JET CHARACTERISTICS

Gas Turbines
1. When gases pass through a convergent duct their:
a. velocity and temperature increase and their pressure decreases
b. their velocity increases and their temperature and pressure decrease
c. their velocity decreases and their temperature and pressure increase
d. they expand adiabatically
2. Select the correct order of best propulsive efficiency, from low to high
airspeed.
a. High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet, turbojet,
Turboprop
b. Low bypass ratio turbojet, turbojet, Turboprop, High bypass ratio
turbojet
c. turbojet, Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio
turbojet
d. Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet,
turbojet
3. The highest pressure in a gas turbine engine occurs:
a. between the compressor and the combustion chamber
b. in the combustion chamber
c. in the jet pipe
d. at the P1 probe
4. In a turbofan engine, the fan speed is controlled by:
a. a reduction gear
b. a wastegate
c. the turbine
d. varying the pitch
5. In a High Bypass Ratio engine:
a. all of the air goes through both the low and high pressure compressors
b. not all the air goes through the high pressure compressor
c. not all the air goes through the low pressure compressor
d. all the air goes through the high pressure compressor
6. The Bypass Ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
a. primary air to tertiary air
b. cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine
c. exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure
d. primary air to secondary air

7. The Gas Turbine Engine uses the principle of:

a. Newton’s Third Law of motion
b. creating thrust equal to the weight of the aircraft
c. expelling air at the same speed as that of the aircraft
d. the fluid flywheel

8. The addition of heat in a combustion chamber allows a:

a. large expansion at a substantially constant pressure
b. large expansion at a constant volume
c. large expansion at a decreasing static pressure
d. minimum expansion at a constant volume

9. In a divergent duct:
a. the pressure decreases and the temperature and velocity increases
b. the pressure, velocity and temperature increases
c. the pressure temperature increases and the velocity decreases
d. the pressure decreases, the temperature increases and the velocity remains constant

10. In a twin spool engine:

a. the LP compressor is connected to the HP compressor
b. the HP turbine is connected to the LP compressor, the LP turbine is connected to the HP
compressor
c. the LP turbine is connected to the LP compressor, the HP turbine is connected to the HP
compressor
d. the HP turbine is connected to the LP turbine, the HP compressor is connected to the LP
compressor

11. A Bypass Ratio of 5:1 means that:

a. 5 pounds of air is bypassed for every 10 pounds entering the engine intake
b. 5 pounds of goes through the HP compressor for every 10 pounds that enters the intake
c. 10 pounds of air goes through the bypass for every 5 pounds that enters the intake
d. 5 pounds of air is bypassed for every 1 pound that goes through the hot core of the engine

12. Aft of the compressor:

a. the velocity of the airflow remains the same
b. the velocity of the airflow decreases before the combustion chamber
c. the velocity increases before the combustion chamber
d. the air pressure decreases before the combustion chamber

13. The fan in a ducted fan engine, is driven by:

a. the high pressure turbine
b. the rearmost turbine
c. the intermediate pressure turbine
d. all of the above

14. In a bypass engine, the bypass air:

a. increases the air mass flow and therefore increases the propulsive efficiency
b. cools the combustion chamber and therefore increases the thermal efficiency
c. reduces the air mass flow and therefore increases the propulsive efficiency
d. increases the air mass flow and therefore reduces the propulsive efficiency

15. The majority of the thrust of a:

a. turbofan engine comes from the turbine exhaust
b. turboprop engine comes from the turbine exhaust
c. turboshaft engine comes from the free power turbine exhaust
d. turbofan engine comes from the bypass air

16. A pure turbojet engine gives:

a. a small acceleration to a large mass of air
b. a large acceleration to a large mass of air
c. a small acceleration to a small mass of air
d. a large acceleration to a small mass of air

17. The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor is:

a. equal to the number of compression stages
b. the ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure
c. the ratio between exhaust inlet and exhaust outlet pressure
d. never greater than 5 to 1

18. One stage of an axial flow compressor consists of:

a. one rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes
b. one stator assembly and one row of guide vanes
c. one rotor and one impeller assembly
d. one impeller and one diffuser assembly
19. As air passes through an axial flow compressor, a pressure rise takes place in:
a. the impeller and the diffuser
b. the rotor blades only
c. both the rotor blades and the stator vanes
d. the stator vanes only

20. The major disadvantage of a centrifugal compressor is that:

a. it cannot cope with a large mass flow of air
b. it cannot be used for a turbo jet engine
c. a larger turbine must be used
d. it is more prone to damage than the axial flow compressor

21. The type of compressor used to create radial airflow would be:
a. positive displacement
b. axial
c. centrifugal
d. constant volume

22. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is that it is:

a. dynamically balanced
b. more robust and is easier to manufacture
c. unaffected by turbulence
d. able to handle a larger mass of air than an axial flow compressor

23. Within the compressor:

a. bleed valves are set to open at high rpm
b. pressure decreases
c. temperature decreases
d. temperature increases

24. Compressor blades are twisted from root to tip:

a. to decrease the pressure
b. to maintain a correct angle of attack
c. to reduce the relative airflow
d. to give added rigidity to the blade structure

25. In a compressor:
a. the air temperature is steady with a pressure rise
b. the air temperature falls with a pressure rise
c. the drop in air temperature is inversely proportional to the pressure rise
d. the air temperature rises with a pressure rise

26. The low pressure compressor of a high ratio bypass engine:

a. is driven by the high pressure turbine
b. rotates faster than the high-pressure compressor
c. is always a centrifugal compressor
d. is driven by the rearmost turbine

27. One advantage of an annular combustion chamber system is that:

a. the diameter of the engine is reduced
b. there is unrestricted airflow at maximum rpm
c. there are no flame propagation problems
d. the air casing area is greater

28. Of the total airflow entering the combustion chamber the percentage that is mixed with the
fuel and burnt is:
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 60%

29.The effect on the temperature and pressure of the gases as they pass across the turbine:
a. their temperature decreases and their pressure rises.
b. both their temperature and pressure increase.
c. both their temperature and pressure decrease.
d. their temperature increases and their pressure falls.

30. Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before the turbine:

a. to increase the velocity of the airflow.
b. to decrease the velocity of the gas flow therefore increasing its pressure.
c. to increase the velocity of the gas flow therefore reducing its pressure.
d. to increase the temperature of the gas flow.

31. One reason for shrouding turbine blades is:

a. to reduce “creep” which may occur in the blades.
b. to improve efficiency and reduce vibration.
c. to enable thinner blades to be used.
d. to minimize blade end erosion.
32. A free power turbine:
a. has a clutch between the compressor and the power output shaft.
b. has no mechanical connection with the other turbine or compressor shafts.
c. has a direct drive with a free wheel unit.
d. comes free with every 2000 gallons of AVTUR

33. The propelling nozzle is designed to:

a. increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream
b. decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream
c. to increase the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream
d. to decrease the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream

34. In a gas turbine engine:

a. ram pressure is maximum at the start of the take-off run
b. ram pressure is unaffected by airspeed
c. thrust is unaffected by the aircraft’s forward speed
d. thrust is maximum and ram pressure at minimum at the start of the take-off run

35. As temperature ................... air density............. and the mass of air for given engine
speed ............ therefore thrust ..................... To maintain the compressor speed however

. decreases decreases increases increases less slow down

b. increases decreases decreases increases more slow down
c. decreases increases increases increases more slow down
d. increases decreases increases decreases less speed up

36. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust lever must be:
a. pulled back to idle power.
b. positioned to reverse minimum power.
c. put back to the reverser deploy position.
d. positioned to reverse maximum power.

37. Which of the following statements would be more correct with regard to an APU?
a. APUs provide emergency hydraulics power for the brakes only
b. APUs provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground use only
c. APUs provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for air use only and can provide an
amount of thrust
d. APUs provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground and air use and can
provide an amount of thrust
 High Speed Flight
1.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the
wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?
a. A severe nose-down pitching moment or “tuck under”.
b. A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up.
c. Severe porpoising.
d. Pitch-up.

2. Mach number is:

a. the ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at sea level.
b. the ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
c. the ratio of the aircraft’s IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric
conditions.
d. the speed of sound.

3. For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS the Mach number will:

a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain constant.
d. initially show an increase, then decrease.

4. The term ‘transonic speed’ for an aircraft means:

a. speeds where the airflow is completely subsonic.
b. speeds where the airflow is completely supersonic.
c. speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly supersonic.
d. speeds between M 0.4 and M 1.0

5. As air flows through a shock wave:

a. static pressure increases, density decreases, temperature increases.
b. static pressure increases, density increases, temperature increases.
c. static pressure decreases, density increases, temperature decreases.
d. static pressure decreases, density decreases, temperature decreases.

6. For a wing section of given thickness, the critical Mach number:

a. will decrease if angle of attack is increased.
b. will increase if angle of attack is increased.
c. will not change with changes of angle of attack.
d. is only influenced by changes in temperature.
7. At speeds above the critical Mach number, the lift coefficient:
a. will start to increase.
b. will start to decrease.
c. will remain constant.
d. is directly proportional to the Mach number.

8. As air flows through a shock wave:

a. its speed increases.
b. its speed decreases.
c. its speed remains the same.
d. it changes direction to flow parallel with the Mach cone.

9. If an aeroplane accelerates above the critical Mach number, the first high Mach
number characteristic it will usually experience is:
a. a nose-up pitch or “Shock Stall”.
b. a violent and sustained oscillation in pitch (porpoising).
c. Dutch roll and/or spiral instability.
d. a nose-down pitching moment (Mach, or high speed tuck).

10. High speed buffet is caused by:

a. the shock waves striking the tail.
b. the high speed airflow striking the leading edge of the wing.
c. wing flutter caused by the interaction of the bottom and top surface shock waves.
d. the airflow being detached by the shock wave and the turbulent flow striking the tail.

11.An all moving tailplane is used in preference to elevators on high speed aircraft:
a. because the effect of the elevator is reversed above the critical Mach number.
b. because shock wave formation on the elevator causes excessive stick forces.
c. because shock wave formation ahead of the elevator causes separation and loss of elevator
effectiveness.
d. because it would be physically impossible for a pilot to control the aircraft in pitch with a
conventional tailplane and elevator configuration.

12. Mach Trim is a device which:

a. moves the centre of gravity to maintain stable lateral stick forces in the
transonic region.
b. automatically compensates for pitch changes while flying in the transonic
speed region.
c. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach number.
d. switches out the trim control to prevent damage in the transonic region.

13. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the wing tips of a sweptwing
aeroplane are shock-stalled first?
a. Outward and forward.
b. Inward and aft.
c. Outward and aft.
d. Inward and forward.

14. The airflow behind a normal shock wave will:

a. always be subsonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
b. always be supersonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
c. may be subsonic or supersonic.
d. always be subsonic and will be deflected from the direction of the original
airflow.

15. The temperature of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave:

a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. is inversely proportional to the square root of the Mach number.
d. remains the same.

16. What is the effect of a shock wave on control surface efficiency?

a. Increase in efficiency, due to increased velocity.
b. Increase in efficiency, due to the extra leverage caused by the shock wave.
c. Decrease in efficiency, due to the bow wave.
d. Loss of efficiency, due to control deflection no longer modifying the total flow
over the wing.

17. If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed (Va):

a. it is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high ‘g’
manoeuvres.
b. it is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent
increases in incidence, i.e. when using excessive stick force to
pull-out of a dive.
c. it is not possible to exceed the limit load.
d. it is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load at high
TAS.
18. The speed VNE is:
a. the airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.
b. the maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out.
c. the maximum airspeed at which an aircraft may be flown.
d. the maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.

19. Maximum structural cruising speed VNO is the maximum speed at which an aeroplane can
be operated during:
a. normal operations.
b. abrupt manoeuvres.
c. flight in smooth air.
d. flight in rough air.

20. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising speed
because:
a. they are used only when preparing to land.
b. the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher
speeds.
c. flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
d. too much drag is induced.

21. Why is VLE greater than V LO on the majority of large jet transport aircraft?
a. VLO is used when the aircraft is taking off and landing when the IAS is low.
b. Extending the gear at too high an airspeed would cause excessive parasite
drag.
c. Flying at too high an airspeed with the gear down would prevent retraction of
the forward retracting nose gear.
d. VLO is a lower IAS because the undercarriage doors are vulnerable to aerodynamic loads
when the gear is in transit, up or down.

22. Controls are mass balanced in order to:

a. eliminate control flutter.
b. aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls.
c. provide equal control forces on all three controls.
d. return the control surface to neutral when the controls are released.

23. Take-off EPR is being delivered by all engines and the take-off is proceeding normally, the
undercarriage has just retracted. Which initial indications may be observed when a headwind
shears to a downdraught?
a. Indicated Airspeed: constant. Vertical Speed: decreases. Pitch Attitude:
decreases.
b. Indicated Airspeed: increases. Vertical Speed: decreases. Pitch Attitude:
constant.
c. Indicated Airspeed: decreases. Vertical Speed: constant. Pitch Attitude:
constant.
d. Indicated Airspeed: decreases. Vertical Speed: decreases. Pitch Attitude:
decreases.

24. Which windshear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
d. Increasing headwind or tailwind.

High Lift Devices

1. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
d. remain the same.

2. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a. remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
b. increases and CLMAX increases.
c. decreases, but CLMAX increases.
d. decreases, but CLMAX remains the same.

3. With full flap, the maximum lift/drag ratio:

a. increases and the stalling angle increases.
b. decreases and the stalling speed decreases.
c. remains the same and the stalling angle remains the same.
d. remains the same and the stalling angle decreases.

4. When a leading edge slot is opened, the stalling speed will:

a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain the same but will occur at a higher angle of attack.
d. remain the same but will occur at a lower angle of attack.
5. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:
a. increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
b. decreases the angle of descent without increasing power.
c. eliminates floating.
d. permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed.

6. Lowering flaps sometimes produces a pitch moment change due to:

a. decrease of the angle of incidence.
b. movement of the centre of pressure.
c. movement of the centre of gravity.
d. increased angle of attack of the tailplane.

7. Which type of flap would give the greatest change in pitching moment?
a. Split.
b. Plain.
c. Fowler.
d. Plain slotted.

8. If the flaps are lowered in flight, with the airspeed kept constant, to maintain level flight the
angle of attack:
a. must be reduced.
b. must be increased.
c. must be kept constant but power must be increased.
d. must be kept constant and power required will be constant.

9. If flaps are lowered during the take-off run:

a. the lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne.
b. the lift would increase when the flaps are lowered.
c. the lift would decrease.
d. the acceleration would increase.

10. If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be:
a. reduced.
b. increased.
c. the same as for a landing with flaps.
d. the same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.

Captain\ Mohamed Adel Emam