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SeeeS

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to physics concepts, particularly focusing on electrostatics, electric fields, capacitance, and magnetism. Each question presents a scenario or principle, followed by four possible answers. The questions cover various topics such as charge interactions, electric potential, magnetic fields, and properties of conductors.

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tateandrew008
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views

SeeeS

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to physics concepts, particularly focusing on electrostatics, electric fields, capacitance, and magnetism. Each question presents a scenario or principle, followed by four possible answers. The questions cover various topics such as charge interactions, electric potential, magnetic fields, and properties of conductors.

Uploaded by

tateandrew008
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1.

One metallic sphere A is given positive charge whereas another identical


metallic sphere B of exactly same mass as of A is given equal amount of
negative charge. Then,
(a) mass A of and mass of B still remain equal
(b) mass A of increases
(c) mass B of decreases
(d) mass B of increases
2. In general, metallic ropes are suspended from the carriers to the ground
which take inflammable material. The reason is
(a) their speed is controlled
(b) to keep the gravity of the carrier nearer to the earth
(c) to keep the body of the carrier in contact with the earth
(d) nothing should be placed under the carrier
3. In charging by induction,
(a) body to be charged must be an insulator
(b) body to be charged must be a semiconductor
(c) body to be charged must be a conductor
(d) any type of body can be charged by induction

4. An object of mass 1 kg contains 4×1020 atoms. If one electron is removed


from every atom of the solid, the charge gained by the solid of 1 g is
(a) 2.8C
(b) 6.4×10−2C
(c) 3.6×10−3C
(d) 9.2×10−4C
5. Two charges +1𝜇C and +4𝜇C are situated at a distance in air. The ratio of
the forces acting on them is
(a) 1:4
(b) 4:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 1:16
6. A charge 𝑞 is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges 𝑄
and 𝑄. The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium, if 𝑞 is equal
to
(a) −𝑄/2
(b) −𝑄/4
(c) +𝑄/4
(d) +𝑄/2

7. What is the angle between the electric dipole moment and the electric field
strength due to it on the equatorial line?
(a) 0∘
(b) 90∘
(c) 180∘
(d) None of these

8. Electric charges 𝑞,𝑞,−2𝑞 are placed at the corners of an equilateral 𝐴𝐵𝐶
of side 𝑙. The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
(a) 𝑞𝑙
(b) 2𝑞𝑙
(c) √3𝑞𝑙
(d) 4𝑞𝑙
9. The intensity of electric field at the surface of conducting hollow sphere is
10NC−1 and its radius is 10 cm. The value of electric field at the centre of
sphere is
(a) zero
(b) 10NC−1
(c) 1NC−1
(d) 100NC−1

10. The surface densities on the surfaces of two charged spherical conductors
of radii 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are equal. The ratio of electric intensities on the surfaces
are
(a) 𝑅2/𝑅212
(b) 𝑅2/𝑅221
(c) 𝑅1/𝑅2
(d) 1:1
11. If 100 J of work has to be done in moving an electric charge 4C from a
place where potential is -10 V to another place where potential is V volt,
find the value of 𝑉
(a) 5 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 25 V
(d) 15 V

12. In an electric field with 𝐸=0, the potential 𝑉 varies with the distance 𝑟 as
1
(a) ∝
𝑉
𝑟

(b) 𝑉 𝑟

(c) 𝑉 1/𝑟2
(d) 𝑉 will not depend on 𝑟
a. Two charges 3×10−8C and −2×10−8 Clocated 15 cm apart. At
what point on the line joining the two charges is the electric
potential zero?
(a) 9 cm
(b) 45 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) Both (a) and (b)
13. What is the value of capacitance if a very thin metallic plate is introduced
between two parallel plates of area 𝐴 and separated at distance 𝑑 ?
(a) 𝜀0𝐴/𝑑
2𝜀
(b)
𝑑
0𝐴
4𝜀
(c) 0𝐴
𝑑
𝜀
(d) 0𝐴
2𝑑

14. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field (Vm−1) in the space
between the plates. If the distance between the plates is 𝑑(𝑚) and area of
each plate is 𝐴( m2), the energy (joule) stored in the capacitor is
1
(a) 𝜀𝐸2
2 0
(b) 𝜀0𝐸 Ad
1
(c)
2 0
𝜀𝐸2𝐴𝑑
(d) 𝐸2𝐴𝑑/𝜀0
15. The electrostatic potential on the surface of a charged conducting sphere is
100 V. Two statements are made in this regard 𝑆1 at any point inside the
sphere, electric intensity is zero.
𝑆2 at any point inside the sphere, the electrostatic potential is 100 V.
Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) 𝑆1 is true but 𝑆2 is false
(b) Both 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are false
(c) 𝑆1 is true, 𝑆2 is also true and 𝑆1 is the cause of 𝑆2
(d) 𝑆1 is true, 𝑆2 is also true but the statements are independant
16. An electric dipole of length 1 cm is placed with the axis making an angle of
30∘ to an electric field of strength 104 N/C. If it experiences a torque of
10√2Nm, the potential energy of the dipole is
(a) 0.245 J
(b) 2.45 J
(c) 24.5 J
(d) 245.0 J

17. On bringing an electron near to other electron, the potential energy of the
system
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) becomes zero
18. If the charge on each plate of a capacitor of 60𝜇F is 3×10−8C. Then,
energy stored in the capacitor will be
(a) 2.5×10−15 J
(b) 1.5×10−14 J
(c) 3.5×10−13 J
(d) 7.5×10−12 J

a. If drift velocity of electron is 𝑣𝑑 and intensity of electric field is 𝐸,


then which of the following relation obeys the Ohm's law?
(a) 𝑣𝑑= constant

(b) 𝑣𝑑 𝐸
(c) 𝑣𝑑=√𝐸
(d) 𝑣2𝑑 𝐸 ∝
19. Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current
in a conductor?
(a) Drift velocity alone
(b) Thermal velocity alone
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
(d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity
20. A potential direrence 𝑣 is appued to a copper wire of length 𝑙 and diameter
𝑑. If 𝑉 is doubled, then the drift velocity
(a) is doubled
(b) is halved
(c) remains same
(d) becomes zero
21. A potential difference of 100 V is applied to the ends of a copper wire one
metre long. What is the average drift velocity of electrons?
(given, 𝜎=5.81×107Ω−1 or 𝑛=8.5×1028m−3Cu )
(a) 0.43 ms−1
(b) 0.83 ms−1
(c) 0.52 ms−1
(d) 0.95 ms−1

22. Unit of specific resistance is


(a) 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1−𝑚−1
(b) 𝑜ℎ𝑚−1−m
(c) ohm-m-1
(d) ohm-m

23. The length of 50Ω resistance becomes twice by stretching. The new
resistance is
(a) 25Ω
(b) 50Ω
(c) 100Ω
(d) 200Ω
1
24.
2
A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross-section of 1 cm× cm
is connected to a battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be
1
(a)
2
maximum when the battery is connected across 1 cm× cm faces
(b) maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm×1 cm faces
1

2
(c) maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm× cm faces
(d) same irrespective of the three faces
25. Corresponding to the resistance 4.7×106Ω±5% which is order of colour
coding on carbon resistors?
(a) Yellow, violet, blue, gold
(b) Yellow, violet, green, gold
(c) Orange, blue, green, gold
(d) Orange, blue, violet, gold
26. The electromotive force of cell is 5 V and its internal resistance is 2Ω. This
cell is connected to external resistance. If the current in the circuit is 0.4 A,
then voltage of poles of cell is
(a) 5 V
(b) 5.8 V
(c) 4.6 V
(d) 4.2 V

27. Two cells of emfs approximately 5 V and 10 V are to be accurately


compared using a potentiometer of length 400 cm.
(a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have voltage of 8 V
(b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15 V and 𝑅 adjusted
so that the potential drop across the wire slightly exceeds 10 V
(c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a potential drop of
10 V
(d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances and not
voltages

28. A magnetic field can be produced


(a) only by moving charge
(b) only by changing electric field
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

29. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity 𝑣 ) produce a
magnetic field B such that NCERT Exemplar
(a) 𝐁 is perpendicular to 𝑣
(b) B is parallel to 𝑣
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along to the line joining the electron and point of observation
a. Vector form of Biot-Savart's law is
𝜇
𝑑𝐁=0𝐈×𝑑𝐥(a)
4𝜋𝑟2
𝐼 𝑑𝐥 ×𝐫
(b) 𝑑𝐁=
𝑟3
𝜇
𝑑𝐁=0𝐼𝑑𝐥×𝐫(c)
4𝜋𝑟3
𝜇
𝑑𝐁=0𝐼𝑑𝐥×𝐫(d)
4𝜋𝑟2
b. A polygon shaped wire is inscribed in a circle of radius 𝑅. The
magnetic induction at the centre of polygon, when current flows
through the wire is
𝜇0𝑛𝐼 2𝜋
(a) tan⁡( )
2𝜋𝑅𝑛
𝜇0𝑛𝐼 4𝜋
(b) tan⁡( )
2𝜋𝑅𝑛
𝜇0𝑛𝐼 𝜋
(c)
2𝜋𝑅𝑛
tan⁡( )
𝜇0𝑛𝐼 𝜋
(d) tan⁡( )
2𝜋𝑅 𝑛2
30. A long solenoid has 20 turns cm−1. The current necessary, to produce a
magnetic field of 20mT inside the solenoid is approximately
(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 8 A
31. An electron is travelling horizontally towards East. A magnetic field in
vertically downward direction exerts a force on the electron along
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
32. An electron is moving in a cyclotron at a speed of 3.2×107 ms−1 in a
magnetic field of 5×10−1? perpendicular to it. What is the frequency of
this electron? (𝑞=1.6×10−19C,𝑚−31𝑒=9.1×10 kg)
(a) 1.4×105 Hz
(b) 1.4×107 Hz
(c) 1.4×106 Hz
(d) 1.4×109 Hz

33. The wire which connects the battery of a car to its starter motor carries
current of 300 A during starting. Force per unit length between wires
(wires are 0.7 m long and 0.015 m distant apart) is
(a) 1.2Nm−1 repulsive
(b) 1.2Nm−1 attractive
(c) 2.4Nm−1 repulsive
(d) 2.4Nm−1 attractive
34. A circular current loop of magnetic moment 𝑀 is in an arbitrary
orientation in an external magnetic field 𝐵. The work done to rotate the
loop by 30∘ about an axis perpendicular to its plane is
(a) 𝑀𝐵
𝑀𝐵
(b)
2
√3
𝑀𝐵
(c)
2
(d) zero
35. The current 𝑖 is flowing in a coil of area 𝐴 with the number of turns 𝑁, then
the magnetic moment of the coil 𝑀 will be
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(c) Ni/√A
(d) 𝑁2𝐴𝑖
36. A galvanometer of resistance 25Ω shows full scale deflection for current of
10 mA. To convert it into 100 V range voltmeter, the required series
resistance is
(a) 9975Ω
(b) 10025Ω
(c) 10000Ω
(d) 975Ω

37. Two magnets have the same length and the same pole strength. But one of
the magnets has a small hole at its centre. Then,
(a) both have equal magnetic moment
(b) one with hole has small magnetic moment
(c) one with hole has large magnetic moment
(d) one with hole loses magnetism through the hole
38. A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the
ratio 2:1. The pole strengths of the two pieces will have ratio
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:1
39. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30∘ with an external field of
800G experiences a torque of 0.016Nm. The magnetic moment of the
magnet is
(a) 4Am2
(b) 0.5Am2
(c) 2Am2
(d) 0.40Am2
40. The earth's magnetic field at the equator is approximately 0.4G, the earth's
dipole moment is
(a) 1×1023Am2
(b) 1.05×1023Am2
(c) 8×1022Am2
(d) 4×102Am2
41. Ferromagnetism show their properties due to
(a) filled inner subshells
(b) vacant inner subshells
(c) partially filled inner subshells
(d) all the subshells equally filled

42. The relative permeability of a substance is 0.9999 . The nature of


substance will be
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) magnetic moment
(d) intensity of magnetic field
43. At a certain place, horizontal component is 1/√3 times the vertical
component. The angle of dip at this place is
(a) zero
(b) 𝜋/3
(c) 𝜋/6
(d) None of these
44. Hysteresis loss is minimised by using
(a) alloy of steel
(b) shell type of core
(c) thick wire which has low resistance
(d) metal

45. To make electromagnet, substance should be of


(a) high permeability and high susceptibility
(b) low permeability and high susceptibility
(c) high permeability and low susceptibility
(d) low permeability and low susceptibility

46. Cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid, such that we get two
smaller solenoids with
(a) weaker magnetic properties
(b) strong magnetic properties
(c) constant magnetic properties
(d) Both (a) and (b)
47. The instantaneous magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by 𝜙=
(5𝑡3−100𝑡+300)Wb. The emf indueed in the coil at time 𝑡=2 s is
(a) =40 V
(b) 40 V
(c) 140 V
(d) 300 V
48. A horizontal straight wire 20 m long extending from east to west is falling
with a speed of 5.0 ms−1 at right angles to the horizontal component of the
earth's magnetic field 0.30×10−4Wbm−2. The instantaneous value of the
emf induced in the wire will be
(a) 6.0mV
(b) 3mV
(c) 4.5mV
(d) 1.5mV
49. A square of side 𝐿 metres lies in the 𝑥𝑦-plane in a region, where the
magnetic field is given by 𝐁 =𝐵0(2?̂?ˆ+3?̂?ˆ+4?̂?ˆ)T, where 𝐵0 is constant. The
magnitude of flux passing through the square is
NCERT Exemplar
(a) 2𝐵𝐿20 Wb
(b) 3𝐵𝐿20 Wb
(c) 4𝐵𝐿20 Wb
(d) √29𝐵𝐿20 Wb
50. The magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal to the time rate of
change of magnetic flux through the circuit, is statment of
(a) Fleming's right hand rule
(b) Fleming's left hand rule
(c) Felming's third law
(d) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
51. Eddy currents are generated in
(a) insulator
(b) conductor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

52. If the number of turns in a coil becomes doubled, then it self-inductance


will become
(a) double
(b) halved
(c) four times
(d) unchanged
53. The self-induced emf in a coil of 0.4H self-inductance when current in it is
changing at the rate of 50As−1, is
(a) 8×10−4 V
(b) 8×10−3 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 500 V
54. The peak voltage in a 220 V, AC source is
(a) 220 V
(b) about 160 V
(c) about 310 V
(d) 440 V

55. If the rms current in a 50 HzAC circuit is 5 A, the value of the current
1/300 s after its value becomes zero is
(a) 5√2 A
(b) 5√3/2 A
(c) 5/6 A
(d) $5 / \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~A}
56. If the reading of AC mains voltage by a voltmeter is 200 V, then the root
mean square value of this voltage will be
(a) 200√2 V
(b) 100√2 V
(c) 200 V
(d) 400/𝜋V
57. The reading of an ammeter in an alternating circuit is 4 A. The peak
(maximum) value of current in the circuit is
(a) 4 A
(b) 8 A
(c) 4√2 A
2
(d) A
√2

58. The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the


(a) inductance
(b) frequency of the current
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) amplitude of current

59. A pure inductor of 25.0mH is connected to a source of 220 V. Find the


inductive reactance if the frequency of the source is 50 Hz.
(a) 785Ω
(b) 6.50Ω
(c) 7.85Ω
(d) 8.75Ω
60. To reduce the resonant frequency in an 𝐿−𝐶−𝑅 series circuit with a
generator
(a) the generator frequency should be reduced
(b) another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first
(c) the iron core of the inductor should be removed
(d) dielectric in the capacitor should be removed
61. In a series 𝐿−𝐶−𝑅 circuit, the capacitance 𝐶 is changed to 4C. To keep
the resonant frequency same, the inductance must be changed by
(a) 2𝐿
(b) 𝐿/2
(c) 4 L
(d) 𝐿/4
62. If in an alternating circuit, the voltage is 𝑉 and current is 𝐼, then the value
of power dissipated in the circuit is
(a) 𝑉𝐼
(b) 𝑉𝐼/2
(c) 𝑉𝐼/√2
(d) depends upon the angle between 𝑉 and 𝐼
63. In an 𝐴𝐶 circuit, the instantaneous values of emf and current are 𝑒=
200sin(⁡314)𝑡 V and 𝐼=sin(⁡314𝑡+𝜋/3) A. The average power consumed
is
(a) 200 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W

64. A coil of resistance 50Ω and inductance 10H is connected with a battery of
50 V. The energy stored in the coil is
(a) 125 J
(b) 62.5 J
(c) 250 J
(d) 500 J
65. The value of power factor is maximum in an alternating circuit, when
circuit consists
(a) only inductive
(b) only capacitive
(c) only 𝐿−𝐶
(d) only resistive
66. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends upon the source of
radiation
(a) increases as we move from 𝛾-rays to radio waves
(b) decreases as we move from 𝛾-rays to radio waves
(c) is same for all of them
(d) None of the above
67. One requires 11eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule
into carbon and oxygen atoms. The minimum frequency of the appropriate
electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in
(a) visible region
(b) infrared region
(c) ultraviolet region
(d) microwave region

a. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a


propagating electromagnetic wave?
(a) A stationary charge
(b) A charge less particle
(c) An accelerating charge
(d) A charge moving at constant velocity
68. If 𝐄 and 𝐵 represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the
electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of electromagnetic
wave is along
(a) 𝐸
(b) 𝐵
(c) 𝐵×𝐸
(d) 𝐸×𝐵

69. If 𝜀0 and 𝜇0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free
space and 𝜀 and 𝜇 are the corresponding quantities in the medium, the
index of refraction of the medium in terms of above parameter is
𝜀𝜇
(a)
𝜀0𝜇0
𝜀𝜇 1/2
(b) ()
𝜀0𝜇0
𝜀
(0𝜇(c) 0)
𝜀𝜇
𝜀1/2
(0𝜇(d)
𝜀𝜇
0)

70. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field
components to the intensity of an EM wave is
NCERT Exemplar
(a) 𝑐:1
(b) 𝑐2+1
(c) 1:1
(d) √c:1

71. Frequency of wave is 6×1010 Hz, The wave is


(a) radiowave
(b) microwave
(c) X-ray
(d) None of these
72. In the following waves, which is not electromagnetic wave?
(a) 𝛼-rays
(b) 𝛾-rays
(c) Infrared rays
(d) X-rays

73. The largest wavelength of electromagnetic wave is


(a) X-rays
(b) radio waves
(c) ultraviolet rays
(d) infrared rays

74. In reflection over a spherical mirror, ray parallel to principal axis, after
reflection from mirror pass through
(a) focus
(b) centre of curvature
(c) pole of mirror
(d) any point
75. A ray passing through or directed towards centre of curvature of a
spherical mirror is reflected such that it trace back of its path, because
(a) it does not follow law of reflection
(b) angle of incidence is 0∘
(c) centre of curvature is midway between object and pole
(d) distance of centre of curvature from focus is equal to its distance from
pole

76. If lower half of a concave mirror is blackened, then


(a) image distance increases
(b) image distance decreases
(c) image intensity increases
(d) image intensity decreases

77. An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a concave mirror,


which produces a real image 3 cm high. What is the focal length of the
mirror?
(a) −96 cm
(b) −36 cm
(c) −63 cm
(d) −83 cm

78. Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface ( 𝑛=1.5
and radius of curvature =20 cm ). The distance of the light source from
the glass surface is 100 cm. Image distance from the glass surface is
(a) 20 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 75 cm
79. First and second focal lengths of spherical surface of 𝑛 refractive index are
𝑓1 and 𝑓2 respectively. The relation between them, is
(a) 𝑓2=𝑓1
(b) 𝑓2=−𝑓1
(c) 𝑓2=𝑛𝑓1
(d) 𝑓2=−𝑛𝑓1
80. A magician during a show makes a glass lens with 𝑛=1.47 disappear in a
trough of liquid.
Refractive index of the liquid is
(a) 1.47
(b) 1.33
4
(c)
3
12
(d)
5

81. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that, the angle of
incidence is equal to the angle of emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4
the angle of prism. The angle of deviation is
(a) 25∘
(b) 30∘
(c) 45∘
(d) 35∘

82. A ray of light incident at an angle 𝜃 on a refracting face of a prism emerges


from the other face normally. If the angle of the prism is 5∘ and the prism
is made of a material of refractive index 1.5 , the angle of incidence is
(a) 7.5∘
(b) 5∘
(c) 15∘
(d) 2.5∘

83. Two convex and concave lens are in contact and having focal length 12 cm
and 18 cm, respectively. Focal length of joint lens will be
(a) 50 cm
(b) 45 cm
(c) 36 cm
(d) 18 cm
84. Two lenses are kept in contact with powers +2 𝐷 and −4𝐷. The focal
length of this combination will be
(a) +50 cm
(b) −50 cm
(c) −25 cm
(d) +25 cm
85. An equilateral prism is in condition of minimum deviation. If incidence
angle is 4/5 times of prism angle, then minimum deviation angle is
(a) 72∘
(b) 60∘
(c) 48∘
(d) 36∘
86. The Doppler effect is produced if
(a) the source is in motion
(b) the detector is in motion
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

87. In the context of Doppler effect in light, the term red shift signifies
(a) decrease in frequency
(b) increase in frequency
(c) decrease in intensity
(d) increase in intensity

88. In diffraction from a single slit the angular width of the central maxima
does not depends on
(a) 𝜆 of light used
(b) width of slit
(c) distance of slits from the screen 𝐷
(d) ratio of 𝜆 and slit width.
89. What should be the slit width to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit
pattern within the central maxima of the single slit pattern of slit width
0.4 mm ?
(a) 0.4 mm
(b) 0.2 mm
(c) 0.6 mm
(d) 0.8 mm

90. In Young's double slit experiment two disturbance arriving at a point 𝑃


have phase difference of 𝜋/2 The intensity of this point expressed as a
fraction of maximum intensity 𝐼6 is
3
(a) 𝐼
2 0
1
(b) 𝐼
2 0
4
(c) 𝐼
3 0
3
(d) 𝐼
40
91. If the width of slit is decreased in a single slit diffraction, then the width of
central maxima will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) not depend on the width of slit.
92. Lenard observed that no electrona are emitied when frequency of light is
less than a certain minimum frequency, This minimum frequency depends
on
(a) potential difference of emilter and collector platen
(b) distance between collector and the emitter plate
(c) size (area) of the emitter plate
(d) material of the emitter plate

93. The work function of a metal is he/ 𝜆0. If light of wavelength 𝜆 is incident
on its surface, then the essential condition for the electron to come out
from the metal surface is
(a) 𝜆≥𝜆0
(b) 𝜆≥2𝜆0
(c)
𝑖𝑗
𝜆≤𝜆′′
(d) 𝜆≤𝜆0/2
94. A photocell converts
(a) change in current into change in light intensity
(b) change in intensity of light into change in current
(c) change in current into change in voltage
(d) change in intensity into change in potential difference

95. The de-Broglie wavelength (𝜆 ) of equal mass particles depends upon the
mass in the following way

(a) 𝜆 𝑚

(b) 𝜆 𝑚1/2

(c) 𝜆 𝑚−1

(d) 𝜆 𝑚−1/2
96. All photons present in a light beam of single frequency have
(a) same frequency but different momentum
(b) same momentum but different frequency
(c) different frequency and different momentum
(d) same frequency and same momentum

97. The linear momentum of a 6MeV photon is


(a) 0.01eVsm−1
(b) 0.02eVsm−1
(c) 0.03eVsm−1
(d) 0.04eVsm−1
98. With the increase in potential difference of emitter and collector, the
photoelectric current
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases initially and then become constant
99. The angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom in ground state is

(a)
𝜋

(b)
2𝜋
2𝜋
(c)

𝜋
(d)

100. If the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 4.7×


10−11 m. Compute the kinetic energy of the electron in hydrogen atom.
(a) 15.3eV
(b) −15.3eV (c) 13.6eV
(d) −13.6eV

101. In hydrogen spectrum, H𝛼 lines lies in


(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Brackett or Pfund in one of them

102. The number of spectral lines produced due to transition among


three energy levels will be
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 3
103. In Bohr's atomic model, in going to a higher level (PE= potential
energy, TE= total energy)
(a) PE decreases, TE increases
(b) PE increases, TE increases
(c) PE decreases, TE decreases
(d) PE increases, TE decreases
104. The kinetic energy in ground state of hydrogen atom is −13.6eV.
What will be the potential energy of electron in this state?
(a) −27.2eV
(b) +27.2eV
(c) −13.6eV
(d) 0eV
105. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate the
energy levels of an atom with many electrons. This is because NCERT
Exemplar
(a) of the electrons not being subject to a central force
(b) of the electrons colliding with each other
(c) of screening effects
(d) the force between the nucleus and an electron will no longer be given
by Coulomb's law
106. Atomic mass unit (1u) is
(a) 1/12 of mass of 1⁡ 2C atom
(b) 1/14 of mass of 1⁡ 4C atom
(c) 1/12 of mass of 1⁡ 4C atom
(d) 1/6 of mass of 1
⁡ 2C atom

107. Ratio of radius of an atom to the radius of its nucleus is around


(a) 10−2
(b) 104
(c) 1012
(d) 1015

108. If the nuclear radius of 2


⁡ 7Al is 3.6Fermi, the approximate nuclear
radius of 6
⁡ 4Cu in Fermi is
(a) 2.4
(b) 1.2
(c) 4.8
(d) 3.6
109. How much mass has to converted into energy to produce electric
power of 200 MW for one hour?
(a) 2×10−6 kg
(b) 8×10−6 kg
(c) 1×10−6 kg
(d) 3×10−6 kg
110. The mass defect of helium nucleus is 0.0303 amu. The binding
energy per nucleon for helium nucleus will be
(a) 28MeV
(b) 7MeV
(c) 14MeV
(d) 1MeV
111. Binding energy of hydrogen nucleus is
(a) −13.6eV
(b) 0
(c) 13.6eV
(d) 6.8eV
112. Two protons are attracting each other, then separation between
them is
(a) 10−10 m
(b) 10−2 m
(c) 10−8 m
(d) 10−15 m
113. The half-life of radium is 1600yr. The time in which 100 g of radium
will disintegrate and only 25 g radium will remain undisintegrated will be
(a) 2400yr
(b) 3200yr
(c) 4800yr
(d) 6400yr
114. In the initial mass of substance of 5yr half-life period is 𝑁0, then the
final mass after 15 yr of that substance will be
(a) 𝑁0/2
(b) 𝑁0/3
(c) 𝑁0/4
(d) 𝑁0/8
115. The decay constant of a radioactive substance is 3.465×10−4 per
year. The approximate half-life is
(a) 2000yr
(b) 2400yr
(c) 2600yr
(d) 6300yr
116. In an 𝑛-type silicon, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Electrons are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms are the
dopants
(b) Electrons are minority charge carriers and pentavalent atoms are the
dopants
(c) Holes are minority charge carriers and pentavalent atoms are the
dopants
(d) Holes are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
117. In an unbiased 𝑝−𝑛 junction, holes diffuse from the 𝑝-region to 𝑛-
region because
(a) free electrons in the nregion attract them
(b) they moves across the junction by the potential difference
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to hole
concentration in 𝑛-region
(d) All of the above

118. The potential barrier of germanium diode is


(a) 0.1 V
(b) 0.3 V
(c) 05 V
(d) 0.7 V
119. photodiode converts
a) variation in intensity of light into current amplitude variation
(b) variation of current amplitude into variation in intensity of emitted
light
(c) variation of voltage into variation of current
(d) variation of intensity of light into variation of volume

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