Sheth NKKT college thane

Department of Psychology
FYBA Sem II Psychology: Objective by Prof. Sachin Sutar

Chapter 1: Theories of Personality

1. What is the difference between nomothetic and idiographic approaches to personality?
a. nomothetic approaches seek to find generalized laws of behaviour that help us classify
people in terms of their similarities, while idiographic approaches seek to find what
makes people unique
b. nomothetic approaches view only the differences between people, while ideographic
approaches seek to find similarities
c. ideographic approaches try to categorize people, while nomothetic approaches don’t
Answer: A
2. What is one of the main assumptions of the trait approach to personality?
a. traits are not very stable across the lifespan and are therefore weak predictors of
personality
b. traits stay relatively stable across the lifespan
c. traits change drastically around the age of 6 years, which has to be taken into account
when predicting personality
Answer: B
3. Sophie is a 22-year-old psychology student. She loves reading books and is a great drawer.
She does go to parties every now and then, but she prefers to meet her friends for a coffee,
movies or cooking together. She does not like to be the centre of attention. How would
Eysenck make use of biological explanations to describe Sophie’s personality trait?
a. he would argue that Sophie has very low arousal levels in her ascending reticular
activating system (ARAS)
b. he would argue that Sophie’s autonomic nervous system is generally less aroused and
therefore does not invoke a ‘fight-or-flight’ response in her
c. he would argue that Sophie has high arousal levels in her ascending reticular
activating system (ARAS)
Answer: C
4. What are the five personality traits identified by the five-factor model (McCrae & Costa,
1997)?
a. extraversion, neuroticism, introversion, liveliness and agreeableness
b. agreeableness, openness to experience, introversion, neuroticism and
conscientiousness
c. extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism, openness to experience and
conscientiousness
Answer: C
5. Peter studies Psychology in his first year. His friends know him as a very keen and eager
student. He always carries a book with him and, every free minute, he works on some kind of
thinking task. He loves to borrow books from the library that are meant for third year
students. What is the best way to describe Peter?
a. he has a high need for cognition
b. he has a high need for stimulation
c. he has a high need for attention
Answer: A
6. Harold works for a big law firm in London. He is often confronted with challenging cases
but manages to stay calm and does not stress out about it. He and his colleagues love to go
bowling after work, and Harold is very good at it. Often, he wins, which makes him very
happy, but he is just as happy when one of his colleagues takes the lead. Which type of
personality best describes Harold?
a. personality Type A
b. personality Type B
c. personality Type C
Answer: B
7. Which of the following is NOT given as a criticism of the Type A/B personality theory?
a. most of the research on Type A personality is purely correlational
b. there is a lack of cross-cultural research
c. the questionnaires that claim to measure Type A personality have poor internal
reliability scores
Answer: C
8. Allison is a very self-critical, restless and impatient person. She believes her personality
can explain her stomach problems. What approach is she taking?
a. specificity approach
b. generality approach
c. specificity approach and generality approach
Answer: A
9. Renee has just recently quit smoking, and she was surprised how easy it was for her
compared to the experiences of her friends. What is most likely to be TRUE for her?
a. she has a high sense of self-efficacy
b. she has an internal locus of control
c. she has a high sense of self-efficacy and an internal locus of control
Answer: C
10. What is meant by ‘interactionism’ in personality psychology?
a. the view that the interaction between people shapes their personalities
b. the view that there is reciprocal interaction between personality, situations and the
environment
c. the view that children should interact with other children as much as possible to shape
a personality that will benefit them in their later lives
Answer: B

1. Phrenologists tried to find out about personality by:

a. reading a person’s horoscope
b. feeling a person’s skull
c. looking at a person’s hands
d. asking people questions
2. A limitation of selective breeding studies is that they cannot:
a. tell us anything about the role of genes
b. be used to study human beings
c. provide information relevant to the nature/nurture debate
d. tell us anything about the role of the environment
3. Which neo-Freudian challenged his ideas about penis envy?
a. Adler
b. Fromm
c. Jung
d. Horney
4. Someone who feels as though they are not living up to expectations would be
described by Adler as having:
a. low self-realization
b. an Adlerian complex
c. an inferiority complex
d. low actualization
5. According to Freud, the mind’s three components are:
a. ego, id, superego
b. unconscious, moral, immoral
c. oral, anal, phallic
d. primary, secondary, tertiary
6. The idea that you can assess someone’s personality by studying their face is called:
a. phrenology
b. physiology
c. somatology
d. physiognomy
7. The ________ complex is to girls as the ________ complex is to boys.
a. Electra, Oedipus
b. Oedipus, Electra
c. oral, phallic
d. phallic, oral
8. The discovery that the heritability of the Big Five personality traits is around 40% – 50%
suggests that:
a. the environment plays no role in personality
b. genes play no role in personality
c. the environment plays an important role in personality
d. the Big Five traits account for about half of our personality
9. Humanistic psychologists embraced the idea of:
a. repression
b. free will
c. unconscious drives
d. the id
10. According to Eysenck, extraverts seek to ________ their arousal while introverts seek to
________ their arousal.
a. decrease, increase
b. hide, reveal
c. increase, decrease
d. reveal, hide
11. Allport believed that traits could be organized into three levels:
a. primary, secondary, tertiary
b. cognitive, emotional, physiological
c. id, ego, superego
d. cardinal, central, secondary
12. The MMPI is used to measure:
a. unconscious drives
 b. the Big Five traits
c. personality and psychological disorders
d. leadership potential
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five traits?
a. sense of humour
b. openness to experience
c. conscientiousness
d. extraversion
14. Freud founded the ________ approach to understanding human behaviour.
a. palliative
b. psychodynamic
c. patronymic
d. psychedelic
15. The influence of parents on the personality of their children is:
a. non-existent
b. weakest in early childhood
c. strongest in early childhood
d. consistent across the lifespan
16. What is special about “knockout” mice?
a. they are very attractive
b. their DNA has been modified
c. they are easy to knock out
d. they are unusually aggressive
17. The aim of behavioural genetics is to learn about:
a. the extent to which geneticists can modify people’s behaviour
b. the possibility of eradicating behavioural problems in children
c. the genetic and environmental influences on human behaviour
d. the ability of animals to learn language
18. Monozygotic is to ________ twins as dizygotic is to ________ twins.
a. male, female,
b. female, male
c. fraternal, identical
d. identical, fraternal
19. Which of the following characteristics describe someone who, according to Maslow, is
self-actualized?
a. creativity
b. confidence
c. spontaneity
d. all of the above
20. According to Freud, children pass through 4 stages of psychosexual development.
Which of the following shows the stages in the correct developmental order?
a. oral, anal, phallic, latency
b. latency, oral, anal, phallic
c. phallic, anal, oral, latency
d. oral, phallic, latency, anal
21. Projective tests claim to reveal information about:
a. career aptitude
b. intellectual attainment
c. unconscious processes
d. parenting style
22. Traits are defined as:
a. physical characteristics that distinguish us from other people
b. relatively enduring characteristics that influence our behaviour across many situations
c. unconscious tendencies to act in different ways according to the situation
d. permanent personality tendencies that determine our behaviour in any situation
23. Sheldon’s theory that people with different body types have different personalities
has been:
a. supported by research
b. discredited
c. shown to be accurate for thin people but not overweight people
d. shown to be accurate for women but not for men
24. Which of the following is not a defence mechanism?
a. projection
b. regression
c. ingratiation
d. sublimation
25. Rohan is self-disciplined, focused on achievement and keen to do his duty. He would be
expected to score highly on:
a. neuroticism
b. agreeableness
c. extraversion
d. conscientiousness
26. The Barnum effect helps to explain people’s belief in:
a. fortune-telling
b. astrology
c. horoscopes
d. all the above
27. ________ are the basic biological units that transmit characteristics from one generation
to the next:
a. genes
b. neurons
c. glia
d. instincts
28. Which of the following would NOT be useful to a behavioural geneticist?
a. family studies
b. case studies
c. adoption studies
d. twin studies
29. According to Freud, the id is to the ________ principle as the ego is to the ________
principle.
a. aggressive, sexual
b. sexual, aggressive
c. pleasure, reality
d. reality, pleasure
30. Lana is friendly, always willing to help others and compassionate. We would expect Lana
to score highly on:
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. neuroticism
d. openness to experience
Answers:
1. b
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. a
6. d
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. c
11. d
12. c
13. a
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. d
20. a
21. c
22. b
23. b
24. c
25. d
26. d
27. a
28. b
29. c
30. b
Chapter 2: Motivation & emotion
1. Mood is defined as
a. a short-lived feeling
b. being depressed for more than 1 month
c. a prevailing state of feeling
d. a temporary depression
Answer: C
2. Which of these supports the James-Lange theory of emotion?
a. emotion is a visceral response producing a behavioural response
b. artificial induction of visceral changes does not necessarily produce emotion
c. the viscera are ‘insensitive structures’
d. visceral changes are the same in many emotions
Answer: A
3. The direct emotional circuit controlling fear comprises
a. eye, thalamus, sensory cortex, hippocampus, prefrontal cortex
b. eye, thalamus, amygdala, hypothalamus
 c. eye, hypothalamus, visual cortex, striatum
d. eye, geniculate nucleus, hippocampus, prefrontal cortex
Answer: B
4. Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with depression?
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. septomin
d. glutamate
Answer: A
5. Which of the following is NOT an example of an intrinsically motivated activity?
a. eating a pie because you like pie
b. playing with a toy for the fun of it
c. revising for an exam to get a good grade
d. reading a book because you enjoy the story
Answer: C
6. According to Gray (1972), there are two types of personalities, specifically
a. those that are repelled by positive stimuli and those that are attracted to negative
stimuli
b. those that are attracted to rewarding stimuli and those that tend to avoid aversive
stimuli
c. those that are motivated by greed and those that are motivated by altruism
d. those that believe in simple binary divisions of personality and those that don’t
Answer: B
7. Which of the following are NOT TRUE of motivation?
a. it is the drive, incentive or interest to initiate, perform or maintain a behaviour
b. it is independent of emotion or cognition
c. it is a preparatory phase prior to action
d. it may be influenced by rewards and punishments
Answer: B
8. According to the revised reinforcement sensitivity theory (Gray and McNaughton, 2000),
the behavioural inhibition system (BIS)
a. detects goal conflict between reward and punishment
b. gives one a sensitivity to punishment
c. gives one a sensitivity to reward
d. encourages inhibition of reward seeking
Answer: A
9. Why do those with orbitofrontal cortex damage perform poorly on the Iowa gambling
task?
a. choices made are random
b. inability to respond flexibly
c. motivated by reward only (not losses)
d. sensitive to punishment of loss
Answer: C
10. According to the incentive sensitization theory of addiction (Robinson and Berridge,
1993), increased dopamine as a result of repeated drug use leads to
a. sensitivity to the rewarding aspect of the drug
 b. neural adaptations in the mesolimbic dopamine system
c. increased sensitivity seen as facial reactivity to pleasure in the rat
d. tolerance of the rewarding effect of a drug
Answer: B
11. Self-actualization is the process whereby individuals
a. establish their concept of self
b. become selfless
c. reach their full potential
d. realize their ideal self
Answer: C
12. Matsuda et al. (2008) found that there appeared to be a cultural difference between
Western and Japanese people’s visual interpretations of emotion, specifically that
a. Westerners seem less sensitive to the visual perception of emotion than Japanese
people
b. Japanese people tend to focus on the mouth, while Westerners seem to look at the
eyes
c. Westerners incorporate social context into emotional perception, while Japanese
people tend to see emotions as individual feelings
d. Japanese people tend to interpret emotions in a group context, while Westerners tend
to view emotions in relation to only the individual
Answer: D
13. Psychometric scales are
a. tests used to measure a person’s level of psychopathy
b. an instrument to estimate the mass of a person’s brain
c. survey-type questions that can be used to establish a quantitative measure of a trait,
emotion, mood, etc.
d. questions that assess a person’s level of latent psychic ability
Answer: C
14. Which region of the brain appears to be responsible for the freeze response to a fear
stimulus?
a. the hypothalamus
b. the periaqueductal grey matter
c. the orbitofrontal cortex
d. the anterior cingulate cortex
Answer: B
15. Which of the following brain regions has NOT been identified by researchers as being
activated in response to pleasurable emotions
a. the anterior cingulate cortex
b. the orbitofrontal cortex
c. the insular cortex
d. the medulla oblongata
Answer: D
16. A cognitive process that starts with simple processes and builds to the more-complex
higher levels is known as
a. bottom–up processing
b. lateral processing
c. internal processing
 d. top–down processing
Answer: A
17. Deliberately reinterpreting an event with the intention of modifying the emotional
response to it is known as
a. cognitive distortion
b. cognitive suppression
c. cognitive reappraisal
d. cognitive control
Answer: C
18. The emotional processing explanation of post-traumatic stress disorder suggests that the
patient
a. has a cognitive bias that the world is dangerous
b. has a tendency to avoid situations that remind him/her of the trauma
c. has repressed emotional responses
d. has an inability to recognize fear in others
Answer: A
19. Which of the following best describes the concept of an emotion?
a. a response to an external or internal stimulus with the purpose of motivating an action
or behaviour
b. an enduring or recurrent state with no specific causes
c. the mental representation of general feelings within an individual
d. a highly illogical concept, captain
Answer: A
20. TMS is a technique to manipulate activity in a particular brain regions. TMS stands for
a. Transcranial melatonin simulation
b. Transatlantic motivation system
c. Transorbital motor sensitization
d. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
Answer: D

1. Which of the following is a response of the sympathetic nervous system?

a. extra sugar is released into the bloodstream
b. increased perspiration
c. increased respiration
d. all of the above
2. Primary emotions are to the ______ pathway as secondary emotions are to the ________
pathway.
a. mild, intense
b. hard, soft
c. fast, slow
d. pleasant, unpleasant
3. When faced with a stressful situation, men are likely to respond with the:
a. fight or flight response
b. hurt then help response
c. fist and knees response
d. tend and befriend response
4. The adrenal glands release:
a. cortisol
b. epinephrine
c. a and b
d. melatonin
5. The phenomenon of misattribution of arousal (e.g. thinking you are in love when really
you are just scared) is best explained by which theory of emotion?
a. the James-Lange theory
b. the two-factor theory
c. the Cannon-Bard theory
d. the wishful thinking theory
6. Which of the following is NOT a kind of non-verbal communication?
a. facial expression
b. crying
c. swearing
d. tone of voice
7. Which of the following is classed as a basic emotion?
a. guilt
b. shame
c. jealousy
d. disgust
8. The facial feedback hypothesis refers to:
a. the movements of our facial muscles can trigger emotions
b. we can judge someone else’s mood by looking at their face
c. once we know how we are feeling, we change our facial expression
d. some people disguise their emotions if they look in a mirror
9. The ability to control one’s emotions is known as:
a. facial feedback
b. interpersonal intelligence
c. emotional regulation
d. emotional contingency
10. Which is the correct order for the stages of the sexual response cycle?
a orgasm, excitement, plateau, resolution
b excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
c plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
d plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
11. ________ is the main sugar that the body uses for energy.
a. insulin
b. leptin
c. fructose
d. glucose
12. Which eating disorder is characterized by binge eating followed by purging?
a. anorexia nervosa
b. fasting
c. bulimia nervosa
d. 5:2 syndrome
13. When faced with a stressful situation women are likely to respond with the:
a. fight or flight response
b. hurt then help response
 c. fist and knees response
d. tend and befriend response
14. Physical exercise can:
a. lower blood pressure
b. improve muscle strength
c. slow age-related cognitive decline
d. all of the above
15. Which of the following is a human sex hormone?
a. ghrelin
b. estrogen
c. insulin
d. adrenalin
16. The amount of energy we use while at rest is called our:
a. basal metabolic rate
b. resting heart rate
c. relaxing glucose level
d. normal insulin level
17. Social support can have both ________ and ________ effects on our happiness.
a. minimal, continuous
b. maximal, sporadic
c. direct, appreciation
d. indirect, cumulative
18. Before taking a test, Sunni says to his friend “I know I can do well on this test.”
This best illustrates Sunni’s:
a. over-confidence
b. self-efficacy
c. self-doubt
d. peer review
19. People who are experiencing high levels of arousal from one event tend to experience
unrelated emotions more strongly too. This is called:
a. general adaptation syndrome
b. spreading activation
c. the Cannon-Bard hypothesis
d. excitation transfer
20. Both the slow and fast emotional pathways are controlled by the:
a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. frontal cortex
d. amygdala
21. According to the text, what kind of role does material wealth play in determining
happiness?
a. huge
b. significant
c. small
d. non-existent
22. The body mass index (BMI) is calculated using:
a. calorie intake and calorie output
b. activity level and carbohydrate consumption
c. height and weight
d. blood pressure and heart rate
23. According to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, the third stage of our reaction to stress
is:
a. alarm
b. exhaustion
c. resistance
d. mobilization
24. Which 3 structures make up the HPA axis?
a. hypothalamus, pineal gland, anterior gyrus
b. hippocampus, parietal lobe, affective cortex
c. hippocampus, parasympathetic nervous system, adenoids
d. hypothalamus, pituitary, adrenal glands
25. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion:
a. emotional experience and physiological arousal occur at the same time
b. emotional experience precedes physiological arousal
c. physiological arousal precedes emotional experience
d. we cannot experience different emotions
26. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion:
a. emotional experience and physiological arousal occur at the same time
b. emotional experience precedes physiological arousal
c. physiological arousal precedes emotional experience
d. we cannot experience different emotions
27. The most stressful life event included in the Holmes and Rahe Stress Scale is:
a. being sent to jail
b. getting divorced
c. being fired from work
d. death of a spouse
28. Which of the following does NOT influence our feelings of hunger?
a. insulin
b. ghrelin
c. septin
d. leptin
29. Anorexia nervosa is characterised by a(n)
a. distorted body image
b. extremely low body weight
c. obsessive fear of gaining weight
d. all of the above
30. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, emotion equals:
a. arousal plus cognition
b. arousal plus intelligence
c. attribution plus explanation
d. attribution plus cognition

Answers
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
 8. a
9. c
10. b
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. d
15. b
16. a
17. c
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. c
22. c
23. b
24. d
25. a
26. c
27. d
28. c
29. d
30. a
Chapter 3:Cognition:Thinking, Intelligence & language
1. ________ believed in a general intelligence factor.
a. Sternberg
b. Spearman
c. Gardner
d. Thurstone
2. In terms of intelligence:
a. identical twins are more similar to one another than are fraternal twins
b. fraternal twins are more similar to one another than are non-twin siblings
c. adopted children are more similar to their biological parents than their
adoptive parents
d. all of the above statements are true
3. Fluid intelligence tends to ________ with age while crystallized intelligence tends to ________
with age.
a. increase, decrease
b. increase, stay the same
c. decrease, increase
d. decrease, stay the same
4. According to the text, a typical university student has a vocabulary of:
a. approximately 500 words
b. approximately 5000 words
c. approximately 50,000 words
d. more than 100,000 words
5. Chomsky argued that:
a. all languages share a fundamental universal grammar
b. brains contain a language acquisition device
 c. children are born with a knowledge of general rules of syntax
d. all of the above
6. Down syndrome is caused by:
a. a brain injury during birth
b. a chromosomal disorder
c. poor education
d. a viral infection during childhood
7. On average, women typically outperform men on tests of:
a. spelling
b. mental rotation
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
8. Which of the following is NOT one of Sternberg’s triarchic intelligences?
a. creative intelligence
b. practical intelligence
c. fluid intelligence
d. analytical intelligence
9. Research shows that people are more likely to be successful at learning a second
language if:
a. they start learning it as adults
b. they start learning it as children
c. they choose Vietnamese
d. they stop using their first language completely
10. ________ area is to language comprehension as ________ area is to language
production.
a. Wernicke’s, Broca’s
b. Broca’s, Wernicke’s
c. Chomsky’s, Skinner’s
d. Skinner’s, Chomsky’s
11. Three-year old Bonita calls every dog she encounters Rover (the name of her family’s pet dog).
This is an example of:
a. over-emphasis
b. overextension
c. over-stimulation
d. babbling
12. Sternberg’s practical intelligence is pretty much the same as:
a. vocabulary
b. memory
c. mechanical ability
d. common sense
13. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that:
a. scores on intelligence tests have been increasing worldwide for decades
b. identical twins are more similar intellectually than fraternal twins
c. learning a second language seems to increase cognitive abilities
d. language and its structures limit human thought
14. Eight-month old Juan lies in his cot and babbles. Which of the following is his most likely
utterance?
a. “mummy, mummy, mummy”
b. “Juan wants bottle”
c. “la la ba oo”
d. “Mary had a little lamb”
15. A man may do poorly on a spelling test not because he lacks spelling ability but because he
knows that men are not expected to do well on spelling tests. This is an example of:
a. test bias
b. gender neutrality
c. stereotype threat
d. the Flynn effect
16. Compared with monolinguals, people who are bilingual usually have:
a. more cognitive flexibility
b. superior cognitive functioning
c. better analytical skills
d. all of the above
17. If a proposed intelligence test turned out to really be a test of patience rather than intelligence,
it would be criticized for having:
a. low reliability
b. low construct validity
c. low consistency
d. low consistent validity
18. The smallest unit of sound that makes a meaningful difference in language is called a:
a. sound
b. unit
c. phoneme
d. syntactic phrase
19. People who believe in eugenics would be most likely to support:
a. programs that encourage university graduates to start a family
b. free contraception for people with a degree
c. free childcare for people who perform poorly on intelligence tests
d. extended maternity leave for women who have been shown to have a low IQ
20. In the area of intelligence, WAIS stands for:
a. Wernicke Aphasic Intelligence Scale
b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
c. Wechsler Aptitude and Intelligence Scale
d. Wernicke Approximate Intelligence Scale
21. Which of the following is NOT supported by research data?
a. brain size is positively correlated with intelligence
b. the number of neurons in a brain is positively correlated with intelligence
c. thickness of the cortex is positively correlated with intelligence
d. having a bigger brain makes people smarter
22. Interpersonal intelligence includes the ability to understand:
a. one’s own emotions
b. how context affects performance on vocabulary tests
c. other people’s emotions
d. the role of schooling in conversational ability
23. If an intelligence test is reliable, you would expect people to:
a. be able to cheat on the test
b. get a better score each time they write the test
c. get a similar score each time they write the test
d. take longer to write the test if they take it again
24. Divergent thinking is to ________ ________ as convergent thinking is to ________ ________.
a. one solution, many solutions
b. many solutions, one solution
 c. mathematical ability, verbal ability
d. extrinsic motivation, intrinsic motivation
25. In order to direct other bees to the location of food sources, honey bees:
a. hum
b. buzz
c. squirt honey
d. dance
26. The term “linguistic relativity” refers to the idea that:
a. some languages are better than others
b. language influences how people think
c. it is easier to talk to family members than friends
d. there are different language families around the world
27. On average men do better than women on tests requiring:
a. spatial ability
b. spelling
c. emotional intelligence
d. pronouncing words
28. Intelligence is normally distributed in the population, this means that:
a. most people have extremely low intelligence
b. most people have extremely high intelligence
c. most people are average in terms of intelligence
d. everyone in the population has approximately the same level of intelligence
29. Which animals have been shown to use language in the same way as people?
a. bonobos
b. chimpanzees
c. vervet monkeys
d. none of the above
30. Misty Coleman is an outstanding ballerina. Which of Gardner’s multiple intelligences is she most
clearly demonstrating when she dances?
a. naturalistic
b. linguistic
c. logico-mathematic
d. kinesthetic

Answers
1. b
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. b
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. c
16. d
 17. b
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. c
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. d
30. d

Thinking & problem solving:

1. The Tower of London problem-solving task was developed by

a. Shackleton (1982)
b. Shallice (1982)
c. Sheriff (1982)
d. Sherrington (1982)
Answer: B
2. The process of breaking down goals into subgoals is termed
a. means–ends analysis
b. initial-desired state analysis
c. subgoal appropriation
d. subgoal potentiation
Answer: A
3. According to Newell and Simon, a problem-solver
a. analyzes all possible solutions before beginning
b. attempts to resolve differences between problem states
c. works backwards from the goal state
d. prioritizes subgoals
Answer: B
4. What computer programme did Newell and Simon create to validate their theory?
a. general purpose solution
b. general problem solver
c. deep blue
d. enigma machine
Answer: B
5. A challenge to Newell and Simon’s problem-solving theory is that
a. experts mostly use means–ends analysis
b. novices mostly use means–ends analysis
c. experts do not always use means–ends analysis
d. novices do not always use means–ends analysis
Answer: C
6. Answers that appear out of the blue to solve problems are
a. flashbulbs
b. impasses
c. impressive
d. insights
Answer: D
7. Difficulty seeing the solution to a problem is
a. an insight
b. an impasse
c. blindsight
d. means analysis
Answer: B
8. Which is NOT a type of reasoning?
a. probabilistic
b. inductive
c. ordinate
d. deductive
Answer: C
9. Bayes’ theorem can be used to calculate
a. possibility
b. probability
c. information criterion
d. means–ends differences
Answer: B
10. A heuristic is
a. a rule of thumb
b. a protocol
c. a strategy
d. an error
Answer: A

Intelligence:
1. What did Galton argue was the indicator of intelligence?
a. intelligence tests
b. percept–reality distinction
c. sensory discrimination
d. the size of the brain
Answer: C
2. What spurred the development of Binet’s intelligence test?
a. the French Revolution
b. the French government’s aim to develop the first intelligence test
c. the French government’s aim to develop a eugenic society
d. the French government’s aim to identify children who are less able
Answer: D
3. The reporting of which uncomfortable ‘fact’ resulted from Yerkes’ mass measurement of
IQ during the First World War?
 a. IQ measures are unreliable and can result in incorrect labelling of individuals
b. the average citizen of the USA had an IQ score equivalent to someone with learning
difficulties
c. the average citizen of the USA had an IQ score higher than the average score of
people in Europe
d. the average citizen of the USA had an IQ score lower than the average score of people
in Europe
Answer: B
4. What does IQ, the numerical measure of intelligence given by the performance in an
intelligence test, stand for?
a. intelligence quota
b. irrelevant questions
c. intelligence quotient
d. intelligence questions
Answer: C
5. The idea of selective breeding to diminish undesirable genetics from gene pools to prevent
them from being inherited through generations is referred to as what?
a. natural selection
b. ethnic cleansing
c. survival of the fittest
d. eugenics
Answer: D
6. Spearman’s finding that one person’s results on a variety of different cognitive tests tend to
be consistent with each other is referred to as
a. positive manifold
b. positive interrelation
c. positive correlation
d. positive intelligence
Answer: C
7. What statistical test did Spearman develop and use to assess whether intelligence is
underpinned by one or many factors?
a. multivariate analysis
b. analysis of variance
c. factor analysis
d. parametrics
Answer: C
8. What was Binet’s criticism of Spearman’s perspective on intelligence?
Different individuals could obtain ______ scores, which may be reflected in ______ types of
abilities.
a. identical, different
b. different, identical
c. average, higher-order
d. higher-order, average
Answer: A
9. How many mental abilities did Thurstone suggest constituted intelligence?
a. 5
b. 6
 c. 7
d. 8
Answer: C
10. Those supporting the existence of a uniting ‘g factor’ underpinning intelligence, by
implication, also believe
a. intelligence is predominantly hereditary and can be measured psychometrically
b. intelligence is predominantly environmentally determined and is mutable
c. intelligence is changeable and not related to environment or heredity
d. intelligence is multifaceted and not measurable by a single indicator
Answer: A
11. What term is given to a group of instruments that have been developed for measuring
mental characteristics?
a. psychoanalytic tests
b. psychosomatic tests
c. psychometric tests
d. psychopathological tests
Answer: C
12. What is a key criticism of instruments that may be used to measure intelligence?
a. these instruments cannot be standardized
b. these instruments have no discriminatory power
c. these instruments are not subjected to rigorous testing
d. these instruments cannot capture all types of intelligence
Answer: D
13. What is the Flynn effect?
a. the average IQ score of people is slowly but steadily going down over time
b. the average IQ score of people is slowly but steadily going up over time
c. an individual’s IQ score can be used to predict his/her future income
d. people with high IQ scores have been shown to be happier than people with low IQ
scores
Answer: B
14. The systematic bias of early military tests identified White Americans as having what
mental age?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
Answer: D
15. The average IQ score for a population will be
a. usually around 100
b. slightly higher each time it is tested
c. slightly lower each time it is tested
d. 100 by definition
Answer: D
16. Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner’s intelligences?
a. emotional intelligence
b. linguistic intelligence
 c. musical intelligence
d. spatial intelligence
Answer: A
17. Shakeshaft et al.’s (2015) study noted that there was a ‘clear familial effect’ for high
intelligence. This was put down to
a. environmental factors
b. genetic factors
c. a combination of environmental and genetic factors
d. experimental confounding factors
Answer: C
18. Salthouse (2009) noted that IQ peaks during what period of life?
a. between the ages of 10 and 13
b. between the end of adolescence and the early twenties
c. in the mid-thirties
d. between the ages of 40 and 50
Answer: B
19. Which of the following can negatively affect measures of intelligence?
a. depression
b. substance use
c. sleep disorders
d. all of these
Answer: D
20. Higher intelligence appears to correlate with which of the following?
a. living longer
b. having a diagnosis of ADHD
c. having a diagnosis of anxiety or other mood disorders
d. all of these
Answer: D

Language:
1. Which of the following is used to describe objective reflection on the nature of language?
a. psycholinguistics
b. metalinguistic reasoning
c. morphological pragmatics
d. linguistic relativity
Answer: B
2. Psycholinguists generally consider that there are three stages in language production.
Which of the following best describes them in the correct order?
a. grammatical encoding, conceptualization, phonological/orthographic encoding
b. conceptualization, morphological encoding, grammatical encoding
c. conceptualization, grammatical encoding, phonological/orthographic encoding
d. phonological bootstrapping, grammatical encoding, orthographic encoding
Answer: C
3. A language that has a consistent relationship between graphemes and sounds can be said to
a. be logosyllabic
 b. have a shallow or transparent orthography
c. have a deep orthography
d. be phonologically regular
Answer: B
4. A ‘garden-path’ sentence can be described as
a. a sentence with a structure that leads to initial misinterpretation and subsequent
reanalysis
b. a sentence that is ambiguously worded so as to elicit an understanding of the reader’s
psychological characteristics
c. a sentence that is structured so that the reader, having only read the beginning, is able
to correctly predict the later phrasing
d. a sentence that appears initially to have meaning but that is in fact grammatically
nonsensical
Answer: A
5. Garden-path sentences can be used to demonstrate that
a. we consciously parse sentences only once we have complete information
b. we comprehend sentences with strategies of which we are not consciously aware once
we have read the whole sentence
c. we process verbs before the nouns to which they relate
d. we parse continuously while reading, using unconscious strategies without waiting for
the end of a sentence
Answer: D
6. Noam Chomsky suggested which of the following?
a. there is no fundamental ability for language when a child is born, and it is acquired
through subsequent exposure to speech
b. children acquire language in different ways and at different rates depending on the
culture into which they are born
c. there is an innate human ability to acquire language
d. children learn language as the product of positive reinforcement
Answer: C
7. The ‘linguistic relativity hypothesis’ proposes that
a. some or all of the differences in the way we think and perceive the world arise from
differences in the structure of the language we speak
b. some languages are more efficient than others in the representation of the nature of
reality
c. understanding and perception of the world are fundamental and not related to the
nature of the language we speak
d. it is not possible to translate directly from one language into another and some
reinterpretation is always necessary
Answer: A
8. According to the Simple View of Reading (Hoover & Gough, 1990), what are the two
dissociable components that must be mastered to acquire literacy?
a. phonological awareness and fluency
b. sight vocabulary and pattern recognition
c. decoding and language comprehension
d. prosody and phonological comprehension
Answer: C
9. In which phase of reading and spelling acquisition are children likely to decode only the
first few letters of a word and guess the remainder?
a. the pre-alphabetic phase
b. the consolidated alphabetic phase
c. the full alphabetic phase
d. the partial alphabetic phase
Answer: D
10. ‘Developmental dyslexia’ is best described as
a. a difficulty with reading and writing, which is the result of a lack of access to
education
b. a syndrome with a complex neurological basis, which affects a range of different
areas of cognition
c. a problem that mainly affects a person’s ability to spell words correctly
d. a symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Answer: D

Chapter 4: Statistics in Psychology

1. Statistical procedures used in describing the properties of samples or of populations
where complete population data are available, are referred to as:
(a) Inferential Statistics
(b) Descriptive Statistics
(c) Parameter
(d) Population
2. Statistical procedures used in the drawing of inferences about the properties of
populations from sample data are frequently referred to as:
(a) Inferential Statistics
(b) Population
(c) Descriptive Statistics
(d) Sample
3. A parameter is a property descriptive of:
(a) Sample
(b) Group
(c) Crowd
(d) Population
4. A property of a sample drawn at random from a population is known as:
(a) Estimate
(b) Data
(c) Statistics
(d) Scores
5. A psychologist wants to make a statement about the mean IQ in the complete
population of students in a particular university from a knowledge of the mean
completed on the sample of 100 and to estimate the error involved in this statement. For
this purpose, he will use procedures from:
(a) Mathematics
(b) Geometry
(c) Geography
(d) Inferential Statistics
6. The term which refers to a property whereby the members of a group or set differ
one from another is called:
(a) Data
(b) Variable
(c) Score
(d) Measurement
7. The term which refers to a property whereby the members of a group do not differ
from one another is called:
(a) Constant
(b) Variable
(c) Data
(d) Score
8. Sex is a:
(a) Variable
(b) Score
(c) Socio Economic Status
(d) Symbol
9. The particular values of a variable are referred to as:
(a) Score
(b) Variates or Variate Values
(c) Data
(d) Measurement
(e) None of the above
10. When we consider the height of adult males, height is the variable. But the height of
any particular individual is a:
(a) Variate
(b) Data
(c) Score
(d) Scale
11. The branch which deals with collection, analysis and interpretation of data obtained
by conducting a survey or an experimental study is known as:
(a) Psychology
(b) Statistics
(c) Sociology
(d) Mathematics
12. Statistical inference is concerned with derivation of Scientific inference about
generalization of results from:
(a) The study of a few particular cases
(b) The study of population as a whole
(c) The study of a random group
(d) The study of the entire population of the world.
13. The branch of mathematical statistics which deals with measurement of the extent of
certainty of events whose occurence depends on chance is popularly known as:
(a) Variable
(b) Probability
(c) Correlation
(d) Measures of Central Tendency
14. A fraction of a population drawn by using a suitable method so that it can be
regarded representative of the entire population is known as:
(a) Variable
(b) Estimate
(c) Group
(d) Sample
15. When the number of individual members is finite, it is known as:
(a) Sample
(b) Finite population
(c) Infinite population
(d) Group
16. We study the properties of a population in terms of some:
(a) Variable
(b) Data
(c) Scores
(d) Scales
17. The numerical quantities which characterise a population arc called:
(a) Parameters
(b) Statistics
(c) Data
(d) Scores
18. All the important characteristics of a population can be specified in terms of a few:
(a) Parameters
(b) Scores
(c) Data
(d) Statistics
19. The Characteristics on which individuals differ among themselves is called a:
(a) Variable
(b) Score
(c) Data
(d) Measurement
20. Whenever the measurement of a variable is possible on a scale in some appropriate
units, it is called a:
(a) Qualitative Variable
(b) Quantitative Variable
(c) Scans
(d) Data
21. Discrete variable is otherwise known as:
(a) Discontinous variable
(b) Continuous variable
(c) Qualitative variable
(d) Scores
22. Generally, measurements of a discrete variable are obtained by:
(a) Measurement
(b) Scales
(c) Counting
(d) Estimate
23. When the values of variables differ from one another by definite amounts, it is
called:
(a) Discete variables
(b) Continuous variable
(c) Dependent variables
(d) Control variables
24. A variable which can theoretically assume all values within a certain interval and as
such are divisible into smaller and smaller fractional units is known as:
(a) Discrete Variable
(b) Continuous Variable
(c) Qualitative variable
(d) Score
25. The variable which shows variation in objects not in terms of magnitude, but in
quality or kind is popularly known as:
(a) Quantitative variable
(b) Qualitative variable
(c) Score
(d) Continuous variable
26. Which variable is unmeasurable with a scale and as such is unexpressible in
magnitude?
(a) Qualitative variable
(b) Quantitative variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) Discrete variable
27. Sex, nationality, occupation, religion, marital status are examples of:
(a) Quantitative variable
(b) Qualitative variable
(c) Discontinuous variable
(d) Continuous variable
28. The Scale, where absolute zero point is known, is popularly known as:
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Ratio Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Nominal Scale
29. Weight, length, time and speed are some variables which can be measured on:
(a) Ratio Scale
(b) Interval Scales
(c) Nominal Scales
(d) Ordinal Scales
30. The scales where the absolute zero point is unknown are termed as:
(a) Interval scales
(b) Ratio Scales
(c) Nominal Scales
(d) Ordinal Scales
31. When the classification is done with respect to one attribute which is dichotomous in
nature is known as:
(a) Simple Classification
(b) Complex Classification
(c) Monotonous Classification
(d) Real Classification
32. The related facts or observations which are grouped into classes or categories are
known as:
(a) Variable
(b) Classification
(c) Fact
(d) Data
33. The process of summarizing classified data in the form of a table is known as:
(a) Tabulation
(b) Classification
(c) Variation
(d) Assimilation
34. A table which contains data on two characteristics is called a:
(a) Bivariate table
(b) Simple Table
(c) Univariate Table
(d) Complex Table
35. When the data are depicted pictorially or graphically, we call it:
(a) Graphical Presentation of the Data
(b) Mathematical Presentation of Data
(c) A picture
(d) A geometric figure
36. A set of rectangles whose arcs were in Proportion to class frequencies is known as:
(a) polygon
(b) Histogram
(c) Ogive
(d) Cumulative Frequency Curve
37. If a curve has a long tail on right side, it is called:
(a) A positively skewed curve
(b) A negatively skewed curve
(c) An Ogive
(d) A smoothed curve
38. A curve having a long tail on the left is called:
(a) An ogive
(b) A negatively skewed curve
(c) A frequency polygon
(d) A histogram
39. When the classification is made according to similarity or difference observed with
respect to some characteristics or properties, it is in:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
40. When the people are classified like Blue- elyed, Black-eyed, Brown-eyed etc., they
are in:
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Interval Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
41. Ranking order or Merit position are involved in:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
42. Rank order co-efficient of correlation can be easily calculated when the data are in:
(a) Interval Scale
(b) Ratio Scale
(c) Nominal Scale
(d) Ordinal Scale
43. Centigrade thermometers and scores on intelligence lest come under:
(a) Ordinal Scale
(b) Interval Scale
(c) Ratio Scale
(d) Nominal Scale
44. In Psychology and Education, we come across measurement data heavily dependent
upon:
(a) Nominal Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
45. Which scale has a true zero point and constitutes the highest type of scale in terms of
measurement?
(a) Nominal Scale
(b) Ordinal Scale
(c) Interval Scale
(d) Ratio Scale
46. The numerical facts such as measurement of height, weight and scores on
intelligence are known as:
(a) Fact
(b) Data
(c) Scale
(d) Score
47. Grouped data or Frequency Distribution may be represented graphically through
(a) Histogram
(b) Polygon
(c) Cumulative Frequency graph
(d) All of the above
48. Which one is the simplest but most useful measure of central tendency?
(a) Median
(b) Arithmetic Mean
(c) Mode
(d) None of these
50. What is the Mean of the following ungrouped data? Scores: 3, 2; 1, 4, 5:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
51. The Arithmatic Mean of the following Frequency Distribution is:
Scores f
95-99 2
90-94 4
85-89 6
80-84 8
75-79 10
70-74 8
65-69 6
60-64 4
55-59 2
Total N = 50
(a) 87.00
(b) 91.00
(c) 77.00
(d) 67.00
52. The point on the score scale which 50 per cent of the scores fall is called:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Median
(d) None of the above
53. The Median (Mdn) of the following ungrouped data is: Scores: 7, 8, 5, 0, 3, 4, 6
(a) 5.00
(b) 4.00
(c) 6.00
(d) 7.00
54. The Score which occurs most frequently is called:
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
55. The Median of the following frequency distribution will be:
Scores f
95-99 2
90-94 4
85-89 6
80-84 8
75-79 10
70-74 8
65-69 6
60-64 4
55-59 2
Total N = 50
(a) 77.00
(b) 67.00
(c) 57.00
(d) 97.00
56. The Median (Mdn) of the following ungrouped data will be: Scores: 2, 4, 6, 9, 18, 37,
49
(a) 9.00
(b) 6.00
(c) 37.00
(d) 18.00
57. The Median (Mdn) of the following ungrouped data will be: Scores: 0, 5, 9, 13, 14, 16
(a) 11.00
(b) 10.00
(c) 13.00
(d) 16.00
58. The mode of the following ungrouped data is:
2, 6, 9, 2, 5, 10, 3, 2, 1
(a) 1.00
(b) 9.00
(c) 5.00
(d) 2.00
59. The mean of a frequency distribution is 24.00 and Mdn is 28.00. What will be the
mode?
(a) 84.00
(b) 72.00
(c) 48.00
(d) 36.00
60. The formula for finding out Mode from a frequency distribution is:
(a) 3Mdn — 2Mn
(b) 2Mdn —3Mn
(c) 2Mn—3Mdn
(d) 3Mn—2Mdn
61. Below are given mental age of 9 students in a class: 7, 10, 6, 8, 13, 9, 10, 11 and 6
locate the median mental age
(a) 4.00
(b) 6.00
(c) 9.00
(d) 10.00
62. The mental ages of 8 students are given below: 7, 10, 6, 8, 13, 9, 10 and 11 Find out
the median mental age
(a) 6.50
(b) 7.50
(c) 8.50
(d) 9.50
63. The value in a series of observations which occurs with highest frequency is called:
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) Standard Deviation
64. Find out the Mode of the following frequency distribution without any mathematical
calculation:
Scores f
105-109 2
100-104 4
95-99 6
90-94 8
85-89 10
80-84 8
75-79 6
70-74 4
65-69 2
Total N = 50
(a) 87.00
(b) 67.00
(c) 37.00
(d) 102.00
65. Which measure of central tendency has the greatest stability?
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) All of these
66. Which measure of central tendency can be given an algebraic treatment and is
better suited to further arithmetical computation?
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) All of these
67. Which measure of central tendency is not appropriate when the series have extreme
items?
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Crude Mode
(d) Mean
68. When the exact mid-point of the distribution is desired, the best measure of central
tendency is:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these
69. What is the Mean, Median and Mode of the following distribution? Calculate
without using paper and pencil.
Scores f
90-94 2
85-89 4
80-84 6
75-79 8
70-74 10
65-69 8
60-64 6
55-59 4
50-54 2
Total N = 50
(a) 72.00
(b) 67.00
(c) 57.00
(d) 62.00
[N.B: Here Mean = Median Model
70. Which measure of central tendency can be calculated graphically if we have suitable
graphs like frequency curve, polygon and Ogive etc.:
(a) Mode
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) All of these
71. Which measure of central tendency is specifically useful for the data the items of
which cannot be measured quantitatively?
(a) Mode
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) All of these
72. Which Measure of Central Tendency can be computed by just having a look at the
data?
(a) Crude Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
73. Where a quick and approximate measure of central Tendency is desired, we,
generally, compute:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) All of these
74. When data are grouped into a frequency distribution, the mid-point of that interval
which contains the largest frequency is called:
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
75. Which one of the following is approximately equal to the True Mode?
(a) Crude Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) None of these
76. Which one of the following is an unstable measure of Central Tendency?
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Crude Mode
(d) None of these
77. When the scores are distributed symmetrically around a central point and the distri-
bution is not badly skewed, we generally compute:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these
78. Curmulative percentage Frequency curve is otherwise known as:
(a) Histogram
(b) Polygon
(c) Line graph
(d) Ogive
79. The exact limit of the class interval (10-14) is:
(a) (9.50-14.50)
(b) (9-15)
(c) (10.50-14.50)
(d) (10.50-15.50)
80. The Square root of 2.00 is:
(a) 1.513
(b) 1.414
(c) 2.103
(d) 1.313
81. When the group is made up of individuals of nearly the same ability it is called:
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Complex
(d) None of the above
82. The interval between the highest and the lowest score is popularly known as:
(a) Range
(b) S.D.
(c) Quartile Deviation (Q)
(d) Mean Deviation (A.D.)
83. If the highest score is 89 and the lowest score is 19, the range (R) is:
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 70
84. The one-half of scale distance between the 75th and 25th percentiles in a frequency
distribution is known as:
(a) Range
(b) Standard Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Average Deviation
85. Q (Quartile Deviation) is calculated by the formula:
(a) Q3-Q2/2
(b) Q3-Q1/2
(c) Q,-Q2/2
(d) Q3-Q,/2
86. Q3 of a distribution is 24.00 and Q1 is 18.00 what will be Q (Quartile Deviation)?
(a) 3.00
(b) 2.00
(c) 6.00
(d) 12.00
87. Q2 is otherwise known as:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Median
(d) Co-efficient of correlation
88. The distance between Q1 and Q3 in a distribution is otherwise known as:
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Range
(d) Interquartile Range
89. The average deviation is otherwise known as:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mean Deviation (M.D)
(d) Standard Deviation (SD)
90. The most stable index of variability is:
(a) Average Deviation
(b) Standard Deviation
(c) Range
(d) Median
91. The measure of variability which is customarily employed in experimental work and
in research studies is:
(a) Standard Deviation
(b) Average Deviation
(c) Median
(d) Range
93. The AD for the following series is: Scores 2, 5, 9, 10, 15 and 19
(a) 5.85
(b) 4.67
(c) 3.87
(d) 4.87
94. The SD for the following series is: Scores 2, 5, 9, 10, 15 and 19
(a) 5.70
(b) 6.90
(c) 4.70
(d) 3.90
95. The S.D of the original scores 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 is 2.414. What will be the S.D, when a
constant number i.e. 5 is added to each score?
(a) 2.441
(b) 2.414
(c) 3.414
(d) 7.414
96. When the data are too scattered to justify the computation of a more precise
measure of variability, we generally use:
(a) S.D
(b) Range
(c) A.D
(d) Quartile Deviation
97. When it is desired to weight all deviations from the mean according to their size, we
use:
(a) A.D
(b) S.D
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Range
98. The measurement of variability which we use as a unit of the scale of measurement
in a normal distribution is:
(a) A.D
(b) Standard Deviation
(c) Range
(d) Quartile Deviation
99. Experiments vary along a continuum from true experiments at one end to:
(a) Correlational or Observational studies at the other end
(b) Situational studies at the other end
(c) Clinical studies at the other end
(d) Artificial studies at the other end
(e) None of the above
100. A variable that is correlated with the independent variable and thus can be
responsible for the effect in question is known as:
(a) Independent Variable
(b) Dependent Variable
(c) Controlled Variable
(d) Confounded Variable
(e) None of the above

Answers
1.(b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15.
(b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28.
(b) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41.
(b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (e) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54.
(a) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67.
(d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80.
(b) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (b) 93.
(b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (d)