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Class 11 Annual Exam Mock

This document outlines the structure and content of the Class 11 Chemistry Theory Annual Examination, consisting of 33 questions divided into five sections with varying marks. It includes multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, case-based questions, and long answer questions, all of which are compulsory. General instructions specify the maximum marks, time duration, and restrictions on using calculators and log tables.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
34 views10 pages

Class 11 Annual Exam Mock

This document outlines the structure and content of the Class 11 Chemistry Theory Annual Examination, consisting of 33 questions divided into five sections with varying marks. It includes multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, case-based questions, and long answer questions, all of which are compulsory. General instructions specify the maximum marks, time duration, and restrictions on using calculators and log tables.

Uploaded by

Chainsaw Man
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CHEMISTRY THEORY (043)

CLASS 11

ANNUAL EXAMINATION
Max. Marks:70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
(a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(b) SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
(h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question
carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section

1. Which of the following options does not represent ground state electronic configuration of an atom?

(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2 (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2

(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1

2. Choose the correct answer. A thermodynamic state function is a quantity

(i) used to determine heat changes

(ii) whose value is independent of path

(iii) used to determine pressure volume work

(iv) whose value depends on temperature only

3. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+ , NO3– and NH4+ respectively are expected to be

(i) sp, sp3 and sp2 (ii) sp, sp2 and sp3 (iii) sp2, sp and sp3 (iv) sp2, sp3 and sp
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4. For the reaction H2 (g) + I2(g) ----> 2HI (g), the standard free energy is ∆G◦ > 0. The equilibrium
constant (K) would be __________.

(i) K = 0 (ii) K > 1 (iii) K = 1 (iv) K < 1

5. The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:

(i) Na < Mg > Al < Si (ii) Na > Mg > Al > Si

(iii) Na < Mg < Al < Si (iv) Na > Mg > Al < Si

6. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is:

(i) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.

(ii) Non metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.

(iii) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-
orbitals.

(iv) The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number as we
go along a period.

7. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to

(i) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.

(ii) atomic number of any element of the period.

(iii) maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period.

(iv) maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.

8. Which of the following statements is correct?

(i) The presence of reacting species in a covered beaker is an example of open system.

(ii) There is an exchange of energy as well as matter between the system and the surroundings in a
closed system.

(iii) The presence of reactants in a closed vessel made up of copper is an example of a closed system.

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(iv) The presence of reactants in a thermos flask or any other closed insulated vessel is an example of a
closed system.

9. Isostructural species are those which have the same shape and hybridisation. Among the given
species identify the isostructural pairs.

(i) [NF3 and BF3 ] (ii) [BF4– and NH4+ ] (iii) [BCl3 and BrCl3] (iv) [NH3 and NO3–]

10. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings. Choose the
correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following.

(i) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0 (ii) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0

(iii) q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0 (iv) q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0

11. Which molecule/ion out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons?

(i) N2 + (ii) O2 (iii) O2 2– (iv) B2

12. Which of the following will produce a buffer solution when mixed in equal volumes?

(i) 0.1 mol dm–3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl

(ii) 0.05 mol dm–3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl

(iii) 0.1 mol dm–3 NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm–3 HCl

(iv) 0.1 mol dm–3 CH3COONa and 0.1 mol dm–3 NaOH

13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion: Simple distillation can help in separating a mixture of propan-1-ol (boiling point 97°C) and
propanone (Boiling point 56°C).
Reason: Liquids with a difference of more than 20°C in their boiling points can be separated by
simple distillation.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
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(d) A is false but R is true

14.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion: Chain isomerism is observed in compounds containing four or more than four carbon atoms
Reason: Only alkanes show chain isomerism

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true

15.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Among the two O–H bonds in H2O molecule, the energy required to break the first O–H
bond and the other O–H bond is the same.

Reason (R): In polyatomic molecules the term mean or average bond enthalpy is used.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true

16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average of energies of all canonical forms.
Reason (R) : Resonance hybrid cannot be presented by a single structure.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true

SECTION B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions
are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

17) a) i) How many moles of Magnesium phosphate [Mg3(PO4)2] will contain 0.25 moles of
oxygen atoms?

ii) express 0.0048 in the scientific notation.

b) Calculate the number of atoms in (i) 52 moles of Ar (ii) 52 u of He. [At. Mass : He = 4]

18) Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 and CO2 according to the reaction,
CaCO3 (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) What mass of CaCO3 is required to react
completely with 7.3 g HCl? [At. Mass: Ca=40, Cl=35.5, C=12, O=16]

OR

18) How many moles of barium phosphate will be precipitated when 0.5 mole of barium chloride
and 0.2 mole of sodium phosphate is mixed?

19) The value of Kc = 4 at 800K for the reaction, CO (g) + H2O (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) + H2 (g). Calculate
equilibrium concentrations of CO2, H2, CO and H2O at 800 K, if only CO and H2O are present
initially at concentrations of 0.10 M each.

20) Assign oxidation number to the underlined elements in each of the following species:

(a) Br3O8 (b) K2MnO4 (c)H2S2O7 (d) HN3

21) Balance the following by ion-electron method:

MnO4 – (aq) + SO2 (g) Mn2+ (aq) + HSO4 – (aq) (in acidic solution)

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SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The
following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

22) A welding fuel gas contains carbon and hydrogen only. Burning a small sample of it in oxygen
gives 3.38 g carbon dioxide, 0.69 g of water and no other products. A volume of 2.24 L (measured
at STP) of this welding gas is found to weigh 2.6 g.

Calculate (i) empirical formula (ii) molar mass and (iii) molecular formula of the gas.

23) a) Explain why 2d subshell is not known.

b) An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than
electrons. Assign the symbol to this ion. [You can consider the symbol as X]

c) How many electrons will be present in the sub-shells having ms value of –1/2 for n = 4?

2 24) a) The value of Kc for the reaction 2A B + C is 2 × 10–3. At a given time, the composition of
reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10–4 M. In which direction the reaction will proceed?

b) Find the conjugate acid/base for the following species in aqueous solution: HNO2, CN–, H3O+.

c) Calculate pH of a sample of vinegar whose hydrogen ion concentration is 2 x 10-5(M).

[Given: log102= 0.301] [Answer any 2]

25). a) Predict in which of the following, entropy increases/decreases:

(i) A liquid crystallizes into a solid.

(ii) Temperature of a crystalline solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K.

(iii) NaHCO3(s)  Na2CO3(s) + CO2( g) + H2O(g)

(iv) H2(g)2H(g)

b) In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the system. What
is the change in internal energy for the process?

26) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data:
6
CH3OH (l) + 3/2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) ; ∆r H = –726 kJ mol–1

C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ; ∆c H = –393 kJ mol–1

H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l); ∆f H = –286 kJ mol–1.

27) Two elements A and B belong to the 3rd period of Modern Periodic Table and are in group 2 and
13 respectively. Arrange A and B in

(a) decreasing order of size of their atoms


(b) increasing tendencies to loose electrons
(c) decreasing order of basicity of their oxides

28). a) “Alkanes with odd number of carbon should not be prepared by Wurtz reaction” justify the
statement with a suitable example.

b) What will be the structure and IUPAC name of the major product formed when but-1-ene reacts
with HBr in presence of dibenzoyl peroxide?

SECTION D

The following questions are case -based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and
answer the questions that follow.

29. Read the following passage to answer the questions:

The attractive force which holds the two atoms together is called a chemical bond. A covalent bond is
formed by an equal sharing of electrons. A coordinate bond is formed by unequal sharing of
electrons. An ionic bond is formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. Octet rule,
although very useful but is not universally applicable. According to valence bond theory, a covalent
bond is formed by overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals resulting in a lowering of energy and
more stability. Bond order is the number of bonds between atoms in a molecule. The higher the bond
order more will be stability and bond dissociation enthalpy but the smaller the bond length. The
polarity of a covalent bond depends upon the difference in electronegativity. The covalent character
of a bond depends upon polarising power, smaller cation and bigger anions have higher polarising
power. VSEPR theory helps to predict the shapes of molecules.

(a) Write the electron dot structure of N2O.

7
(b) Out of CN+, CN– which one has the highest bond order?

(c) Explain why LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents like pyridine than in H2O. Also draw the
molecular structure of SF4 using VSEPR theory. [Atomic no. of S = 16].

OR

(c) Explain why SO2 is polar and CO2 is non polar with the help of their structure (drawn using
VSEPR theory).

30. Read the following passage to answer the questions:

In the detection of elements by Lassaigne’s test, the covalent compounds are converted into
ionic compounds on fusion with sodium metal. Cyanide, sulphide and halide of sodium so formed
on sodium fusion are extracted from the fused mass by boiling it with distilled water. This extract is
known as sodium fusion extract. In this Prussian blue colouration is obtained when only nitrogen is
present whereas blood red colour is obtained when both nitrogen and sulphur are present. If sodium
fusion is carried out with excess sodium, the thiocyanate decomposes to yield cyanide and sulphide.
Phosphorus is detected in the organic compound by fusing it with sodium peroxide. When sodium
phosphate is formed it is detected with conc. HNO3 and ammonium molybdate. Nitrogen is
quantitatively estimated either by Kjeldahl or by Duma’s method.

(a) Write the formula or name of the prussian blue coloured compound formed in Lassaigne’s test which
indicates presence of nitrogen.

(b) What do you observe when phosphorus is detected in the organic compound?

(c) Ammonia evolved from 0.75g of an organic sample neutralized 10ml of 1M H2SO4 in Kjeldahl's
method for estimating nitrogen present in soil samples. Calculate the nitrogen percentage in the soil.

OR

(c) 0.378 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.574 g of silver chloride in Carius estimation.
Calculate the percentage of chlorine present in the compound.[atomic mass of Ag=108;Cl = 35.5]

8
SECTION E

The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All
questions have an internal choice.

31(a) Calculate the energy associated with the second orbit of Li2+ ion. What is the radius of this orbit
in nm? [Atomic number of Li is 3].

(b) Write any one postulate and any one limitation of Bohr’s Atomic Model.

OR

31) a) What is the energy of a photon emitted during a transition from n = 4 state to the n = 1 state in
the He+ ion? [Atomic number of He is 2].

b) If the velocity of the electron in Bohr’s first orbit of H atom is 2.19 × 106 ms–1, calculate the de
Broglie wavelength associated with it. [h = 6.627 x 10-34 Js]

c) How many radial and angular nodes are present in 4d orbital?

32) a) Identify the reagents shown in bold in the following equations as nucleophile, base or
electrophile:

b) For the following bond cleavages, use curved-arrows to show the electron flow and classify each as
homolysis or heterolysis.

9
OR

32) a) Give the IUPAC name of any one of the following compounds :

b) How many structural isomers are possible with molecular formula C5H12 ? Draw their structure.

c) Write resonance structures of CH2=CH–CHO. Indicate relative stability of the contributing


structures.

33) An alkyl bromide C4H9Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene (B), which undergoes
ozonolysis in presence of Zn dust to give a compound (C); which is also obtained when (D) reacts
with dil H2SO4 and HgSO4. (D) undergoes polymerisation in presence of Cu under red hot condition
to form an aromatic compound. Identify A to D. Write the chemical reactions involved for the
transformation of A to B, B to C and D to C.

OR

33) a) Write structure of all the alkenes which on hydrogenation give 2-methylbutane and arrange
those alkenes in decreasing order of stability.

b) How can you introduce the following in the benzene ring?

i) -Cl ii) -NO2

c) Mention two drawbacks of Friedel-Craft’s Alkylation reaction on a benzene ring.

__________________________________________________________________________________

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