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Pro (Patho-1 Intro To Pathopysiology)

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to pathophysiology, covering key concepts such as the definitions of disease, signs, symptoms, and various causal factors. It explains the differences between objective signs and subjective symptoms, as well as terms like iatrogenic, idiopathic, risk factors, and endogenous vs. exogenous diseases. The content serves as an educational resource for understanding the mechanisms and classifications of diseases in a medical context.

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Aezal Shyl
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
30 views55 pages

Pro (Patho-1 Intro To Pathopysiology)

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to pathophysiology, covering key concepts such as the definitions of disease, signs, symptoms, and various causal factors. It explains the differences between objective signs and subjective symptoms, as well as terms like iatrogenic, idiopathic, risk factors, and endogenous vs. exogenous diseases. The content serves as an educational resource for understanding the mechanisms and classifications of diseases in a medical context.

Uploaded by

Aezal Shyl
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as ODT, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Patho-1 (Intro to Pathopysiology )


Pathophysiology Questions and Answers

1.

What is the name for the study of disease involving the functional
or physiological changes in the body that result from disease
processes?

A.

Pathophysiology

B.

Pharmacology

C.

Immunology

D.

Pathology

E.

Pathogenicity
Correct Answer

A. Pathophysiology

Explanation

Pathophysiology is the study of disease involving the functional or


physiological changes in the body that result from disease
processes. It focuses on understanding the mechanisms by which
diseases develop and progress, including the alterations in cellular
and organ function. This field of study helps healthcare
professionals, such as doctors and nurses, to better understand the
underlying causes of diseases and develop effective treatment
strategies. Pharmacology, immunology, pathology, and
pathogenicity are related fields but do not specifically focus on the
functional or physiological changes that occur in the body due to
disease processes.

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2.

What is a deviation from the normal state of health or from a state


of wellness?

A.

Functional impairment

B.

Debilitated state

C.
Dysfunction

D.

Disease

E.

Infirmity

Correct Answer

D. Disease

Explanation

A deviation from the normal state of health or from a state of


wellness is referred to as a disease. Disease is a broad term that
encompasses any abnormal condition or disorder that affects the
body’s normal functioning. It can manifest in various ways, such as
physical symptoms, mental impairments, or biochemical
abnormalities. Diseases can be caused by pathogens, genetic
factors, environmental factors, or a combination of these. They can
range from mild to severe and can have short-term or long-term
effects on an individual’s well-being.

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16

3.

An objective indication of disease that is obvious to an observer is


referred to as what?

A.
Suffering

B.

Sign

C.

Syndrome

D.

Symptom

E.

Stupor

Correct Answer

B. Sign

Explanation

A sign is an objective indication of a disease that is obvious to an


observer. Unlike symptoms, which are subjective experiences
reported by the patient, signs can be observed and measured by
others. Signs can include physical abnormalities, such as a rash or
abnormal vital signs, that can be detected through medical
examination.

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3

4.

A subjective indication of disease that is not obvious to an observer


is referred to as what?

A.

Suffering

B.

Sign

C.

Syndrome

D.

Symptom

E.

Stupor

Correct Answer

C. Symptom
Explanation

A subjective indication of disease that is not obvious to an observer


is referred to as a symptom. Symptoms are experienced by the
individual affected by the disease and may include feelings of pain,
discomfort, or changes in bodily functions. Unlike signs, which are
objective and can be observed by others, symptoms are personal
experiences that the person may describe or report to a healthcare
professional.

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5.

A rash is an example of what?

A.

Suffering

B.

Sign

C.

Syndrome

D.

Symptom
E.

Stupor

Correct Answer

B. Sign

Explanation

A rash is an example of a sign because it is a visible or measurable


indication of a medical condition or disease. Signs are objective and
can be observed or measured by a healthcare professional. In the
case of a rash, it can be visually identified and often indicates an
underlying issue such as an allergic reaction, infection, or skin
disorder.

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10

6.

Patient-reported perceptions such as pain, nausea, and chills are


known as what?

A.

Suffering

B.

Signs

C.
Syndromes

D.

Symptoms

E.

Stupors

Correct Answer

D. Symptoms

Explanation

Patient-reported perceptions such as pain, nausea, and chills are


known as symptoms. Symptoms are subjective experiences or
sensations that a patient reports and are not directly observable by
others. They are important indicators of a patient’s condition and
can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various
medical conditions.

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7.

A collection of signs and symptoms that usually occur together in


response to a certain condition is referred to as what?

A.

Illness
B.

Symptomatic

C.

Synarthrosis

D.

Syndrome

E.

Pathogen

Correct Answer

E. Syndrome

Explanation

A collection of signs and symptoms that usually occur together in


response to a certain condition is referred to as a syndrome. This
term is used to describe a specific set of symptoms that commonly
occur in relation to a particular illness or disease. It helps
healthcare professionals identify and classify certain conditions
based on their characteristic symptoms, allowing for more accurate
diagnosis and treatment.

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14
8.

What is a term that is used to refer to the clinical evidence or


effects of the disease?

A.

Manifestations

B.

Indications

C.

Causal factors

D.

Outward appearance

E.

Diagnosis

Correct Answer

A. Manifestations

Explanation
Manifestations refers to the clinical evidence or effects of a disease.
It includes the symptoms, signs, and other observable
characteristics that indicate the presence of a particular disease.
This term is commonly used in medical and healthcare settings to
describe the outward presentation of a disease or condition.

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9.

Which of the following is an example of a local manifestation?

A.

Fever

B.

Lethargy

C.

Redness

D.

General body aches

Correct Answer

B. Redness
Explanation

Redness is an example of a local manifestation because it is a


specific symptom that is localized to a particular area of the body. It
is a visible sign that can be observed and measured, indicating
inflammation or irritation in a specific region. In contrast, fever,
lethargy, and general body aches are more generalized symptoms
that can affect the entire body rather than being localized to a
specific area.

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10.

Which of the following is an example of a symptom.

A.

Pain

B.

Lethargy

C.

Nausea

D.

Chills
E.

All of the above

Correct Answer

F. All of the above

Explanation

All of the options listed – pain, lethargy, nausea, and chills – are
examples of symptoms. A symptom is a subjective indication or
characteristic of a disease or condition that is experienced by the
patient. In this case, each option represents a different symptom
that a person may experience. Therefore, the correct answer is “All
of the above.”

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11.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a sign?

A.

Rash

B.

Bruise

C.
Altered vitals

D.

Drainage

E.

Tingling sensation

Correct Answer

E. Tingling sensation

Explanation

A tingling sensation is not an example of a sign because it is a


subjective symptom that can only be felt by the individual
experiencing it. Signs, on the other hand, are objective and
observable indicators of a medical condition that can be detected
by others, such as a rash, bruise, altered vitals, or drainage.

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12.

A disease that arises from the activity (treatment, procedures or


errors) of a physician is known as what?

A.

Adverse event
B.

Idiopathic

C.

Iatrogenic

D.

Malpractice

E.

Psychogenic

Correct Answer

C. Iatrogenic

Explanation

Iatrogenic refers to a disease or condition that is caused by medical


treatment, procedures, or errors made by a physician. It can include
complications from surgeries, adverse reactions to medications, or
infections acquired in a healthcare setting. This term highlights the
potential harm that can occur as a result of medical intervention,
emphasizing the importance of patient safety and the need for
healthcare providers to minimize iatrogenic risks.

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6
13.

A designation assigned to a disease of unknown cause is what?

A.

Idiopathic

B.

Enigmatic

C.

Illusory illness

D.

Indeterminate origin

E.

Mysterious origin

Correct Answer

A. Idiopathic

Explanation

The term “idiopathic” refers to a disease or condition that has an


unknown cause. It is used when the exact origin or underlying
factors of a disease cannot be determined or identified. This term is
commonly used in medical contexts to describe conditions where
the cause is unclear or unknown. The other options, such as
enigmatic, illusory illness, indeterminate origin, and mysterious
origin, do not specifically convey the concept of an unknown cause,
making them incorrect choices.

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14.

Tendencies that promote the development of disease are referred to


as what?

A.

Risk factors

B.

Causal factors

C.

Underlying disease threats

D.

Infectious agents
E.

Stressors

Correct Answer

A. Risk factors

Explanation

Risk factors are tendencies or conditions that increase the


likelihood of developing a disease. These factors can include
lifestyle choices, genetic predispositions, environmental exposures,
and other variables that contribute to the development of a specific
illness. By identifying and understanding risk factors, healthcare
professionals can assess an individual’s susceptibility to certain
diseases and implement preventive measures or interventions to
reduce the chances of disease occurrence.

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15.

Which of the following are considered to be risk factors:

A.

Age

B.

Sex

C.
Occupation

D.

Dietary deficiencies

E.

All of the above

Correct Answer

D. All of the above

Explanation

All of the mentioned factors, including age, sex, occupation, and


dietary deficiencies, are considered to be risk factors. Risk factors
are characteristics or conditions that increase the likelihood of
developing a certain disease or health condition. Age can be a risk
factor as certain diseases are more common in older individuals.
Sex can also play a role as certain diseases may be more prevalent
in one gender. Occupation can expose individuals to various hazards
or toxins that can increase the risk of certain health problems.
Lastly, dietary deficiencies can lead to inadequate nutrient intake,
which can contribute to the development of certain diseases.

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16.

A disease that originates or is produced within the body is known as


what?
A.

Indigenous

B.

Ergogenic

C.

Exogenous

D.

Endogenous

E.

Emergent

Correct Answer

E. Endogenous

Explanation

Endogenous refers to a disease that originates or is produced within


the body. This means that the disease is not caused by external
factors or agents, but rather by internal factors such as genetic
predisposition or malfunctioning of bodily systems. It is important
to distinguish endogenous diseases from exogenous diseases,
which are caused by external factors such as infections or toxins.
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17.

A disease that originates or is produced outside the body is called


what?

A.

Indigenous

B.

Exergonic

C.

Exogenous

D.

Endogenous

E.

Endergonic

Correct Answer
B. Exogenous

Explanation

Exogenous refers to something that originates or is produced


outside the body. In the context of diseases, exogenous means that
the disease is caused by external factors such as infections or
environmental factors. It is the opposite of endogenous, which
refers to diseases that originate from within the body. Indigenous,
exergonic, and endergonic are not applicable in this context and do
not describe diseases originating outside the body.

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18.

Genetics is an example of which of the following causal factors:

A.

Indigenous

B.

Exergonic

C.

Exogenous

D.

Endogenous
E.

Endergonic

Correct Answer

C. Endogenous

Explanation

Genetics is an example of an endogenous causal factor because it


refers to the internal factors within an organism that determine its
genetic traits and characteristics. These factors are inherited and
are unique to each individual, playing a significant role in shaping
their physical and biological makeup. Unlike exogenous factors that
originate from external sources, genetics is an inherent and
intrinsic aspect of an organism’s biology.

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19.

Carcinogens are an example of which of the following causal


factors:

A.

Indigenous

B.

Exergonic
C.

Exogenous

D.

Endogenous

E.

Endergonic

Correct Answer

D. Exogenous

Explanation

Exogenous factors refer to external agents or substances that can


cause a certain effect or condition. Carcinogens, which are
substances that can cause cancer, are examples of exogenous
factors because they are typically acquired from the environment,
such as through exposure to chemicals, radiation, or certain
behaviors like smoking. These external factors can initiate or
promote the development of cancer cells in the body.

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20.

What are the structures in the nucleus of a cell that store genetic
information?
A.

Centrosome

B.

Chromosomes

C.

Cytoplasm

D.

Genotype

E.

Mitochondria

Correct Answer

B. Chromosomes

Explanation

Chromosomes are the structures in the nucleus of a cell that store


genetic information. They are made up of DNA and proteins, and
they carry the genes that determine the characteristics and traits of
an organism. Chromosomes are responsible for passing on genetic
information from one generation to the next during cell division.
They are essential for the proper functioning and development of an
organism.
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21.

How many pairs of chromosomes are present in each cell in the


human body?

A.

B.

C.

46

D.

23

E.

92

Correct Answer
C. 23

Explanation

Each cell in the human body contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. This


is because humans have a total of 46 chromosomes, with 23 coming
from each parent. These chromosomes carry genetic information
and determine various traits and characteristics in an individual.
Therefore, the correct answer is 23.

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22.

What is the term used for a hereditary unit consisting of a sequence


of DNA that contains information on protein synthesis?

A.

Chromosome

B.

Gene

C.

Nucleotide

D.

Genome
E.

Lysosome

Correct Answer

B. Gene

Explanation

A hereditary unit consisting of a sequence of DNA that contains


information on protein synthesis is called a gene. Genes are
responsible for encoding the instructions that determine the traits
and characteristics of an organism. They are composed of specific
sequences of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA.
Chromosomes are structures that contain genes, while a genome
refers to the complete set of genetic material in an organism.
Lysosomes are organelles involved in cellular waste disposal and
have no direct relation to genes or DNA.

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23.

What is the term that is used to identify a factor that triggers an


acute episode?

A.

Precipitating factor

B.

Stress-inducing factor
C.

Contributing factor

D.

Determining factor

E.

Causal factor

Correct Answer

A. Precipitating factor

Explanation

A precipitating factor is a term used to identify a factor that


triggers an acute episode. It refers to something that brings about
or causes a specific event or condition. In the context of the
question, a precipitating factor would be something that triggers an
acute episode, such as a sudden increase in stress or exposure to a
specific trigger. Other options like stress-inducing factor,
contributing factor, determining factor, and causal factor may have
similar connotations but do not specifically refer to the triggering of
an acute episode.

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12

24.
What is the term that applies to situations in which the disease
progression is gradual with only vague or mild signs?

A.

Acute

B.

Chronic

C.

Insidious

D.

Invasive

E.

Terminal

Correct Answer

B. Insidious

Explanation

The term that applies to situations in which the disease progression


is gradual with only vague or mild signs is “insidious.” This term is
used to describe diseases that develop slowly and subtly over time,
often with symptoms that are not easily recognizable or alarming.
Unlike acute diseases that have a sudden onset and severe
symptoms, chronic diseases that are long-lasting, invasive diseases
that spread aggressively, or terminal diseases that are incurable,
insidious diseases progress slowly and may go unnoticed or
misdiagnosed for a long period of time.

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25.

What is the development of disease or the sequence of events that


leads to a disease process?

A.

Etiology

B.

Disease Intensity

C.

Pathogenesis

D.

Pathophysiology
E.

Pathology

Correct Answer

C. Pathogenesis

Explanation

Pathogenesis refers to the development of a disease or the


sequence of events that leads to a disease process. It involves
understanding the mechanisms and processes by which a disease
develops, including the interactions between the pathogen, the
host, and the environment. Pathogenesis helps to explain how a
disease progresses, from initial infection or exposure to the
manifestation of symptoms and complications. It is an important
concept in understanding and studying diseases, as it provides
insights into the underlying mechanisms and potential targets for
interventions and treatments.

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26.

What disease develops gradually and stays for a long period of


time?

A.

Chronic

B.

Acute
C.

Infectious

D.

Communicable

E.

Idiopathic

Correct Answer

A. Chronic

Explanation

Chronic is the correct answer because it refers to a disease that


develops gradually and stays for a long period of time. Unlike acute
diseases that have a sudden onset and short duration, chronic
diseases persist over an extended period, often for months or even
years. These conditions require ongoing medical management and
can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Examples
of chronic diseases include diabetes, arthritis, heart disease, and
asthma.

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27.

When a disease emerges suddenly but usually has a short duration,


it is referred to as:
A.

Chronic

B.

Acute

C.

Infectious

D.

Communicable

E.

Idiopathic

Correct Answer

B. Acute

Explanation

An acute disease refers to a condition that appears suddenly and


has a relatively short duration. Unlike chronic diseases that last for
a long time, acute diseases often have a rapid onset and resolve
within a short period. This term is commonly used to describe
illnesses such as the flu or a common cold that develop quickly and
typically last for a few days to a few weeks.

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28.

Influenza is classified as a(n) ___________________ disease, with regard


to its onset.

A.

Chronic

B.

Acute

C.

Infectious

D.

Communicable

E.

Idiopathic
Correct Answer

C. Acute

Explanation

Influenza is classified as an acute disease because it has a sudden


and severe onset. Acute diseases typically have a short duration
and a rapid progression of symptoms. In the case of influenza,
individuals may experience symptoms such as fever, cough, sore
throat, body aches, and fatigue that come on suddenly and can last
for a few days to a couple of weeks. This acute nature of influenza
distinguishes it from chronic diseases, which have a longer duration
and a slower progression of symptoms.

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29.

Arthritis is classified as a(n) ___________________ disease, with regard


to its onset.

A.

Chronic

B.

Acute

C.

Infectious
D.

Communicable

E.

Idiopathic

Correct Answer

A. Chronic

Explanation

Arthritis is classified as a chronic disease because it is a long-term


condition that typically worsens over time. Unlike acute diseases
that have a sudden onset and short duration, arthritis is
characterized by persistent inflammation and pain in the joints. It is
not infectious or communicable, meaning it cannot be spread from
person to person. Additionally, it is considered idiopathic, meaning
the exact cause is unknown.

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30.

What is the term that applies to a period in the development of


disease in which pathologic changes occur, but no obvious
manifestations are detectable?

A.

Latent stage
B.

Clinical stage

C.

Sub-clinical stage

D.

Prodromal period

E.

Festering stage

Correct Answer

B. Sub-clinical stage

Explanation

The term that applies to a period in the development of disease in


which pathologic changes occur, but no obvious manifestations are
detectable is the sub-clinical stage. During this stage, the disease is
present in the body, but the symptoms are not yet apparent. This
stage can be detected through laboratory tests or medical imaging,
even though the individual may not be experiencing any noticeable
symptoms.

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3

31.

What is the term that refers to a period when a person is aware that
something is wrong but does not exhibit specific signs of the
disease?

A.

Latent stage

B.

Clinical stage

C.

Sub-clinical stage

D.

Prodromal period

E.

Festering stage

Correct Answer

C. Prodromal period
Explanation

The prodromal period refers to a phase when a person is aware that


something is wrong but does not exhibit specific signs of the
disease. This stage is characterized by general symptoms that may
indicate the onset of a particular illness. It is often considered as an
early warning sign before the disease fully manifests itself.

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32.

What is the period of time between the initial exposure and the
appearance of clinical signs of the disease condition?

A.

Latent stage

B.

Clinical stage

C.

Sub-clinical stage

D.

Prodromal period
E.

Festering stage

Correct Answer

A. Latent stage

Explanation

The latent stage refers to the period of time between the initial
exposure to a disease and the appearance of clinical signs or
symptoms. During this stage, the disease may be present in the
body but is not yet causing noticeable symptoms. This stage can
vary in duration depending on the specific disease and individual
factors. It is important to note that not all diseases have a distinct
latent stage, and some may progress directly from exposure to
clinical signs without an intermediate stage.

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33.

What is the term for a period in which the manifestations of a


disease subside?

A.

Exacerbation

B.

Remission
C.

Aggravation

D.

Recuperation

Correct Answer

B. Remission

Explanation

Remission is the term used to describe a period in which the


manifestations or symptoms of a disease decrease or temporarily
go away. It refers to a period of improvement or relief from the
symptoms, but does not necessarily mean that the disease has been
cured or eliminated. During remission, the disease may still be
present in the body, but the symptoms are not as severe or
noticeable.

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34.

What is the term that describes conditions in which the signs and
symptoms increase?

A.

Exacerbation
B.

Remission

C.

Aggravation

D.

Recuperation

E.

Infestation

Correct Answer

A. Exacerbation

Explanation

Exacerbation is the correct term that describes conditions in which


the signs and symptoms increase. This term is commonly used in
medical contexts to refer to a worsening or flare-up of a disease or
condition. It indicates a period of time when the symptoms become
more severe or intense, leading to a decline in the overall health or
well-being of the individual.

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35.
What is the term that is applied to new secondary problems that
develop after the emergence of the original disease?

A.

Side effects

B.

Complications

C.

Mutations

D.

Sequelae

E.

Collateral damage

Correct Answer

B. Complications

Explanation

Complications refer to new secondary problems that arise after the


initial disease or condition has emerged. These complications can
be caused by the disease itself or by its treatment. They may be
unexpected or unintended, and can vary in severity. Complications
can further complicate the management and treatment of the
original disease, requiring additional interventions and care.

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36.

What is the name for potential unwanted outcomes that arise from
the primary condition?

A.

Side effects

B.

Complications

C.

Mutations

D.

Sequelae

E.

Collateral damage
Correct Answer

C. Sequelae

Explanation

Sequelae refers to potential unwanted outcomes that arise from the


primary condition. It can include complications, side effects,
mutations, or collateral damage that occur as a result of the
primary condition.

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37.

What is the term that is used to refer to the period of recovery and
the resulting return to a normal, healthy state following an illness?

A.

Convalescence

B.

Relapse

C.

Remission

D.
Infirmity

E.

Exacerbation

Correct Answer

A. Convalescence

Explanation

Convalescence refers to the period of recovery and the resulting


return to a normal, healthy state following an illness. It is the time
when a person gradually regains their strength and health after
being sick. During convalescence, individuals may still need to take
certain precautions or follow specific guidelines to ensure a
complete and successful recovery.

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38.

What is the term that indicates the probability of recovery or


likelihood of other health outcomes?

A.

Diagnosis

B.

Synopsis
C.

Apoptosis

D.

Prognosis

E.

Halitosis

Correct Answer

D. Prognosis

Explanation

Prognosis is the term that indicates the probability of recovery or


likelihood of other health outcomes. It is a medical prediction or
forecast of the probable course and outcome of a disease or
condition based on the individual’s specific circumstances. It takes
into account various factors such as the nature and severity of the
condition, response to treatment, and overall health of the patient.
A prognosis helps healthcare professionals and patients make
informed decisions about treatment options and future healthcare
planning.

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11

39.

___________________ is the ability to maintain a relatively stable


internal environment.
Correct Answer

Homeostasis

Explanation

Homeostasis refers to the ability of an organism or system to


maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. It
involves various physiological processes that work together to
regulate temperature, pH levels, blood pressure, and other factors
within a narrow range. This balance is crucial for the proper
functioning of cells, tissues, and organs. Homeostasis ensures that
essential bodily functions are carried out optimally, allowing
organisms to adapt and survive in a changing environment.

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37

40.

___________________ is programmed cell death.

Correct Answer

Apoptosis

Explanation

Apoptosis is programmed cell death. It is a natural process in which


cells undergo self-destruction to maintain tissue homeostasis,
remove damaged or unnecessary cells, and regulate development.
This process is tightly regulated and involves a series of
biochemical events, including DNA fragmentation, cell shrinkage,
membrane blebbing, and formation of apoptotic bodies. Apoptosis
plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, such as
embryogenesis, immune response, and elimination of cancerous
cells.

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21
4

41.

___________________ is the science of tracking the pattern and


occurrence of disease.

Correct Answer

Epidemiology

Explanation

Epidemiology is the branch of science that focuses on studying and


understanding the patterns and occurrences of diseases. It involves
tracking and analyzing various factors such as the spread of
diseases, their causes, and their impact on different populations.
Epidemiologists collect and analyze data to identify trends, risk
factors, and potential interventions to prevent and control diseases.
By studying the distribution and determinants of diseases,
epidemiology plays a crucial role in informing public health policies
and strategies to protect and improve the health of communities.

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16

42.

___________________ is the number of new and old disease cases in a


given population at a specific time.

Correct Answer

Prevalence

Explanation

Prevalence refers to the total number of both new and existing


cases of a disease within a specific population at a particular point
in time. It provides an understanding of the overall burden of the
disease in the population, including both new cases and those who
have had the disease for a longer duration. Prevalence is an
important measure in epidemiology to assess the extent and impact
of a disease on a population.

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43.

___________________ is the number of new disease cases in a given


population at a specific time.

Correct Answer

Incidence

Explanation

Incidence refers to the number of new disease cases in a specific


population at a particular time. It measures the rate at which new
cases of a disease develop in a population, providing valuable
information about the risk and spread of the disease. By tracking
the incidence, healthcare professionals can identify patterns,
monitor the effectiveness of interventions, and develop strategies
to control and prevent the disease.

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44.

___________________ is the frequency with which a disease appears in a


population.

Correct Answer

Morbidity

Explanation
Morbidity refers to the frequency or rate at which a disease or
illness occurs within a population. It is a measure of the overall
burden of disease in a specific population and is often used to
assess the health status of a community. Morbidity can be
measured in various ways, such as the number of cases or the
prevalence of a disease within a given time period. By
understanding the morbidity of a disease, healthcare professionals
can develop strategies to prevent, control, and treat the illness
effectively.

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45.

___________________ is the number of deaths from a specific disease in


a population.

Correct Answer

Mortality

Explanation

Mortality refers to the number of deaths caused by a particular


disease within a specific population. It is a measure that quantifies
the impact of the disease in terms of the number of deaths it
causes. Mortality rates are often used to assess the severity and
impact of diseases on a population, and they provide valuable
information for public health interventions and policy decisions.

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46.
In a ___________________ research study, the researcher and the test
subjects are unaware of who is receiving the placebo and who is
receiving the treatment.

Correct Answer

Double-blind , double-blind

Explanation

In a double-blind research study, both the researcher and the test


subjects are unaware of who is receiving the placebo and who is
receiving the treatment. This is done to eliminate bias and ensure
that the results of the study are objective and reliable. By keeping
both the researcher and the participants blind to the treatment
allocation, any potential influence or expectations from either party
are minimized, allowing for a more accurate evaluation of the
treatment’s effectiveness.

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47.

___________________ refers to the process in which subjects are


randomly assigned to the test and control groups.

Correct Answer

Randomization

Explanation

Randomization refers to the process of randomly assigning subjects


to the test and control groups. This is done to ensure that there is
no bias or pre-determined selection in the assignment of
participants. Randomization helps to create comparable groups and
increases the validity of the study by reducing the likelihood of
confounding variables influencing the results. By randomly
assigning subjects, researchers can be more confident that any
differences observed between the test and control groups are due
to the intervention being tested rather than other factors.
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48.

A ___________________ is presumed to be a medication but has no


therapeutic effect.

Correct Answer

Placebo

Explanation

A placebo is a substance or treatment that is given to a patient with


the belief that it will have a therapeutic effect, even though it
actually has no active ingredients or therapeutic properties. It is
commonly used in medical research and clinical trials to compare
the effectiveness of a new treatment against a control group.
Placebos are often used to measure the psychological and
physiological effects of the patient’s belief in the treatment, known
as the placebo effect.

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49.

The test group receives the ___________________.

Correct Answer

Treatment

Explanation

The test group receives the treatment. This suggests that the group
is being subjected to a specific intervention or procedure that is
being tested for its effectiveness or impact. The term “treatment”
implies that the group is being given a specific course of action or
substance, which is different from the control group or other groups
in the experiment.

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50.

The control group receives the ___________________.

Correct Answer

Placebo, standard treatment

Explanation

In the context of pathophysiology and scientific experiments, the


control group receives the placebo or standard treatment. The
control group is used for comparison to the experimental group,
which receives the treatment being tested. By administering a
placebo or standard treatment to the control group, researchers can
assess the effectiveness of the experimental treatment and
determine if it produces meaningful results beyond what would
occur naturally or with a known standard.

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