PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32

PRACTICE PAPER 01 (2024-25)

History - Chapter 01 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.

1. Identify the person in the painting from the options given below. He was described as ‘the most
dangerous enemy of our social order’.

(a) Metternich (b) Mazzini (c) Garibaldi (d) Cavour

2. Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option :
(I) He was an Italian statesman.
(II) He spoke French much better than Italian.
(III) He was a tactful diplomat.
(IV) He belonged to a Royal family.
Options:
(a) Only (I) and (II) are correct. (b) Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
(c) Only (II), (III) and (IV) are correct. (d) Only (I), (II) and (IV) are correct.

3. Which one of the following group of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815?
(a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
(b) Britain, Russian, Prussia and Australia
(c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany
(d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy

4. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a Nation-State in Britain.

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 (a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought War with English Parliament.
(b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
(c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
(d) The formation of a Nation-State in Britain was the result of many revolts.

5. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic Era
and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.

Options :
(a) Marianne (b) Philip Veit (c) Germania (d) La Italia

6. Which one of the following statements is false regarding the Act of Union 1707?
(a) It was an agreement between England and Scotland.
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.
(c) It resulted in the formation of the 'United Kingdom of Gret Britain'.
(d) It gave England control over Scotland.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R): Monarchs had realised that revolution could be resisted only by granting
concessions to liberalnationalist rebels.
8. Assertion (A): After Russian occupation in Poland, the Russian language was imposed on its
people.
Reason (R): The use of Polish soon came to be a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. What was the mission of the French revolutionaries?

10. How could one discover the true German Culture?

11. Mention two features of the Statue of Liberty.

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 SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. “Culture played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during the
eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.” Support the statement with examples.

13. “Ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology
of liberalism.” Examine the statement.

14. Explain any three ways by which nationalist feelings were kept alive in Poland in the 18th and
19th centuries?

15. Explain any three beliefs of conservatism that emerged after 1815?

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. How did the Greek War of Independence mobilise nationalist feelings among the educated elite
across Europe? Explain.

17. Examine the ‘nation state building’ process in Germany after 1848.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe.
In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas
migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced
with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England, where
industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent. Food shortages and widespread
unemployment brought the population of Paris out on the roads.

(a) Who ruled France during the time mentioned in the source and was forced to flee after
unemployment that caused workers to revolt on roads? (1)
(b) Were people guaranteed rights after they came out on roads to revolt in France during the
time mentioned in the source? If yes, name one such right. (1)
(c) Why were the years referred in the source, of great economic hardship in Europe? (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 02 (2024-25)
Geography - Chapter 01 Resources and Development

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are an example of over-utilisation of resources?
P: The degradation of quality of land, air and local water sources.
Q: The Malyan tigers being classified as a critically endangered species.
(a) Only P (b) Only Q (c) Both P and Q (d) Neither P nor Q
2. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Alluvial Soil — Consist of sand and silt (b) Black Soil — Salt content is high
(c) Arid Soil — Diffusion of iron in crystalline (d) Laterite Soil — Made up of Lava flows

3. Which among the following is not a problem of resource development?

(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
(d) An equitable distribution of resources
4. Identify the main aim of the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit 1992.
(a) Protection of Environment and socio- economic development.
(b) Protection of Environment and cultural development
(c) Protection of water and socio-economic development
(d) Protection of Earth and socio-economic development

5. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection and
socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
(a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (d) World Summit on Sustainable development

6. Alluvial soil found in India is mostly formed by the silt which is deposited by Indo-Gangetic-
Brahmaputra rivers. Parent rock forming this silt is found in which of the following regions?
(a) Northern Plains (b) Eastern Coastal Plains
(c) The Himalayas (d) Gangetic Delta

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)

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(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained
quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R): Equitable distribution promotes inequality among classes.

8. Assertion (A): Rich resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders.
Reason (R): Foreign invaders exploited these resources through better technologies and earned
wealth through this drain.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Mr. Palani is from Tamil Nadu, wishes to cultivate either tea or wheat. Which one of the crops
out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any two reasons.

10. (i) What is the role of human beings in the development of a resource?
(ii) Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil :
(a) Develops in high rainfall areas
(b) Intense leaching process takes place.
(c) Humus content is low.

11. How are mining activities responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand?

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. “Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.” Justify the statement with appropriate
arguments.

13. ‘Sustainable Development is a crucial step for the development of a country’. Explain with
suitable examples.

14. Describe any three main features of ‘black soil’ found in India.

15. Why should we use natural resources properly and judiciously? Explain your views.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Discuss the factors responsible for land degradation in India.

17. What are the three stages of resource planning in India? Why is it essential to have resource
planning?

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The
processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance
between the two.

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 Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, overgrazing,
construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil
erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The
land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are
called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the
top soil is washed away.
(a) Referring to the source, mention type of erosion destroys the subsoil.
(b) Name an agent from the source that causes sheet erosion.
(c) Define Ravines. Name a state from the given case where they are found.

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 03 (2024-25)
Political Science - Chapter 01 Power Sharing

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option:
(a) Majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy.
(II) It creates balance and harmony in different groups.
(III) It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups.
(IV) Power sharing is the essence of democracy.
Options:
(a) (I), (II) and (III) (b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV) (d) (I), (II) and (IV)

2. Which of the following elements is NOT included in the Belgium model?

(a) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.
(b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
(c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation.
(d) There is a community government which has special powers of administration.
3. Which of the following statements accurately describes a “community government”?
(I) ‘Community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community –
Dutch, French and Germanspeaking – no matter where they live.
(II) This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and languagerelated issues.
(III) This government has the power regarding economical, educational and languagerelated
issues.
(IV) ‘Community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community –
Dutch, Spanish and German-speaking – no matter where they live.
Options:
(a) Only (I) (b) Only (III) (c) Only (IV) (d) Both (I) and (II)
4. Modern democracies maintain a check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on
the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government and local bodies.
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different pressure groups.
5. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government as
well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
(a) Democratic Government (b) Socialist Government
(c) Community Government (d) Liberal Government

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6. Study the given picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following statements appropriately describes the picture?

(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(b) Concentration of power in one hand helps to make quick decisions.
(c) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(d) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted ‘Tamil’ as the official language of the State.
Reason (R): The Govt. of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures.
8. Assertion (A): Power sharing is desirable.
Reason (R): Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts
between social groups.
SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Look at the map and identify the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium.

10. Mention the measure adopted by the democratically elected government of Sri Lanka to establish
Sinhala Supremacy.
11. How does vertical power sharing affect the federal government in a country?

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 SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Elaborate any three prudential and moral reasons for power sharing .

13. ‘One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power.’ Justify the
statement.

14. Explain 3 measures taken by Sri Lanka, according to an act passed in 1956.

15. In modern democracies, power is often shared among different organs of the government.
Explain.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Explain with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony.
OR
The Belgian Model of power sharing was better’. Support this statement with three arguments.

17. How is the idea of Power Sharing emerged? Explain different forms that have common
arrangements of power sharing.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and
movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom
to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the
form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not
remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that
represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes, this kind of sharing can be direct,
when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they
form a coalition government and thus, share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such
as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They may also
have a share in governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees or
by influencing the decision-making process.
(a) ‘Power sharing is an essential component of democracy.’ Give one example to prove the
statement. (1)
(b) How is alliance building an example of power sharing? (1)
(c) How political parties, pressure groups and movements help in controlling or influencing those
who are in power? (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 04 (2024-25)
ECONOMICS - CHAPTER 01 DEVELOPMENT

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Read the data given below and answer the question.
Infant mortality rate per Literacy rate%
State
1000 live births (2018) (2017-18)
Haryana 30 82
Kerala 7 94
As per the data given above, why has Kerala a low infant mortality rate?
(a) It has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.
(b) It has adequate provision of basic health and cultural facilities.
(c) It has adequate provision of basic social and educational facilities.
(d) It has adequate provision of basic health and technical facilities.

2. Read the following data and answer the question that follow:
Some comparative Data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar
Infant Mortality Net Attendance
Literacy
State Rate (per thousand Ratio (per 100
Rate %
person) person)
Haryana 30 82 61
Kerala 7 94 83
Bihar 32 62 43
How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana? Choose the appropriate option from the
following:
(a) 39 (b) 27 (c) 38 (d) 18

3. Under the sustainable development goals, social equality with regard to access to resources is
one of the most pressing challenges. Accordingly, which of the following crises is related to the
statement above?
(a) Damage to infrastructure due to floods
(b) Scarcity of clean water for consumption
(c) Damage to crops caused by heavy rains
(d) Combating water-borne diseases in rural India

4. Which of the following statements defines Sustainable Development?

(a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation.
(b) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as
well.

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 (c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and future generation.
(d) To meet the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generation go
unmet.

5. Suppose there are four families in your locality, the average per capita income of whom is
10,000. If the income of three families is 6,000, 8,000 and 14,000 respectively, what would be
the income of the fourth family?
(a) 5,000 (b) 10,000 (c) 12,000 (d) 15,000

6. Which one of the following is a developmental goal of the factory workers?

(a) Better wages (b) Better technology
(c) More hours of work (d) More labour work

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate.

Reason (R): Kerala has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.

8. Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work towards
achieving goals of holistic growth.
Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Study the picture and answer the questions that follow:

(a) What could be the developmental goal for the shown area?
(b) Can there be conflicting developmental goals for the people in the picture?

10. “Different persons can have different developmental goals.” Support the statement with an
example.

11. Why is average income considered as an important criteria for development? Give one reason.

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 SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. “Money cannot buy all the goods and services that a person may need to live well”. Explain the
statement with suitable examples.

13. ‘The question of sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the
nature and process of development’. Explain it with examples.

14. What is meant by economic development? What are the two bases of measuring economic
development of a country?

15. "The future generation may not have sufficient resources as compared to the present generation."
Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. ‘Per capita income is not considered a true measure of development.’ Comment.

17. How has the World Bank classified countries? What are the limitations of this report?

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Population trends and dynamics can have an enormous effect on prospects for poverty reduction
and sustainable development. Poverty is influenced by – and influences – population dynamics,
including population growth, age structure, and rural-urban distribution. All of this has a critical
impact on a country’s development prospects and prospects for raising living standards for the
poor. Investments in better health, including reproductive health, are essential for individual
security and for reducing mortality and morbidity (the condition of suffering from a disease or
medical condition), which in turn improve a country’s productivity and development prospects.
Source: UNFPA
(a) How does investing in improved healthcare infrastructure contribute to the reduction of
preventable diseases and chronic conditions? (2)
(b) Explain the relationship between population trends and poverty reduction. (2)
OR
(b) ‘Poverty is influenced by – and influences – population dynamics, including population
growth, age structure, and rural urban distribution.’ Analyse the statement and highlight the
mutual relationship between poverty and population. (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 05 (2024-25)
History - Chapter 02 Nationalism in India

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.

1. Look at the given picture. Identify the name of the painter of this painting from the following
options.

(a) Abhahindra Nath Tagore (b) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(c) Raja Ravi Verma (d) Samant Das Gupta

2. Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.
(I) The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
(II) It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
(III) It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.
Options:
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Vernacular Press Act
(c) Government of India Act
(d) Inland Emigration Act

3. Identify from the following options, the appropriate reason for the non-participation of industrial
workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(a) Industrialists were close to the Congress.
(b) British offered them good salaries.
(c) They were reluctant to boycott foreign goods.
(d) Growth of socialism.

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4. Identify the leader with the help of the given hints:

He was associated with the formation of 'Swaraj Party' within the Congress.
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
5. Which of the following organisations was/were formed by industrialists in colonial India?
(a) Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
(b) Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
(c) Economic Congress of India
(d) Both (a) and (b)
6. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that took place in India
prior to independence.
(I) Poorna Swaraj resolution was passed.
(II) Boycott of the Simon Commission.
(III) Quit India Movement launched.
(IV) Salt march and the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Options:
(a) (IV), (III), (II), (I) (b) (II), (I), (IV), (III)
(c) (I), (IV), (III), (II) (d) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
7. Assertion (A): The non-cooperation movement was adopted in Madras Congress session in
1919.
Reason (R): Chauri Chaura was the place where non-cooperation movement was called off.
8. Assertion (A): In 1917, Gandhiji organised a Satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda
district of Gujarat.
Reason (R): The peasants were affected by crop failure and plague epidemic. They could not
pay the revenue and were demanding that revenue collection be relaxed.
SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Why was the rural population in India dissatisfied with the British rule?
10. Which were the two types of demands of Gandhiji in his letter to Viceroy Irwin on 31st January
1930?
OR
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 Why did the Non-cooperation movement gradually slow down in the cities? Explain.
11. Explain any two problems faced by the peasants of Awadh.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Gandhi was vehemently against the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919,
popularly known as the Rowlatt Act. Elaborate.
13. How did the Indian merchants and industrialists relate themselves to the Civil Disobedience
Movement? Explain.
14. Simon Commission was greeted with slogan ‘Go back Simon’ at arrival in India. Support this
reaction of Indians with arguments.
15. How did the tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of ‘Swaraj’
? Explain.
OR
Explain any two provisions of the Rowlatt Act and its impact.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Define the term 'Civil Disobedience Movement' Describe the participation of rich and poor
peasant communities in the 'Civil Disobedience Movement'.
OR
Describe the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in Andhra Pradesh during 1920s.
17. Explain the measures taken by Gandhiji to eliminate the problem of untouchability.
OR
Why was the ‘Salt March’ considered an effective symbol of resistance against Colonialism?
Explain.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. The movement started with the participation of the middle-class in the cities. Thousands of
students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and
lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces
except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the
council was one way of gaining some power something that usually only Brahmas had access to.

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 The effects of Non-cooperation movement on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign
goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The
import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore to
Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance
foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes
and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
(a) Explain the role of the Justice Party in boycotting council elections. [1]
(b) How were the effects of ‘Non-cooperation movement on the economic front’ dramatic? [1]
(c) Explain the effect of the ‘boycott’ movement on ‘foreign textile trade’. [2]

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 06 (2024-25)
Geography - Chapter 02 Forest and Wildlife Resources

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Arrange in chronological order.
(I) Conservationists demanded a national wildlife protection programme.
(II) Butterflies, moths, beetles, and one dragonfly have been added to the list of protected
species.
(III) Plants were added to the protection list, starting with six species.
(IV) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented.
Options:
(a) (III), (I), (IV) and (II)
(b) (II), (III), (I) and (IV)
(c) (I), (IV), (II) and (III)
(d) (II), (I), (IV) and (III)

2. Which of the following description of forest is NOT correct?

(a) Reserved Forest—Reservation of more than half of forests
(b) Protected Forest—Reservation of 1/3 of the forests
(c) Unclassed Forest—Reservation of forest under government and private individuals
(d) Permanent Forest—Reserved and unclassed forest for the production of timber

3. Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the
threats posed on the tiger population and boidiversity?
(I) Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife.
(II) Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
(III) Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks.
(IV) Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests.
Options:
(a) Statements (I) and (II) are correct
(b) Statements (II), (III) & (IV) are correct
(c) Statement (II) is correct
(d) Statements (I), (III), & (IV) are correct.

4. Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife?

(a) To preserve the ecological diversity
(b) To preserve the diversity of nutrients in our diets
(c) For maintenance of our water cycle
(d) To be able to exploit plant and animal species

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5. Which among the following is not a feature of Wildlife Protection Act?
(a) The Wildlife Protection Act 1972 prohibits the hunting of endangered species.
(b) All animals are prohibited from being traded as per the provisions of the act.
(c) The act provides for licenses for the sale, transfer and possession of some wildlife species.
(d) It provides for the establishment of wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, etc.

6. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of endangered animals?

(a) They have a huge population in the wild.
(b) They are the economic drivers of forest economy.
(c) They are not protected under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
(d) They are threatened by extinction.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural diversity.
Reason (R): The conservation of forests and wildlife is essential to provide a better quality of
life.

8. Assertion (A): The wildlife sanctuaries are regions reserved by the government agencies for the
conservation of flora and fauna.
Reason (R): Sanctioning such regions helps to prevent the local biodiversity from being illegally
hunted and traded.
SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. What do you know about the Chipko Movement?
10. (i) How much of the total forest land has been declared as reserved forests?
(ii) What is the motto of Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’ of declaring their own set of rules and
regulations?
11. There is a direct relationship between biodiversity management and economic management.
Suggest some examples which present the relationship.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. “We don't own the planet we belong to and we must share it with our wildlife”, Justify the given
statement in relation to how Earth does not belong to only human beings to exploit.
OR
“Grazing and fuel wood collections are not responsible for deforestation in India.” Support the
statement with suitable reasons.
13. How do human beings influence the ecology of a region?
14. Describe any three features of Joint Forest Management.
OR
What are the three types and distribution of forests and wildlife resources? Explain.

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15. Mark these on the following map of India:
(a) Panna Biosphere Reserve (b) Corbett National Park
(c) Sundarbans National Park (d) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary
(e) Manas Tiger Reserve (f) Periyar Tiger Reserve

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. “Forest and wildlife are vital to the quality of life and environment”. Justify this statement by
giving reasons.

17. How has the destruction of forests and wildlife resulted into the loss of cultural diversity?

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Conservation in the background of rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has become
essential. Conservation preserves the ecological diversity and our life support systems – water,
air and soil. It also preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals for better growth of
species and breeding. For example, in agriculture, we are still dependent on traditional crop
varieties. Fisheries too are heavily dependent on the maintenance of aquatic biodiversity.
In the 1960s and 1970s, conservationists demanded a National Wildlife Protection Programme.
The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with various provisions for
protecting habitats. An all-India list of protected species was also published. The thrust of the
programme was towards protecting the remaining population of certain endangered species by
banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife.

Subsequently, central and many State Governments established national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries about which you have already studied. The Central government also announced
several projects for protecting specific animals, which were gravely threatened, including the
tiger , the one-horned rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or Hangul, three types of crocodiles –
freshwater crocodile, saltwater crocodile and the Gharial, the Asiatic lion, and others. Most
recently, the Indian elephant, black buck (chinkara), the great Indian Bustard (Godawan) and the
snow leopard, etc. have been given full or partial legal protection against hunting and trade
throughout India.
(a) Why is biodiversity important? (1)
(b) What is the aim objective of National Wildlife Protection Programme?
(c) Name any two animals which have been given partial or full legal protection against hunting
and trade throughout India. (2)
OR
What all activities are kept under check under the National Wildlife Protection Programme?

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 07 (2024-25)
Political Science - Chapter 02 Federalism

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Study the given picture and identify which of the following options best signifies this cartoon.

(a) Sharing of responsibility between Centre and State.

(b) Centre undermining the power of States.
(c) States pleading from Centre for more power. (d) Misuse of power by the States.
2. Look at the world map given below and answer the following question

Which of the following deductions can definitely be made from the map?
(a) Argentina is the largest federal country in South America.
(b) Germany has states that share power with the centre.
(c) Asia has the maximum number of federal nations.
(d) China does not have provincial administrations.

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3. Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options:
(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

4. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under
certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371).
Which of the following factors explain or justify these provisions ?
(I) Their historical circumstances are peculiar.
(II) These provisions land rights of indigenous people are given to ensure protection of.
(III) Special provisions for agriculture are made because there is little water in these states.
(IV) Preferential employment in government services is guranteed.
Codes:
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV) only
(d) (I) and (II)

5. Why do you think power is shared among different organs of government i.e. executive,
legislature and judiciary called horizontal distribution of power? What does it result in?
(a) Because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise
different powers. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
(b) Because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise
different powers. This results in an imbalance of power among various institutions.
(c) Because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise the
same powers. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
(d) Because it does not allow different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise
different powers. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

6. Which of the following statements about the third-tier of democracy is false?

(a) One-third of all positions in local bodies are reserved for women.
(b) The state government retains the power over revenues for the local bodies.
(c) Seats are reserved in the elected bodies for the SC, ST and OBC candidates.
(d) An independent institution called the State Election Commission conducts Panchayat and
municipal elections.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its
constituent units.
Reason (R): States should be treated differently to help them develop.

8. Assertion (A): Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of government.

Reason (R): Federal Governments last longer.

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 SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Distinguish between unitary and federal systems of government.
10. “Indian Constitution has a unitary bias.” Justify this statement.
11. “India has a great cultural, regional and religious diversity but there is still unity among people.”
Name two factors responsible for this.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Mention any three reasons to prove that India is a federal country.
13. Why did the makers of our Constitution declare India to be a ‘Union of States’? Why were some
sub-political units of India given a special status?
14. How is sharing of power between the union and the state governments fundamental to the
structure of the Constitution of India? Explain.
OR
How is the third tier of federalism useful in a vast country like India? Highlight five points.
15. How are the powers divided between the state and the centre in India? Explain with an example.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Differentiate between ‘Coming Together Federation’ and ‘Holding Together Federation’, with
examples.
OR
Explain any five features of Panchayati Raj system in India.
17. What is the meaning of Decentralisation? Explain any four provisions that have been made
towards Decentralisation in India after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992.
OR
Why has Federalism succeeded in India? Which were the policies adopted by India that ensured
this success? Explain.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. LANGUAGE DIVERSITY OF INDIA:
How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest
information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more
than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages
were grouped together under some major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri,
Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under
‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these 22 languages
are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called
‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages,
India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.
(a) Explain the importance of language diversity in India.
(b) Differentiate between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages.
(c) ‘The fusion of languages has united the country into one cultural entity.’ Explain the
statement with an example.

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 08 (2024-25)
ECONOMICS - Chapter 02 Sectors of the Indian Economy

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Observe the graph given below:

Which of the following statements best explains the graph?

(a) The production in all the three sectors has decreased and it has decreased the most in the
primary sector.
(b) The production in all the three sectors has increased and it has increased the most in the
primary sector.
(c) The production in all the three sectors has increased and it has increased the most in the
tertiary sector.
(d) The production in all the three sectors has increased and all the three sectors have similar
growth.

2. Under MGNREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of, work in rural areas are
guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government. If the government fails in its
duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people. Identify the
right.

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 (a) Right to Work (b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Livelihood (d) Right against Exploitation

3. Choose the incorrect pair from the following:

(a) Mailman - Tertiary sector
(b) Fisherman - Primary sector
(c) Carpenter - Primary sector
(d) Banker - Tertiary sector

4. Observe the picture given below and answer the question that follows.

Which sector does the worker in given cartoon represent?

(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) None

5. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(I) Transporting cloth to the workshops
(II) Sale in shops and showrooms
(III) Spinning the yarn
(IV) Weaving of the fabric
Options:
(a) (I)–(IV)–(III)–(II) (b) (III)–(IV)–(I)–(II)
(c) (IV)–(I)–(II)–(III) (d) (III)–(IV)–(II)–(I)

6. Which of the following steps would guarantee the welfare of the employees in the organised
sector?
(I) payment of equal remuneration to men and women at the workplace
(II) protection of the employment of women during the time of maternity
(III) prohibition of child marriage and providing relief to victims
(IV) payment of a one-time bonus to all retired employees
Options:
(a) Only (I) and (IV)
(b) Only (I), (III) and (IV)
(c) Only (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) All - (I), (II), (III) and (IV )
In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
7. Assertion (A): GDP (Gross Domestic Product) shows how big the economy is.
Reason (R): GDP of a country is the value of all intermediate goods and services produced
within a country during a particular year.

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8. Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know
the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Study the picture and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Identify to what sector does the activity belong.

(b) Which sector is the source of the product shown in the picture?

10. (i) How is GDP calculated?

(ii) What does MGNREGA mean?

11. Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows:
This source shows a database of Workers employed in different sectors (in millions).
Sector Unorganised Organised Total
Primary 200 2 202
Secondary 50 5 55
Tertiary 80 20 100
Total 330 27 357
Total in % 100%
(a) Calculate the percentage of people in the organised sector.
(b) Which sector employs the most amount of people according to the given table?

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. ‘‘Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.’’
Evaluate the statement.

13. How can the workers in an unorganised sector be protected? Explain.

OR
How can more employment be generated in the agriculture sector? Explain any three methods.

14. ‘‘There is need for protection and support for the workers in the unorganised sector.’’ Evaluate
this statement.

15. Why is the organised sector preferred by employees? Explain.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. How does the public sector contribute to the economic development of the nation? Explain.

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17. Analyse the given picture and answer the following questions.

(a) Which new initiative of the Indian government does the given picture discuss? How does it
signify the initiative?
(b) Highlight any two benefits of the mentioned initiative.
OR
“The declining share of agriculture in the gross domestic product (GDP) is a matter of serious
concern in India.” Support the statement.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. A graph given below shows the percentage of employment that is provided by the different
sectors of the economy in 1977-78 and 2017-18.
A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three
sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment.

Analyse the graph and give answers to the given questions:

(a) Which sector has nearly doubled its employment percentage from the year 1977-78 to the
year 2017- 18? (2)
(b) Which sector provides the highest number of employees and has the least share in the GDP?
What may be the reason for that? (2)
OR
(b) Why is Tertiary sector also called the Service sector? (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 09 (2024-25)
SAMPLE PAPER FOR PT2 EXAM
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each. Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each and Section
F comprises of 1 Map Based Questions of 3 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted
SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Observe the given picture and identify the type of farming in which this tool is used.

(a) Primitive Subsistence Farming (b) Slash and Burn

(c) Intensive Subsistence Farming (d) Commercial Farming
2. Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the
threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?
(I) Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife.
(II) Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
(III) Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks.
(IV) Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests.
Options:
(a) Statements (I) and (II) are correct (b) Statements (II), (III) & (IV) are correct
(c) Statement (II) is correct (d) Statements (I), (III), & (IV) are correct.
3. Which one of the following is an example of the Ferrous Metal?
(a) Copper (b) Tin (c) Bauxite (d) Nickel
4. ABC is a political party. It contests election and secures ten per cent of the total votes in an
election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins five seats, is recognised as:
(a) National Party (b) State Party (c) Ruling Party (d) None of the above
5. Arrange in Chronological order.
(I) India attained Independence.
(II) Comprehensive land development programme was initiated in India.
(III) White revolution was introduced.
(IV) The Green Revolution begins.
Codes:
(a) (I), (IV), (III) and (II) (b) (II), (III), (I) and (IV)
(c) (III), (II), (I) and (IV) (d) (II), (I), (IV) and (III)

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In the following questions 6 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
6. Assertion (A): Conservation of forests preserves the ecological diversity and our life support
systems – water, air and soil.
Reason (R): It also preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals for better growth of
species and breeding.
7. Assertion (A): Oceanic tides cannot be used to generate electricity.
Reason (R): Tidal energy can be used to run turbines and thereafter generate electricity.
8. Assertion (A): Natural gas is an environment friendly fuel.
Reason (R): It gives very low carbon dioxide emissions. It can be called the fuel for the present
century.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Observe the given adjoining picture and answer the
following questions.
(a) What political sentiment is shown in the given
picture?
(b) Name a political challenge faced by a political party
which makes it lose its voting base and popularity in the
country.

10. How did the 'small pox' prove as the most powerful
weapon of the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth
century? Explain.

11. Suggest any two ways to conserve energy resources in India.

OR
Observe the given picture and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the plant given in the picture.

(b) How can we help conserve the environment by using the plant shown?

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 SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 14 carry 3 marks each.
12. How is Wildlife Sanctuary different from National parks?

13. How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India ? Give your opinion.
OR
“Natural gas is an important source of energy.” Support the statement.

14. “Nearly every one of the state parties want to get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other
national level coalition.” Support the statement with arguments.
OR
Analyse the need of Political Parties in the Democracy

SECTION – D
Questions 15 to 16 carry 5 marks.
15. Identify and list the following political parties as national or regional political parties:
(1) National Conference (2) Shiromani Akali Dal
(3) D.M.K. or Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (4) Nationalist Congress Party
(5) Bharatiya Janata Party (6) Shiv Sena
(7) Forward Bloc (8) Janata Dal (U)
(9) Rashtriya Janata Dal (10) Samajwadi Party
OR
Define the two-party system. Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

16. How many cropping seasons are found in India? Name them and write a short note on each.
OR
Explain the features of intensive subsistence and plantation farming in India.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 17 carry 4 marks each.
17. In the nineteenth century, as you have seen, colonial India had become an exporter of
agricultural goods and importer of manufactures. The depression immediately affected Indian
trade. India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934. As international prices
crashed, prices in India also plunged. Between 1928 and 1934, wheat prices in India fell by 50
per cent. Peasants and farmers suffered more than urban dwellers. Though agricultural prices fell
sharply, the colonial government refused to reduce revenue demands. Peasants producing for the
world market were the worst hit.

(a) What can be inferred about the features of the world economy from the given source?
(b) According to the source, how did the urban salaried class remain unaffected during the
impact of the Great Depression?
(c) Who thought that Indian gold exports promoted global economic recovery?

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 SECTION – F (Map Based Questions)
Questions 18 carry 3 marks each.
18. (a) On the outline map of India, identify the largest/major producer states of the following
crops(any two):
1. Sugarcane 2. Tea 3. Coffee 4. Rubber
5. Jute 6. Cotton
(b) Identify and mark the following on the given outline map of India (any one)
(a) One power plant (b) One nuclear power plant

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 10 (2024-25)
Geography - Chapter 03 Water Resources

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Which of the following statements about water scarcity is true?
(I) Water scarcity is not only quantitative.
(II) It is recorded only in the semi-arid and arid regions of the country.
(III) Water scarcity causes various food borne diseases to the human population living close to
the region.
(IV) Water scarcity can be solved by building hydraulic structures.
Codes:
(a) (I), (II) and (III) (b) (I) and (II) (c) (I) and (IV) (d) (I), (II) and (IV)

2. Observe the picture and identify the hydraulic structure featured in it.

(a) Khadins (b) Johads (c) Kuls (d) Tanks

3. Arrange in chronological order.

(I) Rooftop rainwater is collected using a PVC pipe.
(II) Water from the well recharges the underground.
(III) Underground pipe takes water to sump for immediate usage.
(IV) Water is filtered using sand and bricks.
Codes:
(a) (I), (III), IV and (II)
(b) (II), (III), (I) and (IV)
(c) (I), (IV) (III) and (II)
(d) (II), (I), IV and (III)

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4. Ankur, a resident from Rajasthan, decided to install a submersible water pump in his house,
capable of extracting groundwater from depths of 250-300m. This practice of installing similar
pumps is becoming increasingly popular across the state.
Which of the following will this growing practice MOST LIKELY lead to in the near future?
(a) Decline in the groundwater quality
(b) Reduced monsoon water resources
(c) Increased number of waterborne diseases
(d) Water scarcity resulting from excessive utilisation

5. Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of Embankment Dam?

(a) Embankment dams are naturally occurring dams in the northern India.
(b) An Embankment dam is a large artificial dam.
(c) Embankment dams are impervious to seepage.
(d) Embankment dams have concrete floors.

6. Which of the following statements appropriately describes the objective behind building the
Hirakud Dam on Mahanadi river?
(a) The Hirakud Dam provides freshwater to the water starved state of Andhra Pradesh.
(b) The Hirakud Dam was built to augment industrial development in Odisha.
(c) It was built to provide employment to the Santhal tribes residing close to the river.
(d) It was constructed mainly for decorative purposes.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Johad and Khadin are modern methods of water harvesting in India.
Reason (R): Johad and Khadin are present in the western India, particularly in Rajasthan.

8. Assertion (A): A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow,
often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment.
Reason (R): Hirakud Dam is the longest earthen dam in the world.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Multipurpose projects have transformed the social landscapes. Explain.

10. (i) How is freshwater obtained?

(ii) What was the method used in the ancient period to conserve water?

11. Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim the dams as the "temples of modern India"?
OR
What is Bamboo Drip Irrigation? Mention any two features of it.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Explain any three problems faced by local communities due to the construction of large dams.

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13. Locate the following dams and rivers on the given outline map of India. (any three)
(a) Salal dam (b) Tehri dam (c) Gandak river (d) Sardar Sarovar Dam

14. ‘‘The dams that were constructed to control floods have triggered floods.’’ Analyse the
statement.

15. “Water scarcity may be an outcome of large and growing population in India.” Analyse the
statement.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.

16. Why is rooftop water harvesting important in Rajasthan? Explain.

17. How have multipurpose projects and large dams been the cause of many new social movements?
OR
How has intensive industrialisation and urbanisation posed a great pressure on existing fresh
water resources in India? Explain with two examples for each.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.

18. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow :
Narmada Bachao Andolan or Save Narmada Movement is a Non-Governmental Organisation
(NGO) that mobilised tribal people, farmers, environmentalists and human rights activists
against the Sardar Sarovar Dam being built across the Narmada river in Gujarat. It originally
focused on the environmental issues related to trees that would be submerged under the dam
water. Recently, it has re-focused the aim to enable poor citizens, especially the oustees
(displaced people) to get full rehabilitation facilities from the government.

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 People felt that their suffering would not be in vain… accepted the trauma of displacement
believing in the promise of irrigated fields and plentiful harvests. So, often the survivors of
Rihand told us that they accepted their sufferings as sacrifice for the sake of their nation. But
now, after thirty bitter years of being adrift, their livelihood having even being more precarious,
they keep asking: “Are we the only ones chosen to make sacrifices for the nation?”
(i) With what objective ‘Sardar Sarovar Dam’ was built? (1)
(ii) Analyse the reason of protest by the tribal people. (1)
(iii) Highlight the issues on which ‘Save Narmada Movement’ worked on. (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 11 (2024-25)
History Chapter 03 The Making of a Global World

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each. Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted
SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Which event led to the movement of goods, people, and diseases across continents?
(a) Industrial Revolution (b) Discovery of America
(c) French Revolution (d) World War I

2. Which of the following was a major trade item in the Silk Routes?
(a) Coal (b) Silk (c) Spices (d) Textiles

3. What was the main source of wealth for Europe in the 16th century?
(a) Agriculture (b) Silver from America
(c) Oil trade (d) Industrialization

4. What is the significance of the image of ships found in memorial stones on the western coast of
India?
(a) To symbolize wars (b) To show the importance of oceanic trade
(c) To signify exploration (d) To mark the beginning of the British era

5. The Portuguese and Spanish conquest of America was helped by:

(a) Superior weapons (b) Diseases like smallpox
(c) Trade agreements (d) Help from other European nations

6. Which crop from the Americas became crucial for the survival of the poor in Europe?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Potato (d) Maize

7. Assertion (A): The Silk Routes contributed to the spread of culture across Asia and Europe.
Reason (R): The routes facilitated the exchange of goods, but not ideas or religion.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.

8. Assertion (A): Smallpox was one of the most deadly diseases that affected the native population
of America.
Reason (R): Europeans carried diseases to America, for which the natives had no immunity.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. What impact did the discovery of the Americas have on global trade?

10. How did food such as potatoes and maize contribute to the survival of Europe's poor?

11. Explain the concept of ‘biological warfare’ in the context of European colonization of the
Americas.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Describe the role of the Indian Ocean in pre-modern global trade.

13. Discuss the cultural exchanges that took place along the Silk Routes.

14. How did the introduction of new crops from the Americas affect Europe and Asia?

15. Explain how the European conquest of the Americas reshaped the global economy.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Describe the significance of the Silk Routes in linking the world before the 15th century.

17. Analyze the impact of European colonization on the Americas and its indigenous populations.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.

18. Hungry children digging for potatoes in a field that has

already been harvested, hoping to discover some leftovers.
During the Great Irish Potato Famine (1845 to 1849), around
1,000,000 people died of starvation in Ireland, and double the
number emigrated in search of work.

(a) What caused the Great Irish Potato Famine? (1)

(b) How many people emigrated during the Great Irish Potato
Famine? (1)
(c) Discuss the social impact of the famine on Ireland. (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 12 (2024-25)
History - Chapter 04 Print Culture & Modern World
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each. Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted
SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Observe the given picture and choose the correct statement about it.
(a) The given picture depicts the artist's anxiety about
men and women mingling with each other.
(b) The fear of artists about the cultural impact of
western education upon women has been shown in the
picture.
(c) The picture shows the society of nineteenth century
India.
(d) The picture describes a married relationship in an
Indian household during the nineteenth century.

2. Look at the given picture. Identify the name of the painter of this painting from the following
options.

(a) Abanindranath Tagore (b) Rabindranath Tagore

(c) Raja Ravi Varma (d) Samant Das Gupta

3. Which one of the following aspects was common among the writings of Kailashbashini Debi,
Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?
(a) Demanded economic equality for masses.
(b) Highlighted the experiences of women.
(c) Raised awareness about cultural heritage.
(d) Motivated Indians for their national freedom.

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4. Identify the personality featured in the picture who also invented the first
printing press in Europe in the 1430s.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (b) Kitagawa Utamaro
(c) Johannes Gutenberg (d) Marco Polo

5. Which one of the following was NOT the reason for the popularity of
scientific ideas among the common people in eighteenth century Europe?
(a) Printing ideas of Isaac Newton (b) Development of printing press
(c) Interest of people in Science and reason (d) Traditional aristocratic group supported it

6. In early nineteenth century ‘Shamsul Akhbar’ was written in which one of the following
languages?
(a) Urdu (b) Persian (c) Arabic (d) Swahili

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
7. Assertion (A): Every page of each copy printed by Gutenberg’s press was different.
Reason (R): In each copy, the borders were carefully designed, painted and illuminated by hand
by artists.

8. Assertion (A): The distribution, application, and preservation of knowledge were fundamentally
altered with the invention of printing.
Reason (R): Printing enabled intellectuals to produce, comment on, and evaluate texts which
spread as ideas across Europe.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. (i) Why was ‘Gulamgiri’ written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871?
(ii) Which writers have spoken about the lower caste system?
OR
(i) Who were the Ulamas?
(ii) Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878?

10. (i) Which country printed the Buddhist Diamond Sutra in 868 A.D.?
(ii) How was hand-printed technology introduced in Japan?

11. Why did the Roman Catholic Church impose control over publishers and booksellers?
OR
Why had Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the ‘Vernacular Press’ in the 19th century?

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. How did new forms of popular literature appear in print targeting new audiences in the 18th
century? Explain the examples.

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13. Examine the role of missionaries in the growth of the press in India?

14. Print culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Give any three
suitable arguments to support the statement.

15. How did a new reading public emerge with the printing press? Express in your opinion.
OR
Give any three reasons favouring shift from hand printing to mechanical printing in China.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. ‘‘Issues of caste discrimination began to be written about in many printed tracts and essays in
India in the late nineteenth century.’’ Support the statement with two suitable examples.
OR
How had a large number of new readers among children, women and workers increased in
nineteenth century Europe? Explain with examples.

17. “The ‘Print Revolution’ has transformed the lives of people, changing their relationship to
information and knowledge.” Analyse the statement.
OR
What led to the colonial government to pass the Vernacular Press Act in 1879? How did it affect
the vernacular newspaper?

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Through the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries literacy rates went up in most parts of Europe.
Churches of different denominations set up schools in villages, carrying literacy to peasants and
artisans. By the end of the eighteenth century, in some parts of Europe literacy rates were as high
as 60 to 80 per cent. As literacy and schools spread in European countries, there was a virtual
reading mania. People wanted books to read and printers produced books in ever increasing
numbers.
New forms of popular literature appeared in print, targeting new audiences. Booksellers
employed pedlars who roamed around villages, carrying little books for sale, were almanacs or
ritual calendars, along with ballads and folktales. But other forms of reading matter, largely for
entertainment, began to reach ordinary readers as well. In England, penny chapbooks were
carried by petty pedlars known as chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor could
buy them. In France, were the "Bibliotheque Bleue", which were low-priced small books printed
on poor quality paper, and bound in cheap blue covers. Then there were the romances, printed on
four to six pages, and the more substantial 'histories' which were stories about the past. Books
were of various sizes, serving many different purposes and interests.

(a) What were the reasons for increasing literacy rate in most of Europe?
(b) What were the effects of spread of literacy and schools on the print culture?
(c) What were Chapbooks?
(d) What was Bibliotheque Bleue?

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 13 (2024-25)
Geography - Chapter 04 Agriculture

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Observe the given picture and identify the type of farming in which this tool is used.

(a) Primitive Subsistence Farming (b) Slash and Burn

(c) Intensive Subsistence Farming (d) Commercial Farming

2. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in :
(a) Groundnut-Assam (b) Tea-Gujarat
(c) Coffee-Karnataka (d) Sugarcane-Chhattisgarh

3. Observe the flow chart given below:

What will come in the empty box?

(a) Gram (b) Maize (c) Millets (d) Pulse

4. Identify the crop with the help of the following information:

(I) It is a crop which is used as both food and fodder.
(II) It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C.
(III) It grows well in old alluvial soil.

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 (IV) Use of modern inputs have contributed to the increasing production of this crop.
Options:
(a) Wheat (b) Maize (c) Rice (d) Sugarcane

5. Which among the following movements is also known as the Blood-less revolution?
(a) Bhoodan-Gramdan movement (b) Russian Revolution
(c) Second World War (d) French Revolution

6. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?

(a) Pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons.
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities.
(c) They are grown in rotation to replenish fertility of the soil.
(d) Pulses are leguminous crops.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price.
Reason (R): The public sector contributes to economic development.

8. Assertion (A): Subsidy on fertilisers is decreased leading to increase in the cost of production.
Reason (R): Subsidy is the discount on agricultural products.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Explain any two features of Intensive Subsistence farming.

10. (a) By which name is the specialised cultivation of fruits and vegetables known?
(b) Describe “Jhumming Cultivation” in one sentence.

11. Why do farming practices vary in different regions? Give two major reasons.
OR
Which crop in India is known as golden fibre? What are its uses?

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Describe any three main features of Rabi crop season and Kharif crop season.

13. Differentiate between commercial farming and plantation farming.

OR
What is the importance of pulses in our country? Why are pulses grown as a rotation crop?

14. What are the growing conditions required for the main staple food crop of India? Mention the
main growing regions.
OR
Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of 'wheat' in India.

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15. Mark the following on the given outline political map of India:
(a) Major sugarcane producing states (b) One rubber producing state.
(c) Major cotton producing states. (d) Two tea producing states.
(e) One coffee producing state. (f ) One jute producing state.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Explain any three institutional reforms taken for the development of Indian agriculture.
OR
Why is agriculture called the backbone of Indian economy? Explain.

17. Explain any five initiatives taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural
production.
OR
What are millets? Give brief description of the climatic conditions and producing states of the
millets grown in India.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps guide actions to transform agri-food
systems towards green and climate- resilient practices. CSA supports reaching internationally-
agreed goals such as the Sustainable Development Goals and the Paris Agreement on climate
change. CSA supports the Food and Agriculture Organisation Strategic Framework 2022-2031

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 based on the Four Betters: better production, better nutrition, a better environment and a better
life for all, leaving no one behind.

Source (edited): Food and Agriculture Organisation

(a) A CSA expert suggested increased production and consumption of millets in India. Justify
their stance.
(b) What is the necessity to think of CSA in India according to the case?
(c) Suggest two methods through which India can shift towards CSA as given in the source.

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 06 (2024-25)
Geography - Chapter 06 Manufacturing Industries

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Observe the given picture and choose an appropriate measure to prevent the kind of pollution
featured in it.

(a) Application of earplugs and silencers in chimneys

(b) Waste must not be thrown in open grounds.
(c) Water from the industries must be stored in containers, treated and cooled before being
recycled to be used in factories again.
(d) Waste must be segregated into organic and inorganic waste and compost bins must be used.

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct about NTPC?

(I) NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India.
(II) It is responsible for major air pollution in India.
(III) NTPC has made ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management
compulsory for all its power stations to prevent pollution.
(IV) NTPC has a plant in Ramagundam.
Codes:
(a) (I), (III) and (IV) (b) (I) and (II) (c) (I) and (IV) (d) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

3. Which one of the following is a private sector industry?

(a) BHEL (b) TISCO (c) OIL (d) SAIL

4. Choose the group of pollutants which cause air pollution.

(a) Organic and inorganic industrial effluents poured into water bodies.
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate
materials.
(c) Waste thrown on grounds.
(d) Unwanted sound waves from industries, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.
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5. Which of the following is a negative effect of industrialisation?
(a) Economic growth and globalisation
(b) Pollution and environmental degradation
(c) Foreign exchange earnings
(d) Rapid urbanisation

6. What is the full form of NMCC?

(a) National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
(b) National Manufacturing Clearance Council
(c) National Manufacturing Corporate Council
(d) National Manufacturing Caring Council

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to
more valuable products is called manufacturing.
Reason (R): The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of
manufacturing industries.

8. Assertion (A): Manufacturing activities also reduce the heavy dependence of people on
agricultural income.
Reason (R): It replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Why does the textile industry occupy unique position in the Indian economy. Explain.

10. How is Public sector different from Private Sector?

OR
Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each other?

11. Why is the iron and steel industry called as the ‘basic industry’? Explain.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Explain any three ways through which industrial pollution can be reduced.
OR
Environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.’’ Justify the statement.

13. “The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the
value chain.” Justify the statement.
OR
“Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand”. Validate the statement.

14. Explain with examples the interdependence of agriculture and industries.

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15. On the given Political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate
symbols:
(a) Durgapur—Iron and Steel Plant
(b) Jamshedpur—Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Noida—Software Technology Park

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Describe any five factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industry in and
around Chota Nagpur Plateau region.
OR
Manufacturing sector is considered as the ‘backbone of general and economic development.’
Examine the statement in the context of India.

17. How are industries responsible for environmental degradation in India? Explain with examples.
OR
Examine the multi-pronged aspects of Information Technology and Electronics Industry.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Read the case given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
NTPC shows the way
NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS
(Environment Management System) 14001. The corporation has a pro-active approach for

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 preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it
is setting up power plants. This has been possible through

(a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing
equipment.
(b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
(c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special
purpose vehicles for afforestation.
(i) Which is the major power providing corporation in India? (1)
(ii) Name the institution which issues ISO certification for Environment Management System.
(1)
(iii) Explain the pro-active approach of NTPC for preserving the natural environment. (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 15 (2024-25)
Political Science - Chapter 03 Gender, Religion and Caste

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted
SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Given below is a cartoon created by Neelabh Banerjee, the renowned Indian cartoonist,
illustrator and comics artist.

What is the cartoon trying to depict?

(a) The sexual division of labour in India
(b) Natural and unchangeable gender divisions
(c) Income generating activities done by women in rural India
(d) The ability of men to contribute equally to domestic work as women
2. Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(a) It shows an understanding why the women’s reservation bill is not passed in the parliament.

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 (b) It shows an understanding of why the canteen rates of the parliament are extremely low.
(c) It shows an understanding of the elections and domination of one party over the parliament.
(d) none of the above

3. Identify the reason why caste alone cannot determine elections in India.
(I) No party can win the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
(II) Political parties appease certain castes and ignore others.
(III) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste, people
from different castes live in each constituency.
(IV) Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the lower
castes.
Codes:
(a) (I) only (b) (II) only (c) (I) & (IV) only (d) (I), (II) & (III) only

4. Study the following picture and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon ?

(a) Political leaders treat people belonging to a caste as 'vote banks'.
(b) In elections, political parties give tickets to the candidates on the basis of caste.
(c) Candidates in elections make appeals to caste sentiment to muster support.
(d) None of the above.

5. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Caste is an important source of economic inequality because it regulates access to resources
of various kinds.
(b) The upper castes are heavily underrepresented among the rich while the lower castes are
severely overrepresented.
(c) The backward castes are best off economically.
(d) The relationship between caste and economic status has remained the same over the years.

6. Which among the following statements about the Constitution of India is wrong?
(a) It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) It gives official status to one religion.
(c) It ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.
(d) It ensures everyone's freedom to profess any religion.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

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(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
Reason (R): Every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and
community to win elections.

8. Assertion (A): Women in different parts of the world organised and agitated for equal rights.
Reason (R): There were agitations in different countries for the extension of voting rights to
women.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. (i) What do you mean by patriarchal society?
(ii) How much representation do local governments provide for women in India?

10. “Women face discrimination in various ways in our society.” Explain any two ways.

11. “Sometimes elections are all about castes in India.” How can this situation be avoided?
OR
(i) What does the term ‘Scheduled’ denotes in ‘Scheduled castes’ and ‘Scheduled tribes’?
(ii) “Caste system is still prevalent in the Indian society.” Suggest any one measure to abolish it.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. How can caste take several forms in politics? Explain with examples.

13. Describe the three advantages of the political expression of caste differences.

14. Suppose a politician seeks your vote on the religious ground. Why is his act considered against
the norms of democracy? Explain.
OR
‘‘In politics, the focus on caste can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about
caste and nothing else.’’ Justify the statement.

15. “Secularism is not an ideology of some political parties or persons, but it is one of the
foundations of our country.” Examine the statement.
OR
How is gender division understood in Indian society? To what extent does political mobilisation
on gender basis helps to improve women’s role in public life?

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Women still lag much behind men in India despite some improvements since independence.
Analyse the statement.
OR
How can the relationship between politics and religion be beneficial and problematic at the same
time? Explain.

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17. “Caste has not still disappeared from contemporary India”. Do you agree with the statement?
Justify your answer with suitable arguments.
OR
Define communalism. Explain any three forms of communalism in the Indian politics.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Political participation of women in India is very less when compared to other countries. Only
10% of the total members in Lok Sabha are women. The situation is worse in state assemblies
where only 5% of the total members are women. The women reservation bill to encourage the
participation of women is still pending since past decade. Women have entered into every field
but they are still paid less than their male counter parts. Proportion of women in highlypaid jobs
is still less and studies have showed that on an average they work more than men and yet paid
less. Although the Equal Remuneration Act provides provision for equal wages should be paid
for equal work.

(a) What is the status of representation of women in the legislature? (1)

(b) What is the status of the women reservation bill in India in the central and state legislature? (1)
(c) What is the economic status of working women in India? (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 16 (2024-25)
Political Science - Chapter 04 Political Parties

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(a) It suggests that in democracies people contest elections only to make money.
(b) Since parties focus only on winning elections, they tend to use shortcuts to win elections.
(c) They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money.
(d) Democrats all over the world are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big
companies in democratic politics.

2. Study the following picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

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 (a) Berlusconi (b) Putin (c) Kwame Nkrumah (d) Mussolini

3. Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(a) In some countries power usually changes between two main parties, who win majority of
seats.
(b) In some countries only one party is allowed to control and run the government.
(c) Party system evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and
regional divisions.
(d) Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances.

4. Study the following picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following best signifies this cartoon?

(a) People hate politics
(b) People want to throw away the politicians in Niagara Falls
(c) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world
(d) People of Canada think that the Liberals should be in power

5. Which one of the following countries has two party system?

(a) China (b) Russia (c) America (d) India

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6. Observe the information chart given below and answer the question that follows:

Which area of the world shows maximum political participation through parties?
(a) America (b) South Asia (c) Africa (d) Europe

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): India has a Multi Party System.

Reason (R): The Multi Party System often appears very messy and leads to political instability.

8. Assertion (A): There are some country- wide parties, which are called, National Parties'.
Reason (R): These parties have their units in various states.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Differentiate between ruling and opposition parties.

10. How do political parties shape public opinion?

OR
(i)Give one technical term for the following statement: ‘‘A person who is strongly committed to
a party or group.’’

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 (ii) Why is one party system not considered a good democratic system?

11. Explain the merits of Multi Party System.

OR
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

(a) What can be said about the trends of political participation in India?
(b) Highlight a way to increase political participation in India.

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Describe any three main features of two-party system.
OR
“Nearly every one of the state parties wants to get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other
national level coalition.” Support the statement with arguments.

13. What is a political party? State any two points of the ideology of Bhartiya Janata Party.
OR
“No party system is ideal for all countries and all situations.” Justify the statement with
arguments.

14. Exhibit the role of money and muscle power among political parties during elections.

15. What is meant by regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a
‘regional political party’.
OR
“Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse
the statement.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. Describe the role of political parties in Indian democracy.
OR
“Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties.” Examine the statement.

17. “All over the world, people express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to
perform their functions well.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
OR
Describe the necessity or utility of political parties in democratic countries.

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 SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)
Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Political parties are one of the most easily visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary
citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and
speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything
about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would
know something about our political parties. At the same time this visibility does not mean
popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for
all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life. Parties have become identified with
social and political divisions.

(a) What do you mean by the term 'Political Party' mentioned in the source?
(b) Why does the source claim that people blame parties?
(c) What is the main purpose of a political party mentioned in the source?

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 PRACTICE PAPER 17 (2024-25)
Political Science - Chapter 05 Outcomes of Democracy

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Study the picture and the answer the question that follows :

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon ?

(a) Demand for separate state from democratic government
(b) Democratic Government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation
(d) Democratic Government accepts demands based on separate

2. Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(a) On an average, dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic growth.
(b) Within democracies, there are sometimes very high degree of inequalities.
(c) There are often inequalities of opportunities available to the poorer sections.
(d) There is a relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities.

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3. Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(a) If you see all democracies and all dictatorship for a decade, you will find dictatorships have
slightly higher economic development.
(b) Economic development depends on several factors like country’s population, size, global
situation and cooperation from other countries.
(c) If democracies are expected to produce good governments, then it is not fair to expect that
they would also produce development.
(d) There are disparities between rich and poor, whereas economic growth should be evenly
distributed.

4. Which one of the following options best suited this cartoon?

(a) Most societies across the world were historically male-dominated societies.
(b) Majority and minority opinions are not permanent.
(c) Democracies do not reduce economic inequalities.
(d) People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them.
Ans. (a) Most societies across the world were historically male-dominated societies.

5. Which of the following statements is not true about Democracy?

(a) People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them.
(b) It is free of corruption.
(c) It is expected to produce good governments.
(d) Guarantees rights of citizens.

6. Which type of government is likely to be more acceptable to the people in the world?
(a) Democratic (b) Military (c) Dictatorship (d) Theocratic

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In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

7. Assertion (A): Democracy is a legitimate government.

Reason (R): Regular, free and fair elections are the spirit of democracy.

8. Assertion (A): Democracies are based on political equality.

Reason (R): All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. How can Democratic reforms be carried out by politically conscious citizens?
OR
How do democratic governments ensure transparency?
10. “In comparison to non-democratic government, decision of government takes time.” Does
democracy pay its price? Explain.
OR
Give argument to support or oppose the following assertions: "Industrialised countries can afford
democracy but the poor need dictatorship to become rich."
11. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?
OR
(i) Explain the meaning of democracy.
(ii) What is meant by economic inequality?

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. “Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.”
Analyse the statement with three examples.
13. Which values make democracy better than any other form of governments? Explain.
OR
“A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic
project.” Justify the statement.
14. Examine the political outcome of democracy.
OR
“Democracies are not appearing to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities.”
Analyse the statement.
15. “Democracy enhances the dignity and freedom of individuals.” Support the statement.
OR
Differentiate between democratic and nondemocratic government.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. “Democracy produces an accountable, responsive and legitimate government.” Support the
statement with arguments.

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 OR
How does democracy produce a harmonious social life? Explain.

17. “Democracies accommodate social diversities and provide dignity and freedom to the citizens”.
Justify the statement.
OR
“Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.”
Support the statement with examples.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. Democracy is based on political equality and all individuals have equal right to choose their
representative. But along with this (political equality) we can see growing economic inequality
among the individuals. A small number of ultra-rich enjoys a highly disproportionate share of
wealth and income. Due to these reasons, their share in total income of the country is increasing.
On the other hand, the income of poor is declining. Sometimes they (poor) find it difficult to
meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health. Though poor
constitutes a large proportion of voters, yet the democratic governments are not keen to take up
the question of poverty. The situation is much worse in some other countries. Like Bangladesh
where more than half of its population lives in poverty, even people of poor countries are now
dependent on the rich countries for food supplies.

(i) Democracy is based on which factor? (1 mark)

(ii) Does a democracy hold its purposes? (1 mark)
(iii) What is the present scenario of the society? (2 marks)

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 PRACTICE PAPER 18 (2024-25)
ECONOMICS - Chapter 03 Money and Credit

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted
SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

Currency in the era of kings were made from:

(a) Gold, Silver and Copper (b) Ivory and Bones
(c) Grains and Water (d) Rice and Water

2. Observe the given pictures and answer the following question.

Which of the two men is more likely to face difficulty in borrowing money from a formal source
of credit while living in Firozabad?
(a) Man in Picture (A) (b) Man in Picture (B) (c) Both will easily be given credit
(d) Enough information has not been provided to ascertain which of the two will be given credit easily.
3. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
Rita has taken a loan of ₹ 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the
loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments. The bank
retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she
repays the entire loan with interest.

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 Analyse the loan information given above, and point out which one of the following is the
correct option that describes the above statements accurately.
(a) Mode of re-payment (b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan (d) Deposit criteria
4. Find the incorrect option:
(a) Demand deposits share the essential features of money.
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash.
(c) Demand deposits are a safe way of money transformation.
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque.
5. Which of the following refers to investment?
(a) The money spent on religious ceremonies. (b) The money spent on social customs.
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land. (d) The money spent on household goods.
6. Rehman is a poor agricultural labour and needs a loan for cultivation on his small piece of land.
Which of the following would definitely offer him a fair interest rate and flexible terms of credit?
(a) Village moneylender (b) Cooperative society
(c) Commercial bank (d) Rich landowner
In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
7. Assertion (A): If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender does not have the right to sell
the asset or collateral to obtain payment.
Reason (R): Collateral acts like a guarantee against the borrowed money.
8. Assertion (A): Banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to
whom, at what interest rate, etc.
Reason (R): This is done to ensure the rich get enough loans.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. (i) How is money beneficial in transactions?
(ii) What is barter system?

10. (i) Why one cannot refuse a payment made in rupees in India?
(ii) Highlight the inherent problem in double coincidence of wants.
OR
(i) Why is money called a medium of exchange?
(ii) Which metals were used for making coins in India in later stages?

11. (i) Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural
India.
(ii) How does money eliminate the need for double coincidence of wants? [CBSE (F) 2016]
OR
(i) What do you mean by the term ‘collateral’?
(ii) Recognise the situation when both the parties in a barter economy have to agree to sell and
buy each other’s commodities. What is it called?

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 SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. Describe the bad effects of informal sources of credit on borrowers.
OR
Why do banks and co-operative societies need to lend more ? Explain.
13. Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India ?
14. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find out
the reason.
15. ‘‘Credit can play a negative role.’’ Justify the statement with arguments.
OR
Why is it necessary to increase the number of banks mainly in rural areas? Explain.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest any
five measures.
OR
Why is cheap and affordable credit important for the country’s development? Explain any five
reasons.
17. “Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.”
Support the statement with examples.
OR
Describe the significance of the Reserve Bank of India.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.
18. In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea
is to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool
(collect) their savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one
neighbourhood, who meet and save regularly. Saving per member varies from ₹ 25 to ₹ 100 or
more, depending on the ability of the people to save. Members can take small loans from the
group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less
than what the moneylender charges. After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it
becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank. Loan is sanctioned in the name of the group
and is meant to create self employment Opportunities for the members.

(a) Describe any two advantages of the ‘Groups’ mentioned in the source for the poor. (2)
(b) How do these groups create various employment opportunities for their members? (1)
(c) Classify these groups into formal or informal sources of credit. (1)

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 PRACTICE PAPER 19 (2024-25)
ECONOMICS - Chapter 04 Globalisation and The Indian Economy

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 18 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 8 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 3 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 2 questions of
5 marks each and Section E comprises of 1 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each.
1. Observe the picture and answer the following question.

Why are the people present in the picture protesting?

(a) Against the country of America and its unfair trade practices
(b) For a change in the political system of the world
(c) Against WTO's decisions to influence trade related decisions
(d) Against neoliberalism

2. Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option:
(a) It is the only way for economic development of the country.
(b) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world.
(c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries.
(d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another.

3. Choose the correct statement about factors of globalisation in India:

(I) Improvement in transportation technology.
(II) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment.
(III) Favourable rules of World Trade Organisation towards India in comparison to developed
countries.
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
(a) Only (I) and (II) (b) Only (I) and (III) (c) Only (II) and (III) (d) Only (III)

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of the process of globalisation?

(a) Google's headquarters being in California with multiple offices across the world

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 (b) Railways being the largest public sector undertaking employer in India
(c) McDonalds introducing McAloo Tikki specially for the Indian menu
(d) Spanish family having masala dosas for their weekend breakfast

5. Identify the correct statements about globalization.

(I) Removal of barriers by the government
(II) Foreign companies are allowed to set up factories
(III) Has enabled all companies to increase their investments
(IV) Has lessened foreign investment and foreign trade
Codes:
(a) (I) and (II) (b) (II) and (III) (c) (I) and (III) (d) (II) and I

6. Evaluate the impacts of opening foreign trade on the global economy by identifying the
appropriate statements among the following options:
(I) The choice of goods in the markets increase.
(II) Producers from two countries closely compete against each other despite the distance
between their locations.
(III) Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different
countries.
(IV) The quality of the product is always good.
Options:
(a) Statements (I) and (II) are appropriate.
(b) Statements (I), (II) and (III) are appropriate.
(c) All the statements are appropriate.
(d) Only statement (IV) is appropriate.

In the following questions 7 and 8, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
7. Assertion (A): Import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice
of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
Reason (R): Import involves buying goods from the same country.

8. Assertion (A): Globalisation is this process of rapid integration or interconnection between

countries.
Reason (R): MNCs are playing a major role in the globalisation process.

SECTION – B
Questions 9 to 11 carry 2 marks each.
9. Why are trade barriers imposed on the foreign trade and investment in a country?

OR

Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and
other resources?

10. What do you understand by Globalisation? Explain in your own words.

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11. Why have MNCs increased their investment in India?

OR
(i) Why do Governments use trade barriers?
(ii) After independence, which items were allowed to be imported?

SECTION – C
Questions 12 to 15 carry 3 marks each.
12. ‘Liberalisation of foreign trade involves policy framework at National and International level’.
Explain the statement.
OR

In what ways, Multi National Corporation (MNCs) different from other companies? Explain with
an example.

13. Examine the role of Information Technology in stimulating the process of globalisation.

14. “A wide ranging choice of goods are available in the Indian markets.” Support the statement with
examples in context of Globalisation.

15. How can the Government of India play a major role to make globalisation more fair? Explain
with examples.
OR

Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after
Independence? Analyse the reasons.

SECTION – D
Questions 16 to 17 carry 5 marks.
16. “Technology is the vital force in the modern form of globalisation”. Explain the statement with
suitable examples.

OR
Explain any five effects of globalization.

17. “Globalisation has been advantageous to consumers as well as to producers.” Support the
statement with suitable examples.
OR

“Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all and also ensure that benefits of
globalisation are shared better.” Support the statement.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 18 carry 4 marks each.

18. Read the sources given below and answer the questions related to them:
Source A: Globalisation and the Indian economy
As consumers in today‘s world, some of us have a wide choice of goods and services before us.
The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and television made by the leading
manufactures of the world are within our reach. Every season, new models of automobiles can be
seen on Indian roads.

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 Source B: Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e.,
markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located
within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding
the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
Source C: The struggle for fair globalisation
In the past few years, massive campaigns and representation by people‘s organisations have
influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the WTO. This has
demonstrated that people also can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
(a) How is the impact of globalization visible on consumers?
(b) How does Foreign integrates the markets ?
(c) How do people play an important role in the struggle for fair globalization ?

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