Department of Computer Engineering

CMT MCQ Questions Bank

Multiple Choice Questions

Subject: CMTS Semester:
1. Which of the following is not a type of computer on the basis of operation?
a. Remote
b. Hybrid
c. Analog
d. Digital

2. are used for solving complex application such as Global Weather

Forecasting.
a. Super Computers
b. Public computers
c. Mobile computers
d. Hybrid computers

3. The invention of gave birth to the much cheaper micro computers.

a. Mainframes
b. Microcomputers
c. Microprocessors
d. PDAs

4. computers are lower to mainframe computers in terms of speed and storage

capacity.
a. Mini
b. Super
c. Mainframes
d. Hybrid

5. The various types of computers are:

a. Personal computers
b. Workstations
c. Tablet PC

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d. All of the above

6. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a

a. Network
b. Client
c. Mainframe
d. Super Computer

7. The text code originally used in personal computer.

a. EBCDIC
b. ASCII
c. Unicode
d. None of these

8. What is a computer?
a. A programmable electronic device that processes data via instructions to output
information for future use.
b. Raw facts and figures that has no meaning processed via a set of instructions.
c. Meaning attached to data letters, pictures, symbols or sounds.
d. All of the above

9. A computer system consists of both hardware and software.

a. True.
b. False.

10. Hardware is a set of instructions called programs the computer uses to carry out tasks
while Software are all the parts of the computer you can see and touch and is also
known as peripherals.
a. True.
b. False.

11. The CPU is also known as:

a. The Brain
b. The Processor

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c. The Central Processing Unit

d. All of the above.

12. The fourth generation was based on integrated circuits.

a. True
b. False

13. The generation based on VLSI microprocessor.

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

14. _ Generation of computer started with using vacuum tubes as the basic components.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

15. Batch processing was mainly used in this generation.

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

16. ULSI stands for?

a. Ultra Large Scale Integration
b. Under Lower Scale Integration
c. Ultra Lower Scale Integration
d. Under Large Scale Integration

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17. In this generation Time sharing, Real time, Networks, Distributed Operating System
was used.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 5th
d. 4th

18. HLL stands for?

a. High Level Language
b. High Layman’s Language
c. High Level Lesson
d. High Layman’s Lesson

19. The period of generation was 1952-1964.

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 5th
d. 4th

20. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause?

a. over heat
b. power surges
c. incomplete path for ESD
d. None of the above

21. Which Motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin connector ?

a. ATX
b. Baby AT
c. AT
d. All of the above

22. Which type of system board is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if
you want maximum performance and future compatibility?

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a. ML
b. PCI
c. ISA
d. EISA

23. What is motherboard?

a. Scanner and other things are part of motherboard
b. Keyboard otherwise known as motherboard
c. A circuit board which connects all the elements
d. It is a type of file server

24. The main circuit board in the system unit is also called the:
a. Busboard
b. Daughterboard
c. Chipboard
d. Motherboard

25. Boards that are used to connect additional devices to the motherboard are called
a. Bay cards
b. Port cards
c. Expansion cards
d. Bus cards

26. Your operating system will detect and install the appropriate device drivers for this type
of device
a. Plug and play
b. Plug and go
c. Plug and continue
d. Plug and commence

27. Different components of the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of
parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?
a. Conductors

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b. Buses
c. Connectors
d. Consecutives

28. Which of the following handles the interconnection between most of the devices and the
CPU?
a. Northbridge
b. RAM
c. ROM
d. Southbridge

29. Where does the motherboard store the keyboard controller support program?
a. DRAM
b. Hard Drive
c. RAM
d. ROM Chip

30. Which chip acts as a clock to keep the current date and the time?
a. CMOS
b. DVRAM
c. RAM
d. ROM

31. Which chip is used to store information that describes specific device parameters?
a. BIOS
b. CMOS
c. ROM
d. System BIOS

32. How can you easily clear the CMOS, including clearing the password?
a. Unplug the PC
b. Unplug the PC and remove the CMOS battery

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c. Issue a Clear CMOS command from the command line

d. This can’t be done

33. What does a computer use to permanently store programs and data when it is turned off?
a. Hard Drive
b. EPROM
c. RAM
d. ROM

34. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
a. Microprocessor
b. System Board
c. Daughter Board
d. Mother Board

35. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits millions of regularly spaced electric
pulses per called clock cycles.
a. Second
b. Millisecond
c. Microsecond
d. minute

36. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic operation.

a. True
b. False

37. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as

a. Clock speed
b. Clock frequency
c. Clock rate
d. Clock timing

38. CISC stands for

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a. Complex Information Sensed CPU

b. Complex Instruction Set Computer
c. Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
d. Complex Instruction Set CPU

39. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of instructions?

a. CISC
b. RISC
c. EPIC
d. Multi-core

40. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce is

a. RISC
b. EPIC
c. CISC
d. Multi-core

41. A circuitry that processes that responds to and processes the basic instructions that are
required to drive a computer system is
a. Memory
b. ALU
c. CU
d. Processor

42. The PCI follows a set of standards primarily used in PC’s.

a. Intel
b. Motorola
c. IBM
d. SUN

43. The key feature of the PCI BUS is

a. Low cost connectivity

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b. Plug and Play capability

c. Expansion of Bandwidth
d. None of the mentioned

44. PCI stands for

a. Peripheral Component Interconnect

b. Peripheral Computer Internet
c. Processor Computer Interconnect
d. Processor Cable Interconnect

45. The PCI BUS supports address space/s.

a. I/O
b. Memory
c. Configuration
d. All of the mentioned

46. address space gives the PCI its plug and plays capability.
a. Configuration
b. I/O
c. Memory
d. All of the mentioned

47. provides a separate physical connection to the memory.

a. PCI BUS
b. PCI interface
c. PCI bridge
d. Switch circuit

48. When transferring data over the PCI BUS, the master as to hold the address until the
completion of the transfer to the slave.
a. True
b. False

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49. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus we use

a. PCI bus
b. SCSI bus
c. Controllers
d. Multiple bus

50. IBM developed a bus standard for their line of computers ‘PC AT’ called
a. IB bus
b. M-bus
c. ISA
d. None of the mentioned

51. The bus used to connect the monitor to the CPU is

a. PCI bus
b. I/O bus
c. Memory bus
d. Rambus

52. The ISA standard Buses are used to connect

a. RAM and processor
b. GPU and processor
c. Hard disk and Processor
d. CD/DVD drives and Processor

53. Storage which stores or retains data after power off is called
a. Volatile storage
b. Non-volatile storage
c. Sequential storage
d. Direct storage

54. A permanent memory, which halls data and instruction for start-up the computer and
does not erase data after power off.
a. Network Interface Card

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b. CPU
c. ROM
d. RAM

55. Which of the following memories must be refreshed many times per second?
a. EPROM
b. ROM
c. Static RAM
d. Dynamic RAM

56. USB-type storage device is -

a. Secondary
b. Axillary
c. Tertiary
d. Primary

57. A half byte is known as .

a. Data
b. Bit
c. Half Byte
d. Nibble

58. Main memory of computer is -

a. Internal
b. External
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

59. . The contents of memory into blocks of the same size is called as:
a. ROM
b. EPROM
c. EEPROM

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d. All of the above

60. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. CPU
d. CD-ROM

61. With a CD you can...........

a. Read
b. Write
c. Read and Write
d. Either read or write

62. RAM is a.......memory

a. External
b. Auxiallary
c. Intenal
d. Main

63. is the permanent memory built into your computer called.

a. ROM
b. CPU
c. DVD-ROM
d. RAM

64. Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled
because tape is
a. A random-access medium
b. A sequential-access medium
c. A read-only medium
d. An expensive storage medium

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65. What is the main advantage of magnetic core memory over semiconductor RAM
memory?
a. More Compact and smaller
b. More Economical
c. A bit does not have to write after reading
d. Non-volatile

66. Hard disc drives are considered.........storage

a. Flash
b. Non-Volatile
c. Temporary
d. Non-permenant

67. Flash is ................

a. Software
b. Hardware
c. ROM
d. PROM

68. Permanent instructions that the computer uses when it is turned on and that cannot be
changed by other instructions are contained in-
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. ALU
d. CPU

69. Any electronic holding place where data can be stored and retrieved later whenever
required is
a. Memory
b. Drive
c. disk
d. circuit

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70. Cache memory is the onboard storage.

a. True
b. False

71. Which of the following is the fastest means of memory access for CPU?
a. Registers
b. Cache
c. Main memory
d. Virtual Memory

72. The memory implemented using the semiconductor chips is

a. Cache
b. Main
c. Secondary
d. Registers

73. Hard disk are organized as

a. Cylinders
b. Tracks
c. cylinders & tracks
d. master boot record`

74. Data for the Hard Disk type is stored in

a. Main memory
b. Partition table
c. CMOS RAM Set up
d. `Boot Record

75. Hard disk can have … heads

a. One
b. Two
c. more than two

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d. only one

76. The hard disk is referred to in a computer by the name

a. heavy storage media
b. F drive
c. D rive
d. H drive`

77. Hard disk drives are considered …storage

a. Flash
b. Nonvolatile
c. Temporary
d. `non permanent

78. Which of the following can hold data of at least one GB

a. Hard disk
b. CD –ROM
c. Floppy Disk
d. None of these

79. The full form of HDD is

a. High Disk Drive
b. Hard Disk Drive
c. Hard digital Disk
d. High digital drive

80. The hard disks record information by

a. Centrifugation
b. Propagation
c. Gravitation
d. magnetization

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81. Which of the following is a storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed
magnetic disks to store data/information
a. Floppy diskette
b. Hard disk
c. Permanent disk
d. optical disk

82. This is a permanent storage device….

a. Floppy disk
b. Monitor
c. RAM
d. `Hard disk

83. In information is recorded magnetically on platters.

a. magnetic disks
b. electrical disks
c. assemblies
d. cylinders

84. The heads of the magnetic disk are attached to a that moves all the heads as a
unit.
a. Spindle
b. disk arm
c. track
d. none of the mentioned

85. The set of tracks that are at one arm position make up a
a. magnetic disks
b. electrical disks
c. assemblies
d. cylinders

86. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

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a. positioning time
b. random access time
c. seek time
d. rotational latency

87. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called
a. positioning time
b. random access time
c. seek time
d. rotational latency

88. When the head damages the magnetic surface, it is known as

a. disk crash
b. head crash
c. magnetic damage
d. all of the mentioned

89. A floppy disk is designed to rotate as compared to a hard disk drive.

a. Faster
b. Slower
c. at the same speed
d. none of the mentioned

90. . What is the disk bandwidth?

a. the total number of bytes transferred
b. total time between the first request for service and the completion on the last
transfer
c. the total number of bytes transferred divided by the total time between the first
request for service and the completion on the last transfer
d. none of the mentioned

91. In magnetic disk stores information on a sector magnetically as reversals of

the direction of magnetization of the magnetic material.

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a. Read–write head
b. Read-assemble head
c. Head–disk assemblies
d. Disk arm

92. A is the smallest unit of information that can be read from or written to the
disk.
a. Track
b. Spindle
c. Sector
d. Platter

93. The disk platters mounted on a spindle and the heads mounted on a disk arm are
together known as
a. Read-disk assemblies
b. Head–disk assemblies
c. Head-write assemblies
d. Read-read assemblies

94. is the time from when a read or write request is issued to when data transfer
begins.
a. Access time
b. Average seek time
c. Seek time
d. Rotational latency time

95. The time for repositioning the arm is called the and it increases with the
distance that the arm must move.
a. Access time
b. Average seek time
c. Seek time
d. Rotational latency time

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96. is around one-half of the maximum seek time.

a. Access time
b. Average seek time
c. Seek time
d. Rotational latency time

97. Once the head has reached the desired track, the time spent waiting for the sector to be
accessed to appear under the head is called the
a. Access time
b. Average seek time
c. Seek time
d. Rotational latency time

98. The process of dividing a disk into sectors that the disk controller can read and write,
before a disk can store data is known as
a. Partitioning
b. swap space creation
c. low-level formatting
d. none of the mentioned

99. A disk consists of a circular disk, which is coated with a thin metal or
some other material that is highly reflective.
a. Magnetic
b. Optical
c. Compact
d. hard

100. Optical disks are proved to be a promising random access medium for high capacity
secondary storage.
a. True
b. False

101. The technology used in optical disks is

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a. Reflective
b. Refractive
c. Laser Beam
d. Diffraction

102. Rotation of the disk must vary with the radius of the disk.
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. Concurrently
d. accordingly

103. The tracks are divided into sectors whose size

a. remains the same
b. keeps increasing
c. keeps decreasing
d. remains uneven

104. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as

a. Burning
b. Zipping
c. Digitizing
d. Ripping

105. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym
for
a. Digital Vector Disc
b. Digital Volume Disc
c. Digital Versatile Disc
d. Digital Visualization Disc

106. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned
off.
a. RAM

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b. Motherboard
c. Secondary Storage Device
d. Primary Storage Device

107. What is the storage capacity of a dual layered Blue Ray disc?
a. 80 GB
b. 50 GB
c. 10 GB
d. 20 GB

108. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only?
a. Floppy Disk
b. Magnetic Disk
c. Magnetic Tape
d. Optical Disk

109. All of the followings are included in removable media except ………….
a. CD-ROMS
b. Diskette
c. DVDs
d. Hard Disk Drive

110. Which of the following has the smallest storage capacity ?

a. zip disk
b. hard disk
c. floppy disk
d. data cartridge

111. What type of devices are CDs or DVDs ?

a. Input
b. Output
c. Software

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d. Storage

112. What is the storage capacity of a DVD?

a. 700 MB
b. 500 MB
c. 7000 MB
d. 4.7 GB

113. A tape drive offers..................access to data.

a. Random
b. Sporadic
c. Sequential
d. None of these

114. The basic principle of floppy disks involve

a. magnetic data reading
b. magnetic data recording
c. magnetic data recording and reading
d. none of the mentioned

115. In floppy disk, the small hole that enables the drive to identify the beginning of a
track and its first sector is
a. inner hole
b. key hole
c. index hole
d. start hole

116. Inside its jacket, the floppy media is rotated at the speed of
a. 200 RPM
b. 300 RPM
c. 150 RPM
d. 50 RPM

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117. The Double Density Double Sided disks on each side are organized with
a. 20 tracks
b. 30 tracks
c. 40 tracks
d. 50 tracks

118. For reading the disks DVD uses

a. blue laser
b. white laser
c. red laser
d. green laser

119. For reading the disks, the blue ray disk uses
a. high frequency red laser
b. low frequency red laser
c. high frequency blue laser
d. low frequency blue laser

120. A blue ray disk can store data upto per layer.
a. 25 KB
b. 25 MB
c. 25 TB
d. 25 GB

121. DVDRW is for

a. read-write DVD
b. rewriteable DVD
c. recordable DVD
d. none of the mentioned

122. The HDD is also called as

a. hard disk

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b. hard drive
c. fixed disk
d. all of the mentioned

123. The most commonly used input device is

a. Mouse
b. Keyboard
c. Scanner
d. Printer

124. Which keys allows user to enter frequently used operations in a single key stroke?
a. Function keys
b. Cursor control keys
c. Trackball
d. Control keys

125. The device which is used to position the screen cursor is

a. Mouse
b. Joystick
c. Data glove
d. Both a and c

126. is used for detecting mouse motion.

a. Optical sensor
b. Rollers on the bottom of mouse
c. Both a and b
d. Sensor

127. Trackball is
a. Two-dimensional positioning device
b. Three- dimensional positioning device
c. Pointing device

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d. None of the mentioned

128. Which is the ball that can be rotated with the fingers or palm of the hand?
a. Space ball
b. Trackball
c. Only a
d. Both b and c

129. Which is the most common computer keyboard layout?

a. QWERTY
b. JCUKEN
c. Devorak
d. Colemark

130. QWERTY keyboard layout was originally designed

a. To improve the typing speed
b. To make typing more efficient
c. To make typing harder and inefficient
d. To improve the typing accuracy

131. Which of the following describes the types of keyboards?

a. QWERTY, Devorak, Colemark, JCUKEN
b. XT, AT, Enhanced, Windows
c. Both of above
d. None of the above

132. Which of the following keyboard have 83 keys?

a. XT keyboards
b. AT keyboards
c. Enhanced keyboards
d. Windows keyboards

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133. Which of the following type of keyboard introduced the SysRq (System Request)
key?
a. XT keyboards
b. AT keyboards
c. Enhanced keyboards
d. Windows keyboards

134. Which type of computer keyboard contain 101 to 106 keys?

a. XT keyboards
b. AT keyboards
c. Enhanced keyboards
d. Windows keyboards

135. Which key was added in Windows keyboard?

a. SysRq
b. CapsLock
c. Menu key
d. None of above

136. The most common input device to control the movement of the cursor on the screen?
a. Arrow keys
b. Mouse
c. Joy Stick
d. Plotter

137. Which of the following type of mouse contain a ball on its underside and sensors to
detect direction of ball movement?
a. Mechanical Mouse
b. Opto-mechanical mouse
c. Optical mouse
d. None of above

138. What is the difference between mechanical mouse and opto-mechanical mouse?

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a. Mechanical mouse is connected with wire but opto-mechanical mouse are

wireless.
b. Mechanical mouse has a ball on its underside but opto-mechanical don’t have.
c. Mechanical mouse has only 2 buttons while opto-mechanical mouse have 3
buttons.
d. All of the above

139. Cordless mouse or wireless mouse connects to the computer through

a. Infrared Light
b. Radio wave
c. Both of above
d. .None of above

140. What is the device that captures images from photographic prints for computer editing
and display?
a. Scanner
b. Printer
c. Camera
d. All of the above

141. Which of the following is not a type of scanner?

a. Hand held scanner
b. Feed-in scanner
c. Flatbed scanner
d. None of above

142. Which of the following is a scanning technology?

a. OCR
b. OMR
c. BCR
d. All of the above

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143. The scanning technology that allows to read the check boxes affixed in predefined
space is
a. OCR
b. OMR
c. BCR
d. All of the above

144. We use following scanner to recognize the printed and typed texts
a. OCR
b. OMR
c. BCR
d. All of the above

145. What are the two types of paper feeder mechanisms?

a. Continuous tractor feed
b. Continuous form feed
c. Friction feed
d. Injected

146. What type of printer is most likely to use a continuous form feeder?
a. Laser printer
b. Inkjet
c. Dot-matrix
d. USB

147. Which of the following devices are most likely to use a friction-feed mechanism to
load the paper into the print assembly?
a. Laser printers
b. Fax machines
c. Dot-matrix printers
d. A printer that prints hundreds of payroll checks

148. What is another name for a laser printer?

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a. Photoelectric printer
b. Page printer
c. CYMK printer
d. Platen driver

149. Which of the following devices gives the paper a positive charge?
a. The laser
b. The print drum
c. The registration rollers
d. The transfer corona wire

150. Why is the print drum given a negative charge?

a. To attract the toner to every area of the drum
b. To attract the toner to the areas of the drum that have a stronger negative charge
c. To attract the toner to the areas of the drum that have a weaker negative charge
d. To attract the positively charged paper to the print drum

151. Why are both the developer drum and the print drum charged with –600Vdc?
a. So the paper is attracted to neither
b. So the toner is attracted to neither
c. So the toner creates a fusion cloud between the two rollers and the paper
d. So the toner is attracted only to weakly charged areas of the print drum

152. At what voltage is the paper charged?

a. +600Vdc
b. –600Vdc
c. –100Vdc
d. +100Vdc

153. What prevents the paper from rolling into the print assembly with the print drum?
a. The registration rollers
b. The static eliminator strip

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c. The fuser
d. The electrical charge on the paper and the print drum

154. What best describes how an inkjet printer prints an image?

a. One dot at a time to form a character
b. Spray-painting a character
c. Striking an inked ribbon
d. Dropping ink onto the paper

155. What causes the ink to vaporize in an inkjet printer?

a. Electrical pulses
b. A heating element within the ink cartridge
c. A solenoid in each chamber of the ink cartridge
d. Drying of the ink when the cartridge has not been used for some time

156. What is another name for a dot-matrix printer?

a. Impact printer
b. Page printer
c. Spray printer
d. USB

157. How many pins were in the early dot-matrix print heads?
a. 9
b. 12
c. 18
d. 44

158. What connection type allows a printer to connect to an RJ-45 connector?

a. Parallel
b. SCSI
c. USB
d. Network

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159. How fast is a USB port?

a. 10Mbps
b. 12Mbps
c. 75Mbps
d. 100Mbps

160. The output shown on the computer monitor is called

a. VDU
b. Hard Copy
c. Soft Copy
d. Screen Copy

161. Electron gun section

a. provides sharp beam
b. provides poorly focussed beam
c. doesn’t provide any beam
d. provides electrons only

162. Control grid is given

a. positive voltage
b. negative voltage
c. neutral voltage
d. zero voltage

163. What determines light intensity in a CRT?

a. Voltage
b. Current
c. momentum of electrons
d. fluorescent screen

164. Effect of negative voltage to the grid is

a. no force

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b. a gravitational force
c. an attractive force
d. a repulsive force

165. Electron beam diverges.

a. True
b. False

166. Focusing and accelerating anodes are

a. Rectangular
b. Cylindrical
c. Spherical
d. square

167. Deflection system of a CRT consists of

a. 4 plates
b. 6 plates
c. 2 plates
d. 8 plates

168. Who among the following developed the CRT (Cathode Ray Tube)?
a. Charles Darwin
b. Ferdinand Barun
c. Thomas Alva Edison
d. None of the above

169. The inside of the Cathode Ray Tube is coated with what material?
a. Fluorescent powder
b. No coating
c. Phosphorus
d. None of the above

170. Which among the following is not merit (advantage) of the Cathode Ray Tube?

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a. It runs at highest pixel ratio

b. It is less expensive than any other display technology
c. It is very large, heavy and bulgy
d. None of the above

171. Which of the following options is correct in accordance with the cathode ray tube?
a. CRTs are brighter than LCDs.
b. CRTs can operate at any resolution and at any aspect ratio.
c. CRTs are the most expensive display device till current date.
d. None of the above

172. Which among the following is a part of the Cathode Ray Tube?
a. Control Electrode
b. Electron Gun
c. Focusing System
d. All of the Above

173. Rays emitted by cathode ray tube are

a. Light
b. Radiations
c. Signals
d. Electrons

174. In computer terminology, CRT stands for

a. Cathode Ray Tube
b. Computer Remote Terminal
c. Combat Result Table
d. Computerized regular Thermography

175. LCD monitors often have a smaller refresh rate than

a. CRT monitors
b. Grayscale monitors

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c. Monochrome monitors
d. Plasma displays

176. Video graphics array standard is

a. 640 x 480 pixels
b. 670 x 580 pixels
c. 1280 x 1024 pixels
d. 800 x 600 pixels

177. We can align the electron guns with the help of

a. Shadow mask
b. Resolution
c. Pixel
d. Refresh

178. Which devices provides positional information to the graphics system?

a. Input devices
b. Output devices
c. Pointing devices
d. Both a and c

179. The number of pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system is known as
a. Resolution
b. Depth
c. Resolution
d. Only a

180. In graphical system, the array of pixels in the picture are stored in
a. Memory
b. Frame buffer
c. Processor
d. All of the mentioned

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181. Heat supplied to the cathode by directing a current through a coil of wire is called
a. Electron gun
b. Electron beam
c. Filament
d. Anode and cathode

182. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap on a CRT is
referred as
a. Picture
b. Resolution
c. Persistence
d. Neither b nor c

183. stores the picture information as a charge distribution behind the phosphor-
coated screen.
a. Cathode ray tube
b. Direct-view storage tube
c. Flat panel displays
d. 3D viewing device

184. The devices which converts the electrical energy into light is called
a. Liquid-crystal displays
b. Non-emitters
c. Plasma panels
d. Emitters

185. In which system, the Shadow mask methods are commonly used
a. Raster-scan system
b. Random-scan system
c. Only b
d. Both a and b

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186. The process of digitizing a given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity for
storage in the frame buffer is called
a. Rasterization
b. Encoding
c. Scan conversion
d. True color system

187. Which display devices allows us to walk around an object and view it from different
sides.
a. Direct view storage tubes
b. Three-dimensional devices
c. Flat panel display devices
d. Plasma panel display devices

188. In LCD, the refresh rate of the screen is

a. 60 frames/sec
b. 80 frames/sec
c. 30 frames/sec
d. 100 frames/sec

189. Random-scan system mainly designed for

a. Realistic shaded screen
b. Fog effect
c. Line-drawing applications
d. Only b

190. The primary output device in a graphics system is_

a. Scanner
b. Video monitor
c. Neither a nor b
d. Printer

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191. On a black and white system with one bit per pixel, the frame buffer is commonly
called as
a. Pix map
b. Multi map
c. Bitmap
d. All of the mentioned

192. Aspect ratio means

a. Number of pixels
b. Ratio of vertical points to horizontal points
c. Ratio of horizontal points to vertical points
d. Both b and c

193. Active matrix display is based on technology which uses

a. thin-film transistor
b. Mirror
c. digital light
d. CRT

194. Refresh rate is measured in

a. Mbps
b. Hertz
c. kilo hertz
d. mega hertz

195. Dot pitch is measured as a fraction of

a. Mm
b. Km
c. Mg
d. hz

196. Type of monitor which is common in desktop computers is

a. Cathod ray tube

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b. Flat panel
c. Monochrome
d. projector

197. Monitor use various intensities of colors to generate the rainbow, these colors are in
number
a. 16 million
b. 3
c. 4
d. 16

198. Sequencing and display of a set of images to create a visual change effect is called
a. Computer animations
b. Computer graphics
c. Computer videography
d. Computer image terminals

199. Each image used in sequences by videos is said to be

a. Entity
b. Instance
c. Frame
d. Block

200. Animation is used in instances, when there is no possibility of

a. Audiography
b. Videography
c. Graphics
d. Multimedia

201. Smallest size object that can be displayed on a monitor is called .....................
a. Picture element
b. Point

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c. Dot Pitch
d. aspect ratio

202. Each screen point is referred to as .........................

a. Resolution
b. Pixel
c. Persistence
d. Dot Pitch

203. On a color monitor, the refresh buffer is also called .....................

a. Frame buffer
b. Pixmap
c. Bitmap
d. Display file

204....................refers to pixel spacing.

a. Pixmap
b. Resolution
c. Pixel depth
d. Persistence

205. The distance from one pixel to the next pixel is called ...........
a. Resolution
b. Dot Pitch
c. Pixmap
d. ppi

206...................... is the ratio of horizontal points to vertical points necessary to produce

equal length lines in both direction.
a. Dot Pitch
b. Resolution
c. Aspect Ratio

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d. Height-Width Ratio

207. The shortest distance between any two dots of the same color is called ...................
a. Resolution
b. Dot Pitch
c. Pixel Depth
d. ppi

208. The standard aspect ratio for PC is .................

a. 6:5
b. 4:3
c. 3:2
d. 5:3

209. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using .................

a. Accelerating anode
b. Control grid
c. Electron gun
d. Focusing anode

210. Brightness of a display is controlled by varying the voltage on the ......................

a. Focusing anode
b. Connection pins
c. Control grid
d. Power supply

211. Lower persistence phosphorus is used in

a. Animation
b. Simple object
c. Complex object
d. All of these

212. Lower persistence phosphorus needs refresh rate

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a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Medium
d. None of these

213. Higher persistence phosphorus needs refresh rate

a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Medium
d. None of these

214. Memory area holding the intensity information of an image is called ..............
a. Refresh buffer
b. Font cache
c. Picture definition
d. Video controller

215. Intensity representation of an image is called ......................

a. Frame buffer
b. Picture definition
c. Display list
d. Brightness

216. The purpose of refreshing a CRT is ..........................

a. To avoid flickering
b. To maintain steady picture
c. To avoid fading of pixels
d. All of the above

217. Shadow mask method is usually used in ...............................

a. LCD
b. Raster Scan display

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c. Random scan display

d. DVST

218. Identify the colors produced in beam penetration method.

a. Red, Green, Blue, White
b. Red, Orange, Yellow, Green
c. Red, Green, Blue
d. Green, Red, White, Orange

219. Identify the features of Vector display

a. High resolution, Jagged lines, Lack in color depth
b. Smooth lines, Poor resolution, Black & White
c. High resolution, Lack in color depth, Smooth lines
d. Inexpensive, monochromatic, smooth lines

220. Identify different type of computer graphics

a. Monochrome and Color
b. CRT and Flat panel
c. Vector an Raster
d. Monitors and Hardcopy devices

221.Video devices with reduced volume, weight and power consumption are collectively
known as .........
a. Light weight monitors
b. Flat-panel displays
c. CRT
d. Portable display

222......................is responsible for accessing the frame buffer to refresh the screen.
a. Graphics package
b. Video controller
c. CPU

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d. Monitor

223. Identify impact printer from the following

a. Drum Plotter
b. Inkjet printer
c. Electrostatic printer
d. Dot-matrix printer

224. Write an example for non-impact printer

a. Drum plotter
b. Electrostatic printer
c. Laser printer
d. All of the above

225. Identify the odd one out.

a. Mouse
b. Keyboard
c. Trackball
d. Space ball

226. The..................simply reads each successive byte of data from the frame buffer.
a. Digital Controller
b. Data Controller
c. Display Controller
d. All of above

227. The refresh rate below which a picture flicker is ................

a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 60

228............used to regulate the flow of elections in CRT ?

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a. Electron gun
b. Focusing anode
c. Control grid
d. All of the above

229. The amount of light emitted by the phosphor coating depends on the?
a. Number of electrons striking the screen
b. Speed of electrons striking the screen
c. Distance from the cathode to the screen
d. None of above

230. Gray scale is used in ............................

a. A Monitor that have color capability
b. A Monitor that have no color capability
c. Random scan display
d. Raster scan display

231. A wireless mouse works on

a. Infra blue radiation
b. Infra Red radiation
c. X-rays
d. UV rays

232. Two dimensional color model are

a. RGB and CMKY
b. RBG and CYMK
c. RGB and CMYK
d. None

233. The LCD digital display that is based on

a. Radiation of light
b. Reflection of light

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c. Emission of light
d. Transmission of light

234. The typical value of thickness of liquid layer of LCD's is.......mm

a. 0.22
b. 0.2
c. 0.025
d. 0.035

235. Which of the following liquid crystal layers are used in LCD's
a. Heavy water
b. Nematic
c. Hydrosulphuric acid
d. Hydrochloric acid

236. The contrast of liquid crystal display (LCD)

a. Will increase if the back plate is more reflective
b. Will decrease if the back plate is more reflective
c. Will increase if the back plate is less reflective
d. Will decrease if the back plate is less reflective

237. Which of the following consumes less power?

a. Incandescent lamp
b. LCD
c. Fluorescent tube
d. LED

238. The full form of LCD is

a. Liquid Crystal Display
b. Liquid Crystalline Display
c. Logical Crystal Display
d. Logical Crystalline Display

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239. The optical properties of liquid crystals depend on the direction of

a. Air
b. Solid
c. Light
d. Water

240.By which properties, the orientation of molecules in a layer of liquid crystals can be
changed?
a. Magnetic field
b. Electric field
c. Electromagnetic field
d. Gallois field

241. Electro-optical effect is produced in

a. LED
b. LCD
c. OFC
d. OLED

242. The direction of electric field in an LCD is determined by

a. the molecule’s chemical structure
b. Crystalline surface structure
c. Molecular Orbital Theory
d. Quantum Cellular Automata

243. The first LCDs became commercially available in

a. 1950s
b. 1980s
c. 1960s
d. 1970s

244. LCDs operate from a voltage ranges from

a. 3 to 15V

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b. 10 to 15V
c. 10V
d. 5V

245. LCDs operate from a frequency ranges from

a. 10Hz to 60Hz
b. 50Hz to 70Hz
c. 30Hz to 60Hz
d. None of the Mentioned

246. In 7 segment display, how many LEDs are used?

a. 8
b. 7
c. 10
d. 9

247. What is backplane in LCD?

a. The ac voltage applied between segment and a common element
b. The dc voltage applied between segment and a common element
c. The amount of power consumed
d. For adjusting the intensity of the LCD

248. Firmware is
a. Hardware
b. Combination of hardware and software
c. Software
d. Type of Computer

249. For Display Device Which Type of Port is Used?

a. Modem
b. PS2
c. USB

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d. Firewire

250. Full Form of RISC

a. Reduce Instruction Set Computational
b. Reduce Instruction Set Computing
c. Rename Instruction Set Computing
d. Reduce Instruction Service Computing

251. Full Form of CISC

a. Complex Instruction Set Computing
b. Computing Instruction Set Computing
c. Complex Instruction Service Computing
d. Complex Instruction Set computational

252. Full Form of BIOS

a. Basic Input Output System
b. Binary Input Output System
c. Binary Integrated Output system
d. Basic Input Output Synchonization

253................................typically implements the slower capabilities of the motherboard in a

North Bridge/South Bridge chipset computer architecture.
a. North Bridge
b. South Bridge
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

254. In IBM PC which processor is used?

a. Intel 8028
b. Intel 8026
c. Intel 8088
d. Intel 8025

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255. In Second Generation Memory of ................

a. Transistors and Magnetic Tape
b. Magnetic Tape and Punch Card
c. Vacuum Tube and Transistors
d. Vacuum Tube and Silicon Chips

256. Full Form of MCA

a. Micro Channel Arrangment
b. Minimum Channel Access
c. Micro Channel Architecture
d. Maximum Channel Access

257. SLDRAM?
a. Synchronous Link Dynamic Random Advance Memory
b. Sequence Link Dynamic Random Access Memory
c. Synchronous Link Dynamic Random Access Memory
d. Synchronous Linear Dynamic Random Access Memory

258. Full Form of PCI

a. Peripheral Component Interconnect
b. Peripheral Component Interconnection
c. Personal Component Interconnect
d. Peripheral Computer Interconnect

259. Which Bridge Directly connected with CPU?

a. South Bridge
b. North Bridge
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

260. Which Bridge handle communications among the CPU?

a. South Bridge

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b. North Bridge
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

261. ......................is occures when the machine is rebooted using {Ctrl} + {Alt} +
{Delete}
a. Cold Boot
b. POST
c. Warm Boot
d. All of the above

262. The first thing that the BI0S do when it boots the pc is
a. Booting
b. POST
c. Start
d. Execution

263..................is a memory chip on which data can be written only once.

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. EPROM
d. PROM

264. In Third Generation Memory of ................

a. Transistors
b. Magnetic Tape
c. Vacuum Tube
d. Silicon Chips

265.When PC is turned off the contents of memory are lost. This functionality is of which
type of memory
a. Non Volatile
b. ROM

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c. Hard Disk
d. Volatile

266. In Which Type of motherboard assemblies are not mounted on the motherboard
a. Integrated Motherboard
b. Non - Integrated Motherboard
c. Embedded Motherboard
d. None of the above

267. Which are not an example of the First Generation of Computer System
a. Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer (ENIAC)
b. Large Scale Integrated Circuits (LSIC)
c. Electronic Delay Storage Automatic Computer (EDSAC)
d. Universal Automatic Computer (UNIVAC)

268.To process very large amounts of information which type of computer system is used?
a. Super computers
b. Mobile Computer
c. Personal Computers
d. Work Station Computer

269. Which part is an optional in the motherboard

a. Processor
b. Co Processor
c. Memory
d. Clock

270. Full Form of ISA

a. Industry Standard Architecture
b. Industry Standard Access
c. Instrumental Standard Architecture

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d. Industry Sitting Architecture

271. Full Form of MCA

a. Micro Channel Arrangment
b. Minimum Channel Access
c. Micro Channel Architecture
d. Maximum Channel Access

272. Computer Chip Made up of

a. Transistors
b. Silicon Chips
c. Vacuum Tube
d. Magnetic Tape

273. For Networking Purpose Which Type of Computer is mostly used?

a. Super computers
b. Personal Computers
c. Work Station Computer
d. Mainframes Computers

274. Which Processor Emphasis on hardware?

a. RISC
b. CISC
c. Both
d. None of the above

275. Find Out InCorrect General Faults from Below List.

a. The CPU has lost control
b. The program is getting aborted without any reason or message
c. Keyboard not gives any response
d. Pen Drive Lost.

276. Full-Form of RAM

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a. Read Access Memory

b. Random Access Memory
c. Revised And Memory
d. Rough And Memory

277. From Below List Which is not a Port:

a. Modem
b. DVI
c. VGA
d. Singal

278. To get the attention of microprocessor which device is used? *

a. DMA Controller
b. Memory
c. Clock Logic
d. Interrupt Controller

279. Full Form of EDO DRAM

a. Extended Data Out Dynamic Random Access Memory
b. Executable Data Out Dynamic Random Access Memory
c. Extended Data Out Dynamic Random Access Management
d. Extended Data Out Dynamic Round Access Memory

280. Full Form of FPM DRAM

a. First Page Mode Dynamic Random Access Memory
b. Fast Page Mode Dynamic Random Access Memory
c. Fast Page Mode Dynamic Random Access Module
d. Fast Page Mode Divide Random Access Memory

281. Full Form of DRDRAM

a. Dynamic Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory
b. Direct Rambus Dynamic Random Access Management

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c. Direct Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory

d. Direct Rambus Dynamic Rigid Access Memory

282. Full Form of DDR SDRAM

a. Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
b. Dynamic Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
c. Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Module
d. Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Management

283. Full Form of RAM

a. Round Access Memory
b. Random Access Memory
c. Rigid Advance Memory
d. Random Advantage Memory

284. Full Form of DIMM

a. Dual Inline Memory Module
b. Dual Intelligent Memory Module
c. Dynamic Inline Memory Module
d. Digital Inline Memory Module

285. Full Form of SIMM

a. Sound Inline Memory Module
b. Single Inline Memory Module
c. Single Intelligent Memory Module
d. System Inline Memory Module

286. Full Form of SIPP

a. Single Inline Pinned Package
b. System Inline Pinned Package
c. Single Inline Pinned Parcel
d. Single Intelligent Pinned Package

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287. Full Form of DIP

a. Dual Inline Power
b. Dual Inline Package
c. Double Inline Package
d. Dual Intelligent Package

288. Full Form of EEPROM

a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
b. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Module
c. Electrically Erasable Print Read-Only Memory
d. Electrically Editable Programmable Read-Only Memory

289. This memory approaches assume that the addresses don't change.
a. Static Memory
b. Dynamic Memory
c. ROM
d. RAM

290. These memory approaches assume that the addresses can change.
a. Static Memory
b. Dynamic Memory
c. ROM
d. RAM

291. From below which is not BIOS Function

a. BIOS power-On Self Test (POST)
b. System Boot Sequence
c. BIOS Startup Screen
d. Cold Boot

292. From Below which is BIOS Component?

a. BIOS ROM

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b. BIOS CMOS
c. Both
d. None of the above

293. Full Form of USB

a. Universal Serial BUS
b. Ultra Serial Bus
c. Universal Several Bus
d. None of the above

294. What is another name of IEEE 1394 FireWire High-Performance Serial Interface?
a. FireWire
b. USB
c. VESA
d. PCI

295. Full Form of AGP

a. Access Graphics Port
b. Accelerated Graphics Port
c. Advantage Group Port
d. None of the above

296. Full Form of VESA

a. Video Electronics Standards Advantage
b. Video Electronics System Association
c. Video Electronics Standards Association
d. None of the above

297. Full Form of EISA

a. Extended Industry Standard Architecture
b. Extended Industry Standard Argument
c. Extended Input Standard Architecture

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d. None of the above

298. Who Developed EISA Bus?

a. Compaq
b. Intel
c. IBM
d. None of the above

299. how many bits of information can be sent across each wire per second is called
a. Bus Width
b. Bus Speed
c. Bus Mastering
d. None of the above

300. Full Form of MCA

a. Micro Channel Architecture
b. Mini Channel Architecture
c. Maximum Channel Architecture
d. None of the above

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