Unit 01 (Force and Motion) 1

III. If there is no external force applied to a system, then

A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S the total momentum of that system keeps changing
A. I only B. I and II only
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) C. I and III only D. III only
E. I, II and III
1. Assume that you have two balls of identical volume, 7. Projectile must be launched at which angle with the
one weighting 2 newtons and other 10 newtons. Both horizontal to attain maximum range? (NTS 2011)
are falling freely after being released from the same A. 90o B. 45o
point simultaneously. Which of the following will then C. 75 o
D. 105o
be true: (NTS 2010) 8. A player throws a ball at an initial velocity of 36 m/s.
I. The 10 N ball falling freely from rest will be The maximum distance the ball can reach (assume ball
accelerated at a greater rate than the 2 N ball. is caught at the same height at which it was released)
II. at the end of 4 s of free fall the 10 N ball will have 5 is: (NTS 2011)
times the momentum of the 2 N ball A. 146 m B. 130 m
III. At the end of 4 s of free fall, the 10 N ball will have the C. 132 m D. 129 m
same kinetic energy as the 2 N ball E. 145 m
IV. The 10 N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2 N 9. All of the following is/are scalar quantity/ies, expected:
ball (NTS 2011)
A. I, II and III only B. I and III only A. temperature B. density
C. II and IV only D. IV only C. volume D. force
E. None of these E. speed
2. A car waiting at a traffic signal and when the signal 10. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the velocity of
turns green, the car starts ahead with a constant 98 m/sec, how high does the ball rise? (NTS 2012)
acceleration of 2 m/s2. At the same time a bus traveling A. 196 m B. 2 m
with a constant speed of 10 m/s overtakes and passes B. l/2 m D. 4.9 m
the car. How far beyond its starting point will the car E. 9.8 m
overtake the bus? (NTS 2010) 11. A particle is projected at an angle of 45° with a
A. 40 m B. 30 m velocity of 9.8m/s. The horizontal range will be: (g =
C. 90 m D. 120 m 9.8 m/s2). (NTS 2012)
E. 100 m A. 9.8 / 2 m B. 9.8 2 m
3. A shot leaves a gun at the rate of 160 m/s. Calculate C. 9.8 m D. 4.9 m
the greatest distance to which it could be projected E. 3.1 m
and the height to which it would rise: (g = 10 m/s2): 12. Two blocks, X and Y, of masses m and 2m
(NTS 2010)
respectively, are accelerated along a smooth horizontal
A. 1560 m, 540 m B. 2560 m, 640 m
surface by a force F applied to block X, as shown in
C. 3560 m, 740 m D.4560 m, 840 m
the diagram. (NTS 2013)
E. 9595 m, 348 m F
4. A car covers the first half distance with a speed v 1 and X Y
the second half with a speed v2. Find the average speed
during the whole journey: (NTS 2010)
What is the magnitude of the force exerted by block Y
v1 + v2 2v1 + v2
A. B. on block X during this acceleration? (NTS 2013)
2(v1 + v2) v1 + v2
A. 0 B. F/3
2v1v2 v1 + v2 C. F/2 D. 2F/3
C. D.
v1 + v2 2 E. F
v1 + v2 13. A box of mass m = 6 kg slides with speed v = 4 m/s
E.
2v1 + 9v2 across a friction less floor. It suddenly explodes into to
5. A car starts from rest and move with constant pieces. One piece, with mass m1 = 2 kg moves in the
acceleration. During the 5th second of its motion it same direction with speed v1 = 8 m/s. find the velocity
covers a distance of 36 meters. What is the of second piece. (NTS 2013)
acceleration of the car? (NTS 2011) A. 2 m/s B. 4 m/s
A. 12.5 m/s2 B. 8 m/s2 C. 8 m/s D. 9 m/s
2
C. 15 m/s D. 16 m/s2 E. 11 m/s
2
E. 14 m/s 14. A ball of mass 2 kg travelling at 8 m/s strikes a ball of
6. Law of conservation of momentum states that: (NTS 2011) mass 4 kg travelling at 2 m/s. Both balls are moving
I. If there is no external force applied to a system, then along the same straight line as shown
the total momentum of that system remains constant
II. If there is an external force applied to a system, then
the total momentum of that system remains constant
Unit 01 (Force and Motion) 2
v1 = 8 m/s v2 = 2 m/s v 21. Two spherical balls of 2.0 kg and 3.0 kg masses are
moving towards each other with velocities 6 m/s and 4
m/s respectively. What must be the velocity of the
2 kg 4 kg 2 kg 4 kg smaller ball after collision, if the bigger ball is 3 m/s?
(NTS 2015)
Before collision After collision A.1.5 m/s B. 2.5 m/s
After collision, both balls move at the same velocity v. C. 3.5 m/s D. 4.5 m/s
what is the magnitude of the velocity v? (NTS 2013) E. 5.5 m/s
A. 4 m/s B. 5 m/s 22. An apple is thrown with speed of 30 m/s in a direction
C. 6 m/s D. 8 m/s of 30o above the horizontal. Find out its horizontal
E. 10 m/s range. (g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2015)
15. A car starts from rest and moves with constant A.20 m B. 40 m
acceleration during 4th second of its motion, it covers a C. 60 m D. 80 m
distance of 21 meters. The acceleration of car is E. 100 m
______ m/s2. (NTS 2019) 23. A car of mass 1200 kg initially at rest has been
A. 04 B. 06 accelerated to speed of 8 m/s in 16 m. Average
C. 08 D. 16 acceleration of car is ______ m/s2 and force is ______
16. A shot leaves a gun at the rate of 160 m/s. Calculate N. (NTS 2019)
the greatest distance to which it could be projected. A. 1.5 and 1500 B. 2.5 and 2400
(Take g = 10 m/s2) (NTS 2013) C. 3.5 and 3500 D. 2 and 2400
A. 2460 m B. 2560 m 24. Two forces of magnitudes 10 N and 20 N act on a body
C. 2680 m D. 2760 m in directions making angles 30o and 60o respectively
E. 2860 m with x-axis. What is the resultant force? (NTS 2015)
17. A rock is thrown straight upward from the edge of a A. 17 N B. 19 N
30 m cliff, rising 10 m then falling all the way down to C. 23 N D. 29 N
the base of the cliff. Find the rock’s displacement. E. 37 N
(NTS 2014) 25. A 100 g golf ball is moving to the right with a velocity
A. 20 meters downward B. 30 meters downward of 20 m/s. it makes a head on collision with an 8 kg
C. 40 meters upward D. 50 meters upward steel ball, initially at rest. Compute velocities of the
E. 60 meters upward balls after collision? (NTS 2015)
18. A stone dropped from a certain height can reach the A.  19.5 m/s and 0.5 m/s B.  17. 1 m/s and 1.5 m/s
ground in 5 s. It is stopped after 3 s of its fall and then C.  15. 1 m/s and 3.5 m/s D.  13.7 m/s 3.5 m/s
allowed to fall again. Find the time taken by the stone E.  11.9 m/s and 6.7 m/s
to reach the ground for the remaining distance. 26. Two bodies X and Y are attached to the ends of a
(NTS 2014)
string which passes over a pulley so that the two
A. 2 s B. 4 s
bodies hang vertically. If the mass of the body X is 5
C. 6 s D. 8 s
kg and that of body Y is 4.8 kg. Find the acceleration?
E. 10 s
(g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2015)
19. Which one of the following statement is true
A. 0.2 m/s2 B. 1.7 m/s2
concerning the motion of an ideal projectile launched 2
C. 3.7 m/s D. 4.9 m/s2
at an angle of 45o to the horizontal? (NTS 2014) 2
E. 9.1 m/s
A. the acceleration vector points opposite to the
27. An organ is dropped from the top of a tower. If it
velocity vector on the way up and in the same
takes 10 seconds to hit the ground, find the height of
direction as the velocity on the way down.
tower? (g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2016)
B. the speed at the top of trajectory is zero.
A.280 meters B. 310 meters
C. the object’s total speed remains constant during
C. 390 meters D. 490 meters
the entire flight.
E. 510 meters
D. the horizontal speed decreases on the way up and
28. A person having a mass of 60 kg exerts a horizontal
also decreases on the way down.
force of 200 N in pushing a 90 kg object a distance of 6
E. the vertical speed decreases on the way up and
m along a horizontal floor. He does this at constant
increases on the way down
velocity in 3 s. The weight of this person is
20. A football, at rest on ground, is kicked with an initial
approximately, in newtons: (g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2017)
velocity of 10 m/s at a launch angle of 30 o. Calculate its
A. 40 B. 90
total flight time, assuming that air resistance is
C. 200 D. 400
negligible. (NTS 2014)
E. 600
A. 0.5 s B. 1 s
29. A car is travelling with uniform acceleration along a
C. 1.7 s D. 2 s
straight road. The road has marker post every 100 m.
E. 14 s
When the car passes one post, it has a speed of 10 m/s
Unit 01 (Force and Motion) 3
and when it passes the next one, its speed is 20 m/s. 1. C. 11. C. 21. D. 31. D.
what is car’s acceleration? (NTS 2017) 2. E. 12. D. 22. D. 32. C.
A. 0.67 m/s2 B. 1.5 m/s2 3. B. 13. A. 23. D. 33. B.
2
C. 2.5 m/s D. 6.0 m/s2
4. C. 14. A. 24. D. 34. D.
30. If a car collide with a housefly, what will be the
magnitude of the force experienced by the housefly? 5. B. 15. B. 25. A. 35. E.
(NTS 2018) 6. A. 16. B. 26. A. 36. B.
A. much greater than the car experienced by the housefly 7. B. 17. B. 27. D.
B. much lesser than the car experienced by the housefly
C. same as the car experienced by the housefly 8. C. 18. B. 28. E.
D. 10 times less than the car experienced by housefly 9. D. 19. E. 29. B.
31. A cyclist moving towards right with an acceleration of 10. D. 20. B. 30. C.
4 m/s2. At t = 0, he has travelled 5 m moving towards
the right at 15 m/s. what will be his position at t = 2s?
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33. An object is falling down with a speed of 20 m/s. after
3 seconds it velocity will be ______ m/s. (g = 10 m/s 2)
(NTS 2019)
A. 05 B. 50
C. 55 D. 95
34. What force should be applied on a 10 kg body so that
it moves down in vacuum with an acceleration of 3
m/s2? (take g = 10 m/s2) (NTS 2015)
A. 42 N B. 46 N
C. 48 N D. 68
E. 58 N
35. An object with constant mass rests on a horizontal
surface whose coefficient of friction is 0.2. If a
horizontal force F is applied to the object, what will be
the effect(s) on the object? (NTS 2017)
I. It may move with constant speed in the
direction of F once it has been set in motion.
II. It may remain at rest.
III. It may accelerate.
IV. It may move with constant speed in a
direction opposite to F.
A. I, II and III only B. I and III only
C. II and IV only D. IV only
E. III only
36. A ball falls vertically and bounces on the ground. The
following statements are about the forces acting while
the ball is in contact with the ground. Which statement
is correct? (NTS 2017)
A. the force that the ball exerts on the ground is always
equal to the weight of the ball
B. the force that the ball exerts on the ground is always in
magnitude an opposite in direction to the force the
ground exerts on the ball
C. the force that the ball exerts on the ground is always
greater than the weight of the ball
D. the weight of the ball is always equal and opposite to
the force that the ground exerts on the ball
Unit 02 (Work and Energy) 1
8. The work done in moving an object along a straight
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S line from (3, 2, 1) to (2,  1, 4) in a the force field
 ^ ^ ^
which is given by F = 4 i  3 j + 2k is: (NTS 2013)
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) A. 45 B. 35
1. A body of mass 5 kg, initially at rest, is moved by a C. 25 D. 15
horizontal force of 2 N on a smooth horizontal surface. E. 5
Find the work done by the force in 10 s: (NTS 2010) 9. A man pushes a box, initially at rest towards another
A. 40 J B. 30 J man by exerting a constant horizontal force F of
C. 50 J D. 20 J magnitude 5 N through a distance of 1 m. its final
E. 10 J kinetic energy is: (NTS 2014)
2. A ball moving horizontally with speed v strikes the A. 5 J B. 10 J
bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob C. 15 J D. 20 J
is equal to that of the ball. If the collision is elastic the E. 25 J
bob will go to a height: (NTS 2010) 10. When a force acts at right angles to the displacement
v2 v2 ( = 90o) the work is zero i.e., the force does not
A. B. produce work. Identify the example/s from the
g 2g
2
v v2 following when work is zero. (NTS 2014)
C. D. I. It is considered hard work to hold a
4g 8g
v2 heavy stone stationary at starched hand
E. II. A person walks along a level surface while
7g
3. A 70 kg man run up a hill through a height of 3 meters carrying a box
in 2 seconds. Its average power output is (g = 10 m/s2): III. When a body moves in circular path
(NTS 2011) A. I only B. II only
A. 1050 watts B. 970 watts C. III only D. II and III only
C. 1500 watts D. 1300 watts E. I,II and III
E. 500 watts 11. A neutron travels a distance of 12 m in a time interval
4. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy is of 3.6  104 s. Assuming its speed was constant, its
always constant provided: (NTS 2011) kinetic energy is: (take 1.7  1027 kg as the mass of
A. there is some force of friction involved during the neutron) (NTS 2014)
motion of the body A. 3.1 eV B. 4.7 eV
B. there is no force of friction involved during the C. 5.78 eV D. 6.91 eV
motion of the body E. 7.81 eV
C. there is greater force of friction involved during 12. A 70 kg sportsman runs up a long flight of stairs in 4
the motion of the body seconds. The vertical height of the stairs is 4.5 m. what
D. both A. and B. will be his power output in watts? (NTS 2015)
E. none of these A. 7.7  102 W B. 8.8  103 W
5. A block of mass 50 kg is pulled on a frictionless floor C. 9.5  10 W3
D. 10.2  104 W
by a force of 210 N directed at 30 o to the horizontal. If E. 13.5  10 W 7

the block moves 3.0 m. What is the work done on it by 13. Calculate the final kinetic energy when a shopkeeper
applied force? (NTS 2013) pushes a fruit crate, initially at rest towards another
A. 115 2 J B. 215 2 J shopkeeper by exerting a constant horizontal force F
C. 315 3 J D. 415 2 J of magnitude 5 N through a distance of 1 m. (NTS 2015)
E. 515 3 J A. 2 J B. 3 J
6. A 40 kg block is resting at a height of 5 m off the C. 5 J D. 7 J
ground. If the block is released and falls to the ground, E. 9 J
what is its total energy at a height of 2 m? (g = 10 m/s 2) 14. When the component of the force is in the same
(NTS 2013) direction of displacement ( = 0o), the work is ______
A. 0 J B. 400 J when the direction of the force is opposite to the
C. 2 kJ D. 6 kJ direction of displacement ( = 180o), the work is
E. it cannot be determined from the information given ______ and when the force acts right angles to
7. An electric rod of 2000 watts rating boils a certain displacement ( = 90o), the work is ______. (NTS 2015)
quantity of water in 10 minutes. The heat which is A. negative, zero, positive
generated for boiling this water is: (NTS 2013) B. positive, negative, zero
A. 8  104 J B. 12  105 J C. negative, positive, zero
C. 19  10 J
5
D. 23  105 J D. zero, positive, negative
E. 37  10 J
5 E. positive, zero, negative
Unit 02 (Work and Energy) 2
15. An 80 kg man runs up a hill through a height of 4 m in
3 second. How much work does he do against
gravitational force/ (g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2016)
A. 2136 J B. 3136 J
C. 4136 J D. 5136 J
E. 6136 J
16. An object is lifted 5 m above leveled ground, mass of
object is 20 kg and acceleration due to gravity is 10 N
kg1, potential energy of the object is: (NTS 2016)
A. 400 J B. 1000 J
C. 2.5 J D. 0.4 J
17. The sum of kinetic energy and the potential energy is
always constant provided ______ motion. (NTS 2019)
A. there is greater force of friction involved during
B. body is in simple harmonic
C. there is less force of friction involved during
D. no force of friction involved during
18. When an object is thrown upward, it rises to height h.
How high is the object in terms of h, when it has lost
1/3 of its original kinetic energy? (NTS 2019)
A. h/2 B. h/3
C. h/4 D. h/6
1. A. 11. C.
2. B. 12. A.
3. A. 13. C.
4. B. 14. B.
5. C. 15. B.
6. C. 16. B.
7. B. 17. D.
8. C. 18. B.
9. A.
10. E.
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Unit 03 (Rotational and Circular Motion) 1
II. The motion of planets around the Sun
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S III. Sugar cane crushing machine is run by a
camel that moves in circular path around the
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) machine
1. Example (s) of spin motion is/are: (NTS 2011) IV. Rotation of fly wheel about its axle
A. the daily rotation of the earth about its own axis A. I and II are the examples of spin motion
B. jumping of paratrooper from helicopter B. I and II are the examples of orbital motion
C. flow of viscous fluid C. II and IV are the examples of spin motion
D. rotation of fly wheel about its axle D. III and IV are the examples of orbital motion
E. both A. and C. E. I and IV are the examples of spin motion and II and III
2. 1 radian = (NTS 2012) are the examples of orbital motion
A. 360° B. 180o 8. A car 500 kg is travelling at a constant speed of 9 m/s
C. 100° D. 57.3° round a curve of 100 m. What is centripetal force?
E. 0.01745° (NTS 2019)

3. A rotating wheel of radius 0.5 m has an angular A. 205 N B. 305 N

velocity of 5 rad/s at some instant and 10 rad/s after 5 C. 405 N D. 505 N
1. E.
s. Find the angular acceleration of the point on its rim.
(NTS 2013) 2. D.
2 2 3.
A. 1 rad/s B. 3 rad/s A.
C. 5 rad/s2 D. 7 rad/s2 4. B.
2
E. 9 rad/s 5. B.
4. When the aircraft Concord is moving in a horizontal 6. A.
plane at a constant speed of 650 m/s. its turning circle 7. E.
has a radius of 80 km. what is the ratio of centripetal 8. C.
force to the weight of aircraft? (g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2013)
A. 8.3  104 B. 0.54 To Get Solution of Physics Past papers of
C. 1.9 D. 52
E. 540
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5. A body having translator motion possesses ______ and
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______. In the same way, a body having rotatory
motion possesses ______ and ______. (NTS 2014)
A. angular velocity, linear velocity, angular momentum,
linear momentum
B. linear velocity, linear momentum, angular velocity,
angular momentum
C. angular momentum, angular velocity, linear
momentum, linear velocity
D. linear momentum, angular velocity, angular
momentum, linear velocity
E. linear momentum, angular momentum, linear velocity,
angular velocity
6. A 1000 kg vehicle is turning around a corner at 10 m/s
as it travels along an arc of a circle. If the radius of the
circular path is 10 m, how large a force must be
exerted by the pavement on the tyres to hold the
vehicle in the circular path? (NTS 2015)
A. 1.0  104 N B. 3.0  104 N
C. 5.0  10 N4
D. 7.0  104 N
E. 9.0  104 N
7. Consider the following examples of motion: (NTS 2015)
I. The daily motion of Earth about its on axis
Unit 03 (Rotational and Circular Motion) 2
Unit 03 (Rotational and Circular Motion) 1
II. The motion of planets around the Sun
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S III. Sugar cane crushing machine is run by a
camel that moves in circular path around the
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) machine
1. Example (s) of spin motion is/are: (NTS 2011) IV. Rotation of fly wheel about its axle
A. the daily rotation of the earth about its own axis A. I and II are the examples of spin motion
B. jumping of paratrooper from helicopter B. I and II are the examples of orbital motion
C. flow of viscous fluid C. II and IV are the examples of spin motion
D. rotation of fly wheel about its axle D. III and IV are the examples of orbital motion
E. both A. and C. E. I and IV are the examples of spin motion and II and III
2. 1 radian = (NTS 2012) are the examples of orbital motion
A. 360° B. 180o 8. A car 500 kg is travelling at a constant speed of 9 m/s
C. 100° D. 57.3° round a curve of 100 m. What is centripetal force?
E. 0.01745° (NTS 2019)

3. A rotating wheel of radius 0.5 m has an angular A. 205 N B. 305 N

velocity of 5 rad/s at some instant and 10 rad/s after 5 C. 405 N D. 505 N
1. E.
s. Find the angular acceleration of the point on its rim.
(NTS 2013) 2. D.
2 2 3.
A. 1 rad/s B. 3 rad/s A.
C. 5 rad/s2 D. 7 rad/s2 4. B.
2
E. 9 rad/s 5. B.
4. When the aircraft Concord is moving in a horizontal 6. A.
plane at a constant speed of 650 m/s. its turning circle 7. E.
has a radius of 80 km. what is the ratio of centripetal 8. C.
force to the weight of aircraft? (g = 9.8 m/s2) (NTS 2013)
A. 8.3  104 B. 0.54 To Get Solution of Physics Past papers of
C. 1.9 D. 52
E. 540
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5. A body having translator motion possesses ______ and
ETEA for KPK
______. In the same way, a body having rotatory
motion possesses ______ and ______. (NTS 2014)
A. angular velocity, linear velocity, angular momentum,
linear momentum
B. linear velocity, linear momentum, angular velocity,
angular momentum
C. angular momentum, angular velocity, linear
momentum, linear velocity
D. linear momentum, angular velocity, angular
momentum, linear velocity
E. linear momentum, angular momentum, linear velocity,
angular velocity
6. A 1000 kg vehicle is turning around a corner at 10 m/s
as it travels along an arc of a circle. If the radius of the
circular path is 10 m, how large a force must be
exerted by the pavement on the tyres to hold the
vehicle in the circular path? (NTS 2015)
A. 1.0  104 N B. 3.0  104 N
C. 5.0  10 N4
D. 7.0  104 N
E. 9.0  104 N
7. Consider the following examples of motion: (NTS 2015)
I. The daily motion of Earth about its on axis
Unit 03 (Rotational and Circular Motion) 2
Unit 04 (Waves) 1
A. minimum
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S B. maximum
C. zero
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) D. greater than its kinetic energy
1. If the frequency of pendulum is four times on an 1. A.
unknown planet than it is on Earth. The gravitational 2. B.
acceleration of that planet is: (NTS 2013) 3. A.
A. 16 times greater B. 4 times greater 4. D.
C. 4 times lower D. 16 times lower 5. B.
E. 24 times lower 6. B.
2. A student is performing a lab experiment on simple 1. A transverse wave on a long horizontal rope with a
harmonic motion. He has two different springs (with wavelength of 8 m travels at 2 m/s at t = 0 a particular
force constants k1 and k2) and two different blocks (of point on the rope has a vertical displacement of + A,
where A is the amplitude of the wave. At what time
masses m1 and m2). If k1 = 2k2 and m1 = 2m2, which of
will be vertical displacement of this same point on the
the following combinations would give the student, the
rope be A? (NTS 2010)
spring-block simple harmonic oscillator with the A. t = 1/8 s B. t= ¼ s
shortest period? (NTS 2014) C. t = ½ s D. t = 2 s
A. the spring with force constant k1 and the block of E. t = 4 s
mass m1 2. The superposition of two light waves is called:
(NTS 2012)
B. the spring with force constant k1 and the block of
A. Diffraction B. Polarization
mass m2 C. Interference D. Reflection
C. the spring with force constant k2 and the block of E. Absorption
mass m1 3. Electromagnetic waves are produced by: (NTS 2012)
D. the spring with force constant k2 and the block of A. motion of electric and magnetic fields
mass m2 B. charge less particles
E. all the combinations above would give the same C. a static charge
D. heat
Period
E. none of the above
3. A simple pendulum completes one oscillation in 4 4. A submarine sends out a sonar signal (sound wave) in
seconds. Calculate its length when g = 9.8 m/s2, as the a direction directly downward. It takes 2.3 s for sound
time period of simple pendulum is given by T = wave to form the submarine to the ocean bottom and
2 L/g: (NTS 2015) back to the submarine. How high (approximately) up
from the ocean to submarine? (The speed of sound in
A. 3.973 m B. 5.123 m
water is 1490 m/s): (NTS 2013)
C. 7.111 m D. 9.231 m A. 1700 m B. 3000 m
E. 12.141 C. 5000 m D. 9000 m
4. A body with a mass of 0.2 kg is attached to a spring E. it cannot be determined from the information given
and placed on a horizontal frictionless table. The 5. A special class of wave which do not need material
string is stretched 30 cm, when a force of 6 N is medium for their propagation are called: (NTS 2013)
applied. What is its spring constant? (NTS 2016) A. electric waves
B. magnetic waves
A. 5 N/m B. 10 N/m
C. electromagnetic waves
C. 15 N/m D. 20 N/m D. sound waves
E. 25 N/m E. Earthquake’s shock waves
5. The time of one vibration of simple pendulum may be 6. A sound wave with frequency of 343 Hz travels
decreased by: (NTS 2017) through the air. What is its wavelength? (Speed of
A. increasing the length of the pendulum sound through air = 343 m/s) (NTS 2014)
B. decreasing the length of the pendulum A. 1 m B. 2 m
C. 3 m D. 4 m
C. using a heavier D. using a lighter bob
7. A train is approaching a station at 90 km/h sounding a
6. In simple harmonic motion, a particle is oscillating in whistle of frequency 1000 Hz. What will be the
such a way that its total energy remains conserved. apparent frequency heard by the listener sitting on the
When this particle reaches its two extreme positions, platform if the train moves away from the station with
its potential energy at extreme position becomes: (NTS the same speed? (Speed of sound = 340 m/s) (NTS 2015)
2018) A. 931.5 Hz B. 105.7 Hz
C. 135.9 Hz D. 153.1 Hz
Unit 04 (Waves) 2
E. 164.9 Hz
8. Which of the following waves are electromagnetic
waves? (NTS 2016)
A. X-rays B. beta rays
C. alpha rays D. proton rays
9. If two sounds have the same wavelength in air at the
same temperature, what other properties must they
also have common? (NTS 2017)
I. Intensity
II. Amplitude
III. Frequency
A. I only B. III only
C. I and II only D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
10. There are different types of waves that exist in this
universe. Which of the following waves do NOT need
any material medium to travel? (NTS 2018)
A. sound waves
B. waves produced on a string
C. electromagnetic waves
D. waves produced on the water surface
11. When a train while whistling passes near you, a
considerable change in the pitch of sound is heard.
When the train is moving away, the pitch of the sound
_____ whereas, the pitch of sound ______ when the
train is approaching. (NTS 2019)
A. increases, decreases B. increase, remains same
C. decreases, increases D. decreases, remains same
12. A travelling wave in which the particles of the
disturbing medium move parallel to the direction of
propagation of wave is called: (NTS 2019)
A. transverse wave B. circular wave
C. longitudinal wave D. stationary wave
13. The Laplace’s correction to Newton’s formula is based
on the fact that the compression and rarefactions
occurs as: (NTS 2019)
A. adiabatic process B. isothermal process
C. isochoric process D. isobaric process
1. D. 11. C.
2. C. 12. C.
3. A. 13. A.
4. A.
5. C.
6. A.
7. A.
8. A.
9. B.
10. C.

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Unit 05 (Heat and Thermodynamics) 1
9. A fixed mass of an ideal gas absorbs 1000 J of heat and
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S expands under a constant pressure of 20 kPa from a
volume or 25  103 m3 to a volume of 50  103 m3.
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) What is the change in internal energy of the gas? (NTS
2017)
1. The first law of thermodynamics may be written as U A.  1000 J B.  900 J
= Q + W. Where U is the increase in internal energy C. Zero D. + 500 J
of the system Q is the heat transferred to the system E. + 1000 J
and W is the external work done on the system. Which 10. The sum of all forms of molecular energies in a
of the following is correct for the case an isothermal thermodynamic system is known as: (NTS 2017)
expansion of an ideal gas? (NTS 2010) A. entropy B. enthalpy
A. W > 0 B. W = 0 C. internal energy D. red shift
C. U = 0 D. U > 0 11. The internal energy of the system decreases in an
E. Q = 0 adiabatic process. Which of the following must be true
2. A system absorbs 2000 joules of heat and delivers 1200 regarding this process? (NTS 2019)
joules of work, while losing 200 joules of heat by A. heat flows out of the system
conduction to the atmosphere, the change in the B. work is done by the system
internal energy of the system will be: (NTS 2011) C. work is done on the system
A. 600 joules B. 900 joules D. the potential energy of the system is changing
C. 300 joules D. 400 joules 12. Three words are shown below:
E. 16 00 joules Non-zero Isobaric Iso-barically
3. A system absorbs 1000 joules of heat and delivers 600 These words can be used in the space P, Q and R to
joules of work, while losing 100 joules of heat by complete me sentence below.
conduction to the atmosphere, the change in the ___P___ process is that process which takes place at
internal energy of the system will be: (NTS 2012) constant pressure. In such a process the heat
A. 600 joules B. 900 joules transferred and work are both ___Q___. When water
C. 300 joules D. 400 joules enters the boiler of a steam engine and is heated to its
E. 16 00 joules boiling point, vaporized and then the steam is
4. The equation U = Q refers to: (NTS 2012) superheated, all these processes takes place ___R___.
A. Isothermal process B. Adiabatic process Such processes play an important role in mechanical
C. Isochoric process D. Isobaric process engineering. (NTS 2016)
E. Carnot cycle Isobaric Non-zero Iso-barically
5. The amount of heat at constant volume is called as: A. R Q P
(NTS 2013)
A. internal energy B. enthalpy B. R P Q
C. entropy D. temperature C. P Q R
E. pressure D. Q R P
6. The temperature of a body at 100 oC is increased by 13. The internal energy of an object increase in adiabatic
 as measured on celsius scale. How is this process. Which of the following must be the true
temperature change expressed on the kelvin scale? regarding this process? (NTS 2013)
(NTS 2013) A. the kinetic energy of the system is changing
A.  + 373 B.  + 273 B. the potential energy of the system is changing
C.  + 100 D.  C. work is done on the system
E.  + 212 D. heat flows into the system
7. A gas is enclosed in a container fitted with a piston of E. no work is done on the system
cross sectional area 0.10 m2. The pressure of the gas is
maintained at 8000 N/m2 when heat is slowly 1. C. 11. B.
transferred, the piston is pushed up through a distance 2. A. 12. C.
of 4.0 cm. If 42 J heat is transferred to the system 3. C. 13. C.
during the expansion, what is the change in internal
4. C.
energy of the system? (NTS 2015)
A. 5 J B. 10 J 5. A.
C. 20 J D. 30 J 6. D.
E. 40 J 7. B.
8. On Fahrenheit scale lower point is marked 32 and 8. B.
upper point 212. Interval between them is equally
divided into ______ equal parts. (NTS 2016) 9. D.
A. 190 B. 180 10. C.
C. 100 D. 200
Unit 05 (Heat and Thermodynamics) 2

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Unit 06 (Electrostatics) 1
7. The total outward flux over any closed hypothetical
surface is called ______ is equal to the total charge
enclosed divided by o irrespective of the way in which
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) the charge is distributed. (NTS 2015)
1. An electron is situated midway between two parallel A. coulomb surface B. gaussian surface
0.5 cm apart. One of the plates is maintained at a C. ohm surface D. faraday surface
positive potential of 60 volts above the other. The force E. newton surface
on the electron is (1.6  1019 C): (NTS 2011) 8. Charges of + 2 C and  2C are situated a point P
15 15
A. 1.92  10 N B. 3.00  10 N and Q respectively, as shown below, X is midway
C. 1.92  1015 N D. 3.00  1015 N between P and Q.
E. 5.00  1015 N Which of the following correctly describes the electric
2. The principle of a capacitor is based on which of the field and electric potential at point X? (NTS 2017)
following facts: (NTS 2011) + 2 C - 2 C
A. potential of conductor is greatly increased with a
decrease in the charge in it P X Q
B. potential of conductor is greatly reduced with a Electric field Electric potential
increase in the charge in it A. Towards Q Zero
C. potential of conductor is greatly increased without B. Towards Q Negative
affecting the charge in it C. Towards P Zero
D. potential of conductor is greatly increased D. Towards P Positive
without affecting the charge in it 9. If a dielectric material is placed between two plates of
E. potential of conductor is greatly increased with a a capacitor, the net capacitance of the capacitor: (NTS
2018)
increase in the charge in it
A. decreases B. increases
3. Kinetic energy of a charged particle decrease by 10 J
C. remains constant D. zero
as it moves from a point at potential 100 V to 200 V.
10. Which statement describes the electric potential
The charge on the particle is: (NTS 2012)
difference between two points in the electric field of
A. 10-3 C B. 10-2 C
-1 charge Q? (NTS 2019)
C. 10 C D . 105 C
-9 A. the difference of electric field between the points per
E. 10 C
unit charge
4. A sphere of charge +Q is fixed in a position. A smaller
B. the ratio of the power dissipated between the points to
sphere of charge +q is placed near the larger sphere
the mass of charge
and released from rest. The small sphere will move
C. the work done in moving a test charge between points
away from the large sphere with: (NTS 2014)
divided by magnitude of test charge
A. decreasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
D. the force required to move a unit positive charge
B. decreasing velocity and increasing acceleration between the point per unit charges
C. decreasing velocity and constant acceleration
D. increasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
E. increasing velocity and increasing acceleration
5. A 10 nano farad (10  109 F) parallel plate capacitor 1. A.
holds a charge of magnitude 50 C on each plate. If 2. E.
the plates are separated by distance of 0.885 mm. what 3. C.
is the area of each plate? (NTS 2014) 4. D.
A. 1.0 m2 B. 3.0 m2 5. A.
2
C. 5.5 m D. 2.5 m2 6. A.
6. A particle carrying charge of 2e falls through a 7. B.
potential difference of 3.0 V. Calculate the energy 8. A.
acquired by it: (NTS 2015) 9. B.
A. 9.6  1019 J B. 12.1  1019 J 10. C.
19
C. 14.5  10 J D. 16.7  1019 J
E. 18.5  1019 J
Unit 06 (Electrostatics) 2

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Unit 07 (Current Electricity) 1
E. 100 A
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S 9. A generator of emf 80 V has an internal resistance of
0.04 . If its terminal voltage is 75 V, determine the
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) current. (NTS 2013)
A. 125 A B. 135 A
1. A battery whose e.m.f is 40 V has an internal C. 145 A D. 155 A
resistance of 5  if this battery's connected to a 15  a E. 165 A
resistor R. What will be the voltage drop across R? 10. An electric rod of 2000 watts rating boils a certain
(NTS 2010)
quantity of water in 10 minutes. The heat which is
A. 10 V B. 30 V
generated for boiling this water is: (NTS 2013)
C. 40 V D. 50 V
E. 70 V A. 8  104 J B. 12  105 J
C. 19  10 J
5
D. 23  105 J
2. When a conductor of cross-sectional area 5  106 m2
carries a current of 6 A, the drift velocity of the E. 37  10 J
5

conduction electrons is 1.2  10–4 ms1. What is the 11. How much energy is dissipated as heat in 20 s by a 100
number density (number per unit volume)of the  resistor that carries a current of 0.5 A? (NTS 2014)
conduction electrons? (NTS 2010) A. 50 J B. 100 J
C. 250 J D. 500 J
A. 4  10–28 m–3 B. 1.6  10–27 m–3
–27 –3 E. 1000 J
C. 2.5  10 m D. 6.3  1028 m–3
34 –3 12. In the circuit shown below, 4 amperes is current
E. 1.3. 10 m
through R1. The potential difference across R1 in volts
Questions 3-4:
is: (NTS 2014)
A battery has an e.m.f of 6.0 volts and an internal R1 = 30  R3 = 70 
resistance of 0.4 ohm. It is connected to a 2.6 ohm 4A
resistor through a SPST (single pole, single throw)
switch.
3. When the switch is open, the potential difference R2 = 60 
between the terminal of the battery is, in volts: (NTS VT
2010)
A. 7.5 B. 30
A. 0 B. 0.8
C. 60 D. 120
C. 2.6 D. 5.2
E. 160
E. 6.0
13. 0.75 A current flows through an iron wire when a
4. When the switch is closed, the potential difference
battery of 1.5 volt is connected across its ends. The
between the terminal is (in volts): (NTS 2010)
A. 0 B.0.8 length of the wire is 5.0 m and its cross sectional area
C. 2.6 D. 5.2 is 2.5  107 m2. What is the resistivity of iron?
(NTS 2015)
E. 6.0
A. 9.0  107 m B. 7.0  107 m
5. A current of 4.4 amperes is following in a wire. How
C. 5.0  10 m
7
D. 3.0  107 m
many electrons pass a given point in the wire one 7
E. 1.0  10 m
second, if the charge on an electron is 1.6  1019
14. The potential difference between the terminals of a
coulomb? (NTS 2011)
battery in an open circuit is 2.2 V. When it is
A. 1.5  1019 electrons B. 2.75  1019 electrons
connected across a resistance of 5.0 , the potential
C. 3.25  10 electrons D. 2.75  1019 electrons
19
falls to 1.8 V. What is the internal resistance of the
E. 3.25  1018 electrons battery? (NTS 2015)
6. An electric kettle of 1500 watts rating boils a certain
A. 9.11  B. 2.11 
quantity of water in 5 minutes, the heat which
C. 3.11  D. 1.11 
generated for boiling this water: (NTS 2011)
E. 0.11 
A. 45  104 joules B. 48  104 joules
15. Resistance of a wire is R. If you increase the length of
C. 56  10 joules
4
D. 36  104 joules
wire such that its length doubles. The stretched wire
E. 59  10 joules
4
will have resistance? (NTS 2016)
7. A 100 watt bulb is operated by 240 volts, the current A. R/2 B. R
through the bulb will be: (NTS 2012) C. 2R D. 4R
A. 2.4A B. 240 A 16. 4 resistors of 10 ohms each are connected in an electric
C. 0.416 A D. 41.6 A circuit in series. Their combined effect is equivalent (in
E. 416A ohms) to: (NTS 2016)
8. A bulb having a resistance of 150 Ω is connected to a A. 10 B. 20
225 volt source, the current in the bulb will be: (NTS C. 30 D. 40
2012)
A. 1.5 A B. 10 A E. 50
C. 3.7350 A D. 250 A
Unit 07 (Current Electricity) 2
17. A steady current of 5 A is drawn from an electric Which switches must be closed so that the heater
source working at a voltage of 100 V. The power produces the maximum possible power and minimum
consumed (in watts) is: (NTS 2016) non-zero power? (NTS 2013)
A. 0.05 B. 5 Maximum possible Minimum non-zero
C. 500 D. 50000 power power
18. A row of 25 decorative lights, connected in series, is A. S1 and S2 S2
connected to main transformer. When the supply is B. S1 and S2 S1
switched on, the lights do not work. The owner uses a
C. S1 S2
voltmeter to test the circuit. When voltmeter is
connected across the third bulb in the row, a reading D. S2 S1
of zero is obtained, which of the following cannot be E. S1 S1
the only fault in the circuit? (NTS 2017)
A. the filament of one of the other bulbs has broke 1. B. 11. D. 21. D.
B. the filament of the third bulb has broken 2. D. 12. D. 22. D.
C. the fuse in the mains transformer has blown 3. E. 13. E. 23. A.
D. there is a break in the wire from the supply to the
Transformer 4. D. 14. D.
19. The circuit diagram shows a network of resistors each 5. B. 15. D.
of resistance R. 6. A. 16. D.
7. C. 17. C.
8. A. 18. C.
9. A. 19. C.
10. B. 20. A.
X Y
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20. If in a circuit 2 amperes current is drawn from the
battery in 10 minutes. How much charge will flow
through the circuit in this time? (NTS 2018)
A. 1200 coulombs B. 600 coulombs
C. 500 coulombs D. 20 coulombs
21. If we increase the area of a cross section of a
conductor having a length L, the resistance R of that
conductor will be: (NTS 2018)
A. zero B. constant
C. increasing D. decreasing
22. A battery of 12 V is connected to three resistors of 4
ohms, 5 ohms and 3 ohms joined together in parallel.
The current through the 3 ohms resistance is:
(NTS 2019)
A. 1.0 A B. 2.5 A
C. 3.0 A D. 4.0 A
23. An electric heater can be represented as two resistors
of resistances R1 and R2 and two switches S1 and S2.
The resistance R2 greater than that of R1:

R1 S1

R2 S2
Unit 07 (Current Electricity) 3
Unit 08 (Electromagnetism) 1
A. a copper ion B. a helium nucleus
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S
C. an electron D. a proton
9. If a conductor carrying current I is placed in uniform
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) magnetic field B, it experiences a magnetic force F.
The direction of this force F: (NTS 2019)
1. A particle of charge  0.04 C is projected with speed 2 A. is parallel to current I
 104 m/s into a uniform magnetic field B of strength B. is perpendicular to current I only
0.5 T. If the particle’s velocity as it enters the field is C. is perpendicular to magnetic field B only
perpendicular to B, what is the magnitude of the D. is perpendicular to both current I and magnetic field B
magnetic force on this particle: (NTS 2010) 10. A unit ______ of induction is said to exist at a point
A. 4 N B. 8 N where the force per unit charge experienced by
C. 40 N D. 80 N positive test charge moving with a velocity of 1 m/s in
E. 800 N the direction perpendicular to the field is 1 newton.
2. Due to the magnetic force, a positively charged A. gravitational field B. magnetic field
particle execute uniform circular motion within a C. magnetic flux D. flux density
uniform magnetic field B. If the charges q and the
radius of its path is r. Which of the following
expressions gives the magnitude of the particle's linear 1. A.
momentum? (NTS 2010) 2. A.
A. qBr B. B
g qB 3. B.
C. D. 4. D.
Br r
3. What is the flux density at a point 3 cm from the long 5. B.
straight wire, when there is a current of 25 A in a 6. D.
wire: (o = 4  107 wb m1A1): (NTS 2010) 7. D.
A. 0.23  101 T B. 1.67 10–4 T
–6 8. C.
C. 2.99  10 T D. 3.63  10–8T
E. 9.99  10 T–7 9. D.
4. A force which is expressed in magnetic field depends 10. B.
upon: (NTS 2011)
A. magnitude of charge Q
B. speed of the moving charge v
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makes an angle of 40o with the direction of magnetic
field, find the (approx) magnitude of force acting on
the wire? (sin40o = 0.642) (NTS 2015)
A. 2.71 N B. 0.39 N
C. 3.9 N D. 6.61 N
E. 9.91 N
6. The magnetic field of induction B is measured in the
units which are equivalent to: (NTS 2016)
newton newton
A. B.
coloumb  meter / sec ampere  meter square
newton
C. D. both A. and C.
ampere  meter
7. A is a positively charged particle with properties
similar to the -particle. Its mass is one fourth and
charge is one half of that of an -particle. It is smaller
in size and carries less energy at the same velocity.
(NTS 2017)
A. beta particle B. gamma ray
C. neutron D. proton
8. Four particles independently move at the same speed
in a direction perpendicular to the same magnetic
field. Which particle is deflected the most? (NTS 2017)
Unit 08 (Electromagnetism) 2
Unit 09 (Electromagnetic Induction) 1
10. In a setup transformer: (NTS 2019)
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S
A. VS > VP while IS > IP
B. VS < VP while IS > IP
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) C. VS = VP while IS > IP
D. VS > VP while IS < IP
1. A coil of 600 turns is threaded by a flux of 8  105
webers, if flux is reduced to 3  105 webers in 0.015 1. C.
seconds. The average induced emf is: (NTS 2011) 2. B.
A.  2.0 volts B.  3.0 volts
C. + 2.0 volts D. + 2.5 volts 3. A.
E. + 3.0 volts 4. A.
2. _______ is a device which makes use of mutual 5. B.
Induction for stepping up or down an alternating 6. C.
e.m.f. (NTS 2012) 7. B.
A. Sonomator B. Transformer
C. Ammator D. Volt motor 8. C.
E.. Potantlomctar 9. B.
3. In a circuit, there is a current of 5 A which is changed 10. D.
such that the current fall to zero in 0.1 s. If an average
e.m.f. of 200 volts is induced, the self inductance of the
circuit will be: (NTS 2012) To Get Solution of Physics Past papers of
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4. A circuit in which there is a current of 5 A is charged
For order
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emf of 200 volts is induced. What is the self inductance
of the circuit? (NTS 2014)
A. 4 henrys B. 8 henrys
C. 12 henrys D. 16 henrys
E. 20 henrys
5. A circuit in which there is a current of 10 amperes is
changed so that the current falls to zero in 0.5 seconds.
If an average emf of 400 volts is induced, what is self
inductance of the circuit? (NTS 2015)
A. 10 henrys B. 20 henrys
C. 30 henrys D. 40 henrys
E. 50 henrys
6. Let B be the magnetic field and a conductor of length
L is moved across the field. Due to this activity, a
potential difference appears across the ends of the
conductor. This type of potential difference is termed
as: (NTS 2018)
A. self induction B. mutual induction
C. motional E.M.F. D. electrostatic potential
7. If constant current is flowing through a coil then flux
through that coil will become constant. In such type of
arrangements, the electromotive force emf induced in
coil will be: (NTS 2018)
A. self inductance B. zero
C. mutual inductance D. back emf
8. A changing current in a coil sets up a changing
magnetic field around it which in turn induces an emf
in it. This effect is known as: (NTS 2019)
A. simple induction B. mutual induction
C. self induction D. emf induction
9. The principle of an AC generator is: (NTS 2019)
A. Lenz’s law B. Faraday’s law
C. Self induction D. Ampere’s law
Unit 09 (Electromagnetic Induction) 2
Unit 10 (Electronics) 1

A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S

PAST PAPERS (2010-2019)

1. Germanium and silicon are semiconductors having
crystalline structure. Both these materials have ______
valence electrons in their outer most shells. (NTS 2014)
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
E. 6
2. In electronics circuits, a PN junction diode is used to
convert alternating current into direct current. This
process is called: (NTS 2018)
A. rectification B. amplification
C. doping D. integrated circuit
3. In pure semiconductor material, some impurities are
added to change the properties of these
semiconductors. This process is called: (NTS 2018)
A. crystallography B. rectification
C. intrinsic defects D. doping
1. C.
2. A.
3. D.

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Unit 11 (Modern Physics) 1
C. 10.2 keV D. 1.00 MeV
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S 10. An electron is moving with velocity v has momentum 3
 1026 kgm/s. the de-Broglie wavelength associated
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) with its is ______. Value of h = 6.63  1034 Js.
(NTS 2019)
1. The energy of an X-ray quantum of wavelength 1.0  A. 24.1 nm B. 22.1 nm
10-10 m is. (NTS 2012) C. 22.1 mm D. 22.1 m
A. 1.99  10-15 J B. 3  108 J 1. D.
C. 6.6  10 J
-34
D. 19.89  10-16 J 2. A.
E 1.99 J
3. B.
2. The phenomena in which certain metals emit electrons
when exposed to high frequency light is known as: 4. A.
(NTS 2014) 5. D.
A. Photoelectric effect B. Compton effect 6. C.
C. Henry’s effect D. Principle of relativity
7. C.
E. Coulomb’s law
3. A particle of mass 5 mg moves with speed of 8 m/s. 8. C.
calculate its de-Broglie wavelength (h = 6.63  1034 Js) 9. B.
(NTS 2015) 10. B.
A. 0.71  1029 m B. 1.66  1029 m
29
C. 2.66  10 m D. 3.77  1029 m
29
E. 5.71  10 m To Get Solution of Physics Past papers of
4. Which of the following waves are electromagnetic All Provences across the Pakistan
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5. In the photoelectric effect, a photon of energy hf is 0334-9893039, 0321-4252978
incident on the metal surface. The energy required to
eject the valance electron from the surface of the metal
is expressed as: (NTS 2018)
A. wave nature of light
B. Compton scattering
C. melting point of metal
D. work function of the metal
6. When an electron and its anti-particle positron come
close enough to each other, they completely convert
into radiation energy in the form of photons, this
processed is called: (NTS 2018)
A. photoelectric effect
B. pair production
C. annihilation of matter
D. Compton effect
7. Which of the following phenomenon represents the
wave nature of light? (NTS 2018)
A. photoelectric effect
B. Compton effect
C. interference of light
D. pair production
8. In Compton scattering experiment the X-ray
wavelength change  is ______. Here h is Plank
constant. mo rest mass of electron and  is angle after
scattering. (NTS 2019)
h h
A.  = (1 + cos) B.  = (1  cos2)
moc moc
h h
C.  = (1  cos) D.  = (1 + cos)
moc moc2
9. In order to produce pair production the minimum
energy of photon required is: (NTS 2019)
A. 1.02 keV B. 1.02 MeV
Unit 11 (Modern Physics) 2
Unit 12 (Atomic Spectra) 1
that the photon’s energy is exactly the energy
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S difference between the two orbits
E. none of these
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) 7. The atomic spectra deals with the measurement of:
1. The shortest wavelength photon emitted in (NTS 2014)
A. wave length
balmer series is: (NTS 2012)
B. intensities of electromagnetic radiation emitted by
A. 1.0974 10-7 m B. 4 nm atoms
C. 364.6 nm D. 3.64 m C. intensities of electromagnetic radiation absorbed by
E. 480 nm atoms
2. The ground level of hydrogen atom has energy D. All of the above
value in eV: (NTS 2016) E. both B. and C.
A. 13.6 B. 1.36
1. C.
C.  1.36 D.  13.6
2. D.
3. The spectral series of hydrogen spectra that lies
3. C.
in ultraviolet region is: (NTS 2016) 4. D.
A. Balmer series B. Braket series 5. B.
C. Lyman series D. Paschen series 6. D.
4. The formula for paschen series for hydrogen 7. D.
spectrum is: (NTS 2019)
A. = RH22  n2 ;
1 1 1 To Get Solution of Physics Past papers of
n = 3, 4, 5, …
  
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B. = RH12  n2 ;
1 1 1  NTS for Sindh  UHS for Punjab
n = 2, 3, 4, …
    NUMS  ETEA for KPK

C. = RH 2  2 ;
1 1 1 For order
n = 5, 6, 7, …
  4 n 0334-9893039, 0321-4252978

D. = RH32  n2 ;
1 1 1
n = 4, 5, 6, …
  
5. The Bohr’s postulate for stationary orbits of
hydrogen atom ______. Here m is mass of
electron, v velocity, r orbit and h is planks
constant. (NTS 2019)
nhv nh
A. mr = B. mvr =
2 2
nh nhr
C. mvr = D. mv =
2r 2
6. Which of the following statement is not consistent with
Bohr’s set of postulates regarding the hydrogen atom
model with regard to the emission and absorption of
light? (NTS 2013)
A. energy levels of electrons are stable and discrete
B. an electron emits or absorbs radiation only when
making a transition from one energy level to another
C. to jump from a lower energy to a higher energy, an
electron must absorb a photon precisely the right
frequency such that the photon’s energy equals the
energy difference between the two orbits
D. to jump from a higher energy to a lower energy, an
electron must absorbs a photon of a frequency such
Unit 12 (Atomic Spectra) 2
Unit 13 (Nuclear Physics) 1
A. one unit, one unit B. one unit, no unit
A L - R E H M A N S E R I E S
C. no unit, one unit D. no unit, no unit
10. When describing the isotopes of same element, the
PAST PAPERS (2010-2019) most accurate statement is that they have: (NTS 2017)
A. the same spin
1. Radiations can cause: (NTS 2011) B. the same atomic mass but different atomic numbers
A. leukemia B. radiation sickness C. the same atomic number and different atomic masses
C. skin cancer D. gene mutation D. the same chemical properties and therefore
E. all of the above cannot be separated
2. A nucleus consists of 11 protons and 12 neutrons. The E. a co-existance limit, that is, no element can have
conventional symbol of nucleus is: (NTS 2011) more than three isotopes
A. 11Na12 B. 11Ca23 11. In nuclear reactions, we have the conservation of: (NTS
23
C. 11Na D. 11Ca12 2017)
11
E. 12Ca A. mass only B. energy only
3. The half life of 14C is about: (NTS 2012) C. momentum only
A. 1637 years B. 892 year D. mass, energy and momentum
C. 10 years D. 100 years 12. The lightest element which exhibit radioactivity is:
E. 5730 year (NTS 2017)
4. Gamma () ray can produce ionization in which of the A. hydrogen B. deuteron
following way/s? (NTS 2013) C. tritium D. helium
I. it may lose all its energy in a single 13. Nucleus with an excess of neutrons may decay
encounter with electron of an atom radioactivity with the emission of: (NTS 2017)
(photoelectric effect) A. a neutron B. a proton
II. it may lose only a part of its energy in an C. an electron D. a positron
encounter (Compton effect) 14. The process of natural decay of some heavy nuclides is
III. very few of very high energy -ray photons may because of the ______ phenomenon. (NTS 2018)
impinge directly on heavy nuclei, be stopped and A. emission spectra B. nuclear fusion
annihilated giving rise to electron-positron pairs C. nuclear fission D. radioactivity
(the materialization of energy) 15. The atomic number Z of an atom represent the: (NTS
A. I only B. II only 2018)
C. III only D. I and III only A. number of protons
E. I, II and III B. number of electrons and protons
5. A nucleus consists of 19 protons and 20 neutrons. The C. number of neutrons
conventional symbol of this nucleus is: (NTS 2013) D. sum of protons and neutrons
A. 11Na12 B. 19K39 16. During radioactive decay of a nucleus ZXA, -emission
C. 19K 19
D. 10K20 takes place along with daughter nucleus. Because of
E. 19K 20 beta emission, the mass number A of parent nucleus:
(NTS 2018)
6. Sodium nucleus consists of 11 protons and 12
A. remains constant B. decreases by 1
neutrons. The conventional symbol of this nucleus is:
(NTS 2014)
C. increases by 1 D. decreases by 2
A. 11Na11 B. 12Na12 17. If 92U235 decays by emitting two  one  and two -
C. 11Na 23
D. 23Na 23 rays. The new daughter element is: (NTS 2019)
E. 12Na11 A. 88Y227 B. 89Y227
227
7. ______ are very high energy electromagnetic C. 90Y D. 89Y221
14
radiations of extremely short wavelength emitted from 18. The half life of C is approximately 5730 years, while
the nuclei of radioactive atoms originating from the the half life of C12 is eventually infinite. If the ratio of
high energy transition of the nucleon in the nuclei. C14 to C12 in a certain sample is 25 % less than the
(NTS 2015) normal ratio in nature, how old is the sample? (NTS
A. Alpha rays B. beta rays 2013)
C. gamma rays D. electromagnetic rays A. Less than 5730 years
E. ultraviolet rays B. Approximately 5730 years
8. Radioactivity results ionization in material. The C. significantly greater than 5730 years, but less than
ionizing power of ______ is highest. (NTS 2016) 11460 years
A. X-rays B. -rays D. approximately 11460 years
C. -rays D. -rays E. approximately 15730 years
9. During the process of nuclear disintegration, when 19. When describing the isotopes of same element, the
beta particle emission occurs, atomic number of atom most accurate statement is that they have: (NTS 2017)
changes by ______ and its mass number changes by A. the same spin
______. (NTS 2016) B. the same atomic mass but different atomic numbers
C. the same atomic number and different atomic masses
Unit 13 (Nuclear Physics) 2
D. the same chemical properties and therefore cannot be
separated
E. a co-existance limit, that is, no element can have more
than three isotopes
1. E. 11. D.
2. C. 12. C.
3. E. 13. C.
4. E. 14. D.
5. B. 15. A.
6. C. 16. A.
7. C. 17. B.
8. B. 18. D.
9. B. 19. C.
10. C.

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