VERSION

22-02-2025 BATCH : ENGG. 2025

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE CEE KERALA ENGG. MODEL EXAM - UNIT III
E1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID

411
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + MATHEMATICS

PHYSICS
Q.1) A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If the
wire is stretched by an amount x, the work done is
YAx 2
A)
2L

YAx 2
B)
L

YAx
C)
2L

D) YAx2L
YA 2
E)
L

Q.2) A given quantity of an ideal gas is of pressure P and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk
modulus of the gas is
2P
A)
3

B) P
3P
C)
2

D) 2P
P
E)
2

Q.3) A wire elongates by  mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and
two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be ( in mm)

A)
2

B) 
C) 2
D) Zero

E)
3
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Q.4) A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200N to
the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is
A) 0.2J
B) 10J
C) 20J
D) 0.1J
E) 2J
3 −3 6 −2
Q.5) A thick copper rope of density 1.5 ×10 kgm and Young’s modulus 5 ×10 Nm , 8m length,
when hung from the ceiling of a room, the increase in its length due to its own weight is
−5
A) 9.6 ×10 m
−7
B) 19.2 ×10 m
−2
C) 9.6 ×10 m
D) 9.6 m
−2
E) 19.2 ×10 m
Q.6) A metal ring of initial radius r and cross-sectional area A is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius
R>r. If Young’s modulus of the metal is Y, then the tension in the ring is
AYR
A)
r

Yr
B)
AR

AY ( R − r )
C)
r

Y (R − r)
D)
Ar

Yr
E)
A (R − r)
Q.7) A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g cm-3) over mercury (density = 13.6 g cm-3). A homogeneous
sphere floats with half of its volume immersed in mercury and other half in oil. The density of
the material in g cm-3 is
A) 3.3
B) 6.4
C) 7.2
D) 2.8
E) 5.6
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Q.8) Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1m/s. The cross-
sectional area of the tap if 10-4m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of
water and that the flow is steady. The cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15m below the tap is
−4 2
A) 1×10 m
−4 2
B) 2 ×10 m
−5 2
C) 3 ×10 m
−5 2
D) 4 ×10 m
−5 2
E) 5 ×10 m
Q.9) If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2m/s in a viscous liquid
(density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density 10.5 kg/m3) of the
same size in the same liquid
A) 0.2 m/s
B) 0.4 m/s
C) 0.133 m/s
D) 0.1 m/s
E) 0.8 m/s
Q.10) A cylinder of height 20m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in m/s)
through a small hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom is
A) 5
B) 20
C) 10
D) 25
E) 15
Q.11) A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises upto 8cm. If the entire arrangement
is put in freely falling elevator the length of water column in the capillary tube will be
A) 4cm
B) 20 cm
C) 8 cm
D) 10 cm
E) 12 cm
Q.12) When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface, its radius doubles. The
atmospheric pressure is equal to that of a column of water of height H. The depth of the lake is
A) H
B) 2H
C) 7H
D) 8H
E) 4H
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Q.13) By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of mercury
(density 13.6 g/cm3). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass upto a maximum depth of
A) 10 cm
B) 75 cm
C) 13.6 cm
D) 1.36cm
E) 76 cm
According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to ( ∆θ ) ,
n
Q.14)
where ∆θ is the difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings and n is equal to
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
E) one
Q.15) If the temperature of the sun were to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the
ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously, will be
A) 4
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
E) 24
Q.16) A constant pressure air thermometer gave a reading of 47.5 units of volume, when immersed in
ice-cold water and 67 units in boiling liquid. The boiling point of the liquid is
A) 1000C
B) 1120C
C) 1250C
D) 1350C
E) 1600C
Q.17) The density of a substance at 00C is 10g/cm3 and at 1000C, its density is 9.7 g/cm3. The coefficient
of linear expansion of the substance is
A) 10-4
B) 10-2
C) 10-3
D) 10
E) 102
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Q.18) Hailstone of 00C falls from a height of 1km on an insulating surface converting whole of its
kinetic energy into heat. What part of it will melt? (g = 10 m/s2)
1
A)
33

1
B)
8

1
C)
16

1
D)
4

1
E)
11

Q.19) 10g of ice cubes at 00C are released in a tumbler (water equivalent 55g) at 400C. Assuming that
negligible heat is taken from the surroundings, the temperature of water in the tumbler becomes
nearly ( L = 80 cal/g)
A) 310C
B) 220C
C) 190C
D) 150C
E) 180C
Q.20) Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thickness and
thermal conductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is
2K
A)
3

4K
B)
3

C) 2K
D) 3K
K
E)
2
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Q.21) Heat is flowing through the cylindrical rods of the same material. The diameters of the rods are
in the ratio 1:2 and their lengths are in the ratio 2:1. If the temperature difference between their
ends is the same, then the ratio of the amount of heat conducted through them per unit time will be
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 1:4
D) 1 :8
E) 1:2
Q.22) When a system is taken from the initial state i to final state f along the path iaf, it is found that
Q= 50cal and W = 20 cal. If along the ibf Q=36 cal, then W along the path ibf is

A) 6 cal
B) 16 cal
C) 66 cal
D) 14 cal
E) 21 cal
6
Q.23) A carnot engine takes 3 ×10 cal of heat from source at 6270C and gives it to a sink of 270C.
Workdone by the engine is
A) Zero
6
B) 8.4 ×10 J
6
C) 4.2 ×10 J
6
D) 16.8 ×10 J
6
E) 2.2 ×10 J
Q.24) The increase in internal energy of a system is equal to the workdone on the system. Which
process does the system undergo ?
A) isochoric
B) adiabatic
C) isobaric
D) isothermal
E) a and d
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Q.25) N moles of a monoatomic gas it is carried round reversible reactangular cycle ABCDA as shown
in the diagram. The temperature of A is T0. The thermodynamic efficiency of the cycle is

A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 45%
D) 50%
E) 30%
Q.26) A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2 . The amount of workdone by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is
A) isothermal
B) isobaric
C) adiabatic
D) isochoric
E) equal in all cases
7R
Q.27) The molar specific heat of constant pressure of an ideal gas is . The ratio of specific heat, at
2
constant pressure to that of constant volume
9
A)
7

8
B)
7

7
C)
5

5
D)
7

4
E)
3
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Q.28) If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that of constant volume is r the change
in internal energy of a one mole of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant
pressure P, is
PV
A)
r −1

B) PV
2PV
C)
r −1

r PV
D)
r −1

r −1
E)
PV

Q.29) At what temperature is the r..m.s velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen
molecule at 470C
A) -73 K
B) 3K
C) 20K
D) 80K
E) 27K
Q.30) During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
C
absolute temperature. The ratio of P for the gas is
CV

4
A)
3

B) 2
5
C)
3

3
D)
2

7
E)
5
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Q.31) ( )
One mole of ideal monoatomic gas r = 5 3 is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas r = 7 5( )
Cp
what is r for the mixture ? Where r =
CV

3
A)
2

23
B)
15

35
C)
23

4
D)
3

5
E)
3

4 2
Q.32) One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 ×10 N / m . The density of the gas is 4kg/m3. What
is the energy of the gas due to its thermal motion.
4
A) 3 ×10 J
4
B) 5 ×10 J
4
C) 6 ×10 J
4
D) 7 ×10 J
4
E) 4 ×10 J
Q.33) In kinetic theory of gas a molecule of mass m of an ideal gas collides with a wall of vessel with
velocity V. The change in the linear momentum of the molecule is
A) 2 mv
B) mv
C) -mv
D) Zero
mv
E)
2
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Q.34) In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed is
doubled, then the resultant pressure will be

A) 4P

B) 2P

C) P

P
D)
2
E) 3P

Q.35) The displacement of an object attached to a spring and executing S.H.M is given by

2 ×10−2 cos πt ( in m )
x=

The time of which maximum speed first occurs is

A) 0.5s

B) 0.75 s

C) 0.125 s

D) 0.25s

E) 0.35 s

d2x
Q.36) If a simple harmonic motion is represented by 2 + ∝ x =0 , its time period is
dt
π
A)
∝
2π
B)
∝
C) 2π ∝

D) 2π ∝

2π
E)
∝
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Q.37) A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then
released so that the mass executes S.H.M of time period T. If the mass is increased by m the time
5T m
period becomes . Then the ratio of is
3 M

3
A)
5

25
B)
9

16
C)
9

5
D)
3

16
E)
25
Q.38) A particle of the end of a spring executes simple harmonic motion with a period t1, while the
corresponding period for another spring is t2. If the period of oscillation with the two springs in
series is T, then
A) T = t1 + t2
2 2 2
B) T = t1 + t 2
1 1 1
C) = +
T t1 t 2

1 1 1
D) =2
+
T t12 t 22

E) T = t1 - t2
Q.39) The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%. The
percentage increase in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is
A) 50%
B) 11%
C) 30%
D) 10%
E) 21%
Q.40) A spring of force constant 800 Nm-1 has an extension of 5cm. The workdone in extending it from
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

5cm to 15 cm is
A) 8J
B) 16J
C) 14J
D) 32 J
E) 20J
Q.41) A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time
a
period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = will be
2
πa 3
A)
T

πa 3
B)
2T

πa
C)
T

3π2 a
D)
T

πa
E)
2T
Q.42)
The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x-direction is given by
 π
=y 10−4 sin  600t − 2x + 
 3
where x is expressed in metres and t seconds. The speed of the wave motion (in m/s) is
A) 300
B) 600
C) 1200
D) 200
E) 400
Q.43) The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) of a certain temperature is 460ms-1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assume both gases to be ideal)
A) 460 m/s
B) 500 m/s
C) 650 m/s
D) 1420 m/s
E) 520 m/s
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Q.44) Length of a string tied to two rigid supports is 40cm. Maximum length (wave length in cm) of a
stationary wave produced on it is
A) 20
B) 60
C) 40
D) 120
E) 80
Q.45) Tube A has both ends open, while tube B has one end is closed, otherwise they are identical. The
ratio of fundamental frequency of tubes A and B is
A) 1 :2
B) 1:4
C) 2:`1
D) 4:1
E) 2:3
CHEMISTRY
Q.46) The correct decreasing order of priority of functional group in naming an organic compounds as
per IUPAC system of nomenclature.
A) –COOH > –COBH > –COCl > –CHO
B) –SO3H > –COCl > –CONH2 > –CN

C) −COOR > − COCl > − NH 2 > C=O

D) –COOH > –COOR > –CONH2 > –COCl
E) –COOH > –COCl > –SO3H > –COOR
Q.47) What is IUPAC name of the given compound.
H3C – H2C CH3

CH3 CH2 CH C CH2 CH2 CH3

CH3

A) 3-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethyl heptane

B) 4, 4-Dimethyl-3- ethyl heptane
C) 3-Ethyl-2, 2-dimethyl-2-propylpentane
D) 2, 4-Dimethyl heptane
E) 2, 2, 4-Trimethylpentane
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Q.48) Correct IUPAC name of given compound CH3 C CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH

A) 5-ketohexanoic acid

B) 5-formylhexanoic acid

C) 5-oxohexanoic acid

D) 5-carboxy pentan-2-one

E) 5-carboxyhexanoic acid

Q.49) What is the structure of 6-hydroxy heptanal

OH

A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH CHO

CHO

B) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH3

OH

OH

C) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH CHO

OH

D) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO

OH

E) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CHO

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Q.50) Derive structure of cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

A)
OH

OH
B)

C) OH

D)

OH

OH

E)
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Q.51) Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
CH3

A. I. Anisole

OMe

B. II. Aniline

NH2

C. III. Toluene

NO2

D. IV. Nitrobenzene

A) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
B) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
C) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
D) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
E) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
Q.52) What is IUPAC name of
Br

Br
A) 1-(2, 3-Dibromopentane) Benzene
B) 2, 3-Dibromopentane benzene
C) Dibromo pentane benzene
D) 2, 3-Dibromo-1-phenyl pentane
E) 2, 3-Dibromo-1-benzyl pentane
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Q.53) Which of the following compound is non-benzenoid Aromatic.

A)

NH2

B)

C)

D)

E)

OH

OH

Q.54) Which type of isomerism in CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH & CH3 CH CH3

A) Chain isomerism

B) Position isomerism

C) Functional group isomerism

D) Metamerism

E) Geometrical isomerism
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Q.55) What is the stability order of the given free radicals.

CH3 CH2 – CH3 CH – (CH3 –)2 C(CH3)3
A B C D

A) A > B > C > D

B) B > C > D > A
C) C > B > D > A
D) D > C > B > A
E) D > B > A > C
Q.56) Which of the following compound is not aromatic?

A)

B)
N

C)

D)
N
H

E)

Q.57) The correct order for acidic strength of compounds

A) CH ≡ CH > CH=
2 CH 2 > CH 3 − C ≡ CH
B) CH ≡ CH > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH 2 =
CH 2
C) CH − C ≡ CH > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH ≡ CH
D) CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH > CH 2 =
CH 2
E) CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH
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Q.58) Which of the following is most stable?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Q.59) Decreasing order of SN1 reaction for the following compounds is :

Cl Cl Cl Cl

NO2 OMe Cl
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A) d > b > c > a

B) a > c > d > b
C) a > b > c > d
D) c > a > b > d
E) b > d > c > a
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Q.60) Glycerol is separated in soap industries by

A) Steam distillation
B) Differential distillation
C) Fractional distillation
D) Distillation under reduced pressure
E) Crystallisation
Q.61) Which purification technique is used for difference in boiling points of two liquid is not much
A) Simple distillation
B) Fractional distillation
C) Differential distillation
D) Reduced pressure distillation
E) Steam distillation
Q.62) In thin layer chromatography of a mixture shows the following observation :

The correct order of relation in the silica gel column chromatography is :
A) B, A, C
B) C, A, B
C) A, B, C
D) B, C, A
E) A, C, B
Q.63) Fe(III) cation gives a prussian blue precipitate on addition of potassium ferrocyanide solution
due to the formation of :
A) [Fe(H2O)6] [Fe(CN)6]
B) Fe[Fe(CN)6]2
C) Fe3[Fe(OH)2(CN)4]2
D) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
E) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
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Q.64) In the detection of Halogen containing organic compound is heated with fuming nitric acid in
presence of

A) AgNO3

B) CuSO4

C) HNO3

D) BaSO4

E) MgSO4

Q.65) Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used to estimate nitrogen for which of the following compounds?
A) C6H5NH2

B) NH2 C NH2

C) C6H5 – NO2

D) CH3 – NH2

E) CH3CN

Q.66) How much of chain isomer is possible to the formula C6H14.

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

E) 7

Q.67) In Wurtz reaction, the reagent used.

A) Na

B) Na/liq.NH3

C) Na/Dry ether

D) Na/Dry alcohol

E) Na/Dry amine
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Q.68) Which represents an alkane.

A) C5H8

B) C8H6

C) C9H10

D) C5H10

E) C7H16

Q.69) Which of the following alkane won’t prepare Kolbes electrolytic method

A) Butane

B) Methane

C) Hexane

D) Decane

E) Octane

Q.70) In which of the following addition of HBr in presence or absence of peroxide will give same
product.

A) But-2-ene

B) But-1-ene

C) Pent-1-ene

D) Pent-2-ene

E) Hex-1-ene

Q.71) The function of anhydrous AlCl3, in the Friedal-Craft reaction is to

A) Absorb water

B) Absorb HCl

C) To produce electrophile

D) To produce nucleophile

E) Attracting electrophile
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Ni
+ 3H2
Q.72) 150

Above reaction is the example of

A) Substitution
B) Rearrangement
C) Redox reaction
D) Elimination
E) Addition
Q.73) Benzene react with CH3COCl in the presence of AlCl3 to give
Cl

A)

CH3

B)

COOH

C)

COCH3

D)

COCl

E)
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Lindlar's catalyst
A
Q.74) CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3
Na in liq. NH3
B

A) A : cis, But-2-ene B : trans, But-2-ene

B) A :trans, But-2-ene B : cis, But-2-ene
C) A & B : cis, But-2-ene
D) A & B : trans, But-2-ene
E) None of the above
H 3C CH3
H3C CH3 X
C C O + O=C
Q.75) C
CH3 Zn – H2O H 3C CH3
HC 3

‘X’ in the above reaction.

A) HNO3
B) O2
C) KMnO4
D) K2Cr2O7
E) O3
MATHEMATICS

Q.76) The circum centre of the triangle with vertices (5,0) (0,4) and (0,0) is
A) (0,0)
B) (5,0)
5 
C)  , 2 
2 

5 
D)  , 0 
2 
E) (0,2)
Q.77) If A (1, 6 ) , B(2,3) and C(5, −3) are the vertices of parallelogram ABCD then the fourth vertex

is .......
A) (4,0)
B) (-2,12)
C) ( 3 / 2,9 / 2 )

D) ( 3,3 / 2 )

E) (1,1)
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Q.78) The vertices of a triangle are integer co-ordinates then the triangle can not be
A) Right angled
B) Equilateral
C) Isosceless
D) Right angled isosceless
E) None of these
Q.79) The points (-2,-5) (2,-2) (8,a) are collinear then a =
A) 3/2
B) 2
1
C) −
2

3
D) −
2

5
E)
2
Q.80) The value of λ for which the lines 3x + 4y =5,5x + 4y =4, λx + 4y =6 are concurrent is

A) 2
B) -2
C) -1
D) 1
E) 1/2
Q.81) The area of the triangle whose sides are x = 0, y = 0 and 3x + 4y = 12 is

A) 1
B) 12
C) 6
D) 3
E) 4
Q.82) Equation of line perpendicular to 3x − 4y + 7 =0 and passing through (1,1) is

A) 4x + 3y + 7 =0

B) 4x + 3y − 7 =0

C) 3x − 4y − 7 =0

D) 3x − 4y − 1 =0

E) −4x + 3y + 5 =0
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Q.83) The distance between the lines x =

+ 2y 3 and 2x =
+ 4y 1 is

A) 5 2

5
B)
2 2

C) 15 2

5
D)
2

3
E)
2 2
Q.84) The ratio by which line joining (1,-1) and (3,5) is divided by x + y − 2 =0

A) 1 : 3
B) 3 : 1
C) -1 : 3
D) -3 : 1
E) 2 : 3
Q.85) The ( a, b + c ) , ( b, c + a ) , ( c, a + b ) are

A) Vertices of an equilateral triangle

B) Vertices of isoscelles triangle
C) Collinear points
D) Vertices of right anglied triangle
E) None of these
Q.86) The centroid of the triangle formed by (1,-a),(-2,-b) and (k,-4) lies on X axis then a+b =
A) 2
B) 3
C) -2
D) -5
E) -4
Q.87) The variable line ax + by + c = 0 passes through a fixed point if 2a + 3b − 5c =
0 then that point is
A) ( 2 / 5,3 / 5 )

B) ( −2 / 5, −3 / 5 )

C) (1,1)
D) (3,2)
E) (-2,-2)
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 27 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.88) Image of the point (0,0) with respect to the line 4x + 3y − 50 =

0 is

A) (8,6)
B) (6,8
C) (4,3)
D) (12,6)
E) (16,12)
Q.89) The incentre of the triangle formed by the line 3x + 4y =
12 and the co-ordinate axis is

A) (2,2)
B) (1,1)
C) (1,-2)
D) (2,-1)
E) (3,3)
Q.90) If the lines ( λ + 3) x + ( 7 − λ ) y = λ + 2 represents a family of concurrent lines then, the point

of concurrence is
 9 −1 
A)  , 
 10 10 

 9 1
B)  , 
 10 10 

9 9
C)  , 
 10 10 

1 9
D)  , 
 10 10 
E) (3,2)
Q.91) Equation of line passing through (-3,4) and which cuts an intercept 2 units between the lines

x −=
y + 1 0 and x −=
y −1 0

A) x + y + 1 =0

B) x + y − 1 =0

C) x + y + 2 =0

D) x + y − 2 =0

E) x − y − 2 =0
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 28 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.92) A ( −2, 4 ) B ( 3,5 ) and C(2, − 7) are the vertices of ∆ABC, P, Q, R are the points which divides

AB,BC and CA respectively in the ratio 2 :3 internally. Then centroid of ∆PQR is

A) ( 3, 6 )

B) (1,2)
C) (1/ 3, 2 / 3)

D) (1, 2 / 3)

E) (1,1)
Q.93) A (-1,2), B(1,3) and C(a,b) are collinear points, such that AC = 8 AB then C is
A) (15,10)
B) (-15,10)
C) (8,5)
D) (15,8)
E) (8,10)
Q.94) A ray of light coming from (0,1) gets reflected upon hitting the X axis at (1,0). Equation of
reflected ray is
A) x + y + 1 = 0

B) x + y − 1 =0

C) x − y + 1 =0

D) x − y − 1 =0

E) y = x

Q.95) The nearest point on the line x + y − 5 =0 from the point (2,1) is

A) (1, 4 )

B) (4,1)
C) (2,3)
D) (6,-1)
E) (3,2)
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 29 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.96) Suppose that the point P(1,1) is translated to Q in the direction of y = 2x. If PQ =1 then Q is

 1 2 
A) 1 ± ,1 ± 
 5 5
 2 1 
B) 1 + ,1 ± 
 5 5
C) ( 2, −5 )

D) ( 4, 4 )

E) ( 4,8 )

Q.97) If p and q are respectively the perpendicular distances from the origin up on the lines.
x sec θ + y cos
= sin θ a cos 2θ than 4p 2 + q 2 =
ecθ a and x cos θ − y =

A) 5a2

B) a2

C) 4a2

D) 3a2

E) 7a2

Q.98) A ( 2, −3) and B ( −2,1) are the vertices of ∆ABC and the vertex C moves along the line

2x + 3y =
9 then the locus of the centroid of ∆ABC is

A) 2x − 3y =
1

B) 3x + 2y =
1

C) 2x + 3y =
1

D) 3x − 2y =
1

E) 3x + y =
1
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 30 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

2 2
Q.99) The value of K for which the circles x + y + 2x + ky − 7 =0 and 3x 2 + 3y 2 + 6x + 5y − 2 =0

become concentric
−5
A)
3

5
B)
3

C) 5
D) -5
E) 6
2 2
Q.100) Angle between tangents drawn from a point on the x + y =20 to the circle x 2 + y 2 =
10 is
A) 300
B) 600
C) 450
D) 900
0
1
E) 22
2

3x + y 2 and 6x=
Q.101) Radius of the circle touching the lines = + 2y 7 is
3
A)
4 10

3
B)
2 10

5
C)
10

1
D)
10

2
E)
10
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 31 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.102) Equation of circle having radius 5 touching both axes and lying in third quadrant is
A) ( x − 5 ) + ( y − 5 ) =
2 2
25

B) ( x + 5 ) + ( y + 5 ) =
2 2
25

C) ( x + 5 ) + ( x − 5 ) =
2 2
25

2 2
 5  5
D)  x +  +  y +  =
25
 2  2
2 2
E) x + y =25

2 2
Q.103) If y = 2x is a chord of the circle x + y − 10x =
0 then the length of the chord is

A) 10

B) 5
C) 2 10

D) 2 5

E) 5

2 2
Q.104) If an equilateral triangle is inscribed in the circle x + y − 4x + 2y + 1 =
0 then the area of the

triangle is
A) 2 3

B) 3 3

C) 4 3

D) 5 3

E) 6 3
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 32 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.105) Two circles x + y − ay= 0 and x + y = c ( c > 0 ) touch each other then
2 2 2 2 2

A) a = c

B) a = c

C) 2 a = c

D) a = 2c

E) 3c = a
Q.106) Two circles with same radius ‘r’ cut orthogonally if their centers are (2,-2) and (-2,2) then r is
A) 2
B) 6
C) 3
D) 4
E) 1

Q.107) For which value of ‘P’ the equation x + y + ( p − 4 ) xy + 2x + 2y − p =

2 2 2
0 represent a real

circle
A) 4
B) 2
C) -2
D) ±2
E) ± 4
2 2
Q.108) Number of common tangents to the circles x + y + 4x − 12y + 4 =0 and

x 2 + y 2 − 2x − 4y + 4 =0

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 33 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

2 2
Q.109) The locus of the midpoint of the chord of the circle x + y =4 which subtend an angle 900 at

the Centre is
2 2
A) x + y = 1

2
B) x + y =
16

2 2
C) x + y =1/ 2

2 2 1
D) x + y =
4
2 2
E) x + y =2

Q.110) The line 3x − 4y = λ ( λ < 0 ) touches the circle x + y − 4x − =

2 2
8y − 5 0 then
= λ

A) -5
B) -15
C) -25
D) -35
E) -10
2 2
Q.111) Equation of normal to the circle x + y =5 at (1, 2) is

A) y = 2x

B) x + y =3

C) 3x − y =
1

D) x + y =
8

E) 2y − x =
3

Q.112) Equation of circle with centre (5,3) and touching y axis is

2 2
A) x + y − 10x − 6y + 1 = 0

2 2
B) x + y − 10x − 6y + 3 =0

2 2
C) x + y − 10x − 6y + 9 =0

2 2
D) x + y + 10x + 6y + 1 =0

E) None of these
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 34 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.113) The centre of the circle that can be incsribed in a square formed by the lines
x = 6, y = 5,x = 2,y = 9
A) (1, 2 )

B) ( 4, 7 )

C) ( 5,9 )

D) ( 2, 6 )

E) (1,1)

Q.114) The shortest distance between the circles ( x − 1) + ( y +=

2 ) 1 and ( x + 2 ) + ( y −=
2 ) 4 is
2 2 2 2

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q.115) If ( cos θi ,sec θi ) , i =1,2,3,4 lie on a circle, θi ∈ [ 0, π / 6 ) are distinct. Then

cos θ1 cos θ2 cos θ3 cos θ4 =

A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
E) 1
2 2
Q.116) Tangent drawn from the point P(1,8) to the circle x + y − 6x − 4y − 11 =
0 touches the circle

at A and B. Centre of circum circle of ∆APB

A) ( 2,5 )

B) ( 3, 4 )

C) ( 3,5 )

D) ( −2, −5 )

E) (5,2)
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 35 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.117) Equation of tangent to the circle ( x − 2 ) + ( y − 3) =

25 at ( 6, 6 ) is
2 2

A) 3x + 4y − 32 =
0

B) 4x + 3y − 42 =
0

C) x + 3y − 32 =
0

D) 3x + 4y =
32

E) 4x + 3y + 42 =
0

Q.118) Suppose the line joining distinct points P and Q on ( x − 1) + ( y − 3) =

2 2
r 2 is the diameter of

( x − 2 ) + ( y − 1)
2 2
4 then r =
=

A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 9
E) 4
Q.119) Two normals to the circle are x=
+ y 6 and x=
+ 2y 4 and its area is 25π then its equation

is
A) ( x + 8 ) + ( y − 2 ) =
2 2
25

B) ( x − 8 ) + ( y − 2 ) =
2 2
25

2 2
C) x + y =25

D) ( x − 8 ) + ( y + 2 ) =
2 2
25

Q.120) The centre of the circle whose radius is 5 and which touches externally the circle
x 2 + y 2 − 2x − 4y − 20 =
0 at (5,5) is

A) (10,5)
B) (5,8)
C) 5,10)
D) (8,9)
E) (9,8)
 FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 36 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.121) x
= 3
=
(1 − t ) y
2
2t
t is a parameter represents
2
1+ t 1+ t2
A) circle
B) Parabola
C) Ellipse
D) Hyperbola
E) Straight line
Q.122) If 5x + 2y − k = 0 is a focal chord of the parabola x 2 =
−8y then k =
A) 1
B) -2
C) 3
D) -4
E) -5
Q.123) An equilateral triangle is inscribed in the parabola ( y − 1) = 4a ( x − 3) will one vertex (3,1).
2

Then the length of the side is

A) 8a 3

B) 4a 3

C) a 3
1
D) a 3
2

E) 3a

Q.124) The chord of contact of tangents drawn from ( −4, y1 ) to y = 16x always pass through
2

A) (2,0)
B) (3,0)
C) (-2,0)
D) (-4,0)
E) (4,0)
2
Q.125) The vertex of the parabola y − 4y − x + 3 =0 lies on x + y − k =0 then k=

A) -1
B) 1
C) 2
D) -2
E) -3
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 37 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

x 2 y2 y2 x 2 1 1
Q.126) If e1 and e2 are eccentricities of − 1
= and − 1 then 2 + 2 =
=
25 16 16 25 e1 e 2
A) 1
1
B)
2

1
C)
4

1
D)
9

1
E)
8
Q.127) If F1 and F2 are the foci and B is an endpoint of minor axis and ∆F1F2 B is equilateral of an
ellipse then eccentricity is
A) 1/ 3

1
B)
4

1
C)
5

1
D)
2

1
E)
8
2 2
Q.128) The distance between directrices of the hyperbola x − y =16 is

A) 2 2

B) 3 2

C) 4 2

D) 5 2

E) 6 2
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 38 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

x2 y2
Q.129) For the hyperbola − 1, which one is independent of α
=
cos 2 α sin 2 α
A) Vertex
B) Focus
C) Directrix
D) Latus rectum
E) None
y 4x + c touches the parabola y 2 = 5x then C is
Q.130) If the straight line =

A) 5
B) 5/4
C) 5/8
D) 5/16
E) -5/8
2
Q.131) If one end of the focal chord of the parabola y = 4x is (4,4) then the other end is

A) ( 4, −4 )

B) ( −4, 4 )

C) (1/ 4, −1)

 −1 
D)  4, 
 4 

 −1 
E) 1, 
 4 

x 2 y2 x 2 y2
Q.132) Equation of circle passing through the intersection of ellipses + 1
= and + 1 is
=
a 2 b2 b2 a 2
2 2 2 2
A) x + y = a + b

2 2
B) x + y =a2

2 2
C) x + y =b 2

2 2 a 2 + b2
D) x + y = 2
2+b

2 2 2a 2 b 2
E) x + y =
a 2 + b2
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 39 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.133) Transverse axis of a hyperbola with centre (0,0) is of length 6 lies along y axis. It’s length of
16
latus rectum is then its equation is
9

x 2 3y 2
A) − 1
=
9 8

y 2 3x 2
B) − 1
=
9 8

y2 x 2
C) − 1
=
9 8

y2 x 2
D) − 1
=
9 1

x2
2
E) 3y − 1
=
8
Q.134) Let ‘P’ be a point on the hyperbola at a distance 6 units from the directrix and the eccentricity
5
of hyperbola is . Then distance from Focus to P is
3

8
A)
5

5
B)
8
C) 10
D) 12
E) 15
Q.135) Equation of parabola with vertex (2,1) and focus (1,1) is .....
2
A) y − 2y + 4x − 7 = 0

2
B) y + 2y − 2x + 1 =
0

2
C) y + 2y − x − 1 =0

2
D) y − 2y + x − 1 =0

2
E) y − 3y + x + 4 =0
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 40 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.136) The product of length of perpendiculars drawn from foci to any tangent of the hyperbola
x 2 y2
− =1 is
10 4
A) 10
B) 4
C) 14
D) 6
E) 40
( x − 1) ( y − 3)
2 2

Q.137) Sum of the focal distances from the point. (1,3) of the ellipse + 1 is
=
25 16
A) 10
B) 8
C) 6
D) 4
E) 9
2 2
Q.138) The ellipse x + 4y =4 is insribed in a rectangle aligned with co-ordinate axes which inturn

is inscribed in another ellipse that passes through the point (-4,0). Then the equation of ellipse
is
2 2
A) x + 12y =16

2 2
B) 4x + 48y =48

2 2
C) x + 10y =16

2 2
D) 4x + y =64

2 2
E) 3x + 2y =48

Q.139) Which of the following not represent the eccentricity of ellipse

A) 3/5
B) 1/2
C) 1/5
D) 4/5
E) 7/2
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 41 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

x 2 y2
Q.140) Two tangents are drawn from a point ‘p’ to the hyperbola − 1 are right angles. Then
=
16 7
locus of P is
2 2
A) x + y = 23

2 2
B) x + y =9

2 2
C) x − y =9

2 2
D) x + y =25

2 2
E) x − y =1

Q.141) A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is x=6 and eccentricity is 1/2 then the length
of major axis is
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Q.142) Eccentricity of the rectangular hyperbola xy = 97
A) 3

B) 2
C) 5

D) 2

E) 7

x 2 y2 x 2 y2
Q.143) The eccentricities of the ellipse + 1 and the hyperbola
= − 1 are reciprocales
=
4 3 64 b 2
then b2 =
A) 192
B) 64
C) 16
D) 32
E) 128
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 42 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.144) If AA′ is the transverse axis BB′ is the conjugate axis and C is the centre of the hyperbola

y2 x 2
− 1 then radius of cirum circle of ∆ABC
=
16 9

A) 5
B) 5/2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 7/2
x 2 y2 x 2 y2
Q.145) If the foci of +
= 1 and −= 1 coincide then a =
16 4 a2 3

A) 3

B) ± 3
C) 2
1
D)
2

E) 3
Q.146) If ( a − 3) x + 2ay =
2 2
10 represents an equilateral hyperbola then a =
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q.147) For an ellipse distance between foci is 10 and the distance between directrices is 20 then
length of minor axis is
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 43 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Q.148) Latus rectum of an ellipse is one half of its minor axis then eccentricity is
1
A)
2

1
B)
2

3
C)
2

3
D)
4

3
E)
5
2
Q.149) If the vertex of the parabola y =x − 16x + k lies on X axis then K =

A) 16
B) 8
C) -64
D) 64
E) -16
2
Q.150) Equation of directrix of the parabola x + 4y =
0

A) y + 1 =0

B) y − 1 =0

C) x − 1 =0

D) x − 1 =0

E) x + y =0
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 44 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
 VERSION
17-02-2025 BATCH : ENGG. 2025
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE CEE KERALA ENGG. MODEL EXAM - UNIT III
E1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID

411
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org P + C + M - KEY WITH HINTS

PHYSICS

1. A

2. B Isothermal bulk modulus of a gas = pressure of the gas (P)

3. B

1
4. D U
= F∆
2

W mg Aρg  2 Pg
5. C =
∆ = = =
2AY 2AY 2AY 2Y

2πR − 2πr R − r
6. strain
C = =
2πr r
stress= Y × strain
T R −r
= Y×
A r
YA ( R − r )
T=
r
7. C vρ= v1ρ1 + v 2ρ2
V  v 
v=
ρ  × 0.8  +  ×13.6 
2  2 
ρ 0.4 + 6.8
=
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

2
8. E v= u 2 + 2as
(1)
2
= + 2 ×10 ×15 ×10−2
V = 2m / s
a1v1 = a 2 v 2
10−4=
1 a2 × 2

2r 2
9. D =v ( ρs − ρ x ) g
9η
v ∝ ( ρS − ρ )
10. B Velocity of efflux
v = 2gh
11. B in freely falling elevator, the liquid rises to the maximum available height of the
capillary tube.
P1V1 = P2 V2
12. C
( Pa + hρg ) v = Pa × 8V
( Hρg + hρg ) V = Hρg × 8V
h+H = 8H
h = 7H

13. C Pressure difference between lungs and atmosphere = 10 mm of Hg

Suppose student can suck water from depth h.
=hρg 10mm
= of Hg 1cm of Hg
hρw g = 1× ρHg × g

hρw =1×13.6
h = 13.6 cm
14. E According to Newton’s law of cooling, Rate of cooling ∝ Temperature difference be
tween body and its surroundings. n=1
15. D Energy radiated by the sun per second
E = σAT 4
= σ × 4πR 2 × T 4

E1 = σ × 4π ( 2R ) × ( 2T )
2 4

E1 = 64E
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

16. B From Charle’s law

V∝T
V1 V2
=
T1 T2

47.5 67
=
273 T2
= 1120 C
T2 385K
=

ρ
17. A ρ′ =
1 + γ∆T
γ
∝=
3

18. A mL = Mgh
m gh 10 ×1000 1
= = ≈
M L 80 × 4.2 33

19. B Let T be the final temperature of water

Heat lost by tumbler = Heat gained by ice
m s w ( 40 − T ) = mL + m × s w ( T − 0 )
55 ×1( 40 − T ) = 10 × 80 + 10 ×1× T

T ≈ 220 C

20. B Equivalent thermal conductivity of series combination is

2K1K 2
K eff =
K1 + K 2

KA∆T
21. D H=

A
H∝

r2
H∝

2
H1  r1   2
=   ×
H 2  r2  1
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

22. A ∆U iaf =
∆u ibf
Q − W = Q1 − W1
50 − 20 = 36 − W1
W1 = 6 cal
23. B T1 = 900K
Q1 = 3 ×106 cal
T2 = 300K
From Carnot 's theorem
Q1 Q 2
=
T1 T2
T
1 106 cal
Q 2 = 2 × Q1 =×
T1
W =Q1 − Q 2 =2 ×106 cal
=2 × 4.2 ×106
= 8.4 ×106 J
24. B Given ∆U = −∆W
∆U + ∆W = 0
or, ∆Q =0

Hence the system undergoes an adiabatic process

25. A For A → B, ∆Q= NC v ∆T
3 3
=N × R ( 2T − T0 ) = NRT0
2 2

5
For B → C ∆Q= NCp ∆T= N R ( 4T0 − 2T0 =
) 5NRT
2

13
Total heat input ∆Q = NRT0
2

∆W= area of loop= P0 V0= NRT0

W NRT0 2
=
efficiency = = ≈ 15%
Q 13 NRT 13
0
2
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
26. B Isobaric expansion (area under P -V diagram is maximum
7R
27. C CP =
2
7R 5R
CV = Cp − R = −R =
2 2
Cp 7
r
= =
Cv 5
28. A ∆U =µC v ∆T
R
=µ ∆T
r −1
P∆V P ( 2v − v ) PV
= = =
r −1 r −1 r −1

3RT
29. C Vrms =
M0
3RT 3R × 320
=
2 32
T = 20K

30. D P ∝ T3
P1− r T r = constant
T r ∝ P r −1
r
P ∝ T r −1
r
=3
r −1
3
r=
2

3 5
31. A =
For monoatomic gas , CV = R, CP R
2 2

5 7
=
For diatomic gas, CV = R, CP R
2 2

Then for the mixture of both gases

FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

3 5
1× R + 1× R
CV mixture =
= 2 2 2R
1+1

 5   7
 1× R  +  1×  R
2   2
=
CP mixture = 3R
1+1

( CP )mix 3
rmixture
= =
( CV )mix 2

32. B Thermal energy corresponds to internal energy

1 3
V= m
4
f f
P= 8 ×104 N / m 2 , U =
µ RT = PV
2 2
5
U = PV
2

33. A collision is elastic, ∆P= mv − ( −mv =

) 2mv

34. B 1
P = nm v 2
3
1 m
=P = n
3 2
( 4 v 2 ) 2P

35. A V =−2 ×10−2 π sin πt

velocity becomes maximum when sin πt =1
π
πt =
2

1
t= s
2
36. E Differential equation of S.H.M is
d2x
2
+ ω2 x = 0
dt
⇒ ω2 =∝
ω= ∝
2π
= ∝
T
2π
T=
∝
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

37. C M
T = 2π
K
5T m+M
= 2π
3 K

m m
38. B t1 =
2π , t2 =
2π
K1 K2
m
T = 2π
KS
m  1 1 
T2 =
4π 2 = 4π 2 m  + 
Ks  K1 K 2 
m m
= 4π 2 + 4π 2
K1 K2
= t12 + t 22

39. D ∆
×100 =21

∆ 21
=
 100
1 −  21
=
 100
′ 121
=
 100

T1 
= 1
T 
121 11
= =
100 10
 T1   11 
 − 1 ×100=  − 1 ×100
T   10 

40. A At x1 = 5cm
1 2
U1
= =kx1 1J
2
At x 2 = 15 cm

1 2
U2
= =kx 2 9J
2
W = u 2 − u1 = 8J
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

41. A Speed, v = a
ω a2 − x2 , x =
2
2
2π 2  a 
= a − 
T 2
2π 3a 2
=
T 4

 π
42. A =y A sin  wt − kx + 
 3
−1
ω =600 rad s
K = 2 rad m −1
ω 600
V
= = = 300 ms −1
K 2

VHe r M O2 200
43. D = He × = = 3.086
VO 2 rO2 M He 21

44. E When the strong vibrates in one segment

λ
L=
2
λ = 2L = 2 × 40 = 80 cm

v
45. C υA =
2
v
υB =
4
υA 2
=
υB 1

CHEMISTRY
46. B –SO3H > –COCl > –CONH2 > –CN
47. A 3-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethyl heptane
48. C 5-oxohexanoic acid
OH

49. D CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO

7 6 5 4 3 2 1
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
OH
2
50. C
3

51. A A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

52. D 2, 3-Dibromo-1-phenyl pentane
53. D
54. B Position isomerism.
55. D D>C>B>A

contain & π e ⇒ anti-aromatic.

−
56. C

57. B CH CH > CH3 C CH > CH2 CH2

sp +I sp sp2

58. A 2 πe − ⇒ Aromatic

59. E b>d>c>a
SN1 reaction is depend on stability of carbocation.
60. D Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye in soap industry.
61. B Fractional distillation
62. E According to observation ‘A’ is more mobile then ‘C’ then only ‘B’.
63. D Fe4[Fe(CN6]
64. A AgNO3
65. C Nitro compound cannot estimated by this method.
66. C 1) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3

2) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3

CH3

3) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3

CH3

4) CH3 CH CH CH3

CH3 CH3
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

CH3

5) CH3 C CH2 CH3

CH3

67. C Na/Dry Ether

68. E C7H16
69. B Methane
70. A But-2-ene
Br
HBr
CH3 CH CH CH3 CH3 CH CH2 CH3
Markovnikov's
Symmetrical Antimarkovnikov's

Due to symmetry, give same product.
71. C To produce electrophile we use ‘AlCl3’ .
72. E This is type of addition reaction.
COCl

CH3COCl
73. D AlCl3

H H
74. A CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3 → Lindlars catalyst C C
H 3C CH3
Cis But-2-ene
H CH3
CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3 →
Na /liq.NH3
C C
H3C H
Trans But-2-ene
75. E O3
MATHS
76. C Circum centre = Midpoint of hypotenuse
D C

77. A , D=A+C-B = (4,0)

A B

78. B
79. E Slope of AB = slope of BC ⇒ a =5/ 2
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

3 4 −5
80. D 5 4 −4 = 0 λ = 1
λ 4 −6

1 1
81. C A= bh = × 4 × 3 = 6
2 2

82. B 4x + 3y + k =0 , passes through (1,1) ⇒ k =−7

c1 − c 2
83. D Dis tan ce =
a 2 + b2

m − ( ax1 + by1 + c ) 1
=
84. A =
n ax 2 + by 2 + c 3

85. C
y1 + y 2 + y3 −a − b − 4
86. E =0 ⇒ =0 a + b =−4
3 3

87. B Compare variable line and given condition after making c terms same
α − x1 β − y1
= = −2
( ax1 + by1 + c )
88. E Use the formula
a b a 2 + b2
(0,3)

 ax + bx 2 + cx 3 ay1 + by 2 + cy3 
89. B (0,0) (4,0) incentre =  1 
 a+b+c a+b+c 

90. A= 9
put λ 7 =
then x
10
−1
put λ = −3 then y =
10

91. B Distance between parallel lines is 2.

∴ Required line perpendicular to given lines
92. D ABC centroid of ∆PQR
Centroid of ∆=
1:7
x
93. A A(-1,2) B(1,3) C(15,10) Apply section formula
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

x (0,1)
θ θ
slope of reflated ray= tan=
θ
94. D ;
(1,0) slope incident ray = tan ( π − θ ) = −1
⇒ − tan θ = −1
⇒ tan θ =1

Equ : is y-0 =1 (x-1)

95. E

x+y-5=0
( α, β )
(2,1)

Nearest point = ( α, β )
β −1
∴α + β − 5 = 0 − (1) × −1 = −1 ⇒ α − β − 1 = 0 (−2)
α−2
Solve (1) and (2)

x=x1 ± r cos θ when r =PQ = (1,1)

1, (x1y1 ) =
96. A 1 2
y = y1 ± r sin θ tan θ = 2 ⇒ cos θ = ,sin θ =
5 5

0+0−a a a
p
= = = a sin θ.cos=
θ sin 2θ
sec θ + cos ec θ sec θ.cos ecθ
2 2 2
97. B
0 − 0 − a cos 20
= q = a cos 20
cos 2 θ + sin 2 θ

A (2,-3)

98. C

x
G(h,k) 2x+3y=9

B(-2,1) C (x,y)
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

2 + −2 + x
=h = ⇒ x 3h
3
1
3+ + 4
k = 3 ⇒ y = 3k + 2
3
substitute in 2x + 3y =9
then 2h + 3k = 1

99. B
100. D x 2 + y2 =
20 is the director circle of x 2 + y 2 =
10
101. A Diameter = distance between parallel lines
102. B Centre = (-5,-5), r = 5

2x-y=0 2 × 5 − 0 10
103. D ; CP
= =
A B 5
P 22 + 1
5  10 
C(5,0) PB =52 −   =5
 5
∴ AB =
2 5

a 9
104. B ; R= ⇒ 2= ⇒ a= 2 3
R 3 3

( )
2
3× 2 3
=Area = 3 3
4

105. B Touch each other ⇒ c1c 2 =+

r1 r2 or c1c 2 =−
r1 r2
 9 a
c1  0,  , c 2 ( 0, 0=
) r1 = r2 c
 2 2
a a
c1c 2 = r2 − r1 is possible ⇒ =c= ⇒c= a
2 2

( c1c2 )
2
106. D = r 2 + r 2 ⇒ 32 = 2r 2 ⇒ r = 4
107. B p 2 − 4 =0 ⇒ p =±2 ...........(1)
r > 0 ⇒ g 2 + f 2 − c > 0 ⇒ 1 + 1 + p > 0 ⇒ p > −2 .......(2)

From (1) and (2) p =2

108. B c1c 2= r1 − r2 ; ∴ circles touch internally ⇒ one common tangent
109. E p(h,k)
A B
45
2
(0,0) 0
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

op 2
= cos 450 ⇒ op = = 2
2 2

( )
2
∴ ( h − 0 ) + ( k − 0 ) = 2
2 2

locus of (h, k) is x 2 + y 2 =
2

110. D
⊥ r dis tan ce from c(2, 4) to 3x − 4y − λ= 0= radius
6 − 16 − 1
= 5 ⇒ 10 + λ = 25 ⇒ λ = 15 or − 35
5
111. A Normal is the line joining c(0,0) and (1,2)

( x − 5 ) + ( y − 3)
2 2
112. C 52
=
113. B sides of square are
=x 2,=
x 6

=y 5,=
y 9

B(2,9) C (6,9)

A(2,5) D(6,5)

centre = midpoint of digonal
114. B S.D = c1c 2 − ( r1 + r2 )
115. E x = cos θi, y = sec θi lies on xy = 1
If a circle x2+y2+r2 intersects xy = 1
1
x2 +
= r 2 intersects xy=1
x2
2 1 2 4 2 2
then x + 2 = r ⇒ x + r x + 1 = 0
x
Product of roof= cos θ1 cos θ2 cos θ3 cos θ4= 1

116. A Centre of circumcircle = midpoint CP.

FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

(3,2)
C
P(1, 8) (2,5)

117. B Use T1 = 0
S1 − S2 =
0
2
118. B Equ. of common chord (PQ) is ∴ PQ is − 2x + 4y − 9 − r =0
it passes through (2,1) ⇒ −4 + 4 − 9 + r 2 = 0 ⇒ r = 3

2
119. D Solving normals we get centre (8,-2), πr = 25π, r = 5
120. E (h,k) (5,5)
(1,2)
5 5

Here (5,5) is the midpoint of c1 c2

x= 3 cos 2θ, y= sin 2θ
121. C Put t = tan θ , then x 2 y2
Eliminating θ, + 1 Ellipse
=⇒
3 1

122. D Focus of x 2 =−8y is (0, −2) 5x + 2y − k =0

passes through (0, −2) ⇒ 0 − 4 − k =0 ⇒ k =−4
123. A length = 8a 3
124. E Always passes through the focus
y 2 − 4y = x − 3 ⇒ ( y − 2 ) =( x + 1) ⇒ vertex =( −1, 2 )
2
125. B
126. A Given hyperbolas are conjugate to each other
127. D F1B = F2 B = F1F2 ⇒ 2ae = a ⇒ e = 1/ 2
a
128. C Dis tan ce
= 2 =, a 4,=
e 2
e

( ±ae, 0 ) = ( ±1, 0 ) ( ae )
2
129. B Focus = = sin 2 α + cos 2 α = 1
a 5 5
130. D c
= = =
m 4 × 4 16

 a −2a 
If one end is ( at1 , 2at1 ) then other end is  2 ,
2
131. C 
 t1 t1 
FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
2 2 2
132. E Circle with centre (0,0) and r = Harmonic mean of a and b
2b 2 16 8 y2 x 2
133. B 2a = 6 ⇒ a = 3, = ⇒ b 2 = ∴ Equ : is 2 − 2 = 1
a 9 3 a b

FP 5
134. C = e ⇒ FP = e pm = × 6 = 10
Pm 3

1, ( y − 1) =−4 ( x − 2 ) ⇒ y 2 − 2y + 4x − 7 =0
2
135. A a=

136. B

x x
F2 P F1

consider tanget at the vertex F1p × F2 p = ( ae − a )( ae + a ) = a e − a = b = 4

2 2 2 2

( ae )
2
= 25 − 16 = 9
137. C (1,3) is the centre
∴ Distance cF1 + cF2 = 2ae = 2 × 3 = 6

x 2 y2
138. A x 2 + 4y 2 =4 ⇒ + =1
4 1

(2,1)

(-4,0)

x 2 y2 2
2
+ = 2
1 passes through (−4, 0) abd (2,1) ⇒=
a 4 b= 4/3
a b

139. E For ellipse 0 < e < 1

FT25H/KEAM-MOD/P+C+M[411] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
140. B Locus of P is Director circle of hyperbola.
2 2 2 2
It’s equation is x + y = a − b
a 1   1
141. C − ae =
6 ⇒ a  − e6 ⇒ a2−  =
6⇒a =
4
e e   2

142. D e= 2
143. A ( ae )
2
= 4 − 3 =1⇒ ae =1 ⇒ e =1/ 2 for ellipse
2
b= a 2 ( e 2 − 1=
) 64 ( 4 − 1=) 192
1 1 5
144. B ∆ABC is right angled . ∴ =
R hypotence
= AB
=
2 2 2

145. E
( ae )
2
= 16 − 4 = 12 ⇒ ae = 12
For hyperbola b 2 =a 2 e 2 − a 2 ⇒ 3 =12 − a 2 ⇒ a 2 =9 ⇒ a =3

146. A For rectangular hyperbola coeff. of x2 +coeff.of y2=0

147. B 2a a
2ae = 10 ⇒ ae = 5, = 20 ⇒ = 10.
e e
a
ae × = 5 × 10 ⇒ a 2 = 50, b 2 − a 2 − ( ae ) = 25;∴ b = 5
2

e
2b 2 3
148. C =b ⇒ a =2b, Now b 2 =a 2 − (1 − e 2 ) ⇒ b 2 =4b 2 (1 − e 2 ) ⇒ e =
a 2

149. D
y = x 2 − 16x + k ⇒ ( x − 8 ) = ( y − k + 64 )
2

vertex= (8, k − 64 ) ⇒ k= 64

150. B y=1
1=a

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