TEST 1

LISTENING (40p)
I. You will hear a radio interview with the comedian Brain Conley, who does a considerable
amount of work in panto, a type of family-friendly show which is popular at Christmas. For
questions 1-5, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.(10p)
1. Brian likes Birmingham because:
A. It has provided him with a steady income
B. It is where he grew up
C. It was where he first became famous
2. When they discuss children’s participation in panto, Brian says that
A. he prefers children not to come up on stage
B. it’s important to get the parents’ permission if a child wants to participate
C. he thinks that children’s participation adds a certain quality to the show
3. Brian became involved in comedy because
A. He had wanted to do it since he was a child.
B. His friends at school encouraged him to do it.
C. He found he could earn more by doing comedy.
4. What does Brian say about providing comedy for corporate events?
A. It is easy because the audience has had a lot to drink.
B. He has learnt how to respond to comments from the audience.
C. It’s the only way for many comedians to find work.
5. What does Brian feel with regards to nerves?
A. He agrees with a comment someone made early in his career
B. He no longer feels nervous because he is more experienced
C. The extent of his nerves has changed over the years
II. You will listen to a recording about a new kind of school in the U.K. Listen carefully and
supply the blanks with missing information.(20p)
• The idea of Studio School comes from an organization named Young Foundation who has
introduced innovations like Open University, Extended Schools, Summer Universities,
School of Everything and (6) __________________________.
• Two problems before the idea of Studio School was found out related to:
 (7) _____________________: not seeing any relationship between what they learned and
future jobs.
Employers: complaining that kids coming out of the schools were not ready for work and
did not have (8) _____________________________.
• Cognitive skills: formal academic skills.
• Non- cognitive skills: the skills of (9) _________________________.
• This idea is called “Studio School” originated from the idea of a studio (10)
______________________.
• Characteristics of Studio School:
- Sizes of schools: (11)____________________ pupils at the age of 14 to 19 year-olds.
- 80% of program is studied through practical project, commission to businesses and (12)
____________________________.
- Percentage of theoretical academic lessons: (13) ___________________.
• Prototyping period:
- 2 first places where the project was carried included: Luton and Blackpool.
- The most important result of trial phase: the pupils who were (14)
______________________ had jumped right to the top
- 35 schools are expected to establish throughout England next year.
- The main method of spreading Studio School is (15) ____________________.
III. You will hear a woman on a radio program interviewing a driving instructor about his
job. Answer the questions .(10p)
1. Why do people want to pass the driving test quickly ?
...........................................................................................

2. Does Fred have to try hard to get customers ?

................................................................................
3. How does Fred prepare learners for their lesson?
...........................................................................................
4. Why are new drivers nervous?
..........................................................................................
5. When does Fred allow his pupils to drive unaided?
...................................................................................

LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50p)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence (20p).
1. When it comes to the _______, Alice always supports her friends.
A. point B. crunch C. crisis D. finale
2. Richard started the race well but ran out of _______ in the later stages.
 A. power B. steam C. force D. effort
3. The winter is usually mild, although we sometimes get a cold________ at the beginning of the
year.
A. spell B. term C. interval D. wave
4. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a _______
A. delay B. stand C. brake D. halt
5. It was _______ of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job.
A. rather B. something C. quite D. much
6. Please don’t_______ it a miss if I make a few suggestions for improvements.
A. think B. assume C. take D. judge
7. He left the meeting early on the unlikely _______ that he had a sick friend to visit.
A. claim B. excuse C. pretext D. motive
8. The girl felt _______ with hunger.
A. faintly B. fainting C. fainted D. faint
9. My sunburnt nose made me feel rather _______for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-confident B. self-centred C. self-conscious D. self-evident
10. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no_______ improvement in her
condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
11. Nobody has any firm information, so we can only_________ on what caused the accident.
A. guess B. contemplate C. speculate D. assume
12. Cars have been banned from the city center, which makes the area much safer for _________.
A. passer-by B. onlookers C. footmen D. pedestrians
13. When I realized that I’d left my homework at home, I quickly_________ back to get it.
A. crept B. dashed C. crawled D. drifted
14. The text doesn’t give you the answer explicitly- you have to _________it from the evidence.
A. convert B. grasp C. reckon D. deduce
15. They will need time to _________ the proposals we have submitted.
A. lash out B. scroll over C. shrivel D. mull over
16. Their decision on whether I get the job or not will be based mostly on my academic _________.
A. credentials B. outstanding C. credits D. credibility
17. Retirement ages for men and women are currently at the center of a(n) _________debate.
A. scorching B. fiery C. flamed D. exploded
18. The new science teacher was popular because she was _________with her classes.
A. lenient B. conductive C. marked D. ameliorating
19. If she wins the prize again this year, it’ll be a real _________in her cap.
A. nutshell B. gemstone C. feather D. landmark
20. The inn owner was so generous. What we consumed was _________the house.
A. on B. in C. off D. of
Your answers:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
II. Write the correct form of the word given in the brackets. (10point)
Passage 1.
My time in China had given me an enduring interest in Chinese art, so I decided to go to
Liu Li Chang, where for centuries there has been an antiquities market. Unfortunately, many things
for sale there nowadays are modern (1.IMITATE)________. Empty - handed and somewhat
(2.ILLUSION) ________,I went into a tea house and sat through the usual ceremony, but there
were (3.IDENTIFY) ________ differences here too: it seemed quicker and the tea lacked that
extraordinary lingering scent. Thoroughly (4.HEART) ________, I returned to my hotel: one of
the enormous, faceless places which have sprung up everywhere. Yet here, in a dark shop tucked
away off the lobby, my melancholy mood disappeared, for I met a (5.SURVIVE) ________ from
1989, who remembered me instantly. Not everything had been entirely forgotten.

Passage 2

Mankind's intuition of freedom, and our identification of freedom with knowledge, sets us
apart from animals. The animal's grasp of freedom is (6.SIGNIFY) _______ in comparison, being
only the freedom to respond to external stimuli. The nearest creature to us on the
(7.EVOLVE)_______ tree of life, the chimpanzee, can't retain an image for a sufficient length of
time to be able to reflect on it. So animal's life is largely a matter of conditioned reflexes, performed
in an (8.TERMINATE)_______present; in short, animals are little more than machines with
consciousness. While the animal is carried along (9.SUBMIT) _______ on the stream of time,
mankind has certain capacities that (10.POWER) _______ us to resist the current or look into the
future.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. There are TEN mistakes in the following passage. Write them down and give the
correction. Write your answers in the space provided.(10p)
I cannot stress too much the importance on watching your opponent, of knowing exactly
where he is on the tennis court and what he is doing. It is usually possible to work on the pattern
of his game very early in a match. Test him at the front of the court. Try hitting one or two balls
up high to see how shots are like. The more quickly you discover his weakness, the easier the
match should become.
 Again and again it may be a good idea to give your opponent an opportunity of making a
mistake. When, early in the match, it seems that he is a very inaccurate player, but not a forceful
one, then you should tempt him to play a winning shot. Give him the opening, for there are some
players who simply cannot hit winners. They will try to play an attacking game but they can quite
finish it off. The way to break down their steady game may be by putting them into the front of
the court.
It is obviously wiser to try to decide at the beginning of the match whether your opponent
is weaker on his left-hand or on his right-hand-side, and then play a little more than fifty per cent
of your shots down that side. Play a normal attacking game, or the game you think you will win,
but concentrate the weaker side. A number of players experience more trouble than another in the
back corners of the court- always be ready to recognize this weakness. Perhaps an opponent has a
favorite backhand shot, but lacks certainty with his forehand shot. Tempt him to play the forehand
shot.
Your answers
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

READING(50P)
I. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write your
answers in the numbered box. (10p)
UNIVERSAL WET WEEKEND
The weather across much of the British Isles (1) _________ settled last week, with a good (2)
_________of sunshine. On Saturday, the lunchtime temperature at Bridlington in the northeast of
England was 28.2oC, which compared favourably with Alicante in southern Spain at 29oC. The
rest of the world, however, was (3) _________ with some extreme conditions. A tropical storm,
given the name Helen, hit Hong Kong on Saturday morning, though her presence had been (4)
_________ in (5) _________ From noon on Friday, the showers and (6) _________ of rain became
more and more frequent so that by midnight on Sunday, thirty-six hours later, there had been
333mm of rainfall, not far off the (7) _________ for the month of August, at 367mm. Even on
Sunday there was a (8) _________in Helen’s tail. The town centre of Shanwei, near Hong Kong,
was flooded when 468mm of rain fell in the sixty hours (9) _________ up to midday on Sunday,
(10) _________twice the normal August rainfall.
1. A. kept B. remained C. lasted D. held
2. A. extent B. quantity C. proportion D. deal
3. A. coping B. matching C. colliding D. queuing
4. A. waited B. found C. felt D. warned
5. A. light B. advance C. likelihood D. day
6. A. outbursts B. outbreaks C. outputs D. outlets
7. A. general B. standard C. medium D. average
8. A. sting B. prick C. stab D. poke
9. A. going B. leading C. taking D. approaching
10. A. only B. fairly C. hardly D. nearly
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with one suitable word. Write
your answers in the numbered. (10p)

Until the nineteenth century, the ownership of land was the only certain basis of power in
England. It is true that both power and money 31 be acquired by 32
means: by trade, by commerce, by fighting, by useful services to the government or by
personal service to the king and queen. But wealth unsupported by power was 33 _to
be plundered, power based only on personal abilities was at the mercy of time and future,
and the power to be 34 through trade or commerce was limited. Before the
nineteenth century 35 wealth of England lay in the countryside as opposed to the
towns; landowners 36 than merchants were the dominating 37
and ran the country so that their own interests were the last to suffer. Even 38
the economic balance began to change, they were so thoroughly in 39 of
administration and legislation, that their political and social supremacy continued. As a rule,
from the Middle Ages until the nineteenth century, anyone who had made money by
whatever means, and was ambitious for 40 and his family, automatically invested in
a country estate.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.(10p)

It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize how important the building of
canals would be to the nation's development. In fact, before he became President, he headed the
first company in the United States to build a canal, which was to connect the Ohio and Potomac
rivers. It was never completed, but it showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country
expanded westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania, and Ohio needed a means to ship
goods. Canals linking natural waterways seemed to supply an effective method.

In 1791 engineers commissioned by the state of New York investigated the possibility of a canal
between Albany on the Hudson River and Buffalo on Lake Erie to link the Great Lakes area with
the Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid the mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the
Delaware and Potomac rivers.

The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Erie Canal, was made by private companies but
only a comparatively small portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds. The
cost of the project was an estimated $5 million, an enormous amount for those days. There was
some on-again-off again federal funding, but this time the War of 1812 put an end to construction.
In 1817, DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and persuaded the state to finance
and build the canal. It was completed in 1825, costing $2 million more than expected.

The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors' faith, quickly paying for itself through tolls. It was far
more economical than any other form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between the
Great Lake region and the East coast. robbing the Mississippi River of much of its traffic. It
allowed New York to supplant Boston, Philadelphia, and other eastern cities as the chief center of
both domestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the canal. It also contributed in a
number of ways to the North's victory over the South in the Civil War.

An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased traffic would undoubtedly have
warranted its construction had it not been for the development of the railroads.

1. Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first paragraph?

A. He was President at the time the Erie Canal was built

B. He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals

C. He successfully opened the first canal in the United States.

D. He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Erie Canal.

2. The word feasibility in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. profitabilityB. difficulty C. possibility D. capability

3. According to the passage, the Erie Canal connected the

A. Potomac and Ohio Rivers. C. Delaware and Potomac Rivers.

B. Hudson River and Lake Erie D. Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River

4. The phrase on-again-off-again in paragraph 3 could be replaced by which of the following with
the least change in meaning?

A. Intermittent B. Unsolicited C. Ineffectual D. Gradual

5. The completion of the Erie Canal was financed by

A. New York. C. the federal government.

B. private companies. D. De Witt Clinton.

6. The actual cost of building the Erie Canal was

A. $5 million. B. less than had been estimated.

C. $7 million. D. more than could be repaid.

7. The word tolls in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Jobs B. Grants C. Links D. Fees

8. Which of the following is NOT given as effect of the building of the Erie Canal in paragraph 4?

A. It allowed the East coast to trade with the Great Lakes area.

B. It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.

C. It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.

D. It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.

9. What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in last paragraph?
A. They were being planned but had not yet been built.

B. They were seriously underdeveloped.

C. They had begun to compete with the Erie Canal for traffic.

D. They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.

10. The word warranted in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

A. guaranteed. B. justified C. hastened D. prevented.

Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. The reading has six paragraphs A-F. Choose the most suitable heading for paragraph B-F
from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in space 1-5. There are
more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
(10 points)
HIGH-TECH CRIME -FIGHTING TOOLS
A. Crime- fighting technology is getting more sophisticated and rightly so. The police need to be
equipped for the 21st century. In Britain we’ve already got the world’s biggest DNA databases.
By next year the state will have access to the genetic data of 4.25 m people: one British-based
person in 14. Hundreds of thousands of those on the database will never have been charged with
a crime.
B. Britain is also reported to have more than £4 million CCTV (closed circuit television) camera,
There is a continuing debate about the effectiveness of CCTV. Some evidence suggests that it
is helpful in reducing shoplifting and car crime. It has also been used to successfully indentify
terrorists and murderers. However, many people claim that better lighting is just as effective to
prevent crime and that cameras could displace crime. An internal police report said that only
one crime was solved for every 1,000 cameras in London in 2007. In short, there is conflicting
evidence about the effectiveness of camera, so it is likely that the debate will continue.
C. Professor Mike Press, who has spent the past decade studying how design can contribute to
crime reduction, said that, in order for CCTC to have any effect, it must be used in a targeted
way. For example, a scheme in Manchester records every license plate at the entrance of a
shopping complex and alerts police when one is found to belong to an untaxed or stolen car.
This is an effective example of monitoring, he said. Most schemes that simply record city
centers continually- often not being watched - do not produce results. CCTV can also have the
opposite effect of that intended, by giving citizens a false sense of security and encouraging
them to be careless with property and personal safety. Professor Press said: “All the evidence
suggests that CCTV alone makes no positive impact on crime reduction and prevention at all.
The weight of evidence would suggest the investment is more or less a waste of money unless
you have lots of other things in place”. He believes that much of the increase is driven by the
marketing efforts of security companies who promote the crime-reducing benefits of their
products. He described it as a “lazy approach to crime prevention” and said that authorities
should instead be focusing on how to alter the environment to reduce crime.
D. But in reality, this is not what is happening. Instead, police are considering using more
technology. Police forces have recently begun experimenting with cameras in their helmets.
The footage will be stored on police computers, along with the footage from thousands of
CCTV cameras and millions of pictures form numberplate recognition camera used
increasingly to check up on motorists.
E. And now another type of technology is being introduced. It’s called the Microdrone and it’s a
toy-sized remote-control craft that hovers above streets or crowds to film what’s going on
beneath. The Microdrone has already been used to monitor rock festivals, but its supplier has
also been in discussions to supply it to the Metropolitan Police, and Soca, the Serious Organized
Crime Agency. The drones are small enough to be unnoticed by people on the ground when
they are flying at 350ft. They contain high-resolution video surveillance equipment and an
infrared night vision capability, so even in darkness they give operators a bird’s -eye view of
locations while remaining virtually undetectable.
F. The worrying thing is, who will get access to this technology? Merseyside police are already
employing two of the devices as part of a pilot scheme to watch football crowds and city parks
looking for antisocial behaviors. It is not just about crime detection: West Midlands fire brigade
is about to lease a drone, for example, to get a better view of fire and flood scenes and aid rescue
 attempt; the Environment Agency is considering their use for monitoring of illegal fly tipping
and oil spills. The company that makes the drone says it has no plans to license the equipment
to individuals or private companies, which hopefully will prevent private security firms from
getting their hands on them. But what about local authorities? In theory, this technology could
be used against motorists. And where will the surveillance society end? Already there are plans
to introduce smart water containing a unique DNA code identifier that when sprayed on a
suspect will cling to their clothes and skin and allow officers to identify them later. As long as
high-tech tools are being used in the fight against crime and terrorism, fine. But if it’s another
weapon to be used to invade our privacy then we don’t want it.
List of Headings
i The spy in the sky vi Lack of conclusive evidence
ii The spread of technology vii Cars and cameras
iii The limitations of camera viii Advantages and disadvantages
iv The cost of camera ix A natural progression
v Robots solving serious crimes x A feeling of safety
Example: Paragraph A ix
1. Paragraph B __________ 2. Paragraph C __________
3. Paragraph D__________ 4. Paragraph E __________
5. Paragraph F __________
Questions 6 and 7

Answer the questions below with words taken from the Reading Passage.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

6 Give examples of 2 events where technology is used to watch crowds.

7 According to the passage, who do we not want to use the Microdrone?

Questions 8-10

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage?

In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

YESif the statement agrees with the writer's claims
NOif the statement contradicts the writer's claims
NOT GIVENif there is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

8The British authorities use too much technology to monitor their citizens. ..........

9Microdrone is currently not used to check drivers. ..........

10 Technology should not be used to check on people's private affairs. ..........

Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

WRITING:60P
I.Read the extract and use your own words to sumarize it.(10p)

There are various ways of preparing for cultural shock. It is helpful to learn as much of
the language as possible before going to the country, to learn about the new culture, in particular
aspects such as time differences, communication, conflict resolution, climate, standard of living,
transportation, ethical practices, holidays, superstitions, taboos and technology. However,
something that is extremely difficult to prepare for is what is known as ‘ecoshock’, the result of a
person’s ‘physiological and psychological reaction to a new, diverse, or changed ecology’, a
typical example of this being travel dysrhythmia, or jet lag, when people’s biological clocks have
problems synchronizing with the local time. Physiological adjustment to the temperature,
humidity, and altitude are also features of ecoshock, though these are generally coped with in the
initial stage of cultural shock rather than being prolonged difficulties in the process of adjustment
to life in a new country. For those who take frequent short trips abroad, however, ecoshock may
be the most difficult part of dealing with cultural shock, since they do not experience its various
longer term phases.

II. Graph description (20p)

The graph below shows the quantities of goods transported in the UK between 1974 and
2002 by four different modes of transport.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.
 III. Essay writing (30points)
Some people believe that learning depends not upon the personality or methodology of
the teacher, but rather on the student's attitude to his or her own learning.
To what extent would you support or reject this idea? Give reasons for your answer and
include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250
words.

TEST 2
A. LISTENING (40 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín
hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
I. LISTENING (40 points)
Part 1: Listen to a piece of news from BBC and complete each blank with NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS or NUMBER. (20 points)
These (1)_________have yet to be given a name, but they belong to a group known as Titanosaurs.
They had long (2)__________ and are claimed by those who discovered them to have been the
largest creatures ever to have walked the Earth. At full stretch, they were the height of a
(3)________ and weighed more than ten full-grown elephants. Yet they were probably not
fearsome, but (4)________.
The giant dinosaurs lived (5)____________ago, in what is now Patagonia. Dr Bill Sellers, a
palaeontologist at the University of Manchester, says it's a very exciting discovery:
"This is an amazing find because they've got so many dinosaurs there. I mean, this is seven
individuals and these things are (6) __________! And actually it's really important because we
don't know very much about these. We actually have very very (7)_________, and it looks like
they've got quite a lot of bones here. So I think we will be able to piece together what's a real
animal rather than a sort of (8)_________."
So far more than (9)________have been found. The discovery should increase our understanding
of how these (10)_______ creatures evolved.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Source: bbc.com.uk/learningenglish/wordsinthenews
Part 2: Listen and answer the following questions with short answers. (10 points)
1. What does the speaker suggest the students use when they begin writing résumé?
______________________________________________________________________________
__
2. What is useful when applying for a job and should be included?
______________________________________________________________________________
__
3. What does the speaker believe the CV should have?
______________________________________________________________________________
__
4. What can the words in a CV can describe?
______________________________________________________________________________
__
5. What do some people forget to provide on their CV?
______________________________________________________________________________
__

Source: IELTS practice tests by Peter May

Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 3: Listen and choose the correct answer to each question. Write your answer (A, B, or
C) in the space provided. (10 pts)
1. These sessions with a counselor are _____.
A. compulsory for all students
 B. available to any students
C. for science students only
2. The counselor says that new students have to _____.
A. spend more time on the college premises
B. get used to working independently
C. work harder than they did at school
3. John complains that the resource center _____.
A. has limited opening hours
B. has too few resources
C. gets too crowded
4. The counselor suggests to John that _____.
A. most other students can cope
B. he needs to study all the time
C. he should be able to fit in some leisure activities
5. Before being able to help John, the counselor needs to _____.
A. talk with some of his lectures
B. consult his tutor
C. get more information from him
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Source: CAE practice test
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions. (20 points)
1. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a______
A. delay B. stand C. brake D. halt
2. John refused to put his career in ______by opposing his boss.
A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake
3. Angela’s work was praised for its ______attention to detail.
A. meticulous B. significant C. subtle D. concentrated
4. Motorists should ______well in advance of changing lanes.
A. sign B. signal C. flare D. flicker
5. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _______ him over until the end of term.
A. last B. tend C. keep D. tide
6. The climbers sought ________from the storm.
A. escape B. refuge C. solace D. defence
7. The tour guide had a brightly-colored company badge pinned to the _______of her jacket.
A. lapel B. border C. edge D. hem
8. It was her first conference as partly leader, and she was determined to _______her authority on
the proceedings.
A. press B. thrust C. stamp D. mark
9. It was ______of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job.
A. rather B. something C. quite D. much
10. The last bus had gone so we were ______ with the problem of how to get home that night.
A. affronted B. caught C. trapped D. faced
11. I don’t want to go into all the details about why I left; _______it to say that had a better offer
from another company.
A. take B. grant C. give D. suffice
12. Finish your meal with a cup of our delicious freshly ________coffee.
A. grated B. ground C. shredded D. minced
13. At the most important stage of the reason, the footballer was troubled by the ______of an old
injury.
A. recurrence B. renewal C. restart D. resumption.
14. The pianist played beautifully, showing a real _______for the music.
A. sense B. understanding C. sentiment D. feeling
15. Rachel painted a gloomy _____ of life as a student.
A. image B. picture C. drawing D. illustration
16. With its engine disabled, the finishing vessel was at the _______of the storm.
A. whim B. mercy C. control D. grip
17. The more expensive carpet is a good choice ______it will last longer.
A. by means of B. due to C. in that D. in view of
18. Money was short and people survived by _______and saving.
A. scrimping B. scavenging C. scouring D. scrounging
19. The company had severe problems and the board decided to ______it up.
A. fold B. close C. wind D. put
20. It is with _______regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship had been withdrawn.
A. heavy B. somber C. deep D. high
Your answers:
1. 6. 11. 16.
2. 7. 12. 17.
3. 8. 13. 18.
4. 9. 14. 19.
5. 10. 15. 20.
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces provided.
(10 points)
THE CAT
The (0) domesticated cat, more commonly referred to as the house cat, (0) DOMESTIC
is the smallest member of the (1) ________feline family. Like their wild 1. EXTEND
cousins, house cats (2) _______have streamlined bodies, classically 2. CHARACTER
shaped skulls, elongated tails and specially evolved teeth and claws. 3. POTENT
All of these physical attributes contribute to the (3) _______of the cat 4. AGILE
as a carnivorous predator. House cats, like their larger relatives found 5. GRACE
in the wild, are renowned for their acute sense of balance, amazing (4) 6. HABIT
_______and lithe, (5) ______ movements. 7. CREATE
8. READY
 In contrast to man’s best friend the dog, cats are not considered to be 9. DEPEND
social animals in the sense that they have never (6) _______travelled in 10. PREFER
packs or adopted leaders. Dogs, on the other hand, which have always
been social (7)________, seem to have been better suited for the fireside
hearth as they (8) _______transferred their allegiance from the leader
of the canine pack to their human master.
This interesting fact may offer an answer as to why cats appear to be so
much more (9) _______ and self-reliant than dogs. Dog owners often
cite the cat’s innate aloofness as adequate reason for their own personal
pet (10) ________.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Source: CPE practice test
Part 3: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (10 points)
line 1 The role of the traditional zoo, inheriting from the 19th century, has undergone
line 2 a dramatic shift. A growing recognition that zoos ought to be in the vanguard
line 3 of the fight for the devastation of our natural world has begun a zoologic
line 4 revolution. The change occurred in the 1960s, when the Jersey zoo was set off to
line 5 breed endangered species. As a result, the breeding of animals in captive has
line 6 become a complex science, with zoos around the world co-coordinating their
line 7 efforts to avoid the genetic dangers of in-breeding small populations.
line 8 The answer for the question of whether zoos can have very much impact on
line 8 the preservation of endangered species is, probably, minimally. Zoos do not
line 10 focus their education efforts on those people in the strongest positions to affect the
line 11 future of the wildlife exhibited. For the most part, conservation education is targeted
line 12 at children and other non-decision makers in a process too slow or too far
line 13 away to address the extinction crisis which exists now. Furthermore, the efforts
line 14 of zoos to inform lawmakers and government authorities are usually low-key or un-
line 15 existent. Campaigns are more likely to be for an animal exhibit rather than for the
line 16 existence of the animal itself.
line 17 Nevertheless, it does not do to address the future from a foundation of pessimism.
line 18 A vision of the future is embraced in which the human population has leveled off at
line 19 about 8.8 billion and wherein human effects upon the environment have been
line 20 tethered and considerable wildlife remain. It certainly will not be as rich or abundant
line 21 as today’s wildlife, but with substantial diverse and numbers of more or less wild
line 22 ecosystems, and the zoos’ work, this vision can become reality.
Your answers:
1. line 6. line
 2. line 7. line
3. line 8. line
4. line 9. line
5. line 10. line
IV. READING (50 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that best fits the
blank. (10 points)
Dinosaur discoveries
In the late 1930s, a group of primary American scientists seeking dinosaur fossils made some
(1)__________ finds, Although one of their expeditions discovered no bones at all, it
nonetheless proved to be important in terms of the information about dinosaurs it provided.
During that historic expedition, which took place along the banks of the Paluxy river in
Texas, something extraordinary was revealed: a dinosaur track, clearly (2)________in the rock.
These dinosaur footprints (3)________ their preservation to the salts and mud that covered
them and then hardened into rock, before (4) ________ to light 100 million years later.
Tracks like these are (5)__________ to experts. There have been great gaps in scientists'
understanding of dinosaur (6) _________, and so such footprints are useful since they provide
direct evidence of how dinosaurs actually moved. Scientists have been able to use these
footprints, and others like them, to determine how quickly different species walked, and to
conclude that many kinds of dinosaur must have travelled in (7) _________.
(8) _________, the tracks of four-legged dinosaurs seem to (9)________ that in spite of being
reptiles, these creatures must have moved in a very similar way to living mammals, such as
elephants a pattern of movement distinct from that of most contemporary reptiles, such as
crocodiles. This leads to an intriguing question. Might existing mammals have more to teach us
about the (10) _________ reptiles that once walked the earth?
1. A. noteworthy B. noticeable C. notifiable D. notional
2. A. blatant B. substantial C. distinguishable D. ostensible
3. A. owe B. derive C. result D. thank
4. A. coming B. bringing C. appearing D. surfacing
5. A. unique B. invaluable C. costly D. rare
6. A. action B. manners C. behavior D. customs
7. A. sets B. herds C. masses D. bunches
8. A. Accordingly B. Characteristically C. interestingly D. Alternatively
9. A. point B. specify C. express D. indicate
10. A. abolished B. departed C. extinct D. extinguished
Part 2: Read the text and answer the following questions (10 points)
Crows are probably the most frequently met and easily identifiable members of the native
fauna of the United States. The great number of tales, legends, and myths about these birds
indicates that people have been exceptionally interested in them for a long time. On the other hand,
when it comes to substantive -- particularly behavioral -- information, crows are less well known
than many comparably common species and, for that matter, not a few quite uncommon ones: the
endangered California condor, to cite one obvious example. There are practical reasons for this.
 Crows are notoriously poor and aggravating subjects for field research. Keen observers and
quick learners, they are astute about the intentions of other creatures, including researchers, and
adept at avoiding them. Because they are so numerous, active, and monochromatic, it is difficult
to distinguish one crow from another. Bands, radio transmitters, or other identifying devices can
be attached to them, but this of course requires catching live crows, who are among the wariest
and most untrappable of birds.
Technical difficulties aside, crow research is daunting because the ways of these birds are
so complex and various. As preeminent is generalists, members of this species ingeniously exploit
a great range of habitats and resources, and they can quickly adjust to changes in their
circumstances. Being so educable, individual birds have markedly different interests and
inclinations, strategies and scams. For example, one pet crow learned how to let a dog out of its
kennel by pulling the pin on the door. When the dog escaped, the bird went into the kennel and ate
its food.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The ways in which crows differ from other common birds
B. The myths and legends about crows
C. The characteristics that make crows difficult to study
D. The existing methods for investigating crow behavior
2. According to the first paragraph, what evidence is there that crows have interested people for a
long time?
A. The large number of stories about crows.
B. The frequency with which crows are sighted
C. The amount of research that has been conducted on crows
D. The ease with which crows are identified
3. In the passage, the author mention the endangered California condor as an example of a
species that is
A. smaller than the crow B. easily identifiable
C. featured in legends D. very rare
4. The word "them" in the passage refers to_____
A. crows B. subjects C. intentions D. researchers
5. According to the second paragraph, crows are poor subjects for field research for all of the
following reasons EXCEPT_____
A. They can successfully avoid observers. B. They are hard to distinguish from one
another
C. They can be quite aggressive. D. They are difficult to catch.
6. In the second paragraph, the author implies that using radio transmitters would allow a
researcher who studies crow to_____
A. identify individual crows
B. follow flocks of crows over long distances
C. record the times when crows are most active
D. help crows that become sick or injured
7. According to the third paragraph, which of the following is true about crows?
A. They seldom live in any one place for very long.
 B. They thrive in a wide variety of environments.
C. They have marked preferences for certain kinds of foods.
D. They use up the resources in one area before moving to another.
8. In the passage, the word "inclinations" is closest in meaning to______
A. tricks B. opportunities C. preferences D. experiences
9. In the passage, the author mentions a pet crow to illustrate which of the following?
A. The clever ways that crows solve problems
B. The differences between pet crows and wild crows
C. The ease with which crows can be tamed
D. The affection that crows show to other creatures
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Crows have relatively long lives. B. Crows have keen vision
C. Crows are usually solitary D. Crows are very intelligent.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Source: TOEFL reading
Part 3: Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (10 points)
BAZAARS
A bazaar was originally a public market district (0)... of ... a Persian town. From Persia the term
spread to Arabia, Turkey, and North Africa. In India it came to be applied to a single shop; and
in current English usage it refers to (1) ________ a single shop or concession selling miscellaneous
articles and to a fair at (2)________ such miscellany is sold, often for charity.
The familiar bazaar of the ancient Islamic nations is vividly described in the traditional
folktales of’ ‘The Thousand and One Nights’. It is a distinct quarter of the town, access
(3)______which is forbidden after sundown, bustling and noisy by day, (4)________the
quieter residential quarters. Such a bazaar may be divided into districts, with all the
purveyors of one type of merchandise grouped together. (5)_______ the bazaar in smaller
towns is (6) ________of a single narrow street of stalls, in larger cities such as Istanbul it is by no
means simple, consisting of many miles of such passageways. Some bazaars, such as the
(7)______built at Sashan and Isfahan in Iran in the 17th century, were designed with great
architectural integrity. They were usually roofed for protection (8) _______ the hot desert
sun, (9) _____ with a single roof of individual vaulted domes or with awnings. Most of these
ancient bazaars have gradually been modernized (10)________the centuries.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Source: CAE practice test

Part 4: Read the text and do the task that follow. (20 points)
AIR RAGE
List of headings
 i. A decline in the tolerance of passengers.
ii. Disproportionate growth.
iii. Pilots and aircrew cooperate.
iv. Additional action.
v. Smaller seats are the norm.
vi. Laying the blame with the airlines
vii. Origins.
viii. A major threat to travel.
ix. Demands for change.
x. Business people fly more.
xi. New research pinpoints the causes.
xii. The pace of life.
xiii. Passenger at the root of the problems.
xiv. Personal experience.
A. The first recorded case of an airline passenger turning seriously violent during a flight, a
phenomenon now widely known as “air rage”, happened in 1947 on a flight from Havana to Miami.
A drunk man assaulted another passenger and bit a flight attendant. However, the man escaped
punishment because it was not then clear under whose legal control a crime committed on plane
was, the country where the plane was registered or the country where the crime was committed. In
1963, at the Tokyo convention, it was decided that the laws of the country where the plane is
registered take precedence.
B. The frequency of air rage has expanded out of proportion to the growth of air travel. Until
recently few statistics were gathered about air rage, but those that have been indicate that
passengers are increasingly likely to cause trouble or engage in violent acts. For example, in 1998
there were 266 air rage incidents out of approximately four million passengers, a 400% increase
from 1995. In the same period American Airlines showed a 200% rise. Air travel is predicted to
rise by 5% internationally by 2010 leading to increased airport congestion. This, coupled with the
flying public’s increased aggression, means that air rage may become a major issue in coming
years.
C. Aside from discomfort and disruption, air rage poses some very real dangers to flying. The most
extreme of these is when out of control passengers enter the cockpit. This has actually happened
on a number of occasions, the worst of which have resulted in the death and injury of pilots or the
intruder taking control of the plane, almost resulting in crashes. In addition, berserk passengers
sometimes attempt to open the emergency doors while in flight, putting the whole aircraft in
danger. These are extreme examples and cases of air rage more commonly result in physical
assaults on fellow passengers and crew such as throwing objects, punching, stabbing or scalding
with hot coffee.
D. The causes of air rage are not known for certain, but it is generally thought that factors include:
passenger behavior and personality, the physical environment and changes in society. A recent
study has identified the issues that start the incidents to be as follows.
Alcohol 25%
Seating 16%
Smoking 10%
Carry on luggage 9%
 Flight attendants 8%
Food 5%
E. One of the major causes seems to be the passenger’s behavior or their personality. Fear of flying
and the feeling of powerlessness associated with flying can lead to irritable or aggressive
passengers. Also, alcohol consumed on a plane pressurized to 8000ft affects the drinker more
quickly and the effects are stronger. Many people do not take account of this and drinking may
increase any negative reaction to the flying environment they have, which, combined with the
lowering of their inhibitions, may cause air rage. Smoking withdrawal, which some liken in
severity to opiate withdrawal, is another major cause of air rage incidents. Passengers caught
smoking in the toilets occasionally assault flight attendants and have been known to start fires.
When conflicts occur in these conditions, they can escalate into major incidents if the passenger
has a violent personality or a fear of flying and because of the enclosed nature of a plane offers no
option of retreat as would be natural in a “fight or flight” reaction.
F. Some people feel that the physical environment of a plane can lead to air rage. Seats on most
airlines have become smaller in recent years as airlines try to increase profits. This leads to
uncomfortable and irritated passengers. Also, space for carry on luggage is often very small.
Because up to 8% of checked in luggage is lost, misdirected or stolen, passengers have been trying
to fit larger carry on items into these small storage areas and this can lead to disputes that can
escalate into air rage. Airlines could also be to blame by raising passengers’ expectations too high
with their marketing and advertising. Many air rage incidents start when disappointed passengers
demand to be reseated. Finally, there is some evidence to show that low oxygen levels can raise
aggression level and make people feel more desperate. Airlines have lowered oxygen levels to
save money. Now the level of oxygen in the air that the pilots breathe is ten times higher than in
cabin class.
G. Another reason that has been suggested is that society is getting ruder and less patient. The
increased congestion at airports, longer queues and increased delays have only added to this. In
addition, some air rage incidents have been linked to the demanding nature of high achieving
business people, who do not like people telling them what to do and resent the power that the cabin
staff have over them. For them, a flight attendant is a waiter or waitress who should do what the
passenger wants.
H. The strongest calls for action to control air rage have come from pilots and aircrew. The
International Transport Workers’ Federation argues that there are too many loopholes that let
people escape punishment and that the penalties are too light. They want to notify all passengers
of the penalties for air rage before taking off, rather than after the passenger begins to cause serious
problems, when it may be too late. The Civil Aviation Organisation has been organizing
international cooperation and penalties have increased in recent years. The most severe punishment
so far has been a 51 month jail sentence, a fine to pay for the jet fuel used and 200 hours community
service for a man who attempted to enter the cockpit and to open the emergency door of a domestic
US flight.
I. Various other measures are being used to control air rage. Air crew are getting training on how
to calm passengers and how to predict where incidents might result in air rage and take action to
prevent this. Other measures include, strengthening doors to stop people entering the cockpit,
training crew in the use of plastic restraints to tie down unruly passengers and having pilots divert
their planes if passengers cause problems. Banning passengers who are guilty of air rage from
flying has also been tried to a lesser extent.
Example:
Paragraph A Answer: vii
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G

Mark them as follows

T______if the statement agrees with the information in the text.

F______if the statement does not agree with the information in the text.
NG_____if there is no information on this in the text.

7. In the first case of air rage, the man was not punished because the plane was not registered.
8. The statistics on air rage were collected by private monitoring groups.
9. The second most common catalyst for incidents is problems with seating.
10.The environment in a plane makes disagreements more likely to become serious problems.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Source: IELTS practice test

V. WRITING (60 points)
Part 1: Summarize the passage in about 150 words (10 points)
Vitamin A is found only in yellow animal fats, in egg-yolk, milk and cheese. It is
particularly plentiful in fish-liver oils, hence fish-liver oils are used for preventing and curing
illness caused by lack of vitamin A. In a well-fed, healthy human being, the liver can store up
sufficient vitamin A to meet the body's requirements for six months.
Although vitamin A itself is not present in plants, many plants produce a substance called
carotene, formed from leaf-green which our bodies can convert into vitamin A. Carotene is the
yellowish-red coloring matter in carrots. The greener a leaf is, the more carotene it usually
contains. Hence the importance of green, leafy vegetables in the diet as a source of carotene.
Tomatoes, papayas, mangoes and bananas contain more carotene than most other fruits. Red palm
oil contains so much carotene that it is used instead of cod-liver oil. Thus, it is very valuable, both
as a food-fat and for deep-frying.
Vitamin A and carotene are insoluble in water and they are not destroyed by heat unless
oxygen is present. Boiling in water, therefore, does not destroy much vitamin A or
carotene.Vitamin A encourages healthy growth and physical fitness. Young animals soon stop
growing and die if vitamin A is not present in their diet. This vitamin keeps the moist surfaces
lining the digestive canal, the lungs and air passages healthy. It also helps keep the ducts of the
various glands, the tissue that lines the eyelids and covers the front of the eyeball functional. As
vitamin A helps these tissues build up resistance to infection, it is often called the anti-infective
vitamin.
 Some of the most common disorders in people are caused by a shortage of vitamin A, when
the moist tissues become dry and rough. This often causes serious eye disease, followed by
infection of the air-passages. The skin may also become flaky and rough. Another defect caused
by shortage of vitamin A is 'night-blindness', when the affected person has distinct vision only in
bright light. As the body cannot produce vitamin A, it has to come from external sources. Thus a
well-balanced diet is required and is usually sufficient to provide the necessary amount. There is
therefore no need to supplement the need in the form of pills.
Part 2: (20 points)
The chart below shows the percentage of male and female teachers in six different types of
educational setting in the UK in 2010.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

Part 3: (30 points)

When a country develops its technology, the traditional skills and ways of life die out. It is
pointless to try and keep them alive. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this
opinion?

TEST 3
PART A. LISTENING (40 POINTS): You are advised to listen TWICE+
Section 1: Complete the notes below: Write ONE WORD for each answer. (20 points)
Question 1 - 6
SELF-DRIVE TOURS IN THE USA
Example:
 Name: Andrea __Brown____

Address: 24 (1) ________________ Road

Postcode: BH5 2OP
Phone: (mobile) 077 8664 3091
Heard about company from: (2) ___________________
Possible self-drive tours:
Trip 1:
• Los Angeles customer wants to visit: (3) ______________ parks with her children.
• Yosemite Park customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a (4) ____________.
Trip 2:
• Customer wants to see the (5) _____________ on the way to Cambria.
• At Santa Minoca: not interested in shopping.
• At San Diego, wants to spend time on the (6) _______________.
Question 7-10. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Number of days Total distance Price (per person) Includes
Trip 1 12 days (7) _________ £ 525 • accommodation
• car
• one (8) ________
Trip 2 9 days 980 km (9) £_________ • accommodation
• car
• (10) _________
Section 2: Question 11-20 (10 points)

Question 11-15: Choose the best correct letter A, B, or C.

MANHAM PORT
11. Why did a port originally develop at Manham?
A. It was safe from enemy attack.
B. It was convenient for river transport.
C. It had a good position on the sea coast.
12. What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution?
A. the improvement in mining technologies.
B. the increase in demand for metals.
C. the discovery of tin in the sea.
13. Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed?
A. shortage of fuel
B. poor transport systems
C. lack of skills among local people
14. What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century?
A. The workers went away.
B. Traditional skills were lost.
C. Buildings were used for new purposes.
15. What did the Manham Trust hope to do?
A. discover the location of the original port
B. provide jobs for the unemployed
C. rebuild the port complex
Question 16-20: Answer the following questions (10 points)
16. Where should visitors start their visit?
………………………………………………………………………….
17. Who shouldn’t be taken into the mine?
………………………………………………………………………….
18. Where should visitors visit next?
……………………………………………………………………………
19. What is the name of the beautiful old sailing ketch near the school?
……………………………………………………………………………….
20. By whom was the ship’s wheel dredged out of the silt?
………………………………………………………………………………………..
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 POINTS)
I. Choose the word that best completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. As we approached the house, I had a ______ that something terrible had happened.
A. prediction B. forethought C. premonition D. anticipation
2. Cable TV revolutionized communications; ______, the very existence of that service is now
threatened by satellites.
A. moreover B. consequently C. eventually D. nevertheless
3. The strike was ______ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. broken up B. called off C. come through D. set back
4. William crept ______ on Lisa and put his hands over her eyes.
A. up B. on C. off D. by
5. I know you have been working very hard today. Let's ________ and go home.
A. pull my leg B. call it a day C. put your back up D. pros and cons
6. She ________ on the computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.
A. has worked B. has been working
C. was working D. had been working
7. _______ their heads in his direction, he knew they were interested.
A. Seeing them both turn B. On seeing they both turn
C. When he saw them both to turn D. After seeing them both to have turned
8. Helen was ________ disappointed when she learnt that she hadn’t won the beauty contest.
A. seriously B. bitterly C. strongly D. heavily
9. ____ is that a chicken stands up to lay its eggs.
A. Many people don’t realize B. What many people don’t realize
C. It is that many people don’t realize D. Because many people don’ realize
10. Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere
when_____ , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home.
A. by releasing emissions from cars B. released from car emissions
 C. cars that release emissions D. emissions are released by cars
11. The match will be screened on TV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
12. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _________ me the whole truth
yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
14. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the
world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished
15. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying
C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way
19. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
20. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
II. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to
form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. (10 points)

The courteous smile of an author selling books, signing

copies or chatting on television shows can be (1)____________. DECEIVE
Behind the scenes of the book tour that has become as much as
a part of the modern bestseller as print and paper, the writer
may be a (2)_______________for a Golden Dartboard Award. CONTEND
This is the Oscar for authors (3)_________________behaving ALLEGE
badly, an informal award nominated by the weary, sometimes
(4)________________, publicity and sales. They call TRAUMA
themselves (5) “________________” and “wet nurses” as BABY
they tend to the fragile egos and(6)________________ CONVENTION
demands of authors freed from their word processors.
Among the most feared (7) _____________for the publicists ASSIGN
are the feminist writer who is remember for yelling at her
publicists in public and in (8)_______________language, and COLOUR
the thriller writer whose publicists report that they have
instructions from his publisher to speak only when spoken to.
One (9)_______________of a tour with him, who nominated SURVIVE
 him for a Golden Dartboard, says: “ he treats us all as his
inferiors”. However, publicists on his most recent tour say that
he was an absolute (10)_________________to work with. ENJOY

III. Identify 10 words which shouldn’t be in the text. (10 points)

Sesame was one of the earliest herbs known to the world. There is some disagreement
among all authorities as to the exact place of origin of this ancient herb; it may only have been
Africa, Afghanistan or the East Indies. It is then mentioned in Sanskrit literature and Egyptian
scripts, as well as in old Hebrew writings. Cleopatra is supposed to have been used sesame oil as
a skin beautifier. Sesame used to grow in the wild, but recently has been grown up as an important
crops in many parts of the world. It grows to both three or four feet high and has white flowers
that are e followed by seeds which produces oil, high in protein and mineral content. A product
of sesame seeds is an edible cream known as tahini, which has had the consistency of honey and
is extremely popular in Middle Eastern and Greek food. Tahini is the principal ingredient in a
popular sweet called halva. When chilled and cut into small blocks it makes as an agreeable
accompaniment to black coffee. Sesame seed and honey bars are tasty sweets found out in cake
shops and delicatessens. Sesame meals, which is ground sesame seed, is obtained from health-food
shops and is increasingly found in some of bigger supermarkets. As it is so high itself in protein,
vegetarians use large quantities of it in their daily diet. In fact, anything using sesame is nutritious
as well as delicious.

Your Answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
PART C. READING (50 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
for each of the blanks. (10 points)
(1)____ history, women have always aimed for the recognized place in (2)____. Guided
by their own (3)____ of knowledge and expertise, women like Marie Curie in science, Mary
Wollstonecraft in literary writing, Simone de Beauvois in philosophical existentialist debate, and
Marie Stopes in medicine, to name a few, have brought about (4)____ awareness of the role of the
women in any walks of life. These women have helped redefine and (5)____ the nature of women’s
place in society. Today the (6)____ of global women’s organizations and the impact of women’s
contributions (7)____ society show that progress has been made and the progress in furthering the
role of women in society has been some benefit to the (8)____ woman. It is true to say that not all
women have the same need. The need of the woman who stays at home and (9)_____ children will
differ widely from the woman who works outside. Nonetheless, in the extensive field of equal
opportunities, it would be good to know that access in given to both with equal measure according
to the true value of respective abilities. It also would be good to know that the woman at home is
recognized as a valued (10)____ of society just as much as the one who deals on business outside
the home.
1. A. Throughout B. Among C. During D. Upon
2. A. social B. society C. socialize D. socialist
3. A. region B. farm C. path D. field
4. A. a B. an C. the D. no article
5. A. gain B. encourage C. consolidate D. force
6. A. right B. spread C. limit D. belief
7. A. on B. for C. with D. at
8. A. own B. private C. individual D. personal
9. A. rises B. raises C. increases D. lifts
10. A. party B. competitor C. partner D. member

II. Read the text and fill in the blank with ONE WORD, which best fits. (10 points)
Urban Sparrows
During the last 25 years, Britain’s urban sparrow population has declined by as much as
two-thirds, and the bird has almost disappeared from many of its former haunts. The decline has
been blamed on (1) _______from cats to garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings have far
too few nooks and crannies (2) _______ the birds can nest. Factors (3) _________ these may well
be involved, but alone they (4) _______ to explain the severity of the decline, or the fact that other
urban birds have been less affected.

Denis Summers-Smith is the world’s leading expert on sparrows, so when he (5) _______
up with a theory to explain their decline, it has to be (6) ____ listening to. He suggests that the
culprit is a chemical added to unleaded petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was
intended to improve the nation’s health (7) ______ to prove responsible for the decline of being
of its favourite species.

(8) _____ to Summers-Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum
population in a specific area to breed successfully. If, (9) _________ whatever reason, numbers
drop below this threshold, the stimulus to breed disappears. The most dramatic example is the
passenger pigeon, (10) ______ in the late nineteenth century went from being the world’s most
common bird to total extinction within 50 years.
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. (10 points)
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and
cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis
upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social
mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating
immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly
lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational
education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many
of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult
immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses,
and other agencies.
 Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the
needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to
educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy,
and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had
meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-
producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-
century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem.
Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools
trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children
"efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes
of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
1. The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen
century.
B. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the 19th
century
D. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of
education in the United States was _____.
A. the increased urbanization of the entire country
B. the expanding economic problems of schools
C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
D. an increase in the number of trained teachers
3. The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. probability B. qualifications C. advantages D. method
4. The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ensured the success of B. began to grow rapidly
C. happened at the same time as D. was influenced by
5. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was
that _____.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. adults and children studied in the same classes
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
6. “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate _____.
A. the importance of educational changes
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the increased impact of public schools on students
D. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
7. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. more women should be involved in education and industry
D. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
8. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. homemaking B. consumption C. education D. production
9. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
10. The word “others” in paragraph 4 means_______.
A. other homes B. other women C. other children D. other employees
VI. Read the passage and choose the most suitable headings for sections A, B, C and D from
the list of headings below. (20 points)
List of Headings
i. Amazonia as unable to sustain complex societies
ii. The role of recent technology in ecological research in Amazonia
iii. The hostility of the indigenous population to North America influences
iv. Recent evidence
v. Early research among the Indian Amazons
vi. The influence of prehistoric inhabitants on Amazonian natural history.
vii. The great difficulty of changing local attitudes and practices.

1. Section A: _________
2. Section B__________
3. Section C: _________
4. Section D: _________

Secret of the Forest

A. In 1942 Allan R Holmberg, a doctoral student in anthropology from Yale University, USA
ventured deep into the jungle of Bolivian Amazonia and searched out an isolated band of
Sirino Indians. The Siriono, Holmberg later wrote, led a “strikingly backward” existence.
Their villages were little more than clusters of thatched huts. Life itself was a perpetual
and punishing search for food: some families grew manioc and other starchy crops in small
garden plots cleared from the forest, while other members of the tribe scoured the country
for small game and promising fish holes. When local resources became depleted, the tribe
moved on. As for technology, Holmberg noted, the Sirino “may be classified among the
most handicapped peoples of the world”. Other than bows, arrowa and crude digging sticks,
the only tools the Sirino seemed to possess were “ two machetes worn to the size of pocket
knives".
B. Although the lives of the Sirino have changed in the intervening decades, the image of
them as Stone Age relics has endured. In deed, in many respects the Sirino epitomize the
popular conception of life in Amazonia. To casual observers, as well as to influential
natural scientists and regional planners, the luxuriant forests of Amazonia seem ageless,
unconquerable, a habitat totally hostile to human civilization. The apparent simplicity of
Indian ways of life has been judged an evolutionary adaptation to forest ecology, living
proof that Amazonia could not- and cannot- sustain a more complex society.
Archaeological traces of far more elaborate cultures have been dismissed as the ruins of
 invaders from outside the region, abandoned to decay in the uncompromising tropical
environment.
C. The popular conception of Amazonia and its native residents would be enormously
consequential if it were true. But the human history of Amazonia in the past 11,000 years
betrays that view as myth. Evidence gathered in recent years from anthropology and
archeology indicates that the region has supported a series of indigenous cultures for eleven
thousand years; an extensive network of complex societies- some with populations perhaps
as large as 100,000- thrived there for more than 1,000 years before the arrival of Europeans.
(Indeed, some contemporary tribes, including the Sirino, still live among the earthworks of
earlier cultures). Far from being evolutionarily retarded, prehistoric Amazonian people
developed technologies and cultures that were advanced for their time. If the lives of
Indians today seem “primitive”, the appearance is not the result of some environmental
adaptation or ecological barrier; rather it is a comparatively recent adaptation to centuries
of economic and political pressure. Investigators who argue otherwise have unwittingly
projected the present onto the past.
D. The evidence for a revised view of Amazonia will take many people by surprise. Ecologists
have assumed that tropical ecosystems were shaped entirely by natural forces and they have
focused their research on habitats they believe have escaped human influences. But as the
University of Florida ecologists, Peter Feinsinger, has noted, an approach that leaves
people out of the equation is no longer tenable. The archeological evidence shows that the
natural history of Amazonia is to a surprising extent tied to the activities of its prehistoric
inhabitants.
E. The realization comes none too soon. In June 1992 political and environmental leaders
from across the world met in Rio de Janeiro to discuss how developing countries can
advance their economies without destroying their natural resources. The challenge is
especially difficult in Amazonia. Because the tropical forest has been depicted as
ecologically unfit for large-scale human occupation, some environmentalists have opposed
development of any kind. Ironically, some major casualty of that extreme position has been
the environment itself. While policy makers struggle to define and implement appropriate
legislation, development of the most destructive kind has continued space over vas areas.
F. The other major casualty of the “naturalism” of environmental scientists has been the
indigenous Amazonians, whose habits of hunting, fishing and slash-and-burn cultivation
often have been represented as harmful to the habitat. In the clash between
environmentalists and developers, the Indians, whose presence is in fact crucial to the
survival of the forest, have suffered the most. The new understanding of the pre-history of
Amazonia, however, points toward a middle ground. Archeology makes clear that with
judicious management selected parts of the region could support more people than anyone
thought before. The long buried past, it seems, offers hope for the future.

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the passage?
YES if the statement agrees with the view of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the view of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer think about this.

5. The reason for the simplicity of the Indian way of life is that Amazonia has always been
unable to support a more complex society.
 6. There is a crucial popular misconception about the human history of Amazonia.
7. There are lessons to be learned from similar ecosystems in other parts of the world.
8. Most ecologists were aware that the areas of Amazonia they were working in had been
shaped by human settlement
9. The indigenous Amazonian Indians are necessary to the well- being of the forest
10. It would be possible for certain parts of Amazonia to support a higher population

PART D. WRITING (60 POINTS)

I. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should
be about 150 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (10 points)
By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and nineteenth
centuries was cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or wool because it was
easy to process and soft to tile touch. Mechanization of spinning and weaving allowed significant
centralization and expansion in the textile industry during this period, and at the same time the
demand for cotton increased dramatically. American producers were able to meet this demand
largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin by Eli Whitney in 1793. Cotton could be grown
throughout the South, but separating the fiber – or lint – from the seed was a laborious process.
Sea island cotton was relatively easy to process by hand, because its fibers were long and seeds
were concentrated at the base of the flower, but it demanded a long growing season, available
only along the nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple cotton required a much shorter growing
season, but the shortness of the fibers and their mixture with seeds meant that a worker could hand-
process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered machine with revolving
drums and metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the gin, a worker could produce
up to 50 pounds of lint a day. The later development of larger gins, powered by horses, water, or
steam, multiplied productivity further.
The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of the
cultivation of cotton and to a surge in production. It became the main American export, dwarfing
all others. In 1802, cotton composed 14 percent of total American exports by value. Cotton had a
36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50 percent share in 1830. In 1860, 61 percent of the value of
American exports was represented by cotton. In contrast, wheat and wheat flour composed only 6
percent of the value of American exports in that year. Clearly, cotton was king in the trade of the
young republic. The growing market for cotton and other American agricultural products led to
an unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in the eastern half of the United
States---west of the Appalachian Mountains and east of the Mississippi River.
(Adapted from Toefl Reading Collection)
III. The graph shows changes in the amount of milk consumed per person per year in liters
in the US between 1950 and 2000. (20 points)
Write a report (of about 150 words) to describe the information in the graph.
III. You are required to write an essay of about 250-300 words on the following topic:
“Some universities require students to take classes in many subjects. Other universities require
students to specialize in one subject. Which is better? Use specific reasons and examples to
support your answer.”

TEST 4

PART I: LISTENING: 40/200

1: For question 1 – 10, listen to a recording material and supply the blank with the missing
information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the
recording for each answer below (20 pts):

1. The topics of most concern focused on ISIS, climate change, (1) …………………, economic
instability, and international disputes.

2. Regions of the world (2) ……………… or containing rainforests rated climate change as a high
priority.

3. Economic instability came in as (3) …………………, understandably feared the most by poor
countries. Ghana, Spain, and Uganda had the strongest concerns about their economies, with Spain
struggling in the EU, and the others among the world's (4) ………………… nations.
4. Understandably, Lebanon is located near (5) ……………………. Syria.

5. At the turn of the 20th century, (6) …………………………… and provocative journalism were
used to increase profits.

6. The United States has been called as “an (7) ………………………… country” while Chinese
media is “one of the most (8) …………………………. mass media” forms.

7. There are more than 150 countries that remained outside of the survey’s scope, and (9)
………………………………. are often generalized.

8. Some of the happiest countries in the world still have major concerns (10) ……………………

2: For question 11-15, listen to a recording material and give short answers to the following
questions (10 pts):

11. How can one drop the level of melatonin when waking up in darkness?

………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Why should one expose himself to cold water?

………………………………………………………………………………………

13. In the morning, what is replenished when drinking a glass of water?

………………………………………………………………………………………

14. What is one benefit of having a high-fiber and carbohydrate breakfast?

………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Why does physical activity enhance cognition?

………………………………………………………………………………………
3: For question 16-20, you will hear a radio interview with someone who has been having ballet
lessons. Choose the answer (A,B,C or D) which fits best according to what you hear (10 pts)

16. Rupert says that before he started doing ballet lessons

A. he had been doing routine physical fitness training.

B. his knowledge of ballet had been growing.

C. ballet had taken over from football as his greatest interest.

D. he had been considering doing ballroom dancing again.

17. Rupert days that when the idea of ballet lessons was suggested to him,

A. he thought it was a joke

B. he was unsure exactly what would be involved.

C. he began to have unrealistic expectations of what he could achieve,

D. he initially lacked the confidence to do it.

18. One of the advantages of ballet that Rupert mentions is that

A. it leads to fewer injuries than other physical activities.

B. it has both physical and mental effects.

C. it is particularly good for certain parts of the body.

D. it is more interesting than other forms of exercise.

19. What does Rupert say about the sessions?

A. The content of them is varied.

 B. Some of the movements in them are harder than others for him.

C. All of the movements in them have to be done accurately.

D. They don’t all involve basic movements.

20. What does Rupert say about his progress at ballet?

A. It has been much more rapid than he had expected.

B. It has made him consider giving up his other training.

C. It has given him greater appreciation of the skills of professionals.

D. It has led him to enroll for certain exams.

PART II: LEXICO – GRAMAR: 50/200

1. Choose the best answer A,B,C or D to complete each blank. (20 pts)

1. You can’t believe a word that woman says – she is a …………. liar.

A. dedicated B. devoted C. committed D. compulsive

2. There can be no ……….. fixes or magic solutions to the problem of unemployment.

A. fast B. speedy C. quick D. sudden

3. When you come down the hill, do drive slowly because it is not ……….. obvious when the
turning is.

A.immediately B. directly C. instantaneously D. quite

4. At her trial in 1431 Joan of Are was accused of being in ………with the devil.

A.cooperation B. association C. league D. conjunction

5. The flights are full at the moment, so you’ll have to ………….

A. run a stroke of luck B. get a better luck

C. be down on your luck D. take pot luck

6. I heard ………….. that Jack has been dropped from the basketball team.

A. in the woods B. on the grapevine

C. under your feet D. on the olive branch

7. Jane really …....... it on thick when she told the boss that she was not feeling very well.
Unfortunately for her, he realized immediately that she just wanted the afternoon off.

A. put B. spread C. laid D. painted

8. I have not got the foggiest …………… why he left so suddenly. He did not give a reason.

A. opinion B. idea C. notion D. thought

9. Many habitats change ………… the types of plants and animals that live there.

A. with respect to B. in respect for C. as for D. as against

10. Unfortunately, some really ill animals have to be ……..………by the center.

A. put down B. turned over C.passed away D. taken out

11. John first dabbled …………buying old maps for his collection.

A. in B.on C. at D. for

12. It is a matter of urgency to put right at once but nothing suitable ……..to mind.

A. returns B. emerges C. sprouts D. springs

13. The door hinges had all been oiled to stop them …………….……

A. squeaking B. screeching C. shricking D. squealing

14. You should ………. at least three days for the journey.

A. expect B. permit C. accept D. allow

15. Few people can do creative work unless the are in the right ……..of mind.

A. frame B.trend C. attitude D. tendency

16. All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ……..…..for their suitability.

A. searched B. investigated C. vetted D. scrutinized

17. “I think we ought to see the rest of the exhibition as quickly as we can, ……… that it closes in
half an hour.”

A. granted B. assuming C. given D. knowing

18. Eden decided that election to the local council would provide a ……………….…. .to a career
in national politics.

A. springboard B.turning-point C. milestone D. highway

19. I was …………………….in the book I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.

A.distracted B. submerged C. gripped D. engrossed

20. It is very important to check the ………………... print in any contract.

A. little B. tiny C. small D. minute

2. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the words in the brackets. (10 pts)

1. He suffered a(n) _______________________ brain tumour. (OPERATE)

2. Dr.Smith, a famous ____________________, has just published a book about murder. (CRIME)
3. The refugees slept in ____________________ tents at the side of the road. (MAKE)
4. I was _______________ by Jame’s loud and aggressive voice and so, chose to remain silent
throughout the discussion. (TIMID)
5. One of the _______________ of unemployment is an increase in crime. (PRODUCE)
6. Hundreds of accidents were reported to have been caused by serial motorway ______________
(PILE)
7. The ceremony marked the Queen’s _________________ and the time she started to rule.
(THRONE)
8. The report is still ______________ but it is already clear that these officers are involved in drug
smuggling. (FRAGMENT0
9. __________________ especially among retired people in the USA is on the increase.
(VOLUNTEER)

10. Her attempts to help the needy were ___________________ but rather ineffective. (MEAN)

3. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (10 pts)

The word processor and calculator are with doubt here to stay, and in many respects of our
lives are much richer for them. But teachers and other academics are claiming that we are now
starting to feel the first significant wave of their effects on a generation for users. It seems nobody
under the age of 20 can spell nor add up any more. Even several professors at leading universities
have commented about the detrimental effect the digital revolution has had at the most intelligent
young minds in the country. The problem, evidently, lies with the automatically spell-check now
widely available on word processing software. Professor John Silver of the Sydney University,
Australia, said, “Why should we bother to learn how to spell correctly or to learn even if the most
basic of mathematical sums, when at the press of a button we have our problem answering for us?
The implications are enormous. Will adults of the future look on the computer to make decisions
for them, to tell them who to marry or what house to buy? Are we heading for a future individually
incapable of independent human thought?”

Example: 0. with → without

 PART III: READING 50/200

1. Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the test. (10 pts)

For many people doing physical exercise may ………..(1) a painful torturing of the body.
Therefore, there’s usually something we come up with that is of bigger importance than putting
one’s muscles through their paces. Unless we are forced to go in for a physical training, we are
………….(2) to treat it as something of a lower …………..(3) than staying in front of the TV set,
spending time in a pub …………(4) alcoholic beverages or consuming excessive quantities of
fattening confectionery in a café. We need to be considerably motivated to take up a body workout
and build our physical fitness. What usually ………….(5) individuals from …………..(6)
themselves to strenuous exercise in the fear of fatigue, discomfort or even the ………….(7) of
being outdone by true fitness zealots.

However, getting fit is fully a matter of common sense. Different forms of exercise may be of
great ……………(8) to the human body increasing its strength, flexibility and endurance. When
supported by a nutritious diet, much better performance of the heart and the lungs improves the
blood circulation making an individual more resistant to stressful situations as well as more
…………..(9) to infections and diseases.

In the first place, self-discipline that is requisite for proceeding with such physical effort ought
to be attained to ensure that the intention of becoming healthier and more vigorous isn’t
………..(10) by any trivial impediments.

1. A. incorporate B. entail C. administer D. correspond

2. A. tended B. implied C. affirmed D. inclined

3. A. superiority B. privilege C. advantage D. priority

4. A. smacking B. sipping C. seething D. sniffing

5. A. repels B. denies C. opposes D. rejects

 6. A. commiting B. absorbing C. involving D. engrossing

7. A. hindrances B. impairments C. preventions D. inhibitions

8. A. liking B. benefit C. appreciation D. gain

9. A. irresistible B. preventative C. immune D. wary

10.A. persecuted B. tormented C. harassed D. suppressed

2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with one suitable word. (10 pts)

The capital of Japan’s northernmost island attracts a cavalcade of visitors every year at the
beginning of February. (1) ………….. this being the coldest time of the year, visitors flock to the
city, which transforms (2) …………… into a winter dream world heaving with glittering figures
and beautiful palaces. More than two million people come to marvel (3)……… the frosted statues.

The festival, which (4)……………. extremely humble origins, is today a high profile
international event. It began in 1950 (5) ………….. a couple of young students fashioned six snow
statues in Odori park. Five years (6) ………………………..., members of Sapporo’s Defence
Force sowed the seeds (7) ………………........... the now world-famous festival by building the
first statue, which was megalithic in (8)…..……………… proportions. Snow sculpting might
sound (9)…………………………….. one of those skills best suited to the school playground, but
it actually takes a lot of patience and artistic talent to form these snow giants. First, a wooden
structure is built. Large blocks of snow are then cut from the ground. The blocks, which are
hammered into place around the scaffolding, are then hosed down with water to freeze them into
hard-as-rock mortar. It is only then that the painstaking job of sculpting the masterpiece begins.

The combined result of (10)……………………this sculpting and carving is a crystal-like

dreamscape of frosted versions of many famous buildings, such as the Statue of Liberty and
Leaning Tower of Pisa.

3. Read the passage and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer A,B,C
or D that you think fits best. (10 pts)
 BRINGING UP CHILDREN

Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child
may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible - for
example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway
train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological
treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics.

The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages
to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around
him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming
to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very important element in
upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child
can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the
first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often
tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings
of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced
to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the
meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or
without any learning opportunities he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new
things for himself.

Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing
together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys
and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving this co-
operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples.

Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may
be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night,
punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the needs
of the parents and the values the community as much as the child's own happiness and well-being.

With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child. consistency is very
important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation
for morality. Also, parents should realize that "example is better than precept". If they are
hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children may grow confused and
emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have
been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents'
ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.

51. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children __________.
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains

B. is to send them to clinics

C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced

D. offers recapture of earlier experiences

52. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught __________

A. in spite of excessive demands being made

B. only if excessive demands are avoided

C. because excessive demands are not advisable

D. is achieved successfully by all children

53. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills __________.

A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far

C will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate

54. Parental controls and discipline__________.

A. serve a dual purpose

B. are designed to promote the child's happiness

C. reflect only the values of the community

D. should be avoided as far as possible

55. The practice of the rule "Example is better than precept" __________.

A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves

B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals

C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up

D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise

56. In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the__________ in helping
the child in trouble.

A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery

57. The phrase "conforming to" in the 2nd paragraph means __________.

A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following

58. The word "zest" in the 2nd paragraph can be best replaced by __________.

A. appetite B. excitement C. enthusiasm D. enjoyment

59. The word "imposed" in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.

A. excepted B. introduced C. made D. constrained

60. Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may __________.

A. result in their children's wrong behaviour

B. make their children lose faith in them

C. disqualify their teachings altogether

D. impair their children's mind

4. Read the follow passage and answer the questions (10 pts)

RISING SEA

Paragraph 1 - INCREASED TEMPERATURES

The average air temperature at the surface of the earth has risen this century, as has the
temperature of ocean surface waters. Because water expands as it heats, a warmer ocean means
higher sea levels. We cannot say definitely that the temperature rises are due to the greenhouse
effect; the heating may be part of a ‘natural’ variability over a long time - scale that we have not
yet recognized in our short 100 years of recording. However, assuming the build up of greenhouse
gases is responsible, and that the warming will continue, scientists – and inhabitants of low-lying
coastal areas – would like to know the extent of future sea level rises.

Paragraph 2

Calculating this is not easy. Models used for the purpose have treated the ocean as passive,
stationary and one -dimensional. Scientists have assumed that heat simply diffused into the sea
from the atmosphere. Using basic physical laws, they then predict how much a known volume of
water would expand for a given increase in temperature. But the oceans are not one -dime nsional,
and recent work by oceanographers, using a new model which takes into account a number of
subtle facets of the sea –including vast and complex ocean currents –suggests that the rise in sea
level may be less than some earlier estimates had predicted.

Paragraph 3

An international forum on climate change, in 1986, produced figures for likely sea-level
rises of 20 cms and 1.4 m, corresponding to atmospheric temperature increases of 1.5 and 4.5C
respectively. Some scientists estimate that the ocean warming resulting from those temperature
increases by the year 2050 would raise the sea level by between 10 cms and 40 cms. This model
only takes into account the temperature effect on the oceans; it does not consider changes in sea
level brought about by the melting of ice sheets and glaciers, and changes in groundwater storage.
When we add on estimates of these, we arrive at figures for total sea-level rises of 15 cm and 70
cm respectively.

Paragraph 4

It’s not easy trying to model accurately the enormous complexities of the ever-changing
oceans, with their great volume, massive currents and sensitively to the influence of land masses
and the atmosphere. For example, consider how heat enters the ocean. Does it just ‘diffuse’ from
the warmer air vertically into the water, and heat only the surface layer of the sea? (Warm water
is less dense than cold, so it would not spread downwards). Conventional models of sea-level rise
have considered that this the only method, but measurements have shown that the rate of heat
transfer into the ocean by vertical diffusion is far lower in practice than the figures that many
modelers have adopted.

Paragraph 5

Much of the early work, for simplicity, ignored the fact that water in the oceans moves in
three dimensions. By movement, of course, scientists don’t mean waves, which are too small
individually to consider, but rather movement of vast volumes of water in huge currents. To
understand the importance of this, we now need to consider another process – advection. Imagine
smoke rising from a chimney. On a still day it will slowly spread out in all directions by means of
diffusion. With a strong directional wind, however, it will all shift downwind, this process is
advection – the transport of properties (notably heat and salinity in the ocean) by the movement of
bodies of air or water, rather than by conduction or diffusion.

Paragraph 6.

Massive ocean currents called gyres do the moving. These currents have far more capacity
to store heat than does the atmosphere. Indeed, just the top 3 m of the ocean contains more heat
than the whole of the atmosphere. The origin of gyres lies in the fact that more heat from the Sun
reaches the Equator than the Poles, and naturally heat tends to move from the former to the latter.
Warm air rises at the Equator, and draws more air beneath it in the form of winds (the “Trade
Winds”) that, together with other air movements, provide the main force driving the ocean
currents.

Paragraph 7

Water itself is heated at the Equator and moves poleward, twisted by the Earth’s rotation
and affected by the positions of the continents. The resultant broadly circular movements between
about 10 and 40 North and South are clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. They flow towards
the east at mid latitudes in the equatorial region. They then flow towards the Poles, along the
eastern sides of continents, as warm currents. When two different masses of water meet, one will
move beneath the other, depending on their relative densities in the subduction process.The
densities are determined by temperature and salinity. the convergence of water of different
densities from the Equator and the Poles deep in the oceans causes continuous subduction. This
means that water moves vertically as well as horizontally. Cold water from the Poles travels as
depth – it is denser than warm water –until it emerges at the surface in another part of the world in
the form of a cold current.

Paragraph 8. HOW THE GREEN HOUSE EFFECT WILL CHANGE OCEAN

TEMPERATURES

Ocean currents, in three dimensions, form a giant ‘conveyor belt’, distributing heat from
the thin surface layer into the interior of the oceans and around the globe. Water may take decades
to circulate in these 3-D gyres in the lop kilometer of the ocean, and centuries in the deep water.
With the increased atmospheric temperatures due to the greenhouse effect, the oceans conveyor
belt will carry more heat into the interior. This subduction moves heat around far more effectively
than simple diffusion. Because warm water expands more than cold when it is heated, scientists
had presumed that the sea level would rise unevenly around the globe. It is now believed that these
inequalities cannot persist, as winds will act to continuously spread out the water expansion. Of
course, of global warming changes the strength and distribution of the winds, then this ‘evening-
out’ process may not occur, and the sea level could rise more in some areas than others.

Questions 1 - 6

This reading Passage has 8 Paragraphs, 1-8. The first paragraph and the last have been
given headings. Choose the correct heading for the remaining 6 Paragraphs from the list below.

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all the headings. Write the
correct number, A-I, in the pace provided.

1. Paragraph 2 ________ 4. Paragraph 5 _____________

2. Paragraph 3 ________ 5. Paragraph 6 ____________

3. Paragraph 4 ________ 6. Paragraph 7 _____________

List of headings
 A. The gyre principle

B. The Greenhouse Effect

C. How ocean waters move

D. Statistical evidence

E. The advection principle

F. Diffusion versus advection

G. Figuring the sea level changes

H. Estimated figures

I. The diffusion model

Questions 7 - 8

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D

7. Scientists do not know for sure why the air and surface of ocean temperatures are rising because

A. There is too much variability

B. There is not enough variability

C. They have not been recording these temperatures for enough time

D. The changes have only been noticed for 100 years

8. New research leads scientists to believe that

A. The oceans are less complex

B. The oceans are more complex

C. The oceans will rise more than expected

D. The oceans will rise less than expected

Question 9 – 10
 Look at the following list of factors A-F and select THREE which are mentioned in the
reading passage which may contribute to the rising ocean levels.

Write the correct THREE letters A-F in the space provided.

A. Thermal expansion

B. Melting ice

C. Increased air temperature

D. Higher rainfall

E. Changes in the water table

F. Increased ocean movement

PART IV: WRITING 60/200

1. Read the following passage and use your own words to summarize it. You MUST NOT copy
or re-write the original. Your summary should about 100 words long. (10 pts)

Meerkat study

Dr Alex Thorntorn from the University of Cambridge recently led a study into meerkat
society. Meerkats are highly social mongooses that live in large social groups and take turns
foraging for food and standing guard to look out for predators. Research has shown that the animals
have their own traditions within their group. For example, while members of one meerkat troop
will consistently rise very early, those of another will emerge from their burrows much later in the
morning.

In one attempt to access whether meerkats simply copy their behavior patterns or are taught
them. Thorntorn and his team travelled to the Kalahari Dessert and set a series of tests for a group
in the wild. One test involved putting a scorpion ( the meerkats’ favourite food ) into a transparent
container. The meerkats had to work out how to open the opaque lid of the container in order to
reach the scorpion inside. The tests showed that the more subordinate juvenile members of meerkat
troops are the most innovative when it comes to foraging – these low-ranking males were best at
that the meerkats didn’t ever appear to work out that it was the opaque surface of the box that they
should attack in preference to the transparent ones. So, this may simply be evidence of persistence
rather than actual intelligent.

2. The table below shows the cost-of-living averages in two different cities as compared to the
national cost-of-living average. (20 pts)

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

Cost-of-Living Percentage Averages Above and Below

the National Average

Alicia Riverdale Cape
Groceries 4,7% 0,5%
Housing 19% -12,5%
Utilities 4,5% 1,2%
Transportation 4% -3,8%
Health care 7% 0,8%
Clothing 5,5% 1%

3. Write an essay on the following topic (30 pts)

Nowadays there are more opportunities for women than there were in the past. Some
people think this situation has caused more problems than it has solved.

What are your opinions on this ?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.

TEST 5
PART I. LISTENING
I. Listen to the recording twice. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
Former Facebook workers said this week that the …………. …..………..(1) company often
avoided letting news …..……..……..(2) among conservative Americans appear in its “Trending”
section. The former workers told the website Gizmodo that they were told to select stories to
include in the Trending list, even if those stories were not actually trending. The former workers
also said they were told not to include …..……..……..(3) about Facebook itself into the trending
list.
One of the former workers told Gizmodo that the …..……..……..(4) “had a chilling effect on
conservative news.” Another accused Facebook of being biased in its …..……..……..(5) of
trending topics. The controversy did become the No. 1 trending topic on Facebook for part of the
day Monday. Many Facebook users were surprised that the company …..……..……..(6) the
discussion to even appear in its Trending section.
The Associated Press reported Tuesday that a Facebook …..……..……..(7) said the company has
found no …..……..……..(8) to support the former workers’ claims. Tom Stocky, a company vice
president, wrote in a Facebook post that the company does not permit political views to be
…..……..……..(9). Meanwhile, the U.S. Senate Commerce Committee chairperson has sent a letter
to Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg. The chair, John Thune, is a Republican. In the letter, he asked
Zuckerberg to …..……..……..(10) to several questions about the company’s alleged practice of
suppressing conservative news.
II. Listen to the recording TWICE, then write the answers for the following questions.
1. Why are plants disappearing?

2. According to the scientists, who should do more to create protected areas?

3. How many new plants do scientists identify each year?

4. What are benefits of sundews?

5. What is botany?

III. Listen to the recording twice then select the best response to each question by circling
the letter A, B, C or D.

1. Which countries are increasing clothing manufacturing jobs fast?

A. Bangladesh and Pakistan
B. India and Sri Lanka
C. Vietnam and Cambodia.
D. Vietnam and India
2. In Sri Lanka how many percentages of clothing factory workers are women?
A. about two-fourths
B. about two-thirds
 C. about one-third
D. about two-fifths
3. How much are workers in Indian paid an hour?
A. more than one dollar.
B. about 50 cents.
C. about $2.50.
D. less than one dollar.
4. How many clothing workers died in the collapse of an eight-story building in Bangladesh?
A. less than 1,100
B. more than 11,000
C. more than 100
D. more than 1,100
5. According to the World Bank study, how many people work in the clothing industry?
A. About five billion people
B. About five million people.
C. About five hundred million people.
D. About fifty million people.
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the correct answer that best fits each blank.

1. All the jobs are on the ________ so we should stick together and try to do something to
stop the closure.
A. line B. house C. market D. dot
2. Her close personal friends never ________ in their belief in her; whatever was written in
the press.
A. derided B. taunted C. faltered D. reneged
3. His application was _______ because he didn’t have necessary qualifications for the job.
A. turned off B. turned down C. sent off D. thrown down
4. For many young people, driving cars at high speed seems to ________ a rather fatal
fascination.
A. reserve B. wield C. weave D. hold
5. Lose this important match; ___________.
A. or you will have been sacked B. you will be fired
C. so you will be sacked immediately D. and you will be fired right away
6. The president was eventually ________ by a military coup.
B. disbarred B. supplanted C. deposed D. subverted
7. Poor Mary, all her colleagues teased her; she was the _______ of all their jokes.
A. hubbub B. butt C. bulk D. brunt
8. The firefighters fought the blaze while the crowd _________.
A. walked out B. kicked back C. sit about D. looked on
9. We do not have a secretary _________, but we do have a student who comes in to do a
bit of filing.
A. as such B. the least bit C. whatsoever D. little more
10. Derek had no experience of white-water canoeing, so it was extremely _______ of him
to try and shoot the rapids.
A. treacherous B. intrepid C. perilous D. foolhardy
11. Wealth and power go _________ in most societies.
A. shoulder to shoulder B. face to face C. eye to eye D. hand in hand
12. James forgot the _______ pen he bought yesterday at school.
A. beautiful Japanese blue new B. Japanese beautiful new blue
C. new beautiful blue Japanese D. beautiful new blue Japanese
13. It is _______ possible to spend all of your life in this city.
A. purely B. perfectly C. solidly D. fully
14. Before the crowd had even had time to ______ a cry, he was underneath the vehicle.
A. voice B. utter C. blurt D. air
15. He broke ______ loud cursing when he realized his ring was stolen.
A. into B. up C. down D. over
16. It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to ______.
A. get B. beat C. achieve D. come
17. In order to learn a new language well, you should ________ the initiative to learn
independently and purposefully.
A. pursue B. lead C. adopt D. take
18. I would be ________ to name all countries in Europe.
A. dead and gone B. hard pressed C. better off D. hot and cold
19. __________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. Winning D. On winning
20. Although we were hungry, the smell from the spoiled food totally ______ us off.
A. put B. got C. took D. set

II. Supply the correct form of the word provided in blankets in each sentence.
1. Use a bigger screwdriver to ________this screw. (TIGHT)
2. Jim is one of the most __________ members of the committee. (SPEAK)
3. You look rather____ . Are you worried about something? (OCCUPY)
4. Please ____ our letter on the 15th. We have had no reply. (KNOW)
5. Daniel Defoe was typical in his manner of thought, in his ____ (THRIFT)
6. In Scotland there is greater emphasis on ____ by individual school. (VALUE)
7. The key aims of the program are to achieve breath, balance, ______ and progression of all
pupils. (CONTINUE)
8. The effective operation of the social services depends on ____ qualified social workers. (
PROFESSION)
9. When my grandfather retired he felt that he had _______ his usefulness. (LIVE)
10. Vietnam has depended heavily on foreign __________ organizations to train teachers.
(GOVERN)
III. Each sentence below contains an error. Identify and correct them.

A MODERN-DAY PROBLEM
 In the hustle and bustle of today’s hectic world, all of us, without exception, has to contend
with some level of stress. Obviously, the source and amount of stress are relatively to the
individual. Just as causes and quantities of stress are subject to personal factors, so is the way in
that a person deals with them. It is a well-known fact that some people flourish when faced with a
potentially stress-causing task or situation. On another hand, the majority of people are adversely
affected when confront with a serious dilemma. Abnormal levels of stress can be a serious healthy
hazard and may prove detrimental to one’s physical health. Stress is said to be the culprit in a high
percent of heart problems and stomach disorders. Even certain types of cancer are, reportedly,
linked to stress. Knowing that stress is a modern-day malady which we all, in a greater or lesser
extent, suffer from, has prompted many people to begin looking seriously at ways of controlling
stress. Due to the inevitable factor that stress will always play a part in our lives, it is of paramount
important that strategies of stress management be found.

Your answers:
Line Mistake Correction
0. 2 has have
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

PART IV. READING

I. Read the passage and then decide which word (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space.
 Samuel Cunard’s first ship, the Britannia, made its first voyage from Liverpool in England
to the US in 1850. In those days there was little choice about (1) ____ of travel. Anyone who
wished to go to the US from Britain had to sail across the Atlantic. (2) ____ that, there was no way
of getting there. The Britannia was (3) ____ a mail ship, but it also took passengers. On that first
(4) ____, as records show, there was a (5) ____ of 63 of them, including Samuel Cunard and his
daughter and, (6) ____ for that time, the ship had private bathrooms.
But Samuel Cunard would find it hard to see much similarity between his beloved
Britannia and the Cunard company’s most famous liner today, the QE2, named after Queen
Elizabeth II of England. The Britannia is (7) ____ to have had two members of staff (8) ____ every
passenger. The passengers probably didn’t sleep in cabins as comfortable and with as much space
as rooms in a good (9) ____ of hotel, as they do on the QE2 today.
The QE2 (10) ____ on her first voyage across the Atlantic from Southampton on the south
coast of England on May 2 1969. Five days later, she arrived in New York to an enthusiastic
welcome. Since that day she has carried over one and a half million passengers around the world.
1. A. procedures B. processes C. courses D. means
2. A. Apart from B. Else C. Instead of D. Otherwise
3. A. at most B. above all C. overall D. vastly
4. A. incident B. occasion C. event D. circumstance
5. A. total B. sum C. number D. quantity
6. A. distinctly B. differently C. extremely D. remarkably
7. A. doubtful B. improbable C. uncertain D. unlikely
8. A. with B. by C. to D. of
9. A. level B. status C. class D. rank
10. A. set off B. went away C. got out D. came along
II. Read the text and then choose the best answer to each of the questions.
The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward across the
largest and northernmost state in the United States, ending at a remote ice-free seaport village
nearly 800 miles from where it begins. It is massive in size and extremely complicated to operate.
The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless miles of delicate tundra that tops the frozen
ground. It weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer mountains, plunges over rocky crags,
makes its way through thick forests, and passes over or under hundreds of rivers and streams. The
pipe is 4 feet in diameter, and up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons) of crude oil can be
pumped through it daily.
Resting on H-shaped steel racks called "bents," long sections of the pipeline follow a zigzag course
high above the frozen earth. Other long sections drop out of sight beneath spongy or rocky ground
and return to the surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline's up-and-down route is determined
by the often harsh demands of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous lay of the land, and the
varied compositions of soil, rock, or permafrost (permanently frozen ground). A little more than
half of the pipeline is elevated above the ground. The remainder is buried anywhere from 3 to 12
feet, depending largely upon the type of terrain and the properties of the soil.
One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost approximately $8 billion and is by far the biggest
and most expensive construction project ever undertaken by private industry. In fact, no single
business could raise that much money, so eight major oil companies formed a consortium in order
to share the costs. Each company controlled oil rights to particular shares of land in the oil fields
and paid into the pipeline-construction fund according to the size of its holdings. Today, despite
enormous problems of climate, supply shortages, equipment breakdowns, labor disagreements,
treacherous terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement, and even theft, the Alaska pipeline has
been completed and is operating.
1. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline's…
A. operating costs
B. employees
C. consumers
D. construction
2. The word "it" in line 3 refers to….
A. pipeline
B. ocean
C. state
 D. village
3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each…
A. day
B. week
C. month
D. year
4. The phrase "Resting on" in line 10 is closest in meaning to….
A. consisting of
B. supported by
C. passing under
D. protected with
5. The author mentions all of the following as important in determining the pipeline's route
EXCEPT the…
A. climate
B. lay of the land itself
C. local vegetation
D. kind of soil and rock
6. The word "undertaken" in line 19 is closest in meaning to…
A. removed
B. selected
C. transported
D. attempted
7. How many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline?
A. three
B. four
C. eight
D. twelve
8. The word "particular" in line 22 is closest in meaning to…
A. peculiar
B. specific
C. exceptional
D. equal
9. Which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member of
the consortium would pay?
A. How much oil field land each company owned
B. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields
C. How many people worked for each company
D. How many oil wells were located on the company's land
10. Where in the passage does the author provide a term for an earth covering that always remains
frozen?
A. Line 2
B. Line 10
C. Line 15
D. Line 23
III. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word.
The honey bee is a very unusual kind of insect. ___1___ other insects which live alone, the honey
bee lives as a member of a community. These bees live together in what is known as a bee colony.
The head of the colony is called the queen bee. She is larger than the___2___ of the bees. Her
main task ___3___ the colony is to lay eggs. Most of the ___4___ bees are the worker bees. These
bees collect nectar and pollen from flowers. The nectar that is carried by the worker bees is
deposited on the hive and then converted ___5___ honey. The worker bees also help look after
the young bees. as soon as the eggs are hatched, the worker bees feed the young bees ___6___
pollen and nectar. The third type of bee found in the colony is the drone or ___7___ bee. The main
task of ___8___ a bee is to mate with a new queen.
The queen bee has a life span of about three years. ___9___ this period, she would have ___10___
more than half a million eggs. When the queen bee is dying, a new queen would be groomed. This
new queen would eventually take over the 'duties' of the old queen when the latter dies.
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow.
A. Besides the earth’s oceans, glacier ice is the largest source of water on earth. A glacier is a
massive stream or sheet of ice that moves underneath itself under the influence of gravity. Some
glaciers travel down mountains or valleys, while others spread across a large expanse of land.
Heavily glaciated regions such as Greenland and Antarctica are called continental glaciers. These
two ice sheets encompass more than 95% of the earth’s glacial ice. The Greenland ice sheet
is almost 10,000 feet thick in some areas, and the weight of this glacier is so heavy that much of
the region has been depressed below sea level. Smaller glaciers that occur at higher elevations
are called alpine or valley glaciers. Another way of classifying glaciers is in terms of their internal
temperature. In temperate glaciers, the ice within the glacier is near its melting point. Polar
glaciers, in contrast, always maintain temperatures far below melting.
B. The majority of the earth’s glaciers are located near the poles, though glaciers exist on all
continents, including Africa and Oceania. The reason glaciers are generally formed in high alpine
regions is that they require cold temperature throughout the year, in these areas where there
is little opportunity for summer ablation (loss of mass), snow changes to compacted firm and then
crystallized ice. During periods in which melting and evaporation exceed the amount of snowfall,
glaciers will retreat rather than progress. While glaciers rely heavily on snowfall, other climatic
conditions including freezing rain, avalanches and wind, contribute to their growth. One year of
below average precipitation can stunt the growth of a glacier tremendously. With the rare 7
exception of surging glaciers, a common glacier flows about 10 inches per day in the summer and
5 inches per day in the winter. The fastest glacial surge on record occurred in 1953, when the
Kutiah Glacier in Pakistan grew more than 12 kilometers in three months.
C. The weight and pressure of ice accumulation causes glacier movement. Glaciers move out from
under themselves, via plastic deformation and basal slippage. First, the internal flow of ice crystals
begins to spread outward and downward from the thickened snow pack also known as the zone of
accumulation. Next, the ice along the ground surface begins to slip in the same direction. Seasonal
thawing at the base of the glacier helps to facilitate this slippage. The middle of a glacier moves
faster than the sides and bottom because there is no rock to cause friction. The upper part of a
glacier rides on the ice below. As a glacier moves it carves out a U-shaped valley to a riverbed,
but with much steeper walls and flatter bottom.
D. Besides the extraordinary rivers of ice, glacial erosion creates other unique physical features
in the landscape such as horns, fjords, hanging valleys, and cirques. Most of these landforms
do not become visible until after glaciers have receded. Many are created by moraines, which
occur at the sides and front of a glacier. Moraines are formed when material is picked up along the
way and deposited in a new location. When many alpine glaciers occur on the same mountain,
these moraines can create a horn. The matter horn, in the Swiss Alps is one of the most famous
horns. Fjords, which are very common in Norway, are coastal valleys that fill with ocean water
during a glacial retreat. Hanging valleys occur when two or more glacial valleys intersect at
varying elevations. It is common for waterfalls to connect the higher and lower hanging
valleys, such as in Yosemite National Park. A cirque is a large bowl-shaped valley that
forms at the front of a glacier. Cirques often have a lip on their down slope that is deep enough to
hold small lakes when the ice melts away.
E. Glacier movement and shape shifting typically occur over hundreds of years. While presently
about 10% of the earth land is covered with glaciers, it is believed that during the last Ice Age
glaciers covered approximately 32% of the earth’s surface. In the past century, most glaciers
have been retreating rather flowing forward. It is unknown whether this glacial activity is due to
human impact or natural causes, but by studying glacier movement, and comparing climate
and agricultural profiles over hundreds of years, glaciologists can begin to understand
environmental issues such as global warming.
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph
I. Glacial continents
II. Formation and growth of Glaciers
III. Glacial Movement
IV. Glaciers in the last Ice Age
V. Glaciers through the years
VI. Types of Glaciers
VII. Glacial Effects on Landscape
VIII. Glaciers in National Parks
1.Paragraph A ________
2.Paragraph B ________
3.Paragraph C ________
4. Paragraph D ________
5. Paragraph E ________
Write T (true), F (false) or NG (not given) before each statement
6. ______ Glaciers exist only near the north and south poles.
7. ______ Glaciers are formed by a combination of snow and other weather conditions.
8. ______ Glaciers normally move at a rate of about 5 to 10 inches a day.
9. ______ All parts of the glacier move at the same speed.
10. _____ During the last Ice Age, average temperatures were much lower than they are now.
PART V. WRITING
Question 1: Summarizing an extract.
In this activity you will practice summarizing a paragraph of a text.
In amongst these formal services networks, however, are a series of hidden niches, often prime
public spaces (e.g. car parks, main thoroughfares or parks) which homeless people colonize at
particular times for particular purposes, and which become re-classified as places of homelessness.
Research has found that these formal networks and hidden niches are interspersed by carefully
mapped out geographies, as homeless people sleep, eat, deal with cold and wet weather, arrange
their ablutions and addictions and relate to each other in ways which incorporate fun and social
association but also fear and avoidance of regulation. Flows of movement result, as people find
places to set up ‘home’, make friends, ensure security and seek money and entertainment. Such
flows involve performances, such as begging, and ‘hanging out’, which produces a life of its own.
Thus, silently mapped geographies can become underpinned by logic relating to space, as in
Bristol’s ‘food route’ – a time-space map of free eating opportunities, or the organization and
regulation of begging pitches. Spatial logics vary enormously between places, according to the
visibility, regulation and policing of street homelessness at the local level.
Question 2: Describing graph(s)
The line graph shows visits to and from the UK from 1979 to 1999, and the bar graph shows the
most popular countries visited by UK residents in 1999. Summarize the information by selecting
and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. (Write at least 150 words).