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Selfstudys Com File

This document is a question paper for a Geography theory exam, containing 30 questions divided into five sections, with a total of 70 marks. Candidates are instructed to write the Q.P. Code on the title page and follow specific guidelines regarding the answer format and reading time. The paper includes multiple choice questions, source-based questions, short and long answer questions, and map-based questions.

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zen.yashxx
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© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views

Selfstudys Com File

This document is a question paper for a Geography theory exam, containing 30 questions divided into five sections, with a total of 70 marks. Candidates are instructed to write the Q.P. Code on the title page and follow specific guidelines regarding the answer format and reading time. The paper includes multiple choice questions, source-based questions, short and long answer questions, and map-based questions.

Uploaded by

zen.yashxx
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 41

Series E1GFH/3 Set No.

2
àíZ-nÌ H$moS>
Q.P. Code 64/3/2
Roll No.
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code on
the title page of the answer-book.

^yJmob (g¡ÕmpÝVH$)
GEOGRAPHY (Theory)
:3 : 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

NOTE
(I) (I) Please check that this question paper
21 + 2 contains 21 printed pages + 2 Maps.

(II) (II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side


of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by
the candidate.
(III) (III) Please check that this question paper
30 contains 30 questions.

(IV) (IV) Please write down the serial


number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.

(V) 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to


read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15
10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
10.15 10.30 students will read the question paper
only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.

64/3/2 1 P.T.O. *
:
:
(i) 30
(ii)
(iii) 1 17
(iv) 18 19
(v) 20 23
80 100
(vi) 24 28 120
150
(vii) 29 30

IÊS> H$
17 1 17 17×1=17

1. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z- ?
(a) N>moQ>o n¡_mZo Ho$ CÚmoJ (b) AmYma^yV CÚmoJ
(c) Kaoby CÚmoJ (d) g§`wº$ joÌ Ho$ CÚmoJ

2. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gr EH$ N>moQ>o n¡_mZo Ho$ CÚmoJm| H$s {deofVm h¡ ?


(a) Bg_| gmYmaU e{º$ Mm{bV `§Ìmo§ H$m à`moJ {H$`m OmVm h¡ &
(b) `o AY©-Hw$eb l{_H$m| na {Z^©a ahVo h¢ &
(c)
(d) BZHo$ CËnmXm| H$mo AÝVam©îQ´>r` ~mµOmam| _| ~oMm OmVm h¡ &
3. Hw$Q>ra CÚmoJ Ho$ {df` _| {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gr {deofVm ghr h¡ ?
(a)
(b) ~mha Ho$ ~mµ
(c) BZHo$ Ûmam {Z{_©V dñVwAm| H$m ì`mnm[aH$ _hÎd H$_ hmoVm h¡ &
(d) V¡`ma _mb H$mo Iwbo ~mµOma _| ~oMm OmVm h¡ &

64/3/2 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This questions paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are multiple choice (MCQ) type questions.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are source based questions.
(v) Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer (SA) type questions.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer (LA) type questions.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

SECTION A

There are 17 multiple choice questions in this section (Q. No. 1 17).
All questions are compulsory. 17 1=17

1. Which of the following industries produce raw material for other


industries ?
(a) Small scale industries (b) Basic or key industries
(c) Household industries (d) Joint sector industries

2. Which of the following is not the feature of small scale industries ?


(a) They use simple power driven machines.
(b) They rely on semi-skilled labour.
(c) They obtain raw materials locally.
(d) Their products are sold in international markets.

3. Which one of the following features is correct about cottage industries ?


(a) It is a large manufacturing unit.
(b) Raw material is imported from outside markets.
(c) Goods produced by them have low commercial significance.
(d) Finished products are sold in the open market.

64/3/2 3 P.T.O.
4. n[adhZ {H«$`mH$bmn {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$g EH$ joÌH$ Ho$ AÝVJ©V AmVo h¢ ?
(a) àmW{_H$ (b) {ÛVr`H$
(c) V¥Vr`H$ $ (d) MVwW©H$ $

5. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm V¥Vr`H$ {H«$`mH$bmn h¡ ?


(a) ^moOZ g§J«h (b) AmIoQ>
(c) Mbdmgr newMmaU (d) ì`mnma

6. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm MVwW©H$ {H«$`mH$bmn h¡ ?


(a) (b) bmohm-àJbZ
(c) gm°âQ>do`a {dH${gV H$aZm (d) Q>moH$ar ~ZmZm

7. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm ^y-àXÿfU H$m H$maU h¡ ?


(a) AZwnMm[aV Am¡Úmo{JH$ An{eîQ> H$m {ZnQ>mZ
(b) aH$m| H$m Cn`moJ
(c) AZw{MV _mZd {H«$`mH$bmn
(d) O¡{dH$ H¥${f

8. {ZåZ{b{IV Z{X`m| _| go H$m¡Z-gr gdm©{YH$ àXÿ{fV h¡ ?


(a) H$mogr (b) amdr
(c) Z_©Xm (d) `_wZm
9. ^maV H$m {dXoe ì`mnma, {ZåZ{b{IV _mJm] _| go _w»`V: {H$gHo$ _mÜ`_ go {H$`m OmVm h¡ ?
(a) ñWb Am¡a dm`w _mJm] go (b) ñWb Am¡a g_wÐr _mJm] go
(c) dm`w Am¡a g_wÐr _mJm] go (d) Ho$db g_wÐr _mJ© go
10. ?
(a) BgH$s {demb n¥îR>^y{_ h¡
(b) hþJbr ZXr _| JmX H$m O_Zm
(c) AÝ` nÎmZm| H$s Amoa {Z`m©V H$m {XH²$n[adV©Z
(d) `mÌr dhZ ~hþV H$_

64/3/2 4
4. Transport activities come under which one of the following sectors ?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) Quarternary

5. Which of the following is a tertiary activity ?


(a) Gathering (b) Hunting
(c) Nomadic herding (d) Trading

6. Which of the following is a quarternary activity ?


(a) Catching fish (b) Iron smelting
(c) Software developing (d) Basket making

7. Which of the following is not the cause of land pollution ?


(a) Disposal of untreated industrial waste
(b) Use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers
(c) Improper human activities
(d) Organic farming

8. Which one of the following rivers is highly polluted ?


(a) Kosi (b) Ravi
(c) Narmada (d) Yamuna
9.
routes ?
(a) Land and air routes (b) Land and sea routes
(c) Air and sea routes (d) Only sea routes

10. Why has Kolkata port minimised its significance ?


(a) It has a vast hinterland
(b) Accumulation of silt in Hugli river
(c) Diversion of exports to other ports
(d) Passenger traffic is very low

64/3/2 5 P.T.O.
11. _hmZXr Ho$ S>oëQ>m na {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm g_wÐr nÎmZ pñWV h¡ ?
(a) hpëX`m (b) BÞmoa
(c) nmamXrn (d) {demImnQ²>Z_

12. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go nyd©-npíM_ J{b`mao H$m g~go npíM_ H$m ñQ>oeZ H$m¡Z-gm h¡ ?
(a) H$mobH$mVm (b) JwdmhmQ>r
(c) nmoa~§Xa (d) _w§~B©
13. ^maVr` amîQ´>r` _hm_mJ© àm{YH$aU (EZ.EM.E.AmB©.) Ho$ {df` _| {ZåZ{b{IV _| go
H$m¡Z-gr {deofVm ghr h¡ ?
(a) `h ^yVb n[adhZ _§Ìmb` Ho$ AYrZ EH$ ñdm`Îmemgr {ZH$m` h¡ &
(b) Bgo amîQ´>r` _hm_mJm] H$mo ~ZmZo Am¡a aI-aImd H$m Xm{`Ëd gm¢nm J`m h¡ &
(c)
(d) EZ.EM.E.AmB©. H$m àMmbZ 1995 _| hþAm Wm &
14. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm à_wI àXÿ{fV H$aZo dmbm CÚmoJ h¡ ?
(a) ^moOZ àg§ñH$aU CÚmoJ (b) Hw$Q>ra CÚmoJ
(c) agm`Z CÚmoJ (d) ñdÀN>§X CÚmoJ

15 17
:

B§{Xam Jm±Yr Zha, {Ogo nhbo amOñWmZ Zha Ho$ Zm_ go OmZm OmVm Wm, ^maV _| g~go
1948 _| H±$da goZ Ûmam g§H$pënV `h Zha n[a`moOZm 31 _mM©,
1958 H$mo àma§^ hþB© & `h Zha n§Om~ _| h[aHo$ ~m±Y go {ZH$bVr h¡ Am¡a amOñWmZ Ho$ Wma
_éñWb (_éñWbr) nm{H$ñVmZ gr_m Ho$ g_mZm§Va 40 {H$_r H$s Am¡gV Xÿar na ~hVr h¡ &
Bg Zha V§Ì H$s Hw$b {Z`mo{OV b§~mB© 9,060 {H$_r h¡ Am¡a `h 19·63
H¥${f-`mo½` H$_mZ joÌ _| qgMmB© H$s gw{dYm àXmZ H$aoJr & Hw$b H$_mZ joÌ _| go 70 à{VeV
joÌ àdmh Zha V§Ìm| Am¡a eof joÌ {bâQ> V§Ì Ûmam {H$`m OmEJm & Zha H$m {Z_m©U H$m`© Xmo
MaUm| _| nyam {H$`m J`m h¡ & MaU-I H$m H$_mZ
>-
BgH$m H¥${f-`mo½` H$_mZ joÌ 5·53 -II H$m H$_mZ joÌ ~rH$mZoa,

64/3/2 6
11. Which of the following seaports is located on Mahanadi delta ?
(a) Haldia (b) Ennore
(c) Paradwip (d) Vishakhapatnam

12. Which among the following is the westernmost station of East-West


corridor ?
(a) Kolkata (b) Guwahati
(c) Porbandar (d) Mumbai

13. Which of the following features is not true regarding NHAI ?


(a) It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.
(b) It is responsible for constructing and maintaining National Highways.
(c) It also constructs village link roads.
(d) NHAI was operationalized in 1995.

14. Which one of the following is a major polluting industry ?


(a) Food processing industry (b) Cottage industry
(c) Chemical industry (d) Foot loose industry

Read the case study given below and answer the questions from 15 to 17.

Case Study : Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area


Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one
of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948,
the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at
Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an
average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The
total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation
needs of a total culturable command area of 19 63 lakh hectares. Out of the
total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by
flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal
system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of
Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner

64/3/2 7 P.T.O.
Myê$ {µObm| _| 14·10 -`mo½` ^y{_
na \¡$bm hþAm h¡ & Bg_| ñWmZm§V[aV ~mby {Q>ã~m| dmbm _éñWb ^r gpå_{bV h¡ ; Ohm±
ñWmZm§Var ~mby {Q>ã~o nmE OmVo h¢ Am¡a J«rî_ G$Vw _| Vmn_mZ 50 gopëg`g VH$ nhþ±M OmVm
h¡ & {bâQ> Zha _| T>mb Ho$ {dnarV àdmh Ho$ {bE Ob H$mo ~ma-~ma _erZm| go D$na CR>m`m
OmVm h¡ & B§{Xam Jm±Yr Zha V§Ì _| g^r {bâQ> Zha| _w»` Zha Ho$ ~mE± {H$Zmao go {ZH$bVr h¢
O~{H$ _w»` Zha Ho$ XmE± {H$Zmao na g^r Zha| àdmh àUmb h¢ &
MaU-I Ho$ H$_mZ joÌ _| qgMmB© H$s ewéAmV 1960 Ho$ XeH$ Ho$ Ama§^ _| hþB© O~{H$
MaU-II H$_mZ joÌ _| 1980 Ho$ XeH$ Ho$ _Ü` _| qgMmB© Ama§^ hþB© & Zha qgMmB© Ho$ àgma
Zo Bg ewîH$ joÌ H$s nm[apñW{VH$s, AW©ì`dñWm Am¡a g_mO H$mo ê$nmÝV[aV H$a {X`m h¡ &
Bggo Bg joÌ H$mo n`m©daUr` n[apñW{V`m| na gH$mamË_H$ Am¡a ZH$mamË_H$ XmoZm| àH$ma Ho$
Am¡a H$_mZ joÌ {dH$mg Ho$ VhV
ewê$ {H$E JE dZrH$aU Am¡a MamJmh {dH$mg H$m`©H«$_m| go `hm± ^y{_ har -^ar hmo JB© h¡ &
§Vw
gKZ qgMmB© Am¡a Ob Ho$ AË`{YH$ à`moJ go Ob ^amd Am¡a _¥Xm bdUVm H$s Xmohar
n`m©daUr` g_ñ`mE± CËnÞ hmo JBª &
15. B§{Xam Jm±Yr Zha H$mo ?
(a) H$_mZ joÌ _| qgMmB© Ho$ {bE Ob nhþ±MmZm
(b) nrZo Ho$ {bE nmZr nhþ±MmZm
(c) dZamonU Ho$ {bE nmZr nhþ±MmZm
(d) CÚmoJm| Ho$ {bE nmZr nhþ±MmZm
16. ?
(a) nm[apñW{VH$s Am¡a AW©ì`dñWm H$mo ê$nmÝV[aV H$a {X`m h¡
(b) Bª h¢
(c) bmoJ ñWm`r ê$n go ~go Zht h¢
(d) µ\$gb CËnmXZ A^r ^r {ZåZ-ñVar` h¡
17. ?
(a) {_{Å>`m± CnOmD$ hmo JBª h¢
(b) Ob ^amd Am¡a jmar`Vm
(c) ~hþ-µ\$gbr à{Vê$n
(d) H$_mZ joÌ ham-^am ~Z J`m h¡
64/3/2 8
districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable
command area is 5 53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is
spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu
districts covering culturable command area of 14 10 lakh ha. It comprises
desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to
50 C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow
against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system
originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right
bank of main canal are flow channels.
Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in
early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving
irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry
land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced
the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as
negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and
various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD
have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind
erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and
excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental
problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

15. What was the main objective to construct of Indira Gandhi Canal ?
(a) Proving water for irrigation in the command area
(b) Providing water for drinking purpose
(c) Providing water for afforestation
(d) Providing water for industries

16. What is the major benefit of this Canal in the command area ?
(a) Transformation of ecology and economy
(b) Environmental conditions slightly changed
(c) People had not settled permanently
(d) Crop production is still at lower level
17. What is the negative impact of this Canal ?
(a) Soils become fertile
(b) Water logging and salinity
(c) Multiple cropping system
(d) Command area becomes green
64/3/2 9 P.T.O.
IÊS> I
18 19
18. ZrMo {XE JE {MÌ H$m AÜ``Z H$s{OE Am¡a CgHo$ ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma {b{IE : 3 1=3

(18.1) {XE JE {MÌ _| Zm¡ n[adhZ Zha H$s nhMmZ H$s{OE Am¡a BgH$m Zm_ {b{IE & 1
(18.2) Bg Ob_mJ© Ho$ A§{V_ {gao Ho$ nÎmZm| Ho$ Zm_ {b{IE & 1
(18.3) Bg Ob_mJ© H$s _w»` {deofVm H$mo ñnï> H$s{OE & 1
: 18
CÎmar AQ>bm§{Q>H$ g_wÐr _mJ© H$s {H$Ýht VrZ {deofVmAm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 3 1=3
64/3/2 10
SECTION B

Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions.


18. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow : 3 1=3

Delta of the Nile

Damietta

Lake Manzala
Shirbin

Tina Bay

El Mansura
To Asia

El Kantera
Simbillawein
Salhia

Zagazig
Ismailiya

Bir Hassan Lake


Bilbeis
Great
Fayid Bitter Lake

Little
Bitter Lake
CAIRO

Ain Musa

(18.1) Identify the shipping canal in the given picture and write its name. 1
(18.2) Name the terminal ports of this waterway. 1
(18.3) Explain the main characteristic of this waterway. 1
Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 18.
Northern Atlantic Sea R 3 1=3
64/3/2 11 P.T.O.
19. ZrMo {XE JE Ho$g AÜ``Z : 3 1=3

Xm¡ambm _| nm[apñW{VH$s Ho$ nwZ^©aU Am¡a _mZd ñdmñÏ` Ho$ gwajU H$m EH$ AZwH$aUr`
CXmhaU : Ho$g AÜ``Z
àXÿfH$ ^moJVm h¡ Ho$ d¡pídH$ {Z`_ Ho$ AmYma na _oaR> Ho$ {ZH$Q> Xm¡ambm _| bmoJm| H$s
à{V^m{JVm Ho$ ghmao nm[apñW{VH$s Ho$ nwZ^©aU Am¡a _mZd ñdmñÏ` H$s gwajm Ho$ {bE à`mg
{H$`m J`m h¡ & _oaR> Ho$ EH$ µJ¡a-gaH$mar g§JR>Z (EZ.Or.Amo.) Ûmam nm[apñW{VH$s nwZ^©aU Ho$
EH$ _m°S>b H$s aMZm Ho$ VrZ df© ~mX n[aUm_ AmZo Ama§^ hmo JE & Xm¡ambm pñWV CÚmoJm| Ho$
nXm{YH$m[a`m|, µJ¡a-gaH$mar g§JR>Zm|, gaH$mar A{YH$m[a`m| Am¡a AÝ` nUYm[a`m| H$s _oaR> _|
hþB© _rqQ>J _| n[aUm_ gm_Zo AmE & bmoJm| Ho$ e{º$embr VH$m], àm_m{UH$ AÜ``Zm| Am¡a
X~md Zo Bg Jm±d Ho$ 12,000 {Zdm{g`m| H$mo EH$ Z`m OrdZ XmZ {X`m h¡ & `h gZ² 2003
H$s ~mV h¡ O~ Xm¡ambmdm{g`m| H$s X`Zr` Xem Zo EH$ OZ{hV g^m ({g{db gmogm`Q>r) H$m
Ü`mZ AmH¥$îQ> {H$`m & 12,000 bmoJm| H$s OZg§»`m dmbo Bg Jm±d H$m ^y-Ob ^mar YmVwAm|
Ho$ g§nH©$ go g§Xÿ{fV hmo MwH$m Wm & BgH$m H$maU `h Wm {H$ Xm¡ambm Ho$ CÚmoJm| Ho$
AZwnMm[aV An{eîQ> Ob H$m ^y-Ob ñVa _| {ZjmbZ hmo ahm Wm & EZ.Or.Amo. Ho$
H$m`©H$Vm©Am| Zo Ka-Ka OmH$a bmoJm| H$m ñdmñÏ`-ñVa g§~§Yr gd}jU {H$`m Am¡a EH$ [anmoQ>©
~ZmB© & Cg g§JR>Z, J«m_rU g_wXm` Am¡a OZ-à{V{Z{Y`m| Zo Amng _| ~¡R>H$a BZ g_ñ`mAm|

{Z`§{ÌV H$aZo _| Jhar é{M {XImB© & Jm±d H$s Cnabr Q>§H$s (overhead tank) H$s j_Vm
B© JB© Am¡a g_wXm` H$mo nrZo-`mo½` Ob CnbãY H$amZo Ho$ {bE 900 _rQ>a H$s A{V[aº$
nmBnbmBZ {~N>mB© JB© & Jm±d Ho$ JmX-`wº$ Vmbm~ H$mo gmµ\$ {H$`m J`m Am¡a Bgo JmX-{d_wº$
H$aHo$ nwZ:
_mJ© àeñV {H$`m J`m Vm{H$ Ob^¥Vm| _| Ob nwZ: ^am OmE & OJh-OJh dfm©-Ob g§J«hU
H$s g§aMZmE± ~ZmB© JBª {OZgo _mZgyZ Ho$ níMmV ^y-Ob Ho$ g§XÿfU _| H$_r AmB© & EH$
hµOma d¥j bJmE JE {OZgo n`m©daU H$m g§dY©Z hþAm &
(19.1) ? 1

(19.2) nm[apñW{VH$s H$s {JaVr Xem Ho$ {Z`§ÌU _| CÚmoJn{V`m| H$s ^y{_H$m H$mo ñnîQ>
H$s{OE & 1

(19.3) Xm¡ambm H$s g_ñ`m Ho$ g§X^© _| EZ.Or.Amo. Ho$ `moJXmZ H$m {díbofU H$s{OE & 1

64/3/2 12
19. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow : 3 1=3
Case Study : A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard
Human Health in Daurala

and safeg
place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a
span of three years when a Meerut based NGO had developed a model for
ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala industries officials,
NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought
out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of
people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of
this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of
Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this
village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the
untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the
groundwater table. The NGOs conducted a door-to-door survey of the
health status of the residents and came out with a report. The

together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The


industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating

and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the
community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by
desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large
quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers, Rainwater harvesting
structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in
diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoon. 1000
trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

(19.1) What is meant by water pollution ? 1


(19.2) Explain the role of industrialists in checking the deteriorating
ecology. 1

(19.3) 1

64/3/2 13 P.T.O.
IÊS> J
20 23

20. g^r ^m¡Jmo{bH$ AÜ``Zm| _| àH¥${V Am¡a _mZd A{^Þ h¢ & Bg H$WZ H$s naI H$s{OE & 3

21. (H$) ZJa Jm±dm| go àË`j Am¡a AàË`j XmoZm| àH$ma go


h¢ & Bg H$WZ H$s naI H$s{OE & 3
AWdm
(I) ^maV _| JwpÀN>V J«m_rU ~pñV`m| Ho$ {dH$mg Ho$ {H$Ýht VrZ H$maUm| H$s naI
H$s{OE & 3

22. (H$) S>m°. _h~y~-Cb-hH$ Ûmam à{Vnm{XV _mZd {dH$mg H$s AdYmaUm H$s ì`m»`m
H$s{OE & $ 3
AWdm
(I) _mZd {dH$mg Ho$ H$ë`mU CnmJ_ H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 3

23. ^maVr` amîQ´>r` Ob Zr{V, 2002 H$s _w»` {deofVmAm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 3

IÊS> K
24 28

24. g§gma _| OZg§»`m Ho$ {dVaU H$mo à^m{dV H$aZo dmbo ^m¡Jmo{bH$ H$maH$m| H$s naI
H$s{OE & 5

25. ^maV _| OZg§»`m Ho$ KZËd H$mo à^m{dV H$aZo dmbo {d{^Þ H$maH$m| H$mo ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 5

26. (H$) `yamon Am¡a ê$g _| aob_mJm] Ho$ {dH$mg H$m dU©Z H$s{OE & 3+2=5
AWdm
(I) aob_mJm] H$s Anojm Ob n[adhZ Ho$ bm^m| H$m dU©Z H$s{OE & 5

27. ^maV _| OZg§»`m d¥{Õ Ho$ _hÎdnyU© njm| H$s, {deof ê$n go {H$emoam| H$s d¥{Õ Am¡a amîQ´>r`
`wdm Zr{V, 2014 Ho$ g§X^© _| ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5

28. (H$) g§gma _| amonU H¥${f H$s {H$Ýht nm±M {deofVmAm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5
AWdm
(I) g§gma _| ~mµOma Ho$ {bE gãµOr IoVr Ed§ CÚmZ H¥${f H$s {H$Ýht nm±M {deofVmAm|
H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5

64/3/2 14
SECTION C

Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.


20.
the statement. 3

21. (a)
3
OR
(b) Examine any three causes for the development of compact rural
settlements in India. 3
22. (a)
Mahbub-ul-Haq. 3
OR
(b) Explain the welfare approach of human development. 3
23. 3

SECTION D

Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.

24. Examine the geographical factors that influence distribution of population


in the world. 5

25. Explain the various factors affecting density of population in India. 5

26. (a) Describe the development of railways in Europe and Russia. 3+2=5
OR
(b) Describe the benefits of water transport over railways. 5

27. Explain the important aspects of population growth with special reference
to the growth of adolescents and National Youth Policy, 2014 of India. 5

28. (a) 5
OR
(b)
the world. 5
64/3/2 15 P.T.O.
IÊS> L>
29 30

29. g§gma Ho$ {XE JE amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (n¥ð> 21 na) _| gmV ^m¡Jmo{bH$ bjUm|
H$mo A, B, C, D, E, F VWm G go {XIm`m J`m h¡ & {H$Ýht H$s nhMmZ {ZåZ{b{IV
OmZH$mar H$s ghm`Vm go H$s{OE Am¡a CZHo$ ghr Zm_ CZHo$ nmg ItMr JB© aoImAm| na
{b{IE : 5 1=5
A. Am°ñQ´>o{b`m _| EH$ à_wI dm`w nÎmZ
B. joÌ\
C. X{jU A_o[aH$m H$m EH$ à_wI g_wÐr nÎmZ
D. nma-H¡$Zo{S>`Z aob_mJ© Ho$ {gao H$m ñQ>oeZ
E. {Zdm©hZ g§J«hU H$m EH$ à_wI joÌ
F. joÌ\$b H$s Ñ{îQ> go A\«$sH$m H$m
G. nma-gmB~o[a`Z aob_mJ© Ho$ {gao H$m ñQ>oeZ

: 29

: 5×1=5

(29.1) Am°ñQ´>o{b`m Ho$ {H$gr EH$ AÝVam©îQ´>r` dm`w nÎmZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(29.2) Cg _hÎdnyU© Ob_mJ© H$m Zm_ {b{IE Omo AQ>bm§{Q>H$ _hmgmJa H$mo d¥hX² Prbm| go

(29.3) {Mbr Ho$ à_wI g_wÐr nÎmZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(29.4) nma-H¡$Zo{S>`Z aob_mJ© Ho$ npíM_r {gao Ho$ ñQ>oeZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(29.5) A\«$sH$m _| {Zdm©hZ g§J«hU Ho$ à_wI joÌ H$m CëboI H$s{OE &
(29.6) joÌ\$b H$s Ñ{îQ> go A\
(29.7) nma-gmB~o[a`Z aob_mJ© Ho$ g~go nydu {gao Ho$ ñQ>oeZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
64/3/2 16
SECTION E
Questions number 29 and 30 are Map based Questions.

29. On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven
geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
Identify any five with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5 1=5

A. A major airport in Australia

B. Largest country in terms of area in Europe

C. A major seaport in South America

D. A terminal station of Trans-Canadian Railway

E. A major area of subsistence gathering

F. Largest country in terms of area in Africa

G. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 29.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5
(29.1) Name any international airport of Australia.
(29.2) Name the important waterway that links the Great Lakes with
the Atlantic Ocean.
(29.3) Name the major seaport of Chile.
(29.4) Name the terminal station of Trans-Canadian railway on the
western end.
(29.5) Mention the major area of subsistence gathering in Africa.
(29.6) Name the largest country in Africa in terms of area.
(29.7) Name the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian
Railway.

64/3/2 17 P.T.O.
30. ^maV Ho$ {XE JE amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (n¥ð> 23 na) _| {ZåZ{b{IV gmV ^m¡Jmo{bH$
bjUm| _| go {H$Ýht Ûmam A§{H$V H$s{OE Am¡a CZHo$ Zm_ {b{IE : 5 1=5

(30.1) gdm©{YH$ ZJarH$aU dmbm amÁ`


(30.2) _hmamîQ´> _| 10 {_{b`Z go A{YH$ OZg§»`m dmbm ZJa
(30.3) Mm` Ho$ CËnmXZ _| AJ«Ur amÁ`
(30.4) _`ya^§O bm¡h-A`ñH$ H$s ImZ|
(30.5) ~mbmKmQ> _¢JZrµO H$s ImZ|
(30.6) g_wÐr nÎmZ
(30.7) Ah_Xm~mX dm`w nÎmZ

: 30

: 5 1=5

(30.1) gdm©{YH$ ZJarH$aU dmbo amÁ` H$m CëboI H$s{OE &


(30.2) npíM_r ~§Jmb Ho$ 10 {_{b`Z go A{YH$ OZg§»`m dmbo ZJa H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(30.3) Mm` H$m AJ«Ur CËnmXH$ amÁ` H$m¡Z-gm h¡ ?
(30.4) _`ya^§O bm¡h-A`ñH$ H$s ImZ| {H$g amÁ` _| pñWV h¢ ?
(30.5) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE Ohm± {e_moJm _¢JZrµO ImZ| pñWV h¢ &
(30.6) g_wÐr nÎmZ {H$g VQ> Ho$ gmW pñWV h¡ ?

(30.7) JwOamV _| pñWV EH$ AÝVam©îQ´>r` dm`w nÎmZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE &

64/3/2 18
30. On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label
any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate
symbols : 5 1=5

(30.1) A state with highest level of urbanization

(30.2) A city with more than 10 million population in Maharashtra

(30.3) A state leading in the production of tea

(30.4) Mayurbhanj iron-ore mines

(30.5) Balaghat manganese mines

(30.6) Kochi seaport

(30.7) Ahmedabad Airport

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 30.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(30.1) Mention the state having highest level of urbanization.

(30.2) Name the city of West Bengal having more than 10 million
population.

(30.3) Which state leads in the production of tea ?

(30.4) In which state are Mayurbhanj iron-ore mines located ?

(30.5) Name the state where Shimoga manganese mines are located.

(30.6) Along which coast is Kochi seaport located ?

(30.7) Name one international airport located in Gujarat.

64/3/2 19 P.T.O.
64/3/2 20
àíZ g§. 29 Ho$ {bE For question no. 29

......
....

64/3/2 21 P.T.O.
64/3/2 22
àíZ g§. 30 Ho$ {bE For question no. 30

^maV H$m aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (amOZr{VH$)


Outline Map of India (Political)

64/3/2 23 P.T.O.
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2023
SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY ( CODE 029) (PAPER CODE 64/3/2)

General Instructions: -

1
You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession.
To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and
understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.

2
“Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to
public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect
the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to
anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may
invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”

3
Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not
be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are
innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise no marks be
awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions,
please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme
but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be
awarded.

4
The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks
should be awarded accordingly.

5
The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be
zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation
shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.

64/3/2 1 P.T.O.
6
Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.

7
If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.

8
If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

9
If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.

10
No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only
once.

11
A full scale of marks ___70_______(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer
deserves it.

12
Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the
reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.

13
Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark

64/3/2 2
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.

14
While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.

15
Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.

16
The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines
for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.

17
Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.

18
The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head
Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out
strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

64/3/2 3 P.T.O.
MARKING SCHEME
ANNUAL EXAMINATION
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE-64/3/2
SET-2
MM-70

Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page no Distrib


No. in TB ution
SECTION -A of
marks
Question no. 1-17 are MCQs

1. (b) Basic or key industry TB-1 Pg. 1


51

2 (d) The products are sold in international markets. TB-1 Pg. 1


49

3 (c) Goods produced by them have low commercial TB-1 Pg. 1


significance 49

4 (c) Tertiary TB-1 Pg. 1


58

5 (d) Trading TB-1 1


Pg. 55

6 (c) Software developing TB-1 Pg. 1


61

7 (d) Organic farming TB-2 Pg. 1


141

8 (d) Yamuna TB-2 Pg. 1


64

9 (c) Air and sea routes TB-2 Pg. 1


127

10 (c) Diversion of exports to other ports. TB-2 Pg. 1


130

11 (c) Paradwip TB-2 Pg. 1


130

64/3/2 4
12 (c ) Porbander TB-2 Pg. 1
115

13 (c) It also constructs village link roads TB-2 Pg. 1


114

14 (c) Chemical industry TB-2 Pg. 1


134

15 (a) Providing water for irrigation in the command area 1

16 (a) Transformation of ecology and economy. 1

17 (b) Water logging and salinity. 1


SECTION -B

(18.1) Identify the shipping canal in the given


18 picture and write its name.

- Suez canal
(18.2) Name the terminal ports of this waterway.
- Port Said (North), Port Suez(South)

(18.3) Explain the main characteristic of this


waterway.

i. It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean


and reduces direct sea route distance between
Liverpool and Colombo compared to the Cape of Good
Hope Route.

ii. It is a sea level canal without locks.


1 3x1=3
iii. Any other relevant point
Any one point to be explained
For Visually Impaired Candidates Only :

(18) Characteristics of Northern Atlantic Sea Route

i. It links North Eastern U.S.A and North Western

64/3/2 5 P.T.O.
Europe, the two industrially developed regions of the
world .

ii. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that
of the rest of the world combined.

iii. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this


route.

iv. It is the busiest in the world and called Big Trunk


Route.

v. Both the coasts have highly advanced ports and TB-1 Pg. 3x1=3
harbour. 72,73

vi. Any other relevant point


Any three points to be explained

(19.1) What is meant by water pollution ?


19 - Water gets contaminated with heavy metals. 1

(19.2) Explain the role of industrialists in checking


the deteriorating ecology.
- Over head water tank’s capacity was enhanced 1
and 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply
portable water / the silted pond was cleaned
and recharged by desilting.
(19.3) Analyse the contribution of the NGO in
Daulara’s problem.

- NGO developed a model for ecological restoration 1


and conducted a door to door survey of the health
status of the residents and came out with a report.

SECTION -C
20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.

‘Nature and humans are inseparable in all


20
64/3/2 6
geographical studies’. Examine the statement.

Nature and humans are inseparable in all


geographical studies as-

i. Geography lays emphasis on the study of natural


phenomena.

ii. It studies Earth as the home of mankind.

iii. Certain geographical phenomena are considered like


parts of human body.

iv. Man and nature impact each other.

v. Man and nature cannot be separated.


TB- 1 3x1=3
Pg. 2
vi. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be examined

(a) ‘The cities are connected directly indirectly,with


21 villages and also with each other’. Examine the
statement.

i. The rural settlements derive the support from land


based economic activities.

ii. The cities depend on villages for raw material.

iii. Villages are dependent on towns for manufactured


goods.

iii. On the other hand both the settlements are


connected to provide different types of services.

iv. Cities are connected with each other for enhancing


economic growth and providing services.

v. Any other relevant point


TB-2 Pg. 3x1=3
Any three points to be examined 32

64/3/2 7 P.T.O.
OR
(b) Examine any three causes for the development of
compact rural settlements in India.

Causes for the development of compact rural


settlements in India-

i. Security as the reason, defence against thefts and


robberies.

ii. Scarcity of water and maximum utilisation of water


resources.

iii. Fertile alluvial plains.


TB-2 Pg.
33
iv. Any other relevant point 3x1=3

Any three points to be examined

(a) Explain the concept of human development


22 introduced by Dr. Mahbub Ul Haq.

Concept of human development introduced by Dr.


Mahbub Ul Haq

i. Human development is development that enlarges


peoples choices.

ii. It improves people’s lives.

iii. People are central to all development under this T.B-I 3x1=3
concept. Pg. 23

iv. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained


OR
(b) Explain the welfare approach of human
development.

64/3/2 8
Welfare approach of human development

i. Approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries.

ii. The approach argues for higher government


expenditure, on education health, social, secondary
and amenities.

iii. People are not participants in development but only


passive recipients.

iv. Any other relevant point T.B-I Pg. 3x1=3


26

Any three points to be explained

Explain the major aspects of India’s National Water


23 Policy, 2002.

Major aspects of India’s National Water Policy 2002-

i. Providing drinking water to all human beings.

ii. Both surface and groundwater should be regularly


monitored.

iii. Awareness of water as a scarce resource.

iv. Conservation and consciousness should be promoted.

v. Irrigation and multipurpose projects should


invariably include drinking water component, where
ever there is no alternative source of drinking
water.

vi. Measures should be taken to limit and regulate the


exploitation of ground water.

vii. The efficiency of utilisation in all the diverse uses of


water should be improved.

viii. Any other relevant point


T.B-2 3x1=3

64/3/2 9 P.T.O.
Pg. 69,70
Any three points to be explained

SECTION -D
24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.
Examine the geographical factors that influence
24 distribution of population
in the world.

The geographical factors influencing distribution of


population in the world

i. Availability of water .

ii. Climate.

iii. Soil.

iv. Landforms.

v. Adequate rainfall

vi. Any other relevant point T.B-1 5x1=5


Pg. 9,10
Any five Points to be examined

Explain the various factors affecting density of


25 population in India.

Factors affecting density of population in India-

i. Availability of water.

ii. Suitable/moderate climate.

iii. Level terrain.

iv. Fertile soils.

v. Mining development.

64/3/2 10
vi. Development of transport system.

vii. Industrialisation and urbanisation. TB-2 5x1=5

viii. Any other relevant point Pg. 3

Any five points to be explained

26 (a) Describe the development of railways in Europe


and Russia.

Development of Railways :

Europe

i. Europe has one of the most dense network of


railways.

ii. Most of the railways are double or multi-tracked.

iii. Industrial regions of Europe have the highest


density.

iv. Underground railways are also important in some


countries.

v. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be described 3x1=3

Russia

i. In Russia 90% of the transport system consists of


railways.

ii. Very dense network of railways are in the west of


Urals .

iii. Underground railways in Russia are also important.

iv. Any other relevant point


64/3/2 11 P.T.O.
Any two points to be described 2x1=2 TB-1 Pg. 3+2=5
68, 69

OR

(b) Describe the benefits of water transport over


railways.

Benefits of water transport over railways

i. It does not require route construction whereas


railways requires.

ii. The ocean waters are inter-connected.

iii. It is cheaper over railways and the friction of water


is far less.

iv. The energy cost of water transport is also lower than


railways.

v. Water transport is suitable for heavy tonnage.

vi. Any other relevant point.


TB-1
5x1=5
Any five points to be described Pg. 71

Explain the important aspects of population growth


27 with special reference to the growth of adolescents
and National Youth Policy, 2014 of India.
Important aspects of population growth with special
reference to the growth of adolescents and NYP 2014

i. At present the share of adolescent i.e. after the age


group of 10-19 years is about 20.9% (2011).

ii. Male adolescent population consists of higher


percentage than female adolescent population.

iii. The adolescent population has high potentials.

64/3/2 12
iv. The NYP 2014 proposes a holistic vision to empower
the youth of the country to achieve their full
potentials.
TB- 2 5x1=5
v. To enable India to find its rightful place in the Pg.8
community of nations with its youth power.

vi. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained

28 (a)Explain any five features of the Plantation


agriculture in the world.

Features of the Plantation agriculture

i. This type of farming is done on large estates.

ii. It is a single crop cultivation.

iii. It depends upon large capital investment.

iv. Scientific methods of cultivation

v. It requires managerial and technical support.

vi. Cheap labour and good system of transportation to


link the estates to the factories and markets for the
export of the products.
TB-1 Pg. 5x1=5
vi. Any other relevant point 37

Any five points to be explained

OR
(b)Explain any five features of ‘market gardening
and horticulture’ in the world.
OR
Features of market gardening and horticulture

64/3/2 13 P.T.O.
i. It specialises in high value crops as vegetables,
fruits and flowers.

ii. It largely caters to the urban market.

iii. Farms are small but located in areas of good


transport facility.

iv. It is both labour and capital intensive.

v. Emphasis is on use of irrigation, HYV seeds,


fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides.
5x1=5
vi. Green houses and artificial heating in colder regions. TB-1
Pg. 40
vii. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained

SECTION -E
Map based questions

64/3/2 14
29 5x1=5

64/3/2 15 P.T.O.
For Visually Impaired Candidates Only. (Attempt
any five)
(29.1) Darwin/Wellington 5x1=5
(29.2) St. Lawrence waterway.
(29.3) Valparaiso
(29.4) Vancouver
(29.5) Tropical Africa.
(29.6) Algeria
(29.7) Vladivostok

64/3/2 16
30 5x1=5

64/3/2 17 P.T.O.
For Visually Impaired Candidates Only. (Attempt
any five) 5x1=5
(30.1) Goa
(30.2) Kolkata
(30.3) Assam
(30.4) Odisha
(30.5) Karnataka
(30.6) Western coast / Malabar coast
(30.7) Ahmedabad airport / Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
international airport

64/3/2 18

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