0% found this document useful (0 votes)
154 views134 pages

Reas Merged

The document is a comprehensive guide on logical reasoning topics, including coding-decoding, series, Venn diagrams, and various logical puzzles. It contains numerous questions and answer options for practice in each category. The content is structured to enhance logical reasoning skills through problem-solving exercises.

Uploaded by

sam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
154 views134 pages

Reas Merged

The document is a comprehensive guide on logical reasoning topics, including coding-decoding, series, Venn diagrams, and various logical puzzles. It contains numerous questions and answer options for practice in each category. The content is structured to enhance logical reasoning skills through problem-solving exercises.

Uploaded by

sam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 134

LOGICAL

REASONING
CONTENTS

S.NO TOPIC
1 Coding –Decoding
2 Series
3 Logical Venn- diagrams
4 Classifications
5 Calendar
6 Directions
7 Blood Relations
8 Analogy
9 Missing Characters
10 Data Sufficiency
11 Seating Arrangements
12 Dices and Cubes
13 Mathematical Operations
14 Order and Ranking
15 Syllogism
16 Statements Assumptions & Arguments
17 Statements & Conclusions
18 Picture based Puzzles
CODING-DECOING

LETTER - LETTER CODING

1. If GOLD is written as IQNF, how WIND can be written in the code?

(A) YKPF (B) VHMC (C) XJOE (D) DNIW

2. If HKUJ means FISH, what does UVCD mean ?

(A) STAR (B) STAB (C) STAL (D) STAK

3. If CONSCIOUSLY is written as PEBNPJEXNKM, then SOIL is written as :

(A) NEKJ (B) NEJK (B) JENK (D) ENJK

4. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, how MEERUT can be written in that code?

(A) QIIVYX (B) RJJWZV (C) RJJWZY (D) RIIVYX

5. In a certain code FORGET is written as DPPHCU, how would DOCTOR be written in that code?

(A) BPAUMS (B) BPAUPS (C) EMDRPP (D) BPARPP

6. In a certain code DECEMBER is written as ERMBCEDE, in that code which word will be written as
ERMBVENO ?

(A) SEPTEMBER (B) AUGUST (C) NOVEMBER (D) OCTOBER.

7. If ROSE is written as TQUG, how BISCUIT can be written in that code?

(A) CJTDVJU (B) DKVEWKV (C) DKUEWKY (D) DKUEWKV

8. If the word MENTAL is written as LNDFM-OSUZBKM, then how would the word TEST be written in that
code?

(A) UVFGTUUV (B) RSCDQRRS (C) SUDFQRSU (D) SUDFRTSU

9. If TYPEWRITER is written as GBKVDIRGVI, how STENO can be written in that code?

(A) LMVGH (B) HGVML (C) LMHGV (D) HVLGM

10. If in a code language “ORGANISATION” is written as “CBDWLQJWYQCL” and “OPERA-TION” is written


as “CXFBWYQCL”, how is “SEPARATION” coded?

(A) EJXEBEYQCL (B) JFQYWBCXQL (C) JFXWBWYQCL (D) QCLYWBFXJE

11. In a particular way of coding, the word CENTRAL is coded as ABCDEFG and PLAN-ETARIUM as HGFCB-
DFEIJK. With the same coding how can we express the word LANTERN?

(A) GFCDFEG (B) GFCDBEC (C) GFCDEFG (D) GFCDBEB

12. In a certain code language BLOOD is written as EIRLG. How will the word PERIOD be written in that code
language ?

(A) SBURAF (B) SBUFRA (C) SUFBAR (D) RBUFSA


13. In a certain code language INCORPORATE is written as HCGJSLJSXHO and PELMET is written as
LOFDOH. How will the word MOLTEN be written in that code language ?

(A) XHOTOR (B) DJFHOC (C) LDOHCG (D) FRTECO

LETTER –NUMBER CODING

14. If A = 1, PAT = 37, then TAP = ?

(A) 73 (B) 37 (C) 36 (D) 38

15. If D = 4, BAD = 7, then what is the value of ANT = ?

(A) 8 (B) 17 (C) 35 (D) 37

16. If C = 3 and FEAR is coded as 30, then what will be the code number for HAIR ?

(A) 35 (B) 36 (C) 30 (D) 33

17. If Z = 26, NET = 39, then NUT = ?

(A) 50 (B) 53 (C) 55 (D) 56

18. If F = 6, MAT = 34, then how much is CAR ?

(A) 21 (B) 22 (C) 25 (D) 28

19. If HONESTY is written as 5132468 and POVERTY as 7192068, how is HORSE written in a certain code ?

(A) 50124 (B) 51042 (C) 51024 (D) 52014

20. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, then what will be the code of
SEARCH ?

(A) 246173 (B) 214673 (C) 214763 (D) 216473

21. If ‘GIVE’ is coded as 5137 and ‘BAT’ is coded as 924, how is ‘GATE’ coded ?

(A) 5427 (B) 5724 (C) 5247 (D) 2547

22. If SEVEN is coded as 23136 and EIGHT as 34579, what will be the code for NINE ?

(A) 6463 (B) 6364 (C) 6346 (D) 6436

23. If LOSE is coded as 1357 and GAIN is coded as 2468, what do the figures 84615 stand for?

(A) NAILS (B) SNAIL (C) LANES (D) SLAIN

24. If MEKLF is coded as 91782 and LLLJK as 88867, then how can IGHED be coded ?

(A) 97854 (B) 64521 (C) 53410 (D) 75632

25. If in a certain code, 95789 is written as EGKPT and 2436 is written as ALUR, then how will 24539 be written in
that code? (A) ALEUT (B) ALGTU (C) ALGUT (D) ALGRT
DIRECTIONS Qno(26-30): Study the following information to answer the given questions In a certain code,
‘weather is so cool’ is written as ‘la pa ma se’,

‘so are we going’ is written as ‘ma ne ta ra’,

‘as going cool’ is written as ‘pa ne he’,

‘is weather hot’ is written as ‘la se ka’,

‘desert are hot’ is written as ‘ka te ra’

and ‘mountains are cool’ is written as ‘pa ra ha’.

26. What is the code for ‘mountains’?

(A). pa (B). ra (C).pa or ha(D). ha (E). Can’t be determined

27. What is the code for ‘cool’?

(A). pa (B). la (C). na (D). ra (E). None of these

28. What is the code for ‘going’?

(A). ne (B). la (C). ka (D). se(E). ma

29. What is the code for ‘going hot desert’?

(A). ne ka la (B). ka ta se (C). ka te ne (D). ka ta na (E). None of these

30. What will be the code for ‘so desert’?

(A). ma ta (B). se te (C). ma se (D). te ne (E). None of these

Directions QNO(31-35): Study the following information to answer the given questions

In certain coded language: ‘Worst Thing To Happen’ is coded as ‘ip tn bl rm’

‘Stay Close To Heart’ is coded as ‘pc ap ha bl’ ‘

Your Stay Was Worst’ is coded as ‘jr rm ha pi’ ‘

Thing Stay In Heart’ is coded as ‘ma pc ha tn’

31. What does the code ‘jr’ stand for in the given code language?

(A). Heart (B). Stay (C). Either ‘Stay’ or ‘Close’ (D). Worst (E). Either ‘Your’ or ‘Was’

32. Which of the following is the code for ‘Happen’ in the given code language?

(A). rm (B). ip (C). tn (D). bl (E). None of these

33. Which of the following is the code for ‘Heart’ in the given code language?

(A). ma (B). ha (C). bl (D). pc (E). None of these

34. Which of the following is the code for ‘Worst Stay’ in the given code language?
(A). rm ha (B). ap bl (C). pi jr (D). rm pi (E). None of these

35. If ‘In Your Dreams’ is written as ‘cd ma pi’ then what would be the code of ‘Dreams Close Thing’?

(A). cd bl rm (B). ma pc tn (C). cd tn ap (D). jr ha rm (E). cd ap ha

36: If green means red, red means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means orange and orange means green, what is the
colour of the clear sky?
(A) Blue (B) Red (C) Yellow (D) Green (E) Orange
37: If cloud is called white, white is called rain, rain is called green, green is called air, air is called blue and blue is
called water, where will the birds fly?
(A) Air (B) Cloud (C) White (D) Rain (E) Blue
38: If book is called watch, watch is called bag, bag is called dictionary and dictionary is called window, which is used
to carry the books?
(A) Dictionary (B) Bag (C) Book (D) Watch (E) None of these

39: If the animals which can walk are called swimmers, animals who crawl are called flying, those living in water are
called snakes and those which fly in the sky are called hunters. then what will a lizard be called ?
(A) Swimmers (B) Snakes (C) Flying (D) Hunters (E) None of these

40: If water is called food, food is called tree, free is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the following grows a
fruit?
(A) Water (B) Food (C) Sky (D) Tree (E) Wall
SERIES

NUMBER SERIES

1.Look at this series: 2, 1, 1/2, 1/4, ... What number should come next?
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/8 (C) 2/8 (D) 1/16
2. 27 48 84 145, ?
(A) 201 (B) 221 (C) 231 (D) 241 (E) None of these
3. 0 6, 24 ,? ,120, 210
(A) 40 (B)60 (C)80 (D)90 (E)None of these
4. 1 2 5 26 ? 458330
(A)675 (B)676 (C)677 (D)678 (E)None of these
5. 6 7 11 20 36 ?
(A)61 (B)62 (C)64 (D)66 (E)None of these
6. 135 99 ? 45 27 15 9
(A)65 (B)66 (C)67 (D)69 (E)None of these
7. 4 20 84 340 1364 ?
(A)5260 (B)5460 (C)5468 (D)5789 (E)None of these
8. 17 14 15 12 13 ?
(A)8 (B)9 (C)10 (D)11 (E)None of these
9. 5 8 11 16 ? 22 27
(A)17 (B)19 (C)21 (D)23(E)None of these
10. 20 19 17 18 15 14 13 ?
(A)12 (B)13 (C)14 (D)15 (E)None of these
11. 16, 17, 13, 22 , ?
(A)15 (B)6 (C)12 (D)29
12. 25, 32, 48, 82 ?
(A)143 (B)134 (C)124 (D)132
13. 87, 109, 142, 186 , ?
(A)214 (B)124 (C)241 (D)421
14. 12, 24, 144, 2592, ?
(A)138699 (B)139698 (C)139869 (D)139968
15. 11, 12, 50, 453, ?
(A)7225 (B)7522 (C)7252 (D)75246
16. 15, 14, 24, 63, ?
(A)236 (B)263 (C)326 (D)336
17. 43, 87, 263, 1055, ?
(A)5729 (B)5279 (C)5972 (D)5277
18. 8, 12, 22, 40, ?
(A)46 (B)64 (C)56 (D)68
19. 280, 138, 274, 135 , ?
(A)285 (B)286 (C)268 (D)288
20. 3450, 3329, 3248, 3199, ?
(A)3174 (B)3432 (C)3471 (D)3147
LETTER SERIES
21. ABC, FGH, LMN - - - ?
(A) IJK (B) OPQ (C) STU (D) RST
22. DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?
(A) NRV (B) RVZ (C) CGK (D) KOS
23. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?
(A) KTC (B) KJA (C) LHD (D) LJC
24. WYV, ?, IKH, BDA
(A) OPR (B) ROP (C) PRO (D) OQN
25. a, c, f, j, ?, ?
(A) ou (B) mo (C) lp (D) rv
26. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE
(A) NWJ (B) MVI (C) NVI (D) MVJ
27. DIB, HMF, LQJ, ?
(A) OTM (B) QVO (C) PVO (D) PUN
28. NOA, PQB, RSC, ?
(A) TUD (B) DTU (C) ENO (D) FNQ
29. T, R, P, N, L, ?, ?
(A) J, G (B) K, I (C) J, H (D) K, H
30. ADG, GJM, MPS, ?
(A) SVW (B) SVY (C) SUW (D) SWY
31. A, D, H, M, ?, Z
(A) B (B) G (C) S (D) N
32. BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?
(A) SOW (B) LMN (C) KSU (D) SOV
33. CGK, EJP, GMU, ?
(A) IRT (B) IPZ (C) FNV (D) JLN
34. NOABOPBCPQCD ? ? ? ?
(A) QRDE (B) RTEF (C) QSDE (D) QRGI
35. KDW, MGT, OJQ, ?
(A) MNQ (B) QNM (C) NMQ (D) QMN
36. ADH, DGK, GJN, ?
(A) ORV (B) JMP (C) JLM (D) JMQ
37. AGM, BHN, CIO, ?
(A) COU (B) FQK (C) DJP (D) QXD
38. DFI, KMP, ? , YAD
(A) QSV (B) RTW (C) SUX (D) RTV
39. WVTSQPNMKJ ? ?
(A) HG (B) IL (C) GH (D) GF
40. ZCBA, YFED, XIHG, ?
(A) WLKM (B) WJKL (C) WKLJ (D) WLKJ
LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAM
1: Which of the following Venn diagrams best represent the relationship among "Actors,
Producers, and Directors"?

2: Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly describes the relationship amongst "Clothes,
Flowers and Bright things"?

3: In the figure, rectangle, square, circle, and triangle represent the regions of wheat, gram, maize,
and rice cultivation respectively. On the basis of the figure, answer the following questions.

In which area are all 4 crops cultivated?


(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 2

4: Which of the following indicates the best relation between the given words? "Profit, Dividend,
Bonus"

5: Which of the following indicates the best relation between the given words?"Teachers, Parents,
Guardians"

6: In the following figure, the circle represents all the people who prefer Pepsi, the square
represents all the people who prefer Coke, the triangle represents all the people who prefer Limca
and the rectangle represents all the people who prefer Dew.
Which letter represents the people who prefer only Dew and Coke?
(A) r (B) u (C) b (D) q

7: Which of the following options best represents the given Venn diagram?

(A) Males, Females, Teacher


(B) Tomato, Potato, Apple
(C) Vegetable, Grass, Bottle gourd
(D) Painter, Crow, Hen

8. 100 people speak English. 80 people speak French and 60 people speak German. It is known that
there are 200 people in total and each of them speaks at least one language. Exactly 50% of the total
number of people speaks exactly 2 languages. How many people speak all the three languages?
A 1150 C 80
B 60 D 140

9. There are 100 students in a class. Each student like at least one game among cricket, football and
hockey. 70 of them like football, 50 like cricket and 40 like hockey. If 20 students like exactly two
games then find the number of people who like all three games.
A 10 C 15
B 20 D 25

10. In the figure given below, find the number of people who are part of triangle, circle and square
but not hexagon or pentagon?

11. In the following Venn diagram find the number of actors who are singers but not engineers?
A 32 C 27
B 25 D 29

12. In the following Venn diagram find the sum of the number of students who can speak only
Hindi and students who can speak English but not Tamil?

A. t + g + r - f C. t - x - z + r +b
B. b + t + g + e D. t + b + r + g

13. In a group of 310 people, 200 people play cricket and 145 people play rugby. The maximum
number of people who can play both the games is x. The minimum people who play both the
games is y. Find x - y.
A 110 C 120
B 100 D Cannot be determined

14. A tea company has developed 3 varieties of tea - A, B and C. It hired 50 professional tea tasters
to test the quality of the teas. After tasting the tea, they were asked to vote whether they liked a
particular tea or not. In total, 90 votes were registered favoring the teas. The number of persons
who liked exactly one variety of tea was twice the number of persons who liked all the 3 varieties
of the tea. The number of persons who voted in favour of exactly 2 varieties of the tea is
A5 C 15
B 10 D 20
15. Sumit and Ravi are standing in a queue. Sumit is 17th from the beginning and Ravi is 13th from
the end. 12 people are standing between Sumit and Ravi. What is the total number of people in the
queue?
A 42 C 43
B 17 D Either 42 or 17
CLASSIFICATION

DIRECTIONS :In each of the following questions, find out the wrong number in the series

1. Find the odd one out 441, 484, 529, 566, 625

(A) 484 (B) 529 (C) 625 (D) 566

2. 232, 343, 454, 564, 676

(A) 676 (B) 454 (C) 343 (D) 564

3. 7 ,9 ,11, 12 ,14 ,15

(A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 9 (D) 7

4. 4, 10, 22, 46, 96, 190, 382

(A) 96 (B) 382 (C) 4 (D) 10

5. 81, 66, 53, 43

(A) 53 (B) 43 (C) 81 (D) 66

6. 6,13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40

(A) 40 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 37

7. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

(A) 17 (B) 14 (C) 3 (D) 21

8. 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594

(A) 33 (B) 121 (C) 279 (D) 594

9. 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 22

(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 6

10. 6, 18, 36, 108, 216, 648,1290, 3888

(A) 36 (B) 108 (C) 1290 (D) 648

Directions(qno 11-20) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from other three
alternatives.

11. (A) ABZY (B) BCYX (C) CDVW (D) DEVU

12. (A) AYBZ (B) BXCY (C) DVEW (D) MPON

13. (A) IJCD (B) WYTS (C) QRKL (D) PQMN

14. (A) AEFJ (B) KOPT (C) UYZD (D) EHIL

15. (A) DINS (B) CHNR (C) BGLQ (D) AFKP


16. (A) ACE (B) FHJ (C) KLM (D) SUW

17. (A) AJKL (B) IBCD (C) ORQP (D) UFGH

18. (A) DEB (B) RTP (C) HIF (D) NOL

19. (A) RGTF (B) MLOK (C) CTES (D) VDZC

20. (A) UZDGI (B) JOSVX (C) RWACE (D) FKORT

DIRECTIONS (qno 21-30) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from other three
alternatives.

21. (A) Microbe (B) Microfilm (C) Microphone (D) Microscope

22. (A) Sociologist (B) Economist (C) Neurologist (D) Educationist

23. (A) Sweet (B) Bitter (C) Salty (D) Insipid

24. (A) Lion (B) Goat (C) Tortoise (D) Centaur

25. (A) Square (B) Circle (C) Rectangle (D) Triangle

26. (A) Cotton (B) Terene (C) Silk (D) Wool

27. (A) Light (B) Wave (C) Heat (D) Sound

28. (A) Distinguish (B) Scatter (C) Differentiate (D) Classification

29. (A) Mother (B) Grandfather (C) Father (D) Wife

30. (A) Foreword (B) Text (C) Index (D) Preface

DIRECTIONS (q.no 31-40) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from other three
alternatives.

31. (A) 62 – 37 (B) 74 – 40 (C) 85 – 60 (D) 103 – 78

32. (A) 84, 67 (B) 112, 95 (C) 79, 63 (D) 167, 150

33. (A) 8 (B) 42 (C) 49 (D) 35

34. (A) 81 : 243 (B) 16 : 64 (C) 64 : 192 (D) 25 : 75

35. (A) 24 (B) 60 (C) 124 (D) 210

36. (A) (52, 142) (B) (54, 126) (C) (56, 168) (D) (58, 184

37. (A) 34-43 (B) 62-71 (C) 55-62 (D) 83-92

38. (A) 94 – 7 (B) 42 – 6 (C) 35 – 5 (D) 56 – 8

39. (A) 64-8 (B) 80-9 (C) 7-49 (D) 36-6

40. (A) 14, 9 (B) 17, 8 (C) 42, 3 (D) 21,6


CALENDER

1. If 9th of the month falls on the day preceding Sunday, on what day will 1st of the month fall.?

(A) Friday (B) Saturday (C) Sunday (D) Monday

2. Anil reached a place on Friday. He came to know that he was three days earlier than the scheduled day. If he had
reached there on the following Sunday, how many days late/early he would have been?

(A) One day earlier (B) One day late (C) Two days late (D) Two days earlier

3. If day before yesterday was Friday, what will be the third day after the day – after– tomorrow?

(A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday

4. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be ?

(A) Tomorrow (B) Day after tomorrow (C) Today (D) Two days after today

5. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow ? (A) Sunday
(B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Saturday

6. If the day after tomorrow is Sunday, what day was tomorrow’s day before yesterday ?

(A) Friday (B) Thursday (C) Monday (D) Tuesday

7. Suresh was born on 4th October 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The Independence Day of that
year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (C) Monday (D) Sunday

8. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had
reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I have been?

(A) One day (2)Two days (C) Three days (4)Four days

9. If the 23rd of a month is a Sunday, what day it would have been two weeks and four more days earlier?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday

10. If 15th June falls 3 days after tomorrow, that is Friday, on what day will the last of the month fall?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday

11. If the day after tomorrow is Tuesday what day will two days after the day after tomorrow be?

(A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Saturday (D) Thursday

12. If two days before yesterday was Friday, what day will be day after tomorrow ?

(A) Monday (B) Sunday (C) Saturday (D) Wednesday

13. The day before yesterday was Sunday. What will be the day after tomorrow ?

(A) Monday (B) Thursday (C) Friday (D) Saturday


14. If two days after day after tomorrow is Sunday, what day was the day before yesterday?

(A) Wednesday (B) Tuesday (C) Monday (D) Sunday

15. If day before yesterday was Tuesday, the day after tomorrow will be

(A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Friday (D) Saturday

16. If three days after today will be Tuesday, what day was four days before yesterday?

(A) Tuesday (B) Sunday (C) Monday (D) Wednesday

17. If day before yesterday was Thursday, what day will be four days after tomorrow?

(A) Monday (B) Thursday (C) Sunday (D) Wednesday

18. If the day that will come two days after tomorrow is Thursday, what day of the week was three days before
yesterday.?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday(D) Thursday

19. Mrs. Susheela celebrated her wedding anniversary on Tuesday, 30th September 1997. When will she celebrate
her next wedding anniversary on the same day?

(A) 30 September 2003 (B) 30 September 2004 (C) 30 September 2002 (D) 30 October 2003

20. If John celebrated his victory day on Tuesday, 5th January 1965, when will he celebrate his next victory day on
the same day ? (A) 5th January 1970 (B) 5th January 1971 (C) 5th January 1973 (D) 5th January 1974

21. In the year 1996, the Republic day was celebrated on Friday. On which day was the Independence day
celebrated in the year 2000?

(A) Tuesday (B) Monday (C) Friday (D) Saturday

22. Hari remembers that his father’s birthday is between 13th and 16th of June, whereas his sister remembers that
their father’s birthday is between 14th and 18th of June. On which day is their father’s birthday, which both agree?

(A) 14th June (B) 15th June (C) 16th June (D) 17th June

23. 5th of a month falls two days after Monday. What day of the month will precede 19th of it?

(A) Wednesday (B) Thursday (C) Tuesday (D) Monday

24. Which among the following is a Leap year ?

(A) 1600 (B) 1900 (C) 1800 (D) All of the above

25. Ram was born on 29th February. He celebrated his birthday falling on exactly 29th February 2008 for the fourth
time. In which year he was born ?

(A) 1992 (B) 2004 (C) 2000 (D) 1996

26. Which of the following years did not have 29 days in February month?

(A) 2000 (B) 2004 (C) 1996 (D) 1966


27. Tell the number of days from 26 January 2006 to 23 September 2006 (including both dates).

(A) 214 (B) 241 (C) 249 (D) 251

28. Today is Friday. On the last Monday the date was 29th December, 1975. The date today is?

(A) 28 December, 1975 (B) 3rd January, 1976 (C) 2nd January, 1976 (D) 2nd January, 1975

29. If the third Friday of a month is 16th what date is the fourth Tuesday of that month ?

(A) 20th (B) 22nd (C) 27th (D) 29th

30. If Friday falls on 15th of September 2000, what will be the day of 15th of September 2001?

(A) Friday (B) Saturday (C) Thursday (D) Sunday

31. Find out the day from the problem given. If the 1st of November falls on Monday, what day will the 25th of
November be?

(A) Tuesday (B) Thursday (C) Wednesday(D) Friday

32. Saturday comes after 3 days on 4th of a month. Find out the day on 27th of that month.

(A) Monday (B) Thursday (C) Friday (D) Saturday

33. If the 2nd of a month falls on Sunday, what day will the 31st of that month be?

(A) Tuesday (B) Saturday (C) Friday (D) Monday

34. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be?

(A) Today (B) Two days after today (C) Tomorrow (D) Day after Tomorrow

35. If day before yesterday was Wednesday, when will Sunday be ?

(A) 3 days after today (B) Tomorrow (C) Today (D) Day after tomorrow

36. If the day before yesterday was Friday, what day will two days after the day after tomorrow be?

(A) Saturday (B) Thursday (B) Friday (D) Sunday

37. Ann is 300 days older than Varun and Sandeep is 50 weeks older than Ann. If Sandeep was born on Tuesday, on
which day was Varun born ?

(A) Monday (B) Thursday (C) Tuesday (D) Friday

38. If 1st March is Saturday, then 1st April will be

(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Thursday

39. If it is Saturday on 27th September, what day will it be on 27th October of the same year?

(A) Thursday (B) Sunday (C) Friday (D) Monday

40. If the third day of a month is Tuesday, which of the following would be the 25th day of that month? (A)
Tuesday (B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
DIRECTIONS

1. Sumit starts his journey by walking in South direction. After travelling a distance of 60 m, he turned to
his rightand travelled 45 m. Then he goes 30 m towards North and further travels by turning 45o in
clockwise direction. In
what direction is he travelling now?
(A) South-west (B) North-east (C) North-west (D) South-east (E) East

2. Anoop starts walking 15 m towards South. Now he turned North and walked for 20 m, then towards
East andwalked 10 m. Finally he turns towards South and walked 5 m. In which direction is he walking
now and how farfrom original position?
(A) 10 m, North (B) 15 m, East (C) 10 m, East (D) 5 m, West (E) None of these

3. Anoop starts from point P and goes to point Q 15 m away, then he walks towards his North and reaches
point R20 m from Q, then to East 10 m, and then towards South and reaches point O. so point O is 10 m
from P(at whichhe starte(D) and is in east direction to point P.direction_8-2 Vinay started his journey
towards north to each hisoffice. After reaching the office he turned 180o in clockwise direction and then
45o in anticlockwise direction.Which direction is he facing now?

(A) North west (B) South east (C) West (D) South west (E) None of these

4. After walking for 7 m, Sakshi turned to her left and walked another 12 m. Again she turned to her left
andwalked for 4 m after which she turned to her right and reach her destination and now she is facing east.
In whichdirection did Sakshi start her journey?

(A) West (B) East (C) North (D) South (E) South-east

5. Shilpa wants to go to market and she starts from her home which is in North and comes to a crossing.
The roadto her left ends in a mall and straight ahead is a park. In which direction is the market to the
house? (Suppose there are 4 places in 4 directions of the crossing)

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

6. A town P is located on the river valley. The town Q is in the west of town P. Town R is east of town Q
but west oftown P. Town S is east of town T but west of town Q and R. If all these towns are situated at
equal distances fromadjacent towns, which town is in the middle?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S (E) T

7. After walking for 1 m, Madhuri turned to her left and walked another 12 m. Again she turned to her left
and walked for 4 m. Now she is travelling in East direction. In which direction did she start her journey?

(A) West (B) East (C) North (D) South (E) North-east

8. Ram started walking towards North. After walking for 5 m, he turned to his right where he walked 10 m
beforehe took the left turn. Now he walked for 5 m and then took a right turn. He walked for 4 m and then
finally stopped after turned to his right to add additional 8 m to his journey. At what distance is he from
the starting point?

(A) 10 m (B) 10√2 m (C) 20 m (D) 18 √2 m (E) None of these


9. A clock is placed in such a way that when it is 12’O clock, the hands point towards North east direction.
In which direction will the hour hand point at 6 PM?
(A) West (B) East (C) South (D) South-west (E) South-east
10. Ranveer starts from point P towards south and walks 5 m. Now he turns to his left and walks 10 m.
Now walks2 m to his right, takes a right turn and walks 4 m, then he gain turns to his right and walks 15 m
and reaches point Q. Find the distance PQ, and Q is in which direction with respect to P?
(A) 16 m, North (B) 10 m, North west (C) 10 m, North east (D) 12 m, north east (E) None of these
11. Riya starts walking in the north direction and after walking some distance she took a left turn followed
by aright turn. After that she took two consecutive left turn, now she is walking in which direction?
(A) south (B) north (C) east (D) west (E) None of these
12. Rahul walks a distance of 10 km towards south, then he turn to his left and walks 5 km. From here he
took aright turn and walks 6 km and stops at a point A. Find the distance between the starting point and A
and A is in which direction with respect to starting point.
(A) 17km, north east (B) 17km south east (C) 17km north west (D) 17km south west (E) None of these
13. Neha travelled from a point X straight to point Y at a distance of 50 meters. He turned to his right and
walks 50meter more, then again turned right and walks 60 meter. Finally, he turned to right and walks 50
meters. How faris he from the starting point?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40 (E) None of these
14.Nishant walks 30 meter in the north direction, after that he took a right turn and walks 40 meter. After
that hetook a right turn and walks 40 meter more and finally he took a right turn and stop after walking 40
meter. Find the distance of nishant from the initial position?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20 (E) None of these
15. From his house, Ram went 15 kms to the north. Then he turns west and covered 20 km. Then he
turned southland covered 5 km. Finally turning to east, he covered 25 km. In which direction is he from
his house?
(A) north west (B) north east (C) south east (D) south west (E) None of these
16. A man walks 40 meters towards north. Then turning to his right, he walks 50 meter. Then turning to
his left, he walks 30 meters. Again he turns to his left and walks 40 meters. How far is he from initial
position?
(A) 40√2 (B) 50√2 (C) 60√2 (D) 50√3 (E) None of these
17. Riya goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km.
After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction is she from her starting
point?
(A) 10m east (B) 15m east (C) 20m east (D) 25m east (E) None of these
18. A person starts walking from his home in west direction and after walking 20 meter he took a left turn
and walk 30 meters. Now he took a right turn and walks 10 meter to reach the bus stand. Find the distance
between home and stand

(A) 20√2 (B) 30√2 (C) 40√2 (D) 50√2 (E) None of these

19. A girl rides her bicycle southwards, then turned right and rode 2 km and again turned right and rode 4
km. She found himself exactly 2 km east from the starting point. How far did she ride southwards
initially?

(A) 2km (B) 3 km (C) 4 km (D) 6 km (E) None of these

20. One day raj left home and walked 5 km northwards, turned right and walked for 10km and turned left
and walked 5 km more and finally turned left and walked 10km. How many kilometres will he have to
walk to reach his home straight?

(A) 15 km (B) 10 km (C) 5 km (D) 20 km (E) None of these

(Directions 21 – 2(E): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

M % N means M is to the right of N at a distance of 1m.

M @ N means M is to the left of N at a distance of 1m.

M $ N means M is to the north of N at a distance of 1m.

M # N means M is to the south of N at a distance of 1m.

The persons are facing the south direction.

21. A % B # C % D, then D is in which direction with respect to A?

(A) North (B) South-East (C) North-West (D) South-West (E) South

22. A # B % C $ D, then D is in which direction with respect to A?

(A) North (B) North-East (C) South (D) West (E) South-West

23. E $ F @ G # H, then H is in which direction with respect to E and what is distance between H and E?

(A) North, 1m (B) South, 1m (C) South-East, 1m (D) East, 1m (E) West, 1m

24. A # B % C $ D % E, then E is in which direction with respect to B?

(A) North (B) South-West (C) North-East (D) South-East (E) West

25.P # R @ S @ Q $ T, Then R is in which direction with respect to Q and at what distance?

(A) North, 1m (B) South, 2m (C) West, 2m (D) East, 2m (E) North-East, 1m
(Directions 26 – 30): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Some numbers of bikes are parked in a linear row and all of them are facing in South direction. Only three
bikes

are parked between M and N. Only two bikes parked between N and O. P is not an immediate neighbour
of N. Q is third to the right of M. More than three bikes parked between M and R and R is to the right of
M. There is no immediate neighbour of R and N. Less than five bikes parked between S and Q and R is to
the left of S. Less than two bikes parked between Q and R. Less than two bikes parked between P and the
bike which is parked on left extreme end and no less than 13 bikes parked between S and P. Each bike is
moved facing South direction:

26. S is 4km east of R. Q is 2km north of R. M is 4km south of Q. N is 2km west of M. P is 6m east of N.
O is 4km

north of N. Who among the following parked on extreme right end?

(A) P (B) N (C) O (D) S (E) Cannot be determined

27. What is the direction of bike P with respect to bike O?

(A) South – West (B) South – East (C) North – West (D) North (E) None of these

28. How many bikes are parked in the line?

(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17 (E) 13

29. Which of the following bikes are immediate neighbours of each other?

(A) S, O (B) M, P (C) P, O (D) O, M (E) None of these

30. What is the direction of bike S with respect to bike N?

(A) North – East (B) South – West (C) North (D) South – East (E) None of these

31. A man standing facing north starts walking. After walking for 5 m he took a left turn and walked for
10m. Nowhe walked for 20 m after turning to his right and again he turned right and finally stopped after
walking 10 m.What is the distance from the starting point?

(A) 18 m (B) 20 m (C) 15 m (D) 25 m (E) None of these

32. From a point Sahil starts walking in south-east direction. After walking for 6 m, he turned to west and
walks another 10 m. Now he turned towards north-west and walks 6 m and then finally stopped after
turning to east and walking 2 m. Find the distance from the starting point.

(A) 10 m (B) 8 m (C) 12 m (D) 6 m (E) None of these

33. From a point Sahil started walked towards south. After walking for 20 m, he took a left turn and
walked 40 m.Again he took a left turn and walked 15 m. Now he turned to his right and finally stopped
after walking 10 m. Howfar is he from the starting point?

(A) 42.50 m (B) 50.25 m (C) 30.75 m (D) 45 m (E) None of these
34. A person started walking in south direction. After walking for 40 m he turned to his left and then
walked 20 m.Now he turned to north and walked 30 m. In which direction is he now with respect to
starting point?

(A) South-east (B) North-east (C) North (D) South (E) North-west

35. Point A is 7 m west of point B. Point C is 5 m north of point B. A point D on AB 2 m away from point
A meets BCat point E with DE = √34 m. Find the distance EC.

(A) 3 m (B) 2 m (C) 4 m (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

36. From a point, Suman walked 10 m towards east, then she took a right turn and walked another 10 m.
Then sheturned to her left and walked 30 m. Again turning left and after walking 40 m she stopped. How
far and in which direction is she from starting point?

(A) 50 m, south-east (B) 50 m, north-east (C) 20 m, north-east (D) 50 m, north-west (E) None of these

37. Madhuri started walking in north and after walking 5 m she turned to her left. Now she walked 4 m
and turned to her left again and walked 5 m. Now finally she turned to her left again and walked 5 m.
What is the distance ofthis point from starting point?

(A) 0 m (B) 4 m (C) 2 m (D) 1 m (E) None of these

38. Point A is 15 m west of point B. Point C is 13 m south of point B and also 5 m east of point E. Point F
is 20 m north of point E. What is the distance AF?

(A) 49 m (B) 7√49 m (C) 20 m (D) √149 m (E) None of these

39. In above question, what is the direction of point C with respect to point A?

(A) West (B) East (C) South (D) South-west (E) South-east

40. Shruti walks 5 m towards south. Now she walks 10 m after turning to her left. Now she turns to her
right andwalks 2 m, takes a right turn again and walks 4 m. Now finally she takes a right turn and walks
15 m and stops. Find the distance from starting point?

(A) 16 m (B) 10 m (C) 10 m (D) 12 m (E) None of these


BLOOD RELATIONS

Blood Relations tests largely depend on the candidate’s knowledge of family relations.
Various family relationships are described below to help the candidates to understand
the relationships better and to attempt the questions .

DRAWING THE FAMILY TREE


1. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is the daughter of the only child of my
father." How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
A) Niece C) Cousin
B) Daughter D) Sister
2. Question: If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the father of D, how is A related
to D?
A) Brother C) Nephew
B) Uncle D) Father
3. Question: Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman says, "His mother’s only daughter is my
mother." How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
A) Sister C) Aunt
B) Cousin D) Niece

4. Question: A is the son of B. C, B’s sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle
of D. How is A related to D?
A) Brother C) Uncle
B) Cousin D) Nephew

5. Question: X and Y are brothers. R is the father of Y. T is the mother of S. S is the sister of X.
How is T related to R?
A) Wife C) Daughter
B) Sister D) Mother

6. Question: Pointing to a photograph of a boy, Ravi said, "He is the son of the only son of my
mother." How is the boy related to Ravi?
A) Brother C) Cousin
B) Nephew D) Son

7. Question: A is married to B. C is the brother of B. C is the father of D. How is D related to A?


A) Son C) Cousin
B) Nephew D) Brother

8. Question: P is the son of Q. R, Q's sister, has a son S and a daughter T. U is the maternal uncle
of S. How is P related to S?
A) Brother C) Uncle
B) Cousin D) Nephew

9. Question: If A + B means A is the mother of B, A B means A is the brother of B, A B means A


is the sister of B, and A / B means A is the father of B, then what does P Q / R + S mean?
A) P is the aunt of S C) P is the mother of S
B) P is the sister of S D) P is the cousin of S
10. Question: Pointing to a photograph, Arun said, "She is the mother of my father's only
granddaughter." How is the lady in the photograph related to Arun?
A) Daughter C) Mother
B) Wife D) Sister

11. Question: If A is the father of B and B is the mother of C, how is A related to C?


A) Grandfather B) Father
C) Son D) Uncle

12. Question: Pointing to a girl, Ravi says, "She is the daughter of the only sister of my father."
How is the girl related to Ravi?
A) Sister C) Niece
B) Cousin D) Aunt

13. Question: A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
A) Mother C) Sister
B) Grandmother D) Aunt

14. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother or sister, but that man's
father is my father's son." Whose photograph was it?
A) His own C) His father's
B) His son's D) His nephew's

15. Question: A is the son of B. B is the daughter of C. D is the father of C. How is A related to D?
A) Grandfather C) Son
B) Grandson D) Uncle

16. Question: Pointing to a person, Rohit said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's
father." How is the person related to Rohit?
A) Uncle C) Son
B) Brother D) Father

17. Question: If A + B means A is the brother of B, A B means A is the daughter of B, A B means


A is the father of B, then what does P Q + R mean?
A) P is the father of Q and Q is the brother of R
B) P is the brother of Q and Q is the father of R
C) P is the father of R and Q is the brother of R
D) P is the father of Q and R is the brother of Q

18. Question: If A + B means A is the sister of B, A B means A is the mother of B, A B means A is


the daughter of B, A / B means A is the brother of B, then which of the following means C is the
daughter of D?
A) D C C) D C
B) C + D D) C D
19. Question: Pointing to a woman, John said, "Her husband’s sister is my aunt." How is the
woman related to John?
A) Mother C) Sister
B) Aunt D) Motherinlaw

20. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only
son." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?
A) Sister C) Aunt
B) Mother D) Cousin
21. Question: If P is the brother of Q, R is the mother of Q, S is the father of R, and T is the
mother of S, then how is P related to S?
A) Grandson C) Granddaughter
B) Son D) Greatgrandson

22. Question: Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my
wife." How is the lady related to the man?
A) Sister C) Motherinlaw
B) Mother D) Sisterinlaw

23. Question: Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman says, "He is the son of my husband's
sister." How is the man related to the woman's husband?
A) Nephew C) Brother
B) Son D) Cousin
24. Question: A is the father of B. B is the mother of C. How is A related to C?
A) Uncle C) Brother
B) Grandfather D) Father

25. Question: If A is the brother of B, B is the daughter of C, and D is the father of C, how is A
related to D?
A) Grandson C) Nephew
B) Son D) Brother

26. Question: Pointing to a boy, a woman says, "He is the son of my daughter’s only brother."
How is the boy related to the woman?
A) Grandson C) Son
B) Nephew D) Cousin

27. Question: If A + B means A is the brother of B, A B means A is the father of B, A B means A


is the sister of B, then what does P Q + R mean?
A) P is the sister of Q and Q is the brother of R
B) P is the brother of Q and Q is the brother of R
C) P is the sister of Q and Q is the sister of R
D) P is the father of Q and Q is the brother of R
28. Question: Pointing to a photograph, John said, "She is the only daughter of my mother’s only
son." How is the girl related to John?
A) Niece C) Sister
B) Daughter D) Cousin
29. Question: A is the son of B. B and C are sisters. D is the mother of C. E is the daughter of D.
How is A related to E?
A) Son C) Cousin
B) Nephew D) Brother

30. Question: If A + B means A is the mother of B, A B means A is the brother of B, A B means A


is the sister of B, and A / B means A is the father of B, then what does P Q R + S mean?
A) P is the sister of Q, Q is the brother of R, and R is the mother of S
B) P is the sister of Q, Q is the brother of R, and R is the sister of S
C) P is the mother of Q, Q is the brother of R, and R is the sister of S
D) P is the sister of Q, Q is the brother of R, and R is the father of S
31. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, "This man's sister is my son’s mother."
How is the man in the photograph related to the woman?
A) Brother C) Cousin
B) Brotherinlaw D) Husband

32. Question: If A is the daughter of B and B is the daughter of C, how is A related to C?


A) Daughter C) Niece
B) Granddaughter D) Cousin
33. A is B’s sister.C is B’s mother.D is C’s father.E is D’s mother. Then, how is A related to D?
A. Grandmother C. Grand daughter
B. Daughter D. grandson
34. A + B means A is the brother of B A × B means A is the father of B A ÷ B means A is the mother
of BWhich of the following would mean "G is the son of H"?
A. H × I × G C. H ÷ G ÷ I
B. H + G × I D. H × G + I
35. Introducing Neeta, Amal said, ‘Sheis wife of my mother’s only son. Howis Neeta related to
Amal?
A. Mother C. Sister
B. Wife D. Daughterinlaw

36. Pointing to a photograph, A man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my
father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
A. His son’s C. His nephew’s
B. His father’s D. His own
37. If A is the brother of B; B is the sisterof C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
A. Brother C. Nephew
B. Sister D. Cannot be determined
38. If A + B means B is the brother of A; A x B means B is the husband of A; A B means A is the
mother of B and A % B means A is the father of B, which of the following relations shows that Q
is the grandmother of T?
A. Q P + R % T C. P x Q % R + T
B. P x Q % R T D. P + Q % R T
39. Pointing to Ajay, Radha said, “Hisfather is the only son of mygrandfather”. How is Radha
Related to Ajay?
A. Brother C. Mother
B. Sister D. Daughter
40. F is the brother of A, C is the daughter ofA, K is the sister of F and G is the brother of C then
who is the uncle of G?
A. C C. K
B. F D. None of the above.
41. Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son.
Brothers and sisters I have none.” At whose portrait was Harsh looking ?
A. His son C. His cousin
B. His uncle D. His nephew (e) None of these
42. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the
daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
A. M + O x N B. M % O x N + P
C. M + O % N D. None of these
43. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.One couple has parents and their childrenin
the family.A is the son of C and E is the Daughter of A.D is the daughter of F who is the
motherof E.Which of the following pairs is the parents of the couple ?
A. CF
B. AB
C. AF
D. BC
E. 44. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a woman said, "He is the son of my only brother's
wife." How is the boy in the photograph related to the woman's brother?
F. A) Son H. C) Cousin
G. B) Nephew I. D) Brother
J. 45. Question: If A + B means A is the brother of B, A B means A is the father of B, A / B
means A is the sister of B, and A B means A is the mother of B, then which of the
following means "R is the maternal uncle of S"?
K. A) R P + S M. C) R / P S
L. B) R + P / S N. D) R + P S
O. 46. Question: If A + B means A is the brother of B, A B means A is the sister of B, A B
means A is the daughter of B, A / B means A is the father of B, then which of the
following means "T is the niece of S"?
P. A) S P T R. C) S + P T
Q. B) S P / T S. D) S + P T
T. 47. Question: Pointing to a photograph, Rahul said, "She is the daughter of the only sister
of my father." How is the girl in the photograph related to Rahul?
U. A) Sister W. C) Niece
V. B) Cousin X. D) Aunt
Y. 48. Question: If A is the son of B and C is the son of D and A and C are brothers, how is B
related to D?
Z. A) Brother BB. C) Wife
AA. B) Sister CC. D) Husband
DD. 49. Question: Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only
daughter of your father." How is the woman related to the person?
EE. A) Aunt GG. C) Grandmother
FF. B) Mother HH. D) Sister
II. 50. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the mother of my son’s wife’s
brother." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man’s son?
JJ. A) Motherinlaw
KK. B) Aunt
LL. C) Mother
MM. D) Sisterinlaw
ANALOGY

WORD ANALOGY

1. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Touch : Feel : : Greet : ?

(A) Smile (B) Acknowledge (C) Success (D) Manners

2. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

House : Room : : World : ?

(A) Land (B) Sun (C) Air (D) Nation

3. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Carbon : Diamond : : Corundum : ?

(A) Garnet (B) Ruby (C) Pukhraj (D) Pearl

4. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Smoke : Pollution : : War : ?

(A) Victory (B) Peace (C) Treaty (D) Destruction

5. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives

.Ink : Pen : : Blood : ?

(A) Accident (B) Doctor (C) Vein (D) Donation

6. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives

. Good : Bad : : Roof : ?

(A) Walls (B) Pillars (C) Floor (D) Window

7. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives

. Lion : Den : : Rabbit : ?

(A) Hole (B) Pit (C) Burrow (D) Trench

8. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Novelty : Oldness : : Newness : ?

(A) Model (B) Antiquity (C) Discovery (D) Culture

9. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Detective : Informer : : Reporter : ?

(A) Source (B) Editorial (C) News (D) Essay


10. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Genuine : Authentic : : Mirage : ?

(A) Illusion (B) Image (C) Hideout (D) Reflection

11. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Thunder : Rain : : ? : Night

(A) Day (B) Dusk (C) Dark (D) Evening

12. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Botany : Plants : : Entomology : ?

(A) Birds (B) Plants (C) Insects (D) Snakes

13. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Parliament : Great Britain : : Congress : ?

(A) Japan (B) India (C) USA (D) Netherlands

NUMBER ANALOGY

14. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives

5 : 36 : : 6 : ?

(A) 48 (B) 50 (C) 49 (D) 56

15. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

456 : 15 : : 789 : ?

(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 24

16. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

182 : ? : : 210 : 380

(A) 342 (B) 272 (C) 240 (D) 156

17. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives

. 18 : 30 : : 36 : ?

(A) 64 (B) 66 (C) 54 (D) 62

18. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

0. 16 : 0.0016 : : 1.02 : ?

(A) 10.20 (B) 0.102 (C) 0.0102 (D) 1.020

19. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
68 : 130 : : ? : 350

(A) 240 (B) 222 (C) 216 (D) 210

20. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

169 : 13 : : 289 : ?

(A) 19 (B) 17 (C) 27 (D) 23

21. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

122 : 170 : : 290 : ?

(A) 362 (B) 299 (C) 315 (D) 341

22. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .

42 : 56 : : 72 : ?

(A) 81 (B) 90 (C) 92 (D) 100

23. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?

(A) 2154 (B) 5487 (C) 3562 (D) 5784

24. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .

24 : 60 : : 210 : ?

(A) 504 (B) 343 (C) 336 (D) 330

25. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .

6 : 222 : : 7 : ?

(A) 350 (B) 343 (C) 336 (D) 210

26. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives

. 19 : 37 : : 26 : ?

(A) 52 (B) 51 (C) 46 (D) 43

27. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .

24 : 60 : : 120 : ?

(A) 160 (B) 220 (C) 300 (D) 108

28. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

7 : 50 : : 11 : ?

(A) 100 (B) 120 (C) 128 (D) 122


29. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

7584 : 5362 : : 4673 : ?

(A) 2367 (B) 2451 (C) 2531 (D) 2485

LETTER/ALPHABET ANALOGY

30.Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

ACEG : IKMO : : QSUW : ?

(A) XBDF (B) MOQS (C) YACE (D) BDFH

31. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

EHGI : LONP : ORQS ?

(A) GJIK (B) GIHJ (C) HKJL (D) HJIK

32. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

BEHK : YVSP : : CFIL : ?

(A) XVSQ (B) XWUT (C) XURO (D) XUSP

33. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

ADHM : ZWSN : : CFJO : ?

(A) YVRM (B) WSPK (C) XUQL (D) ZXVT

34. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

ACFJ : ZXUQ : : EGJN : ?

(A) VUSQ (B) VTRP (C) VRPM (D) VTQM

35. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

MASTER : OCUVGT : : LABOUR :?

(A) NCDQWT (B) NDERWT (C) NBCRWT (D) NEDRWT

36. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

ABCD : WXYZ : : EFGH : ?

(A) STUV (B) ZYXW (C) VUTS (D) WXZY

37. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

WRITE : JEVGR : : WRONG : ?

(A) JEBAT (B) JECAT (C) JEDAT (D) JEDAD


38. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

EJOT : VQLG : : BGLQ : ?

(A) ZUPK (B) AFKP (C) AEIM (D) YTOJ

39. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives

. DEAD : WVZW : : FGCF : ?

(A) UTXU (B) TUUX (C) UXTU (D) UUTX

40. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

PCWL : REXM : : THNY : ?

(A) OZPL (B) KOVZ (C) PMKZ (D) VJOZ.


DATA SUFFICIENCY

1: STATEMENT
Is John older than Mary?
1. John is 25 years old)
2. Mary is 24 years old)
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

2: STATEMENT
Is Susan taller than Jim?
1. Susan is taller than Anna)
2. Anna is taller than Jim.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

3: STATEMENT
Does Peter live in New York?
1. Peter works for a company headquartered in New York.
2. Peter's mailing address is a New York address.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

4: STATEMENT
Does Alice have a pet?
1. Everyone who lives in Alice's apartment building has a pet.
2. Alice has mentioned that she likes animals.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

5: STATEMENT
Is it raining in Paris?
1. The weather forecast predicts rain in Paris today.
2. People in Paris are carrying umbrellas.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

6. Is Alex a vegetarian?
1. Alex does not eat meat.
2. Alex only eats vegetables.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

7. Does Emily have a driver's license?


1. Emily drives her car to work every day.
2. Emily owns a car.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

8. Is Chris fluent in French?


1. Chris can hold a conversation in French.
2. Chris has lived in France for five years.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

9. Is the conference room booked for the entire day?


1. The conference room is booked from 9 AM to 5 PM.
2. The conference room is booked for 8 hours.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

10. Does Jordan work in the marketing department?


1. Jordan attends all marketing department meetings.
2. Jordan's job title is "Marketing Specialist."
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
11.Is Rachel a full-time employee?
1. Rachel works 40 hours a week.
2. Rachel receives full employee benefits.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

12. Is Sarah attending the conference?


1. Sarah has registered for the conference.
2. Sarah has booked a hotel room for the dates of the conference.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

13. Does Mark have a graduate degree?


1. Mark attended a university for six years.
2. Mark has a master's degree.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

14. Is it possible to walk from Building A to Building B without leaving the campus?
1. Building A and Building B are connected by a covered walkway.
2. Both Building A and Building B are located on the same campus.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

15.Is Linda qualified to be a manager?


1. Linda has 10 years of relevant work experience.
2. Linda has completed a management training program.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
16. Does the new software work on all company computers?
1. The software is compatible with the company's operating system.
2. All company computers meet the minimum hardware requirements for the software.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

17. Is the library open on Sundays?


1. The library is open seven days a week.
2. The library hours are posted online.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

18. Does the project need to be completed by the end of the month?
1. The project deadline is the last day of the month.
2. The project timeline is 30 days, starting from the beginning of the month.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

19.Does Jack speak more than one language fluently?


1. Jack is bilingual.
2. Jack speaks both English and Spanish.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

20. Is the conference room available for the next meeting?


1. The conference room is booked for the entire week.
2. The next meeting is scheduled for next week.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

21. Does Mike have a valid passport?


1. Mike traveled internationally last month.
2. Mike's passport expires next year.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

22. Is Jane's favorite color blue?


1. Jane wears blue clothes most of the time.
2. Jane's room is painted blue.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

23.Is Tom a professional musician?


1. Tom performs at concerts regularly.
2. Tom earns his living by playing music)
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

24. Does Linda have a pet cat?


1. Linda buys cat food regularly.
2. There is a cat litter box in Linda's house.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

25. Is John working on the new project?


1. John attends all the meetings related to the new project.
2. John's name is listed on the project team roster.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

26. Is Rachel's car parked in the company lot?


1. Rachel's car is in the parking lot with the company logo on it.
2. Rachel is at work today.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

27. Is the new employee experienced in software development?


1. The new employee has a degree in computer science.
2. The new employee worked as a software developer for five years.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

28. Is the book available in the library?


1. The book is listed in the library's catalog.
2. The librarian confirmed the book is on the shelf.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

29. Is the restaurant open today?


1. The restaurant's hours of operation indicate it is open today.
2. The restaurant has a sign outside saying "Open."
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

30. Is Alex eligible for the employee of the month award?


1. Alex has met all the criteria for the aware.
2. Alex was not late or absent for any day this month.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

31. Is the company planning to launch a new product this year?


1. The company has increased its marketing budget significantly for this year.
2. The company has scheduled a major press conference next month.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
32. Is Sarah eligible to vote in the upcoming election?
1. Sarah is 20 years old)
2. Sarah is registered to vote.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

33. Does the project manager approve all project timelines?


1. The project manager approved the last five project timelines.
2. The company's policy requires the project manager's approval for all project timelines.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

34. Is the annual company picnic scheduled for this weekend?


1. The company picnic is usually held on the first weekend of June.
2. This weekend is the first weekend of June.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

35. Is Emma the lead engineer on the project?


1. Emma leads the weekly project meetings.
2. Emma is listed as the lead engineer in the project documentation.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

36. Is the restaurant popular?


1. The restaurant has a long waiting list for reservations.
2. The restaurant has received numerous positive reviews online.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
37. Is the new employee experienced with project management?
1. The new employee has a Project Management Professional (PMP) certification.
2. The new employee managed multiple projects in their previous job)

A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.


B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

38. Is the training program mandatory for all employees?


1. The company handbook states that the training program is mandatory.
2. All new employees have attended the training program.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

39. Is the new policy effective immediately?


1. The email announcing the new policy states it is effective immediately.
2. Employees have started following the new policy.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

40. Is the workshop being held this Friday?


1. The workshop is scheduled for June 10th.
2. Today is June 8th, which is a Wednesday.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
KEY ANSWER
1. C 21. D
2. C 22. C
3. B 23. B
4. A 24. C
5. C 25. B
6. B 26. A
7. A 27. B
8. A 28. B
9. A 29. D
10. B 30. A
11. D 31. C
12. C 32. D
13. B 33. B
14. A 34. C
15. C 35. D
16. C 36. D
17. A 37. D
18. D 38. A
19. D 39. A
20. A 40. C
SEATING ARRANGEMENTS

1. Question: Five friends P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting in a row facing north. T is to the
immediate right of S. Q is at the extreme left and P is to the immediate left of T. Who is in
the middle?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) S
2. Question: A, B, C, D, and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B. C is sitting next to
D. D is not sitting with E, who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position
from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. Who is sitting in the
center?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
3. Question: Six people P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a circle facing the center. P is
between U and S. T is between Q and R. Q is to the immediate left of S. Who is to the
immediate right of T?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) S
4. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circular table facing
the center. A is second to the right of H, who is third to the right of D. B is second to the left
of A. G is second to the right of C. E is not an immediate neighbor of D. Who is sitting
immediately to the left of D?
A) A C) C
B) B D) G
5. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D, and E
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is second to the left of Q.
- B is not at any of the ends.
- R sits exactly opposite to D, who is second to the right of C.
- P is not opposite to B, and T is not at the end.
Who is sitting immediately to the right of R?
A) P C) S

B) Q D) T

6. Question: Seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting in a straight line facing north.
P is sitting third to the right of M. Q is sitting second to the left of R. N is sitting between P
and R. M is not at the extreme end. S is fourth to the left of R. Who is sitting at the extreme
right end?
A) N C) R
B) P D) S
7. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of T.
- B is not opposite to P and sits second to the right of A.
- E sits opposite to Q, who is at one of the ends.
- F sits to the immediate right of C and opposite to S.
- P is not at any of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to D?
A) P C) T

B) R D) U

8. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, four at
the corners and four at the midpoints of the sides. All of them are facing the center.
- E sits third to the left of A.
- B is not an immediate neighbor of E or A.
- G sits at one of the corners and is immediately to the left of F.
- D is not an immediate neighbor of C.
Who is sitting opposite to G?
A) A C) C

B) B D) D

9. Question: Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row facing north. W is


fourth to the right of P. S is fourth to the left of X, who is not at the end. T is to the
immediate left of W and third to the right of U. Q is sitting between P and S.
Who is sitting exactly in the middle?
A) P C) S

B) Q D) T

10. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circular arrangement


facing the center. A is second to the right of E. D is third to the left of H. B is to the
immediate right of A but not an immediate neighbor of H. F is not an immediate neighbor
of A or D.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of D?
A) A C) C
B) B D) E

11. Question: Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In row
1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated
and all are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to P.
- B sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate right of S.
- C is not opposite to Q and is sitting to the immediate left of D.
- E is not opposite to R, who is sitting second to the left of T.
Who is sitting opposite to C?
A) Q C) T
B) S D) P
12. Question: Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a circle facing the center. Q is
second to the right of P. S is not an immediate neighbor of Q or P. T is second to the right of
S. R is not an immediate neighbor of S.Who is sitting to the immediate left of T?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) U
13. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle facing the center.
A is second to the left of D, who is fourth to the right of B. E is third to the left of G. F is
second to the right of H, who is not an immediate neighbor of D. Who is sitting between C
and G?
A) A C) D
B) B D) E
14. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D, and E
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is second to the left of Q.
- B is not at any of the ends.
- R sits exactly opposite to D, who is second to the right of C.
- P is not opposite to B, and T is not at the end.
Who is sitting immediately to the left of S?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
15. Question: Seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting in a straight line facing north.
P is sitting third to the right of M. Q is sitting second to the left of R. N is sitting between P
and R. M is not at the extreme end. S is fourth to the left of R. Who is sitting to the
immediate right of N?
A) M C) Q
B) P D) R
16. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of T.
- B is not opposite to P and sits second to the right of A.
- E sits opposite to Q, who is at one of the ends.
- F sits to the immediate right of C and opposite to S.
- P is not at any of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to E?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
17. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, four
at the corners and four at the midpoints of the sides. All of them are facing the center.
- E sits third to the left of A.
- B is not an immediate neighbor of E or A.
- G sits at one of the corners and is immediately to the left of F.
- D is not an immediate neighbor of C.
Who is sitting between D and F?
A) A C) C
B) B D) G
18. Question: Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row facing north. W
is fourth to the right of P. S is fourth to the left of X, who is not at the end. T is to the
immediate left of W and third to the right of U. Q is sitting between P and S.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of W?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
19. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circular arrangement
facing the center. A is second to the right of E. D is third to the left of H. B is to the
immediate right of A but not an immediate neighbor of H. F is not an immediate neighbor
of A or D.Who is sitting to the immediate left of F?
A) A C) C
B) B D) E
20. Question: Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In row
1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated
and all are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to P.
- B sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate right of S.
- C is not opposite to Q and is sitting to the immediate left of D.
- E is not opposite to R, who is sitting second to the left of T.
Who is sitting opposite to D?
A) P C) S
B) Q D) T
21. Question: Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a circle facing the center. Q is
second to the right of P. S is not an immediate neighbor of Q or P. T is second to the right of
S. R is not an immediate neighbor of S.Who is sitting to the immediate right of Q?
A) P C) S
B) R D) T
22. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, M, N, O, P, and Q
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- M sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of D.
- N sits second to the right of M and opposite to A.
- O is opposite to the one who is second to the right of B.
- P sits to the immediate left of Q and opposite to E.
Who is sitting opposite to O?
A) B C) D
B) C D) E
23. Question: Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.
B is sitting third to the right of E. C is sitting to the immediate right of G. F is second to the
left of A, who is to the immediate left of E. Who is sitting to the immediate left of C?
A) A C) D
B) B D) F
24. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, A, B, C, D, E, and F
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- P sits opposite to the one who is second to the right of B.
- Q is to the immediate left of S and opposite to A.
- R sits second to the right of T and opposite to E.
- U is not opposite to F and sits at one of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to T?
A) A C) D
B) C D) F
25. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle facing the center.
D is second to the right of A, who is fourth to the right of F. G is to the immediate left of E.
H is third to the left of B. C is to the immediate left of D. Who is sitting between F and G?
A) A C) C
B) B D) H
26. Question: Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In row
1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated
and all are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is second to the left of Q.
- B is not at any of the ends.
- R sits exactly opposite to D, who is second to the right of C.
- P is not opposite to B, and T is not at the end
Who is sitting immediately to the left of S?
A) P C) R

B) Q D) T
27. Question: Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row facing north. W
is fourth to the right of P. S is fourth to the left of X, who is not at the end. T is to the
immediate left of W and third to the right of U. Q is sitting between P and S.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
A) P C) S
B) Q D) T
28. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, four
at the corners and four at the midpoints of the sides. All of them are facing the center.
- E sits third to the left of A.
- B is not an immediate neighbor of E or A.
- G sits at one of the corners and is immediately to the left of F.
- D is not an immediate neighbor of C.
Who is sitting between G and D?
A) A C) C
B) B D) E
29. Question: Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.
A is sitting third to the left of D. B is not an immediate neighbor of D. C is sitting to the
immediate right of E, who is second to the right of G. Who is sitting to the immediate right
of A?
A) B C) F
B) C D) G
30. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of T.
- B is not opposite to P and sits second to the right of A.
- E sits opposite to Q, who is at one of the ends.
- F sits to the immediate right of C and opposite to S.
- P is not at any of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to D?
A) P C) T
B) R D) U
31. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, M, N, O, P, and Q
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- M sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of D.
- N sits second to the right of M and opposite to A.
- O is opposite to the one who is second to the right of B.
- P sits to the immediate left of Q and opposite to E.
Who is sitting opposite to P?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
32. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle facing the center.
A is second to the right of D, who is fourth to the right of B. E is third to the left of G. F is
second to the right of H, who is not an immediate neighbor of D. Who is sitting between B
and G?
A) A C) E
B) D D) F
STRAIGHT LINE MODEL

33. Question: Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I are sitting in a straight line facing
north. H is third to the left of C. A is fourth to the right of E. F is sitting to the immediate left
of I, who is not at the extreme ends. B is sitting between D and G, who is second to the left
of E. Who is sitting to the immediate right of A?
A) B C) D
B) C D) F
34. Question: Ten friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing
north. S is fourth to the right of P. Y is third to the left of Q. R is second to the right of T,
who is to the immediate left of W. X is sitting to the immediate left of Y. V is not at the
extreme ends. Who is sitting in the middle?
A) R C) T
B) S D) U
35. Question: Twelve people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L are sitting in a straight line
facing north. D is third to the right of H. K is second to the left of F, who is to the immediate
right of B. I is sitting between E and G. C is sitting fourth to the left of L, who is at one of the
ends. Who is sitting exactly in the middle?
A) E C) G
B) F D) H
36. Question: Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting in a straight line facing
north. N is fourth to the right of Q. P is second to the left of M. S is sitting to the immediate
right of O, who is not at the extreme ends. R is third to the right of T. Who is sitting to the
immediate left of N?
A) M C) P
B) O D) Q
37. Question: Eleven people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, and K are sitting in a straight line
facing north. F is third to the left of H. D is second to the right of G. I is fourth to the left of
E, who is sitting to the immediate right of K. J is sitting between B and C. Who is sitting at
the extreme left end?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
38. Question: Ten friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing
north. Q is third to the left of T. V is fourth to the right of P, who is to the immediate left of
W. S is sitting to the immediate right of Y. U is not at the extreme ends. Who is sitting to the
immediate left of R?

A) P C) S

B) Q D) T

39. Question: Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.
D is fourth to the right of F. A is second to the left of E, who is not at the extreme ends. B is
sitting to the immediate left of G. C is sitting between D and F. Who is sitting at the extreme
right end?

A) A C) C

B) B D) G

40. Question: Nine friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a straight line facing
north. P is fourth to the right of N. R is second to the left of S, who is to the immediate left
of T. M is sitting to the immediate right of U. O is not at the extreme ends. Who is sitting to
the immediate right of Q?

A) M

B) N

C) P

D) R
PROBLEMS ON DICES

Question 1: Opposite Faces Identification


A standard six sided die has opposite faces that sum to 7. If one face of the die shows 4, what is the
number on the opposite face?
A) 2 C) 5
B) 3 D) 6

Question 2: Dice Configuration Puzzle


You have three six sided dice placed in a row. The sum of the numbers on the top faces is 12. If you
know the first die shows a 3 and the second die shows a 5, what is the number on the top face of
the third die?
A) 6 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4

Question 3: Dice Rotation Logic


Consider a standard six sided die where the face showing 1 is at the top, 2 at the front, and 3 at the
right side. If you rotate the die such that the face showing 1 moves to the front, which number will
now be on the top face?
A) 3 C) 5
B) 4 D) 6

Question 4: Dice Arrangement in 3D


You have four six sided dice placed in a square formation on a table such that the sum of the
numbers on the top faces is the same as the sum of the numbers on the bottom faces. Is this
possible? If so, describe the arrangement.
A) Yes, with each die showing a 2.
B) Yes, with each die showing a 3.
C) No, it's not possible.
D) Yes, with a combination of numbers.

Question 5: Hidden Faces


Three standard six sided dice are stacked on top of each other. If the numbers on the visible faces
are 1, 3, 4, 5, and 6, what is the sum of the numbers on the hidden faces?
A) 8 C) 10
B) 9 D) 11

Question 6: Dice Pattern Recognition


Given a sequence of six sided dice rolls: 4, 5, 3, 4, 6, 2, 1, 3, can you find a pattern or rule that
describes this sequence?
A) Each number is one less than the previous one.
B) Each number is one more than the previous one.
C) The sequence alternates between odd and even numbers.
D) None of the above.
Question 7: Dice Sum Constraints
Using four six sided dice, can you find a configuration where the sum of the numbers on the top
faces is equal to 20, and each die shows a different number? Explain your reasoning.
A) Yes
B) No
C) It's not possible to determine.
D) Depends on the numbers rolled.

Question 8: Faces Opposite Calculation


If a six sided die has faces numbered 1 to 6 and the face showing 2 is adjacent to the face showing
3, what is the face opposite to the face showing 5?
A) 1 C) 3
B) 6 D) 4

Question 9: Composite Sum Analysis


You have two standard six sided dice. If you roll both dice, what is the sum of the numbers on the
faces that are neither adjacent nor opposite to the faces showing the rolled numbers?
A) 5 C) 7
B) 6 D) 8

Question 10: Symmetrical Faces


If you mark a six sided die with dots such that the opposite faces sum to 7, how many unique ways
can you paint the die so that this property is preserved?
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
MATHEMATICAL OPERATION

1. If '+' means '÷', '×' means '−', '÷' means '+' and '−' means '×', then 16 ÷ 8 × 6 − 2 + 12 = ?

(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 17 (D) 22

2. If ‘+’ means 'subtraction', ‘×’ means 'division', '÷' means 'addition' and '−' means 'multiplication', then

15 × 5 + 78 − 5 ÷ 4 = ?

(A) −383 (B) −460 (C) −475 (D) −743

3. If '+' means '×', '−' means '÷', '×' means '−' and '÷' means '+', then find the value of the given equation

6 + 64 − 8 ÷ 45 × 8 = ?

(A) 85 (B) 76 (C) 87 (D) 75

4. If '×' means subtraction; '−' means division, '◻' means addition and '%' means multiplication, then find
the value of 13 ◻ 3 × 6 % 8 − 4 ◻ 14 = ?

(A) 18 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 8

5. If the mathematical signs interchange from '−' to '+', '+' to '÷', '×' to '−' and '÷' to '×', then find out the

correct answer of the given equation 6 ÷ 8 + 2 × 5 − 8 = ?

(A) 27 (B) 18 (C) 32 (D) 28 Q.

6. If ‘P’ denotes ′ ÷ ′, ‘Q’ denotes '×', ‘R’ denotes '+' and ‘S’ denotes '−', then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?

(A) 95 (B) 53 (C) 51 (D) 57

7. If ‘+’ means ‘-‘ ‘-‘ means ‘×’ ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘÷’ then 10 × 5 ÷ 3 – 2 + 3 = ?

(A) 5 (B) 21 (C) 53 3 (D) 18

8. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘-’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘-’ then 63 × 24 + 8 ÷ 4 + 2 - 3 =?

(A) 54 (B) 66 (C) 186 (D) 48

9. Which one of the following is correct? 6 * 4 * 9 * 15

(A) ×, =, −(B) ×,−, = (C) =,×, −(D) −,×,=

10. If > = ÷, ∨ = ×,< = +, ∧ = −, + =

(A) 6 > 2 > 3 ∧ 8 ∨ 4 + 13 (B) 6 ∧ 2 < 3 > 8 < 4 − 13 (C) 6 ∨ 2 < 3 ∧ 8 > 4 × 13 (D) 6> 2 ∨ 3 < 8 ∧ 4
÷ 13

11. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. If 6 * 5 =
91, 8 * 7 = 169, 10 * 7 = 211, then 11 * 10 =?
(A) 331 (B) 993 (C) 678 (D) 845

12. If ‘-‘ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘×’ for addition. Which one of
the following equation is correct?

(A) 6 ÷ 20 × 12 + 7 - 1 =70 (B) 6 + 20-20 ÷ 7 ×1=62(C) 6-20÷12×7+1=57 (D) 6 + 20-20 ÷ 7-1=38

13. In an imaginary mathematical operation ‘+’ means multiplication, ‘×’ means subtraction, ‘÷’ means
addition and ‘-’ means division. All other rules in mathematical operation are the same as in the existing
system. Which one of the following gives the result of 175-25 ÷ 5 + 20×3 + 10=?

(A) 160 (B) 2370 (C) 77 (D) 240

14. If L stands for +, M stands for, -, N stands ×, P stands for ÷, then 14 N 10 L 42 P 2 M 8 =?

(A) 153 (B) 216 (C) 248 (D) 251

15. It being given that: > denotes +,4 = 9+3 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 1 (C) 3 > 2 < 4 × 8 + 4 < 2 (D) 3 + 2 < 4 × 9
+3<3

16. If ‘-’stand for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘‚’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for
division then which one of the following equations is correct?

(A) 25 × 5 ÷ 20-27 + 7=120 (B) 25 + 5 × 26-27 + 7=128 (C) 25+5-20 + 27 × 7 = 95 (D) 25-5 +20 × 27 ÷ 7
= 100

17. If ‘×’ stands for addition’, ‘ for multiplication, - for ‘equal to’ ‚ for ‘greater than’ and ‘=’ for ‘less
than’, then state which of the following is true?

(A) 3 × 4 > 2 – 9 + 3 < 3 (B) 5 × 3 < 7 ÷ 8 + 4 × 1 (C) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 × 8 (D) 3 × 2 < 4 ÷ 16 > 2 +4
DIRECTIONS (Qs.12 - 15): In an imaginary language, the digit, 0, 1,2, 3, 4,5, 6, 7, 5 and 9 are substituted
by a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, i and j. And 10 is written as ba.

18. (cd + ef) × be is equal to

(A) 684 (B) 816 (C) 916 (D) 1564

19. dc × f- (bf- d) × d is equal to

(A) abb (B) abe (C) bce (D) bcf

20. baf + fg –(ca × h/be) is equal to

(A) 141 (B) 145 (C) 151 (D) 161

21. baf + bf × d is equal to

(A) df (B) cb (C) bc (D) d

22. In the following question, some relationship have been expressed through symbols which are × =
greater than θ = not less than ÷ = less than β = not greater than + = equal to ϕ = not equal to then A θ B ×
C implies
(A) BθC (B) A ÷ C (C) A ϕ C (D) BBC

23. If the given interchanges namely: signs + and ÷ and numbers 2 and 4 are made in signs and numbers,
which one of the following four equations would be correct?

(A) 2 + 4 ÷ 3 =3 (B) 4+2 ÷ 6= 1.5 (C) 4 ÷ 2 + 3=4 (D) 2 + 4 ÷ 6=8

24. If L denotes ×, M denotes ÷, P denotes + and Q denotes -, than 8 P 36 M 6 Q 6 M 2 L 3 =?

(A) 13 6 (B) − 1 6 (C) 141 2 (D) 5

25. If × stands for ‘addition’, < for ‘substraction’, + stands for ‘division’, > for ‘multiplication’, - , stands
for ‘equal to’, ‚ for ‘greater than’ and = stands for ‘less than’, state which of the following is true?

(A) 3 × 2 < 4 ÷ 16 > 2 ÷ 4 (B) 5> 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 × 2 (C) 3 × 4 > 2 – 9 +3 < 7 ÷ 8 + 4 × 1

26. If ‘20-10’ means 200, ‘8 + 4’ means 12, ‘6 × 2’ means 4 and ‘12 3’ means 4, then 100 – 10 × 1000 ÷
1000 + 100 × 10 =?

(A) 1090 (B) 0 (C) 1900 (D) 20

27. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘-’ means ‘‚’; ‘×’ means ‘-’ and ‘‚’ means ‘+’ then 9 + 8 ‚ 8 – 4 × 9 = ? (A) 26 (B) 17
(C) 65 (D)11

28. If ‘‚’ means ‘+’, ‘-’ means ‘×’; ‘+’ means ‘‚’ and ‘×’ means ‘-’ then 20÷12 × 4 + 8 – 6 =?

(A) 82 3 (B) 29 (C) 32 (D) 26

29. If → stands for ‘addition’ ← stands for ‘subtraction’ ↑ stands for 'division; ↓, stands for
multiplication' ↗ stands for equal to then which of the following alternatives is correct?

(A) 7 ← 43 ↑ 6 ↓ 1↗ 4 (B) 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3 ← 6↗5 (C) 5 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 2↗5 (D) 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 ↗6

30. If 17 × 64 = 4716, 28 × 34 = 4823, then 76 × 84 = ?

(A) 6587 (B) 8764 (C) 4678 (D) 4768 Q

31. If 9 × 3 + 8 = 24, 10 × 2 + 7 = 35 and 80 × 40 + 3 = 6, then find the value of 12 × 4 + 3 = ?

(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 16

32. If × means +,− means ×,÷ means + and + means – then (3 -15 ÷ 19) × 8 +6 =?

(A) -1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

33. If + means ÷, − means ×, × means + and ÷ means – then 90+ 18 - 6 × 30 ÷4 =?

(A) 64 (B) 65 (C) 56 (D) 48

34. Given below are numbers in the first line and symbols in the second line. Numbers and symbols are
code for each other. Choose the correct code for given symbols. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 + − × ÷ ≠ ↑ → β Which
number can be decoded from the following:
(A) 5 8 6 3 7 (B) 5 6 8 7 3 (C) 5 7 8 6 3 (D) 5 8 3 6 7

35. If ‘−’ stands for '+', '+'stands for 'x', 'x', stands for '−'then which one of the following is not correct ?

(A) 22 + 7−3 × 9= 148 (B) 33 × 5 − 10 +20 = 228 (C) 7 + 28 −3 × 52 = 127 (D) 44 – 9+6 × 11 = 87

36. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved
equation on that basis. 5 × 6 - 35,8 × 44 =28,6 × 8 =?

(A) 46 (B) 34 (C) 23 (D) 38

37. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following
equation. 12 × 3 × 4=6 × 8 × 8

(A) +, ×,- , ^ (B) ×, +, -, × (C) ×, +, ×, - (D) ×, -, ×, +

38. Which of the following interchange of signs would the equation correct?

6× 4+2=16 (A) + and ×,2&4 (B) + and ×, 4&6 (C) + and ×, 2&6 (D) +and ×,3&4

39. Select the correct combination of mathematical sings to replace the * sings and to balance the
following equation. (45*3*6)*6*15 (A) + × ÷ = (B) + ÷ × = (C) + × - = (D) ÷ × ÷ =

40. Select the correct combination of mathematical sings to replace * sings and to balance the following
equation: 8 * 5 * 10 * 2 * 25

(A) + × ÷ − (B) + ÷ − = (C) × + = × (D) × - = ×


ORDER AND RANKING
1. If you are eleventh in a queue starting either end, how many are there in the queue ?
(A) Eleven (B) Twenty (C) Twenty one (D) Twenty two
2. A is older than B but younger than C. D is younger than E but older than A. If C is younger than D,
who is the oldest of all?
(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E
3. Heavier coins are costlier. Ram’s coin is heavier than Mohan’s and costlier than Ramesh’s. Naresh’s
coin is costiler than Ram’s but lighter than Yogesh’s. Ramesh’s coin is costlier than Mohan’s. So who is
the owner of the costliest coin ?
(A) Ram (B) Ramesh (C) Yogesh (D) Naresh
4. Among five friends A is shorter than B but taller than E, C is slightly taller than B but D is slightly
shorter than B and slighthy taller than A. Who is the shortest ?
(A) A (B) E (C) C (D) D
5. There are five friends—S, K, M, A, R. S is shorter than K, but taller than R. M is the tallest. A is a little
shorter than K and little taller than S. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him ?
(A) R (B) S (C) K (D) A
6. A is richer than B C is richer than A D is richer than C E is the richest of all If they are made to sit in
the above degree of richness who will be in the middle position (central position) ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
7. P, Q, R and T answered an Examination. In the results Q was immediately followed by ‘P’ but no one
was there after ‘P’. ‘R’ was ahead of ‘Q’ but could not score as much as ‘T’. Who scored the second
highest ?
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) T
8. A family went out for a walk. Daughter walked before the father. Son was walking behind the mother
and ahead of father. Who walked last?
(A) Son (B) Father (C) Mother (D) Daughter
9. ‘Suma’ is shorter than ‘Uma’, ‘Neha’ is taller then ‘Suma’, ‘Sudha’ is taller than ‘Uma” but shorter
than ‘Hema’. ‘Uma’ is taller than ‘Neha’. Who is the tallest among them ?
(A) Hema (B) Uma (C) Sudha (D) Neha
10. In a row of 16 girls, when Hema was shifted by two places towards the left she became 7th from the
left end. What was her earlier position from the right end ?
(A) 7th (B) 8th (C) 9th (D) 10th
11. If (A) Sunitha is taller than Anitha. (B) Reena is taller than Chitra but shorter than Banu. (C) Anitha is
shorter than Chitra. (D) Chitra is taller than Sunitha, then who is the shortest ?
(A) Sunitha (B) Anitha (C) Reena (D) Banu
12. In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from the left and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange
their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 19 (B) 31 (C) 33 (D) 34
13. Suresh is 7 ranks ahead of Ashok in the class of 39 students. If Ashok’s rank is 17th from the last,
what is Suresh’s rank from the start?
(A) 16th (B) 23th (C) 24th (D) 15th
14. Sudheesh ranks seventh from the top and 28th from the bottom. How many students are there in the
class ?
(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 28 (D) 21
15. B is twice as old as A but twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but is twice older than D. Who
is the second oldest?
(A) B (B) F (C) D (D) C
16. Ramesh ranks 13th in a class of 33 students. There are 5 students below Suresh rankwise. How many
students are there between Ramesh and Suresh?
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 16
17. In a row of trees, a tree is 7th from left end and 14th from the right end. How many trees are there in
the row ?
(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21
18. Sita is elder than Swapna. Lavanya is elder than Swapna but younger than Sita. Suvarna is younger
than both Hari and Swapna, Swapna is elder than Hari. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Sita (B) Lavanya (C) Suvarna (D) Hari
19. In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their
positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(A) 34 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 41
20. In a class Rajan got the 11th rank and he was 31st from the bottom of the list of boys passed. Three
boys did not take the examination and one failed. What is the total strength of the class?
(A) 32 (B) 42 (C) 45 (D) 46
21. Four children, Akram, Bopsi, Priya and Tulsi are on a ladder. Akram is further up the ladder than
Bopsi. Bopsi is in between Akram and Priya. If Tulsi is still further than Akram, who is the second person
from the bottom?
(A) Tulsi (B) Akram (C) Priya (D) Bopsi
22. In a row A is at the 11th position from the left and B is 10th from the right. If they interchanged
positions A becomes 18th from the left . How many persons are there in that row?
(A) 28 (B) 29 (C) 27 (D) 31
23. I am seventh in the queue from either end. How many people are there in the queue ?
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 14
24. A is shorter than B but taller than C, D is shorter than A but taller than C and E is shorter than B but
taller than A. The shortest person is
(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) D
25. Sathi is older than Renu. Geeta is younger than Renu. Priya is older than Sathi. Who is the eldest of
them?
(A) Priya (B) Sathi (C) Renu (D) Geeta
26. At a certain film festival, eight films will be shown J, K, L, M, N, P, Q and R. The order of the
showings must meet the following conditions : N is shown before L, J is shown third, Q is shown fifth. If
N is shown immediately after P, then P could be shown
(A) Third (B) Fourth (C) Fifth (D) Sixth
27. A runs faster than B but not as fast as C who is slower than D. Who is the fastest runner?
(A) D (B) C (C) A (D) B
28. In a group, P is smarter than R. Q is duller than T. P is smarter than T. Who is the smartest?
(A) P (B) R (C) Q (D) T
29. Raman is a student of 10th class. In his class, his position is 16th from the top and 49th from the
bottom. What is the total number of the students in the class ?
(A) 64 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 63
30. Dates of birth of some person are given below. Find out the date of the youngest person : a.
12.08.1968 b. 13.09.1968 c. 19.06.1968 d. 20.02.1968 e. 22.03.1968 f. 20.01.1968 g. 20.12.1967.
(A) g (B) b (C) e (D) c
31. Five men A, B, C, D and E read a newspaper. The one who reads first gives it to C, the one who reads
last had taken it from A. E was not the first or last to read. There were two readers between B and A. Find
the person who read the newspaper last.
(A) E (B) B (C) D (D) A
32. In a row of boys, if A who is 10th from the left and B who is 9th from the right interchange their
positions, A becomes 15th from left. How many boys are there in the row?
(A) 23 (B) 27 (C) 28 (D) 31
33. Of the five members of a panel sitting in a row, A is to the left of B, but on the right of C, D is on the
right of B but is on the left of E. Find the member who is sitting in the middle.
(A) B (B) D (C) A (D) C
34. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting
with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is on the right of
B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position is A sitting ?
1) Between B and D (B) Between B and C (C) Between E and D (D) Between C and E
35. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre, and A and P are at the ends. R is
sitting on the left of A. Then who is on the right of P ?
(A) A (B) X (C) S (D) Z
36. A, B, C, D, E, F & G are sitting in line facing the East. C is immediate right of D. B is at an extreme
end and has E as his neighbour. G is between E and F. D is sitting third from the South end. Who are the
persons sitting at the extreme ends ?
(A) A & E (B) A & B (C) F & B (D) C & D
37. Five boys are sitting in a row. a is on the right of B, E is on the left of B, but to the right of C. If A is
on the left of D, who is sitting in the middle ?
(A) E (B) B (C) A (D) C
38. While the group photo of a family was taken, the father was found to be sitting to the left of the son
and right to the grandfather. Mother was sitting to the right of her daughter but left to grandfather. Who is
occupying the central place ?
(A) Son (B) Grandfather (C) Father (D) Mother
Directions (39-40) : Seven boys A, B, C, D, E, F and G are stand in a straight line as follows : (i) C is
standing between A and G. (ii) B is standing to the left of E. (iii) G is standing between C and E. (iv) D
and F are to the right of C.
39. Who is standing exactly in the middle ?
(A) C (B) A (C) E (D) D
40. Who is standing to the extreme left ?
(A) F (B) C (C) B (D) E
SYLLOGISM
Directions to Solve:
In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two
conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
 (A) If only (1) conclusion follows
 (B) If only (2) conclusion follows
 (C) If either (1) or (2) follows
 (D) If neither (1) nor (2) follows and
 (E) If both (1) and (2) follow.

1).Statements: Some actors are singers.


All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
1.Some actors are dancers.
2.No singer is actor.
(A)Only (1) conclusion follows
(B)Only (2) conclusion follows
(C)Either (1) or (2) follows
(D)Neither (1) nor (2) follows
(D)Both (1) and (2) follow

2).Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments.


All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions:
1.All the flutes are instruments.
2.All the harmoniums are flutes.
(A)Only (1) conclusion follows
(B)Only (2) conclusion follows
(C)Either (1) or (2) follows
(D)Neither (1) nor (2) follows
(D)Both (1) and (2) follow

3).Statements: Some mangoes are yellow.


Some tixo are mangoes.
Conclusions:
1.Some mangoes are green.
2.Tixo is a yellow.
Both (1) and (2) follow

(A)Only (1) conclusion follows


(B)Only (2) conclusion follows
(C)Either (1) or (2) follows
(D)Neither (1) nor (2) follows
(D)Both (1) and (2) follow

4).Statements: Some ants are parrots.


All the parrots are apples.
Conclusions:
1.All the apples are parrots.
2.Some ants are apples.
(A)Only (1) conclusion follows
(B)Only (2) conclusion follows
(C)Either (1) or (2) follows
(D)Neither (1) nor (2) follows
(D)Both (1) and (2) follow
.
5).Statements: Some papers are pens.
All the pencils are pens.
Conclusions:
1.Some pens are pencils.
2.Some pens are papers.
(A)Only (1) conclusion follows
(B)Only (2) conclusion follows
(C)Either (1) or (2) follows
(D)Neither (1) nor (2) follows
(D)Both (1) and (2) follow

Direction (6-10): Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) Both conclusions I and II follow

6) Statements:
At least some Homes are House.
Every Houses are Building.
All Buildings are Apartment.
Conclusions:
I). All Apartments are House.
II). All house being building is a possibility.
(A).a (B).b (C).c (D).d (E).e

7) Statements:
A few Three is Seven.
No Seven is Four.
Only Four is One.
Conclusions:
I). All three being Four is a possibility
II). All Four being Three is a possibility
(A).a (B).b (C).c (D).d(E).e

8) Statements:
Only a few Puma is Adidas.
Some Adidas is not Nike.
All Reebok is Puma.
Conclusions:
I). Some Adidas are Reebok is a possibility.
II). All Puma can be Nike.
(A). a (B). b (C). c (D). d (E). e

9) Statements:
99% Circles are Square.
Mostly Squares are Rectangle.
All Rectangles are Triangle.
Conclusions:
I). Some Circles are Rectangle.
II). No Rectangle is Circle.
(A). a (B). b (C). c (D). d E). e

10) Statements:
Some Ears are Eye.
No Eye is Leg.
All Legs are Nose.
Conclusions:
I). Some Ears are not Nose.
II). All Noses can be Eye.
(A). a (B). b (C). c (D). d (E). e

Directions (11-15): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answer:
(A) If Only conclusion I follows.
(B) If Only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

11) Statements:
Only a few Internets are Networks.
No Network is Browser.
All Browsers are Firefox.
Conclusions:
I. Some Firefox are Network.
II. No Network is Firefox.

12) Statements:
Only a few Interest are Deposit.
All Deposits are Savings.
No Savings is Overdraft.
Conclusions:
I. Some Interest can be Savings.
II. No Interest is Overdraft.

13) Statements:
Only a few Modems are Memory.
No Memory is Virus.
Some Virus is Worm.
Conclusions:
I. All Memory can be Worm.
II. Some Modems are not Virus.

14) Statements:
Only a few Accounts are Yield.
Only Yields are Fund.
No Yield is Liquidity.
Conclusions:
I. Some Accounts are Fund is a possibility.
II. No Liquidity is Fund.

15) Statements:
Only a few Retails are Bitcoin.
Some Bitcoins are capital.
Only Capitals are Market.
Conclusions:
I. Some Capitals are not Bitcoin.
II. Some Markets are Retail.

Directions (16-20): In the questions below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and
II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the three given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16) Statements:
Only a few drums are piano
No piano is flute
Only flutes are Congo
Conclusions:
I. Some Congo being piano is a possibility
II. Some drums are not piano
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.

17) Statements:
Mostly types are kinds
Only a few kinds are varieties
Few varieties are parts
Conclusions:
I. Some parts are not kinds
II. All types being varieties is a possibility
(A) Only Conclusion II follows
(B) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
18) Statements:
A few laptops are watches
All watches are mobiles
No phones are watches
Conclusions:
I. No mobile is phone
II. All laptops being mobiles is a possibility
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.

19) Statements:
Only box is bag
No bullet is box
A few bubbles are bullets
Conclusions:
I. No bubble is box
II. No bullet is bag
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.

20) Statements:
Only law is right
Only a few laws are rules
Few rules are acts
Conclusions:
I. Some rights are acts
II. Some rules are laws
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Only Conclusion I follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows

Directions (21-25): In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II.
You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts.

21) Statements: (A) Both Conclusions I and II follow


Only Tissues are Issues (B) Only Conclusion II follows
Some Tissues are solved (C) Only Conclusion I follows
At least some Solved are Concern (D) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II
Conclusions: follows
I. Some Issues being Concerns is a possibility (E) Either Conclusion II or Conclusion II follows
II. No Solves is Issues
22) Statements: (B) Only Conclusion II follows
Only a few Magazines are Papers (C) Only Conclusion I follows
No Magazine is Notes (D) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II
Only a few Notes are Papers follows
Conclusions: (E) None of These
I. All Notes can be Papers
II. Some Notes are not Papers Direction (26-35): Study the following
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow statements and then decide which of the given
(B) Only Conclusion II follows conclusions logically follows from the given
(C) Only Conclusion I follows statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II 26) Statements:
follows Only a few Army is Navy
(E) None of These No Navy is Police
Some Police are Airforce
23) Statements: Conclusion:
Only Party are Music I. No Army is Police
Some Party are Dance II. Some Airforce is not a Navy
Only a few Dance are Step (A).Only I follows
Conclusions: (B).Either I or II follows
I. At least some Music can be Step (C).Only II follows
II. Some Dance are not Step (D).Both I and II follow
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow (E).Neither I nor II follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Only Conclusion I follows 27) Statements:
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II Only a few H1 is H2
follows All H2 is H3
(E) None of These Some H3 is H4
Conclusions:
24) Statements: I. Some H2 is H4 is a possibility
Only a few Eggs are Hens II. All H1 can be H3
Some Hens are Frogs (A).Only I follows
No Frogs are Flies (B).Either I or II follows
Conclusions: (C).Only II follows
I. Some Frogs are not Hens (D).Both I and II follow
II. All Hens can be Flies (E).Neither I nor II follows
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(B) Only Conclusion II follows 28) Statements:
(C) Only Conclusion I follows Only a few Color is Pen
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II Some Pen is Pencil
follows Only Pencil is Note
(E) None of These Conclusions:
I. All Pencil is Pen is a possibility
25) Statements: II. Some Color is a note
Mostly Hills are Snows (A).Only I follows
Some Snows are Ices (B).Either I or II follows
At least some Ices are Peaks (C).Only II follows
(D).Both I and II follow
Conclusions: (E).Neither I nor II follows
I. All Hills can be Peaks
II. Some Snows are not Peaks
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
29) Statements: (B).Only II follows
Only a few Eat is Mat (C).Either I or II follows
All Mat is Fat (D).Neither I nor II follows
All Eat is Sat Conclusion (E).Both I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. All Sat can be Fat 33) Statements:
II. All eat is Mat is a possibility Some bike is motor.
(A).Only I follows All bike is car.
(B).Either I or II follows Only a few car is bus.
(C).Only II follows Some bike is scooty.
(D).Both I and II follow Conclusions:
(E).Neither I nor II follows I. Some motor is car.
II. No bike is bus.
30) Statements: (A).Only I follows
Only a few pillar is palace. (B).Only II follows
All palace is house. (C).Either I or II follows
All hut is tent. No house is hut. (D).Neither I nor II follows
Conclusions: (E).Both I and II follow
I. Some pillar is not hut.
II. Some tent is not house. 34) Statements:
(A).Only I follows Some power are wind
(B).Only II follows All wind are storm.
(C).Either I or II follows Only a few storm are thunder.
(D).Neither I nor II follows All thunder are electrify.
E).Both I and II follow Conclusions:
I. Some power are storm.
II. No wind is thunder.
31) Statements: (A).Only I follows
Only a few red is green (B).Only II follows
. All green is yellow. (C).Either I or II follow
Few yellow is black. (D).Neither I nor II follow
All black is blue. (E).Both I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. Some red is not yellow. 35) Statements:
II. All black are green is a possibility. Only a few chemical are toxic.
(A).Only I follows All toxic are radiation.
(B).Only II follows Some radiations are chronic.
(C).Either I or II follows No chronic is severe.
(D).Neither I nor II follows Conclusions:
(E).Both I and II follow I. Some radiations are not severe
II. No chemical being chronic is a possibility
32) Statements: (A).Only I follows
Some book is paper. (B).Only II follows
All paper is note. (C).Either I or II follow
Only a few paper is file. (D).Neither I nor II follow
Some file is wrapper. (E).Both I and II follow
Conclusions:
I. Some file is book. 36)Statements:
II. No book is file. All the harmoniums are instruments.
(A).Only I follows All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions:
I All the flutes are instruments. (C).Either (I) or (II) follows
II All the harmoniums are flutes. (D).Neither (I) nor (II) follows
(A).Only (I) conclusion follows (E).Both (I) and (II) follow.
(B).Only (II) conclusion follows
39).Statements:
(C).Either (I) or (II) follows ome envelops are gums.
(D).Neither (I) nor (II) follows Some gums are seals.
Some seals are adhesives.
(E).Both (I) and (II) follow. Conclusions:
I Some envelopes are seals.
37)Statements: II Some gums are adhesives.
Some ants are parrots. III Some adhesives are seals.
All the parrots are apples. IV Some adhesives are gums.
Conclusions: (A)Only (3)
I All the apples are parrots. (B)Only (1)
II Some ants are apples.
(A).Only (I) conclusion follows (C)Only (2)
(B).Only (II) conclusion follows (D)Only (4)
(C).Either (I) or (II) follows
40).Statements:
(D).Neither (I) nor (II) follows All the papers are books.
E).Both (I) and (II) follow. All the bags are books.
Some purses are bags.
38).Statements: Conclusions:
Some papers are pens. I Some papers are bags.
All the pencils are pens. II Some books are papers.
Conclusions: III Some books are purses.
I Some pens are pencils. (A)Only (1)
II Some pens are papers. (B)Only (2) and (3)
(A).Only (I) conclusion follows (C)Only (1) and (2)
(B).Only (II) conclusion follows
(D)Only (1) and (3)
STATEMENTS & ASSUMPTIONS

1. Statement: "All students are intelligent."

Assumption I: "No students are intelligent."

Assumption II: "Some students are intelligent."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

2. Statement: "The school will remain closed for the winter vacation from December 25 to January 5."

Assumption I: "The school does not function during winter vacation."

Assumption II: "The school is open on all other days except for the winter vacation."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

3. Statement: "Please switch off the air conditioner when you leave the room."

Assumption I: "The air conditioner is not needed when the room is empty."

Assumption II: "People often forget to switch off the air conditioner when leaving the room."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

4. Statement: "In order to improve the company’s profitability, the director has decided to reduce the
workforce by 20%."

Assumption I: "Reducing the workforce will help in improving the company's profitability."

Assumption II: "Employees are the main reason for the company's low profitability."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


5. Statement: "If you want to succeed in life, you must work hard."

Assumption I: "Success in life depends on hard work."

Assumption II: "Hard work guarantees success in life."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

6. Statement: "No one should smoke in public places."

Assumption I: "Smoking is harmful to health."

Assumption II: "Smoking in public places is harmful to others."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

7. Statement: "The government has decided to increase the tax on luxury items."

Assumption I: "The demand for luxury items will not be affected by the increase in tax."

Assumption II: "The government will earn more revenue by increasing the tax on luxury items."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

8. Statement: "The use of mobile phones is not allowed during the examination."

Assumption I: "Mobile phones can be used to cheat during examinations."

Assumption II: "Mobile phones are a distraction during examinations."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


9. Statement: "To curb the rising trend of deforestation, the government has imposed a ban on the cutting of
trees."

Assumption I: "The government is serious about controlling deforestation."

Assumption II: "People may stop cutting trees due to the imposition of the ban."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

10. Statement: "The company has announced an increase in the prices of its products."

Assumption I: "The company is facing a financial crisis."

Assumption II: "The increase in prices may lead to a decrease in sales."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

11. Statement: "The new education policy focuses on vocational training."

Assumption I: "Vocational training will lead to better job opportunities for students."

Assumption II: "Current education policies are inadequate in providing job-oriented skills."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

12. Statement: "The advertisement assures that using this cream will make you look younger."

Assumption I: "People want to look younger."

Assumption II: "The cream has been tested and proven to work."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


13. Statement: "The best way to ensure growth in the economy is to boost exports."

Assumption I: "Exports are the main drivers of economic growth."

Assumption II: "The economy is not currently growing."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

14. Statement: "We must reduce the use of plastic to save the environment."

Assumption I: "Plastic is harmful to the environment."

Assumption II: "Reducing plastic use will significantly improve environmental health."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

15. Statement: "In order to attract more tourists, the government should improve infrastructure and promote
local culture."

Assumption I: "Improved infrastructure will attract more tourists."

Assumption II: "Promoting local culture will enhance tourist experience."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

16. Statement: "The airline has introduced a new discount scheme for frequent flyers."

Assumption I: "The discount scheme will attract more frequent flyers."

Assumption II: "Frequent flyers are always looking for discounts."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


17. Statement: "In order to pass the exam, you must study regularly."

Assumption I: "Studying regularly leads to passing exams."

Assumption II: "Passing the exam is important."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

18. Statement: "The government has announced a new policy to encourage entrepreneurship."

Assumption I: "Entrepreneurship is essential for economic growth."

Assumption II: "The new policy will effectively promote entrepreneurship."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

19. Statement: "The company will launch its new product in the market next month."

Assumption I: "There is demand for the new product in the market."

Assumption II: "The new product has unique features that will attract customers."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

20. Statement: "The city council has proposed a new public transportation system to reduce traffic
congestion."

Assumption I: "Traffic congestion is a significant issue in the city."

Assumption II: "Improving public transportation can alleviate traffic congestion."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


21. Statement: "The company has decided to relocate its headquarters to a larger city."

Assumption I: "The larger city offers better infrastructure and facilities."

Assumption II: "The relocation will benefit the company in terms of growth and expansion."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

22. Statement: "The university is considering introducing a new course on artificial intelligence."

Assumption I: "There is a growing demand for professionals skilled in artificial intelligence."

Assumption II: "Offering a course on artificial intelligence will enhance the university's reputation."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

23. Statement: "The government has announced a crackdown on tax evasion."

Assumption I: "Tax evasion is prevalent in the country."

Assumption II: "Enforcing stricter penalties will deter tax evaders."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

24. Statement: "The company has initiated a cost-cutting program to improve profitability."

Assumption I: "Reducing costs will directly impact the company's profitability."

Assumption II: "The current expenses are higher than necessary for the company's operations."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


25. Statement: "The school has decided to introduce a new curriculum focusing on practical skills."

Assumption I: "The existing curriculum lacks emphasis on practical skills."

Assumption II: "Practical skills are essential for students' future success."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

26. Statement: "The government has proposed a new healthcare scheme to provide coverage to all citizens."

Assumption I: "Many citizens currently lack access to affordable healthcare."

Assumption II: "Implementing the new healthcare scheme will be feasible."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

27. Statement: "The company's decision to invest in renewable energy reflects its commitment to
sustainability."

Assumption I: "Renewable energy sources are more environmentally friendly than fossil fuels."

Assumption II: "Investing in renewable energy will enhance the company's corporate image."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

28. Statement: "The city council has proposed stricter regulations on waste management to address
environmental concerns."

Assumption I: "Current waste management practices are inadequate to protect the environment."

Assumption II: "Implementing stricter regulations will lead to improved waste management."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.


29. Statement: "The company's decision to launch a new advertising campaign suggests a focus on expanding
market share."

Assumption I: "Advertising campaigns play a crucial role in increasing market share."

Assumption II: "The company aims to attract new customers through the advertising campaign."

A) Only Assumption I is implicit.

B) Only Assumption II is implicit.

C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.

D) Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

30. Statement: "The company's new marketing strategy has increased sales by 20% over the last quarter."

Assumptions:

I. The increase in sales is directly attributable to the new marketing strategy.

II. There were no other significant factors contributing to the increase in sales.

III. The market conditions remained stable during the last quarter.

A. Only assumption I is implicit.

B. Only assumption II is implicit.

C. Only assumptions I and II are implicit.

D. Only assumptions II and III are implicit.


KEY ANSWERS
1. B) Only Assumption II is implicit.
2. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
3. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
4. A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
5. A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
6. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
7. B) Only Assumption II is implicit.
8. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
9. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
10. B) Only Assumption II is implicit.
11. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
12. A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
13. A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
14. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
15. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
16. A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
17. A) Only Assumption
18. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
19. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
20. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
21. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
22. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
23. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
24. A) Only Assumption I is implicit.
25. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
26. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
27. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit
28. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
29. C) Both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
30. C. Only assumptions I and II are implicit.
STATEMENTS & ARGUMENTS
1. Statement: Should public transportation be free for all citizens?

Arguments:

I. No, making public transportation free would lead to overcrowding and inefficiency.

II. Yes, free public transportation would reduce traffic congestion and pollution in cities.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

2. Statement: Should social media platforms have the authority to censor user content?

Arguments:

I. No, censorship violates freedom of speech and could lead to biased moderation.

II. Yes, social media platforms need to censor content to maintain a safe and appropriate
online environment.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

3. Statement: Should junk food be banned in schools?

Arguments:

I. No, banning junk food limits students' freedom of choice and may not effectively address
the issue of unhealthy eating habits.

II. Yes, banning junk food in schools promotes healthier eating habits and reduces the risk
of obesity among students.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.


4. Statement: Should the death penalty be abolished?

Arguments:

I. No, the death penalty serves as a deterrent for serious crimes and provides justice for
victims and their families.

II. Yes, the death penalty is irreversible and can lead to the execution of innocent
individuals.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

5. Statement: Should capital punishment be abolished?

Arguments:

I. No, capital punishment serves as a deterrent for heinous crimes and provides justice for
victims and their families.

II. Yes, capital punishment is irreversible and there is a risk of executing innocent
individuals.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

6. Statement: Should the use of fossil fuels be phased out to combat climate change?
Arguments:
I. No, fossil fuels are essential for global economic growth and provide reliable energy
sources.
II. Yes, phasing out fossil fuels is necessary to mitigate the adverse effects of climate change,
such as rising temperatures, sea level rise, and extreme weather events.
A. Only argument I is strong.
B. Only argument II is strong.
C. Either I or II is strong.
D. Neither I nor II is strong.
7. Statement: Should national borders be completely open to immigration?

Arguments:

I. No, unrestricted immigration can strain social services, increase crime rates, and threaten
national security.

II. Yes, open borders promote cultural diversity, economic growth, and humanitarian
values.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

8. Statement: Should the government regulate the use of crypto currencies?

Arguments:

I. No, crypto currencies provide financial freedom, privacy, and protection against
government control.

II. Yes, unregulated crypto currencies can be used for illegal activities such as money
laundering, terrorism financing, and tax evasion.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

9. Statement: Should there be mandatory vaccination for all children?

Arguments:

I. No, mandatory vaccination infringes on parental rights and personal freedoms.

II. Yes, mandatory vaccination protects public health, prevents the spread of infectious
diseases, and ensures herd immunity.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.


10. Statement: Should social media platforms be held accountable for spreading
misinformation?

Arguments:

I. No, social media platforms are neutral platforms and should not be responsible for the
content posted by users.

II. Yes, social media platforms have a responsibility to combat misinformation,


disinformation, and fake news to protect public discourse and democracy.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

11. Statement: Should euthanasia be legalized for terminally ill patients?

Arguments:

I. No, legalizing euthanasia undermines the sanctity of life and may lead to abuse, coercion,
and involuntary euthanasia.

II. Yes, euthanasia provides terminally ill patients with the right to die with dignity,
alleviate suffering, and exercise autonomy over their end of life decisions.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

12. Statement: Should affirmative action policies be implemented in college admissions?

Arguments:

I. No, affirmative action policies discriminate against qualified candidates based on race,
ethnicity, or gender.

II. Yes, affirmative action policies promote diversity, equity, and inclusion by addressing
historical and systemic inequalities in education and employment.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.


C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

13. Statement: Should there be a universal healthcare system in place?

Arguments:

I. No, universal healthcare systems lead to increased taxes, long waiting times, and lower
quality of care.

II. Yes, universal healthcare ensures access to essential medical services for all citizens,
reduces healthcare disparities, and improves public health outcomes.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

14. Statement: Should the use of genetically modified (GM) crops be encouraged in
agriculture?

Arguments:

I. No, GM crops pose risks to human health and the environment, such as genetic
contamination, pesticide resistance, and loss of biodiversity.

II. Yes, GM crops have the potential to increase agricultural productivity, enhance
nutritional value, and reduce reliance on chemical pesticides and fertilizers.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

15. Statement: Should the use of artificial intelligence (AI) in autonomous vehicles be
regulated?

Arguments:

I. No, regulating AI in autonomous vehicles stifles innovation and technological progress.

II. Yes, regulating AI in autonomous vehicles is necessary to ensure safety, accountability,


and ethical standards in transportation.
A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

16. Statement: Should space exploration receive increased funding?

Arguments:

I. No, funding for space exploration could be better spent addressing urgent issues on
Earth, such as poverty, healthcare, and climate change.

II. Yes, space exploration drives scientific innovation, inspires humanity, and holds the
potential for discovering new resources and habitats beyond Earth.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

17.Statement: Should governments implement a universal basic income (UBI) program?

Arguments:

I. No, implementing UBI disincentivizes work, promotes dependency on government


assistance, and is financially unsustainable.

II. Yes, implementing UBI reduces poverty, inequality, and social unrest, while providing
individuals with financial security and autonomy.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

18. Statement: Should the use of nuclear power be expanded as a clean energy solution?
Arguments:

I. No, expanding nuclear power poses risks of nuclear accidents, radioactive waste disposal,
and proliferation of nuclear weapons.
II. Yes, expanding nuclear power reduces greenhouse gas emissions, mitigates climate
change, and provides a reliable and efficient source of energy.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

19. Statement: Should public schools implement mandatory standardized testing?


Arguments:

I. No, mandatory standardized testing narrows curriculum, promotes teaching to the test,
and increases stress among students and educators.

II. Yes, mandatory standardized testing ensures accountability, measures academic


progress, and identifies areas for improvement in education systems.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

20. Statement: Should genetic engineering be used to enhance human capabilities?


Arguments:

I. No, genetic engineering to enhance human capabilities raises ethical concerns, such as
creating genetic inequality, loss of diversity, and unforeseen consequences.

II. Yes, genetic engineering can be used to treat genetic disorders, improve human health,
and enhance cognitive, physical, and emotional abilities.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

21. Statement: Should governments prioritize renewable energy over fossil fuels?

Arguments:

I. No, renewable energy sources are intermittent, expensive, and insufficient to meet global
energy demand.
II. Yes, prioritizing renewable energy reduces greenhouse gas emissions, mitigates climate
change, and creates sustainable and resilient energy systems.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

22. Statement: Should public smoking be banned in all areas?

Arguments:

I. No, banning public smoking infringes on individual freedoms and rights, and smokers
should have the right to smoke in designated areas.

II. Yes, banning public smoking protects public health, reduces exposure to secondhand
smoke, and decreases the risk of smoking related diseases.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

23. Statement: Should countries prioritize border security to control immigration?


Arguments:

I. No, prioritizing border security perpetuates xenophobia, discrimination, and human


rights abuses against migrants and refugees.

II. Yes, prioritizing border security is necessary to regulate immigration, prevent illegal
entry, and safeguard national security and sovereignty.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.


24. Statement: Should the sale of sugary drinks be restricted?

Arguments:

I. No, restricting the sale of sugary drinks infringes on personal choice and individual
responsibility for dietary habits and health outcomes.

II. Yes, restricting the sale of sugary drinks reduces consumption of empty calories, lowers
rates of obesity and chronic diseases, and promotes public health and wellbeing.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

25. Statement: Should the use of plastic packaging be banned to reduce environmental
pollution?

Arguments:

I. No, plastic packaging is lightweight, durable, and cost effective for preserving food
freshness and reducing transportation costs.

II. Yes, banning plastic packaging reduces plastic waste, prevents marine pollution, and
promotes the use of eco friendly alternatives.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

26. Statement: Should governments implement a carbon tax to combat climate change?
Arguments:

I. No, carbon taxes increase the cost of living, burden businesses, and hinder economic
growth.

II. Yes, carbon taxes incentivize the transition to renewable energy, reduce greenhouse
gas emissions, and fund climate change mitigation efforts.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.


C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

27. Statement: Should animal testing be allowed for scientific research purposes?

Arguments:

I. No, animal testing is unethical, cruel, and outdated, and alternative methods such as
computer simulations and cell cultures provide more accurate results.

II. Yes, animal testing is necessary for medical advancements, drug development, and
ensuring the safety and efficacy of pharmaceutical products.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

28. Statement: Should social media platforms be responsible for moderating hate speech
and misinformation?

Arguments:

I. No, social media platforms should not be held responsible for user generated content,
and censorship undermines freedom of expression.

II. Yes, social media platforms have a duty to combat hate speech, fake news, and
harmful content to protect users' wellbeing and promote civil discourse.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

29. Statement: Should governments prioritize investment in public transportation


infrastructure?

Arguments:

I. No, investment in public transportation is costly, inefficient, and unnecessary in


carcentric societies.
II. Yes, investment in public transportation reduces traffic congestion, air pollution, and
greenhouse gas emissions, and improves mobility for all citizens.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

30. Statement: Should the use of surveillance technology be increased for public safety?

Arguments:

I. No, increased surveillance infringes on privacy rights, promotes government


overreach, and creates a surveillance state.

II. Yes, increased surveillance deters crime, enhances law enforcement capabilities, and
protects citizens from security threats.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

31. Statement: Should genetically modified organisms (GMOs) be labeled on food


products?

Arguments:

I. No, mandatory GMO labeling stigmatizes genetically modified foods, misleads


consumers, and increases food prices.

II. Yes, mandatory GMO labeling informs consumers' right to know, allows for informed
food choices, and promotes transparency in the food industry.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.


32. Statement: Should there be restrictions on the use of AI powered facial recognition
technology?

Arguments:

I. No, facial recognition technology enhances security, improves efficiency in law


enforcement, and aids in crime prevention.

II. Yes, facial recognition technology poses risks to privacy, civil liberties, and
disproportionately impacts marginalized communities through surveillance and
discrimination.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

33. Statement: Should genetic engineering be used in human reproduction to prevent


genetic disorders?

Arguments:

I. No, genetic engineering in human reproduction raises ethical concerns, such as


designer babies, eugenics, and the unknown long term effects on future generations.

II. Yes, genetic engineering allows for the prevention of hereditary diseases, reduces
suffering, and promotes the birth of healthier individuals.

A. Only argument I is strong.

B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong

34. Statement: Should the use of drones be regulated to protect privacy?

Arguments:

I. No, regulating drones stifles innovation, limits their potential applications, and hinders
economic growth.

II. Yes, regulating drones is necessary to safeguard privacy rights, prevent unauthorized
surveillance, and mitigate risks of misuse and abuse.

A. Only argument I is strong.


B. Only argument II is strong.

C. Either I or II is strong.

D. Neither I nor II is strong.

35. Statement: Should the death penalty be abolished?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it is an inhuman punishment.

II. No, it serves as a deterrent to serious crimes.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

36. Statement: Should the practice of child labor be completely banned in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, children need to be given an opportunity to enjoy their childhood and pursue
education.

II. No, it will cause a lot of poor families to suffer due to the loss of income.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

37. Statement: Should the government provide free healthcare to all citizens?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it is the government's responsibility to ensure the health of its citizens.

II. No, it will lead to a significant increase in government expenditure.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong
38. Statement: Should the voting age be reduced to 16?

Arguments:

I. Yes, 16yearolds are mature enough to make political decisions.

II. No, they are still too young to understand the complexities of politics.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

39. Statement: Should animal testing be banned?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it is cruel and inhumane to test products on animals.

II. No, it is necessary to ensure the safety of products for human use.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

40. Statement: Should online education replace traditional classroom education?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it provides flexibility and convenience for students.

II. No, it lacks the personal interaction and practical experience of a classroom.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

41. Statement: Should genetically modified (GM) crops be allowed?

Arguments:

I. Yes, they can help increase food production and resist pests.

II. No, they pose risks to human health and the environment.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

42. Statement: Should smoking be banned in public places?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it is harmful to nonsmokers who are exposed to secondhand smoke.

II. No, it infringes on the freedom of individuals who choose to smoke.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

43. Statement: Should junk food be banned in schools?

Arguments:

I. Yes, it contributes to childhood obesity and health problems.

II. No, it is the responsibility of parents to monitor their children's diet.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

44. Statement: Should the use of plastic bags be banned?

Arguments:

I. Yes, they cause environmental pollution and harm wildlife.

II. No, plastic bags are convenient and economical.

A. Only argument I is strong


B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong
KEY ANSWERS

1) C. Either I or II is strong. 23) C. Either I or II is strong.


2) C. Either I or II is strong. 24) B. Only argument II is strong.
3) C. Either I or II is strong. 25) B. Only argument II is strong.
4) D. Neither I nor II is strong. 26) B. Only argument II is strong.
5) B. Only argument II is strong. 27) C. Either I or II is strong.
6) B. Only argument II is strong. 28) B. Only argument II is strong.
7) C. Either I or II is strong. 29) B. Only argument II is strong.
8) B. Only argument II is strong 30) C. Either I or II is strong.
9) B. Only argument II is strong. 31) B. Only argument II is strong.
10) B. Only argument II is strong. 32) B. Only argument II is strong.
11) C. Either I or II is strong. 33) C. Either I or II is strong.
12) C. Either I or II is strong 34) B. Only argument II is strong.
13) B. Only argument II is strong. 35) Both I and II are strong
14) C. Either I or II is strong. 36) Both I and II are strong
15) B. Only argument II is strong. 37) Both I and II are strong
16) B. Only argument II is strong. 38) Either I or II is strong
17) C. Either I or II is strong. 39) Both I and II are strong
18) C. Either I or II is strong. 40) Both I and II are strong
19) C. Either I or II is strong. 41) Both I and II are strong
20) C. Either I or II is strong. 42) Both I and II are strong
21) B. Only argument II is strong. 43) Both I and II are strong
22) B. Only argument II is strong. 44) Both I and II are strong
STATEMENTS & CONCLUSIONS

1. Statement: All cats are animals. All animals are mammals.


Conclusions:
1. All cats are mammals.
2. Some animals are cats.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

2. Statement: Some apples are red. All red things are sweet.
Conclusions:
1. Some apples are sweet.
2. All sweet things are apples.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

3. Statement: No bird is a mammal. All mammals have lungs.


Conclusions:
1. No bird has lungs.
2. Birds do not have lungs.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

4. Statement: All engineers are good at mathematics. Some good mathematicians are artists.
Conclusions:
1. Some engineers are artists.
2. Some artists are good at mathematics.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

5. Statement: All professors are researchers. No researcher is lazy.


Conclusions:
1. Some professors are not lazy.
2. All professors are not lazy.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

6. Statement: Some books are papers. All papers are trees. No tree is a rock.
Conclusions:
1. Some books are trees.
2. Some papers are not rocks.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

7. Statement: Every doctor is a professional. Some professionals are artists.


Conclusions:
1. Some doctors are artists.
2. All artists are professionals.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

8. Statement: All scientists are intelligent. No intelligent person is dishonest.


Conclusions:
1. No scientist is dishonest.
2. Some scientists are not dishonest.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follow
9. Statement: Some men are married. All married people are happy.
Conclusions:
1. Some men are happy.
2. All happy people are married.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

10. Statement: All squares are rectangles. Some rectangles are circles.
Conclusions:
1. Some squares are circles.
2. No square is a circle.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

11. Statement: All economists are good in mathematics. Some mathematicians are logicians.
Conclusions:
1. Some economists are logicians.
2. All logicians are good in mathematics.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

12. Statement: No human is immortal. All gods are immortal.


Conclusions:
1. No human is a god.
2. No god is a human.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

13. Statement: All poets are dreamers. No dreamer is a realist.


Conclusions:
1. No poet is a realist.
2. Some dreamers are not poets.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

14. Statement: All sparrows are birds. Some birds are eagles.
Conclusions:
1. Some sparrows are eagles.
2. Some eagles are sparrows.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

15. Statement: Some dogs are cats. All cats are animals.
Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are animals.
2. All dogs are animals.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

16. Statement: All researchers are scientists. Some scientists are professors.
Conclusions:
1. Some researchers are professors.
2. All professors are researchers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
17. Statement: No cars are bicycles. All bicycles are vehicles.
Conclusions:
1. No cars are vehicles.
2. Some vehicles are bicycles.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

18. Statement: All flowers are beautiful. Some flowers are fragrant.
Conclusions:
1. Some beautiful things are fragrant.
2. All fragrant things are beautiful.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

19. Statement: Some laptops are computers. All computers are electronic devices.
Conclusions:
1. Some laptops are electronic devices.
2. All electronic devices are computers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

20. Statement: No plants are animals. All animals are living beings.
Conclusions:
1. No plants are living beings.
2. Some living beings are not plants.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

21. Statement: All software developers are engineers. Some engineers are managers.
Conclusions:
1. Some software developers are managers.
2. All managers are software developers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

22. Statement: All birds have wings. Some birds are not able to fly.
Conclusions:
1. Some winged creatures are not able to fly.
2. Some winged creatures are birds.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

23. Statement: Some metals are conductors. All conductors are insulators.
Conclusions:
1. Some metals are insulators.
2. All insulators are conductors.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

24. Statement: No squares are circles. Some circles are triangles.


Conclusions:
1. No squares are triangles.
2. Some triangles are not squares.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

25. Statement: All writers are readers. Some readers are thinkers.
Conclusions:
1. Some writers are thinkers.
2. Some thinkers are writers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
26. Statement: All fruits are foods. Some foods are vegetables.
Conclusions:
1. Some fruits are vegetables.
2. Some vegetables are not fruits.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

27. Statement: Some cars are fast. All fast things are expensive.
Conclusions:
1. Some cars are expensive.
2. All expensive things are fast.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

28. Statement: No reptiles are mammals. All mammals are warm-blooded.


Conclusions:
1. No reptiles are warm-blooded.
2. Some reptiles are warm-blooded.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

29. Statement: Some teachers are friendly. All friendly people are approachable.
Conclusions:
1. Some teachers are approachable.
2. All approachable people are friendly.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

30. Statement: All doctors are knowledgeable. Some knowledgeable people are philosophers.
Conclusions:
1. Some doctors are philosophers.
2. All philosophers are knowledgeable.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

31. Statement: All robots are machines. Some machines are computers.
Conclusions:
1. Some robots are computers.
2. All computers are robots.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

32. Statement: Some buildings are skyscrapers. All skyscrapers are tall.
Conclusions:
1. Some buildings are tall.
2. Some tall buildings are not skyscrapers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

33. Statement: No athletes are lazy. Some lazy people are talented.
Conclusions:
1. Some talented people are not athletes.
2. Some athletes are talented.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

34. Statement: All cars are vehicles. Some vehicles are electric.
Conclusions:
1. Some cars are electric.
2. All electric vehicles are cars.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

35. Statement: All paintings are artworks. Some artworks are expensive.
Conclusions:
1. Some paintings are expensive.
2. All expensive things are artworks.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

36. Statement: No flowers are fruits. Some fruits are edible.


Conclusions:
1. Some flowers are edible.
2. Some edible things are not flowers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

37. Statement: All engineers are innovators. Some innovators are scientists.
Conclusions:
1. Some engineers are scientists.
2. Some scientists are engineers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

38. Statement: Some artists are musicians. All musicians are creative.
Conclusions:
1. Some artists are creative.
2. Some creative people are not musicians.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

39. Statement: No philosophers are mathematicians. All mathematicians are logical.


Conclusions:
1. No philosophers are logical.
2. Some logical people are not philosophers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

40. Statement: All poets are writers. Some writers are journalists.
Conclusions:
1. Some poets are journalists.
2. Some journalists are writers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
KEY ANSWERS

1. C. Both I and II follow


2. A. Only conclusion I follows
3. D. Neither I nor II follows
4. B. Only conclusion II follows
5. B. Only conclusion II follows
6. B. Only conclusion II follows
7. D. Neither I nor II follows
8. A. Only conclusion I follows
9. A. Only conclusion I follows
10. D. Neither I nor II follows
11. D. Neither I nor II follows
12. C. Both I and II follow
13. A. Only conclusion I follows
14. D. Neither I nor II follows
15. A. Only conclusion I follows
16. D. Neither I nor II follows
17. B. Only conclusion II follows
18. A. Only conclusion I follows
19. A. Only conclusion I follows
20. B. Only conclusion II follows
21. D. Neither I nor II follows
22. C. Both I and II follow
23. A. Only conclusion I follows
24. B. Only conclusion II follows
25. D. Neither I nor II follows
26. B. Only conclusion II follows
27. A. Only conclusion I follows
28. A. Only conclusion I follows
29. A. Only conclusion I follows
30. B. Only conclusion II follows
31. D. Neither I nor II follows
32. C. Both I and II follow
33. A. Only conclusion I follows
34. D. Neither I nor II follows
35. A. Only conclusion I follows
36. B. Only conclusion II follows
37. D. Neither I nor II follows
38. C. Both I and II follow
39. B. Only conclusion II follows
40. B. Only conclusion II follows
MIRROR IMAGES
1) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

2) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

3) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

4) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

5) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

6) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

7) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


8) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

9) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

10) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


WATER IMAGES
1) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

2) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

3) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

4) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

5) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

6) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

7) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

8) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
9) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.

10) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
PATTERN COMPLETION
1) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

2) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

3) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

4) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

5) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

6) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

7) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


8) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

9) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

10) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


IMAGE CLASSIFICATION
1) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

2) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

3) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

4) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

5) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

6) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

7) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

8) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)


9) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

10)Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)


EMBEDDED IMAGES
1) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

2) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

3) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

4) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

5) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

6) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

7) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)


8) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

9) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

10) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

You might also like