Sheth NKKT college thane

Department of Psychology
FYBA Sem I Psychology: Objective by Prof. Sachin Sutar
Chapter 1.Science of psychology
1. Statements based on the systematic collection of data are:
a. empirical
b. dialectic
c. empathic
d. false

2. The goal of correlational research is to:

a. assess the causal impact of one variable on another
b. create a snapshot of what’s happening
c. assess relationships between variables
d. all of the above
aa
3. A study of the feeding behaviour of a group of wild monkeys in India would be an example of:
a. a survey
b. naturalistic observation
c. a correlation
d. an experiment

4. If income and happiness are positively correlated then a person with a low income would be
predicted to be:
a. not depressed at all
b. less depressed than a person with a high income
c. more depressed than a person with a high income
d. cannot make a prediction from correlational data

5. Descriptive statistics aim to:

a. explain
b. confuse
c. complicate
d. summarize

6. In a ________ experiment neither the researcher nor the participants know which condition
participants are in.
a. blind
b. double-blind
c. random
d. confounded

7. A researcher is interested in the impact of anxiety on performance. In order to manipulate

anxiety, they have some subjects eat plain chips while others eat barbecue flavoured chips. The
most obvious problem with this experiment is a lack of :
a. statistical validity
b. empirical validity
c. internal validity
d. construct validity

8. A strength of correlational designs is that they:

a. can demonstrate causation
b. do not require ethics board approval
c. can be used with variables which cannot be manipulated by a researcher
d. are more intrusive than experimental designs

9. A researcher uses an experimental design to study the effect of music on memory. In this
experiment, the Independent Variable is:
a. music
b. memory
c. both music and memory
d. neither music nor memory

10. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good theory?
a. it is parsimonious
b. it is falsifiable
c. it is common sense
d. it is general

11. Empirical statements are based on:

a. belief
b. data
c. intuition
d. common sense

12. Informed consent is typically obtained:

a. during an experiment
b. before an experiment
c. after an experiment
d. it is not typical to obtain informed consent

13. Creating equivalence among research participants is vital for:

a. experimental research
b. correlational research
c. descriptive research
d. equivalence is never vital

14. A researcher is interested in whether the results of her experiment (conducted in Canada)
would be the same if the experiment were conducted in China. This researcher is concerned with:
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. statistical validity
d. none of the above

15. Standard deviation is a measure of:

a. range
b. central tendency
c. inference
d. dispersion

16. Generalization is a key issue in:

a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. a double-blind experiment
d. a single-blind experiment

17. In an experiment examining the effect of mood on intelligence participants are randomly
assigned to watch either a funny movie or a sad movie before they complete an IQ test. The funny
movie is shown in a classroom, while the sad movie is shown in the student lounge. The most
obvious problem with this experiment is:
a. lack of statistical validity
b. the IV is confounded
c. the use of random assignment
d. none of the above

18. In an experiment the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measure the
________ variable.
a. independent, dependent
b. dependent, independent
c. causal, spurious
d. spurious, causal

19. The more exercise a person takes the fewer medical problems they report. This is an example
of:
a. a curvilinear relationship
b. statistical independence
c. a positive correlation
d. a negative correlation

20. In a normal distribution most scores are located:

a. at the high end of the distribution
b. at the low end of the distribution
c. in the centre of the distribution
d. at the extremes of the distribution

21. Data from a correlational study is usually shown as a:

a. scatterplot
b. pie chart
c. bar graph
d. b or c

22. A researcher plans to assess intelligence by counting the number of times participants
can hop on one leg in 60 seconds. An obvious problem with this is:
a. lack of statistical validity
b. number of hops is too subjective
c. lack of construct validity
d. lack of significance

23. A double-blind study is used to minimize the impact of:

a. experimenter bias
b. expectancy effects
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

24. Correlation coefficients range from:

a. r = -1 to r = +1
b. r = 0 to r = +1
c. r = -1 to r = 0
d. r = +.5 to r = +1

25. In an experiment randomly assigned, participants drank wine or water. All participants then
completed an anxiety questionnaire. In this experiment the IV was:
a. the results of the memory test
b. the participants
c. the random assignment
d. what the participants drank

26. Research shows that the older a person is, the larger their vocabulary. This is an example of a :
a. positive correlation
b. negative correlation
c. causal correlation
d. partial correlation

27. Three commonly used measures of central tendency are:

a. range, standard deviation, median,
b. median, mode, dispersion
c. mode, median, standard deviation
d. median, mode, mean

28. Dr. Maki questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an example
of a(n)
a. experiment
b. survey
c. case study
d. manipulation

29. In an experiment looking at the effect of heat on performance, participants were randomly
assigned to spend 20 minutes in a hot room painted blue or to spend 20 minutes in a cold room
painted yellow. In this experiment the IV is confounded by:
a. lack of random sampling
b. the colour of the room
c. performance on the task
d. there is no confound

30. A researcher asks 250 students (from a school with 1000 pupils) to complete a survey about
the cafereria. The 250 students are a:
a. population
b. case study
c. sample
d. variable

Answers:

1. a
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. b
13. a
14. b
15. d
16. b
17. b
18. a
19. d
20. c
21. a
22. c
23. c
24. a
25. d
26. a
27. d
28. b
29. b
30. c

1.Psychology is a _________.

(a) A natural science

(b) A physical science
(c) A biological science
(d) A social science

2. Psychology as a ‘Science of Mind’, defined by _________ school of psychology.

(a) Psychoanalysts
(b) Behaviourists
(c) Functionalists
(d) Ancient Greek Philosophers

3. In the year _________ the Scientific Psychology was first accepted.

(a) 1779
(b) 1679
(c) 1879
(d) 1889

4. Who is the father of Experimental Psychology.

(a) Wilhelm Wundt

(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) C.G. Jung
(d) E.B. Titchener

5. Psychology can be literally defined as the _________.

(a) Science of mind

(b) Science of behaviour
(c) Science of soul
(d) Science of consciousness

6. J.B. Watson, the founder and father of behaviouristic school of psychology defined ‘Psychology’ as the
science of_________.

(a) Soul
(b) Consciousness
(c) Mind
(d) Behaviour

7. E.B. Titchener (1867-1927) defined ‘Psychology’ as the science of_________.

(a) Conscious Experience

(b) Science of Mind
(c) Science of Experience
(d) Science of Soul

8. Who defined ‘Psychology’ as the

scientific study of activities of organism
in relation to its environment?

(a) J.BWatson
(b) Sigmund Freud
(c) Wood worth
(d) William James

9. “S-R” concept was first established by

_________.
(a) J.BWatson
(b) Wilhelm Wundt
(c) William James
(d) I.P. Pavlov

10. Rejecting the concept of “S-R” connectionism, further “S-O-R” concept was developed by _________.

(a) Woodworth
(b) C.G. Jung
(c) E.B. Titchener
(d) Sigmund Freud

11. Who defined “Psychology as the science of immediate experience with consciousness being the main
subject matter”?

(a) E.B. Titchener

(b) William James
(c) Sigmund Freud
(d) Wilhelm Wundt

12. Who is the founder and principal proponent of psychoanalysis _________.

(a) Sigmund Freud

(b) E.B Titchener
(c) C.G. Jung
(d) Alfred Adler

13. Who is the psychologist who constructed the first intelligence test?

(a) William James

(b) J. B. Watson
(c) William Mc Dougall
(d) Alfred Binet

14. The occurrence of ‘O’ in ‘S-O-R’concept is responsible in regulating the behavior of the organism and
making psychological activity _________.

(a) Complex
(b) Dynamic
(c) Fixed
(d) Puzzled

15. Anything which evokes a response in the Organism is called.

(a) Stimulus
(b) Thing
(c) Situation
(d) Incidence

16. The method of ‘Field Observation’ is always considered as _________.

(a) Subjective
(b) Complex
(c) Neutral
(d) Objective

17. To study Abnormal Psychology means, to study mainly the nature of _________.

(a) Normality of mind

(b) Unconscious level of mind
(c) Subconscious level of mind
(d) Abnormality of mind

18. Clinical Psychology deals with the practical aspect of _________.

(a) Abnormal Psychology

(b) Educational Psychology
(c) Child Psychology
(d) Experimental Psychology

19. Sigmund Freud is regarded as the father of _________ in psychology.

(a) Gestalt school

(b) Behaviouristic school
(c) Functionalistic school
(d) Psychoanalytic school

20. Ebbinghuas, had done the pioneering experiments on _________.

(a) Perception
(b) Emotion
(c) Memory
(d) Thinking

21. Science is invariably characterised by _________.

(a) Its methodology

(b) Its theory
(c) Its fact
(d) Its hypothesis

22. General psychology deals with _______.

(a) Personality
(b) Development
(c) Intelligent
(d) Fundamentals of all branches of psychology

23. Industrial Psychology is _________.

(a) Theoretical Psychology
(b) Applied Psychology
(c) Educational Psychology
(d) Abnormal Psychology

24. Developmental Psychology studies _________.

(a) Personality
(b) Motivation
(c) Intelligence
(d) Various stages of development of man

25. Abnormal Psychology is concerned with

_________.
(a) Developmental stages of individual
(b) Diagnosis of abnormal behaviour
(c) Abnormal behaviour and its causes
(d) Treatment of abnormal behaviour

26. Social Psychology deals with ________.

(a) Behaviour of an individual at work

(b) Behaviour and experience in social
situations
(c) Behaviour of ethnic groups
(d) Abnormal Behaviour of people

27. Psychology is the science studying the behaviour of _________.

(a) Mankind
(b) Living Organism
(c) Animals
(d) Plants

28. Some of the most useful knowledge of human perception has borrowed from _________.

(a) Chemistry
(b) Physics
(c) Sociology
(d) Zoology

29.A major part of developmental psychology is devoted to the understanding of behaviour of _________.

(a) Children
(b) Adolescents
(c) Women
(d) Old people

30. Who is the founder of ‘Individual

Psychology’?
(a) David Hull
(b) Thorndike
(c) Alfred Binet
(d) Alfred Adler

31. From the following pioneered psychologistwho is associated with Behaviourism?

(a) B.F. Skinner

(b) William James
(c) Megde Arnold
(d) David Hull

32. Who is recognised as the father of psychoanalysis?

(a) Sigmund Freud
(b) Tolman
(c) Alfred Adler
(d) William James

33. Wolf Gang Kohler was associated with _________ school of psychology.

(a) Social Psychology

(b) Gestalt Psychology
(c) Industrial Psychology
(d) Educational Psychology

34. The “Law of effect” was coined by _________.

(a) Skinner
(b) Pavlov
(c) Kohler
(d) Thorndike

35. Archetype is a terminology associated with _________.

(a) Jung
(b) Freud
(c) Adler
(d) Skinner

36. Who established the first experimental psychological laboratory?

(a) Sigmund Freud

(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Evan Pavlov
(d) Wilhelm Wundt

37. Who is the valuable contributor in insightful learning?

(a) Throndike
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Evan Pavlov
(d) Kohler

38. The most pioneered contributor to Behavioural school of psychology is

_________.

(a) Freud
(b) Allport
(c) Watson
(d) Fechner

39. Wilhelm Wundt established the first laboratory of experimental psychology at _________.

(a) Greenwich
(b) Zurich
(c) Leipzig
(d) Munich

40. From the following psychologist, who rejected introspection as a method of psychology _________.

(a) B.F. Skinner

(b) Fulton
(c) Cattell
(d) J.B.Watson

41. In which method of study of psychology, independent and dependent variable are important elements.

(a) Introspection Method

(b) Experimental Method
(c) Observational Method
(d) Case History Method

42. In _________ method of study in psychology, passive study and analysis of human behaviour is
usually done.

(a) Introspection Method

(b) Experimental Method
(c) Observational Method
(d) Genetic Method

43. In the simplest experimental method, ‘E’ manipulates _________.

(a) One Variable

(b) Two Variables
(c) Three Variables
(d) Four Variables

44. What it is called, when more than one independent variable works in an experimental situation.

(a) Situational Crisis

(b) Interaction
(c) Multisituational Effect
(d) Variable Crisis

45. Who has been considered as the father of psychoanalysis method of study
_________?

(a) Sigmund Freud

(b) E.B Titchener
(c) C.G. Jung
(d) Alfred Adler

46. Who has been credited as the first developer of first intelligence test andmade important contributions
to our understanding of the thought process?

(a) William James

(b) Alfred Binet
(c) William McDougall
(d) J.B. Watson

47. The concepts like “Introspection” and “Conscious Experience” are associated with _________.
(a) Functionalism
(b) Behaviourism
(c) Structuralism
(d) Gestalt Psychology

48. A Provisional theory to explain observed facts is known as _________.

(a) Construct
(b) Theory
(c) Hypothesis
(d) Event

49. _________ is the least noticeable value of stimulus.

(a) Stimulus Threshold

(b) Response Threshold
(c) Hypothesis
(d) Problem

50. Which one of the following approaches tries to analyze human behaviour in terms of stimulus-response
units acquired through the process of learning,mainly through instrumental conditioning
.
(a) Cognitive Approach
(b) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic
Approach
(c) Stimulus-Response Behaviouristic
Approach
(d) Existential Approach

Answers

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c)

4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a)
10. (a) 11. (a&d) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a)
22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b)
28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b)
34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c)
40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (c)

1. In the context of psychological experiments, reliability refers to

a. the ability of an experiment to prove a hypothesis
b. the consistency of the results of an experiment
c. the usefulness of the results of an experiment
d. whether the researcher is likely to turn up on time
2. Reactivity refers to the effect whereby
 a. a participant responds to an experimental trial
b. demand characteristics influence participant behaviour
c. a stimulus causes a response
d. people’s behaviour is affected by the knowledge that they are being observed
3. Inferential statistics provide information about
a. mean, medians and modes
b. measures of dispersion
c. the probability that your scores could occur by chance
d. whether you have proved your hypothesis
4. Qualitative data typically come in the form of
a. numbers
b. words
c. measurements
d. frequencies
5. In terms of experimental techniques, ‘content analysis’ refers to
a. measuring the level of happiness of an experimental participant
b. looking at the front pages of a book to determine if it’s worth reading
c. formally categorizing and counting the frequency of things in texts
d. examining what people have in their bags to infer personality characteristics
6. Demand characteristics are
a. the social demands on someone in an experiment
b. the features of a study, which give cues on how someone is meant to behave
c. unwanted influences in an experiment produced by the experimenter
d. the consequences of a self-fulfilling prophecy
7. A double-blind control is an experiment where
a. the participant is not aware of which condition they are in
b. the experimenter is not aware of which condition the participant is in
c. neither the experimenter nor the participant is aware of which condition the
participant is in
d. nobody has got a clue what is going on
8. What are experimenter effects?
a. the social demands on someone in an experiment
b. the features of a study, which give cues on how someone is meant to behave
c. unwanted influences in an experiment produced by the experimenter
d. the consequences of a self-fulfilling prophecy
9. The British Psychological Society has published an ethical code based on four principles.
Two of them are respect and responsibility. The other two are
a. due diligence and integrity
b. competence and integrity
c. due diligence and professionalism
d. professionalism and integrity
10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about ‘neural networks’:
a. they can be used to simulate the way the brain works
b. they use individual, interacting computational units that can communicate
simultaneously
c. they are self-aware entities that have distinct, sometimes malevolent, personalities
11. What is the placebo effect?
 a. the belief that a substance is having an effect even when it isn’t
b. an inactive substance or fake treatment produces a response in the patient
c. a substance has an enhanced effect on a patient due to their belief in its efficacy
d. a substance that fails to work on a patient because of their beliefs about its efficacy
12. It is often NOT possible to carry out double-blind trials of psychological treatments
because
a. there are ethical issues in having a control condition of ‘no treatment’
b. it is sometimes impossible to disguise who is receiving the treatment and who isn’t
c. the trails are conducted by the therapists who are trying to have an effect on the
patients
d. all of these
Answers:
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c)
4. ( b) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b)
10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d)

Chapter 2. Biological perspectives

1. What part of a neuron is responsible for receiving information?
a. axon
b. terminal fibre
c. dendrite
d. myelin sheath
2. Electrical stimulation of the reticular formation would most likely cause an animal to:
a. sneeze
b. become blind
c. wake up if it had been sleeping
d. stop breathing
3. In evolutionary terms, which is the oldest part of the brain?
a. the limbic system
b. the cortex
c. the right hemisphere
d. the brain stem
4. The change in electrical charge that occurs in a neuron when a nerve impulse
is transmitted is known as the:
a. action potential
b. synaptic change
c. refractory period
d. ionic charge
5. Schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease are both linked to changes in which
neurotransmitter?
a. serotonin
b. glutamate
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
6. The limbic system includes the:
a. amygdala, hypothalamus, hippocampus
b. hypothalamus, medulla, hippocampus
 c. hippocampus, pons, thalamus
d. cerebellum, pons, hypothalamus
7. The ________ is to feeling fear as the ________ is to feeling pleasure.
a. pons/medulla
b. amygdala/hypothalamus
c. thalamus/hypothalamus
d. cerebellum/amygdala
8. The effect of neurotransmitters may be:
a. chemical or electrical
b. excitatory or inhibitory
c. positive or negative
d. active or passive
9. The terminal buttons of a neuron are located at the end of its:
a. axon
b. dendrite
c. myelin sheath
d. nodes of ranvier
10. Which lobe is most closely associated with visual processing?
a. frontal
b. temporal
c. parietal
d. occipital
11. Communication within neurons is ______, communication between neurons is
________.
a. excitatory, inhibitory
b. inhibitory, excitatory
c. chemical, electrical
d. electrical, chemical
12. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the brain?
a. frontal
b. dorsal
c. parietal
d. temporal
13. A person who is drunk may have difficulty walking in a straight line because the alcohol
has impacted their:
a. thalamus
b. reticular formation
c. amygdala
d. cerebellum
14. Neurotransmitters carry signals across the ________ ________.
a. refractory gap
b. axonal gap
c. synaptic gap
d. hippocampal gap
15. The poison curare is a(n) ________ for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
a. antagonist
b. protagonist
c. agonist
d. cure
16. Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to impair:
a. memory
b. balance
c. sleep
d. breathing
17. Which part of the limbic system is involved in an animal’s feeling of hunger?
a. thalamus
b. pons
c. hippocampus
d. hypothalamus
18. The ________ ________ consists of glands that secrete hormones:
a. nervous system
b. immune system
c. endocrine system
d. cerebral cortex
19. Testosterone is to ________ as estrogen is to ________.
a. thyroid, parathyroid
b. testes, ovaries
c. sympathetic, parasympathetic
d. pancreas, pituitary
20. What do we call the layer of fatty tissue surrounding the axon of some neurons?
a. cutaneous coating
b. myelin sheath
c. dendritic barrier
d. synaptic sleeve
21. In the context of brain imaging, what does FMRI stand for?
a. fast moving recovery imaging
b. first moveable recording indicator
c. flexible motion resistance indicator
d. functional magnetic resonance imaging
22. Which lobe is primarily responsible for hearing and language?
a. temporal
b. parietal
c. frontal
d. occipital
23. After a car accident, Rhodri had a lot of difficulty planning his day. This is most likely
the
result of damage to which lobe?
a. temporal
b. parietal
c. frontal
d. occipital
24. Which area of the brain-stem controls heart rate and breathing?
a. reticular formation
b. medulla
c. pons
d. thalamus
25. Which structure allows communication between the hemispheres?
a. reticular formation
b. temporal lobe
 c. contralateral bridge
d. corpus callosum
26. Which part of the endocrine system is sometimes called the “master gland”?
a. adrenal gland
b. pancreas
c. pituitary gland
d. pineal gland
27. Which of the following is NOT part of the endocrine system?
a. pons
b. pancreas
c. parathyroid
d. pineal gland
28. Where would you see the nodes of Ranvier?
a. on an axon
b. in the cell body
c. on a dendrite
d. a and c
29. The brain’s ability to change in response to experience or damage is called:
a. lateralization
b. lesioning
c. neuroplasticity
d. functionality
30. Which is the most common neurotransmitter in the brain?
a. serotonin
b. glutamate
c. dopamine
d. GABA

Answers
1. c
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. a
10. d
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. a
20. b
 21. d
22. a
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. c
27. a
28. a
29. c
30. b
1. What part of a neuron is sometimes myelinated?
a. dendrite
b. axon
c. soma
d. axon hillock
2. Neurons are specialized to receive, conduct and transmit
a. electrochemical signals
b. action potentials
c. electrical signals
d. chemical signals
3. Most of a neuron’s DNA is contained within its
a. cytoplasm
b. axon
c. nucleus
d. endoplasmic reticulum
4. An adult brain contains roughly how many neurons?
a. 10 million
b. 10 billion
c. 100 million
d. 100 billion
5. A membrane potential is the difference in electrical charge between
a. potassium and sodium ions
b. the inside and outside of the cell
c. phosphoric acid and glycolipid layers
d. resting and action potentials
6. A neuron fires when
a. there is an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
b. hyperpolarization occurs at the axon hillock
c. neurotransmitters dock onto receptor proteins
d. depolarization at the axon hillock exceeds the threshold for excitation
7. The end of the rising phase of an action potential occurs when the
a. potassium channels close
b. sodium channels close
c. potassium channels open
d. chloride channels open
8. Neurotransmitters are often stored in
a. synaptic buttons
 b. microtubules
c. vesicles
d. endoplasmic reticulum
9. What effect does myelination have on axons?
a. it protects them from damage
b. it slows the propagation of signals along them
c. it prevents cross talk between adjacent axons
d. it allows them to conduct signals significantly faster
10. Interactions between neurons commonly occur across junctions called
a. synapses
b. juxtapositions
c. presynaptic membranes
d. postsynaptic membranes
11. Neurotransmitter release occurs through the process of
a. excitation
b. exocytosis
c. pinocytosis
d. synthesis
12. Once released, neurotransmitter molecules typically produce signals in postsynaptic
neurons by
a. entering the postsynaptic neuron
b. attaching to vesicles
c. binding to presynaptic receptors
d. binding to postsynaptic receptors
13. After release, most neurotransmitters are deactivated by
a. reuptake
b. postsynaptic receptors
c. enzymes
d. buffered diffusion
14. The abbreviation 5-HT stands for
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. acetylcholine
d. tryptophan
15. Drugs that facilitate the activity of a synapse of a particular neurotransmitter are said to
be ______ of that neurotransmitter.
a. agonists
b. antagonists
c. autoreceptors
d. endorphins
16. A substance that binds to a receptor is known as
a. a Carlsson mediator
b. a ligand
c. an anti-telharsic inhibitor
d. a gluon
17. Exogenous substances
a. originate within the body
 b. are released via exocytosis
c. are natural neurotransmitters
d. originate outside the body
18. Microdialysis is a technique used to measure
a. action potentials
b. inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
c. neurotransmitters
d. brain waves
19. Antipsychotic drugs given for schizophrenia and psychosis are
a. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b. acetylcholine agonists
c. postsynaptic dopamine antagonists
d. testosterone antagonists
20. A typical synaptic cleft is
a. 40 nm wide
b. 60 nm wide
c. 80 nm wide
d. 20 nm wide
Answers
1.(b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20(d)
1. The human nervous system comprises
a. the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system
b. the central nervous system and the somatic nervous system
c. the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems
d. the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems
2. The autonomic nervous system
a. enables us to act on the external environment
b. transmits motor information to the brain
c. regulates the internal environment
d. is located within the brain
3. The three main anatomical neural planes are
a. cerebral, horizontal and coronal
b. cerebral, ventral and dorsal
c. horizontal, anterior and posterior
d. sagittal, coronal and horizontal
4. The corpus callosum is a
a. source of hypothalamic hormones
b. neural pathway that connects the right and left hemispheres
c. part of the neocortex
d. structure in the cerebellum
5. In the 4th week after conception, the neural tube develops three swellings. These are
a. telencephalon, diencephalon and myelencephalon
b. telencephalon, diencephalon and metencephalon
c. cerebral cortex, limbic system and basal ganglia
d. forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain
6. The nose of a rat is
 a. ventral
b. anterior
c. caudal
d. posterior
7. The autonomic nervous system is part of the
a. somatic nervous system
b. peripheral nervous system
c. parasympathetic nervous system
d. sympathetic nervous system
8. Which structure is part of the tectum?
a. superior colliculus
b. periaqueductal grey
c. substantia nigra
d. red nucleus
9. In general, afferent nerves carry sensory information
a. to the central nervous system
b. to the peripheral nervous system
c. from the central nervous system
d. from the cortex
10. The basal ganglia comprise
a. the caudate, putamen and globus pallidus
b. the amygdala, hippocampus and cingulated gyrus
c. the inferior and superior colliculi
d. the thalamus and hypothalamus
11. The cerebral cortex covers the
a. brain
b. cerebellum
c. great cerebral commissure
d. cerebral hemispheres
12. Telencephalon refers to
a. brain stem
b. cerebellum
c. cortex
d. cerebral hemispheres
13. The somatic nervous system is part of the
a. autonomic nervous system
b. peripheral nervous system
c. central nervous system
d. parasympathetic nervous system
14. The inferior and superior colliculi compose the
a. thalamus
b. myelencephalon
c. tectum
d. tegmentum
15. Most sensory nuclei of the thalamus project to the
a. cortex
b. reticular formation
 c. cerebellum
d. substantia nigra
16. Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid:
a. to exchange nutrients and metabolic waste
b. to improve conduction of nerve signals between different brain regions
c. to provide mechanical protection to the brain
d. to carry neuroactive hormones in the nervous system
17. Which of the following generally acts to conserve energy?
a. somatic nervous system
b. peripheral nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system
d. parasympathetic nervous system
18. Broca’s area is located in
a. the frontal lobe
b. the parietal lobe
c. the temporal lobe
d. the occipital lobe
19. The primary auditory cortex is located in:
a. the frontal lobe
b. the parietal lobe
c. the temporal lobe
d. the occipital lobe
20. Which of the following is a method for measuring neuroanatomy?
a. electroencephalography (EEG)
b. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. positron emission tomography (PET)
e. 20 nm wide
Answers
1.(a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20(c)

Chapter 3:Learning
1. In Operant conditioning procedure, the role of reinforcement is:
(a) Strikingly significant
(b) Very insignificant
(c) Negligible
(d) Not necessary
(e) None of the above
2. According to Skinnerian Operant conditioning theory, a negative reinforcement is:
(a) Nothing but punishment
(b) A biofeedback
(c) A withdrawing or removal of a positive reinforcer
(d) An instinctive drift
(e) None of the above
3. Behaviour therapists believe that the respondent or classical conditioning is effective
in dealing with the non-voluntary automatic behaviour, whereas the operant one is
successful predominantly with motor and cognitive behaviours, Thus, unadaptive habits
such as nail biting, trichotillomania, enuresis encopresis, thumb sucking etc. are
satisfactorily dealt within the :
(a) Classical Method
(b) Operant Method
(c) Trial and Error Method
(d) Insightful learning procedure
(e) None of the above
4. Current positive reinforcement requires the individual to imagine performing a
particular task or behaviour followed by a:
(a) Negative consequence
(b) Zero consequence
(c) Positive Consequence
(d) Neutral consequence
(e) None of the above
5. Aversion is one of the conditioning procedures used in:
(a) Non-directive therapy
(b) Psychoanalytic therapy
(c) Behaviour therapy
(d) Chemotherapy
(e) None of the above
6. A very useful principle of learning is that a new response is strengthened by:
(a) Punishment
(b) Reinforcement
(c) Biofeedback
(d) Discriminative Stimulus
(e) None of the above
7. In continuous reinforcement schedule (CRF), every appropriate response:
(a) Is reinforced
(b) Is not reinforced
(c) Is sometimes reinforced
(d) Is an instinctive drift
(e) None of the above
8. The continuous reinforcement schedule is generally used:
(a) In the last part of training
(b) In early stages of training
(c) In the middle period of training
(d) In both last and first part of training
(e) None of the above
9. In real life, reinforcement of every response (CRF) is:
(a) Of the nature of an exception rather than the rule
(b) Impossible
(c) Necessary
(d) Not necessary
(e) None of the above
10. Which schedule of reinforcement is a ratio schedule stating a ratio of responses to
reinforcements?
(a) Variable Ratio Schedule
(b) Fixed Interval Schedule
(c) Variable Interval Schedule
(d) Fixed Ratio Schedule
(e) None of the above
11. Respondents are elicited and operants are not elicited but they are:
(a) Emitted spontaneously
(b) Emitted voluntarily
(c) Permanent responses
(d) Temporary responses
(e) None of the above
12. In which schedule of reinforcement, appropriate movements are reinforced after
varying number of responses?
(a) Fixed Ratio Schedule
(b) Fixed Interval Schedule
(c) Variable ratio Schedule
(d) Variable Interval Schedule
(e) None of the above
13. Which schedule of reinforcement does not specify any fixed number, rather states
the requirement in terms of an average?
(a) Variable Ratio Schedule
(b) Fixed Ratio Schedule
(c) Fixed Interval Schedule
(d) Variable Interval Schedule
(e) None of the above
14. As a rule, variable ratio schedule (VR) arrangements sustain:
(a) Low rates of responding
(b) High rates of responding
(c) Zero responding
(d) 90% of responding
(e) None of the above
15. Under conditions of variable ratio schedule, the only sensible way to obtain more
reinforcements is through emitting:
(a) 50% responses
(b) 90% responses
(c) Less number of responses
(d) Greater number of responses
(e) None of the above
16. In which schedule of reinforcement, the experimenter (E) reinforces the first correct
response after a given length of dine?
(a) Fixed Ratio Schedule
(b) Fixed Interval Schedule
(c) Variable Ratio Schedule
(d) Variable Interval Schedule
(e) None of the above
17. In our daily life, watching for the pot of milk to boil may be somewhat similar to the
behaviour pattern observed in:
(a) Fixed Interval Schedule
(b) Fixed Ratio Schedule
(c) Variable Ratio Schedule
(d) Variable Interval Schedule
(e) None of the above
18. In which schedule of reinforcement, the delay intervals vary as per a previously
decided plan?
(a) Fixed Ratio Schedule
(b) Variable Ratio Schedule
(c) Fixed Interval Schedule
(d) Variable Interval Schedule
(e) None of the above
19. In our daily life, any kind of looking for things which occur without any reference to
our behaviour may illustrate the application of:
(a) Variable Interval Schedule
(b) Fixed Ratio
(c) Variable Ratio Schedule
(d) Fixed interval Schedule
(e) None of the above
20. In case of continuous reinforcement, we get the least resistance to extinction and the:
(a) Highest response rate during training
(b) 50% response rate during training
(c) Smallest response rate during training
(d) 90% response rate during training
(e) None of the above
21. The expression “Contingencies of reinforcement” occurs frequently in:
(a) Operant Conditioning Literature
(b) Classical Conditioning Literature
(c) Trial and Error Learning Literature
(d) Latent Learning Literature
(e) None of the above
22. Who illucidates the contiguity theory of reinforcement in the most pronounced and
consistent manner?
(a) C. Hull
(b) Guthrie
(c) Tolman
(d) Mc Dougall
(e) J. B. Watson
23. In comparison with drive-reduction or need- reduction interpretation, stimulus
intensity reduction theory has an added advantage in that:
(a) It offers a unified account of primary and learned drives as also of primary and
conditioned reinforcement
(b) It is very precise and placed importance on Trial and Error Learning
(c) It has some mathematical derivations which are conducive for learning theorists
(d) All learning theories can be explained through this
(e) None of the above
24. Who preferred to call Classical Conditioning” by the name of “Sign Learning”?
(a) I. P. Pavlov
(b) Mowrer
(c) Miller
(d) Guthrie
(e) J. B. Watson
25. Which type of learning tells us what to do with the world and applies to what is com-
monly called habit formation?
(a) Insightful Learning
(b) Latent Learning
(c) Trial and Error Learning
(d) Instrumental Learning
(e) Classical Conditioning
26. Who propounded the expectancy theory of learning?
(a) Guthrie
(b) C. Hull
(c) Tolman
(d) Thorndike
(e) I. P. Pavlov
27. Who said that any act is a movement but not vice versa?
(a) J.B. Watson
(b) W. Kohler
(c) Guthrie
(d) E. L. Thorndike
(e) C. Hull
28. Guthrie believed that conditioning should take place:
(a) After two trials
(b) After three trials
(c) After a single trial
(d) After ten trials
(e) None of the above
29. According to Guthrie, forgetting is not a matter of decay of old impressions and
associations but:
(a) A result of inhibition of old connections by new ones
(b) A result of disinhibitions of old connections
(c) A result of generalizations of stimuli
(d) A result of discrimination
(e) None of the above
30. The great learning theorist, Clark Hull was influenced by the moderate wing of:
(a) Gestalt Psychology
(b) Behaviouristic Orientation
(c) Psychoanalytic Literature
(d) Logical Positivism and by conventionalism
(e) None of the above
31. Who defined “Need” as a state of the organism in which a deviation of the organism
from the optimum of biological conditions necessary for survival takes place?
(a) Mc Dougall
(b) Clark H. Hull
(c) E.L Thorndike
(d) I.P. Pavlov
(e) None of the above
32. According to Hullian theory, under the pressure of needs and drives, the organism
undertakes:
(a) Adaptive actions
(b) Learning by foresight
(c) Learning by hindsight
(d) Transfer of training
(e) None of the above
33. Hull believes that no conditioning will take place unless there is:
(a) Food
(b) Need Reduction
(c) Puzzle Box
(d) Secondary Reinforcement
(e) None of the above
34. Who defined stimulus (S) in terms of physical energy such as mechanical pressure,
sound, light etc.?
(a) E. L. Thorndike
(b) W. Kohler
(c) B. F. Skinner
(d) Clark Hull
(e) E. C. Tolman
35. “Where a reaction (R) takes place in temporal contiguity with an afferent receptor
impulse (S) resulting from the impact upon a receptor of a stimulus energy (S) and the
conjunction is followed closely by the diminution in a need and the associated
diminution in the drive, D, and in the drive receptor discharge, SD, there will result in
increment, A (S →R), in the tendency for that stimulus on subsequent occasions to
evoke that reaction”. Who has given the above definition of “reinforcement”?
(a) Clark L. Hull
(b) E. L. Thorndike
(c) I.P. Pavlov
(d) W. Kohler
(e) None of the above
36. Most of Hull’s explanations are stated in two languages, one of the empirical
description and the other in:
(a) Psycho physiological terms
(b) Neurophysiological terms
(c) Physiological terms
(c) Physical terms
(e) None of the above
37. The molar approach deals with the organism as a whole, the molecular approach:
(a) Deals with parts
(b) Deals with stimuli
(c) Deals with responses
(d) Has nothing to do with the organism
(e) Deals with the detailed, fine and exact elements of action of the nervous system
38. The hypothetico-deductive system in geometry was developed by:
(a) I.P. Pavlov
(b) B. L. Thorndike
(c) C. Hull
(d) Pieri
(e) E. C. Tolman
39. Whenever behaviour is correlated to specific eliciting stimuli, it is:
(a) Respondent Behaviour
(b) Operant Behaviour
(c) Stimulant Behaviour
(d) Fixed Behaviour
(e) Static Behaviour
40. Whenever behaviour is not correlated to any specific eliciting stimuli, it is:
(a) Respondent Behaviour
(b) Operant Behaviour
(c) Static Behaviour
(d) Modified Behaviour
(e) None of the above
41. According to Tolman, docile or teachable behaviour is:
(a) Molar
(b) Molecular
(c) Respondent
(d) Operant
(e) None of the above
42. According to Skinnerian theory, the “S” type of conditioning applies to:
(a) Modified Behaviour
(b) Stimulant Behaviour
(c) Operant Behaviour
(d) Respondent Behaviour
(e) None of the above
43. The sign-gestalt expectation represents a combination of:
(a) Intelligence and Perception
(b) Perception and Learning
(c) Intelligence and Learning
(d) Perception and Motivation
(e) None of the above
44. Who stated that appetites and aversions are “states of agitation”?
(a) E. L. Thorndike
(b) E. C. Tolman
(c) W. Kohler
(d) Clark Hull
(e) None of the above
45. Who said that the ultimate goal of aversion is the state of physiological quiescence to
be reached when the disturbing stimulus ceases to act upon the organism?
(a) E. L. Thorndike
(b) W. Kohler
(c) E. C. Tolman
(d) Clark Hull
(e) None of the above
46. According to E. C. Tolman, there are two aversions: fright and pugnacity. Fright is
avoidance of injury and pugnacity is avoidance of:
(a) Interference
(b) Affiliation
(c) Motivation
(d) Perception
(e) None of the above
47. “Equivalence Belief’ is a connection between” a positively cathected type of dis-
turbance-object and a type of what may be called:
(a) An interfering object
(b) A sub disturbance object
(c) A motivating object
(d) A goal-oriented object
(e) None of the above
48. Who revealed that “Field expectancy” takes place when one organism is repeatedly
and successfully presented with a certain environmental set-up?
(a) E. C. Tolman
(b) C. L. Hull
(c) E. L. Thorndike
(d) I.P. Pavlov
(e) Guthrie
49. Dollard and Miller related Thorndike’s spread of effect to the:
(a) Gradient of reinforcement
(b) Biological constraints
(c) Principle of preparedness
(d) None of the above
50. Miller and Dollard are more concerned with:
(a) Biological factor in learning
(b) Social factor in learning
(c) Physiological and Social factors in learn ing
(d) Personal factors in learning
(e) None of the above
51. Mowrer’s Sign learning comes close to Guthrie’s contiguity and his ‘solution
learning’ corresponds to:
(a) Pavlov’s Classical Conditioning
(b) Kohler’s Insightful learning
(c) Skinner’s instrumental learning
(d) Thorndike’s trial and error learning
(e) None of the above
52. Mowerer’s two-factor theory takes into consideration the fact that:
(a) Some conditioning do not require reward and some do
(b) Every conditioning requires reinforcement
(c) The organism learns to make a response to a specific stimulus
(d) Learning is purposive and goal-oriented
(e) None of the above
53. When learning in one situation influences learning in another situation, there is
evidence of:
(a) Avoidance learning
(b) Learned helplessness
(c) Premise of Equipotentiality
(d) Transfer of Training
(e) None of the above
54. If learning in situation ‘A’ may favourably influence learning in situation ‘B’, then
we have:
(a) Positive Transfer
(b) Negative Transfer
(c) Zero Transfer
(d) Bilateral Transfer
(e) Neutral Transfer
55. If learning in situation ‘A’ has a detrimental effect on learning in situation ‘B’, then
we have:
(a) Positive Transfer
(b) Zero Transfer
(c) Neutral Transfer
(d) Negative transfer
(e) None of the above
56. Mediation occurs when one member of an associated pair is linked to the other by
means of:
(a) A reinforcement
(b) An intervening element
(c) Generalization
(d) Secondary reinforcement
(e) None of the above
57. Zero transfer is otherwise known as:
(a) Neutral Transfer
(b) Positive Transfer
(c) Negative Transfer
(d) Bilateral Transfer
(e) None of the above
58. Negative Transfer of Training is otherwise known as:
(a) Neutral Transfer
(b) Habit interference
(c) Zero Transfer
(d) Bilateral Transfer
(e) None of the above
59. “If you do not like milk, you may not like all milk products like cheese butter, ghee
and curd”. This is due to:
(a) Generalization Gradient
(b) Avoidance Learning
(c) Biological Constraints
(d) Transfer of Training
(e) None of the above
60. Who told, “Although Classical Conditioning is a laboratory procedure, it is easy to
find real world examples.”?
(a) B.J. Underwood (1983)
(b) G. H. Bower (1976)
(c) C. B. Osgood (1957)
(d) Kimble and Germazy (1980)
(e) Mc Geoch (1942)
61. According to Hull, a systematic behaviour or learning theory can be possible by
happy amalgamation of the technique of conditioning and the:
(a) Law of Effect
(b) Law of Exercise
(c) Law of Frequency
(d) Law of Recency
(e) None of the above
62. The methods of verbal learning are important because:
(a) The use of standard methods for learning makes comparisons of results possible
(b) Rewards are not necessary here
(c) They minimise the effect of punishment
(d) Punishment has no effect on learning
(e) None of the above
63. Positive transfer of training is possible with:
(a) Dissimilar tasks
(b) Motor tasks
(c) Similar tasks
(d) Verbal tasks
(e) None of the above
64. A ‘Skinner Box’ is used for:
(a) Motor learning
(b) Verbal learning
(c) Sensory learning
(d) Problem Solving
(e) Incidental learning
65. Punishment is effective only when it weakens:
(a) Undesirable response
(b) Desirable response
(c) Positive response
(d) Negative response
(e) None of the above
66. Which one of the following psychologists is not associated with the theories of
learning?
(a) Sullivan
(b) C. Hull
(c) Tolman
(d) Thorndike
(e) Guthrie
67. In which method, the entire list is once exposed to ‘S’ and then he is asked to
anticipate each item in the list before it is exposed on the memory drum?
(a) Recall
(b) Recognition
(c) Relearning and Saving
(d) Anticipation Method
(e) None of the above
68. The new items which are added to the original list in recognition method are known
as:
(a) Stimulants
(b) Respondents
(c) Gradients
(d) Distractors
(e) None of the above
69. Learning to make new responses to identical or similar stimuli results in a:
(a) Negative Transfer
(b) Positive Transfer
(c) Zero transfer
(d) Neutral transfer
(e) None of the above
70. Both positive and negative transfers are largely the result of:
(a) Similarity of responses in the first and the second task
(b) Dissimilarity of responses in the first and the second task
(c) Co-ordination of responses in the first and the second task
(d) Both similarity and dissimilarity of responses in the first and the second task
(e) None of the above
71. The greater the similarity between the stimuli of the first task and the second task:
(a) The less the extent of transfer
(b) The greater the extent of transfer
(c) The minimum the extent of transfer
(d) No transfer occurs
(e) None of the above
72. A high positive transfer results when stimuli are similar and responses are:
(a) Identical
(b) Not Identical
(b) Haphazard
(d) Equipotential
(e) None of the above
73. It is possible to maximize a positive transfer from a class room situation to real life
situation by making formal education more realistic or closely connected with:
(a) Real-life problems
(b) Imaginary problems
(c) Temporary problems
(d) Easy Problems
(e) None of the above
74. In programmed learning, the importance is placed on:
(a) Trial and error learning
(b) Latent learning
(c) Classical conditioning
(d) Operant conditioning
(e) None of the above
75. Who is regarded as the father of the ‘Programmed Learning’?
(a) B. F. Skinner
(b) I. P. Pavlov
(c) C.L. Hull
(d) J.B. Watson
76. Who has first devised a machine for teaching in 1920?
(a) M. R. F. Maier
(b) A. Luchins
(c) S. L. Pressey
(d) H. F. Harlow
(e) D. O. Hebb
77. In the system of programmed learning, the learner becomes:
(a) An active agent in acquiring the acquisition
(b) A passive agent in acquiring the acquisition
(c) A neutral age in acquiring the acquisition
(d) Instrumental in acquiring the acquisition
(e) None of the above
78. Programmed learning:
(a) Is not helpful for teaching
(b) Is not helpful in the socialization of the child
(c) Is not helpful in classroom situation
(d) Is not helpful for teachers
(e) None of the above
79. Lewin’s field theory gives more importance to behaviour and motivation and less to:
(a) Incentive
(b) Drive
(c) Experience
(d) Intelligence
(e) None of the above
80. Kurt Lewin regards the environment of the individual as his:
(a) life-space
(b) Instinctive drift
(c) Autoshaping
(d) Foresight
(e) None of the above
81. Guthrie’s theory of learning is known as the learning by:
(a) Interpretation
(b) Representation
(c) Substitution
(d) Response
(e) None of the above
82. For Skinner, the basic issue is how reinforcement sustains and controls responding
rather than:
(a) Which stimulus evokes a response
(b) Which response is helpful
(c) Which stimulus can be generalized
(d) Which stimulus can be discriminated
(e) None of the above
83. Who said that the event-that is drive reducing is satisfying?
(a) E. C. Tolman
(b) R. S. Woodworth
(c) E. L. Thorndike
(d) Clark H. Hull
(e) None of the above
84. Materials like food for hungry animals or water for thirsty animals are called:
(a) Secondary reinforcers
(b) Primary Reinforcers
(c) Intermittent reinforcers
(d) Fixed reinforcers
(e) None of the above
85. When a thing acquires some characteristics of a reinforcer because of its consistent
association with the primary reinforcement, we call it a/an:
(a) Secondary Reinforcer
(b) Primary Reinforcer
(c) Fixed Reinforcer
(d) Intermittent Reinforcer
(e) None of the above
86. In one experiment, the chimpanzees were taught to insert poker chips in a vending
machine in order to obtain grapes. When this was done, they were made to pull, with all
their strength, an iron bar attached to a similar machine to obtain poker chips. The
chimpanzees learned it too, because they were allowed to cash those chips for grapes
afterwards. Here the token chips had only a/an:
(a) Primary Reinforcing Value
(b) Extra Reinforcing Value
(c) Special Reinforcing Value
(d) Secondary Reinforcing Value
(e) None of the above
87. Partial Reinforcement is often called:
(a) Intermittent Reinforcment
(b) Schedules of Reinforcement
(c) Span of Reinforcement
(d) Reinforcement Schedule
(e) None of the above
88. Reinforcing a given response only for sometime on trials is known as:
(a) Partial Reinforcement
(b) Continuous Reinforcement
(c) Reinforcement Schedule
(d) No Reinforcement
(e) None of the above
89. Most human habits are reinforced in a:
(a) Variable fashion
(b) Constant fashion
(c) Partial Manner
(d) Particular Time span
(e) None of the above
90. Most human habits are resistent to extinction because these are reinforced:
(a) In a constant fashion
(b) All the times
(c) Every now and then
(d) In a variable fashion
(e) Very often
91. Which type of learning experiments show how the behaviour of animals can be
controlled or shaped in a desired direction by making a careful use of reinforcement?
(a) Classical conditioning
(b) Operant conditioning
(c) Latent Learning
(d) Sign Learning
(e) None of the above
92. In Operant Conditioning, he strength of an operant response is usually measured in
terms of the frequency of lever pressing:
(a) Per unit of time
(b) In every five minutes
(c) As a whole
(d) In a day
(e) None of the above
93. The method we use in memorising poetry is called:
(a) Paired-associate learning
(b) Distributed learning
(c) Serial memorisation
(d) Massed learning
(e) Syntactic Memorisation
94. Shifting from right-hand driving in (in U.S.A.) to a left-hand driving (in India) is an
illustration of:
(a) Negative transfer of training
(b) Positive transfer of training
(c) Neutral transfer of training
(d) Both neutral and positive transfer of training
(e) None of the above
95. The replacement of one conditioned response by the establishment of an
incompatible response to the same conditioned stimulus is known as:
(a) Backward Conditioning
(b) Counter Conditioning
(c) Forward Conditioning
(d) High order conditioning
(e) None of the above
96. Experimental literature revealed that experiments on latent learning were done by:
(a) Tolman and Honzik (1930)
(b) Gibson and Harlow
(c) Pavlov and Watson
(d) Kohler and Wertheimer
97. Working with monkeys, Harlow (1949) propounded that the general transfer effect
from one situation to another may be accounted for by the concept of:
(a) “Learning how to learn” or “Learning Sets”
(b) Sign learning
(c) Latent learning
(d) Gradient of learning
(e) Plateau
98. Proactive Inhibition refers to the learning of ‘A’ having a detrimental effect on the
learning of ‘B’. So it is a:
(a) Neutral transfer of effect
(b) Zero transfer of effect
(c) Positive transfer of effect
(d) Negative transfer of effect
(e) None of the above
99. Who has defined “perceptual learning” as “an increase in the ability to extract
information from the environment as a result of experience or practice with the
stimulation coming from it.”?
(a) I. P. Pavlov
(b) Wertheimer
(c) B. F. Skinner
(d) Eleanor Gibson (1969)
(e) J.B. Watson
100. To distinguish the calls of birds:
(a) Sign learning is necessary
(b) Perceptual learning is needed
(c) Operant conditioning would be conducive
(d) Insight is needed
(e) CR will be helpful
Answers
1.(a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15.
(d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28.
(c) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (e) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41.
(a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54.
(a) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67.
(d) 68 (d) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80.
(a) 81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (b) 92. (a) 93.
(c) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100

1. Pavlov is famous for his work in:

a. contingent conditioning
b. operant conditioning
c. classical conditioning
d. oppositional conditioning
2. The study of learning is most closely associated with which school of psychology?
a. psychoanalytic
b. humanist
c. social
d. behaviourist
3. If we reinforce the desired response every time it occurs we are using:
a. continuous reinforcement
b. incremental reinforcement
c. intermittent reinforcement
d. contingent reinforcement
4. Observational learning is also known as:
a. classical conditioning
b. operant conditioning
c. modelling
d. manipulation
5. Taking away a child’s toys after she has hit her brother (to stop her hitting him again!)
is an example of:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. vindictive conditioning
d. observational learning
6. According to the behaviourist school, ________ plays no role in learning.
a. experience
b. nurture
c. nature
d. punishment
7. Thorndike developed the:
a. law of effort
b. law of energy
c. law of effusion
d. law of effect
8. Giving a student extra homework after they misbehave in class is an example of:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
 c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
9. ________ schedules of reinforcement are based on number of responses while ________
schedules of reinforcement are based on elapsed time.
a. fixed, variable
b. variable, fixed
c. interval, ratio
d. ratio, interval
10. To train her puppy to roll over, Kim began by rewarding it for simply lying down. Later,
she only rewarded the puppy if it lay down AND turned to one side. Later still, the puppy
only got a reward if it lay down, turned, then rolled over. Kim was using:
a. classical conditioning
b. modelling
c. a fixed interval schedule
d. shaping
11. In classical conditioning, US stands for:
a. unintentional stimulus
b. unconditioned stimulus
c. unconnected stimulus
d. none of the above
12. In classical conditioning, UR and CR are:
a. opposite behaviours
b. the same behaviour
c. the result of extinction
d. the same stimulus
13. Which of the following phrases best sums up the law of effect:
a. think before you act
b. if you can’t beat them, join them
c. if it works, repeat it
d. measure twice, cut once
14. Positive reinforcement ________ the likelihood of a behaviour, and negative
reinforcement
________ the likelihood of a behaviour.
a. increases, increases
b. decreases, decreases
c. increases, decreases
d. decreases, increases
15. Gerhardt got sick after eating a peach. Now he feels sick when he looks at peaches,
nectarines or plums. This illustrates:
a. spontaneous recovery
b. intermittent reinforcement
c. modelling
d. generalization
16. A bakery gives customers a free pastry after every 6 pastry purchases. This is an
example of what kind of reinforcement schedule?
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio
17. A researcher trains a dog to salivate to the sound of a bell. Then he turns the lights on
just before he sounds the bell. If he continues to do this until the dog starts to salivate as
soon as the lights go on, he has demonstrated:
a. latent learning
b. insight
c. second-order conditioning
d. extinction
18. An intermittent schedule of reinforcement that reinforces behaviour after an average,
but unpredictable, amount of time has passed is called a ________ ________ schedule.
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
19. Food is to ________ reinforcer as money is to ________ reinforcer.
a. positive, negative
b. negative, positive
c. primary, secondary
d. secondary, primary
20. Positive punishment ________ behaviour, and negative punishment ________
behaviour.
a. strengthens, strengthens
b. weakens, weakens
c. strengthens, weakens
d. weakens, strengthens
21. In the prisoner’s dilemma game:
a. a positive outcome for one player does not necessarily mean a negative outcome
for the other player
b. a positive outcome for one player necessarily means a negative outcome
for the other player
c. the players can discuss their strategy with each other before making their choices
d. each player has access to a lawyer
22. In the prisoner’s dilemma game, the cooperative decision is:
a. confess
b. don’t confess
c. blame the other person
d. none of the above
23. To encourage children to enjoy arithmetic, you should:
a. punish them when they make a mistake
b. reward them every time they get an answer right
c. sometimes surprise them with a reward when they get an answer right
d. ignore them
24. To be classed as a phobia, a fear must be both:
a. rational and life-threatening
b. unexplained and unconscious
c. short-lived and dangerous
d. strong and irrational
25. After being bitten by a big Alsatian dog, Hugo was scared of other big dogs but he was
not scared of little dogs like Chihuahuas. This pattern demonstrates:
a. shaping
b. negative punishment
 c. discrimination
d. latent learning
26. You are online one evening when an advert appears showing your favourite movie star
wearing a new brand of sunglasses. The advertiser hopes that your positive feelings
toward the movie star will make you want the sunglasses. In this situation, the
sunglasses would be the:
a. US
b. UR
c. CS
d. CR
27. People who have a lot of dental problems often come to dislike even the smell of their
dentist’s office. The smell represents a(n):
a. US
b. UR
c. CS
d. CR
28. Taking away a person’s car after they have been caught speeding would be
an example of:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
29. Research indicates that exposure to violent TV/video games:
a. has no impact of aggression
b. increases aggression
c. reduces aggression
d. promotes random acts of kindness

Answers
1. c
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. d
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. c
14. a
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. a
 22. b
23. c
24. d
25. c
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. b
Chapter 4:Memory
1. In a typical memory experiment, participants are asked to recall stimuli in which phase?
a. presentation
b. test
c. material
d. distinction
2. Participants are NOT told that they will be tested on a list of words presented in an
experiment. This provides evidence of
a. intentional learning
b. a practice effect
c. incidental learning
d. masked learning
3. A test where participants are asked to retrieve in any order stimuli previously presented is
a. cued recall
b. implicit memory
c. explicit memory
d. free recall
4. Participants take part in an experiment where they learn a number of words and are told
that they will be tested later on what they have learned. This is a test of
a. explicit memory
b. recognition
c. implicit memory
d. interference
5. Storage is
a. the stage of memory where information is interpreted and transferred
b. the stage of memory where information is committed
c. the stage of memory most affected by direct manipulation in experiments
d. the stage of memory between presentation of stimuli and before test
6. Investigating what factors can affect memory storage can be done by
a. manipulating what happens before the test phase
b. informing people that they will be tested
c. providing recall cues
d. manipulating what happens at the presentation phase
7. Which is NOT typically used to test memory retrieval?
a. dot probe task
b. word stem completion
c. cued recall
d. serial position effects
8. With immediate testing, recall accuracy is poorest for items that occur in which position of
a list?
a. beginning
b. middle
c. end
d. no difference
9. Immediately testing recall can lead to greater recall for words at the end of a list. This is
a. recency effect
b. primacy effect
c. serial position effect
d. superiority effect
10. The recency effect in memory retrieval can be reduced when
a. rehearsal is prevented
b. short- to long-term memory interference is introduced
c. a backwards masking task is used
d. retention interval is increased
11. Which authors proposed the modal model of memory?
a. Lansdale and Baguley (2008)
b. Tulving and Thompson (1975)
c. Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968)
d. Craik and Lockhart (1972)
12. The modal model of memory was challenged on the grounds that
a. impaired short-term memory does not disrupt long-term memory
b. Short-term memory has a limited capacity
c. longer time in short-term memory predicts likelihood of long-term memory
d. long-term memory has a limited capacity
13. According to levels of processing, which of the following leads to the deepest level of
memory?
a. perceptual
b. semantic
c. associative
d. cue dependent
14. A critical issue with the ‘levels of processing’ account of memory is
a. the distinction between perceptual and semantic processing
b. it is not compatible with the modal model
c. determining the level of processing
d. it does not explain how information is retrieved
15. Retrieval cues can improve recall because of
a. overlap between memories at encoding
b. interference or decay
c. traces still in short-term memory
d. greater storage capacity
16. ‘Specific operations […] determine what is stored, and what is stored determines what
retrieval cues are effective’ refers to what term?
a. context-dependent memory
b. encoding specificity principle
c. levels of processing
 d. forgetting function
17. Retroactive inhibition is a term of memory
a. decay
b. delay
c. retrieval
d. interference
18. Having prior memory associations that make it difficult to form new memory associations
is termed
a. proactive inhibition
b. transfer appropriate processing
c. time-dependent decay
d. encoding specificity
19. Which of the following was proposed by Keppel (1968) to be most likely?
a. prior learning may interfere with new learning only when items are similar, but new
learning interferes with all old learning
b. old learning can interfere with new learning, but new learning interferes with all old
learning
c. all forgetting is caused by non-specific proactive inhibition
d. old learning only interferes with new learning when encoded in the same modality
20. What explains the mathematical forgetting curve?
a. retroactive inhibition
b. serial position
c. Jost’s law
d. consolidation theory
21. Lansdale and Baguley (2008) predict that the probability of correct recall depends on
a. proportion of correct memory traces
b. encoding specificity
c. context-dependent recall
d. retroactive inhibition
22. Lansdale and Baguley (2008) argue that memory dilution occurs because
a. long-term memory capacity is limited
b. the number of null traces decreases
c. memories become indistinct from similar memories
d. the memory becomes less temporally distinctive
23. Which element was NOT found to alter accounts of the ‘War of the Ghosts’ story?
a. rationalizations
b. distortions
c. omissions
d. intrusions
24. The study of how the ‘War of the Ghosts’ story accounts became altered at recall was
carried out by
a. Bartlett (1932)
b. Godden and Baddeley (1975)
c. Postman and Phillips (1965)
d. Eysenck (1979)
25. Eyewitness testimonies are an example of what kind of memory experiment?
a. intentional learning
 b. context-dependent learning
c. incidental learning
d. cue-dependent learning
26. Which key academic is involved in the study of memory as a reconstructive process?
a. A. Baddeley
b. H. Eysenck
c. G. Hitch
d. E. Loftus
27. The accuracy of eyewitness testimonies can be improved with
a. recovered memories
b. cognitive interviews
c. noise reduction
d. neurofeedback
28. What can help improve the accuracy of eye witness testimonies?
a. serial position
b. context reinstatement
c. mnemonics
d. distributed practice
29. Memory can be improved when information to be learnt is
a. organized
b. written
c. spoken
d. elaborated
30. Which is a good method of revision:
a. intense sessions
b. spaced learning
c. 1 hour on/1 hour off
d. late night sessions

1. b
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. d
6. a
7. a
8. b
9. a
10. d
11. c
12. a
13. b
14. c
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. a
 20. c
21. a
22. d
23. c
24. a
25. c
26. d
27. b
28. b
29. a
30. b

1. ________ memory is to hearing as ________ memory is to seeing.

a. echoic, eidetic
b. eidetic, echoic,
c. working, short-term
d. short-term, working
2. The cognitive school of psychology found it helpful to liken the brain to a(n):
a. cash machine
b. computer
c. orchestra
d. calculator
3. A person who has just eaten supper completes the word fragment _ o_k as fork (rather
than as book or look etc). This is an example of:
a. conditioning
b. recognition
c. priming
d. relearning
4. Which of the following brain areas have been shown to be important for memory?
a. cerebellum
b. amygdala
c. hippocampus
d. all of the above
5. Puja isn’t sure whether she read something in a magazine or in her psychology text book.
Puja has a problem with:
a. media literacy
b. the misinformation effect
c. source monitoring
d. salience
6. Anterograde amnesia is typically associated with damage to the:
a. amygdala
b. retina
c. cerebellum
d. hippocampus
7. Which part of working memory controls how attention is directed?
a. the central executive
b. the mother board
 c. the mnemonic processor
d. the director
8. ________ interference works backwards, and ________ interference works forwards.
a. primary, recency
b. recency, primacy
c. proactive, retroactive
d. retroactive, proactive
9. When asked to come up with the name of a bird, people are much more likely to say
“robin” than they are to say “ostrich”. This is because:
a. robin is a shorter word
b. robin begins with the letter “r”
c. robins are prototypical
d. robins are smaller
10. The tendency to think about and experience events according to “what might have
been” is known as:
a. anterograde amnesia
b. counterfactual thinking
c. salience
d. heuristic processing
11. Damage to the cerebellum is likely to interfere with:
a. auditory processing
b. explicit memory
c. implicit memory
d. emotional memories
12. Research has shown that there is _________________ between the accuracy of a
person’s memory and their confidence in the accuracy of that memory.
a. virtually no correlation
b. a strong positive correlation
c. a strong negative correlation
d. a curvilinear relationship
13. The word fragment test is used to test a person’s ________ memory.
a. extrinsic
b. instrinsic
c. explicit
d. implicit
14. After reading an article about a case of cheating on campus, students are likely to over-
estimate the incidence of cheating on campus. This is an example of:
a. iconic memory salience
b. the availability heuristic
c. counterfactual thinking
d. functional fixedness
15. In stage models of memory, information moves from:
a. sensory to short-term to long-term memory
b. sensory to long-term to working memory
c. short-term to long-term to explicit memory
d. sensory to eidetic to iconic memory
16. The spacing effect suggests that when you study for a test you should:
a. wait until the last minute then find a quiet place to study
b. learn different material in different places
 c. spread your study time over a number of sessions
d. always study in a spacious area
17. Classical conditioning effects are an example of:
a. eidetic memory
b. primary memory
c. retroactive interference
d. implicit memory
18. Magnus was locked in a room. The only way to escape was to force open a window
and climb out. Magnus remained locked in the room because he never thought to use
his keys to force the window. Magnus’ problem was:
a. amnesia
b. functional fixedness
c. interference
d. misinformation
19. In the context of memory, LTP stands for:
a. limited transfer potential
b. lateral temporal parietal
c. latent timing probability
d. long term potentiation
20. After a stroke, 22-year-old Malik can no longer remember his childhood friends or the
vacations he took with his family. Malik is suffering from:
a. retrograde amnesia
b. anterograde amnesia
c. functional fixedness
d. dyslexia
21. Our tendency to focus on information that is consistent with our beliefs and to ignore
contradictory information is called:
a. contradiction avoidance
b. confirmation bias
c. counterfactual thinking
d. functional fixedness
22. ________ information is lost from sensory memory, and ________ information is lost
from
short-term memory.
a. unpleasant, pleasant
b. pleasant, unpleasant
c. unattended, unrehearsed
d. unrehearsed, unattended
23. Recall involves ________ step(s), and recognition involves ________ step(s).
a. one, one
b. one, two
c. two, two
d. two, one
24. Working memory is best thought of as:
a. an alternative to long term memory
b. a set of memory procedures
c. a type of procedural memory
d. an adjunct to sensory memory
25. Shandra is convinced that her neighbour, Joe, is cruel to his dog. She notices every time
Joe shouts at the dog or jerks its lead but she doesn’t seem to notice the times when Joe
 plays with the dog or gives it treats. This is an example of:
a. misinformation
b. anterograde amnesia
c. proactive interference
d. confirmation bias
26. Ivy remembers watching the solar eclipse in amazing detail. She is certain she can
remember exactly what she was wearing, who she was with, what music was playing on
a nearby radio and even the breed of dog which ran past her just before the eclipse. This
is an example of a(n):
a. flashbulb memory
b. eidetic image
c. procedural memory
d. semantic memory
27. Research suggests that if you are sad when you study for a test you are likely
to be better at remembering the material:
a. when you are happy
b. when you are drunk
c. when you are sad
d. when you are angry
28. ________ memory is to first-hand experience as ________ memory is to knowledge
about the world.
a. semantic, episodic
b. episodic, semantic
c. implicit, explicit
d. explicit, implicit
29. Heuristics are:
a. the same as mnemonics
b. a type of hormone
c. information processing strategies
d. none of the above
30. When she studies for a Psych exam, Melodee always tries to think of ways in which the
information she is trying to learn relates to her own life. She is hoping to benefit from:
a. the self-reference effect
b. the spacing effect
c. overlearning
d. enhanced interference

Answers
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. d
9. c
10. b
11. c
12. a
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. d
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. b
22. c
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. a