Reas Merged
Reas Merged
REASONING
CONTENTS
S.NO TOPIC
1 Coding –Decoding
2 Series
3 Logical Venn- diagrams
4 Classifications
5 Calendar
6 Directions
7 Blood Relations
8 Analogy
9 Missing Characters
10 Data Sufficiency
11 Seating Arrangements
12 Dices and Cubes
13 Mathematical Operations
14 Order and Ranking
15 Syllogism
16 Statements Assumptions & Arguments
17 Statements & Conclusions
18 Picture based Puzzles
CODING-DECOING
5. In a certain code FORGET is written as DPPHCU, how would DOCTOR be written in that code?
6. In a certain code DECEMBER is written as ERMBCEDE, in that code which word will be written as
ERMBVENO ?
8. If the word MENTAL is written as LNDFM-OSUZBKM, then how would the word TEST be written in that
code?
11. In a particular way of coding, the word CENTRAL is coded as ABCDEFG and PLAN-ETARIUM as HGFCB-
DFEIJK. With the same coding how can we express the word LANTERN?
12. In a certain code language BLOOD is written as EIRLG. How will the word PERIOD be written in that code
language ?
16. If C = 3 and FEAR is coded as 30, then what will be the code number for HAIR ?
19. If HONESTY is written as 5132468 and POVERTY as 7192068, how is HORSE written in a certain code ?
20. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, then what will be the code of
SEARCH ?
21. If ‘GIVE’ is coded as 5137 and ‘BAT’ is coded as 924, how is ‘GATE’ coded ?
22. If SEVEN is coded as 23136 and EIGHT as 34579, what will be the code for NINE ?
23. If LOSE is coded as 1357 and GAIN is coded as 2468, what do the figures 84615 stand for?
24. If MEKLF is coded as 91782 and LLLJK as 88867, then how can IGHED be coded ?
25. If in a certain code, 95789 is written as EGKPT and 2436 is written as ALUR, then how will 24539 be written in
that code? (A) ALEUT (B) ALGTU (C) ALGUT (D) ALGRT
DIRECTIONS Qno(26-30): Study the following information to answer the given questions In a certain code,
‘weather is so cool’ is written as ‘la pa ma se’,
Directions QNO(31-35): Study the following information to answer the given questions
31. What does the code ‘jr’ stand for in the given code language?
(A). Heart (B). Stay (C). Either ‘Stay’ or ‘Close’ (D). Worst (E). Either ‘Your’ or ‘Was’
32. Which of the following is the code for ‘Happen’ in the given code language?
33. Which of the following is the code for ‘Heart’ in the given code language?
34. Which of the following is the code for ‘Worst Stay’ in the given code language?
(A). rm ha (B). ap bl (C). pi jr (D). rm pi (E). None of these
35. If ‘In Your Dreams’ is written as ‘cd ma pi’ then what would be the code of ‘Dreams Close Thing’?
36: If green means red, red means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means orange and orange means green, what is the
colour of the clear sky?
(A) Blue (B) Red (C) Yellow (D) Green (E) Orange
37: If cloud is called white, white is called rain, rain is called green, green is called air, air is called blue and blue is
called water, where will the birds fly?
(A) Air (B) Cloud (C) White (D) Rain (E) Blue
38: If book is called watch, watch is called bag, bag is called dictionary and dictionary is called window, which is used
to carry the books?
(A) Dictionary (B) Bag (C) Book (D) Watch (E) None of these
39: If the animals which can walk are called swimmers, animals who crawl are called flying, those living in water are
called snakes and those which fly in the sky are called hunters. then what will a lizard be called ?
(A) Swimmers (B) Snakes (C) Flying (D) Hunters (E) None of these
40: If water is called food, food is called tree, free is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the following grows a
fruit?
(A) Water (B) Food (C) Sky (D) Tree (E) Wall
SERIES
NUMBER SERIES
1.Look at this series: 2, 1, 1/2, 1/4, ... What number should come next?
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/8 (C) 2/8 (D) 1/16
2. 27 48 84 145, ?
(A) 201 (B) 221 (C) 231 (D) 241 (E) None of these
3. 0 6, 24 ,? ,120, 210
(A) 40 (B)60 (C)80 (D)90 (E)None of these
4. 1 2 5 26 ? 458330
(A)675 (B)676 (C)677 (D)678 (E)None of these
5. 6 7 11 20 36 ?
(A)61 (B)62 (C)64 (D)66 (E)None of these
6. 135 99 ? 45 27 15 9
(A)65 (B)66 (C)67 (D)69 (E)None of these
7. 4 20 84 340 1364 ?
(A)5260 (B)5460 (C)5468 (D)5789 (E)None of these
8. 17 14 15 12 13 ?
(A)8 (B)9 (C)10 (D)11 (E)None of these
9. 5 8 11 16 ? 22 27
(A)17 (B)19 (C)21 (D)23(E)None of these
10. 20 19 17 18 15 14 13 ?
(A)12 (B)13 (C)14 (D)15 (E)None of these
11. 16, 17, 13, 22 , ?
(A)15 (B)6 (C)12 (D)29
12. 25, 32, 48, 82 ?
(A)143 (B)134 (C)124 (D)132
13. 87, 109, 142, 186 , ?
(A)214 (B)124 (C)241 (D)421
14. 12, 24, 144, 2592, ?
(A)138699 (B)139698 (C)139869 (D)139968
15. 11, 12, 50, 453, ?
(A)7225 (B)7522 (C)7252 (D)75246
16. 15, 14, 24, 63, ?
(A)236 (B)263 (C)326 (D)336
17. 43, 87, 263, 1055, ?
(A)5729 (B)5279 (C)5972 (D)5277
18. 8, 12, 22, 40, ?
(A)46 (B)64 (C)56 (D)68
19. 280, 138, 274, 135 , ?
(A)285 (B)286 (C)268 (D)288
20. 3450, 3329, 3248, 3199, ?
(A)3174 (B)3432 (C)3471 (D)3147
LETTER SERIES
21. ABC, FGH, LMN - - - ?
(A) IJK (B) OPQ (C) STU (D) RST
22. DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?
(A) NRV (B) RVZ (C) CGK (D) KOS
23. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?
(A) KTC (B) KJA (C) LHD (D) LJC
24. WYV, ?, IKH, BDA
(A) OPR (B) ROP (C) PRO (D) OQN
25. a, c, f, j, ?, ?
(A) ou (B) mo (C) lp (D) rv
26. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE
(A) NWJ (B) MVI (C) NVI (D) MVJ
27. DIB, HMF, LQJ, ?
(A) OTM (B) QVO (C) PVO (D) PUN
28. NOA, PQB, RSC, ?
(A) TUD (B) DTU (C) ENO (D) FNQ
29. T, R, P, N, L, ?, ?
(A) J, G (B) K, I (C) J, H (D) K, H
30. ADG, GJM, MPS, ?
(A) SVW (B) SVY (C) SUW (D) SWY
31. A, D, H, M, ?, Z
(A) B (B) G (C) S (D) N
32. BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?
(A) SOW (B) LMN (C) KSU (D) SOV
33. CGK, EJP, GMU, ?
(A) IRT (B) IPZ (C) FNV (D) JLN
34. NOABOPBCPQCD ? ? ? ?
(A) QRDE (B) RTEF (C) QSDE (D) QRGI
35. KDW, MGT, OJQ, ?
(A) MNQ (B) QNM (C) NMQ (D) QMN
36. ADH, DGK, GJN, ?
(A) ORV (B) JMP (C) JLM (D) JMQ
37. AGM, BHN, CIO, ?
(A) COU (B) FQK (C) DJP (D) QXD
38. DFI, KMP, ? , YAD
(A) QSV (B) RTW (C) SUX (D) RTV
39. WVTSQPNMKJ ? ?
(A) HG (B) IL (C) GH (D) GF
40. ZCBA, YFED, XIHG, ?
(A) WLKM (B) WJKL (C) WKLJ (D) WLKJ
LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAM
1: Which of the following Venn diagrams best represent the relationship among "Actors,
Producers, and Directors"?
2: Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly describes the relationship amongst "Clothes,
Flowers and Bright things"?
3: In the figure, rectangle, square, circle, and triangle represent the regions of wheat, gram, maize,
and rice cultivation respectively. On the basis of the figure, answer the following questions.
4: Which of the following indicates the best relation between the given words? "Profit, Dividend,
Bonus"
5: Which of the following indicates the best relation between the given words?"Teachers, Parents,
Guardians"
6: In the following figure, the circle represents all the people who prefer Pepsi, the square
represents all the people who prefer Coke, the triangle represents all the people who prefer Limca
and the rectangle represents all the people who prefer Dew.
Which letter represents the people who prefer only Dew and Coke?
(A) r (B) u (C) b (D) q
7: Which of the following options best represents the given Venn diagram?
8. 100 people speak English. 80 people speak French and 60 people speak German. It is known that
there are 200 people in total and each of them speaks at least one language. Exactly 50% of the total
number of people speaks exactly 2 languages. How many people speak all the three languages?
A 1150 C 80
B 60 D 140
9. There are 100 students in a class. Each student like at least one game among cricket, football and
hockey. 70 of them like football, 50 like cricket and 40 like hockey. If 20 students like exactly two
games then find the number of people who like all three games.
A 10 C 15
B 20 D 25
10. In the figure given below, find the number of people who are part of triangle, circle and square
but not hexagon or pentagon?
11. In the following Venn diagram find the number of actors who are singers but not engineers?
A 32 C 27
B 25 D 29
12. In the following Venn diagram find the sum of the number of students who can speak only
Hindi and students who can speak English but not Tamil?
A. t + g + r - f C. t - x - z + r +b
B. b + t + g + e D. t + b + r + g
13. In a group of 310 people, 200 people play cricket and 145 people play rugby. The maximum
number of people who can play both the games is x. The minimum people who play both the
games is y. Find x - y.
A 110 C 120
B 100 D Cannot be determined
14. A tea company has developed 3 varieties of tea - A, B and C. It hired 50 professional tea tasters
to test the quality of the teas. After tasting the tea, they were asked to vote whether they liked a
particular tea or not. In total, 90 votes were registered favoring the teas. The number of persons
who liked exactly one variety of tea was twice the number of persons who liked all the 3 varieties
of the tea. The number of persons who voted in favour of exactly 2 varieties of the tea is
A5 C 15
B 10 D 20
15. Sumit and Ravi are standing in a queue. Sumit is 17th from the beginning and Ravi is 13th from
the end. 12 people are standing between Sumit and Ravi. What is the total number of people in the
queue?
A 42 C 43
B 17 D Either 42 or 17
CLASSIFICATION
DIRECTIONS :In each of the following questions, find out the wrong number in the series
1. Find the odd one out 441, 484, 529, 566, 625
Directions(qno 11-20) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from other three
alternatives.
DIRECTIONS (qno 21-30) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from other three
alternatives.
DIRECTIONS (q.no 31-40) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from other three
alternatives.
32. (A) 84, 67 (B) 112, 95 (C) 79, 63 (D) 167, 150
36. (A) (52, 142) (B) (54, 126) (C) (56, 168) (D) (58, 184
1. If 9th of the month falls on the day preceding Sunday, on what day will 1st of the month fall.?
2. Anil reached a place on Friday. He came to know that he was three days earlier than the scheduled day. If he had
reached there on the following Sunday, how many days late/early he would have been?
(A) One day earlier (B) One day late (C) Two days late (D) Two days earlier
3. If day before yesterday was Friday, what will be the third day after the day – after– tomorrow?
(A) Tomorrow (B) Day after tomorrow (C) Today (D) Two days after today
5. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow ? (A) Sunday
(B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
6. If the day after tomorrow is Sunday, what day was tomorrow’s day before yesterday ?
7. Suresh was born on 4th October 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The Independence Day of that
year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?
8. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled day. If I had
reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I have been?
(A) One day (2)Two days (C) Three days (4)Four days
9. If the 23rd of a month is a Sunday, what day it would have been two weeks and four more days earlier?
10. If 15th June falls 3 days after tomorrow, that is Friday, on what day will the last of the month fall?
11. If the day after tomorrow is Tuesday what day will two days after the day after tomorrow be?
12. If two days before yesterday was Friday, what day will be day after tomorrow ?
13. The day before yesterday was Sunday. What will be the day after tomorrow ?
15. If day before yesterday was Tuesday, the day after tomorrow will be
16. If three days after today will be Tuesday, what day was four days before yesterday?
17. If day before yesterday was Thursday, what day will be four days after tomorrow?
18. If the day that will come two days after tomorrow is Thursday, what day of the week was three days before
yesterday.?
19. Mrs. Susheela celebrated her wedding anniversary on Tuesday, 30th September 1997. When will she celebrate
her next wedding anniversary on the same day?
(A) 30 September 2003 (B) 30 September 2004 (C) 30 September 2002 (D) 30 October 2003
20. If John celebrated his victory day on Tuesday, 5th January 1965, when will he celebrate his next victory day on
the same day ? (A) 5th January 1970 (B) 5th January 1971 (C) 5th January 1973 (D) 5th January 1974
21. In the year 1996, the Republic day was celebrated on Friday. On which day was the Independence day
celebrated in the year 2000?
22. Hari remembers that his father’s birthday is between 13th and 16th of June, whereas his sister remembers that
their father’s birthday is between 14th and 18th of June. On which day is their father’s birthday, which both agree?
(A) 14th June (B) 15th June (C) 16th June (D) 17th June
23. 5th of a month falls two days after Monday. What day of the month will precede 19th of it?
(A) 1600 (B) 1900 (C) 1800 (D) All of the above
25. Ram was born on 29th February. He celebrated his birthday falling on exactly 29th February 2008 for the fourth
time. In which year he was born ?
26. Which of the following years did not have 29 days in February month?
28. Today is Friday. On the last Monday the date was 29th December, 1975. The date today is?
(A) 28 December, 1975 (B) 3rd January, 1976 (C) 2nd January, 1976 (D) 2nd January, 1975
29. If the third Friday of a month is 16th what date is the fourth Tuesday of that month ?
30. If Friday falls on 15th of September 2000, what will be the day of 15th of September 2001?
31. Find out the day from the problem given. If the 1st of November falls on Monday, what day will the 25th of
November be?
32. Saturday comes after 3 days on 4th of a month. Find out the day on 27th of that month.
33. If the 2nd of a month falls on Sunday, what day will the 31st of that month be?
34. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be?
(A) Today (B) Two days after today (C) Tomorrow (D) Day after Tomorrow
(A) 3 days after today (B) Tomorrow (C) Today (D) Day after tomorrow
36. If the day before yesterday was Friday, what day will two days after the day after tomorrow be?
37. Ann is 300 days older than Varun and Sandeep is 50 weeks older than Ann. If Sandeep was born on Tuesday, on
which day was Varun born ?
39. If it is Saturday on 27th September, what day will it be on 27th October of the same year?
40. If the third day of a month is Tuesday, which of the following would be the 25th day of that month? (A)
Tuesday (B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Sunday
DIRECTIONS
1. Sumit starts his journey by walking in South direction. After travelling a distance of 60 m, he turned to
his rightand travelled 45 m. Then he goes 30 m towards North and further travels by turning 45o in
clockwise direction. In
what direction is he travelling now?
(A) South-west (B) North-east (C) North-west (D) South-east (E) East
2. Anoop starts walking 15 m towards South. Now he turned North and walked for 20 m, then towards
East andwalked 10 m. Finally he turns towards South and walked 5 m. In which direction is he walking
now and how farfrom original position?
(A) 10 m, North (B) 15 m, East (C) 10 m, East (D) 5 m, West (E) None of these
3. Anoop starts from point P and goes to point Q 15 m away, then he walks towards his North and reaches
point R20 m from Q, then to East 10 m, and then towards South and reaches point O. so point O is 10 m
from P(at whichhe starte(D) and is in east direction to point P.direction_8-2 Vinay started his journey
towards north to each hisoffice. After reaching the office he turned 180o in clockwise direction and then
45o in anticlockwise direction.Which direction is he facing now?
(A) North west (B) South east (C) West (D) South west (E) None of these
4. After walking for 7 m, Sakshi turned to her left and walked another 12 m. Again she turned to her left
andwalked for 4 m after which she turned to her right and reach her destination and now she is facing east.
In whichdirection did Sakshi start her journey?
(A) West (B) East (C) North (D) South (E) South-east
5. Shilpa wants to go to market and she starts from her home which is in North and comes to a crossing.
The roadto her left ends in a mall and straight ahead is a park. In which direction is the market to the
house? (Suppose there are 4 places in 4 directions of the crossing)
6. A town P is located on the river valley. The town Q is in the west of town P. Town R is east of town Q
but west oftown P. Town S is east of town T but west of town Q and R. If all these towns are situated at
equal distances fromadjacent towns, which town is in the middle?
7. After walking for 1 m, Madhuri turned to her left and walked another 12 m. Again she turned to her left
and walked for 4 m. Now she is travelling in East direction. In which direction did she start her journey?
(A) West (B) East (C) North (D) South (E) North-east
8. Ram started walking towards North. After walking for 5 m, he turned to his right where he walked 10 m
beforehe took the left turn. Now he walked for 5 m and then took a right turn. He walked for 4 m and then
finally stopped after turned to his right to add additional 8 m to his journey. At what distance is he from
the starting point?
(A) 20√2 (B) 30√2 (C) 40√2 (D) 50√2 (E) None of these
19. A girl rides her bicycle southwards, then turned right and rode 2 km and again turned right and rode 4
km. She found himself exactly 2 km east from the starting point. How far did she ride southwards
initially?
20. One day raj left home and walked 5 km northwards, turned right and walked for 10km and turned left
and walked 5 km more and finally turned left and walked 10km. How many kilometres will he have to
walk to reach his home straight?
(Directions 21 – 2(E): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(A) North (B) South-East (C) North-West (D) South-West (E) South
(A) North (B) North-East (C) South (D) West (E) South-West
23. E $ F @ G # H, then H is in which direction with respect to E and what is distance between H and E?
(A) North, 1m (B) South, 1m (C) South-East, 1m (D) East, 1m (E) West, 1m
(A) North (B) South-West (C) North-East (D) South-East (E) West
(A) North, 1m (B) South, 2m (C) West, 2m (D) East, 2m (E) North-East, 1m
(Directions 26 – 30): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Some numbers of bikes are parked in a linear row and all of them are facing in South direction. Only three
bikes
are parked between M and N. Only two bikes parked between N and O. P is not an immediate neighbour
of N. Q is third to the right of M. More than three bikes parked between M and R and R is to the right of
M. There is no immediate neighbour of R and N. Less than five bikes parked between S and Q and R is to
the left of S. Less than two bikes parked between Q and R. Less than two bikes parked between P and the
bike which is parked on left extreme end and no less than 13 bikes parked between S and P. Each bike is
moved facing South direction:
26. S is 4km east of R. Q is 2km north of R. M is 4km south of Q. N is 2km west of M. P is 6m east of N.
O is 4km
(A) South – West (B) South – East (C) North – West (D) North (E) None of these
29. Which of the following bikes are immediate neighbours of each other?
(A) North – East (B) South – West (C) North (D) South – East (E) None of these
31. A man standing facing north starts walking. After walking for 5 m he took a left turn and walked for
10m. Nowhe walked for 20 m after turning to his right and again he turned right and finally stopped after
walking 10 m.What is the distance from the starting point?
32. From a point Sahil starts walking in south-east direction. After walking for 6 m, he turned to west and
walks another 10 m. Now he turned towards north-west and walks 6 m and then finally stopped after
turning to east and walking 2 m. Find the distance from the starting point.
33. From a point Sahil started walked towards south. After walking for 20 m, he took a left turn and
walked 40 m.Again he took a left turn and walked 15 m. Now he turned to his right and finally stopped
after walking 10 m. Howfar is he from the starting point?
(A) 42.50 m (B) 50.25 m (C) 30.75 m (D) 45 m (E) None of these
34. A person started walking in south direction. After walking for 40 m he turned to his left and then
walked 20 m.Now he turned to north and walked 30 m. In which direction is he now with respect to
starting point?
(A) South-east (B) North-east (C) North (D) South (E) North-west
35. Point A is 7 m west of point B. Point C is 5 m north of point B. A point D on AB 2 m away from point
A meets BCat point E with DE = √34 m. Find the distance EC.
36. From a point, Suman walked 10 m towards east, then she took a right turn and walked another 10 m.
Then sheturned to her left and walked 30 m. Again turning left and after walking 40 m she stopped. How
far and in which direction is she from starting point?
(A) 50 m, south-east (B) 50 m, north-east (C) 20 m, north-east (D) 50 m, north-west (E) None of these
37. Madhuri started walking in north and after walking 5 m she turned to her left. Now she walked 4 m
and turned to her left again and walked 5 m. Now finally she turned to her left again and walked 5 m.
What is the distance ofthis point from starting point?
38. Point A is 15 m west of point B. Point C is 13 m south of point B and also 5 m east of point E. Point F
is 20 m north of point E. What is the distance AF?
39. In above question, what is the direction of point C with respect to point A?
(A) West (B) East (C) South (D) South-west (E) South-east
40. Shruti walks 5 m towards south. Now she walks 10 m after turning to her left. Now she turns to her
right andwalks 2 m, takes a right turn again and walks 4 m. Now finally she takes a right turn and walks
15 m and stops. Find the distance from starting point?
Blood Relations tests largely depend on the candidate’s knowledge of family relations.
Various family relationships are described below to help the candidates to understand
the relationships better and to attempt the questions .
4. Question: A is the son of B. C, B’s sister, has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle
of D. How is A related to D?
A) Brother C) Uncle
B) Cousin D) Nephew
5. Question: X and Y are brothers. R is the father of Y. T is the mother of S. S is the sister of X.
How is T related to R?
A) Wife C) Daughter
B) Sister D) Mother
6. Question: Pointing to a photograph of a boy, Ravi said, "He is the son of the only son of my
mother." How is the boy related to Ravi?
A) Brother C) Cousin
B) Nephew D) Son
8. Question: P is the son of Q. R, Q's sister, has a son S and a daughter T. U is the maternal uncle
of S. How is P related to S?
A) Brother C) Uncle
B) Cousin D) Nephew
12. Question: Pointing to a girl, Ravi says, "She is the daughter of the only sister of my father."
How is the girl related to Ravi?
A) Sister C) Niece
B) Cousin D) Aunt
13. Question: A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
A) Mother C) Sister
B) Grandmother D) Aunt
14. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother or sister, but that man's
father is my father's son." Whose photograph was it?
A) His own C) His father's
B) His son's D) His nephew's
15. Question: A is the son of B. B is the daughter of C. D is the father of C. How is A related to D?
A) Grandfather C) Son
B) Grandson D) Uncle
16. Question: Pointing to a person, Rohit said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's
father." How is the person related to Rohit?
A) Uncle C) Son
B) Brother D) Father
20. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only
son." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?
A) Sister C) Aunt
B) Mother D) Cousin
21. Question: If P is the brother of Q, R is the mother of Q, S is the father of R, and T is the
mother of S, then how is P related to S?
A) Grandson C) Granddaughter
B) Son D) Greatgrandson
22. Question: Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my
wife." How is the lady related to the man?
A) Sister C) Motherinlaw
B) Mother D) Sisterinlaw
23. Question: Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman says, "He is the son of my husband's
sister." How is the man related to the woman's husband?
A) Nephew C) Brother
B) Son D) Cousin
24. Question: A is the father of B. B is the mother of C. How is A related to C?
A) Uncle C) Brother
B) Grandfather D) Father
25. Question: If A is the brother of B, B is the daughter of C, and D is the father of C, how is A
related to D?
A) Grandson C) Nephew
B) Son D) Brother
26. Question: Pointing to a boy, a woman says, "He is the son of my daughter’s only brother."
How is the boy related to the woman?
A) Grandson C) Son
B) Nephew D) Cousin
36. Pointing to a photograph, A man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my
father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
A. His son’s C. His nephew’s
B. His father’s D. His own
37. If A is the brother of B; B is the sisterof C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
A. Brother C. Nephew
B. Sister D. Cannot be determined
38. If A + B means B is the brother of A; A x B means B is the husband of A; A B means A is the
mother of B and A % B means A is the father of B, which of the following relations shows that Q
is the grandmother of T?
A. Q P + R % T C. P x Q % R + T
B. P x Q % R T D. P + Q % R T
39. Pointing to Ajay, Radha said, “Hisfather is the only son of mygrandfather”. How is Radha
Related to Ajay?
A. Brother C. Mother
B. Sister D. Daughter
40. F is the brother of A, C is the daughter ofA, K is the sister of F and G is the brother of C then
who is the uncle of G?
A. C C. K
B. F D. None of the above.
41. Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son.
Brothers and sisters I have none.” At whose portrait was Harsh looking ?
A. His son C. His cousin
B. His uncle D. His nephew (e) None of these
42. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the
daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
A. M + O x N B. M % O x N + P
C. M + O % N D. None of these
43. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.One couple has parents and their childrenin
the family.A is the son of C and E is the Daughter of A.D is the daughter of F who is the
motherof E.Which of the following pairs is the parents of the couple ?
A. CF
B. AB
C. AF
D. BC
E. 44. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a woman said, "He is the son of my only brother's
wife." How is the boy in the photograph related to the woman's brother?
F. A) Son H. C) Cousin
G. B) Nephew I. D) Brother
J. 45. Question: If A + B means A is the brother of B, A B means A is the father of B, A / B
means A is the sister of B, and A B means A is the mother of B, then which of the
following means "R is the maternal uncle of S"?
K. A) R P + S M. C) R / P S
L. B) R + P / S N. D) R + P S
O. 46. Question: If A + B means A is the brother of B, A B means A is the sister of B, A B
means A is the daughter of B, A / B means A is the father of B, then which of the
following means "T is the niece of S"?
P. A) S P T R. C) S + P T
Q. B) S P / T S. D) S + P T
T. 47. Question: Pointing to a photograph, Rahul said, "She is the daughter of the only sister
of my father." How is the girl in the photograph related to Rahul?
U. A) Sister W. C) Niece
V. B) Cousin X. D) Aunt
Y. 48. Question: If A is the son of B and C is the son of D and A and C are brothers, how is B
related to D?
Z. A) Brother BB. C) Wife
AA. B) Sister CC. D) Husband
DD. 49. Question: Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only
daughter of your father." How is the woman related to the person?
EE. A) Aunt GG. C) Grandmother
FF. B) Mother HH. D) Sister
II. 50. Question: Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the mother of my son’s wife’s
brother." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man’s son?
JJ. A) Motherinlaw
KK. B) Aunt
LL. C) Mother
MM. D) Sisterinlaw
ANALOGY
WORD ANALOGY
1. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
2. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
3. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
4. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
5. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives
6. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives
7. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives
8. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
9. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
11. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
12. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
13. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives.
NUMBER ANALOGY
14. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives
5 : 36 : : 6 : ?
15. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
456 : 15 : : 789 : ?
16. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
17. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives
. 18 : 30 : : 36 : ?
18. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
0. 16 : 0.0016 : : 1.02 : ?
19. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
68 : 130 : : ? : 350
20. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
169 : 13 : : 289 : ?
21. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
22. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .
42 : 56 : : 72 : ?
23. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
24. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .
24 : 60 : : 210 : ?
25. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .
6 : 222 : : 7 : ?
26. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives
. 19 : 37 : : 26 : ?
27. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives .
24 : 60 : : 120 : ?
28. Direction: In each of the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
7 : 50 : : 11 : ?
LETTER/ALPHABET ANALOGY
30.Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
31. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
32. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
33. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
34. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
35. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
36. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
37. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
39. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives
40. Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related letter from the given alternatives.
1: STATEMENT
Is John older than Mary?
1. John is 25 years old)
2. Mary is 24 years old)
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
2: STATEMENT
Is Susan taller than Jim?
1. Susan is taller than Anna)
2. Anna is taller than Jim.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
3: STATEMENT
Does Peter live in New York?
1. Peter works for a company headquartered in New York.
2. Peter's mailing address is a New York address.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
4: STATEMENT
Does Alice have a pet?
1. Everyone who lives in Alice's apartment building has a pet.
2. Alice has mentioned that she likes animals.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
5: STATEMENT
Is it raining in Paris?
1. The weather forecast predicts rain in Paris today.
2. People in Paris are carrying umbrellas.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
6. Is Alex a vegetarian?
1. Alex does not eat meat.
2. Alex only eats vegetables.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
14. Is it possible to walk from Building A to Building B without leaving the campus?
1. Building A and Building B are connected by a covered walkway.
2. Both Building A and Building B are located on the same campus.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
18. Does the project need to be completed by the end of the month?
1. The project deadline is the last day of the month.
2. The project timeline is 30 days, starting from the beginning of the month.
A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
C) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
D) Each statement alone is sufficient.
E. Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.
1. Question: Five friends P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting in a row facing north. T is to the
immediate right of S. Q is at the extreme left and P is to the immediate left of T. Who is in
the middle?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) S
2. Question: A, B, C, D, and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B. C is sitting next to
D. D is not sitting with E, who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position
from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. Who is sitting in the
center?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
3. Question: Six people P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a circle facing the center. P is
between U and S. T is between Q and R. Q is to the immediate left of S. Who is to the
immediate right of T?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) S
4. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circular table facing
the center. A is second to the right of H, who is third to the right of D. B is second to the left
of A. G is second to the right of C. E is not an immediate neighbor of D. Who is sitting
immediately to the left of D?
A) A C) C
B) B D) G
5. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D, and E
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is second to the left of Q.
- B is not at any of the ends.
- R sits exactly opposite to D, who is second to the right of C.
- P is not opposite to B, and T is not at the end.
Who is sitting immediately to the right of R?
A) P C) S
B) Q D) T
6. Question: Seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting in a straight line facing north.
P is sitting third to the right of M. Q is sitting second to the left of R. N is sitting between P
and R. M is not at the extreme end. S is fourth to the left of R. Who is sitting at the extreme
right end?
A) N C) R
B) P D) S
7. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of T.
- B is not opposite to P and sits second to the right of A.
- E sits opposite to Q, who is at one of the ends.
- F sits to the immediate right of C and opposite to S.
- P is not at any of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to D?
A) P C) T
B) R D) U
8. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, four at
the corners and four at the midpoints of the sides. All of them are facing the center.
- E sits third to the left of A.
- B is not an immediate neighbor of E or A.
- G sits at one of the corners and is immediately to the left of F.
- D is not an immediate neighbor of C.
Who is sitting opposite to G?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
B) Q D) T
11. Question: Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In row
1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated
and all are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to P.
- B sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate right of S.
- C is not opposite to Q and is sitting to the immediate left of D.
- E is not opposite to R, who is sitting second to the left of T.
Who is sitting opposite to C?
A) Q C) T
B) S D) P
12. Question: Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a circle facing the center. Q is
second to the right of P. S is not an immediate neighbor of Q or P. T is second to the right of
S. R is not an immediate neighbor of S.Who is sitting to the immediate left of T?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) U
13. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle facing the center.
A is second to the left of D, who is fourth to the right of B. E is third to the left of G. F is
second to the right of H, who is not an immediate neighbor of D. Who is sitting between C
and G?
A) A C) D
B) B D) E
14. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D, and E
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is second to the left of Q.
- B is not at any of the ends.
- R sits exactly opposite to D, who is second to the right of C.
- P is not opposite to B, and T is not at the end.
Who is sitting immediately to the left of S?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
15. Question: Seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting in a straight line facing north.
P is sitting third to the right of M. Q is sitting second to the left of R. N is sitting between P
and R. M is not at the extreme end. S is fourth to the left of R. Who is sitting to the
immediate right of N?
A) M C) Q
B) P D) R
16. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of T.
- B is not opposite to P and sits second to the right of A.
- E sits opposite to Q, who is at one of the ends.
- F sits to the immediate right of C and opposite to S.
- P is not at any of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to E?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
17. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, four
at the corners and four at the midpoints of the sides. All of them are facing the center.
- E sits third to the left of A.
- B is not an immediate neighbor of E or A.
- G sits at one of the corners and is immediately to the left of F.
- D is not an immediate neighbor of C.
Who is sitting between D and F?
A) A C) C
B) B D) G
18. Question: Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row facing north. W
is fourth to the right of P. S is fourth to the left of X, who is not at the end. T is to the
immediate left of W and third to the right of U. Q is sitting between P and S.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of W?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
19. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circular arrangement
facing the center. A is second to the right of E. D is third to the left of H. B is to the
immediate right of A but not an immediate neighbor of H. F is not an immediate neighbor
of A or D.Who is sitting to the immediate left of F?
A) A C) C
B) B D) E
20. Question: Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In row
1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated
and all are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to P.
- B sits opposite to the one who is to the immediate right of S.
- C is not opposite to Q and is sitting to the immediate left of D.
- E is not opposite to R, who is sitting second to the left of T.
Who is sitting opposite to D?
A) P C) S
B) Q D) T
21. Question: Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a circle facing the center. Q is
second to the right of P. S is not an immediate neighbor of Q or P. T is second to the right of
S. R is not an immediate neighbor of S.Who is sitting to the immediate right of Q?
A) P C) S
B) R D) T
22. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, M, N, O, P, and Q
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- M sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of D.
- N sits second to the right of M and opposite to A.
- O is opposite to the one who is second to the right of B.
- P sits to the immediate left of Q and opposite to E.
Who is sitting opposite to O?
A) B C) D
B) C D) E
23. Question: Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.
B is sitting third to the right of E. C is sitting to the immediate right of G. F is second to the
left of A, who is to the immediate left of E. Who is sitting to the immediate left of C?
A) A C) D
B) B D) F
24. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, A, B, C, D, E, and F
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- P sits opposite to the one who is second to the right of B.
- Q is to the immediate left of S and opposite to A.
- R sits second to the right of T and opposite to E.
- U is not opposite to F and sits at one of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to T?
A) A C) D
B) C D) F
25. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle facing the center.
D is second to the right of A, who is fourth to the right of F. G is to the immediate left of E.
H is third to the left of B. C is to the immediate left of D. Who is sitting between F and G?
A) A C) C
B) B D) H
26. Question: Ten friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each. In row
1, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, and T are seated
and all are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is second to the left of Q.
- B is not at any of the ends.
- R sits exactly opposite to D, who is second to the right of C.
- P is not opposite to B, and T is not at the end
Who is sitting immediately to the left of S?
A) P C) R
B) Q D) T
27. Question: Nine friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row facing north. W
is fourth to the right of P. S is fourth to the left of X, who is not at the end. T is to the
immediate left of W and third to the right of U. Q is sitting between P and S.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
A) P C) S
B) Q D) T
28. Question: Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table, four
at the corners and four at the midpoints of the sides. All of them are facing the center.
- E sits third to the left of A.
- B is not an immediate neighbor of E or A.
- G sits at one of the corners and is immediately to the left of F.
- D is not an immediate neighbor of C.
Who is sitting between G and D?
A) A C) C
B) B D) E
29. Question: Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.
A is sitting third to the left of D. B is not an immediate neighbor of D. C is sitting to the
immediate right of E, who is second to the right of G. Who is sitting to the immediate right
of A?
A) B C) F
B) C D) G
30. Question: Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each. In
row 1, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all are facing north. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T, and U
are seated and all are facing south. Each person in row 1 faces exactly one person in row 2.
- A sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of T.
- B is not opposite to P and sits second to the right of A.
- E sits opposite to Q, who is at one of the ends.
- F sits to the immediate right of C and opposite to S.
- P is not at any of the ends.
Who is sitting exactly opposite to D?
A) P C) T
B) R D) U
31. Question: Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such
a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, M, N, O, P, and Q
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, and E are seated and all of
them are facing north. Each person in row 1 sits exactly opposite to a person in row 2.
- M sits opposite to the one who is third to the left of D.
- N sits second to the right of M and opposite to A.
- O is opposite to the one who is second to the right of B.
- P sits to the immediate left of Q and opposite to E.
Who is sitting opposite to P?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
32. Question: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a circle facing the center.
A is second to the right of D, who is fourth to the right of B. E is third to the left of G. F is
second to the right of H, who is not an immediate neighbor of D. Who is sitting between B
and G?
A) A C) E
B) D D) F
STRAIGHT LINE MODEL
33. Question: Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I are sitting in a straight line facing
north. H is third to the left of C. A is fourth to the right of E. F is sitting to the immediate left
of I, who is not at the extreme ends. B is sitting between D and G, who is second to the left
of E. Who is sitting to the immediate right of A?
A) B C) D
B) C D) F
34. Question: Ten friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing
north. S is fourth to the right of P. Y is third to the left of Q. R is second to the right of T,
who is to the immediate left of W. X is sitting to the immediate left of Y. V is not at the
extreme ends. Who is sitting in the middle?
A) R C) T
B) S D) U
35. Question: Twelve people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L are sitting in a straight line
facing north. D is third to the right of H. K is second to the left of F, who is to the immediate
right of B. I is sitting between E and G. C is sitting fourth to the left of L, who is at one of the
ends. Who is sitting exactly in the middle?
A) E C) G
B) F D) H
36. Question: Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting in a straight line facing
north. N is fourth to the right of Q. P is second to the left of M. S is sitting to the immediate
right of O, who is not at the extreme ends. R is third to the right of T. Who is sitting to the
immediate left of N?
A) M C) P
B) O D) Q
37. Question: Eleven people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, and K are sitting in a straight line
facing north. F is third to the left of H. D is second to the right of G. I is fourth to the left of
E, who is sitting to the immediate right of K. J is sitting between B and C. Who is sitting at
the extreme left end?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
38. Question: Ten friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing
north. Q is third to the left of T. V is fourth to the right of P, who is to the immediate left of
W. S is sitting to the immediate right of Y. U is not at the extreme ends. Who is sitting to the
immediate left of R?
A) P C) S
B) Q D) T
39. Question: Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing north.
D is fourth to the right of F. A is second to the left of E, who is not at the extreme ends. B is
sitting to the immediate left of G. C is sitting between D and F. Who is sitting at the extreme
right end?
A) A C) C
B) B D) G
40. Question: Nine friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a straight line facing
north. P is fourth to the right of N. R is second to the left of S, who is to the immediate left
of T. M is sitting to the immediate right of U. O is not at the extreme ends. Who is sitting to
the immediate right of Q?
A) M
B) N
C) P
D) R
PROBLEMS ON DICES
1. If '+' means '÷', '×' means '−', '÷' means '+' and '−' means '×', then 16 ÷ 8 × 6 − 2 + 12 = ?
2. If ‘+’ means 'subtraction', ‘×’ means 'division', '÷' means 'addition' and '−' means 'multiplication', then
15 × 5 + 78 − 5 ÷ 4 = ?
3. If '+' means '×', '−' means '÷', '×' means '−' and '÷' means '+', then find the value of the given equation
6 + 64 − 8 ÷ 45 × 8 = ?
4. If '×' means subtraction; '−' means division, '◻' means addition and '%' means multiplication, then find
the value of 13 ◻ 3 × 6 % 8 − 4 ◻ 14 = ?
5. If the mathematical signs interchange from '−' to '+', '+' to '÷', '×' to '−' and '÷' to '×', then find out the
6. If ‘P’ denotes ′ ÷ ′, ‘Q’ denotes '×', ‘R’ denotes '+' and ‘S’ denotes '−', then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?
7. If ‘+’ means ‘-‘ ‘-‘ means ‘×’ ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘÷’ then 10 × 5 ÷ 3 – 2 + 3 = ?
8. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘-’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘-’ then 63 × 24 + 8 ÷ 4 + 2 - 3 =?
(A) 6 > 2 > 3 ∧ 8 ∨ 4 + 13 (B) 6 ∧ 2 < 3 > 8 < 4 − 13 (C) 6 ∨ 2 < 3 ∧ 8 > 4 × 13 (D) 6> 2 ∨ 3 < 8 ∧ 4
÷ 13
11. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. If 6 * 5 =
91, 8 * 7 = 169, 10 * 7 = 211, then 11 * 10 =?
(A) 331 (B) 993 (C) 678 (D) 845
12. If ‘-‘ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘×’ for addition. Which one of
the following equation is correct?
13. In an imaginary mathematical operation ‘+’ means multiplication, ‘×’ means subtraction, ‘÷’ means
addition and ‘-’ means division. All other rules in mathematical operation are the same as in the existing
system. Which one of the following gives the result of 175-25 ÷ 5 + 20×3 + 10=?
15. It being given that: > denotes +,4 = 9+3 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 1 (C) 3 > 2 < 4 × 8 + 4 < 2 (D) 3 + 2 < 4 × 9
+3<3
16. If ‘-’stand for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘‚’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for
division then which one of the following equations is correct?
(A) 25 × 5 ÷ 20-27 + 7=120 (B) 25 + 5 × 26-27 + 7=128 (C) 25+5-20 + 27 × 7 = 95 (D) 25-5 +20 × 27 ÷ 7
= 100
17. If ‘×’ stands for addition’, ‘ for multiplication, - for ‘equal to’ ‚ for ‘greater than’ and ‘=’ for ‘less
than’, then state which of the following is true?
(A) 3 × 4 > 2 – 9 + 3 < 3 (B) 5 × 3 < 7 ÷ 8 + 4 × 1 (C) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 × 8 (D) 3 × 2 < 4 ÷ 16 > 2 +4
DIRECTIONS (Qs.12 - 15): In an imaginary language, the digit, 0, 1,2, 3, 4,5, 6, 7, 5 and 9 are substituted
by a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, i and j. And 10 is written as ba.
22. In the following question, some relationship have been expressed through symbols which are × =
greater than θ = not less than ÷ = less than β = not greater than + = equal to ϕ = not equal to then A θ B ×
C implies
(A) BθC (B) A ÷ C (C) A ϕ C (D) BBC
23. If the given interchanges namely: signs + and ÷ and numbers 2 and 4 are made in signs and numbers,
which one of the following four equations would be correct?
25. If × stands for ‘addition’, < for ‘substraction’, + stands for ‘division’, > for ‘multiplication’, - , stands
for ‘equal to’, ‚ for ‘greater than’ and = stands for ‘less than’, state which of the following is true?
26. If ‘20-10’ means 200, ‘8 + 4’ means 12, ‘6 × 2’ means 4 and ‘12 3’ means 4, then 100 – 10 × 1000 ÷
1000 + 100 × 10 =?
27. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘-’ means ‘‚’; ‘×’ means ‘-’ and ‘‚’ means ‘+’ then 9 + 8 ‚ 8 – 4 × 9 = ? (A) 26 (B) 17
(C) 65 (D)11
28. If ‘‚’ means ‘+’, ‘-’ means ‘×’; ‘+’ means ‘‚’ and ‘×’ means ‘-’ then 20÷12 × 4 + 8 – 6 =?
29. If → stands for ‘addition’ ← stands for ‘subtraction’ ↑ stands for 'division; ↓, stands for
multiplication' ↗ stands for equal to then which of the following alternatives is correct?
32. If × means +,− means ×,÷ means + and + means – then (3 -15 ÷ 19) × 8 +6 =?
34. Given below are numbers in the first line and symbols in the second line. Numbers and symbols are
code for each other. Choose the correct code for given symbols. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 + − × ÷ ≠ ↑ → β Which
number can be decoded from the following:
(A) 5 8 6 3 7 (B) 5 6 8 7 3 (C) 5 7 8 6 3 (D) 5 8 3 6 7
35. If ‘−’ stands for '+', '+'stands for 'x', 'x', stands for '−'then which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) 22 + 7−3 × 9= 148 (B) 33 × 5 − 10 +20 = 228 (C) 7 + 28 −3 × 52 = 127 (D) 44 – 9+6 × 11 = 87
36. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved
equation on that basis. 5 × 6 - 35,8 × 44 =28,6 × 8 =?
37. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following
equation. 12 × 3 × 4=6 × 8 × 8
38. Which of the following interchange of signs would the equation correct?
6× 4+2=16 (A) + and ×,2&4 (B) + and ×, 4&6 (C) + and ×, 2&6 (D) +and ×,3&4
39. Select the correct combination of mathematical sings to replace the * sings and to balance the
following equation. (45*3*6)*6*15 (A) + × ÷ = (B) + ÷ × = (C) + × - = (D) ÷ × ÷ =
40. Select the correct combination of mathematical sings to replace * sings and to balance the following
equation: 8 * 5 * 10 * 2 * 25
Direction (6-10): Study the following statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) Both conclusions I and II follow
6) Statements:
At least some Homes are House.
Every Houses are Building.
All Buildings are Apartment.
Conclusions:
I). All Apartments are House.
II). All house being building is a possibility.
(A).a (B).b (C).c (D).d (E).e
7) Statements:
A few Three is Seven.
No Seven is Four.
Only Four is One.
Conclusions:
I). All three being Four is a possibility
II). All Four being Three is a possibility
(A).a (B).b (C).c (D).d(E).e
8) Statements:
Only a few Puma is Adidas.
Some Adidas is not Nike.
All Reebok is Puma.
Conclusions:
I). Some Adidas are Reebok is a possibility.
II). All Puma can be Nike.
(A). a (B). b (C). c (D). d (E). e
9) Statements:
99% Circles are Square.
Mostly Squares are Rectangle.
All Rectangles are Triangle.
Conclusions:
I). Some Circles are Rectangle.
II). No Rectangle is Circle.
(A). a (B). b (C). c (D). d E). e
10) Statements:
Some Ears are Eye.
No Eye is Leg.
All Legs are Nose.
Conclusions:
I). Some Ears are not Nose.
II). All Noses can be Eye.
(A). a (B). b (C). c (D). d (E). e
Directions (11-15): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answer:
(A) If Only conclusion I follows.
(B) If Only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
11) Statements:
Only a few Internets are Networks.
No Network is Browser.
All Browsers are Firefox.
Conclusions:
I. Some Firefox are Network.
II. No Network is Firefox.
12) Statements:
Only a few Interest are Deposit.
All Deposits are Savings.
No Savings is Overdraft.
Conclusions:
I. Some Interest can be Savings.
II. No Interest is Overdraft.
13) Statements:
Only a few Modems are Memory.
No Memory is Virus.
Some Virus is Worm.
Conclusions:
I. All Memory can be Worm.
II. Some Modems are not Virus.
14) Statements:
Only a few Accounts are Yield.
Only Yields are Fund.
No Yield is Liquidity.
Conclusions:
I. Some Accounts are Fund is a possibility.
II. No Liquidity is Fund.
15) Statements:
Only a few Retails are Bitcoin.
Some Bitcoins are capital.
Only Capitals are Market.
Conclusions:
I. Some Capitals are not Bitcoin.
II. Some Markets are Retail.
Directions (16-20): In the questions below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and
II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the three given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16) Statements:
Only a few drums are piano
No piano is flute
Only flutes are Congo
Conclusions:
I. Some Congo being piano is a possibility
II. Some drums are not piano
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
17) Statements:
Mostly types are kinds
Only a few kinds are varieties
Few varieties are parts
Conclusions:
I. Some parts are not kinds
II. All types being varieties is a possibility
(A) Only Conclusion II follows
(B) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
18) Statements:
A few laptops are watches
All watches are mobiles
No phones are watches
Conclusions:
I. No mobile is phone
II. All laptops being mobiles is a possibility
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
19) Statements:
Only box is bag
No bullet is box
A few bubbles are bullets
Conclusions:
I. No bubble is box
II. No bullet is bag
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
20) Statements:
Only law is right
Only a few laws are rules
Few rules are acts
Conclusions:
I. Some rights are acts
II. Some rules are laws
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Only Conclusion I follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(E) Either Conclusion I or II follows
Directions (21-25): In the question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions I and II.
You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
2. Statement: "The school will remain closed for the winter vacation from December 25 to January 5."
Assumption II: "The school is open on all other days except for the winter vacation."
3. Statement: "Please switch off the air conditioner when you leave the room."
Assumption I: "The air conditioner is not needed when the room is empty."
Assumption II: "People often forget to switch off the air conditioner when leaving the room."
4. Statement: "In order to improve the company’s profitability, the director has decided to reduce the
workforce by 20%."
Assumption I: "Reducing the workforce will help in improving the company's profitability."
Assumption II: "Employees are the main reason for the company's low profitability."
7. Statement: "The government has decided to increase the tax on luxury items."
Assumption I: "The demand for luxury items will not be affected by the increase in tax."
Assumption II: "The government will earn more revenue by increasing the tax on luxury items."
8. Statement: "The use of mobile phones is not allowed during the examination."
Assumption II: "People may stop cutting trees due to the imposition of the ban."
10. Statement: "The company has announced an increase in the prices of its products."
Assumption I: "Vocational training will lead to better job opportunities for students."
Assumption II: "Current education policies are inadequate in providing job-oriented skills."
12. Statement: "The advertisement assures that using this cream will make you look younger."
Assumption II: "The cream has been tested and proven to work."
14. Statement: "We must reduce the use of plastic to save the environment."
Assumption II: "Reducing plastic use will significantly improve environmental health."
15. Statement: "In order to attract more tourists, the government should improve infrastructure and promote
local culture."
16. Statement: "The airline has introduced a new discount scheme for frequent flyers."
18. Statement: "The government has announced a new policy to encourage entrepreneurship."
19. Statement: "The company will launch its new product in the market next month."
Assumption II: "The new product has unique features that will attract customers."
20. Statement: "The city council has proposed a new public transportation system to reduce traffic
congestion."
Assumption II: "The relocation will benefit the company in terms of growth and expansion."
22. Statement: "The university is considering introducing a new course on artificial intelligence."
Assumption II: "Offering a course on artificial intelligence will enhance the university's reputation."
24. Statement: "The company has initiated a cost-cutting program to improve profitability."
Assumption II: "The current expenses are higher than necessary for the company's operations."
Assumption II: "Practical skills are essential for students' future success."
26. Statement: "The government has proposed a new healthcare scheme to provide coverage to all citizens."
27. Statement: "The company's decision to invest in renewable energy reflects its commitment to
sustainability."
Assumption I: "Renewable energy sources are more environmentally friendly than fossil fuels."
Assumption II: "Investing in renewable energy will enhance the company's corporate image."
28. Statement: "The city council has proposed stricter regulations on waste management to address
environmental concerns."
Assumption I: "Current waste management practices are inadequate to protect the environment."
Assumption II: "Implementing stricter regulations will lead to improved waste management."
Assumption II: "The company aims to attract new customers through the advertising campaign."
30. Statement: "The company's new marketing strategy has increased sales by 20% over the last quarter."
Assumptions:
II. There were no other significant factors contributing to the increase in sales.
III. The market conditions remained stable during the last quarter.
Arguments:
I. No, making public transportation free would lead to overcrowding and inefficiency.
II. Yes, free public transportation would reduce traffic congestion and pollution in cities.
C. Either I or II is strong.
2. Statement: Should social media platforms have the authority to censor user content?
Arguments:
I. No, censorship violates freedom of speech and could lead to biased moderation.
II. Yes, social media platforms need to censor content to maintain a safe and appropriate
online environment.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, banning junk food limits students' freedom of choice and may not effectively address
the issue of unhealthy eating habits.
II. Yes, banning junk food in schools promotes healthier eating habits and reduces the risk
of obesity among students.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, the death penalty serves as a deterrent for serious crimes and provides justice for
victims and their families.
II. Yes, the death penalty is irreversible and can lead to the execution of innocent
individuals.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, capital punishment serves as a deterrent for heinous crimes and provides justice for
victims and their families.
II. Yes, capital punishment is irreversible and there is a risk of executing innocent
individuals.
C. Either I or II is strong.
6. Statement: Should the use of fossil fuels be phased out to combat climate change?
Arguments:
I. No, fossil fuels are essential for global economic growth and provide reliable energy
sources.
II. Yes, phasing out fossil fuels is necessary to mitigate the adverse effects of climate change,
such as rising temperatures, sea level rise, and extreme weather events.
A. Only argument I is strong.
B. Only argument II is strong.
C. Either I or II is strong.
D. Neither I nor II is strong.
7. Statement: Should national borders be completely open to immigration?
Arguments:
I. No, unrestricted immigration can strain social services, increase crime rates, and threaten
national security.
II. Yes, open borders promote cultural diversity, economic growth, and humanitarian
values.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, crypto currencies provide financial freedom, privacy, and protection against
government control.
II. Yes, unregulated crypto currencies can be used for illegal activities such as money
laundering, terrorism financing, and tax evasion.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
II. Yes, mandatory vaccination protects public health, prevents the spread of infectious
diseases, and ensures herd immunity.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, social media platforms are neutral platforms and should not be responsible for the
content posted by users.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, legalizing euthanasia undermines the sanctity of life and may lead to abuse, coercion,
and involuntary euthanasia.
II. Yes, euthanasia provides terminally ill patients with the right to die with dignity,
alleviate suffering, and exercise autonomy over their end of life decisions.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, affirmative action policies discriminate against qualified candidates based on race,
ethnicity, or gender.
II. Yes, affirmative action policies promote diversity, equity, and inclusion by addressing
historical and systemic inequalities in education and employment.
Arguments:
I. No, universal healthcare systems lead to increased taxes, long waiting times, and lower
quality of care.
II. Yes, universal healthcare ensures access to essential medical services for all citizens,
reduces healthcare disparities, and improves public health outcomes.
C. Either I or II is strong.
14. Statement: Should the use of genetically modified (GM) crops be encouraged in
agriculture?
Arguments:
I. No, GM crops pose risks to human health and the environment, such as genetic
contamination, pesticide resistance, and loss of biodiversity.
II. Yes, GM crops have the potential to increase agricultural productivity, enhance
nutritional value, and reduce reliance on chemical pesticides and fertilizers.
C. Either I or II is strong.
15. Statement: Should the use of artificial intelligence (AI) in autonomous vehicles be
regulated?
Arguments:
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, funding for space exploration could be better spent addressing urgent issues on
Earth, such as poverty, healthcare, and climate change.
II. Yes, space exploration drives scientific innovation, inspires humanity, and holds the
potential for discovering new resources and habitats beyond Earth.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
II. Yes, implementing UBI reduces poverty, inequality, and social unrest, while providing
individuals with financial security and autonomy.
C. Either I or II is strong.
18. Statement: Should the use of nuclear power be expanded as a clean energy solution?
Arguments:
I. No, expanding nuclear power poses risks of nuclear accidents, radioactive waste disposal,
and proliferation of nuclear weapons.
II. Yes, expanding nuclear power reduces greenhouse gas emissions, mitigates climate
change, and provides a reliable and efficient source of energy.
C. Either I or II is strong.
I. No, mandatory standardized testing narrows curriculum, promotes teaching to the test,
and increases stress among students and educators.
C. Either I or II is strong.
I. No, genetic engineering to enhance human capabilities raises ethical concerns, such as
creating genetic inequality, loss of diversity, and unforeseen consequences.
II. Yes, genetic engineering can be used to treat genetic disorders, improve human health,
and enhance cognitive, physical, and emotional abilities.
C. Either I or II is strong.
21. Statement: Should governments prioritize renewable energy over fossil fuels?
Arguments:
I. No, renewable energy sources are intermittent, expensive, and insufficient to meet global
energy demand.
II. Yes, prioritizing renewable energy reduces greenhouse gas emissions, mitigates climate
change, and creates sustainable and resilient energy systems.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, banning public smoking infringes on individual freedoms and rights, and smokers
should have the right to smoke in designated areas.
II. Yes, banning public smoking protects public health, reduces exposure to secondhand
smoke, and decreases the risk of smoking related diseases.
C. Either I or II is strong.
II. Yes, prioritizing border security is necessary to regulate immigration, prevent illegal
entry, and safeguard national security and sovereignty.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, restricting the sale of sugary drinks infringes on personal choice and individual
responsibility for dietary habits and health outcomes.
II. Yes, restricting the sale of sugary drinks reduces consumption of empty calories, lowers
rates of obesity and chronic diseases, and promotes public health and wellbeing.
C. Either I or II is strong.
25. Statement: Should the use of plastic packaging be banned to reduce environmental
pollution?
Arguments:
I. No, plastic packaging is lightweight, durable, and cost effective for preserving food
freshness and reducing transportation costs.
II. Yes, banning plastic packaging reduces plastic waste, prevents marine pollution, and
promotes the use of eco friendly alternatives.
C. Either I or II is strong.
26. Statement: Should governments implement a carbon tax to combat climate change?
Arguments:
I. No, carbon taxes increase the cost of living, burden businesses, and hinder economic
growth.
II. Yes, carbon taxes incentivize the transition to renewable energy, reduce greenhouse
gas emissions, and fund climate change mitigation efforts.
27. Statement: Should animal testing be allowed for scientific research purposes?
Arguments:
I. No, animal testing is unethical, cruel, and outdated, and alternative methods such as
computer simulations and cell cultures provide more accurate results.
II. Yes, animal testing is necessary for medical advancements, drug development, and
ensuring the safety and efficacy of pharmaceutical products.
C. Either I or II is strong.
28. Statement: Should social media platforms be responsible for moderating hate speech
and misinformation?
Arguments:
I. No, social media platforms should not be held responsible for user generated content,
and censorship undermines freedom of expression.
II. Yes, social media platforms have a duty to combat hate speech, fake news, and
harmful content to protect users' wellbeing and promote civil discourse.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
C. Either I or II is strong.
30. Statement: Should the use of surveillance technology be increased for public safety?
Arguments:
II. Yes, increased surveillance deters crime, enhances law enforcement capabilities, and
protects citizens from security threats.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
II. Yes, mandatory GMO labeling informs consumers' right to know, allows for informed
food choices, and promotes transparency in the food industry.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
II. Yes, facial recognition technology poses risks to privacy, civil liberties, and
disproportionately impacts marginalized communities through surveillance and
discrimination.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
II. Yes, genetic engineering allows for the prevention of hereditary diseases, reduces
suffering, and promotes the birth of healthier individuals.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
I. No, regulating drones stifles innovation, limits their potential applications, and hinders
economic growth.
II. Yes, regulating drones is necessary to safeguard privacy rights, prevent unauthorized
surveillance, and mitigate risks of misuse and abuse.
C. Either I or II is strong.
Arguments:
36. Statement: Should the practice of child labor be completely banned in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, children need to be given an opportunity to enjoy their childhood and pursue
education.
II. No, it will cause a lot of poor families to suffer due to the loss of income.
37. Statement: Should the government provide free healthcare to all citizens?
Arguments:
Arguments:
II. No, they are still too young to understand the complexities of politics.
Arguments:
II. No, it is necessary to ensure the safety of products for human use.
Arguments:
II. No, it lacks the personal interaction and practical experience of a classroom.
Arguments:
I. Yes, they can help increase food production and resist pests.
II. No, they pose risks to human health and the environment.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong
Arguments:
Arguments:
Arguments:
2. Statement: Some apples are red. All red things are sweet.
Conclusions:
1. Some apples are sweet.
2. All sweet things are apples.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
4. Statement: All engineers are good at mathematics. Some good mathematicians are artists.
Conclusions:
1. Some engineers are artists.
2. Some artists are good at mathematics.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
6. Statement: Some books are papers. All papers are trees. No tree is a rock.
Conclusions:
1. Some books are trees.
2. Some papers are not rocks.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
10. Statement: All squares are rectangles. Some rectangles are circles.
Conclusions:
1. Some squares are circles.
2. No square is a circle.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
11. Statement: All economists are good in mathematics. Some mathematicians are logicians.
Conclusions:
1. Some economists are logicians.
2. All logicians are good in mathematics.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
14. Statement: All sparrows are birds. Some birds are eagles.
Conclusions:
1. Some sparrows are eagles.
2. Some eagles are sparrows.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
15. Statement: Some dogs are cats. All cats are animals.
Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are animals.
2. All dogs are animals.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
16. Statement: All researchers are scientists. Some scientists are professors.
Conclusions:
1. Some researchers are professors.
2. All professors are researchers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
17. Statement: No cars are bicycles. All bicycles are vehicles.
Conclusions:
1. No cars are vehicles.
2. Some vehicles are bicycles.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
18. Statement: All flowers are beautiful. Some flowers are fragrant.
Conclusions:
1. Some beautiful things are fragrant.
2. All fragrant things are beautiful.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
19. Statement: Some laptops are computers. All computers are electronic devices.
Conclusions:
1. Some laptops are electronic devices.
2. All electronic devices are computers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
20. Statement: No plants are animals. All animals are living beings.
Conclusions:
1. No plants are living beings.
2. Some living beings are not plants.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
21. Statement: All software developers are engineers. Some engineers are managers.
Conclusions:
1. Some software developers are managers.
2. All managers are software developers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
22. Statement: All birds have wings. Some birds are not able to fly.
Conclusions:
1. Some winged creatures are not able to fly.
2. Some winged creatures are birds.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
23. Statement: Some metals are conductors. All conductors are insulators.
Conclusions:
1. Some metals are insulators.
2. All insulators are conductors.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
25. Statement: All writers are readers. Some readers are thinkers.
Conclusions:
1. Some writers are thinkers.
2. Some thinkers are writers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
26. Statement: All fruits are foods. Some foods are vegetables.
Conclusions:
1. Some fruits are vegetables.
2. Some vegetables are not fruits.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
27. Statement: Some cars are fast. All fast things are expensive.
Conclusions:
1. Some cars are expensive.
2. All expensive things are fast.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
29. Statement: Some teachers are friendly. All friendly people are approachable.
Conclusions:
1. Some teachers are approachable.
2. All approachable people are friendly.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
30. Statement: All doctors are knowledgeable. Some knowledgeable people are philosophers.
Conclusions:
1. Some doctors are philosophers.
2. All philosophers are knowledgeable.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
31. Statement: All robots are machines. Some machines are computers.
Conclusions:
1. Some robots are computers.
2. All computers are robots.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
32. Statement: Some buildings are skyscrapers. All skyscrapers are tall.
Conclusions:
1. Some buildings are tall.
2. Some tall buildings are not skyscrapers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
33. Statement: No athletes are lazy. Some lazy people are talented.
Conclusions:
1. Some talented people are not athletes.
2. Some athletes are talented.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
34. Statement: All cars are vehicles. Some vehicles are electric.
Conclusions:
1. Some cars are electric.
2. All electric vehicles are cars.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
35. Statement: All paintings are artworks. Some artworks are expensive.
Conclusions:
1. Some paintings are expensive.
2. All expensive things are artworks.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
37. Statement: All engineers are innovators. Some innovators are scientists.
Conclusions:
1. Some engineers are scientists.
2. Some scientists are engineers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
38. Statement: Some artists are musicians. All musicians are creative.
Conclusions:
1. Some artists are creative.
2. Some creative people are not musicians.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
40. Statement: All poets are writers. Some writers are journalists.
Conclusions:
1. Some poets are journalists.
2. Some journalists are writers.
A. Only conclusion I follows C. Both I and II follow
B. Only conclusion II follows D. Neither I nor II follows
KEY ANSWERS
2) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.
3) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.
4) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
5) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
6) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
7) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
9) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
10) Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
2) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.
3) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.
4) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.
5) Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.
6) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
7) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
8) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
9) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
10) Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
PATTERN COMPLETION
1) Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
2) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
3) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
4) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
5) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
6) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
7) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
9) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
10) Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.