succession planning
d) External promotion

58.What is the purpose of a "promotion policy" in

organizations?
a) Increasing turnover rates
b) Providing guidelines and criteria for employee
advancements
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Decreasing employee morale
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59.In promotions, what does the term "merit-based

promotion" mean?

a) Promoting employees based on seniority

b) Promoting employees based on their
performance and achievements
c) Promoting employees randomly
d) Ignoring employee contributions

60.The promotion process typically involves:

a) Filling higher-level positions with external
candidates only
b) Recognizing and advancing employees to higher
positions
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Decreasing employee morale

61.In promotions, what is the purpose of a "promotion

interview"?
a) Evaluating candidates for lower-level positions
b) Assessing employee performance and potential
for advancement
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Decreasing employee morale

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62.What is a "career ladder" in the context of promotions?
a) A tool for ignoring employee achievements
b) A graphical representation of job levels within
an organization
c) A method for external recruitment
d) A technique for lateral moves

63. The practice of promoting employees based on their

length of service with the organization is known as:

a) Seniority-based promotion
b) Merit-based promotion
c) Lateral move
d) Demotion

64. What does the term "bypassing" mean in the context of

promotions?
a) Promoting employees based on seniority
b) Promoting employees based on performance and
achievements
c) Skipping an employee for promotion despite
their qualifications
d) Ignoring employee contributions

65.The potential drawback of a "closed promotion policy"

is:

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a) Increased employee morale
b) Limited opportunities for external candidates
c) Improved workforce diversity
d) Ignoring employee preferences

66.In promotions, what is the purpose of a "promotion

board"?
a) Evaluating candidates for lower-level positions
b) Assessing employee performance and potential for
advancement
c) Reviewing and deciding on promotions for
transparency and fairness
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

67.The concept of "upward mobility" in promotions refers

to:
a) Moving laterally within the organization
b) Advancing employees to higher-level positions
c) A promotion policy that ignores employee
achievements
d) Decreasing employee morale

68.What is the purpose of a "promotion letter"?

a) Decreasing employee morale

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b) Providing formal notification of an employee's
promotion
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Assessing employee potential

69.The promotion method that involves considering

employees from different departments for higher-level
positions is known as:
a) Internal promotion
b) External promotion
c) Cross-departmental promotion
d) Merit-based promotion

70. What is the potential disadvantage of a "lack of

transparency" in the promotion process?

a) Increased employee morale

b) Decreased trust and motivation among
employees
c) Improved workforce diversity
d) Ignoring employee contributions

71.What is the primary purpose of a demotion in an

organization?
a) Employee turnover
b) Providing a fresh start for employees
c) Correcting performance or behavior issues
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d) Ignoring workforce diversity

72.The process of moving an employee to a lower-level job

with reduced responsibilities and authority is known as:

a) Promotion
b) Lateral move
c) Transfer
d) Demotion

73.In the context of demotions, what is a "horizontal

move"?

a) Moving laterally within the organization

b) Moving to a higher-level position
c) Moving to a lower-level position
d) Moving between departments

74.Which of the following is a potential reason for

demoting an employee?

a) Recognizing outstanding performance

b) Addressing performance or conduct issues
c) Providing career advancement opportunities
d) Ignoring employee preferences

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75.The practice of moving an employee to a different
department or location without a change in job level is
known as:
a) Internal recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Transfer
d) Demotion

76.What is the purpose of a "demotion policy" in

organizations?

a) Encouraging upward mobility

b) Providing guidelines and criteria for demoting
employees
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Decreasing employee morale

77.In demotions, what does the term "disciplinary

demotion" mean?

a) Demoting employees based on their qualifications

b) Demoting employees as a form of punishment
for misconduct
c) Promoting employees based on their length of
service
d) Ignoring employee contributions

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78.The demotion process typically involves:

a) Addressing performance or conduct issues

b) Providing promotions to all employees
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Decreasing employee morale

79.In demotions, what is the purpose of a "demotion

interview"?
a) Evaluating candidates for higher-level positions
b) Assessing employee potential for advancement
c) Discussing the reasons for demotion with the
affected employee
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

80.What is the potential impact of a demotion on an

employee's morale?

a) Increased morale and motivation

b) Neutral impact on morale
c) Decreased morale and motivation
d). Ignoring employee achievements

81.The concept of "progressive discipline" in demotions

refers to:
a) Promoting employees based on performance

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b) Addressing misconduct through a series of
escalating actions, including demotion
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Providing lateral moves for employees

82.What does the term "voluntary demotion" mean in the

context of employee movements?
a) Employees choosing to move laterally within the
organization
b) Employees willingly accepting a lower-level
position
c) Promoting employees based on merit
d) Ignoring employee contributions

83.The potential disadvantage of a "lack of

communication" in the demotion process is:
a) Increased employee morale
b) Enhanced trust and motivation among employees
c) Decreased morale and motivation
d) Ignoring employee preferences

84.In demotions, what is the purpose of a "demotion

letter"?
a) Decreasing employee morale

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b) Providing formal notification of an employee's
demotion
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Assessing employee potential

85.The concept of "skill-based demotion" in demotions

refers to:
a) Demoting employees based on seniority
b) Demoting employees based on their
qualifications
c) Ignoring employee contributions
d) Promoting employees based on their length of
service

86.What is the purpose of a "demotion review" in

organizations?
a) Assessing employee potential for advancement
b) Conducting background checks
c)Reviewing and evaluating the reasons for
demotion
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

87.The demotion method that involves moving employees

to different departments or locations is known as:

a) Disciplinary demotion
b) Lateral demotion
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c) Transfer demotion
d) Vertical demotion

88.What is the potential impact of a demotion on an

employee's future career?
a) Enhanced career prospects
b) Neutral impact on future career
c) Limited career opportunities
d) Ignoring employee achievements

89. What is the primary purpose of an employee transfer in

an organization?

a) Addressing performance issues

b) Enhancing organizational flexibility
c) Promoting employees to higher positions
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

90.The process of moving an employee from one job

position to another within the same organization is known
as:
a) Promotion
b) Lateral move
c) Transfer
d) Demotion

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91.In the context of transfers, what does a "lateral transfer"
involve?
a) Moving to a higher-level position
b) Moving laterally within the same organization
c) Moving to a lower-level position
d) Moving to a different department

92.What is a potential benefit of employee transfers?

a) Decreased job satisfaction

b) Limited exposure to different roles and
responsibilities
c) Enhanced skill development and diversity of
experience
d) Ignoring employee preferences

93.The practice of moving an employee to a different

department or location without a change in job level is
known as:

a) Internal recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Demotion
d) Transfer

94.What is the purpose of a "transfer policy" in

organizations?

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a) Enhancing organizational flexibility
b) Providing guidelines and criteria for employee
transfers
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Decreasing employee morale

95.In transfers, what does the term "cross-functional

transfer" mean?
a) Moving laterally within the same department
b) Moving to a different department with similar
functions
c) Moving to a higher-level position
d) Moving to a lower-level position

96.The transfer process typically involves:

a) Addressing performance or conduct issues

b) Providing promotions to all employees
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Enhancing employee career development

97.In transfers, what is the purpose of a "transfer

request"?
a) Assessing employee potential for advancement
b) Initiating a request from an employee to be
transferred

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c) Discussing the reasons for transfer with the
affected employee
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

98.What is the potential impact of a transfer on an

employee's career?
a) Decreased career opportunities
b) Enhanced career prospects
c) Neutral impact on future career
d) Ignoring employee achievements

99.The concept of "voluntary transfer" in transfers refers

to:

a) Employees choosing to move laterally within the

same organization
b) Employees willingly accepting a different job
position
c) Promoting employees based on merit
d) Ignoring employee contributions

100.What is the purpose of a "transfer interview" in the

transfer process?
a) Evaluating candidates for higher-level positions
b) Assessing employee potential for advancement
c) Discussing the reasons for transfer with the
affected employee
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d) Ignoring workforce diversity

101.The potential disadvantage of a "lack of

communication" in the transfer process is:

a) Decreased employee morale

b) Enhanced trust and motivation among employees
c) Increased employee turnover
d) Ignoring employee preferences

102.In transfers, what is the purpose of a "transfer letter"?

a) Decreasing employee morale
b) Providing formal notification of an employee's
transfer
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Assessing employee potential

103.The concept of "geographical transfer" in transfers

refers to:

a) Moving laterally within the same department

b) Moving to a different department with similar
functions
c) Moving to a different location or branch of the
organization
d) Moving to a lower-level position

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104.What is the purpose of a "transfer review" in
organizations?
a) Assessing employee potential for advancement
b) Reviewing and evaluating the reasons for
transfer
c) Conducting background checks
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

105.The transfer method that involves moving employees

to different departments or locations is known as:

a) Cross-functional transfer
b) Geographical transfer
c) Disciplinary transfer
d) Voluntary transfer

106.What is the potential impact of a transfer on an

employee's job satisfaction?
a) Decreased job satisfaction
b) Increased job satisfaction
c) Neutral impact on job satisfaction
d) Ignoring employee achievements

107.The concept of "job rotation" in transfers refers to:

a) Employees willingly accepting a different job

position

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b) Moving laterally within the same organization
c) Exposing employees to different roles within
the organization
d) Ignoring employee contributions

108.What is the primary goal of employee separation in an

organization?
a) Enhancing workforce diversity
b) Reducing organizational flexibility
c) Effectively managing employee exits
d) Ignoring performance metrics

109.The process of an employee leaving an organization,

either voluntarily or involuntarily, is known as:

a) Onboarding
b) Separation
c) Transfer
d) Promotion

110.In the context of separation, what does "voluntary

separation" mean?

a) Employees willingly leaving the organization

b) Employees involuntarily leaving the organization
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Promoting employees based on merit

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111.Which of the following is a potential reason for
involuntary separation?
a) Retirement
b) Employee resignation
c) Poor performance
d) Ignoring employee contributions

112.The process of retiring from employment is a form

of:

a) Promotion
b) Transfer
c) Separation
d) Demotion

113.What is the purpose of an "exit interview" in the

separation process?
a) Assessing employee performance

b) Discussing the reasons for separation with the

departing employee
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Promoting employees based on seniority

114.The potential benefit of conducting exit interviews is:

a) Decreased employee morale
b) Limited insights into organizational issues
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c) Gaining valuable feedback for improving
organizational practices
d) Ignoring employee preferences

115.In the context of separation, what does "involuntary

separation" involve?
a) Employees willingly leaving the organization
b) Employees involuntarily leaving the
organization
c) Providing career advancement opportunities
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

116.What is the potential impact of effective separation

processes on an organization?

a) Increased employee turnover

b) Improved morale and productivity
c) Limited organizational flexibility
d) Ignoring employee achievements

117.The concept of "retrenchment" in separation refers to:

a) Offering employees career advancement
opportunities
b) Involuntary termination due to organizational
reasons such as downsizing
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Promoting employees based on merit
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118.What is the purpose of a "termination letter" in the

separation process?

a) Decreasing employee morale

b) Providing formal notification of an employee's
termination
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Assessing employee potential

119.The potential disadvantage of a "lack of

communication" in the separation process is:

a) Decreased employee morale

b) Enhanced trust and motivation among employees
c) Increased employee turnover
d) Ignoring employee contributions

120.In separation, what does "resignation" mean?

a) Involuntary termination due to poor performance

b) Employees willingly leaving the organization
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Promoting employees based on seniority

121.The process of an employee leaving the organization

due to reaching the end of their employment contract is
known as:

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a) Voluntary separation
b) Retirement
c) Contract termination
d) Ignoring employee preferences

122.What is the purpose of a "separation checklist" in

organizations?
a) Ignoring workforce diversity
b) Providing guidelines for the separation process
c) Assessing employee potential for advancement
d) Decreasing employee morale

123.The potential benefit of a "structured separation

process" is:

a) Increased employee morale

b) Improved legal compliance
c) Limited employee feedback
d) Ignoring employee achievements

124. In the context of separation, what does "downsizing"

involve?
a) Voluntarily leaving the organization
b) Involuntary termination due to poor performance
c) Involuntary reduction of workforce size for
organizational reasons
d) Promoting employees based on merit
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125.The concept of "outplacement services" in separation

refers to:

a) Providing employees with assistance in finding

new job opportunities
b) Ignoring workforce diversity
c) Offering career advancement opportunities
d) Promoting employees based on seniority

126.What is the potential impact of a well-managed

separation process on employer branding?

a) Positive impact on employer branding

b) Negative impact on employer branding
c) Neutral impact on employer branding
d) Ignoring employee contributions

27.In the context of separation, what does "early

retirement" involve?

a) Involuntary termination due to organizational

reasons
b) Voluntarily leaving the organization before the
standard retirement age
c) Ignoring workforce diversity
d) Providing career advancement opportunities

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128.What is the primary purpose of a performance
appraisal?
a) Employee turnover
b) Assessing employee job satisfaction
c) Evaluating and improving employee
performance
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

129.The process of evaluating an employee's work-related

achievements and behaviors is known as:

a) Promotion
b) Performance appraisal
c) Transfer
d) Separation

130.In performance appraisals, what does the term "360-

degree feedback" mean?
a) Feedback provided by employees only
b) Feedback collected from multiple sources,
including peers, subordinates, and supervisors
c) Feedback provided by supervisors only
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

131.Which performance appraisal method involves

comparing an employee's performance to specific
behavioral examples?
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a) Graphic Rating Scale
b) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
c) Critical Incident Technique
d) Forced Ranking

132.What is the purpose of a "performance appraisal form"

in the evaluation process?
a) Ignoring employee contributions
b) Providing a structured framework for assessing
and documenting employee performance
c) Conducting background checks
d) Promoting employees based on seniority

133.The potential benefit of using a "self-appraisal" in

performance evaluations is:

a. Decreased employee morale

b. Enhanced employee engagement and reflection
on performance
c. Limited insights into employee strengths and
weaknesses
d. Ignoring workforce diversity

134.In performance appraisals, what does the term "forced

ranking" mean?

a) Comparing employees to a standard set of criteria

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b) Ranking employees based on their performance
relative to their peers
c) Ignoring employee achievements
d) Providing equal ratings to all employees

135.The performance appraisal method that involves

ranking employees from highest to lowest performance is
known as:
a) Graphic Rating Scale
b) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
c) Critical Incident Technique
d) Forced Distribution
136.What is the purpose of a "performance improvement
plan" (PIP)?

a) Ignoring employee preferences

b) Identifying and addressing areas of employee
performance that need improvement
c) Providing promotions to all employees
d) Assessing employee potential

137.The potential drawback of a "lack of feedback" in the

performance appraisal process is:
a) Increased employee morale
b) Decreased employee engagement
c) Enhanced trust among employees
d) Ignoring workforce diversity
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138.What does the term "performance rating" refer to in

the context of performance appraisals?

a) The salary assigned to an employee based on their

performance
b) The numerical or descriptive assessment of an
employee's performance
c) Ignoring employee contributions
d) Providing promotions based on seniority

139.In performance appraisals, what does "calibration"

involve?

a) Ignoring workforce diversity

b) Adjusting performance ratings to ensure
consistency and fairness
c) Providing promotions to all employees
d) Assessing employee potential

140.The potential benefit of "ongoing feedback" in

performance management is:
a) Limited communication between employees and
supervisors
b) Enhanced employee development and
motivation
c) Ignoring employee preferences
d) Decreased employee morale
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141.What is the primary focus of the "Critical Incident

Technique" in performance appraisals?

a) Identifying general patterns of employee behavior

b) Assessing employee potential
c) Documenting specific examples of exceptional
or problematic employee behavior
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

142.The potential benefit of using a "360-degree feedback"

approach is:
a) Limited insights into employee performance
b) Enhanced understanding of an employee's
strengths and weaknesses from multiple
perspectives
c) Ignoring employee contributions
d) Decreased employee turnover

143.What is the purpose of a "performance appraisal

interview" in the evaluation process?

a) Ignoring employee achievements

b) Providing a formal platform for discussing
performance feedback with employees
c) Conducting background checks
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d) Promoting employees based on seniority

144.The potential drawback of "halo effect" in

performance appraisals is:

a) Enhanced understanding of employee strengths

b) Biased ratings based on an overall positive or
negative impression of an employee
c) Limited insights into employee weaknesses
d) Ignoring workforce diversity

145.The performance appraisal method that involves

setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-
bound (SMART) goals is known as:

a. MBO (Management by Objectives)

b. Graphic Rating Scale
c. Forced Ranking
d. Behavioral Observation Scale

146.In performance appraisals, what does "rater bias" refer

to?
a. Fair and objective assessment of employee
performance
b. Biased ratings influenced by personal opinions
or preferences
c. Ignoring employee contributions
d. Providing promotions based on seniority
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UNIT-IV
1. What does the term "discipline" refer to in human
resource management?
a) Punishment
b) Control
c) Training
d) Motivation

2.Which of the following is a primary goal of discipline in

HRM?
a) Encouraging creativity
b) Improving communication
c) Ensuring compliance
d) Enhancing teamwork

3.Discipline in HRM is essential for:

a) Punishing employees
b) Maintaining order and stability
c) Encouraging absenteeism
d) Ignoring performance issues

4.What is the purpose of corrective action in discipline

management?
a) Rewarding employees
b) Addressing performance issues
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c) Ignoring misconduct
d) Encouraging rule-breaking

5.Which disciplinary approach focuses on preventing

issues through training and communication?
a) Reactive discipline
b) Proactive discipline
c) Punitive discipline
d) Indifferent discipline

6.What is the role of a code of conduct in HR discipline?

a) Encouraging rule-breaking
b) Providing guidelines for behaviour
c) Ignoring ethical standards
d) Promoting misconduct

7.Progressive discipline involves:

a) Immediate termination
b) Gradual escalation of consequences
c) Ignoring performance issues
d) Promoting a lenient approach

8.In HRM, the purpose of a disciplinary hearing is to:

a) Encourage rule-breaking
b) Address performance issues privately
c) Ignore employee concerns
d) Ensure transparency in the disciplinary
process

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9.What is the significance of due process in disciplinary
actions?

a) Bypassing employee rights

b) Ensuring fairness and impartiality
c) Ignoring employee feedback
d) Promoting arbitrary decision-making

10.Which factor is crucial in determining the effectiveness

of discipline in HRM?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Consistency in application
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Promoting arbitrary decisions

11.The purpose of a verbal warning in discipline is to:

a) Immediately terminate an employee
b) Address minor issues
c) Ignore performance concerns
d) Encourage misconduct

12.What is the role of documentation in the discipline

process?
a) Ignoring performance records
b) Promoting transparency
c) Encouraging rule-breaking
d) Bypassing employee rights

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13.Which of the following is an essential skill for effective
disciplinary action?
a) Ignoring communication
b) Encouraging conflict
c) Promoting fairness and empathy
d) Fostering favouritism

14.A suspension in disciplinary action is typically:

a) A reward for good behaviour
b) A permanent termination
c) Temporary removal from work
d) Encouraging absenteeism

15.What does the term "hot-stove rule" represent in

discipline management?
a) Lenient approach to rule-breaking
b) Immediate termination
c) Consistent and predictable consequences
d) Ignoring employee concerns

16.Which of the following is a common challenge in

disciplinary actions?
a) Lack of transparency
b) Promoting consistency
c) Fair and impartial decisions
d) Encouraging open communication

17.The goal of discipline is to:

a) Promote chaos
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b) Ignore performance issues
c) Establish order and compliance
d) Encourage rule-breaking

18.What is the purpose of a written warning in disciplinary

action?
a) Encouraging misconduct
b) Addressing serious performance issues
c) Promoting transparency
d) Ignoring employee concerns

19. In HRM, termination is considered:

a) A reward for good behaviour
b) A permanent separation from employment
c) Encouraging continuous improvement
d) Ignoring misconduct

20.How can HR professionals foster a positive disciplinary

culture?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting open communication
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Bypassing due process

21.What is a common cause of indiscipline in the

workplace?
a) Effective leadership
b) Clear communication
c) Ambiguous rules and policies
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d) Employee recognition

22.Lack of employee involvement in decision-making can

contribute to:
a) High morale
b) Increased productivity
c) Indiscipline
d) Team cohesion

23.Inadequate training and development opportunities may

lead to:
a) Employee satisfaction
b) Improved performance
c) Indiscipline
d) Effective teamwork

24.What role does poor communication play in fostering

indiscipline?
a) Encourages teamwork
b) Promotes clarity
c) Creates misunderstandings and conflicts
d) Enhances employee engagement

25.A lack of fairness in rewards and recognition can

contribute to:
a) Employee motivation
b) Enhanced job satisfaction
c) Indiscipline
d) Team collaboration
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26.Which factor is associated with increased absenteeism

and tardiness, contributing to indiscipline?
a) Clear expectations
b) Adequate compensation
c) Lack of job security
d) Positive work environment

27. Indiscipline may arise from a lack of:

a) Accountability
b) Employee autonomy
c) Recognition programs
d) Training opportunities

28.Inconsistent application of rules and policies can result

in:
a) Strong organizational culture
b) Employee engagement
c) Indiscipline
d) Effective performance

29.What impact can a hostile work environment have on

employee behaviour?
a) Encourages teamwork
b) Boosts morale
c) Fuels indiscipline
d) Promotes job satisfaction

30.Lack of career growth opportunities may contribute to:

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a) Employee retention
b) Job satisfaction
c) Indiscipline
d) Team building
31.Ineffective conflict resolution mechanisms can lead to:
a) Improved communication
b) Collaboration
c) Escalation of indiscipline
d) Employee motivation

32.What role does favoritism play in fostering indiscipline?

a) Enhances teamwork
b) Boosts morale
c) Creates resentment and dissatisfaction
d) Improves job satisfaction

33.How does a lack of employee empowerment contribute

to indiscipline?
a) Fosters a sense of ownership
b) Encourages innovation
c) Creates disengagement and frustration
d) Strengthens teamwork

34.Indiscipline can result from inadequate:

a) Performance evaluations
b) Communication channels
c) Training programs
d) Recognition systems

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35.Unfair disciplinary actions may lead to:
a) Improved morale
b) Increased trust
c) Indiscipline
d) Team cohesion

36.A lack of work-life balance can contribute to:

a) Employee satisfaction
b) Reduced stress
c) Indiscipline
d) Enhanced productivity

37.What is a potential consequence of inadequate feedback

and recognition?
a) Enhanced motivation
b) Improved performance
c) Indiscipline
d) Team collaboration

38. How can unclear job roles contribute to indiscipline?

a) Encourages accountability
b) Creates confusion and conflicts
c) Promotes teamwork
d) Boosts morale

39. Indiscipline may arise from a lack of:

a) Performance standards
b) Team building activities
c) Communication skills
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d) Employee recognition

40.A negative organizational culture can contribute to:

a) Employee engagement
b) Low morale
c) Indiscipline
d) Effective teamwork

41.Which of the following is an example of a behavioural

act of indiscipline?
a) Regular attendance
b) Proactive communication
c) Insubordination
d) Team collaboration

42.Unauthorized use of company resources is considered:

a) Disciplinary action
b) Workplace misconduct
c) Employee recognition
d) Team building

43.Violation of company policies regarding confidentiality

falls under:
a) Employee engagement
b) Indiscipline
c) Team cohesion
d) Effective communication

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44.What is a form of absenteeism that involves employees
leaving work without permission?
a) Planned leave
b) Unauthorized absence
c) Sick leave
d) Team building

45. Sabotage of company property is considered:

a) Employee recognition
b) Insubordination
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Team collaboration

46. Failure to follow safety protocols in the workplace is an

act of:
a) Employee engagement
b) Insubordination
c) Indiscipline
d) Team cohesion

47. What does the term "moonlighting" refer to in the

context of indiscipline?
a) Team building activities
b) Unauthorized secondary employment
c) Regular attendance
d) Effective communication

48. Inappropriate use of social media during work hours is

an example of:
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a) Effective communication
b) Insubordination
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Employee recognition

49.Acts of violence or threats in the workplace are

considered:
a) Insubordination
b) Team building
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Employee engagement

50.What is a form of indiscipline related to falsifying

records or timekeeping?
a) Effective communication
b) Time theft
c) Team cohesion
d) Employee recognition

51.Misuse of company funds for personal purposes is an

act of:
a) Insubordination
b) Workplace misconduct
c) Team building
d) Effective communication

52. Harassment or bullying behaviour towards colleagues

falls under:
a) Employee engagement
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b) Insubordination
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Team collaboration

53. What does the term "soliciting" refer to in the context

of indiscipline?
a) Effective communication
b) Requesting feedback
c) Unauthorized selling or promoting activities
d) Team building

54. Destruction of company documents or records is

considered:
a) Insubordination
b) Workplace misconduct
c) Team building
d) Effective communication

55.Unauthorized access to confidential information is an

act of:
a) Team cohesion
b) Insubordination
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Employee engagement

56. What is a form of indiscipline related to spreading false

information about colleagues or the company?
a) Insubordination
b) Gossiping
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c) Team building
d) Effective communication

57. Engaging in discriminatory behaviour towards

colleagues is considered:
a) Employee engagement
b) Team collaboration
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Insubordination

58.Unauthorized disclosure of sensitive company

information is an act of:
a) Employee recognition
b) Insubordination
c) Workplace misconduct
d) Effective communication

59. Refusal to follow a direct order from a supervisor is an

act of:
a) Employee engagement
b) Insubordination
c) Team cohesion
d) Effective communication

60.What is a form of indiscipline related to creating a

hostile work environment?
a) Ineffective communication
b) Team building
c) Workplace harassment
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d) Employee recognition

61.What is the first step in the disciplinary action process?

a) Termination
b) Verbal warning
c) Investigation
d) Written warning

62.In disciplinary proceedings, what is the purpose of

providing a verbal warning?
a) Immediate termination
b) Addressing minor issues
c) Ignoring performance concerns
d) Encouraging rule-breaking

63.Written warnings are typically issued for:

a) Major misconduct
b) Employee recognition
c) Positive performance
d) Team building

64.What is the role of a disciplinary hearing in the

procedure?
a) Encourage rule-breaking
b) Address performance issues privately
c) Ignore employee concerns
d) Ensure transparency in the process

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65.Progressive discipline involves:
a) Immediate termination
b) Gradual escalation of consequences
c) Ignoring performance issues
d) Promoting a lenient approach

66.What does "due process" in disciplinary actions refer

to?
a) Bypassing employee rights
b) Ensuring fairness and impartiality
c) Ignoring employee feedback
d) Promoting arbitrary decisions

67.In the context of disciplinary action, what is the purpose

of documentation?
a) Ignoring performance records
b) Promoting transparency
c) Encouraging rule-breaking
d) Bypassing employee rights

68.Termination is typically considered:

a) A reward for good behaviour
b) A permanent separation from employment
c) Encouraging continuous improvement
d) Ignoring misconduct

69.What role does a written warning play in the

disciplinary process?
a) Encouraging misconduct
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b) Addressing serious performance issues
c) Promoting transparency
d) Ignoring employee concerns

70.How can HR professionals foster a positive disciplinary

culture?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting open communication
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Bypassing due process

71.What is the significance of consistency in applying

disciplinary actions?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Consistency fosters trust and fairness
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Promoting arbitrary decisions

72.In the context of disciplinary procedures, what is a "hot-

stove rule"?
a) Lenient approach to rule-breaking
b) Immediate termination
c) Consistent and predictable consequences
d) Ignoring employee concerns

73.What is the role of HR in facilitating the disciplinary

process?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Promoting fairness and empathy
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c) Encouraging conflict
d) Fostering favouritism

74. A suspension in disciplinary action is typically:

a) A reward for good behavior
b) A permanent termination
c) Temporary removal from work
d) Encouraging absenteeism

75.How can a disciplinary process promote employee

improvement?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Providing constructive feedback
c) Encouraging favoritism
d) Bypassing due process

76. What is the primary goal of a verbal warning in

disciplinary proceedings?
a) Immediately terminate an employee
b) Address minor issues
c) Ignore performance concerns
d) Encourage rule-breaking

77.What should HR consider when conducting a

disciplinary hearing?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting transparency
c) Encouraging favoritism
d) Bypassing due process
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78.In the context of discipline, what is the purpose of

coaching and mentoring?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Providing guidance for improvement
c) Encouraging conflict
d) Fostering favouritism

79.How can HR address potential bias in the disciplinary

process?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting transparency and fairness
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Bypassing due process

80.What is the significance of timely and effective

communication in disciplinary actions?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Promoting transparency
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Fostering open communication

81.What is a grievance in the context of human resource

management?
a) Employee recognition
b) Employee complaint or dissatisfaction
c) Performance appraisal
d) Team building activity

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82.A grievance typically arises when an employee feels:
a) Overwhelmed with workload
b) Satisfied with job responsibilities
c) Motivated by the team
d) Unfairly treated or wronged

83.What is the primary purpose of a grievance handling

system?
a) Encouraging employee dissatisfaction
b) Ignoring employee concerns
c) Addressing and resolving employee issues
d) Promoting favouritism

84.In HRM, the process of addressing and resolving

grievances is essential for:
a) Promoting absenteeism
b) Maintaining a positive work environment
c) Ignoring employee feedback
d) Encouraging rule-breaking

85. Grievance redressal is crucial for:

a) Fostering open communication
b) Escalating conflicts
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Ignoring employee concerns

86.What is the significance of addressing grievances

promptly?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
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b) Promoting transparency and trust
c) Encouraging conflict
d) Bypassing due process

87.A grievance may be related to issues such as:

a) Effective communication
b) Employee recognition
c) Unfair treatment, harassment, or policy
violations
d) Team building activities

88.Grievance handling contributes to:

a) Employee engagement
b) Ignoring employee concerns
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Fostering resentment

89.What is the role of a grievance officer in the resolution

process?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting fairness and impartiality
c) Encouraging conflict
d) Fostering favouritism

90.Grievance mechanisms aim to:

a) Encourage dissatisfaction
b) Suppress employee concerns
c) Provide a structured process for issue
resolution
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d) Ignore employee feedback

91. Grievance redressal can help prevent:

a) Employee recognition
b) Team collaboration
c) Escalation of conflicts
d) Ignoring employee concerns

92.The first step in handling a grievance is usually:

a) Employee termination
b) Verbal warning
c) Investigation and analysis
d) Encouraging absenteeism

93.What is the purpose of grievance counselling?

a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Encouraging rule-breaking
c) Providing support and guidance to employees
d) Promoting favouritism

94. Grievances can arise from issues related to:

a) Team building activities
b) Effective communication
c) Compensation, working conditions, or
interpersonal conflicts
d) Employee recognition

95.Grievance resolution involves:

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a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Encouraging favouritism
c) Finding a fair and equitable solution to the
problem
d) Promoting absenteeism

96.In the context of grievances, what is the role of

mediation?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Encouraging conflict
c) Facilitating communication and resolution
with the help of a neutral third party
d) Fostering favoritism

97.What should organizations aim for in a grievance

resolution?
a) Encourage dissatisfaction
b) Prompt and fair resolution to maintain
employee morale
c) Ignoring employee concerns
d) Bypassing due process

98.How can effective grievance handling contribute to a

positive workplace culture?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting transparency and trust
c) Encouraging favoritism
d) Fostering resentment

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99.Grievance resolution may involve:

a) Encouraging absenteeism
b) Employee termination
c) Compromise and negotiation
d) Ignoring employee concerns

100.What is the importance of feedback in the grievance

resolution process?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Promoting transparency and continuous
improvement
c) Encouraging conflict
d) Bypassing due process

101.What is a common characteristic of grievances?

a) Employee satisfaction
b) Employee recognition
c) Employee complaint or dissatisfaction
d) Effective communication

102.Grievances often arise when there is a perceived:

a) Absence of teamwork
b) Favouritism
c) Injustice or unfair treatment
d) Positive work environment

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103.Which characteristic is associated with a formal
expression of dissatisfaction by an employee?
a) Employee engagement
b) Employee recognition
c) Employee grievance
d) Effective communication

104.Grievances can be related to issues such as:

a) Effective communication
b) Employee recognition
c) Compensation, working conditions, or
interpersonal conflicts
d) Team building activities

105.What is a distinguishing feature of a grievance as

opposed to general dissatisfaction?
a) Positive work environment
b) Formalized expression of dissatisfaction
c) Employee recognition
d) Effective communication

106.Grievances are often characterized by a sense of:

a) Team collaboration
b) Employee recognition
c) Unfairness or injustice
d) Effective communication

107.Grievances can manifest in various forms, including:

a) Enhanced job satisfaction
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b) Reduced workload
c) Employee recognition programs
d) Complaints, disputes, or conflicts
108.What is the nature of a grievance related to working
conditions?
a) Positive work environment
b) Employee recognition
c) Complaint about safety, facilities, or job
environment
d) Effective communication

109.Grievances are typically characterized by a desire for:

a) Employee engagement
b) Effective communication
c) Resolution or redressal
d) Ignoring employee concerns

110.What role does employee perception play in the

characteristics of grievances?
a) Positive work environment
b) Employees' subjective view of fairness or
injustice
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Effective communication

111.Grievances may involve disputes over:

a) Team building activities
b) Employee recognition programs
c) Compensation, benefits, or job assignments
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d) Positive work environment

112.What characterizes a grievance related to

discrimination or harassment?
a) Positive work environment
b) Employee recognition
c) Unfair treatment based on protected
characteristics
d) Effective communication

113.Grievances can be expressed through:

a) Effective communication
b) Team collaboration
c) Formal channels or informal discussions
d) Ignoring employee concerns

114.Grievances can be categorized as either:

a) Positive or negative
b) Proactive or reactive
c) Formal or informal
d) Employee recognition or employee
dissatisfaction

115.A grievance often involves a desire for:

a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Employee recognition
c) Resolution or redressal
d) Promoting absenteeism

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116.What distinguishes a grievance from routine

dissatisfaction?
a) Positive work environment
b) Formalized expression of dissatisfaction
seeking resolution
c) Employee recognition
d) Effective communication

118.Grievances can impact:

a) Employee engagement
b) Team collaboration
c) Employee morale and productivity
d) Ignoring employee concerns

118.What is a common characteristic of a grievance

resolution process?
a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Prompt and fair resolution to maintain
employee morale
c) Encouraging favoritism
d) Fostering resentment

119.Grievances can arise from issues related to:

a) Employee recognition
b) Team collaboration
c) Compensation, working conditions, or
interpersonal conflicts
d) Effective communication
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120.What is a common cause of grievances in the

workplace?
a) Effective communication
b) Employee recognition
c) Unfair treatment or policies
d) Positive work environment

121.Inadequate communication from management can lead

to:
a) Employee recognition
b) Grievances due to misinformation or lack of
information
c) Positive work environment
d) Team collaboration

122.Which factor is associated with grievances related to

compensation and benefits?
a) Team collaboration
b) Competitive pay and benefits
c) Employee recognition programs
d) Inequitable pay practices

123.Lack of career growth opportunities may contribute to:

a) Employee recognition
b) Job satisfaction
c) Grievances related to career development
d) Positive work environment

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124.Discrimination based on gender, race, or other
protected characteristics can result in:
a) Employee recognition
b) Grievances related to diversity and inclusion
c) Positive work environment
d) Team collaboration

125. Inconsistent application of policies and rules may lead

to:
a) Positive work environment
b) Employee recognition
c) Grievances due to perceived favouritism or
bias
d) Team collaboration

126.A lack of employee involvement in decision-making

can contribute to:
a) High morale
b) Grievances related to lack of empowerment
c) Positive work environment
d) Team cohesion

127.Grievances related to workload often stem from:

a) Effective communication
b) Excessive workload or unrealistic
expectations
c) Employee recognition
d) Positive work environment

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128.What role does poor management or supervision play
in causing grievances?
a) Positive work environment
b) Employee recognition
c) Grievances due to inadequate leadership or
supervision
d) Team collaboration

129.Grievances may arise from a lack of:

a) Effective communication
b) Team collaboration
c) Employee recognition
d) Clear policies and procedures

130.Harassment or bullying behaviour in the workplace

can lead to:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Grievances related to hostile work conditions
d) Team collaboration

131.Inadequate training and development opportunities

may result in:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Grievances related to lack of skill
development
d) Team collaboration

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132.Grievances can be caused by a lack of:
a) Team collaboration
b) Employee recognition
c) Positive work environment
d) Employee involvement in decision-making

133. Poor interpersonal relationships or conflicts among

employees can contribute to:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Grievances arising from interpersonal issues
d) Team collaboration

134.Grievances related to working conditions may include

concerns about:
a) Employee recognition
b) Team collaboration
c) Physical working conditions or safety
d) Positive work environment

135.A lack of recognition and appreciation for employee

contributions can result in:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Grievances related to lack of acknowledgment
d) Team collaboration

136.Grievances can arise when employees perceive a lack

of:
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a) Effective communication
b) Team collaboration
c) Employee recognition
d) Fairness and equity in treatment

137.Grievances related to lack of job security may arise

from:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Insecurity about job stability
d) Team collaboration

138.Inadequate feedback and communication about

performance may lead to:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Grievances related to performance evaluation
d) Team collaboration

139.Grievances related to lack of work-life balance can

result from:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Imbalance in personal and professional
demands
d) Team collaboration

140.What is a common method for employees to express

their grievances formally?
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a) Team collaboration
b) Employee recognition
c) Grievance procedure
d) Positive work environment

141.In the context of grievance handling, what is the

purpose of a suggestion box?
a) Encouraging conflict
b) Providing an anonymous method for
employees to submit grievances or suggestions
c) Ignoring employee concerns
d) Promoting absenteeism

142.Which method involves a neutral third-party

facilitating communication and resolution between parties?
a) Employee recognition
b) Arbitration
c) Positive work environment
d) Team collaboration

143.What is the role of mediation in grievance resolution?

a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Facilitating communication and resolution
with the help of a neutral third party
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Bypassing due process

144.Grievances can be resolved through:

a) Effective communication
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b) Team collaboration
c) Compromise and negotiation
d) Ignoring employee concerns

145.What method involves presenting the grievance to

higher levels of management?
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Escalation
d) Team collaboration

146.Which method allows disputing parties to present their

case to a neutral third party for a binding decision?
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Arbitration
d) Team collaboration

147.Grievances may be resolved through informal

methods, such as:
a) Effective communication
b) Formal investigations
c) Positive work environment
d) Mediation or counselling

148.The process of addressing grievances in a step-by-step

manner is known as:
a) Effective communication
b) Team collaboration
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c) Progressive discipline
d) Grievance procedure

149.In grievance resolution, what does the term

"conciliation" refer to?
a) Employee recognition
b) Facilitating agreement between conflicting
parties
c) Ignoring employee concerns
d) Promoting absenteeism

150.What is the purpose of a grievance committee?

a) Ignoring employee feedback
b) Reviewing and resolving complex or escalated
grievances
c) Encouraging favouritism
d) Bypassing due process

151.A method involving a meeting between the aggrieved

employee and the immediate supervisor to resolve the issue
is known as:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Counselling or discussion
d) Team collaboration

152.What method involves an impartial third-party making

recommendations to resolve a grievance?
a) Effective communication
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b) Team collaboration
c) Fact-finding
d) Employee recognition

153.Grievances can be addressed through methods such as:

a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Open-door policy
d) Ignoring employee concerns

154.A method where an outside expert investigates and

makes recommendations on a grievance is known as:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) External inquiry
d) Team collaboration

155.What method involves reviewing and resolving

grievances at higher levels of management?
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Escalation to higher authorities
d) Team collaboration

156.Grievances can be resolved through methods such as:

a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Ombudsman services
d) Ignoring employee concerns
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157.A method involving a neutral third-party facilitating

communication and resolution without imposing a decision
is known as:
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Conciliation
d) Team collaboration

158.What method involves addressing grievances through

collaborative problem-solving and decision-making?
a) Effective communication
b) Team collaboration
c) Employee recognition
d) Consensus building

159.What is a method where an employee brings a

grievance to the attention of management through written
communication?
a) Employee recognition
b) Positive work environment
c) Formal written complaint
d) Team collaboration

160. What is the first step in the grievance redressal

process?
a) Mediation
b) Investigation
c) Counselling
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d) Filing a lawsuit

161.Which of the following is NOT a typical grievance

resolution method?
a) Arbitration
b) Termination
c) Conciliation
d) Negotiation

162.Who is responsible for handling informal grievances in

an organization?
a) CEO
b) HR manager
c) Team leader
d) Union representative

163. In grievance handling, what does the term

"conciliation" refer to?
a) Formal investigation
b) Mutual agreement between parties
c) Filing a complaint
d) Employee termination

164. Which principle emphasizes resolving grievances at

the lowest possible organizational level?
a) Subsidiarity
b) Hierarchy
c) Centralization
d) Delegation
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165. What is the primary goal of a grievance redressal

procedure?
a) Punishing employees
b) Ignoring employee concerns
c) Resolving workplace issues
d) Increasing workload

166. What role does mediation play in the grievance

redressal process?
a) Making final decisions
b) Facilitating communication and resolution
c) Representing the employer
d) Ignoring employee grievances

167.What should an organization promote to prevent

grievances?
a) Open communication
b) Secrecy and hierarchy
c) Avoiding employee feedback
d) Imposing strict rules

168.Which step follows a formal investigation in the

grievance redressal process?
a) Arbitration
b) Termination
c) Counselling
d) Mediation

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169.What is the purpose of a grievance redressal
committee?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Mediating disputes
c) Punishing employees
d) Encouraging workplace conflicts

170.What is a grievance in the context of Human Resource

Management?
a) Employee satisfaction
b) Employee complaint
c) Employee appraisal
d) Employee training

171.Which step is usually the first in a formal grievance

redressal procedure?
a) Mediation
b) Investigation
c) Informal discussion
d) Arbitration

172.What is the purpose of a grievance redressal

procedure?
a) To punish employees
b) To ignore employee concerns
c) To resolve employee issues
d) To increase employee workload

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173.Who is typically involved in the mediation stage of
grievance redressal?
a) Senior management
b) Neutral third party
c) Line manager
d) HR manager

174.Which principle ensures that the grievance redressal

process is unbiased and fair?
a) Confidentiality
b) Impartiality
c) Favoritism
d) Exclusivity

175.What is the purpose of an ombudsman in grievance

redressal?
a) To represent the employer
b) To represent the employee
c) To conduct investigations
d) To maintain records

176.Which step involves a formal hearing with both parties

presenting their cases?
a) Mediation
b) Arbitration
c) Investigation
d) Conciliation

177.What does the term "collective grievance" refer to?

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a) Individual employee complaint
b) Grievance shared by a group of employees
c) Employer complaint
d) External grievance

178.In which stage does a written grievance typically

occur?
a) Informal discussion
b) Mediation
c) Formal hearing
d) Investigation

179.Which type of resolution involves finding a middle

ground between the parties?
a) Mediation
b) Arbitration
c) Conciliation
d) Investigation

180.What is the purpose of having a time frame for

grievance resolution?
a) To prolong the process
b) To expedite resolution
c) To discourage resolution
d) To ignore complaints

181.Which step involves a third party making a binding

decision?
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a) Mediation
b) Arbitration
c) Conciliation
d) Investigation

182.What is the role of HR in the grievance redressal

process?
a) Employee advocate
b) Neutral mediator
c) Disciplinary authority
d) Ignoring employee concerns

183.Which approach emphasizes resolving grievances at

the lowest organizational level?
a) Bottom-up approach
b) Top-down approach
c) Hierarchical approach
d) Centralized approach

184.What should be the goal of grievance redressal for an

organization?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Suppressing grievances
c) Resolving issues promptly and fairly
d) Encouraging grievances

185.Which term refers to a situation where an employee is

dissatisfied but has not yet expressed the grievance
formally?
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a) Informal complaint
b) Latent grievance
c) Arbitration
d) Collective grievance

186.In which stage does the HR department play a more

active role in addressing the grievance?
a) Informal discussion
b) Mediation
c) Investigation
d) Arbitration

187.What is the purpose of a "grievance log" in the

redressal process?
a) To ignore complaints
b) To document and track grievances
c) To delay resolution
d) To encourage grievances

188.What is the last resort in the grievance redressal

process?
a) Informal discussion
b) Mediation
c) Arbitration
d) Conciliation

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189.Which principle ensures that details of the grievance

are not disclosed without consent?
a) Transparency
b) Impartiality
c) Confidentiality
d) Openness

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UNIT - V

1.What is organizational conflict?

a) Agreement among employees
b) Cooperation within teams
c) Disagreement among individuals or groups
d) Employee satisfaction

2.Which type of conflict is related to differences in

personal values and beliefs?
a) Task conflict
b) Relationship conflict
c) Process conflict
d) Values conflict

3.What is the potential positive aspect of task conflict?

a) Improved relationships
b) Enhanced creativity and innovation
c) Decreased productivity
) Reduced communication

4.Which level of conflict is considered healthy for

organizational performance?
a) Low conflict
b) Moderate conflict
c) High conflict
d) No conflicts

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5.What is the role of a mediator in conflict resolution?

a) Taking sides in the conflict
b) Intensifying the conflict
c) Facilitating communication and resolution
d) Ignoring the conflict

6.In which stage of conflict does tension build up, but the
issue is not yet addressed?
a) Latent conflict
b) Manifest conflict
c) Conflict aftermath
d) Resolution phase

7.Which conflict-handling style involves giving in to the

other party's concerns?
a) Avoiding
b) Collaborating
c) Accommodating
d) Competing

8.What is the primary focus of distributive negotiation?

a) Expanding the pie
b) Finding common ground
c) Maximizing individual gains
d) Building relationships

9.Which factor contributes to intergroup conflict?

a) Shared goals
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b) Collaborative communication
c) Limited resources
d) Trust among groups

10.What is the purpose of a grievance redressal procedure

in the context of organizational conflict?
a) Ignoring conflicts
b) Resolving conflicts promptly and fairly
c) Escalating conflicts
d) Avoiding conflicts

11.Which conflict-handling style is characterized by a win-

win approach?
a) Avoiding
b) Competing
c) Collaborating
d) Compromising

12.What is the potential negative impact of relationship

conflict?
a) Improved teamwork
b) Decreased morale and satisfaction
c) Enhanced communication
d) Increased productivity

13.In which conflict-handling style do both parties give up

something to reach a solution?
a) Competing
b) Avoiding
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c) Compromising
d) Collaborating

14.What is the role of HR in managing organizational

conflict?
a) Ignoring conflicts
b) Intensifying conflicts
c) Facilitating resolution and promoting a
positive work environment
d) Avoiding conflicts

15.Which type of conflict is related to disagreements about

how work tasks should be accomplished?
a) Task conflict
b) Relationship conflict
c) Process conflict
d) Values conflict

16.What is the primary goal of integrative negotiation?

a) Maximizing individual gains
b) Finding common ground and mutually
beneficial solutions
c) Ignoring the other party's concerns
d) Escalating the conflict

17.Which conflict-handling style involves asserting one's

own needs at the expense of others?
a) Avoiding
b) Competing
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c) Collaborating
d) Accommodating

18.What is the main drawback of avoiding conflict?

a) Quick resolution
b) Escalation of issues
c) Improved relationships
d) Enhanced communication

19.What is the significance of effective communication in

conflict resolution?
a) Intensifying conflicts
b) Fostering understanding and finding common
ground
c) Ignoring conflicts
d) Decreasing awareness of issues

20.Which stage of conflict involves addressing the issue

and finding a resolution?
a) Latent conflict
b) Manifest conflict
c) Conflict aftermath
d) Resolution phase

21.What is organizational conflict in the context of

organizational behaviour?
a) Agreement among employees
b) Cooperation within teams
c) Disagreement among individuals or groups
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d) Employee satisfaction

22.Which type of conflict is detrimental to team

relationships and hampers collaboration?
a) Task conflict
b) Relationship conflict
c) Process conflict
d) Values conflict

23. How does task conflict differ from relationship

conflict?
a) Task conflict involves personal values, while
relationship conflict involves work tasks.
b) Task conflict is beneficial, while relationship
conflict is detrimental.
c) Task conflict is about individual preferences, while
relationship conflict is about team goals.
d) Task conflict is irrelevant to organizational behaviour.

24. What role does effective communication play in

managing organizational conflict?
a) Escalating conflicts
b) Fostering understanding and resolution
c) Ignoring conflicts
d) Decreasing awareness of issues

25.Which conflict-handling style involves seeking a win-

win solution by addressing the concerns of both parties?
a) Avoiding
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b) Competing
c) Collaborating
d) Accommodating

26. What is the potential positive outcome of constructive

conflict in organizational behaviour?
a) Decreased creativity
b) Improved team cohesion
c) Reduced productivity
d) Ignored employee concern

27.In which stage of the conflict process do parties become

aware of the conflict?
a) Latent conflict
b) Manifest conflict
c) Conflict aftermath
d) Resolution phase

28. How can organizational culture contribute to managing

conflict?
a) By promoting open communication and
constructive conflict resolution
b) By discouraging any form of conflict
c) By avoiding conflict resolution mechanisms
d) By ignoring employee concerns

29. Which factor can contribute to reducing intergroup

conflict in organizational behaviour?
a) Limited resources
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b) Shared goals
c) Trust among groups
d) Ignored differences

30. What is the role of HR in managing conflict within an

organization?
a) Ignoring conflicts
b) Intensifying conflicts
c) Facilitating resolution and promoting a
positive work environment
d) Avoiding conflicts

31. Which conflict resolution approach focuses on

expanding the options available to both parties?
a) Distributive negotiation
b) Integrative negotiation
c) Avoidance
d) Accommodation

32.What is the potential negative impact of dysfunctional

conflict in organizational behaviour?
a) Enhanced creativity
b) Decreased productivity and morale
c) Improved teamwork
d) Increased job satisfaction

33.What is organizational conflict in the context of

organizational behaviour?
a) Agreement among employees
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b) Cooperation within teams
c) Disagreement among individuals or groups
d) Employee satisfaction

34.Which type of conflict is detrimental to team

relationships and hampers collaboration?
a) Task conflict
b) Relationship conflict
c) Process conflict
d) Values conflict

35. How does task conflict differ from relationship

conflict?
a) Task conflict involves personal values, while
relationship conflict involves work tasks.
b) Task conflict is beneficial, while relationship
conflict is detrimental.
c) Task conflict is about individual preferences, while
relationship conflict is about team goals.
d) Task conflict is irrelevant to organizational behaviour.

36.What role does effective communication play in

managing organizational conflict?
a) Escalating conflicts
b) Fostering understanding and resolution
c) Ignoring conflicts
d) Decreasing awareness of issues

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37.Which conflict-handling style involves seeking a win-
win solution by addressing the concerns of both parties?
a) Avoiding
b) Competing
c) Collaborating
d) Accommodating

38.What is the potential positive outcome of constructive

conflict in organizational behaviour?
a) Decreased creativity
b) Improved team cohesion
c) Reduced productivity
d) Ignored employee concerns

39.In which stage of the conflict process do parties become

aware of the conflict?
a) Latent conflict
b) Manifest conflict
c) Conflict aftermath
d) Resolution phase

40.How can organizational culture contribute to managing

conflict?
a) By promoting open communication and
constructive conflict resolution
b) By discouraging any form of conflict
c) By avoiding conflict resolution mechanisms
d) By ignoring employee concerns

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41.Which factor can contribute to reducing intergroup
conflict in organizational behaviour?
a) Limited resources
b) Shared goals
c) Trust among groups
d) Ignored differences

42.What is the role of HR in managing conflict within an

organization?
a) Ignoring conflicts
b) Intensifying conflicts
c) Facilitating resolution and promoting a
positive work environment
d) Avoiding conflicts

43.Which conflict resolution approach focuses on

expanding the options available to both parties?
a) Distributive negotiation
b) Integrative negotiation
c) Avoidance
d) Accommodation

44.What is the potential negative impact of dysfunctional

conflict in organizational behaviour?
a) Enhanced creativity
b) Decreased productivity and morale
c) Improved teamwork
d) Increased job satisfaction

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45.In which stage does tension build up, but the issue is not
yet addressed?
a) Latent conflict
b) Manifest conflict
c) Conflict aftermath
d) Resolution phase

46.What is the main drawback of avoiding conflict in

organizational behavior?
a) Quick resolution
b) Escalation of issues
c) Improved relationships
d) Enhanced communication

47.What is the significance of power dynamics in

organizational conflict?
a) Ignoring conflicts
b) Fostering understanding and resolution
c) Reinforcing conflict
d) Decreasing awareness of issues

48.Which type of conflict is related to differences in how

work tasks should be accomplished?
a) Task conflict
b) Relationship conflict
c) Process conflict
d) Values conflict

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49.What is the role of a mediator in organizational conflict
resolution?
a) Taking sides in the conflict
b) Intensifying the conflict
c) Facilitating communication and resolution
d) Ignoring the conflict

50. Which conflict-handling style involves asserting one's

own needs at the expense of others?
a) Avoiding
b) Competing
c) Collaborating
d) Accommodating

51.How can a supportive organizational climate contribute

to conflict resolution?
a) By discouraging communication
b) By fostering an environment where conflicts
are addressed constructively
c) By avoiding conflict resolution mechanisms
d) By escalating conflicts

52.What is the role of emotional intelligence in managing

organizational conflict?
a) Ignoring emotions
b) Intensifying emotions
c) Acknowledging and managing emotions for
constructive conflict resolution
d) Avoiding emotional awareness
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53.How do individual differences contribute to conflict in

the workplace?
a) By promoting harmony
b) By fostering understanding
c) By creating diversity of perspectives
d) By eliminating differences

54.What role does perception play in individual conflict?

a) Reducing awareness
b) Shaping how individuals interpret situations
c) Ignoring conflicts
d) Minimizing differences

55.How can personality differences contribute to

workplace conflict?
a) By fostering collaboration
b) By minimizing disagreements
c) By influencing individual reactions and
responses
d) By discouraging communication

56.What is the impact of stress on individual conflict?

a) Decreasing conflict
b) Enhancing communication
c) Increasing the likelihood of conflict
d) Resolving conflicts quickly

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57.In what way does individual communication style
influence conflict?
a) By discouraging communication
b) By escalating conflicts
c) By shaping how messages are conveyed
d) By minimizing differences

58.How can cultural differences contribute to individual

conflict in a diverse workplace?
a) By fostering collaboration
b) By promoting understanding
c) By influencing perceptions and expectations
d) By eliminating cultural diversity

59.What is the role of emotions in individual conflict?

a) Ignoring emotions
b) Intensifying emotions
c) Acknowledging and managing emotions for
constructive conflict resolution
d) Avoiding emotional awareness

60. How does individual motivation impact conflict

resolution?
a) By hindering resolution efforts
b) By promoting avoidance
c) By influencing the desire to resolve conflicts
d) By reducing awareness

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61.What is the significance of individual values in conflict
management?
a) By discouraging communication
b) By promoting alignment
c) By shaping individual preferences and
priorities
d) By minimizing individual differences

62.How can cognitive differences contribute to individual

conflict?
a) By limiting perspectives
b) By fostering collaboration
c) By encouraging open communication
d) By minimizing disagreements

63.What is the role of individual power in workplace

conflict?
a) By promoting equality
b) By minimizing influence
c) By shaping interactions and decision-making
d) By discouraging communication

64.How does individual conflict resolution style impact

workplace dynamics?
a) By hindering resolution efforts
b) By promoting avoidance
c) By influencing the approach to resolving
conflicts
d) By reducing awareness
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65.In what way does individual accountability affect

conflict resolution?
a) By fostering blame
b) By encouraging avoidance
c) By promoting responsibility and resolution
d) By minimizing differences

66.How can individual perception of fairness impact

conflict outcomes?
a) By escalating conflicts
b) By influencing perceptions of justice and
satisfaction
c) By discouraging communication
d) By avoiding emotional awareness

67.What is the role of trust in individual conflict

resolution?
a) By hindering resolution efforts
b) By promoting avoidance
c) By facilitating open communication and
collaboration
d. By minimizing individual differences

68. How does individual conflict-handling effectiveness

contribute to organizational success?
a) By hindering success
b) By promoting avoidance

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c) By positively impacting conflict resolution
outcomes
d) By reducing awareness

69.What is the impact of individual conflict management

skills on team dynamics?
a) By hindering teamwork
b) By promoting avoidance
c) By improving collaboration and team
effectiveness
d) By discouraging communication

70.How can individual conflict avoidance negatively affect

organizational culture?
a) By promoting a positive culture
b) By fostering open communication
c) By creating an atmosphere of unresolved
tension
d) By minimizing individual differences

71.What is the significance of individual negotiation skills

in conflict resolution?
a) By hindering negotiation efforts
b) By promoting avoidance
c) By positively influencing the negotiation
process
d) By reducing awareness

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72.How can individual conflict resolution contribute to
employee well-being?
a) By hindering well-being
b) By promoting avoidance
c) By reducing stress and enhancing job
satisfaction
d) By discouraging communication

73.What is organizational conflict?

a) Agreement among employees
b) Cooperation within teams
c) Disagreement among individuals or groups
d) Employee satisfaction

74.Which type of conflict is related to differences in

personal values and beliefs?
a) Task conflict
b) Relationship conflict
c) Process conflict
d) Values conflict

75.What is the potential positive aspect of task conflict?

a) Improved relationships
b) Enhanced creativity and innovation
c) Decreased productivity
d) Reduced communication

76.Which level of conflict is considered healthy for

organizational performance?
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a) Low conflict
b) Moderate conflict
c) High conflict
d) No conflict

77.What is the role of a mediator in conflict resolution?

a) Taking sides in the conflict
b) Intensifying the conflict
c) Facilitating communication and resolution
d) Ignoring the conflict

78.In which stage does a written grievance typically occur?

a) Informal discussion
b) Mediation
c) Formal hearing
d) Investigation

79.What is the purpose of an ombudsman in grievance

redressal?
a) To represent the employer
b) To represent the employee
c) To conduct investigations
d) To maintain records

80.Which step involves a formal hearing with both parties

presenting their cases?
a) Mediation
b) Arbitration
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c) Investigation
d) Conciliation

81.What does the term "collective grievance" refer to?

a) Individual employee complaint
b) Grievance shared by a group of employees
c) Employer complaint
d) External grievance

82.In which stage does the HR department play a more

active role in addressing the grievance?
a) Informal discussion
b) Mediation
c) Investigation
d) Arbitration

83.Which approach emphasizes resolving grievances at the

lowest organizational level?
a) Bottom-up approach
b) Top-down approach
c) Hierarchical approach
d) Centralized approach

84.What should be the goal of grievance redressal for an

organization?
a) Ignoring employee concerns
b) Suppressing grievances
c) Resolving issues promptly and fairly
d) Encouraging grievances
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85.Which term refers to a situation where an employee is

dissatisfied but has not yet expressed the grievance
formally?
a) Informal complaint
b) Latent grievance
c) Arbitration
d) Collective grievance

86.In which step does a third party help the disputing

parties reach a voluntary agreement?
a) Mediation
b) Arbitration
c) Investigation
d) Conciliation

87.What is the purpose of a "grievance log" in the redressal

process?
a) To ignore complaints
b) To document and track grievances
c) To delay resolution
d) To encourage grievances

88.Which term refers to resolving a grievance by

addressing the underlying issue?
a) Arbitration
b) Mediation
c) Conciliation
d) Substantive resolution
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89. What is the purpose of a "step-by-step" approach in

grievance redressal?
a) To expedite resolution
b) To discourage resolution
c) To prolong the process
d) To ignore complaints

90.Which step involves a neutral third-party making

recommendations for resolution?
a) Arbitration
b) Mediation
c) Conciliation
d) Investigation

91.What principle emphasizes that the grievance resolution

process should be transparent and accountable?
a) Confidentiality
b) Impartiality
c) Openness
d) Fairness

92.Which term refers to a dispute resolution method where

a third party's decision is binding?
a) Mediation
b) Conciliation
c) Arbitration
d) Investigation

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93.What is transformational leadership focused on?
a) Maintaining the status quo
b) Inspiring and motivating followers
c) Strict rule enforcement
d) Micromanaging tasks

94.In situational leadership, what does the leader adjust

based on followers' readiness levels?
a) Communication style
b) Decision-making authority
c) Leadership style
d) Vision and mission

95.What leadership style emphasizes making decisions

with minimal input from subordinates?
a) Autocratic leadership
b) Democratic leadership
c) Laissez-faire leadership
d) Transformational leadership

96.Which leadership theory suggests that effective leaders

possess certain inherent traits?
a) Contingency theory
b) Trait theory
c) Transformational theory
d) Situational theory

97.What is the primary focus of servant leadership?

a) Power and authority
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b) Serving and empowering others
c) Strict control over subordinates
d) Personal achievement

98.What does the acronym SMART represent in the

context of leadership goals?
a) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant,
Time-bound
b) Strategic, Motivating, Adaptive, Result-oriented,
Timeless
c) Simple, Meaningful, Actionable, Relevant,
Timely
d) Structured, Meaningful, Attainable, Realistic,
Time-sensitive

99.According to the Path-Goal theory, what does a leader

do to enhance subordinates' motivation?
a) Set challenging goals
b) Provide rewards and recognition
c) Simplify tasks
d) Avoid goal-setting

100.Which leadership style involves giving employees

significant control over their work?
a) Transactional leadership
b) Transformational leadership
c) Laissez-faire leadership
d) Charismatic leadership

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101.According to the Great Man Theory, who is more
likely to be a great leader?
a) Anyone with proper training
b) Individuals born with inherent leadership
qualities
c) Those with extensive work experience
d) Followers who become leaders

102.What leadership style involves a leader who is highly

directive and controlling?
a) Laissez-faire leadership
b) Charismatic leadership
c) Transactional leadership
d) Servant leadership

103.According to the Contingency Theory, what should a

leader's style depend on?
a) Inherent traits
b) Followers' readiness and the situation
c) Vision and mission
d) Time of day

104.Which leadership style emphasizes building strong

relationships and collaboration?
a) Autocratic leadership
b) Democratic leadership
c) Transformational leadership
d) Charismatic leadership

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105.What is the primary characteristic of authentic
leadership?
a) Emphasizing personal success
b) Being true to oneself and others
c) Relying on charisma
d) Avoiding vulnerability

106.In the context of leadership, what is emotional

intelligence focused on?
a) Task accomplishment
b) Understanding and managing emotions
c) Rigid decision-making
d) Micromanagement

107.What does the Vroom-Yetton-Jago Decision Model

help leaders determine?
a) Leadership style
b) Employee satisfaction
c) Decision-making processes
d) Time management

108.Which leadership style involves inspiring followers

through charisma and vision?
a) Transactional leadership
b) Laissez-faire leadership
c) Charismatic leadership
d) Situational leadership

109.What is the essence of authentic leadership?

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a) Focusing on personal interests
b) Building a facade for leadership
c) Leading with genuine self-awareness and
ethical behaviour
d) Avoiding transparency

110.What leadership style emphasizes collaboration and

shared decision-making?
a) Autocratic leadership
b) Democratic leadership
c) Laissez-faire leadership
c) Transformational leadership

111.According to the Full Range Leadership Model, what

are the three main leadership styles?
a) Autocratic, Democratic, and Laissez-faire
b) Transactional, Transformational, and
Laissez-faire
c) Charismatic, Servant, and Authentic
d) Trait, Behavioural, and Contingency

112.What is the purpose of the Hersey-Blanchard

Situational Leadership Model?
a) To identify leadership traits
b) To determine the effectiveness of leadership
styles
c) To match leadership style with followers'
readiness
d) To establish rigid leadership structures
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113. According to Trait Theory, what is the focus when

identifying effective leaders?
a) Situational factors
b) Inherent characteristics
c) Leadership styles
d) Group dynamics

114.Which leadership theory suggests that effective leaders

possess a set of identifiable traits?
a) Contingency Theory
b) Transformational Leadership Theory
c) Trait Theory
d) Situational Leadership Theory

115.What is the main concept of Behavioural Leadership

Theory?
a) Leadership is determined by situational factors
b) Leadership is inherent and cannot be learned
c) Leadership effectiveness is based on specific
behaviours
d) Leadership is dependent on follower
characteristics

116.According to Contingency Theory, what should

leaders do to be effective?
a) Exhibit specific traits
b) Adapt their leadership style to the situation
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c) Focus on specific behaviours
d) Possess inherent skills

117.Which theory proposes that leadership effectiveness is

contingent upon the match between leadership style and
situational factors?
a) Trait Theory
b) Behavioural Leadership Theory
c) Contingency Theory
d) Transformational Leadership Theory

118.What does the Transformational Leadership Theory

emphasize?
a) Specific traits of leaders
b) Adaptation to situational factors
c) Inspiring and motivating followers
d) Contingent leadership styles

119.According to Path-Goal Theory, what is a leader's

primary role?

a) Adaptation to situational factors

b) Providing a clear path for followers to achieve
goals
c) Demonstrating specific traits
d) Focusing on specific behaviours

120.What does the Hersey-Blanchard Situational

Leadership Model propose?
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a) Leadership is determined by situational factors
b) Leadership effectiveness is based on specific
behaviours
c) Leaders should match their style to followers'
readiness
d) Leadership is inherent and cannot be learned

121.Which leadership theory focuses on the relationship

between leader behavior and follower satisfaction and
performance?
a) Contingency Theory
b) Leader-Member Exchange (LMX) Theory
c) Transformational Leadership Theory
d) Trait Theory

122.What does the Fiedler Contingency Model consider in

determining leadership effectiveness?
a) Leader characteristics
b) Situational factors
c) Group dynamics
d) Specific behaviors

123.According to the Full Range Leadership Model, what

are the three main leadership styles?
a) Transactional, Transformational, and
Laissez-faire
b) Autocratic, Democratic, and Laissez-faire
c) Charismatic, Servant, and Authentic
d) Trait, Behavioral, and Contingency
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124.Which theory suggests that leaders develop exchange

relationships with their followers, leading to in-groups and
out-groups?
a) Transformational Leadership Theory
b) Contingency Theory
c) Leader-Member Exchange (LMX) Theory
d) Behavioral Leadership Theory

125.What is the core concept of the Leader-Member

Exchange (LMX) Theory?
a) Leadership traits
b) Transformational behaviors
c) Development of exchange relationships
between leaders and followers
d) Contingent leadership styles

126.What does the Vroom-Yetton-Jago Decision Model

help leaders determine?
a) Leadership style
b) Employee satisfaction
c) Decision-making processes
d) Time management

127.According to the Great Man Theory, who is more

likely to be a great leader?
a) Anyone with proper training
b) Individuals born with inherent leadership
qualities
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c) Those with extensive work experience
d) Followers who become leaders

128.What is the essence of Authentic Leadership?

a) Focusing on personal interests
b) Building a facade for leadership
c) Leading with genuine self-awareness and
ethical behaviour
d) Avoiding transparency

129.In the context of leadership theories, what does

Situational Leadership Theory propose?
a) Leadership effectiveness is contingent on
specific behaviours
b) Leaders should adapt their style to the
situation and follower readiness
c) Inherent traits determine leadership effectiveness
d) Leaders should focus on transactional behaviors

130.What is Machine Learning (ML)?

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge
through the use of manual programs
b) The selective acquisition of knowledge
through the use of computer programs
c) The selective acquisition of knowledge through
the use of manual programs
d) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge
through the use of computer programs.

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180.What is the purpose of having a time frame for organization?
grievance resolution? a) Ignoring
a) To prolong the process b) Suppress
b) To expedite resolution c) Resolvin
c) To discourage resolution d) Encoura
d) To ignore complaints
185.Which term re
181.Which step involves a third party making a binding dissatisfied but has
decision? formally?
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