1. MX technology was introduced by which company?

a) AMD
b) Intel
c) Cyrix
d) IBM
Answer: b) Intel

2. What does MMX stand for?

a) Multi-Media Extension
b) Maximum Memory Expansion
c) Multi-Mode Execution
d) Microprocessor Media Extension
Answer: a) Multi-Media Extension

3. MMX technology primarily improves the performance of:

a) Office applications
b) Multimedia and graphics processing
c) Database management
d) Networking protocols
Answer: b) Multimedia and graphics processing

4. MMX technology introduced which type of processing?

a) Floating-point arithmetic
b) SIMD (Single Instruction, Multiple Data)
c) Hyper-threading
d) Multi-core processing
Answer: b) SIMD (Single Instruction, Multiple Data)

5. MMX was first introduced in which Intel processor series?

a) Pentium
b) Pentium Pro
c) Pentium II
d) Core i3
Answer: a) Pentium

6. Cache memory is used to:

a) Store frequently accessed data for quick retrieval
b) Increase hard disk capacity
c) Improve display resolution
d) Store user documents
Answer: a) Store frequently accessed data for quick retrieval

7. Which cache level is closest to the CPU?

a) L1 Cache
b) L2 Cache
c) L3 Cache
d) Virtual Cache
Answer: a) L1 Cache

8. Cache memory is usually made of:

a) DRAM
b) SRAM
c) Flash memory
 d) ROM
Answer: b) SRAM

9. The larger the cache memory:

a) The slower the CPU performs
b) The faster the CPU processes data
c) The lower the power consumption
d) The smaller the RAM requirement
Answer: b) The faster the CPU processes data

10. What happens if cache memory is full?

a) The CPU slows down
b) The system shuts down
c) Additional cache memory is automatically allocated
d) The cache memory clears itself
Answer: a) The CPU slows down

11.

12. CPU speed is measured in:

a) Megabytes
b) Gigahertz
c) Nanometers
d) Teraflops
Answer: b) Gigahertz

13. The processing speed of a CPU depends on:

a) The type of power supply
b) The number of cores and clock speed
c) The size of the display
d) The type of keyboard used
Answer: b) The number of cores and clock speed

14. Which CPU feature helps process multiple instructions simultaneously?

a) Virtualization
b) Multi-core processing
c) Liquid cooling
d) Overclocking
Answer: b) Multi-core processing

15. Increasing the clock speed of a CPU is called:

a) Underclocking
b) Overclocking
c) Hyper-threading
d) Turbo Boost
Answer: b) Overclocking

16. What is the effect of a faster CPU clock speed?

a) Increases processing power
b) Increases RAM size
c) Reduces internet lag
d) Enhances monitor resolution
Answer: a) Increases processing power
17. Which of the following is an example of an expansion slot?
a) PCI Express (PCIe)
b) USB Port
c) SATA Port
d) Ethernet Port
Answer: a) PCI Express (PCIe)

18. What is the main function of an expansion slot?

a) To install additional memory
b) To connect peripheral devices like graphics cards
c) To increase the size of cache memory
d) To store user data permanently
Answer: b) To connect peripheral devices like graphics cards

19. The most common type of expansion slot for modern graphics cards is:
a) AGP
b) PCI
c) PCIe
d) ISA
Answer: c) PCIe

20. Which expansion slot is no longer used in modern motherboards?

a) PCIe
b) AGP
c) NVMe
d) M.2
Answer: b) AGP

21. M.2 expansion slots are commonly used for:

a) Graphics cards
b) Sound cards
c) Solid-state drives (SSDs)
d) Cooling fans
Answer: c) Solid-state drives (SSDs)

22. What does RAM stand for?

a) Random Access Memory
b) Readable Access Module
c) Rapid Application Manager
d) Read-Only Memory
Answer: a) Random Access Memory

23. What is the main purpose of RAM?

a) To store permanent files
b) To temporarily store data for quick access
c) To improve internet speed
d) To control input devices
Answer: b) To temporarily store data for quick access

24. ROM stands for:

a) Read-Only Memory
b) Random Output Memory
c) Rapid Operating Mode
 d) Removable Optical Module
Answer: a) Read-Only Memory

25. Which type of memory is non-volatile?

a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Cache
d) SDRAM
Answer: b) ROM

26. SDRAM stands for:

a) Synchronous Dynamic RAM
b) Static Direct RAM
c) Systematic Dual RAM
d) Storage Data RAM
Answer: a) Synchronous Dynamic RAM

27. Which type of RAM is faster?

a) DDR3
b) DDR4
c) DDR2
d) SDRAM
Answer: b) DDR4

28. ROM memory is used to store:

a) Temporary files
b) The operating system
c) The bootloader firmware
d) User documents
Answer: c) The bootloader firmware

29. Which type of RAM is used in modern computers?

a) DRAM
b) DDR4
c) SRAM
d) EEPROM
Answer: b) DDR4

30. What happens when the RAM is full?

a) The system crashes
b) The system slows down
c) The system switches to ROM
d) The hard drive is deleted
Answer: b) The system slows down

31. More RAM allows a computer to:

a) Run more applications simultaneously
b) Increase internet speed
c) Improve display resolution
d) Replace the CPU
Answer: a) Run more applications simultaneously

32. The motherboard is also known as:

a) Central Board
 b) Main Circuit Board
c) Processing Unit
d) Power Board
Answer: b) Main Circuit Board

33. The primary function of a motherboard is to:

a) Store data permanently
b) Connect and allow communication between components
c) Improve internet speed
d) Enhance graphics quality
Answer: b) Connect and allow communication between components

34. Which of the following is NOT found on a motherboard?

a) CPU socket
b) RAM slots
c) Hard disk
d) Expansion slots
Answer: c) Hard disk

35. The chipset on a motherboard controls:

a) The speed of the internet
b) Data flow between CPU, memory, and peripherals
c) Screen brightness
d) Speaker volume
Answer: b) Data flow between CPU, memory, and peripherals

36. The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is stored in:

a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Hard drive
d) USB flash drive
Answer: b) ROM

37. A microprocessor is also known as:

a) GPU
b) CPU
c) RAM
d) HDD
Answer: b) CPU

38. The brain of a computer is:

a) Hard disk
b) RAM
c) Microprocessor
d) Keyboard
Answer: c) Microprocessor

39. Which of the following is NOT a microprocessor manufacturer?

a) Intel
b) AMD
c) Cyrix
d) Seagate
Answer: d) Seagate
40. The speed of a microprocessor is measured in:
a) MHz/GHz
b) MB/GB
c) Volts
d) Inches
Answer: a) MHz/GHz

41. The first microprocessor was introduced by:

a) Intel
b) AMD
c) IBM
d) Apple
Answer: a) Intel

42. Intel Pentium III was introduced in:

a) 1997
b) 1999
c) 2001
d) 2003
Answer: b) 1999

43. The Pentium III processor is based on which architecture?

a) 16-bit
b) 32-bit
c) 64-bit
d) 128-bit
Answer: b) 32-bit

44. Pentium III introduced which important feature?

a) Hyper-Threading
b) MMX Technology
c) Streaming SIMD Extensions (SSE)
d) Integrated GPU
Answer: c) Streaming SIMD Extensions (SSE)

45. What was the maximum clock speed of the Pentium III processor?
a) 600 MHz
b) 800 MHz
c) 1.4 GHz
d) 2.0 GHz
Answer: c) 1.4 GHz

46. Which memory type was commonly used with the Pentium III processor?
a) DDR2
b) SDRAM
c) LPDDR
d) GDDR5
Answer: b) SDRAM

47. AMD stands for:

a) Advanced Micro Devices
b) American Micro Design
c) Applied Micro Devices
 d) Accelerated Machine Division
Answer: a) Advanced Micro Devices

48. Which AMD processor was released as a competitor to the Intel Pentium III?
a) AMD K6-2
b) AMD Athlon
c) AMD Ryzen
d) AMD Phenom
Answer: b) AMD Athlon

49. AMD processors are known for having:

a) Lower clock speeds
b) More cores for multi-threading
c) Higher prices than Intel
d) No support for gaming
Answer: b) More cores for multi-threading

50. What was the first 64-bit processor developed by AMD?

a) Athlon XP
b) Opteron
c) Ryzen 5
d) K6-III
Answer: b) Opteron

51. Which AMD processor series is designed for high-performance gaming?

a) Ryzen
b) Sempron
c) Duron
d) Opteron
Answer: a) Ryzen

52. Cyrix was a competitor to:

a) Intel and AMD
b) Microsoft
c) Apple
d) NVIDIA
Answer: a) Intel and AMD

53. Which of the following was a popular Cyrix processor?

a) Cyrix 6x86
b) Cyrix Ryzen
c) Cyrix Core i7
d) Cyrix Celeron
Answer: a) Cyrix 6x86

54. Cyrix processors were mainly known for:

a) High power consumption
b) Low-cost alternative to Intel
c) Superior gaming performance
d) 128-bit architecture
Answer: b) Low-cost alternative to Intel

55. Which company acquired Cyrix in 1997?

a) VIA Technologies
 b) Intel
c) AMD
d) IBM
Answer: a) VIA Technologies

56. The Cyrix 6x86 processor was comparable to which Intel processor?
a) Pentium
b) Pentium II
c) Core 2 Duo
d) Celeron
Answer: a) Pentium

57.
58. 6. General CPU Questions

59. What does CPU stand for?

a) Central Processing Unit
b) Computer Processing Utility
c) Core Power Unit
d) Computing Peripheral Unit
Answer: a) Central Processing Unit

60. The ALU in a CPU is responsible for:

a) Storing data
b) Controlling peripherals
c) Performing arithmetic and logic operations
d) Rendering graphics
Answer: c) Performing arithmetic and logic operations

61. Which of these is NOT a CPU brand?

a) Intel
b) AMD
c) Cyrix
d) ASUS
Answer: d) ASUS

62. Multi-core processors improve performance by:

a) Reducing power consumption
b) Running multiple tasks simultaneously
c) Increasing RAM size
d) Enhancing display resolution
Answer: b) Running multiple tasks simultaneously

63. What is the unit of measurement for CPU clock speed?

a) Gigabytes
b) Megahertz/Gigahertz
c) Nanometers
d) Watts
Answer: b) Megahertz/Gigahertz

64. Which of the following is NOT an input device?

a) Keyboard
b) Mouse
c) Monitor
 d) Scanner
Answer: c) Monitor

65. What is the primary function of a keyboard?

a) Display images
b) Input text and commands
c) Store data
d) Control the computer’s power
Answer: b) Input text and commands

66. A mouse is used to:

a) Input text
b) Move the cursor on the screen
c) Output graphics
d) Print documents
Answer: b) Move the cursor on the screen

67. Which of the following devices is used to input graphical data?

a) Keyboard
b) Mouse
c) Scanner
d) Microphone
Answer: b) Mouse

68. Which of these is a pointing device?

a) Keyboard
b) Joystick
c) Mouse
d) Speaker
Answer: c) Mouse

69. The standard layout of a keyboard is called:

a) QWERTY
b) AZERTY
c) Dvorak
d) Colemak
Answer: a) QWERTY

70. Which of the following is an example of a mechanical input device?

a) Optical mouse
b) Trackpad
c) Trackball
d) Mechanical keyboard
Answer: d) Mechanical keyboard

71. Which of the following is an example of a touch-based input device?

a) Keyboard
b) Joystick
c) Touchscreen
d) Mouse
Answer: c) Touchscreen

72. A device that converts handwritten text to digital text is called a:

a) Scanner
 b) Digitizer
c) Stylus
d) Microphone
Answer: b) Digitizer

73. The term "soft keyboard" refers to:

a) A virtual keyboard on a touchscreen
b) A physical keyboard
c) A keyboard with rubber keys
d) A wireless keyboard
Answer: a) A virtual keyboard on a touchscreen

74. Which of the following is an output device?

a) Keyboard
b) Monitor
c) Scanner
d) Microphone
Answer: b) Monitor

75. The function of an output device is to:

a) Accept data from the user
b) Display or produce the result of processed data
c) Convert data into digital form
d) Store data permanently
Answer: b) Display or produce the result of processed data

76. Which of the following is NOT an output device?

a) Printer
b) Monitor
c) Speaker
d) Mouse
Answer: d) Mouse

77. The most common output device used for visual display is:
a) Printer
b) Monitor
c) Speaker
d) Headphones
Answer: b) Monitor

78. Which of the following is a type of output device used for audio?
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Speaker
d) Keyboard
Answer: c) Speaker

79. The QWERTY keyboard layout was first designed for:

a) Typewriters
b) Computers
c) Mobile phones
d) Televisions
Answer: a) Typewriters
80. The "Esc" key is typically used to:
a) Submit data
b) Close applications or windows
c) Open the start menu
d) Save a file
Answer: b) Close applications or windows

81. A key that allows users to select multiple items at once is the:
a) Shift key
b) Control key
c) Spacebar
d) Enter key
Answer: b) Control key

82. The "Caps Lock" key is used to:

a) Turn on uppercase letters
b) Turn off the keyboard backlight
c) Lock the keyboard
d) Open a dialog box
Answer: a) Turn on uppercase letters

83. What does the "Function" key on a keyboard generally do?

a) Allows user to type text
b) Executes predefined commands
c) Turn off the keyboard
d) Increases volume
Answer: b) Executes predefined commands

84. Which of the following is the most common type of mouse?

a) Trackball
b) Optical mouse
c) Mechanical mouse
d) Stylus
Answer: b) Optical mouse

85. The left button of a mouse is typically used for:

a) Right-clicking
b) Moving the pointer
c) Selecting or opening files
d) Scrolling
Answer: c) Selecting or opening files

86. A mouse with two buttons and a scroll wheel is called:

a) Ball mouse
b) Optical mouse
c) Scroll mouse
d) Mechanical mouse
Answer: b) Optical mouse

87. The function of the "right-click" button on the mouse is:

a) To scroll the screen
b) To select items
c) To open context menus
 d) To move the cursor
Answer: c) To open context menus

88. Which type of mouse is commonly used on modern computers?

a) Mechanical mouse
b) Laser mouse
c) Trackball mouse
d) Stylus
Answer: b) Laser mouse

89. Which of the following is NOT a type of printer?

a) Dot Matrix
b) Inkjet
c) Laserjet
d) Monitor
Answer: d) Monitor

90. Which of the following printers is known for producing high-quality images and text?
a) Dot Matrix printer
b) Inkjet printer
c) Laser printer
d) Thermal printer
Answer: b) Inkjet printer

91. A Dot Matrix printer prints characters by:

a) Spraying ink on paper
b) Using a laser beam
c) Hammering pins on paper through a ribbon
d) Melting ink
Answer: c) Hammering pins on paper through a ribbon

92. Which of the following is the primary advantage of a laser printer over inkjet printers?
a) It is cheaper to operate
b) It has higher printing resolution
c) It is faster
d) It uses ink
Answer: c) It is faster

93. Which of these printers uses toner to produce text and images?
a) Inkjet printer
b) Laser printer
c) Dot Matrix printer
d) Thermal printer
Answer: b) Laser printer

94. The typical resolution of an inkjet printer is measured in:

a) DPI (Dots Per Inch)
b) PPI (Pixels Per Inch)
c) RPM (Revolutions Per Minute)
d) MHz (Megahertz)
Answer: a) DPI (Dots Per Inch)

95. A laser printer is ideal for:

a) Printing high-resolution images
 b) High-speed, high-volume printing
c) Printing on fabrics
d) Printing 3D objects
Answer: b) High-speed, high-volume printing

96. Dot Matrix printers are best suited for:

a) High-quality images
b) Continuous paper printing
c) Small office use
d) Quiet printing
Answer: b) Continuous paper printing

97. Inkjet printers are best known for:

a) Speed
b) Quiet operation
c) High-quality photo printing
d) Cost efficiency
Answer: c) High-quality photo printing

98. Which type of printer is often used for printing barcodes?

a) Dot Matrix printer
b) Inkjet printer
c) Laser printer
d) Thermal printer
Answer: d) Thermal printer

99. The Boot Record of a hard drive contains:

a) Operating system files
b) Information on the disk partitioning
c) User data
d) File system error logs
Answer: b) Information on the disk partitioning

100. The FAT file system is commonly used in:

a) Modern operating systems
b) Older versions of Windows and DOS
c) Mobile devices only
d) Cloud storage
Answer: b) Older versions of Windows and DOS

101. The FAT file system stands for:

a) Fixed Allocation Table
b) File Allocation Table
c) Fixed Access Table
d) Fast Allocation Table
Answer: b) File Allocation Table

102. The maximum file size supported by the FAT16 file system is:
a) 4GB
b) 2GB
c) 1GB
d) 8GB
Answer: b) 2GB
103. In the FAT file system, the root directory is stored in:
a) A specific partition
b) The first cluster of the disk
c) The last sector of the drive
d) A hidden folder
Answer: b) The first cluster of the disk

104. What is the primary function of a boot record?

a) Store files
b) Initialize the operating system
c) Store personal data
d) Backup files
Answer: b) Initialize the operating system

105. The FAT32 file system can support file sizes up to:
a) 4GB
b) 2TB
c) 1TB
d) 16GB
Answer: b) 2TB

106. Which of these file systems is used by modern Windows operating systems?
a) FAT16
b) NTFS
c) EXT4
d) HFS+
Answer: b) NTFS

107. A folder directory is used to:

a) Store the operating system
b) Organize files in a hierarchical structure
c) Run applications
d) Provide network access
Answer: b) Organize files in a hierarchical structure

108. Which directory in Windows is known as the root directory?

a) C:\Program Files
b) C:\Users
c) C:\
d) C:\Windows
Answer: c) C:\

109. A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is classified as a:

a) Input device
b) Output device
c) Storage device
d) Network device
Answer: c) Storage device

110. The function of the actuator in a hard disk drive is to:

a) Control the head's movement
b) Spin the disks
c) Store data
 d) Convert data into digital form
Answer: a) Control the head's movement

111. The platters in a hard disk drive are made of:

a) Aluminum
b) Glass
c) Steel
d) Copper
Answer: a) Aluminum

112. The term "seek time" in HDD refers to:

a) Time taken to read data
b) Time taken to find the correct data track
c) Time taken to write data
d) Time taken to boot the system
Answer: b) Time taken to find the correct data track

113. The data in an HDD is stored in:

a) Magnetic fields
b) Optical light
c) Electrical pulses
d) Chemical reactions
Answer: a) Magnetic fields

114. Which of the following is a common interface used for connecting a hard disk drive to a
computer?
a) SATA
b) USB
c) HDMI
d) VGA
Answer: a) SATA

115. What is the main advantage of a Solid-State Drive (SSD) over a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)?
a) Lower cost
b) Faster read/write speeds
c) Larger storage capacity
d) More power consumption
Answer: b) Faster read/write speeds

116. The average seek time of a hard disk drive is measured in:
a) Milliseconds (ms)
b) Microseconds (µs)
c) Seconds (s)
d) Nanoseconds (ns)
Answer: a) Milliseconds (ms)

117. The storage capacity of a hard disk drive is measured in:

a) Hertz
b) Gigabytes (GB) or Terabytes (TB)
c) Bits
d) Kilobytes (KB)
Answer: b) Gigabytes (GB) or Terabytes (TB)
118. The main disadvantage of an HDD compared to an SSD is:
a) Speed
b) Durability
c) Cost
d) Noise
Answer: a) Speed

119. The term "CD-ROM" stands for:

a) Compact Disc Read-Only Memory
b) Compact Data Read-Only Memory
c) Circular Digital Read-Only Memory
d) Centralized Digital Read-Only Memory
Answer: a) Compact Disc Read-Only Memory

120. The speed of a CD-ROM drive is measured in:

a) RPM (Revolutions Per Minute)
b) KB/s (Kilobytes per second)
c) X (multiplier of base speed)
d) MHz
Answer: c) X (multiplier of base speed)

121. A 52X CD-ROM drive can read data at a speed of:

a) 52 KB/s
b) 52 MB/s
c) 52 times the base speed
d) 52 GHz
Answer: c) 52 times the base speed

122. What is the function of a CD-ROM drive?

a) Write data to a CD
b) Read data from a CD
c) Store data permanently
d) Provide power to the computer
Answer: b) Read data from a CD

123. Which of the following is NOT a type of CD?

a) CD-ROM
b) CD-RW
c) DVD-ROM
d) CD-R
Answer: c) DVD-ROM

124. CD-ROM drives use which type of laser technology?

a) Infrared laser
b) Red laser
c) Blue laser
d) Green laser
Answer: b) Red laser

125. What is the base speed of a CD-ROM drive?

a) 1X = 150 KB/s
b) 1X = 200 KB/s
c) 1X = 100 KB/s
 d) 1X = 300 KB/s
Answer: a) 1X = 150 KB/s

126. A 24X CD-ROM drive reads data at:

a) 24 MB/s
b) 24 times the base speed
c) 24 KB/s
d) 24 times the RAM speed
Answer: b) 24 times the base speed

127. Which type of optical disc is commonly used for storing large data and software?
a) CD-ROM
b) DVD-ROM
c) Blu-ray
d) Flash drive
Answer: b) DVD-ROM

128. A CD-ROM drive can only:

a) Write data
b) Read data
c) Rewrite data
d) Both write and read data
Answer: b) Read data

129. CD-R stands for:

a) Compact Disc Rewriteable
b) Compact Data Recordable
c) Compact Disc Read-Only
d) Compact Disc Recordable
Answer: d) Compact Disc Recordable

130. A CD-R drive allows the user to:

a) Write data to a CD
b) Only read data from a CD
c) Rewrite data on a CD
d) Read data from a Blu-ray disc
Answer: a) Write data to a CD

131. What is the maximum number of times you can write to a CD-R disc?
a) One time only
b) Up to 5 times
c) Up to 10 times
d) Unlimited
Answer: a) One time only

132. Which of these CD formats is used for creating audio CDs?

a) CD-RW
b) CD-R
c) CD-ROM
d) DVD-R
Answer: b) CD-R

133. A CD-R disc is considered:

a) Read-Write
 b) Write-Once
c) Read-Only
d) Rewritable
Answer: b) Write-Once

134. A DVD-ROM drive is used to:

a) Play video games
b) Play audio CDs
c) Read data from DVD discs
d) Read data from USB drives
Answer: c) Read data from DVD discs

135. A DVD-ROM drive can store data up to:

a) 4.7 GB
b) 700 MB
c) 1 TB
d) 100 MB
Answer: a) 4.7 GB

136. Which of these is NOT a type of DVD?

a) DVD-ROM
b) DVD-R
c) DVD+RW
d) CD-R
Answer: d) CD-R

137. A DVD-ROM drive typically uses which type of laser?

a) Red laser
b) Blue laser
c) Infrared laser
d) Green laser
Answer: b) Blue laser

138. DVD-ROM drives are faster than CD-ROM drives because they:
a) Use a faster laser
b) Have a larger storage capacity
c) Have a higher rotational speed
d) Use magnetic fields
Answer: b) Have a larger storage capacity

139. A tape drive is used to:

a) Write data to a tape
b) Backup data
c) Print documents
d) Read data from a tape
Answer: b) Backup data

140. Which of the following is the main use for tape drives?
a) Running operating systems
b) Storing large files temporarily
c) Data backup and archival
d) Printing large amounts of data
Answer: c) Data backup and archival
141. Tape drives use:
a) Magnetic tapes for data storage
b) Optical discs for data storage
c) Flash memory
d) Hard disks
Answer: a) Magnetic tapes for data storage

142. A common format for data storage in tape drives is:

a) DAT (Digital Audio Tape)
b) Blu-ray Disc
c) CD-ROM
d) USB stick
Answer: a) DAT (Digital Audio Tape)

143. What is a key advantage of using a tape drive for data storage?
a) Faster access speeds
b) Lower cost for large-scale backups
c) Smaller physical size
d) Higher reliability
Answer: b) Lower cost for large-scale backups

144. The internet is a system of:

a) Local area networks
b) Computer networks connected worldwide
c) Television broadcast signals
d) Electrical grids
Answer: b) Computer networks connected worldwide

145. The primary protocol used for communication over the internet is:
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) IP
d) TCP
Answer: c) IP

146. Which of the following is NOT an essential component of the internet?

a) Routers
b) Modems
c) IP addresses
d) Mobile phones
Answer: d) Mobile phones

147. The internet is primarily based on the architecture of:

a) Client-server
b) Peer-to-peer
c) Ring network
d) Bus topology
Answer: a) Client-server

148. The term "packet switching" refers to:

a) Sending data in large, undivided pieces
b) Splitting data into smaller packets for transmission
c) Sending data in real-time
 d) Using direct connections to send data
Answer: b) Splitting data into smaller packets for transmission

149. Which device is responsible for connecting different networks together in the internet?
a) Router
b) Hub
c) Switch
d) Modem
Answer: a) Router

150. A domain name translates to an:

a) IP address
b) Physical address
c) MAC address
d) Website
Answer: a) IP address

151. What type of connection allows data to travel continuously between two points without
interruption?
a) Circuit switching
b) Packet switching
c) Static switching
d) Dynamic switching
Answer: a) Circuit switching

152. The term "bandwidth" refers to:

a) The speed of data transmission
b) The size of a network
c) The physical medium of transmission
d) The distance between routers
Answer: a) The speed of data transmission

153. The process by which data is divided into small packets and sent over the internet is called:
a) Segmentation
b) Encapsulation
c) Fragmentation
d) Multiplexing
Answer: b) Encapsulation

154. TCP/IP stands for:

a) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
b) Transmission Communication Protocol/Internet Program
c) Traffic Control Protocol/Internet Path
d) Transport Control Protocol/Internet Process
Answer: a) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

155. The primary role of the IP protocol in TCP/IP is to:

a) Control the flow of data
b) Route packets to the correct destination
c) Establish connections
d) Encrypt data
Answer: b) Route packets to the correct destination
156. In the TCP/IP model, the transport layer is responsible for:
a) Establishing network connections
b) Routing data packets
c) Managing data delivery between systems
d) Encrypting data
Answer: c) Managing data delivery between systems

157. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol used in the TCP/IP model?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) TCP
d) DNS
Answer: c) TCP

158. The purpose of the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to:

a) Break data into packets
b) Manage errors and ensure reliable data transmission
c) Route data across the internet
d) Connect devices to the internet
Answer: b) Manage errors and ensure reliable data transmission

159. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for error handling and ensuring that data is sent
correctly?
a) Network Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Internet Layer
d) Application Layer
Answer: b) Transport Layer

160. A "port number" in the TCP/IP model is used to:

a) Identify a physical device on the network
b) Identify the application or service on a device
c) Establish the network topology
d) Route packets across the network
Answer: b) Identify the application or service on a device

161. The concept of a "socket" in networking refers to:

a) A hardware device that connects to a network
b) A software endpoint for communication between devices
c) A physical port on a router
d) A wireless connection between devices
Answer: b) A software endpoint for communication between devices

162. The process by which TCP ensures reliable delivery is called:

a) Flow control
b) Error detection
c) Segmentation
d) Handshaking
Answer: d) Handshaking

163. The IP protocol is responsible for:

a) Ensuring secure communication
b) Routing data packets to their destination
c) Establishing a connection between two devices
 d) Formatting the data for transmission
Answer: b) Routing data packets to their destination

164. An IP address is used to:

a) Connect a device to the internet
b) Identify a device on a network
c) Encrypt data packets
d) Provide a name for a website
Answer: b) Identify a device on a network

165. An IPv4 address is expressed in how many bits?

a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 128
Answer: c) 32

166. An example of a valid IPv6 address is:

a) 192.168.1.1
b) 255.255.255.0
c) 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
d) 128.0.0.1
Answer: c) 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334

167. The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to:

a) Encrypt data
b) Convert IP addresses into human-readable domain names
c) Route data packets
d) Store files on the internet
Answer: b) Convert IP addresses into human-readable domain names

168. A DNS server stores:

a) Email addresses
b) Web page content
c) Domain name to IP address mappings
d) Internet browsing history
Answer: c) Domain name to IP address mappings

169. The domain name for Google is:

a) www.google.com
b) google.com
c) 192.168.0.1
d) 255.255.255.255
Answer: b) google.com

170. A typical IPv4 address consists of how many octets?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer: c) 4

171. What is the function of a DNS resolver?

a) Translate DNS names to IP addresses
 b) Create DNS records
c) Route packets across the internet
d) Cache DNS results for faster lookups
Answer: a) Translate DNS names to IP addresses

172. A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) includes:

a) Only the domain name
b) The IP address of a server
c) The domain name and its subdomain
d) The physical address of a device
Answer: c) The domain name and its subdomain

173. What is the maximum number of bits in an IPv6 address?

a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256
Answer: c) 128

174. E-mail stands for:

a) Electronic mail
b) E-communication method
c) Electronic message access
d) Enhanced mail
Answer: a) Electronic mail

175. The two main components of an email address are the:

a) Name and subject
b) Username and password
c) Username and domain
d) Subject and body
Answer: c) Username and domain

176. Which of these is used to send email messages over the internet?
a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) POP3
Answer: a) SMTP

177. POP3 and IMAP are protocols used to:

a) Send email messages
b) Receive and store email messages
c) Encrypt email
d) Manage email attachments
Answer: b) Receive and store email messages

178. Which of the following is a popular email client application?

a) WordPress
b) Gmail
c) Google Drive
d) PowerPoint
Answer: b) Gmail
179. Online news services:
a) Provide real-time access to news updates
b) Require users to subscribe to a print newspaper
c) Charge a fee for viewing news
d) Limit access to news articles
Answer: a) Provide real-time access to news updates

180. A website that aggregates and displays the latest news from various sources is known as a:
a) News aggregator
b) Personal blog
c) Bulletin board
d) Search engine
Answer: a) News aggregator

181. Which of the following is NOT a major news website?

a) CNN
b) BBC
c) Facebook
d) Reuters
Answer: c) Facebook

182. FTP stands for:

a) File Transfer Protocol
b) Fast Transfer Protocol
c) File Transfer Program
d) Fixed Transfer Protocol
Answer: a) File Transfer Protocol

183. FTP is used to:

a) Send and receive email messages
b) Transfer files over the internet
c) Encrypt data packets
d) Manage web hosting accounts
Answer: b) Transfer files over the internet

184. What is the first step in connecting a PC to the internet?

a) Install a browser
b) Set up a dial-up or broadband connection
c) Configure email settings
d) Install antivirus software
Answer: b) Set up a dial-up or broadband connection

185. To establish a dial-up internet connection, you need:

a) A wireless router
b) A telephone line and a modem
c) A cable connection and Ethernet port
d) A high-speed fiber optic line
Answer: b) A telephone line and a modem

186. The Internet Connection Wizard in Windows helps you:

a) Set up a printer
b) Configure internet settings
c) Install software
 d) Create user accounts
Answer: b) Configure internet settings

187. Which of the following is NOT required for setting up a dial-up internet connection?
a) Telephone line
b) Modem
c) Internet Service Provider (ISP) account
d) Ethernet cable
Answer: d) Ethernet cable

188. A broadband connection is typically faster than:

a) Dial-up
b) Wireless
c) VPN
d) Satellite
Answer: a) Dial-up

189. The Internet Connection Wizard is used to:

a) Connect to a printer
b) Set up and configure internet connections
c) Fix network issues
d) Update the operating system
Answer: b) Set up and configure internet connections

190. Which of the following is required to set up a broadband internet connection?

a) DSL cable
b) Dial-up modem
c) Telephone line
d) Satellite dish
Answer: a) DSL cable

191. After completing the Internet Connection Wizard, you should:

a) Reboot your computer
b) Turn off the modem
c) Launch your email client
d) Test the internet connection
Answer: d) Test the internet connection

192. The modem is responsible for:

a) Encrypting data
b) Compressing web pages
c) Converting digital signals into analog signals and vice versa
d) Providing wireless internet
Answer: c) Converting digital signals into analog signals and vice versa

193. Dial-up internet connections are typically slower than broadband because they use:
a) Fiber-optic cables
b) Telephone lines
c) Satellite connections
d) Wireless signals
Answer: b) Telephone lines

194. Internet Explorer is:

a) An email client
 b) A web browser
c) A search engine
d) A media player
Answer: b) A web browser

195. Which of the following is a feature of Internet Explorer?

a) Virtual desktop
b) Tabbed browsing
c) Video editing
d) Cloud storage
Answer: b) Tabbed browsing

196. Internet Explorer was developed by:

a) Mozilla
b) Google
c) Microsoft
d) Apple
Answer: c) Microsoft

197. The default search engine in Internet Explorer 11 is:

a) Google
b) Yahoo
c) Bing
d) DuckDuckGo
Answer: c) Bing

198. Which of the following can be added to Internet Explorer for improved functionality?
a) Browser extensions
b) Email attachments
c) Files from external storage
d) Printer drivers
Answer: a) Browser extensions

199. In Internet Explorer, the "Favorites" feature is used to:

a) Save frequently visited websites
b) View your browsing history
c) Block unwanted websites
d) Download files
Answer: a) Save frequently visited websites

200. The "InPrivate Browsing" mode in Internet Explorer is used to:

a) Save passwords
b) Block pop-ups
c) Browse without saving history
d) Automatically update the browser
Answer: c) Browse without saving history

201. Internet Explorer's "Compatibility View" helps in:

a) Viewing webpages in a newer format
b) Displaying webpages designed for older browsers correctly
c) Blocking unwanted cookies
d) Speeding up webpage loading
Answer: b) Displaying webpages designed for older browsers correctly
202. The "Address Bar" in Internet Explorer displays:
a) Bookmarks
b) The current webpage URL
c) Download progress
d) Browsing history
Answer: b) The current webpage URL

203. The "Tools" menu in Internet Explorer can be used to:

a) Install updates
b) Clear browsing data
c) Set a homepage
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

204. How can you open a new tab in Internet Explorer?

a) Press Ctrl + N
b) Right-click on the address bar and select "New Tab"
c) Press Ctrl + T
d) Click on the "Home" button
Answer: c) Press Ctrl + T

205. The "SmartScreen Filter" in Internet Explorer is used to:

a) Block pop-ups
b) Protect against phishing and malware
c) Speed up the internet connection
d) Filter email messages
Answer: b) Protect against phishing and malware

206. Internet Explorer can be configured to block:

a) All pop-up windows
b) Malicious websites
c) Advertising cookies
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

207. To view the history of websites you've visited in Internet Explorer, you can access the:
a) History menu
b) Favorites menu
c) Tools menu
d) View menu
Answer: a) History menu

208. The "Home" button in Internet Explorer takes you to:

a) A search engine
b) The homepage
c) Your bookmarks
d) A custom webpage
Answer: b) The homepage

209. Internet Explorer's "Downloads" option shows:

a) All the files you have downloaded
b) Your most visited websites
c) Your search history
 d) Recently viewed documents
Answer: a) All the files you have downloaded

210. The "Zoom" feature in Internet Explorer allows you to:

a) Change the font size of the text on the webpage
b) Adjust the contrast of the browser
c) Resize the browser window
d) Enable InPrivate browsing
Answer: a) Change the font size of the text on the webpage

211. Internet Explorer 11 allows you to manage:

a) Multiple user accounts
b) Webpage zoom levels
c) Extensions and add-ons
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

212. You can manage your Internet Explorer settings by going to:
a) Start menu
b) Tools > Internet Options
c) File > Settings
d) Control Panel > Network Settings
Answer: b) Tools > Internet Options

213. In Internet Explorer, the "Security" tab under "Internet Options" is used to:
a) Change your password
b) Set privacy preferences
c) Manage website security settings
d) Manage browser history
Answer: c) Manage website security settings

214. Dial-up connections require which type of device?

a) Fiber optic cable
b) A wireless router
c) A modem
d) A USB stick
Answer: c) A modem

215. The maximum speed of a typical dial-up connection is:

a) 56 kbps
b) 256 kbps
c) 1 Mbps
d) 10 Mbps
Answer: a) 56 kbps

216. Broadband internet connections are faster because they use:

a) Satellite signals
b) Copper telephone lines
c) Fiber optic cables
d) Cellular networks
Answer: c) Fiber optic cables

217. Which of the following is a major advantage of broadband over dial-up?

a) Requires a telephone line
 b) Higher download speeds
c) Requires a modem
d) Is more affordable
Answer: b) Higher download speeds

218. Broadband connections typically allow:

a) Only one device to connect at a time
b) Multiple devices to connect simultaneously
c) Data transmission only during specific times
d) Limited data usage per day
Answer: b) Multiple devices to connect simultaneously

219. What is the most common type of broadband connection?

a) Fiber optic
b) Satellite
c) DSL
d) Dial-up
Answer: c) DSL

220. DSL stands for:

a) Digital Service Line
b) Digital Subscriber Line
c) Dedicated Service Line
d) Direct Service Link
Answer: b) Digital Subscriber Line

221. Which broadband technology offers the fastest internet speeds?

a) DSL
b) Fiber optic
c) Cable
d) Satellite
Answer: b) Fiber optic

222. Which of the following is a disadvantage of dial-up internet?

a) It has a slower connection speed than broadband
b) It requires a cable connection
c) It is more expensive than broadband
d) It is available only during the night
Answer: a) It has a slower connection speed than broadband

223. To set up a broadband connection, you generally need:

a) A telephone line and dial-up modem
b) A wireless router and Ethernet cable
c) A broadband modem and network cables
d) A USB modem
Answer: c) A broadband modem and network cables

224. What is the primary function of a search engine?

a) To send emails
b) To search and retrieve information from the web
c) To store files
d) To protect computers from malware
Answer: b) To search and retrieve information from the web
225. Which of the following is NOT a popular search engine?
a) Google
b) Yahoo
c) Bing
d) Facebook
Answer: d) Facebook

226. The process of typing keywords into a search engine to find information is called:
a) Surfing
b) Browsing
c) Searching
d) Indexing
Answer: c) Searching

227. What is an algorithm in the context of search engines?

a) A web page
b) A method used to rank search results
c) A search engine's home page
d) A file format used for saving data
Answer: b) A method used to rank search results

228. Which of the following is a common feature of most search engines?

a) Searching by image
b) Email integration
c) File storage
d) Social networking
Answer: a) Searching by image

229. When you search using a search engine, the results you get are typically:
a) Paid advertisements
b) Links to websites, images, and videos
c) Text-only results
d) Email links
Answer: b) Links to websites, images, and videos

230. What is a "search query"?

a) A website URL
b) A search term or phrase you type into a search engine
c) A paid advertisement on search engines
d) A type of search engine
Answer: b) A search term or phrase you type into a search engine

231. Which of the following is a search engine optimization (SEO) practice to improve rankings?
a) Using keywords in the webpage's content
b) Blocking websites from appearing in search results
c) Removing images from websites
d) Limiting website content
Answer: a) Using keywords in the webpage's content

232. Which of the following is NOT a search engine?

a) Bing
b) DuckDuckGo
c) Firefox
 d) Google
Answer: c) Firefox

233. The term "organic results" in search engines refers to:

a) Sponsored ads
b) Results generated based on relevance
c) Search results from social media
d) Results based on the user’s location
Answer: b) Results generated based on relevance

234. What does "surfing the internet" mean?

a) Writing code for websites
b) Browsing different websites and exploring the web
c) Managing network settings
d) Downloading files
Answer: b) Browsing different websites and exploring the web

235. Which of the following is NOT required for surfing the internet?
a) A web browser
b) A device with internet access
c) A search engine account
d) A stable internet connection
Answer: c) A search engine account

236. When surfing the internet, you use a program called a:

a) Web browser
b) Spreadsheet
c) Database
d) Firewall
Answer: a) Web browser

237. Which of the following is the correct sequence for surfing the internet?
a) Type in a URL, press Enter, and view results
b) Open a file, search for a keyword, and open a new tab
c) Log into an email account, open a file, and press Enter
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Type in a URL, press Enter, and view results

238. The World Wide Web (WWW) is a part of the:

a) Internet
b) Email system
c) File transfer protocol (FTP)
d) Computer hardware
Answer: a) Internet

239. A hyperlink is used to:

a) Open a new tab in the browser
b) Navigate to another webpage or resource
c) Print a webpage
d) Change a webpage’s content
Answer: b) Navigate to another webpage or resource

240. Which of the following is an example of a web browser?

a) Windows
 b) Google Chrome
c) Excel
d) Word
Answer: b) Google Chrome

241. The "Back" button in a browser allows you to:

a) Reload the current webpage
b) Go to the homepage
c) Return to the previous webpage
d) Open a new tab
Answer: c) Return to the previous webpage

242. The term "URL" stands for:

a) Uniform Resource Locator
b) Universal Resolution Link
c) Unique Redundant Locator
d) Universal Resource Locator
Answer: a) Uniform Resource Locator

243. Which of the following is considered a web browser extension?

a) A plugin that adds extra functionality to the browser
b) A web address
c) A toolbar
d) A keyboard shortcut
Answer: a) A plugin that adds extra functionality to the browser

244. Which of the following is an email service provider?

a) Gmail
b) Google Drive
c) Facebook
d) Instagram
Answer: a) Gmail

245. An email address is typically written as:

a) [email protected]
b) username/website.com
c) [email protected]
d) username.website.com
Answer: a) [email protected]

246. The "CC" field in an email stands for:

a) Carbon Copy
b) Credit Card
c) Contact Copy
d) Critical Content
Answer: a) Carbon Copy

247. What is an attachment in an email?

a) The subject of the email
b) The recipient’s email address
c) A file that is sent along with the email
d) The signature at the end of the email
Answer: c) A file that is sent along with the email
248. What is the purpose of the "BCC" field in an email?
a) To send the email to blind recipients
b) To send a copy of the email to multiple people without them knowing
c) To add a blind copy of the subject
d) To keep track of important emails
Answer: b) To send a copy of the email to multiple people without them knowing

249. Which of the following is used to open an email account?

a) Internet connection
b) A web browser
c) A username and password
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

250. In an email, the "Subject" field is used to:

a) Attach files
b) Write the email body
c) Indicate the purpose of the email
d) Provide the sender’s information
Answer: c) Indicate the purpose of the email

251. Which of the following is the most common file format for email attachments?
a) .jpg
b) .txt
c) .doc
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

252. What does "Reply All" do in an email?

a) Replies to the sender only
b) Replies to all recipients in the thread
c) Forwards the email to someone else
d) Marks the email as spam
Answer: b) Replies to all recipients in the thread

253. When you delete an email, where does it typically go first?

a) The inbox
b) The spam folder
c) The trash folder
d) The outbox
Answer: c) The trash folder

254. E-commerce refers to:

a) Shopping at physical stores
b) Electronic communication
c) Buying and selling products or services over the internet
d) Digital banking
Answer: c) Buying and selling products or services over the internet

255. Which of the following is NOT an example of e-commerce?

a) Amazon
b) eBay
c) Facebook
 d) Alibaba
Answer: c) Facebook

256. One of the primary advantages of e-commerce is:

a) Higher prices for products
b) 24/7 availability of shopping
c) Limited product variety
d) Limited payment options
Answer: b) 24/7 availability of shopping

257. A secure method of paying online using a credit card is through:

a) Cash on delivery
b) A third-party payment gateway
c) Direct bank transfer
d) Postal money order
Answer: b) A third-party payment gateway

258. Which of the following is a common benefit of e-commerce for businesses?

a) Limited customer reach
b) Reduced overhead costs
c) Limited product catalog
d) Increased manual paperwork
Answer: b) Reduced overhead costs

259. The online transaction process in e-commerce typically involves:

a) Browsing products, adding to the cart, and checking out
b) Visiting a physical store, choosing a product, and paying
c) Visiting a catalog in print and ordering by phone
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Browsing products, adding to the cart, and checking out

260. Which of the following is an e-commerce payment option?

a) PayPal
b) Bank wire transfer
c) Credit card
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

261. A common risk in e-commerce transactions is:

a) Limited shipping options
b) Online fraud and scams
c) Difficulty in finding products
d) High physical store costs
Answer: b) Online fraud and scams

262. Which of the following platforms supports e-commerce?

a) Facebook Marketplace
b) Amazon
c) Shopify
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

263. The term "B2C" in e-commerce refers to:

a) Business to consumer
 b) Business to business
c) Consumer to business
d) Consumer to consumer
Answer: a) Business to consumer

264. In MS Excel, data can be entered into a cell by:

a) Typing directly into the cell
b) Using the formula bar
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a and b

265. Which of the following is NOT a valid data type that can be entered in a cell?
a) Numbers
b) Text
c) Pictures
d) Formula
Answer: c) Pictures

266. What is the maximum number of rows available in an Excel worksheet (for recent versions)?
a) 65,536
b) 104,8576
c) 1,048,576
d) 256
Answer: c) 1,048,576

267. To enter data into a cell in Excel, which key must be pressed after typing the data?
a) Spacebar
b) Enter
c) Tab
d) Esc
Answer: b) Enter

268. In Excel, pressing the "Esc" key will:

a) Save the workbook
b) Close Excel
c) Cancel the data entry
d) Submit the data
Answer: c) Cancel the data entry

269. What is a label in MS Excel?

a) A number used in a formula
b) Text used for identification or description
c) A cell reference
d) A mathematical expression
Answer: b) Text used for identification or description

270. Which of the following is an example of a label?

a) 150
b) 12/31/2025
c) "Total Sales"
d) =SUM(A1:A10)
Answer: c) "Total Sales"
271. In MS Excel, labels are typically aligned:
a) To the right
b) To the center
c) To the left
d) To the top
Answer: c) To the left

272. Labels in Excel are generally used to:

a) Perform calculations
b) Format the worksheet
c) Describe the data
d) Add colors to cells
Answer: c) Describe the data

273. Which of the following cannot be used as a label in Excel?

a) "Product Name"
b) "1/1/2025"
c) "Total Sales"
d) "Units Sold"
Answer: b) "1/1/2025"

274. What type of data is referred to as a "value" in Excel?

a) Text data
b) Numbers or numeric expressions
c) Formulas
d) Labels
Answer: b) Numbers or numeric expressions

275. Which of the following would be considered a value in Excel?

a) 100
b) "Sales"
c) =SUM(A1:A5)
d) "12/31/2023"
Answer: a) 100

276. In Excel, numeric values are aligned:

a) To the right
b) To the center
c) To the left
d) Justified
Answer: a) To the right

277. To enter a negative value in Excel, you must:

a) Type a minus sign before the number
b) Use the negative format in the toolbar
c) Press the "Negative" button
d) Nothing special is required
Answer: a) Type a minus sign before the number

278. The "Value" function in Excel is used to:

a) Convert text into numeric format
b) Change the value of a cell
c) Add values together
 d) Enter numeric values
Answer: a) Convert text into numeric format

279. What format should a date be entered in Excel to be recognized as a valid date?
a) Any format
b) MM/DD/YYYY
c) DD/MM/YYYY
d) Both b and c, depending on regional settings
Answer: d) Both b and c, depending on regional settings

280. Which of the following is a valid way to enter a date in Excel?

a) "January 1, 2025"
b) "01/01/2025"
c) "1-Jan-2025"
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

281. When a date is entered in Excel, it is internally stored as:

a) A text value
b) A numeric value representing the number of days since January 1, 1900
c) A formula
d) A time format
Answer: b) A numeric value representing the number of days since January 1, 1900

282. To change the date format in Excel, you should:

a) Right-click the cell, select "Format Cells," and choose "Date"
b) Enter the date in a different format
c) Use the "Insert" tab
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Right-click the cell, select "Format Cells," and choose "Date"

283. Excel treats dates as:

a) Text
b) Decimal numbers
c) Whole numbers
d) Binary values
Answer: b) Decimal numbers

284. In Excel, a formula always starts with:

a) =
b) +
c) $
d) /
Answer: a) =

285. Which of the following is an example of a formula in Excel?

a) A1 + B1
b) "Total"
c) 10%
d) "Hello World"
Answer: a) A1 + B1

286. To sum up a range of cells from A1 to A10, the correct formula is:
a) =SUM(A1:A10)
 b) =ADD(A1:A10)
c) =TOTAL(A1:A10)
d) =SUM(A1:A5)
Answer: a) =SUM(A1:A10)

287. The formula =A1 + B1 will:

a) Subtract the values in B1 from A1
b) Multiply the values in A1 and B1
c) Add the values in A1 and B1
d) Divide the values in A1 by B1
Answer: c) Add the values in A1 and B1

288. Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the average of a range of cells in Excel?
a) =SUM(A1:A10)
b) =AVERAGE(A1:A10)
c) =TOTAL(A1:A10)
d) =COUNT(A1:A10)
Answer: b) =AVERAGE(A1:A10)

289. In Excel, the function used to find the highest value in a range of cells is:
a) MAX
b) MIN
c) AVERAGE
d) SUM
Answer: a) MAX

290. The formula =A1 * B1 will:

a) Add the values in A1 and B1
b) Divide the value in A1 by B1
c) Multiply the values in A1 and B1
d) Subtract the value in B1 from A1
Answer: c) Multiply the values in A1 and B1

291. If you want to apply a formula to an entire column, you can:

a) Copy the formula and paste it into the other cells
b) Double-click the fill handle
c) Use the formula bar
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b

292. In Excel, the formula =IF(A1>10, "High", "Low") is an example of:

a) A logical formula
b) A sum formula
c) A text formula
d) A date formula
Answer: a) A logical formula

293. To calculate the percentage of a value in Excel, you can use the formula:
a) =A1 / B1
b) =A1 * B1
c) =A1 / 100
d) =A1 * 100 / B1
Answer: d) =A1 * 100 / B1
294. The COUNT function in Excel is used to:
a) Count the number of cells with numbers
b) Sum the values of a range
c) Count the total number of cells
d) Find the average of a range
Answer: a) Count the number of cells with numbers

295. What is the purpose of the CONCATENATE function in Excel?

a) To split text into separate cells
b) To add numbers
c) To join text from multiple cells into one cell
d) To change the case of text
Answer: c) To join text from multiple cells into one cell

296. The formula =NOW() in Excel returns:

a) The current time
b) The current date and time
c) The current date
d) A static value of the current time
Answer: b) The current date and time

297. The function VLOOKUP is used to:

a) Lookup a value in a vertical column
b) Lookup a value in a horizontal row
c) Count the number of values in a column
d) Find the largest value in a range
Answer: a) Lookup a value in a vertical column

298. To round a number in Excel to a specific number of decimal places, you use the function:
a) ROUND
b) TRUNCATE
c) CEILING
d) ALL of the above
Answer: a) ROUND

299. What is the purpose of Excel's "AutoSum" feature?

a) To automatically sum up a range of values
b) To automatically apply a formula
c) To auto-format cells
d) To create a pivot table
Answer: a) To automatically sum up a range of values

300. In Excel, the Fill Handle is used to:

a) Copy formulas or values to adjacent cells
b) Format a range of cells
c) Change the color of a cell
d) Delete data from a cell
Answer: a) Copy formulas or values to adjacent cells

301. The Excel function =TODAY() returns:

a) The current time
b) The current day of the week
c) The current date
 d) The current year
Answer: c) The current date

302. In Excel, pressing "Ctrl + Z" will:

a) Save the file
b) Undo the last action
c) Open a new worksheet
d) Close Excel
Answer: b) Undo the last action

303. In Excel, the function =PMT(rate, nper, pv) is used to:

a) Calculate the monthly payment of a loan
b) Calculate the number of payments
c) Find the principal value
d) Calculate the total interest
Answer: a) Calculate the monthly payment of a loan

304. Which of the following is a relative cell reference in Excel?

a) A$1
b) $A$1
c) A1
d) 1A
Answer: c) A1

305. A mixed cell reference contains:

a) One absolute and one relative reference
b) Two absolute references
c) Two relative references
d) None of the above
Answer: a) One absolute and one relative reference

306. What is an absolute cell reference?

a) A reference that does not change when copied to another cell
b) A reference that changes when copied
c) A reference to a formula
d) A reference to a label
Answer: a) A reference that does not change when copied to another cell

307. Which of the following uses an absolute reference?

a) A1
b) $A$1
c) A$1
d) $A1
Answer: b) $A$1

308. Which function key is used to toggle between absolute and relative cell references?
a) F1
b) F4
c) F3
d) F2
Answer: b) F4

309. Which cell reference type automatically adjusts when copied to another cell?
a) Absolute
 b) Relative
c) Mixed
d) Locked
Answer: b) Relative

310. What does the dollar sign in a cell reference indicate?

a) The reference is absolute
b) The reference is relative
c) The reference will always point to the first row
d) The cell reference will automatically adjust
Answer: a) The reference is absolute

311. How do you make the column reference absolute but keep the row reference relative?
a) $A$1
b) A$1
c) $A1
d) A1
Answer: c) $A1

312. Which of the following will NOT change when copied to another cell?
a) A1
b) $A$1
c) A$1
d) $A1
Answer: b) $A$1

313. How do you copy a formula from one cell to another without changing the reference?
a) Use relative references
b) Use mixed references
c) Use absolute references
d) Use cell addresses
Answer: c) Use absolute references

314. In Excel, which format should be used to display data as currency?

a) Number format
b) Date format
c) Accounting format
d) Currency format
Answer: d) Currency format

315. What is the shortcut key to open the Format Cells dialog box?
a) Ctrl + 1
b) Alt + 1
c) Ctrl + F
d) Alt + F1
Answer: a) Ctrl + 1

316. Which format is used to display numbers with a comma as a thousand separator?
a) General
b) Number
c) Accounting
d) Currency
Answer: b) Number
317. How can you apply bold formatting to the content of a cell in Excel?
a) Press Ctrl + B
b) Right-click and select Bold
c) Use the Bold option from the ribbon
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

318. What is the maximum number of decimal places that can be displayed in Excel?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30
Answer: c) 15

319. In Excel, which of the following is the default number format for a cell?
a) Text
b) General
c) Number
d) Currency
Answer: b) General

320. How do you apply a custom number format in Excel?

a) Use the Format Cells dialog box
b) Select the number format from the ribbon
c) Press Ctrl + Shift + $
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Use the Format Cells dialog box

321. What is the default date format in Excel?

a) MM/DD/YYYY
b) DD/MM/YYYY
c) YYYY-MM-DD
d) DD/MM/YY
Answer: a) MM/DD/YYYY

322. Which Excel feature allows you to automatically adjust column width based on content?
a) Wrap Text
b) AutoFit
c) Merge & Center
d) Format Painter
Answer: b) AutoFit

323. Which formatting option would you use to make a number appear in percentage format?
a) General
b) Percentage
c) Currency
d) Accounting
Answer: b) Percentage

324. The SUM function is used to:

a) Find the largest value in a range
b) Add numbers together
c) Count the number of cells
 d) Find the average of a range
Answer: b) Add numbers together

325. Which function in Excel returns the average value of a range?

a) AVERAGE
b) SUM
c) COUNT
d) MAX
Answer: a) AVERAGE

326. Which Excel function can be used to count the number of cells with numbers?
a) COUNTIF
b) COUNTA
c) COUNTBLANK
d) COUNT
Answer: d) COUNT

327. Which of the following functions would you use to find the highest value in a range?
a) MAX
b) MIN
c) AVERAGE
d) COUNT
Answer: a) MAX

328. Which of the following Excel functions can be used to round a number to a specific decimal
place?
a) ROUND
b) TRUNC
c) CEILING
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

329. The function to display the current date and time in Excel is:
a) NOW()
b) TODAY()
c) DATE()
d) TIME()
Answer: a) NOW()

330. The function to find the number of characters in a text string is:
a) LEN
b) MID
c) FIND
d) TEXT
Answer: a) LEN

331. What is the purpose of the VLOOKUP function in Excel?

a) Find a value in a column
b) Lookup a value in a row
c) Look up a value in a vertical column
d) Add values together
Answer: c) Look up a value in a vertical column
332. Which function is used to display a cell's value as text?
a) TEXT
b) CONCATENATE
c) VALUE
d) MID
Answer: a) TEXT

333. The IF function in Excel is used for:

a) Conditional calculation
b) Text formatting
c) Counting cells
d) Summing values
Answer: a) Conditional calculation

334. What is a template in Excel?

a) A predefined layout with formulas and formatting
b) A custom chart
c) A range of cells with values
d) A blank worksheet
Answer: a) A predefined layout with formulas and formatting

335. Where can you find Excel templates?

a) File -> New
b) File -> Open
c) Insert -> Template
d) Home -> Template
Answer: a) File -> New

336. What is the advantage of using a template in Excel?

a) Faster data entry
b) Predefined formulas
c) Pre-set formatting
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

337. Which of the following is NOT an Excel template type?

a) Financial Statements
b) Calendar
c) Inventory List
d) PowerPoint Presentation
Answer: d) PowerPoint Presentation

338. How can you create a custom template in Excel?

a) Save a workbook as a template
b) Download it from the Microsoft website
c) Use a third-party tool
d) Both a and b
Answer: a) Save a workbook as a template

339. To modify a template, you need to:

a) Open it as a workbook
b) Edit the file directly
c) Save it as a new template
 d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

340. Which extension does an Excel template file have?

a) .xls
b) .xlsx
c) .xltx
d) .xlsm
Answer: c) .xltx

341. In Excel, templates are stored in:

a) The Templates folder
b) The default folder
c) The Downloads folder
d) The cloud storage
Answer: a) The Templates folder

342. Can you share a template in Excel with others?

a) Yes, by saving it as a .xltx file
b) No, templates are private
c) Yes, but only via email
d) No, templates cannot be shared
Answer: a) Yes, by saving it as a .xltx file

343. What is the file extension for an Excel template with macros?
a) .xlt
b) .xltx
c) .xlsm
d) .xltm
Answer: d) .xltm

344. Which of the following chart types is used to display trends over time in Excel?
a) Pie chart
b) Bar chart
c) Line chart
d) Column chart
Answer: c) Line chart

345. The default chart type in Excel is:

a) Pie chart
b) Column chart
c) Line chart
d) Bar chart
Answer: b) Column chart

346. What is the first step in creating a chart in Excel?

a) Select the range of data
b) Format the chart
c) Insert the chart
d) Change the chart type
Answer: a) Select the range of data

347. Which of the following is NOT a valid chart type in Excel?

a) Pie
 b) Column
c) Tree map
d) Circular
Answer: d) Circular

348. How can you change the chart type in Excel?

a) Click the chart, then use the "Change Chart Type" button in the ribbon
b) Right-click the chart and select "Change Chart Type"
c) Use the Format Chart dialog box
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b

349. In Excel, which chart is best used to compare parts of a whole?

a) Column chart
b) Pie chart
c) Line chart
d) Scatter chart
Answer: b) Pie chart

350. A map chart in Excel is used to:

a) Display geographic data
b) Display financial data
c) Compare parts of a whole
d) Display sales data
Answer: a) Display geographic data

351. The legend in a chart is used to:

a) Describe the data series
b) Change the chart type
c) Modify the axis labels
d) Add a title to the chart
Answer: a) Describe the data series

352. What is the purpose of the "Data Labels" in Excel charts?

a) To display the actual values on the chart
b) To change the chart title
c) To format the chart
d) To display the axis labels
Answer: a) To display the actual values on the chart

353. How do you remove a chart from an Excel worksheet?

a) Click on the chart and press the "Delete" key
b) Right-click the chart and select "Delete"
c) Use the Chart Tools to remove it
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

354. What is the primary purpose of word processing software?

a) To create and edit text documents
b) To manage spreadsheets
c) To design graphics
d) To develop databases
Answer: a) To create and edit text documents
355. Which of the following is NOT a word processing software?
a) MS Word
b) Google Docs
c) Adobe Photoshop
d) OpenOffice Writer
Answer: c) Adobe Photoshop

356. Which of these is an example of a word processing feature?

a) Spell check
b) Image manipulation
c) Video editing
d) Data analysis
Answer: a) Spell check

357. What does a word processor do?

a) Edits text, formats documents, and adds graphics
b) Analyzes data
c) Creates and manages spreadsheets
d) Designs web pages
Answer: a) Edits text, formats documents, and adds graphics

358. Which of the following is a feature of word processing software?

a) Text alignment
b) Data sorting
c) Slide show creation
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Text alignment

359. Which of the following is the default file extension for a Microsoft Word document?
a) .xlsx
b) .docx
c) .html
d) .pptx
Answer: b) .docx

360. What feature allows you to remove unnecessary parts of a text in word processing?
a) Cut
b) Copy
c) Paste
d) Delete
Answer: d) Delete

361. Which toolbar in MS Word is used for formatting the text style?
a) Standard toolbar
b) Formatting toolbar
c) Table toolbar
d) Drawing toolbar
Answer: b) Formatting toolbar

362. In word processing software, what is the function of the "Undo" button?
a) To save a document
b) To remove the last change made to the document
c) To copy text
 d) To open a new document
Answer: b) To remove the last change made to the document

363. What is the most common word processor used in business?

a) Notepad
b) MS Word
c) LibreOffice Writer
d) Pages
Answer: b) MS Word

364. In MS Word, which tab is used to insert page numbers?

a) Home
b) Insert
c) View
d) Design
Answer: b) Insert

365. Which of the following is used to change the font style in MS Word?
a) Page Layout
b) Font group
c) Review tab
d) View tab
Answer: b) Font group

366. What does the "Save As" command in MS Word do?

a) Saves the document with the same name
b) Saves the document with a new name or location
c) Exits the application
d) Closes the document
Answer: b) Saves the document with a new name or location

367. How can you quickly center a paragraph in MS Word?

a) Press Ctrl + C
b) Press Ctrl + E
c) Press Ctrl + L
d) Press Ctrl + R
Answer: b) Press Ctrl + E

368. What is the default font in Microsoft Word?

a) Arial
b) Times New Roman
c) Calibri
d) Courier New
Answer: c) Calibri

369. How do you insert a page break in MS Word?

a) Press Ctrl + Enter
b) Press Shift + Enter
c) Press Alt + Enter
d) Press Ctrl + P
Answer: a) Press Ctrl + Enter

370. Which of the following features is used to check for spelling and grammar errors in MS Word?
a) Spelling & Grammar tool
 b) Thesaurus
c) Word Count
d) Find & Replace
Answer: a) Spelling & Grammar tool

371. In MS Word, which key combination is used to paste copied text?

a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + V
c) Ctrl + X
d) Ctrl + Z
Answer: b) Ctrl + V

372. Which view in MS Word is used to see the document as it will appear on a printed page?
a) Print Layout
b) Outline View
c) Draft View
d) Web Layout
Answer: a) Print Layout

373. How do you insert a table in MS Word?

a) Insert > Table
b) File > Table
c) Layout > Insert
d) View > Table
Answer: a) Insert > Table

374. Which of the following is the default alignment for text in MS Word?
a) Centered
b) Left-aligned
c) Right-aligned
d) Justified
Answer: b) Left-aligned

375. What is the shortcut key to start a new paragraph in MS Word?

a) Ctrl + P
b) Enter
c) Ctrl + N
d) Ctrl + S
Answer: b) Enter

376. How do you enter a line break without starting a new paragraph?
a) Press Shift + Enter
b) Press Ctrl + Enter
c) Press Alt + Enter
d) Press Enter twice
Answer: a) Press Shift + Enter

377. To insert special characters in MS Word, which tab should you use?
a) Home
b) Insert
c) Page Layout
d) References
Answer: b) Insert
378. Which feature in MS Word allows you to automatically capitalize the first letter of a sentence?
a) AutoCorrect
b) Word Wrap
c) Spell Checker
d) AutoFormat
Answer: a) AutoCorrect

379. Which of the following shortcuts will move the cursor to the beginning of a document in MS
Word?
a) Ctrl + End
b) Ctrl + Home
c) Alt + Home
d) Shift + Home
Answer: b) Ctrl + Home

380. What is the shortcut to select all text in a Word document?

a) Ctrl + A
b) Ctrl + S
c) Ctrl + D
d) Ctrl + X
Answer: a) Ctrl + A

381. To undo the last action in MS Word, which shortcut should you use?
a) Ctrl + Z
b) Ctrl + Y
c) Ctrl + U
d) Ctrl + X
Answer: a) Ctrl + Z

382. In MS Word, which function key will open the "Find" dialog box?
a) F3
b) F5
c) F6
d) F7
Answer: b) F5

383. How do you insert a symbol or character that is not available on the keyboard in MS Word?
a) Use the Insert tab
b) Use the Home tab
c) Use the View tab
d) Use the Review tab
Answer: a) Use the Insert tab

384. Which option in MS Word is used to replace text?

a) Find
b) Replace
c) Cut
d) Copy
Answer: b) Replace

385. What happens when you press Ctrl + X in MS Word?

a) It copies the selected text
b) It pastes the selected text
c) It cuts the selected text
 d) It deletes the selected text
Answer: c) It cuts the selected text

386. How do you paste copied text in MS Word?

a) Press Ctrl + P
b) Press Ctrl + V
c) Press Ctrl + X
d) Press Ctrl + Z
Answer: b) Press Ctrl + V

387. To remove all formatting from selected text, which option should be used?
a) Clear All Formatting
b) Bold
c) Italic
d) Underline
Answer: a) Clear All Formatting

388. Which of the following allows you to change the font size in MS Word?
a) Font Size dropdown
b) Page Layout tab
c) Paragraph tab
d) Styles group
Answer: a) Font Size dropdown

389. Which of the following options will you use to copy text in MS Word?
a) Press Ctrl + C
b) Press Ctrl + V
c) Press Ctrl + X
d) Press Ctrl + Z
Answer: a) Press Ctrl + C

390. What is the default setting for the line spacing in MS Word?
a) 1.5 lines
b) 1.0 lines
c) 2.0 lines
d) 1.15 lines
Answer: d) 1.15 lines

391. How do you change the case of selected text in MS Word?

a) Press Shift + F3
b) Press Ctrl + U
c) Press Ctrl + I
d) Press Ctrl + A
Answer: a) Press Shift + F3

392. To change the alignment of a paragraph to the right, which shortcut should you use?
a) Ctrl + R
b) Ctrl + L
c) Ctrl + E
d) Ctrl + J
Answer: a) Ctrl + R

393. Which of the following will NOT remove text in MS Word?

a) Backspace
 b) Delete
c) Cut
d) None of the above
Answer: d) None of the above

394. To make the text bold in MS Word, you can press:

a) Ctrl + B
b) Ctrl + U
c) Ctrl + I
d) Ctrl + S
Answer: a) Ctrl + B

395. What is the function of the "Format Painter" in MS Word?

a) It paints the text in the document
b) It copies the formatting of one part of text to another
c) It formats the entire document
d) It changes the font color
Answer: b) It copies the formatting of one part of text to another

396. How do you apply italics to a selected text in MS Word?

a) Ctrl + B
b) Ctrl + U
c) Ctrl + I
d) Ctrl + S
Answer: c) Ctrl + I

397. Which option in the Home tab allows you to change the font color?
a) Font Color button
b) Text Highlight Color button
c) Format Painter button
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Font Color button

398. How can you change the line spacing of a paragraph in MS Word?
a) Use the Paragraph group in the Home tab
b) Use the Font group
c) Use the Styles tab
d) Use the Insert tab
Answer: a) Use the Paragraph group in the Home tab

399. What does the "Justify" alignment do in MS Word?

a) Aligns text to the left
b) Aligns text to the right
c) Aligns text to both the left and right margins
d) Centers the text
Answer: c) Aligns text to both the left and right margins

400. To underline selected text in MS Word, you can press:

a) Ctrl + U
b) Ctrl + B
c) Ctrl + I
d) Ctrl + A
Answer: a) Ctrl + U
401. Which tab in MS Word allows you to change the page layout settings?
a) Page Layout
b) Home
c) Insert
d) View
Answer: a) Page Layout

402. How do you create a bulleted list in MS Word?

a) Click the Bullets button in the Paragraph group
b) Press Ctrl + B
c) Press Ctrl + U
d) Press Ctrl + L
Answer: a) Click the Bullets button in the Paragraph group

403. How do you insert a hyperlink in MS Word?

a) Press Ctrl + K
b) Press Ctrl + H
c) Press Ctrl + L
d) Press Ctrl + I
Answer: a) Press Ctrl + K

404. Which of the following is the default page size in Microsoft Word?
a) A4
b) Letter
c) Legal
d) Executive
Answer: a) A4

405. To change the page size in Microsoft Word, which tab should you use?
a) Home
b) Page Layout
c) Insert
d) Review
Answer: b) Page Layout

406. What is the default page orientation in Microsoft Word?

a) Portrait
b) Landscape
c) Custom
d) Portrait or Landscape (depends on the document)
Answer: a) Portrait

407. Which page orientation is typically used for documents with tables or graphics?
a) Portrait
b) Landscape
c) Both Portrait and Landscape
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Landscape

408. How do you change the page orientation to Landscape in MS Word?

a) Home > Orientation > Landscape
b) Page Layout > Orientation > Landscape
c) View > Orientation > Landscape
 d) File > Page Setup > Orientation
Answer: b) Page Layout > Orientation > Landscape

409. Which option allows you to change the page size for the entire document or a selected section in
MS Word?
a) Print Preview
b) Page Setup
c) Page Design
d) Paragraph Settings
Answer: b) Page Setup

410. What does the "Margins" setting control in a document?

a) The size of the font
b) The space between the content and the edge of the page
c) The layout of headers and footers
d) The number of pages
Answer: b) The space between the content and the edge of the page

411. To change the paper size in MS Word, which option should you select?
a) Size
b) Margins
c) Orientation
d) Page Number
Answer: a) Size

412. In which section of Microsoft Word can you find the option to change the page orientation?
a) Page Setup
b) Page Layout
c) File tab
d) View tab
Answer: b) Page Layout

413. Which of the following is NOT a standard page size option in Microsoft Word?
a) A3
b) A4
c) A5
d) B5
Answer: d) B5

414. What is the purpose of headers and footers in a document?

a) To add page numbers
b) To add content at the top and bottom of each page
c) To add background images
d) To format the text
Answer: b) To add content at the top and bottom of each page

415. How can you add a header in Microsoft Word?

a) Insert > Header
b) View > Header
c) Page Layout > Header
d) Home > Header
Answer: a) Insert > Header
416. Which of the following is typically found in the footer of a document?
a) Chapter title
b) Page numbers
c) Document title
d) Watermark
Answer: b) Page numbers

417. How can you insert a page number into the header or footer of a document?
a) Insert > Page Number
b) Insert > Text Box
c) Home > Page Number
d) View > Header and Footer
Answer: a) Insert > Page Number

418. What is the default position for a header in Microsoft Word?

a) Top-left corner
b) Centered at the top of the page
c) Right-aligned at the top of the page
d) Top-right corner
Answer: b) Centered at the top of the page

419. To add different headers or footers to odd and even pages, you need to enable which setting?
a) Different First Page
b) Different Odd & Even Pages
c) Continuous Break
d) Section Break
Answer: b) Different Odd & Even Pages

420. What is the shortcut to quickly access the header or footer in MS Word?
a) Ctrl + F
b) Ctrl + H
c) Alt + N
d) Alt + Shift + H
Answer: b) Ctrl + H

421. How do you remove a header or footer from a Word document?

a) Select and delete it from the Header or Footer
b) Press Ctrl + Z
c) Go to Insert > Header/Footer and select Remove
d) Go to Page Layout > Margins and select Default
Answer: a) Select and delete it from the Header or Footer

422. In MS Word, what feature allows you to insert a document's title in the header or footer
automatically?
a) Quick Parts
b) Fields
c) Watermark
d) Bookmark
Answer: b) Fields

423. What happens when you click on "Different First Page" in the header and footer options?
a) It removes all headers and footers
b) It applies a different header/footer to the first page only
c) It removes headers for all pages
 d) It creates a header for even pages
Answer: b) It applies a different header/footer to the first page only

424. How do you create columns in a Word document?

a) Page Layout > Columns
b) Insert > Columns
c) Home > Columns
d) View > Columns
Answer: a) Page Layout > Columns

425. Which of the following is used to divide a document into different sections?
a) Page Break
b) Section Break
c) Column Break
d) Line Break
Answer: b) Section Break

426. What does a section break allow you to do in a Word document?

a) Start a new paragraph
b) Apply different formatting, such as page layout and columns, to different parts of the document
c) Move text to a new page
d) Insert an image
Answer: b) Apply different formatting, such as page layout and columns, to different parts of the
document

427. How many types of section breaks are available in MS Word?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c) Three

428. What is the default number of columns in a Word document when you create columns?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b) Two

429. How do you change the number of columns in a Word document?

a) Page Layout > Columns > More Columns
b) Insert > Columns
c) Home > Format Columns
d) View > Columns
Answer: a) Page Layout > Columns > More Columns

430. Which of the following options in the "Columns" dialog box allows you to apply a line between
columns?
a) Spacing
b) Equal column width
c) Line between
d) Preview
Answer: c) Line between
431. What happens when you insert a "Continuous" section break in a Word document?
a) It starts a new page
b) It creates a new section without starting a new page
c) It inserts a page break
d) It inserts a new paragraph
Answer: b) It creates a new section without starting a new page

432. How can you remove columns from a Word document?

a) Go to Page Layout > Columns > One
b) Press Delete
c) Right-click and select "Remove Columns"
d) Use the Clear Formatting option
Answer: a) Go to Page Layout > Columns > One

433. What is the function of the "Line Between" option in the "Columns" dialog box?
a) It applies a horizontal line between the columns
b) It applies a line after the header
c) It places a border around each column
d) It applies vertical lines between columns
Answer: d) It applies vertical lines between columns

434. How do you set custom margins in MS Word?

a) Page Layout > Margins > Custom Margins
b) Home > Margins > Custom
c) View > Page Layout > Custom
d) File > Print > Custom Margins
Answer: a) Page Layout > Margins > Custom Margins

435. What is the purpose of the "Align Text Right" option in Page Layout?
a) Aligns the document’s text to the left side of the page
b) Aligns the document’s text to the center
c) Aligns the document’s text to the right side of the page
d) Justifies the document’s text
Answer: c) Aligns the document’s text to the right side of the page

436. What is the function of the "Page Borders" option in the Page Layout tab?
a) To add margins to a page
b) To add decorative borders around the entire page
c) To insert a page number
d) To format the background color of the page
Answer: b) To add decorative borders around the entire page

437. In MS Word, what does the "Widow/Orphan control" option prevent?

a) Single lines of text appearing at the top or bottom of a page
b) Large spaces between paragraphs
c) Text from overflowing to the next page
d) Text from getting cut off
Answer: a) Single lines of text appearing at the top or bottom of a page

438. How can you insert a watermark in MS Word?

a) Page Layout > Watermark
b) Insert > Text Box > Watermark
c) View > Watermark
 d) Review > Watermark
Answer: a) Page Layout > Watermark

439. How do you change the page orientation of specific sections of the document?
a) Select the section and choose "Orientation" from the Page Layout tab
b) Use a section break before changing orientation
c) Use the View tab
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b

440. What is the function of the "Columns" option in the Page Layout tab?
a) To arrange text into multiple columns
b) To add tables to the page
c) To insert footnotes
d) To define the size of the columns
Answer: a) To arrange text into multiple columns

441. How do you change the document’s page size to "Legal" in MS Word?
a) Page Layout > Size > Legal
b) Insert > Size > Legal
c) Home > Page Size > Legal
d) View > Legal Page Size
Answer: a) Page Layout > Size > Legal

442. What is the function of the "Breaks" option in the Page Layout tab?
a) To insert page breaks, section breaks, and column breaks
b) To insert header and footer breaks
c) To split columns into multiple sections
d) To separate text into paragraphs
Answer: a) To insert page breaks, section breaks, and column breaks

443. Which of the following is used to adjust the spacing between paragraphs in MS Word?
a) Paragraph group > Spacing
b) Home tab > Paragraph > Spacing
c) Page Layout > Paragraph Settings
d) View tab > Spacing
Answer: a) Paragraph group > Spacing

444. What does the Spelling and Grammar checker in MS Word do?
a) Corrects the formatting of text
b) Finds and corrects spelling and grammatical errors
c) Edits the text for readability
d) Changes the font of the text
Answer: b) Finds and corrects spelling and grammatical errors

445. Which tab in Microsoft Word allows you to run the Spelling and Grammar check?
a) Home
b) Review
c) Insert
d) View
Answer: b) Review

446. What does the red squiggly line under a word indicate?
a) The word is in italics
 b) There is a potential spelling error
c) There is a grammar issue
d) The word is not in the dictionary
Answer: b) There is a potential spelling error

447. How can you access the Spelling and Grammar check in Word?
a) Home > Proofing
b) Review > Spelling & Grammar
c) Insert > Proofing
d) View > Spelling
Answer: b) Review > Spelling & Grammar

448. What does the green squiggly line indicate in Word?

a) Formatting issue
b) Possible grammar error
c) Typo
d) Text color
Answer: b) Possible grammar error

449. Which button should you click to correct a spelling error in Word?
a) Ignore
b) Suggestions
c) Change
d) Next
Answer: c) Change

450. What happens when you click “Ignore All” in the Spelling and Grammar checker?
a) All spelling errors are corrected
b) The error is corrected, and you are taken to the next one
c) The error is ignored throughout the document
d) The entire document is ignored
Answer: c) The error is ignored throughout the document

451. If you find a spelling error, which option in the Spelling and Grammar dialog box should you use
to ignore the error for the rest of the document?
a) Ignore
b) Ignore Once
c) Ignore All
d) Cancel
Answer: c) Ignore All

452. Which of the following is true about MS Word's automatic spelling check feature?
a) It automatically fixes spelling errors
b) It highlights potential spelling errors as you type
c) It automatically corrects grammar errors
d) It only runs when requested by the user
Answer: b) It highlights potential spelling errors as you type

453. What is the function of the "AutoCorrect" feature in Word?

a) Automatically fixes grammar errors
b) Automatically corrects commonly misspelled words
c) Adds punctuation marks
d) Automatically applies bold formatting
Answer: b) Automatically corrects commonly misspelled words
454. What is the purpose of the Thesaurus in Microsoft Word?
a) To correct spelling errors
b) To suggest synonyms and antonyms
c) To insert pictures
d) To format paragraphs
Answer: b) To suggest synonyms and antonyms

455. How can you open the Thesaurus in Microsoft Word?

a) Review > Thesaurus
b) Home > Thesaurus
c) Insert > Thesaurus
d) View > Thesaurus
Answer: a) Review > Thesaurus

456. What does the Thesaurus allow you to do in Word?

a) Automatically correct spelling
b) Look up synonyms for a selected word
c) Change the font style
d) Align text to the center
Answer: b) Look up synonyms for a selected word

457. What happens when you click on a synonym in the Thesaurus?

a) It inserts the synonym into the document
b) It highlights the word
c) It deletes the original word
d) It opens the dictionary
Answer: a) It inserts the synonym into the document

458. Which shortcut key can you press to open the Thesaurus?
a) F7
b) Shift + F7
c) Ctrl + F7
d) Alt + F7
Answer: b) Shift + F7

459. In the Thesaurus, which option would you choose if you want a list of antonyms?
a) Definitions
b) Synonyms
c) Antonyms
d) Related words
Answer: c) Antonyms

460. The Thesaurus feature is most useful for which of the following tasks?
a) Correcting spelling errors
b) Checking grammar
c) Finding synonyms and antonyms for words
d) Inserting tables
Answer: c) Finding synonyms and antonyms for words

461. How do you replace a word with its synonym from the Thesaurus?
a) Right-click the word and select "Replace"
b) Highlight the word and click "Insert"
c) Highlight the word and click on a synonym
 d) Use the "Change" button
Answer: c) Highlight the word and click on a synonym

462. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Thesaurus?

a) Providing synonyms
b) Providing antonyms
c) Finding definitions of words
d) Highlighting spelling errors
Answer: d) Highlighting spelling errors

463. Can you search for synonyms in the Thesaurus for multiple words at the same time?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b) No

464. What does the "Find" function do in Microsoft Word?

a) Finds specific words or phrases in the document
b) Changes the font style
c) Replaces words in the document
d) Checks for grammatical errors
Answer: a) Finds specific words or phrases in the document

465. What is the purpose of the "Replace" function in Word?

a) To replace the document with another file
b) To replace all instances of a word or phrase with another
c) To change the layout of the document
d) To delete unwanted text
Answer: b) To replace all instances of a word or phrase with another

466. Which of the following is a correct method to use the "Find" and "Replace" functions?
a) Press Ctrl + F for Find
b) Press Ctrl + H for Find and Replace
c) Press Ctrl + G for Find
d) Press Ctrl + T for Replace
Answer: b) Press Ctrl + H for Find and Replace

467. What happens when you click "Find Next" in the Find and Replace dialog box?
a) It searches for the previous word
b) It replaces the word with the new one
c) It moves to the next occurrence of the searched word
d) It changes the font of the word
Answer: c) It moves to the next occurrence of the searched word

468. How can you replace a word throughout the entire document?
a) Use Find and Replace, then click "Replace All"
b) Click "Replace Next" repeatedly
c) Use the "Change All" button
d) Highlight the word and type the new word
Answer: a) Use Find and Replace, then click "Replace All"

469. Which of the following is a feature of the Find and Replace dialog box?
a) It can search for formatting
b) It can change the font size
c) It can remove all punctuation marks
 d) It automatically saves the document
Answer: a) It can search for formatting

470. What does the “Match Case” option do in Find and Replace?
a) It makes all words lowercase
b) It ensures the search matches the case of the word
c) It highlights the word in yellow
d) It searches only for capitalized words
Answer: b) It ensures the search matches the case of the word

471. Which of the following is used to find special characters, such as paragraph marks, in Word?
a) Special button in Find and Replace
b) The * symbol
c) Ctrl + P
d) The spacebar
Answer: a) Special button in Find and Replace

472. In Word, what does the “Replace All” option do in the Find and Replace dialog?
a) Replaces only the first instance of the word
b) Replaces every instance of the word throughout the document
c) Replaces words in the current paragraph only
d) Replaces words in the current section only
Answer: b) Replaces every instance of the word throughout the document

473. What is the shortcut for opening the Find and Replace dialog box?
a) Ctrl + F
b) Ctrl + H
c) Ctrl + G
d) Ctrl + R
Answer: b) Ctrl + H

474. Which of the following is the correct keyboard shortcut for cutting text in Word?
a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + X
c) Ctrl + V
d) Ctrl + Z
Answer: b) Ctrl + X

475. What does the Paste function do in Word?

a) Removes the selected text
b) Copies the selected text
c) Moves the copied or cut text to a new location
d) Duplicates the selected text
Answer: c) Moves the copied or cut text to a new location

476. How do you paste text that you have previously copied in Microsoft Word?
a) Press Ctrl + C
b) Press Ctrl + V
c) Press Ctrl + X
d) Right-click and select Paste
Answer: b) Press Ctrl + V

477. If you want to copy text from one location to another in MS Word, what should you press?
a) Ctrl + V
 b) Ctrl + X
c) Ctrl + C
d) Ctrl + Z
Answer: c) Ctrl + C

478. What is the shortcut key for undoing an action in Word?

a) Ctrl + Z
b) Ctrl + Y
c) Ctrl + U
d) Ctrl + X
Answer: a) Ctrl + Z

479. Which of the following is true when you cut text in Microsoft Word?
a) The text is deleted from the document
b) The text is copied to the clipboard
c) The text is moved to a new location
d) The text remains unchanged
Answer: b) The text is copied to the clipboard

480. When you use "Paste Special," what are you able to do?
a) Paste only plain text
b) Paste formatting only
c) Paste a picture
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

481. What does the "Clipboard" store in Microsoft Word?

a) The document’s table of contents
b) The last item that was cut or copied
c) The header and footer text
d) Formatting preferences
Answer: b) The last item that was cut or copied

482. In MS Word, how do you cut and paste multiple items?

a) Use the "Cut" button repeatedly
b) Use the clipboard task pane
c) Use Ctrl + C for each item
d) Use "Select All" before cutting
Answer: b) Use the clipboard task pane

483. What happens when you paste content from the clipboard?
a) It inserts content in the place where the cursor is
b) It deletes the content from the clipboard
c) It formats the content automatically
d) It duplicates the content in the same location
Answer: a) It inserts content in the place where the cursor is

484. How do you insert a table in Microsoft Word?

a) Insert > Table
b) Home > Table
c) Page Layout > Table
d) View > Table
Answer: a) Insert > Table
485. Which option is used to format the appearance of a table in Word?
a) Table Tools > Design
b) Home > Format
c) Page Layout > Table
d) View > Gridlines
Answer: a) Table Tools > Design

486. How can you add a new row to an existing table in Word?
a) Right-click on the table and choose "Add Row"
b) Insert > Row
c) Use the Table Tools > Layout tab
d) Press the Tab key when the cursor is in the last cell
Answer: d) Press the Tab key when the cursor is in the last cell

487. What happens when you apply a "Quick Style" to a table in Word?
a) It changes the document’s margins
b) It automatically adjusts the table’s formatting
c) It adds color to the table’s borders
d) It splits the table into sections
Answer: b) It automatically adjusts the table’s formatting

488. How do you remove a table in MS Word?

a) Right-click on the table and select "Delete Table"
b) Press the Delete key
c) Select the table and press Ctrl + X
d) Select and click "Remove" from the Table Tools menu
Answer: a) Right-click on the table and select "Delete Table"

489. What feature allows you to split a cell into multiple cells in a table?
a) Merge Cells
b) Split Cells
c) Table Properties
d) Table Formatting
Answer: b) Split Cells

490. Which of the following is NOT a table style option in Word?

a) Grid
b) List
c) Accent
d) Table Grid
Answer: b) List

491. To make the rows of a table equal in height, which option should you use?
a) Align Center
b) AutoFit Row Height
c) Equalize Row Height
d) Distribute Rows Evenly
Answer: b) AutoFit Row Height

492. What feature in MS Word allows you to adjust the width of a table column automatically to fit
the content?
a) AutoFit
b) Resize Table
c) Auto Adjust
 d) Adjust Margins
Answer: a) AutoFit

493. How do you format the text within a table cell in Word?
a) Use the Font section in the Home tab
b) Use the Insert tab
c) Use the Table Tools > Layout tab
d) Use the Page Layout tab
Answer: a) Use the Font section in the Home tab

494. What does the "DIR" command do in DOS?

a) Displays the directory of files and subdirectories
b) Deletes files
c) Renames a file
d) Creates a new directory
Answer: a) Displays the directory of files and subdirectories

495. Which DOS command is used to copy files from one location to another?
a) COPY
b) MOVE
c) DELETE
d) REN
Answer: a) COPY

496. What does the "DEL" command do in DOS?

a) Deletes a file or files
b) Copies files
c) Creates directories
d) Displays file properties
Answer: a) Deletes a file or files

497. What is the purpose of the "MD" command in DOS?

a) Create a new directory
b) Delete a file
c) Move files to a different location
d) Display memory usage
Answer: a) Create a new directory

498. Which command is used to change the current directory in DOS?

a) CD
b) DIR
c) REN
d) COPY
Answer: a) CD

499. What does the "CLS" command do in DOS?

a) Clears the screen
b) Lists files in the directory
c) Changes the system clock
d) Creates a new directory
Answer: a) Clears the screen

500. Which of the following DOS commands displays the content of a file?
a) DIR
 b) TYPE
c) EDIT
d) PRINT
Answer: b) TYPE

501. What is the function of the "FORMAT" command in DOS?

a) Creates a file
b) Formats a storage device
c) Copies a file to another location
d) Renames a file
Answer: b) Formats a storage device

502. Which DOS command is used to rename a file?

a) COPY
b) DEL
c) REN
d) DIR
Answer: c) REN

503. What does the "EXIT" command do in DOS?

a) Exits the command prompt
b) Deletes a file
c) Renames a directory
d) Copies a file
Answer: a) Exits the command prompt

504. Which file system was commonly used by Windows 98?

a) NTFS
b) FAT32
c) exFAT
d) HFS+
Answer: b) FAT32

505. What is the first step in installing Windows 98?

a) Format the hard drive
b) Boot from a Windows 98 CD
c) Install the drivers
d) Partition the hard drive
Answer: b) Boot from a Windows 98 CD

506. Which of the following is required for a successful installation of Windows 98?
a) 16 MB of RAM
b) 32 MB of RAM
c) 64 MB of RAM
d) 128 MB of RAM
Answer: b) 32 MB of RAM

507. During the installation of Windows 98, which key is pressed to enter the setup screen?
a) F2
b) F12
c) F8
d) Enter
Answer: c) F8
508. What is the purpose of the "Startup Disk" in Windows 98?
a) To launch the installation process
b) To install software
c) To boot the system in case of an emergency
d) To partition the hard drive
Answer: c) To boot the system in case of an emergency

509. Which key is pressed during Windows 98 installation to access advanced startup options?
a) F1
b) F2
c) F8
d) Shift
Answer: c) F8

510. What happens after Windows 98 installation is complete?

a) The system automatically starts without rebooting
b) The system asks for a serial key
c) The system prompts for a reboot
d) The system needs to be manually configured
Answer: c) The system prompts for a reboot

511. After the installation of Windows 98, what should you do to install hardware drivers?
a) Use Device Manager
b) Use the Control Panel
c) Install from the Windows 98 CD
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

512. Which option is used to customize the installation of Windows 98?

a) Express Installation
b) Custom Installation
c) Quick Setup
d) Normal Setup
Answer: b) Custom Installation

513. What file extension is typically associated with Windows 98 installation files?
a) .exe
b) .iso
c) .msi
d) .cab
Answer: d) .cab

514. What is the primary function of the Scandisk tool in Windows 98?
a) Defragment the hard drive
b) Scan and repair disk errors
c) Clean up system files
d) Format the hard drive
Answer: b) Scan and repair disk errors

515. How can you access Scandisk in Windows 98?

a) Start > Programs > Accessories > Scandisk
b) Control Panel > Scandisk
c) Right-click on a drive and select "Scan"
 d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

516. What is the first step in running Scandisk in Windows 98?

a) Close all applications
b) Format the disk
c) Restart the computer
d) Open Task Manager
Answer: a) Close all applications

517. How long does Scandisk typically take to scan a disk?

a) A few seconds
b) A few minutes
c) It depends on the disk size and errors found
d) A few hours
Answer: c) It depends on the disk size and errors found

518. What does Scandisk do if it finds errors on the disk?

a) It fixes them automatically
b) It asks the user to manually fix them
c) It ignores the errors
d) It stops the scanning process
Answer: a) It fixes them automatically

519. Which of the following is NOT a function of Scandisk?

a) Detecting bad sectors
b) Deleting files
c) Fixing disk errors
d) Checking for fragmentation
Answer: b) Deleting files

520. How do you run Scandisk from the command prompt in Windows 98?
a) scandisk /f
b) scandisk /check
c) scandisk /fix
d) scandisk
Answer: d) scandisk

521. Which of the following is true about Scandisk?

a) It only works with floppy disks
b) It can be used to optimize system performance
c) It scans only files, not disk structure
d) It can only be run on FAT file systems
Answer: b) It can be used to optimize system performance

522. What happens if Scandisk finds a “bad sector” on a disk?

a) The disk is erased
b) The bad sector is marked as unusable
c) The bad sector is repaired automatically
d) Scandisk stops working
Answer: b) The bad sector is marked as unusable

523. In Scandisk, what option allows you to check the disk for errors while it's being used?
a) Thorough scan
 b) Standard scan
c) Background scan
d) Auto-check
Answer: c) Background scan

524. Which of the following is found in the Windows 98 Control Panel?

a) Display settings
b) Network connections
c) Sound settings
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

525. How can you open the Control Panel in Windows 98?
a) Start > Control Panel
b) Right-click on the desktop
c) Press Ctrl + Alt + Del
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Start > Control Panel

526. What is the purpose of the "Add/Remove Programs" tool in Control Panel?
a) Install new programs
b) Remove installed programs
c) View system information
d) Set display preferences
Answer: b) Remove installed programs

527. Which option in the Control Panel allows you to configure system fonts and appearance
settings?
a) Display
b) System
c) Network
d) Printers
Answer: a) Display

528. How do you set up a new printer in Windows 98 using Control Panel?
a) Start > Control Panel > Printers
b) Start > Printers > Add Printer
c) Start > Control Panel > Add Printer
d) All of the above
Answer: c) Start > Control Panel > Add Printer

529. Which Control Panel tool is used to configure sound settings?

a) Multimedia
b) Sound and Audio
c) Audio Settings
d) Printer Configuration
Answer: a) Multimedia

530. Which option in Control Panel is used to modify mouse settings?

a) Mouse
b) Display
c) System
d) Keyboard
Answer: a) Mouse
531. What does the "System" option in the Control Panel display?
a) Hardware and software information
b) List of installed applications
c) Network connections
d) User profiles
Answer: a) Hardware and software information

532. In Windows 98, where would you configure the network settings?
a) Network and Dial-up Connections
b) Control Panel > Network
c) Control Panel > Internet
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b

533. What would you use the "Date and Time" option for in Control Panel?
a) Set the system date and time
b) Adjust the time zone
c) Sync the system clock
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

534. What is the main function of the taskbar in Windows 98?

a) Display open programs
b) Provide system settings
c) Organize files
d) Manage control panel settings
Answer: a) Display open programs

535. Which of the following can be displayed on the Windows 98 taskbar?

a) Start button
b) Open applications
c) System tray
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

536. How do you minimize a window in Windows 98?

a) Click the "X" button
b) Right-click on the window and select "Minimize"
c) Click the minimize button in the title bar
d) Press Ctrl + M
Answer: c) Click the minimize button in the title bar

537. What does the "Start" button on the taskbar do?

a) Opens the Start menu
b) Opens My Computer
c) Minimizes the current window
d) Displays system settings
Answer: a) Opens the Start menu

538. Which section of the taskbar shows system information such as the time and network status?
a) Start menu
b) System tray
c) Quick launch
 d) Taskbar button area
Answer: b) System tray

539. How can you lock the taskbar to prevent accidental changes?
a) Right-click on the taskbar and select "Lock the taskbar"
b) Drag the taskbar to a new location
c) Turn off the computer
d) Use the "Task Manager"
Answer: a) Right-click on the taskbar and select "Lock the taskbar"

540. What is the purpose of the "Quick Launch" toolbar in Windows 98?
a) Open frequently used programs quickly
b) Display the system tray
c) Change the appearance of the desktop
d) Show running programs
Answer: a) Open frequently used programs quickly

541. How can you change the position of the taskbar?

a) Right-click on the taskbar and select "Properties"
b) Drag the taskbar to a new position
c) Use the Task Manager
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b

542. Which of the following is true about the taskbar in Windows 98?
a) It cannot be customized
b) It displays only the Start menu
c) You can add shortcuts to the taskbar
d) It is always hidden
Answer: c) You can add shortcuts to the taskbar

543. What does the "Hide Inactive Icons" option in the taskbar settings do?
a) Hides all icons in the system tray
b) Hides inactive icons when not in use
c) Keeps icons visible at all times
d) Only shows running applications
Answer: b) Hides inactive icons when not in use

544. What is a toolbar in Windows 98?

a) A menu of available options
b) A set of icons for quick access to functions
c) A screen for displaying files
d) A section for displaying running programs
Answer: b) A set of icons for quick access to functions

545. How do you add a toolbar to the desktop in Windows 98?

a) Right-click on the taskbar and select "Toolbars"
b) Use Control Panel
c) Drag icons to the desktop
d) Right-click on the Start menu
Answer: a) Right-click on the taskbar and select "Toolbars"

546. Which of the following is a default toolbar in Windows 98?

a) Address Bar
 b) Navigation Bar
c) System Tools
d) Start menu toolbar
Answer: a) Address Bar

547. How do you customize the toolbar icons in Windows 98?

a) Right-click on the toolbar and select "Customize"
b) Open Control Panel
c) Modify the taskbar settings
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Right-click on the toolbar and select "Customize"

548. What function does the "Address Bar" toolbar provide?

a) Displays the file path of opened files
b) Launches applications
c) Displays active window titles
d) Provides system information
Answer: a) Displays the file path of opened files

549. How do you remove a toolbar from the taskbar?

a) Right-click on the toolbar and select "Remove"
b) Drag the toolbar to the desktop
c) Use Control Panel
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b

550. What is the "Windows Desktop Toolbar" used for?

a) Displaying all desktop icons
b) Accessing desktop shortcuts quickly
c) Changing display settings
d) Running applications
Answer: b) Accessing desktop shortcuts quickly

551. Which of the following is an example of a custom toolbar in Windows 98?

a) Quick Launch
b) Address Bar
c) Search Bar
d) Start Menu
Answer: a) Quick Launch

552. Can you move the toolbar position in Windows 98?

a) No
b) Yes, by dragging it to a different location
c) Yes, but only to the top of the screen
d) Yes, but only to the sides
Answer: b) Yes, by dragging it to a different location

553. What happens when you click the "Customize" option on a toolbar in Windows 98?
a) You can change the icons and options displayed
b) It opens a settings menu for applications
c) It displays system information
d) It resets all icons to their defaults
Answer: a) You can change the icons and options displayed
554. Which of the following DOS commands is used to display a list of files and directories?
a) DIR
b) COPY
c) DEL
d) FORMAT
Answer: a) DIR

555. What does the "COPY" command do in DOS?

a) Deletes a file
b) Copies a file from one location to another
c) Renames a file
d) Creates a new directory
Answer: b) Copies a file from one location to another

556. What does the "DEL" command do in DOS?

a) Deletes a file or files
b) Moves files
c) Renames a file
d) Creates a new directory
Answer: a) Deletes a file or files

557. Which DOS command is used to create a new directory?

a) MD
b) COPY
c) REN
d) CD
Answer: a) MD

558. Which DOS command is used to change the current directory?

a) CD
b) DIR
c) REN
d) DEL
Answer: a) CD

559. What does the "CLS" command do in DOS?

a) Clears the screen
b) Creates a new directory
c) Copies a file
d) Renames a file
Answer: a) Clears the screen

560. What is the function of the "TYPE" command in DOS?

a) Display the contents of a file
b) Delete a file
c) Change directory
d) Rename a file
Answer: a) Display the contents of a file

561. Which command is used to check the disk for errors in DOS?
a) CHKDSK
b) DIR
c) FORMAT
 d) COPY
Answer: a) CHKDSK

562. Which DOS command is used to rename a file or directory?

a) REN
b) DEL
c) MOVE
d) COPY
Answer: a) REN

563. How can you exit from the DOS command prompt?
a) EXIT
b) QUIT
c) CLOSE
d) END
Answer: a) EXIT

564. Where do you go to change the desktop background in Windows 98?

a) Control Panel > Display
b) Right-click on the desktop and select "Properties"
c) Start menu > Settings
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

565. What file format is typically used for wallpapers in Windows 98?
a) .bmp
b) .jpg
c) .gif
d) .png
Answer: a) .bmp

566. How can you change the wallpaper in Windows 98?

a) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Background
b) Use a third-party app
c) Go to Control Panel > Wallpapers
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Background

567. What is the "Screensaver" option used for in Windows 98?

a) Change the screen's appearance after a period of inactivity
b) Set up the computer's password
c) Modify the system settings
d) Configure the desktop icons
Answer: a) Change the screen's appearance after a period of inactivity

568. Where do you set a screensaver in Windows 98?

a) Control Panel > Display
b) Right-click on the desktop > Properties
c) Start menu > Settings > Control Panel
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Control Panel > Display

569. What is the purpose of the "Power" option under the Screensaver settings?
a) Configure power saving features
 b) Set screen resolution
c) Change wallpaper
d) Change system sounds
Answer: a) Configure power saving features

570. Which of the following can you use as a screensaver in Windows 98?
a) 3D Text
b) Blank Screen
c) Bouncing Balls
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

571. What is the "Themes" option in Windows 98 used for?

a) Change the desktop background and screensaver simultaneously
b) Organize files
c) Configure power options
d) View system information
Answer: a) Change the desktop background and screensaver simultaneously

572. How can you access the "Themes" settings in Windows 98?
a) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Themes
b) Control Panel > Display > Themes
c) Start menu > Settings > Themes
d) All of the above
Answer: b) Control Panel > Display > Themes

573. Which of the following is true about the "Themes" feature in Windows 98?
a) It only changes the background
b) It changes the entire look of the desktop
c) It requires third-party software
d) It can only be used to modify screensavers
Answer: b) It changes the entire look of the desktop

574. Which file extension is associated with screensavers in Windows 98?

a) .exe
b) .scr
c) .bmp
d) .jpg
Answer: b) .scr

575. What happens if you select "None" for a screensaver in Windows 98?
a) The screensaver is disabled
b) The screensaver is set to the default
c) The system automatically shuts down
d) The desktop is hidden
Answer: a) The screensaver is disabled

576. How long does the screensaver wait to appear by default in Windows 98?
a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
Answer: a) 5 minutes
577. What is the default screensaver in Windows 98?
a) 3D Text
b) Bubbles
c) Blank Screen
d) My Pictures Slideshow
Answer: a) 3D Text

578. How can you change the wallpaper without opening the display settings?
a) Right-click on the image file > Set as Wallpaper
b) Use a keyboard shortcut
c) Drag and drop an image file onto the desktop
d) Open Control Panel > Wallpaper
Answer: a) Right-click on the image file > Set as Wallpaper

579. In Windows 98, what does the "Position" option in the Background settings control?
a) The placement of the wallpaper
b) The screensaver speed
c) The system time
d) The icon alignment
Answer: a) The placement of the wallpaper

580. Which of the following is a valid option for the Position setting in the Background tab?
a) Center
b) Tile
c) Stretch
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

581. Can you use animated images as wallpaper in Windows 98?

a) Yes, with third-party software
b) No, only static images are supported
c) Yes, by default
d) Only GIF images are allowed
Answer: a) Yes, with third-party software

582. What is the "Appearance" tab in the Display settings used for?
a) Changing the system colors and font styles
b) Installing new wallpapers
c) Configuring network settings
d) Adjusting screen brightness
Answer: a) Changing the system colors and font styles

583. What is the function of the "Desktop" tab in the Display settings?
a) Change wallpaper and desktop icons
b) Configure network settings
c) Set power management options
d) Change system date and time
Answer: a) Change wallpaper and desktop icons

584. How can you restore default display settings in Windows 98?
a) Use the "Restore Defaults" button in the Display properties
b) Manually adjust each setting
c) Reinstall Windows
 d) Restart the system
Answer: a) Use the "Restore Defaults" button in the Display properties

585. Which of the following is NOT a valid option in the "Display" settings in Windows 98?
a) Background
b) Screensaver
c) Network settings
d) Appearance
Answer: c) Network settings

586. In Windows 98, where can you find the "Font" settings?
a) Control Panel > Fonts
b) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Fonts
c) Start menu > Settings > Fonts
d) Control Panel > Display > Appearance
Answer: a) Control Panel > Fonts

587. What is the purpose of the "Desktop Themes" feature in Windows 98?
a) Change the entire look of the desktop, including sounds, icons, and colors
b) Adjust screen resolution
c) Set up power-saving options
d) Modify the desktop layout only
Answer: a) Change the entire look of the desktop, including sounds, icons, and colors

588. What kind of file is a "desktop theme" in Windows 98?

a) .zip
b) .theme
c) .exe
d) .txt
Answer: b) .theme

589. Where do you go to change the desktop background in Windows?

a) Control Panel > Display
b) Right-click on the desktop and select "Properties"
c) Start menu > Settings
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

590. What is the default file format for wallpaper in Windows?

a) .bmp
b) .jpg
c) .png
d) .gif
Answer: a) .bmp

591. How can you change the wallpaper in Windows?

a) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Background
b) Go to Control Panel > Desktop
c) Right-click on an image file and select "Set as Wallpaper"
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

592. Which of the following file types can be used for wallpapers?
a) .bmp
 b) .jpg
c) .gif
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

593. Which of these options is NOT available in the "Background" tab of Display Properties?
a) Wallpaper
b) Screensaver
c) Position
d) Font style
Answer: d) Font style

594. What is the purpose of the "Position" setting in the Background tab of Display Properties?
a) To set the resolution of the wallpaper
b) To adjust the brightness of the wallpaper
c) To determine how the wallpaper fits on the screen (centered, stretched, tiled)
d) To change the desktop icons
Answer: c) To determine how the wallpaper fits on the screen

595. How long does Windows wait before activating the screensaver by default?
a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 15 minutes
Answer: b) 5 minutes

596. Which file extension is associated with screensavers in Windows?

a) .exe
b) .scr
c) .bmp
d) .jpg
Answer: b) .scr

597. How can you change the screensaver in Windows?

a) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Screensaver
b) Control Panel > Display > Screensaver
c) Start menu > Settings > Screensaver
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

598. Which option in the Screensaver settings determines how the screensaver behaves after the
screen has been idle?
a) Wait time
b) Power options
c) Monitor
d) Position
Answer: a) Wait time

599. Which of the following is a type of screensaver in Windows?

a) 3D Text
b) Bouncing Balls
c) Blank Screen
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
600. What happens if you select "None" for a screensaver in Windows?
a) The screensaver is disabled
b) The screensaver is set to the default
c) The computer shuts down
d) The screen goes to sleep
Answer: a) The screensaver is disabled

601. What does the "Power" button in the screensaver settings control?
a) Adjusts power-saving settings for the screensaver
b) Changes the screensaver animation
c) Modifies the wait time
d) Changes the screensaver style
Answer: a) Adjusts power-saving settings for the screensaver

602. How do you preview a screensaver in Windows?

a) Click on the "Preview" button in the Screensaver settings
b) Right-click on the desktop and select "Preview Screensaver"
c) Open Control Panel and click "Screensaver"
d) There is no option to preview
Answer: a) Click on the "Preview" button in the Screensaver settings

603. What is the function of the "Settings" button in the Screensaver tab?
a) Adjusts screensaver settings for specific screensavers
b) Changes desktop icons
c) Modifies the display settings
d) Adjusts wallpaper settings
Answer: a) Adjusts screensaver settings for specific screensavers

604. Which option in the "Display Properties" allows you to set themes for your desktop?
a) Background
b) Screensaver
c) Themes
d) Appearance
Answer: c) Themes

605. What is the function of the "Themes" tab in Display Properties?

a) Changes the look of your desktop including wallpaper, icons, and screensaver
b) Adjusts screen resolution
c) Modifies the font size of text
d) Changes the file system
Answer: a) Changes the look of your desktop including wallpaper, icons, and screensaver

606. How can you customize a theme in Windows?

a) By clicking on the "Customize" button in the Themes tab
b) By right-clicking on the desktop and selecting "Customize Theme"
c) By downloading third-party themes from the internet
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

607. Which file extension is associated with themes in Windows?

a) .theme
b) .zip
c) .exe
 d) .jpg
Answer: a) .theme

608. Can you install third-party themes in Windows?

a) Yes, by downloading them from the internet
b) No, only built-in themes are allowed
c) Yes, but only from trusted sources
d) No, third-party themes are not supported
Answer: a) Yes, by downloading them from the internet

609. How can you restore the default theme in Windows?

a) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Restore Default
b) Use the "Restore Defaults" button in the Themes tab
c) Reinstall Windows
d) Restart the system
Answer: b) Use the "Restore Defaults" button in the Themes tab

610. What is the primary purpose of the "Desktop" section in the Themes tab?
a) Change system sound settings
b) Change the desktop background and screensaver
c) Modify the font style
d) Change network settings
Answer: b) Change the desktop background and screensaver

611. How can you use custom images as wallpapers in Windows?

a) Right-click on an image file and select "Set as Wallpaper"
b) Download images from the internet
c) Open the "Desktop" folder and drag images to the desktop
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Right-click on an image file and select "Set as Wallpaper"

612. What happens when you select a screensaver in the "Screensaver" tab?
a) It is automatically activated
b) It prompts you to configure it
c) It shows a preview
d) It immediately applies the selected screensaver
Answer: b) It prompts you to configure it

613. What is the default screensaver for Windows 98?

a) 3D Text
b) Bubbles
c) Blank Screen
d) My Pictures Slideshow
Answer: a) 3D Text

614. What file format is commonly used for screensaver images?

a) .bmp
b) .jpg
c) .gif
d) .png
Answer: a) .bmp

615. Can you use animated images as a wallpaper in Windows?

a) Yes, with third-party software
 b) No, only static images are supported
c) Yes, by default
d) Only GIF images are allowed
Answer: a) Yes, with third-party software

616. How can you modify the screen resolution in Windows?

a) Control Panel > Display > Settings
b) Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Settings
c) Use the Display settings tab
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

617. Which option determines the arrangement of desktop icons in Windows?

a) Arrange icons by name
b) Arrange icons by size
c) Auto arrange icons
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

618. How can you change the screen saver password in Windows?
a) Right-click on the screen saver and select "Settings"
b) Open the Control Panel > Display > Screensaver > Password
c) Use third-party software to set up a password
d) It cannot be done
Answer: b) Open the Control Panel > Display > Screensaver > Password

619. What is the purpose of Windows Explorer?

a) To manage files and folders
b) To format disks
c) To install software
d) To manage hardware settings
Answer: a) To manage files and folders

620. How can you open Windows Explorer in Windows?

a) Press Win + E
b) Right-click the desktop and select "Explorer"
c) Open Control Panel
d) Use Task Manager
Answer: a) Press Win + E

621. What is the default view of Windows Explorer?

a) List
b) Tiles
c) Details
d) Icons
Answer: d) Icons

622. Which of the following is NOT a type of file system in Windows?

a) NTFS
b) FAT32
c) EXT4
d) FAT16
Answer: c) EXT4
623. In Windows Explorer, how do you change the view of files and folders?
a) Right-click on a blank area and select "View"
b) Use the "View" tab in the ribbon
c) Press Ctrl + Shift + V
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

624. How do you create a new folder in Windows Explorer?

a) Right-click and select "New Folder"
b) Press Ctrl + N
c) Use the "New Folder" button in the ribbon
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

625. What does the "Search" box in Windows Explorer allow you to do?
a) Search for files and folders
b) Search for system settings
c) Search the web
d) Open applications
Answer: a) Search for files and folders

626. How can you find a file by its name in Windows Explorer?
a) Use the "Search" box at the top right
b) Press Ctrl + F
c) Open the Start menu and type the file name
d) Right-click and select "Find"
Answer: a) Use the "Search" box at the top right

627. In Windows, what does the .exe file extension represent?

a) Executable file
b) Compressed file
c) Text file
d) Image file
Answer: a) Executable file

628. What is the maximum size of a file that can be stored on a FAT32 formatted disk?
a) 2 GB
b) 4 GB
c) 16 GB
d) 32 GB
Answer: b) 4 GB

629. How do you format a disk in Windows?

a) Right-click on the disk > Format
b) Use Disk Management
c) Use Command Prompt
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

630. Which of the following is NOT an option available when formatting a disk in Windows?
a) Quick Format
b) Full Format
c) Set File System
 d) Write Protection
Answer: d) Write Protection

631. What is the function of the "Quick Format" option?

a) Erase the file system
b) Completely wipe the data
c) Format without scanning for bad sectors
d) Encrypt the disk
Answer: c) Format without scanning for bad sectors

632. What type of file system is typically used in modern Windows operating systems?
a) FAT32
b) NTFS
c) FAT16
d) exFAT
Answer: b) NTFS

633. What should you do to copy a file in Windows?

a) Right-click and select "Copy," then paste it elsewhere
b) Use Ctrl + X to cut and Ctrl + V to paste
c) Use Ctrl + C to copy and Ctrl + V to paste
d) All of the above
Answer: c) Use Ctrl + C to copy and Ctrl + V to paste

634. How can you move a file to a different location?

a) Use Ctrl + C and Ctrl + V
b) Right-click and select "Move"
c) Use Ctrl + X to cut and Ctrl + V to paste
d) All of the above
Answer: c) Use Ctrl + X to cut and Ctrl + V to paste

635. What happens if you drag and drop a file into another folder?
a) It copies the file
b) It moves the file
c) It deletes the file
d) It creates a shortcut
Answer: b) It moves the file

636. How do you select multiple files in Windows Explorer?

a) Hold down Ctrl and click on each file
b) Press Ctrl + A to select all files
c) Hold down Shift and click on the first and last file
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

637. How can you delete a file in Windows Explorer?

a) Right-click the file and select "Delete"
b) Press Delete key on the keyboard
c) Use the "Delete" button in the ribbon
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

638. Where do deleted files go in Windows?

a) Recycle Bin
 b) Temporary folder
c) Archive
d) System folder
Answer: a) Recycle Bin

639. How can you permanently delete a file without moving it to the Recycle Bin?
a) Press Shift + Delete
b) Right-click and select "Delete Permanently"
c) Empty the Recycle Bin
d) Use the "Delete Forever" option in Windows Explorer
Answer: a) Press Shift + Delete

640. What is the function of the "Properties" option in Windows Explorer?

a) To view and modify file attributes
b) To view file version
c) To view file security settings
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

641. How can you access the "File Properties" window?

a) Right-click the file and select "Properties"
b) Press Alt + Enter
c) Click on "Properties" in the ribbon
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

642. In Windows Explorer, what is the shortcut for opening a folder?

a) Ctrl + F
b) Ctrl + O
c) Enter
d) Alt + F4
Answer: c) Enter

643. How do you find a specific file on your computer?

a) Use the "Search" box in Windows Explorer
b) Open the Start menu and search for it
c) Use File Explorer’s advanced search options
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

644. How can you organize files in Windows Explorer?

a) By name
b) By type
c) By size
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

645. What does the "Date Modified" option allow you to do in Windows Explorer?
a) Sort files by the date they were last modified
b) Search for files by date
c) Find files that are older or newer than a specific date
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
646. In Windows, how can you adjust printer settings?
a) Go to Control Panel > Devices and Printers
b) Right-click the printer icon and select "Printer Properties"
c) Use the "Printers" tab in the Windows Settings
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

647. How can you make a printer the default printer in Windows?
a) Right-click on the printer and select "Set as Default"
b) Use the "Set Default" button in Printer Properties
c) Open Control Panel and select the default printer
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

648. How do you print a document in Windows?

a) Press Ctrl + P
b) Right-click the document and select "Print"
c) Use the "Print" option in the File menu
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

649. What is a programming language?

a) A set of instructions to execute tasks
b) A type of computer hardware
c) A type of computer software
d) A communication method between users and computers
Answer: a) A set of instructions to execute tasks

650. Which of the following is NOT a high-level programming language?

a) Python
b) Java
c) Assembly
d) C++
Answer: c) Assembly

651. What is the main purpose of a compiler?

a) To run the program
b) To convert high-level code to machine language
c) To debug the program
d) To print the program
Answer: b) To convert high-level code to machine language

652. Which of the following is a feature of an interpreted language?

a) Code is converted directly into machine code
b) Code is executed line-by-line at runtime
c) It is faster than compiled languages
d) It cannot interact with hardware directly
Answer: b) Code is executed line-by-line at runtime

653. Which programming language is known as the "mother of all programming languages"?
a) C
b) FORTRAN
c) Assembly
 d) COBOL
Answer: b) FORTRAN

654. Which of the following is the first step in writing a program?

a) Compile the code
b) Design the algorithm
c) Debug the program
d) Execute the program
Answer: b) Design the algorithm

655. Which language is used for web development on the client-side?

a) C++
b) Python
c) JavaScript
d) Java
Answer: c) JavaScript

656. What is a syntax error?

a) A mistake in the logic of the program
b) A runtime error that causes a crash
c) A mistake in the structure of the code
d) An error that occurs only during testing
Answer: c) A mistake in the structure of the code

657. Which of the following is an example of a procedural programming language?

a) Python
b) Java
c) C
d) Prolog
Answer: c) C

658. In object-oriented programming, what is a class?

a) A type of data
b) A blueprint for creating objects
c) A type of function
d) A type of loop
Answer: b) A blueprint for creating objects

659. What is the main function of an operating system (OS)?

a) To manage hardware and software resources
b) To create and edit files
c) To connect to the internet
d) To format disks
Answer: a) To manage hardware and software resources

660. Which of the following is NOT an example of an operating system?

a) Windows
b) Linux
c) Android
d) Microsoft Office
Answer: d) Microsoft Office

661. What is the primary function of a file system?

a) To store and retrieve files
 b) To manage memory
c) To compile programs
d) To perform arithmetic operations
Answer: a) To store and retrieve files

662. Which of the following is an example of a utility program?

a) Microsoft Word
b) Windows Defender
c) Linux Kernel
d) Adobe Photoshop
Answer: b) Windows Defender

663. Which type of operating system allows multiple users to access the system simultaneously?
a) Batch Operating System
b) Multi-user Operating System
c) Single-user Operating System
d) Real-time Operating System
Answer: b) Multi-user Operating System

664. What is the role of a device driver?

a) To protect the system from viruses
b) To provide an interface between the operating system and hardware
c) To schedule tasks
d) To execute applications
Answer: b) To provide an interface between the operating system and hardware

665. Which of the following is an example of a real-time operating system?

a) Windows 10
b) macOS
c) RTOS
d) Linux
Answer: c) RTOS

666. Which of the following is used to manage memory in an operating system?

a) Memory Management Unit (MMU)
b) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
c) Input/Output (I/O)
d) File Management System
Answer: a) Memory Management Unit (MMU)

667. What does the term "multitasking" refer to in an operating system?

a) Running one task at a time
b) Running multiple tasks simultaneously
c) Switching between different users
d) Performing a single task repeatedly
Answer: b) Running multiple tasks simultaneously

668. Which of the following is NOT a utility program?

a) Disk Cleanup
b) Task Manager
c) Calculator
d) Windows Media Player
Answer: d) Windows Media Player
669. Which operating system is open-source?
a) Windows
b) Linux
c) macOS
d) Windows 7
Answer: b) Linux

670. What is the function of the task scheduler in an operating system?

a) To schedule system updates
b) To allow the user to schedule tasks to run at specific times
c) To manage memory resources
d) To monitor system security
Answer: b) To allow the user to schedule tasks to run at specific times

671. Which of the following is a function of system software?

a) Running applications
b) Formatting text
c) Managing system resources
d) Browsing the internet
Answer: c) Managing system resources

672. Which operating system is designed specifically for mobile devices?

a) Windows 98
b) Android
c) Linux
d) MS-DOS
Answer: b) Android

673. What is a kernel in an operating system?

a) A memory management component
b) A program to manage system files
c) The core part of the operating system
d) A graphical user interface
Answer: c) The core part of the operating system

674. What is the primary purpose of system utilities?

a) To manage hardware and software
b) To assist in the execution of applications
c) To perform maintenance tasks such as disk cleanup
d) To organize files into folders
Answer: c) To perform maintenance tasks such as disk cleanup

675. What is a GUI (Graphical User Interface)?

a) A command-line interface
b) A visual interface for interacting with the computer
c) A tool for creating software
d) A virus detection program
Answer: b) A visual interface for interacting with the computer

676. Which utility is used to check the health of your computer’s hard drive?
a) Disk Defragmenter
b) Disk Cleanup
c) Chkdsk
 d) Task Manager
Answer: c) Chkdsk

677. What does the system restore feature in Windows do?

a) Reinstalls the operating system
b) Returns the computer to a previous state
c) Deletes old files
d) Updates device drivers
Answer: b) Returns the computer to a previous state

678. Which type of software is designed to help manage hardware resources in a computer?
a) Application software
b) System software
c) Utility software
d) Development software
Answer: b) System software

679. What is the main purpose of application software?

a) To manage the operating system
b) To perform specific tasks such as word processing or database management
c) To monitor system health
d) To manage hardware resources
Answer: b) To perform specific tasks such as word processing or database management

680. Which of the following is an example of application software?

a) Microsoft Word
b) Windows 10
c) Linux Kernel
d) Android
Answer: a) Microsoft Word

681. Which software would you use to create and edit spreadsheets?
a) Adobe Photoshop
b) Microsoft Excel
c) Google Chrome
d) Notepad
Answer: b) Microsoft Excel

682. Which of the following is NOT a type of application software?

a) Word processor
b) Spreadsheet
c) Operating system
d) Media player
Answer: c) Operating system

683. Which of the following is an example of a photo editing software?

a) Adobe Photoshop
b) Microsoft Word
c) Google Chrome
d) Microsoft Excel
Answer: a) Adobe Photoshop

684. What is a database management system (DBMS) used for?

a) To manage files and folders
 b) To store, manage, and retrieve large amounts of data
c) To edit text documents
d) To analyze data
Answer: b) To store, manage, and retrieve large amounts of data

685. Which of the following is an example of an email client?

a) Microsoft Word
b) Mozilla Firefox
c) Microsoft Outlook
d) Google Sheets
Answer: c) Microsoft Outlook

686. Which of the following is an example of presentation software?

a) Microsoft PowerPoint
b) Google Docs
c) Microsoft Excel
d) Adobe Reader
Answer: a) Microsoft PowerPoint

687. What is the function of word processing software?

a) To create and edit text documents
b) To browse the internet
c) To store large amounts of data
d) To perform arithmetic calculations
Answer: a) To create and edit text documents

688. Which of the following is a popular video conferencing software?

a) Microsoft Teams
b) Adobe Illustrator
c) Microsoft Paint
d) WordPad
Answer: a) Microsoft Teams

689. Which software is commonly used for graphic design?

a) Adobe Photoshop
b) Microsoft Excel
c) Windows Media Player
d) VLC Media Player
Answer: a) Adobe Photoshop

690. What is the purpose of accounting software?

a) To manage customer relationships
b) To store documents
c) To manage financial transactions and records
d) To monitor computer performance
Answer: c) To manage financial transactions and records

691. Which software is used for web development?

a) Adobe Dreamweaver
b) Microsoft PowerPoint
c) Google Chrome
d) Microsoft Outlook
Answer: a) Adobe Dreamweaver
692. Which software allows users to view and manage PDF files?
a) Adobe Acrobat Reader
b) Microsoft Word
c) Google Sheets
d) Windows Media Player
Answer: a) Adobe Acrobat Reader

693. What does an integrated development environment (IDE) do?

a) Helps in coding and software development
b) Manages file systems
c) Provides security features
d) Handles hardware resources
Answer: a) Helps in coding and software development

694. What does a data communication system consist of?

a) A transmitter and a receiver
b) A computer and a modem
c) A communication channel and data
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

695. Which of the following is an example of a communication medium in data communication?

a) Fiber optic cable
b) Copper wire
c) Wireless signal
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

696. What is the primary purpose of a modem in a data communication system?

a) To encrypt data
b) To modulate and demodulate signals
c) To establish communication channels
d) To store data
Answer: b) To modulate and demodulate signals

697. Which of the following terms refers to the speed of data transmission?
a) Bandwidth
b) Latency
c) Throughput
d) Modulation
Answer: a) Bandwidth

698. Which of the following is NOT an essential component of a data communication system?
a) Source
b) Modem
c) Channel
d) Processor
Answer: d) Processor

699. Which of the following defines the concept of "data transmission"?

a) The process of encoding data into a digital format
b) The process of sending data from one device to another
c) The process of storing data on a hard drive
 d) The process of creating data
Answer: b) The process of sending data from one device to another

700. What is a typical data transmission rate measured in?

a) Hertz
b) Bits per second (bps)
c) Kilobytes
d) Gigabytes
Answer: b) Bits per second (bps)

701. What type of transmission method is used when data is sent one bit at a time?
a) Serial transmission
b) Parallel transmission
c) Synchronous transmission
d) Asynchronous transmission
Answer: a) Serial transmission

702. Which of the following is a type of data communication system that connects multiple
computers in a network?
a) Local Area Network (LAN)
b) Wide Area Network (WAN)
c) Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

703. What does the term "protocol" mean in data communication?

a) A set of rules that govern communication between devices
b) A type of transmission medium
c) The process of encoding data
d) A device used in communication
Answer: a) A set of rules that govern communication between devices

704. Which of the following protocols is used for secure communication over the internet?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) HTTPS
d) POP3
Answer: c) HTTPS

705. In data communication, what does the term "latency" refer to?
a) The amount of data transmitted in a given time
b) The time taken for data to travel from source to destination
c) The speed of the data transmission
d) The frequency of signal transmission
Answer: b) The time taken for data to travel from source to destination

706. What is the function of an error detection code in data communication?

a) To compress the data
b) To prevent unauthorized access to data
c) To ensure the data is transmitted correctly
d) To store the data
Answer: c) To ensure the data is transmitted correctly
707. What does "full-duplex" communication mean?
a) Data can only be transmitted in one direction
b) Data can be transmitted in both directions, but not simultaneously
c) Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously
d) Data is compressed before transmission
Answer: c) Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously

708. What is the function of a switch in a data communication network?

a) To store data
b) To convert digital signals into analog
c) To direct data packets to the appropriate destination
d) To encrypt data during transmission
Answer: c) To direct data packets to the appropriate destination

709. hat is the main difference between analog and digital data transmission?
a) Analog uses continuous signals, while digital uses discrete signals
b) Analog is faster than digital
c) Digital is slower than analog
d) There is no difference
Answer: a) Analog uses continuous signals, while digital uses discrete signals

710. Which of the following is an example of a synchronous data transmission method?

a) Serial transmission
b) Parallel transmission
c) Frame-based transmission
d) Time-division multiplexing
Answer: d) Time-division multiplexing

711. What does the term "bandwidth" refer to in the context of data transmission?
a) The number of devices connected to a network
b) The range of frequencies a transmission medium can carry
c) The amount of data that can be compressed
d) The distance data can travel
Answer: b) The range of frequencies a transmission medium can carry

712. What is the purpose of a buffer in data transmission?

a) To store data temporarily before transmission
b) To encrypt the data
c) To compress data
d) To route data to the correct device
Answer: a) To store data temporarily before transmission

713. Which of the following is NOT a method of data compression?

a) Huffman coding
b) Run-length encoding
c) Asymmetric encryption
d) Lempel-Ziv-Welch (LZW) compression
Answer: c) Asymmetric encryption

714. What is the most common form of digital data transmission?

a) Serial transmission
b) Parallel transmission
c) Wireless transmission
 d) Optical transmission
Answer: a) Serial transmission

715. In data transmission, what is a "packet"?

a) A small portion of data sent over a network
b) A storage device
c) A type of encryption
d) A communication channel
Answer: a) A small portion of data sent over a network

716. What does "modulation" mean in data transmission?

a) The process of converting digital signals into analog signals
b) The process of increasing signal strength
c) The process of encrypting data
d) The process of error checking
Answer: a) The process of converting digital signals into analog signals

717. What is the primary use of the TCP/IP protocol in data transmission?
a) To provide security
b) To establish a connection between devices over a network
c) To compress data
d) To manage system memory
Answer: b) To establish a connection between devices over a network

718. What is a "handshake" in data transmission?

a) A method for establishing a secure connection
b) A process of data compression
c) A method for acknowledging the reception of data
d) A technique for error detection
Answer: c) A method for acknowledging the reception of data

719. Which protocol is used for sending emails over the internet?
a) POP3
b) SMTP
c) IMAP
d) FTP
Answer: b) SMTP

720. What is the function of the "Inbox" folder in an email system?

a) To store sent messages
b) To store received messages
c) To store draft messages
d) To store deleted messages
Answer: b) To store received messages

721. What does the acronym "SMTP" stand for in email communication?
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Secure Mail Transmission Protocol
c) System Message Transfer Protocol
d) Simple Mail Text Protocol
Answer: a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

722. What does the "CC" field stand for in an email?

a) Carbon Copy
 b) Centralized Copy
c) Contact List
d) Closed Communication
Answer: a) Carbon Copy

723. Which of the following is used to retrieve email from a mail server?
a) SMTP
b) FTP
c) IMAP
d) HTTP
Answer: c) IMAP

724. What is the function of the "BCC" field in an email?

a) To send a message to multiple recipients without revealing email addresses
b) To mark a message as read
c) To delete an email
d) To save a draft of the email
Answer: a) To send a message to multiple recipients without revealing email addresses

725. Which of the following email protocols is used for retrieving emails from a server?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) POP3
d) SMTP
Answer: c) POP3

726. What is the purpose of an email signature?

a) To track email messages
b) To verify the sender's identity
c) To add a standard block of text at the end of an email
d) To encrypt the email content
Answer: c) To add a standard block of text at the end of an email

727. What type of email is sent without requiring an internet connection?

a) Offline email
b) Spam email
c) Draft email
d) Group email
Answer: a) Offline email

728. Which of the following is the main advantage of using email over traditional mail?
a) Faster communication
b) More formal
c) Easier to archive
d) Requires paper
Answer: a) Faster communication

729. What is a fax machine used for?

a) To send and receive email
b) To transmit scanned images over a telephone line
c) To print documents
d) To browse the internet
Answer: b) To transmit scanned images over a telephone line
730. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of using a fax machine?
a) High cost of operation
b) Slower transmission speed
c) Limited document types can be sent
d) It is outdated and no longer used
Answer: b) Slower transmission speed

731. What does the term "fax number" refer to?

a) A phone number used for receiving faxes
b) A unique identifier for an email account
c) A serial number for a fax machine
d) A type of security code
Answer: a) A phone number used for receiving faxes

732. What is the primary advantage of fax communication over email?

a) Faster speed
b) Higher quality images
c) Legal acceptability of signatures
d) Lower costs
Answer: c) Legal acceptability of signatures

733. Which of the following is a limitation of fax communication?

a) It cannot be used to send images
b) It requires an internet connection
c) It requires a phone line and a fax machine
d) It only allows the sending of text messages
Answer: c) It requires a phone line and a fax machine

734. Which of the following protocols is most commonly used for voice over the internet?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) VoIP
d) FTP
Answer: c) VoIP

735. What is the primary function of VoIP technology?

a) To send and receive fax messages
b) To transmit voice data over the internet
c) To transfer files across networks
d) To encrypt data
Answer: b) To transmit voice data over the internet

736. Which of the following devices is commonly used for voice messaging in a VoIP system?
a) Modem
b) Microphone
c) Webcam
d) Printer
Answer: b) Microphone

737. What does the acronym "SIP" stand for in VoIP communication?
a) Secure Internet Protocol
b) Simple Internet Protocol
c) Session Initiation Protocol
 d) Simple Image Protocol
Answer: c) Session Initiation Protocol

738. What is the primary benefit of video messaging over traditional voice messaging?
a) It is cheaper
b) It provides a richer communication experience
c) It requires less bandwidth
d) It is easier to use
Answer: b) It provides a richer communication experience

739. Which video messaging service allows users to make video calls using their phone number?
a) Skype
b) WhatsApp
c) Facebook Messenger
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

740. What is the key advantage of using video messaging for business communication?
a) It increases security
b) It improves accessibility
c) It helps save on travel costs
d) It requires no internet connection
Answer: c) It helps save on travel costs

741. What is the minimum bandwidth required for high-definition video calls?
a) 100 kbps
b) 1 Mbps
c) 2 Mbps
d) 5 Mbps
Answer: b) 1 Mbps

742. Which of the following is a popular video messaging app?

a) Skype
b) WhatsApp
c) Zoom
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

743. What type of network is required to ensure smooth video messaging?

a) A wired connection
b) A fast internet connection
c) A slow internet connection
d) A local area network (LAN)
Answer: b) A fast internet connection

744. Which of the following is an example of a video conferencing software?

a) Skype
b) Google Meet
c) Zoom
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

745. What is the primary benefit of video conferencing?

a) To create multimedia presentations
 b) To conduct meetings with remote participants
c) To save files on the cloud
d) To send documents via email
Answer: b) To conduct meetings with remote participants

746. Which of the following is a typical feature of most video conferencing platforms?
a) Screen sharing
b) File sharing
c) Real-time chat
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

747. What is the common resolution used in high-quality video conferencing?

a) 640x480
b) 1280x720
c) 1920x1080
d) 3840x2160
Answer: b) 1280x720

748. What is the function of the "mute" button during a video conference?
a) To end the video conference
b) To disable the camera
c) To disable the microphone
d) To increase the volume
Answer: c) To disable the microphone

749. Which video conferencing platform is most popular for educational webinars?
a) Google Meet
b) Zoom
c) Microsoft Teams
d) Skype
Answer: b) Zoom

750. In a video conference, what does "screen sharing" allow a participant to do?
a) Share their webcam feed
b) Share their desktop or application window with others
c) Share files with others
d) Share their microphone
Answer: b) Share their desktop or application window with others

751. What is the maximum number of participants allowed in a standard Zoom video meeting?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 500
d) 1000
Answer: a) 100

752. Which protocol is commonly used for video conferencing over the internet?
a) FTP
b) HTTP
c) H.323
d) SMTP
Answer: c) H.323
753. What is the primary hardware requirement for video conferencing?
a) A high-definition camera and microphone
b) A powerful CPU
c) A large storage device
d) A graphics card
Answer: a) A high-definition camera and microphone

754. Which of the following is an example of an online service?

a) Google Drive
b) Dropbox
c) Microsoft OneDrive
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

755. What type of online service allows users to store and access data on the cloud?
a) Cloud storage services
b) Online banking
c) Video streaming
d) E-commerce websites
Answer: a) Cloud storage services

756. What is the primary function of an online shopping service?

a) To watch videos
b) To provide cloud storage
c) To buy and sell goods and services
d) To send emails
Answer: c) To buy and sell goods and services

757. Which of the following is an example of a social media platform that also offers online services?
a) Facebook
b) Instagram
c) Twitter
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

758. What is the term for a service that allows users to send and receive money online?
a) Online banking
b) E-commerce
c) Online payment service
d) Cloud storage
Answer: c) Online payment service

759. Which of the following is a common feature of online collaboration tools?

a) File sharing
b) Document editing
c) Real-time communication
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

760. Which of the following is an example of an online file-sharing service?

a) Dropbox
b) Google Drive
c) iCloud
 d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

761. What is an online service that allows people to stream videos?

a) YouTube
b) Netflix
c) Hulu
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

762. Which type of online service allows users to book travel accommodations and services?
a) Online marketplaces
b) Online booking services
c) Social media platforms
d) Educational services
Answer: b) Online booking services

763. What is the primary purpose of online education platforms?

a) To provide online shopping
b) To host video content
c) To offer educational courses and materials
d) To send and receive emails
Answer: c) To offer educational courses and materials

764. What does the term "user connection" refer to in networking?

a) The type of device used by a user
b) The method through which users connect to a network
c) The software used by users
d) The security measures in place
Answer: b) The method through which users connect to a network

765. Which of the following is a type of network connection?

a) Wired
b) Wireless
c) VPN
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

766. What is the most common way for users to connect to the internet at home?
a) Dial-up connection
b) Fiber-optic broadband
c) Satellite internet
d) Wi-Fi
Answer: d) Wi-Fi

767. What type of connection is used to access a network remotely over the internet?
a) Local area network
b) Virtual private network
c) Bluetooth
d) DSL
Answer: b) Virtual private network

768. What is the role of a router in user network connections?

a) To store data
 b) To provide internet access
c) To connect computers in a network
d) To transmit data wirelessly
Answer: b) To provide internet access

769. Which of the following technologies is commonly used for wireless user connections?
a) Wi-Fi
b) Ethernet
c) Fiber optics
d) Bluetooth
Answer: a) Wi-Fi

770. Which of the following provides a wired connection to the internet?

a) Wi-Fi
b) Ethernet
c) Cellular network
d) Bluetooth
Answer: b) Ethernet

771. What is the purpose of a network switch in user connections?

a) To route data between networks
b) To connect devices within a local area network
c) To amplify signals
d) To encrypt communication
Answer: b) To connect devices within a local area network

772. What does "hotspot" refer to in the context of user connections?

a) A security measure for networks
b) A public Wi-Fi access point
c) A data encryption method
d) A type of network cable
Answer: b) A public Wi-Fi access point

773. What is the main advantage of using a VPN (Virtual Private Network) for user connections?
a) To provide faster internet speeds
b) To secure data by encrypting communication
c) To improve signal strength
d) To connect to remote desktop applications
Answer: b) To secure data by encrypting communication

774. What is the primary purpose of computer networking?

a) To share data and resources between computers
b) To store data
c) To protect against viruses
d) To compress data
Answer: a) To share data and resources between computers

775. Which device is used to connect multiple computers within a local area network (LAN)?
a) Router
b) Switch
c) Hub
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
776. Which type of network connects computers within a single building or campus?
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) VPN
Answer: a) LAN

777. What is the main difference between LAN and WAN?

a) LAN is a network of computers within a building, while WAN spans large geographic areas
b) LAN connects multiple countries, while WAN connects devices within a room
c) LAN is more expensive to set up than WAN
d) WAN uses wireless technology, while LAN uses wired connections
Answer: a) LAN is a network of computers within a building, while WAN spans large geographic areas

778. What type of cable is commonly used in Ethernet networking?

a) Coaxial cable
b) Fiber optic cable
c) Twisted-pair cable
d) HDMI cable
Answer: c) Twisted-pair cable

779. What is the function of a network hub?

a) To manage data traffic
b) To store network data
c) To amplify signal strength
d) To broadcast data to all connected devices
Answer: d) To broadcast data to all connected devices

780. What does the acronym "IP" stand for in networking?

a) Internet Protocol
b) Internet Path
c) Internal Protocol
d) Information Protocol
Answer: a) Internet Protocol

781. What is the role of DNS in computer networking?

a) To encrypt network data
b) To assign IP addresses
c) To translate domain names into IP addresses
d) To configure network devices
Answer: c) To translate domain names into IP addresses

782. Which of the following is a protocol used for communication between devices on a network?
a) HTTP
b) TCP/IP
c) FTP
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

783. What is the purpose of a firewall in computer networking?

a) To boost signal strength
b) To protect a network from unauthorized access
c) To store files on the cloud
d) To manage network traffic
Answer: b) To protect a network from unauthorized access