29-05-2022 Code-C

Corporate Office:Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone:011-47623456

MM: 720 TRI WEEKLY TEST - 06 Time: 3 Hrs 20 Mins.

(KAMD-04)

Topics covered:
Physics : Work, Energy and Power (excluding Collisions)
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (excluding Ionic or Electrovalent Bond)
Botany : Mineral Nutrition, Pant Growth and Development.
Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination (including Sensory Organs)

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :


SECTION - A given by = F (3 x + 4) i . Calculate the work done
1. A block is subjected to an external force by this force?
( −2i + 3 j + 4kˆ ) N. What is the work done by this (1) 10 J (2) 12 J
force in moving the body through a distance (3) 14 J (4) 16 J
10 m in positive y-direction? 4. A 40 kg man with 10 kg load on his head climbs
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J up 10 steps of 0.20 m height each. The work
(3) 30 J (4) 34 J done by the man on the block during climbing is
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J
2. A block of mass 1 kg slides down on a rough
inclined plane of inclination 37° with a uniform (3) 200 J (4) 350 J
speed. Find the work done by the friction as the 5. If the unit of force and displacement each be
block slides through 1 m along the inclined? increased by two times, then the unit of work is
(g = 10 m/s2) increased by
(1) –2 J (2) –4 J (1) Two times (2) Four times
(3) –5 J (4) –6 J (3) 16 times (4) No change at all
3. A particle moves along the x-axis from x = 0 to 6. The momentum of a body whose mass is 1 kg
x = 2 m under the influence of a force F (in N) and kinetic energy is 50 J is

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

(1) 10 N s (2) 20 N s (1) Positive (2) Negative

(3) 25 N s (4) 50 N s (3) Zero (4) All of these
7. A particle of mass 2 kg is subjected to a force 14. Choose the correct statement related to the
acting along x-axis, which varies with distance as mechanical energy
shown in figure. If it starts its journey from rest at (1) It is the total sum of all the kinetic, potential
x = 0, then its velocity at x = 8 m is and thermal energies
(2) It is the sum of macroscopic kinetic and
potential energy
(3) It is the part of total energy which always
remain conserved
(4) It is the total energy of a system including all
forms of energy
15. An object subjected to a force given by

(1) 5 m/s (2) 20 m/s F =(i + 2 j + 3kˆ ) N. The work done by the force in
moving the body from (1, 1, 1) to (2, 3, 4) position
(3) 40 m/s (4) 10 m/s is

j
8. A body is dropped from a certain height h. When (1) 10 J (2) 12 J

ra
it loses U amount of its potential energy, it
(3) 14 J (4) 20 J
acquires a velocity v. The mass of the body is
16. A mass M is lowered with the help of string by a
2U 2v distance x at a constant acceleration g/4. The
(1) (2)
v U magnitude of work done by the string will be
2v 2U 3Mgx Mgx

9.
(3)
U 2
(4)
v2
th
A spring when stretched by 1 cm, its potential
energy becomes 10 J. If it is stretched by 4 cm,
(1)

(3) Mgx
4
(2)

(4) Zero
2

17. A particle of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically

its potential energy is equal to upwards with a speed of 10 m/s. The work
r
(1) 40 J (2) 80 J done by the gravity during the time from t = 0
(3) 160 J (4) 240 J to t = 1 s, is
ia
 (1) 10 J (2) –10 J
10. A particle moves with a velocity v =(i − 2 j + 2kˆ )
(3) 50 J (4) –50 J
m/s under the influence of a constant force
 18. The force acting on a particle moving along x-
F = (2i + 3 j + 5kˆ ) N. The instantaneous power of axis varies with the position of the particle as
@

the particle is shown in the figure. The particle is in stable

(1) 6 W (2) 14 W equilibrium at
(3) 16 W (4) 18 W
11. A car of mass m has an engine which delivers
constant power P. The time in which car can
accelerate from rest to speed v is
mv 2 mv 2
(1) (2)
P 2P
(3) 2Pmv2 (4) Pmv2 (1) x = x1 (2) x = x2
12. The kinetic energy acquired by a mass m in (3) Both x1 and x2 (4) Neither x1 nor x2
travelling a certain distance d, starting from rest 19. Kinetic energy of particle of mass 1 kg, moving in
under the action of a constant force, is directly straight line varies as K = 8t2. The force acting on
proportional to the particle is
(1) m (2) m (1) Constant
1 (2) Increasing
(3) (4) Independent of m
m (3) Decreasing
13. The work done by a force can be (4) First decrease then increase

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

20. The momentum of a body of fixed mass is 28. A block is released from the top of a smooth
increased by 100%. Then the kinetic energy of hemisphere of radius R as shown
the body will be increased by
(1) 100% (2) 21%
(3) 125% (4) 300%
21. Two bodies of mass 2 kg and 4 kg are moving
with equal linear momentum. Then the ratio of
their kinetic energy is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
22. A pump ejects 2000 kg of water at speed of
At what vertical height from centre of
10 m/s in 50 seconds. Find the average power at
hemisphere, block will loose its contact?
which the pump is working?
(1) 1 kW (2) 2 kW R R
(1) (2)
(3) 3 kW (4) 4 kW 2 3
23. A particle is released from rest at origin. It moves R 2R
under influence of potential field (3) (4)
4 3
U = x2 – 4x. The kinetic energy at x = 3 m is
29. An object crosses the topmost point of a vertical
(1) 1 J (2) 2 J
circle or radius R with a critical speed. Its
(3) 3 J (4) 4 J velocity, when the string is horizontal will be
24. Power delivered to a particle varies with time as
P = (6t2 – 2t) watt, where t is in seconds. Then (1) gR (2) 2gR
change in kinetic energy between time t = 0 to
(3) 3gR (4) 5gR
t = 2 s is
(1) 10 J (2) 12 J 30. A car is moved from rest along a straight road
(3) 15 J (4) 20 J and engine is delivering constant power P, then
its velocity varies with time as
25. A mass of 1 kg is dropped from height 20 m. The
gain in kinetic energy when it reaches the ground (1) t1/2 (2) t3/2
is (Neglect air drag) (3) t–1/2 (4) t–3/2
(1) 100 J (2) 125 J 31. Work done by frictional force may be
(3) 175 J (4) 200 J (1) Positive (2) Negative
26. A force F acting along x-axis on an object varies (3) Zero (4) All of these
with distance x as shown in figure.
32. When a body is moving vertically up with
constant velocity, then match the following.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Work done by (P) Negative
lifting force is
(B) Total work (Q) Positive
done by all the
forces is
The work done by the force in moving the object (C) Work done by (R) Zero
from x = 0 to x = 20 m is gravity
(1) 50 J (2) 100 J (1) A(Q), B(R), C(P) (2) A(Q), B(P), C(R)
(3) 150 J (4) 200 J (3) A(R), B(Q), C(P) (4) A(P), B(R), C(Q)
27. If an object moves with a constant speed in a 33. A uniform chain of length 10 m and mass 5 kg is
circular path then hanging vertically from a pulley as shown. The
(1) No force acts on it work done in winding the chain on to the pulley is
(2) No work is done on it (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) Its velocity remains constant
(4) Its acceleration remains constant

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

39. A body starts from rest and acquires a velocity v

with uniform acceleration in time T. The work
done on the body in time t will be proportional to
v v2 2
(1) 100 J (2)
150 J (1) t (2) t
T T
(3) 200 J (4)
250 J

34. The angle between the vectors A= 3i − 5 j and (3)
v2
t (4)
v2
t2
 T2 T2
B= 2i + 2kˆ is
40. Velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a
 3   3 
(1) cos θ   (2) cos−1   straight line is as shown in figure. If mass of the
 17   2 17  particle is 2 kg, then the net work done by the
 6   8  forces acting on the particle in time interval
(3) cos−1   cos−1 
(4) 
 17   2 17  t = 0 to t = 10 s is
35. A spring of spring constant 1000 N/m is
compressed through 10 cm and is used to push a
metal block of mass 0.5 kg. The velocity with
which the metal block moves is
(1) 4 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 3 3 m/s (4) 2 5 m/s
SECTION - B
36. The angular velocity of a particle moving in a (1) 300 J (2) 100 J
circle of radius 50 cm is increased in 5 min from (3) 400 J (4) –200 J
100 revolutions per minute to 400 revolutions per
minute. The tangential acceleration of the particle 41. A force F acting on the object varies with
is distance x as shown here. The work done by the
(1) 60 m/s2 (2) /30 m/s2 force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is
(3) /15 m/s2 (4) /60 m/s2
37. A body starts slipping on a smooth track from
point P and leaves the track from point Q as
shown. The velocity of body when it leave track
at point Q is

(1) 18 J (2) 13.5 J

(3) 9 J (4) 4.5 J

42. If a force vector ( 2i + 3 j + 4k ) N makes a body to

(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/s
move with a velocity of ( 3i − 2 j + 5k ) m/s , then
(3) 20 m/s (4) 10 5 m/s
power applied on the body will be
38. A particle is projected at 60° to the horizontal with
the energy E. The kinetic energy and potential (1) 20 W (2) 10 W
energy at highest point are respectively (3) 25 W (4) 40 W
E E   3E E  43. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block on
(1)  ,  (2)  ,
2 2  4 4  an inclined plane upto a height of of 10 m, work
done against friction is (object is moving slowly)
 E 3E 
(3) [E, 0) (4)  ,
 4 4  (1) 1000 J (2) 200 J

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

(3) 100 J (4) Zero direction with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of
44. A block of mass 2 kg is free to move along the E
their kinetic energies 1 is
x-axis. It is at rest initially and from t = 0 onwards E2
it is subjected to a time-dependent force F(t) in m1
(1) 1 (2)
the x-axis. The force F(t) varies with t as shown m2
in the figure. The kinetic energy of the block after
45 s is m2 m1v 2
(3) (4)
m1 m2v1
48. A body constrained to move in y-direction is
subjected to a force given by

F =( −2i + 15 j + 6k ) N . The work done by this
force in moving the body a distance of 10 m
along y-axis is
(1) 20 J (2) 150 J
(1) 4.50 J (2) 7.5 J
(3) 160 J (4) 190 J
(3) 5.06 J (4) 14.06 J 49. A body of mass 2 kg falls 60 m from rest and is
45. A body at rest can have then brought to rest after penetrating 0.6 m into
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Momentum some sand. Find the average thrust of the sand
on it. [g = 9.8 m s–2]
(3) Potential energy (4) Both (1) and (2)
  (1) 1680 N (2) 1400 N
= 2i + 3 j and B= 2i + 3 j , the component of
46. If A (3) 980 N (4) 1980 N
 
A along B is 50. Sophia whose mass is 52 kg experienced a net
1 force of 1800 N at the bottom of a roller coaster
(1) 6 (2) loop during her school’s physics field trip to the
6
local amusement park. Sophia’s acceleration at
6 this location is nearly.
(3) 13 (4)
13 (1) 20 m/s2 (2) 25 m/s2
47. A stationary particle explodes into two pieces of (3) 30 m/s2 (4) 35 m/s2
masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. Which of the following molecules obeys octet 53. Which of these overlaps leads to formation of a π
rule? -bond? (If y-axis is considered to be internuclear
(1) BCl3 (2) IF7 axis)
(3) KrF2 (4) H2O (1) pz + pz (2) p y + p y
52. The correct statement(s) regarding σ bond is/are
(3) s + py (4) p x + p y
(1) It is formed due to overlap of atomic orbitals
along internuclear axis only 54. Amphoteric oxide among the following is
(2) It primarily decides the direction of covalent (1) CO2 (2) MgO
bond only (3) N2O (4) Al2O3
(3) It is weaker than π -bond only 55. Hybridization of Xe in XeO2F2 is
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) sp3 (2) sp3d
(3) sp3d2 (4) sp2

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

56. Increasing order of bond angle in the following (3) 1 (4) 4

species is 65. For a molecule AB2, if no. of lone pairs on A is 3,
CH4 NH3 BCl3 then, the incorrect statement for AB2 is
I II III (1) AB2 is sp3d hybridised
(1) II < I < III (2) I < II < III (2) AB2 is linear
(3) III < II < I (4) I < III < II (3) µnet of AB2 =
0
2− − (4) Polar molecule
57. The correct statement(s) about SO3 and ClO3
66. The correct order of bond length corresponding to
is/are
the given hybridisation of carbon atoms is
(i) Both are isoelectronic
(1) sp − sp < sp − sp < sp − sp
3 3 2 2
(ii) Both are isostructural
(2) sp − sp < sp − sp < sp − sp
2 2 3 3
(iii) Both are having equal number of π-bond(s)
(1) (i) & (iii) only (2) (ii) & (iii) only (3) sp − sp < sp − sp < sp − sp
2 2 3 3

(3) (i) & (ii) only (4) (iii) only

(4) sp − sp < sp − sp < sp − sp
3 3 2 2
58. Total number of unpaired electrons in Cr atom is
(1) 5 (2) 6 67. The number of 109.5° bond angles in CCl4 is

(3) 4 (4) 3 (1) Four (2) Six

(3) Three (4) Eight
59. The fractional charge on each atom in
HBr molecule is [Given that dipole moment of 68. Total number of σ bonds in the following
HBr = 0.78 D, Bond length of HBr = 1.41 Å and compound is
1 D = 1 × 10–18 esu cm]
(1) 0.251 (2) 0.472
(3) 0.115 (4) 0.362 (1) 16 (2) 15
60. Maximum number of elements that can be (3) 14 (4) 18
accommodated in the third period of the modern 69. Which of the following compounds does not
periodic table is contain all bonds of equal bond length?
(1) 14 (2) 10 (1) SF6 (2) PCl5
(3) 18 (4) 8 (3) CH4 (4) SO3
61. Which of the following species does not exist? 70. Which bonding molecular orbital possess a nodal
plane?
(1) He2 (2) N2−
(1) σ2s (2) π2px
(3) B2 (4) F2
(3) σ2pz (4) σ1s
62. Bond order of O22− is 71. Compound which has the highest dipole moment
(1) 1 (2) 1.5 is
(3) 2 (4) 2.5 (1) HCl (2) HF
63. Which of the following quantum number (3) HBr (4) HI
determines the shape of the atomic orbital?
72. Which of the following possess intramolecular
(1) Principal quantum number H-bonding?
(2) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) Magnetic quantum number
(4) Spin quantum number (1) (2)
64. Total number of lone pair(s) of electrons on the
central iodine atom in I3− is
(1) 3 (2) 2

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

(4) Square planar

80. If internuclear axis is z then zero overlap will take
(3) (4) place between
(1) pz and pz (2) px and px
73. Which of the following compounds, does not (3) px and py (4) pz and s
contain polar bonds? 81. Hybridisation of carbon in H2CO3 is
(1) H2 (1) sp (2) sp2
(2) HCl (3) sp3 (4) dsp2
(3) H2O 82. Which of the following hybridisation involves
intermixing of five atomic orbitals?
(4) NH3
(1) sp3 (2) dsp2
74. Formal charge on middle oxygen in given
molecule is (3) sp3d (4) sp3d2
83. Correct order of bond order is

(1) 0 (2) +1 (1) O2+ > O2− > O2 (2) O2− > O2 > O2+
(3) –1 (4) –2 (3) O2+ > O2 > O2− (4) O2 > O2− > O2+
75. Example of odd electron molecule is
84. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(1) LiCl (2) BCl3
(3) N2O (4) NO2 (1) N2 (2) O22−
76. Which among the following contains expanded (3) B2 (4) Li2
octet? 85. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding takes place in
(1) CO2 (2) PCl3
(3) SF4 (4) NH3
77. NO+ has same bond order as of (1) (2)
(1) N2 (2) O2
(3) F2 (4) C2
78. Maximum dipole moment among the following is
of
(3) (4)
(1) BeF2 (2) CCl4
(3) SO3 (4) H2O
79. Shape of ClF3 molecule is
(1) Pyramidal SECTION - B
(2) Tetrahedral
(3) T-shape
Correct statement is/are
86. represents which molecular (1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) b only (4) a, b and c
orbital
88. In which of the following molecules all bonds are
(1) σ*2pz (2) σ2pz
not equivalents?
(3) π2px (4) π*2px (1) XeF4 (2) PCl5
87. Consider the following statements. (3) BF3 (4) SO2
a. Smaller the size of cation, greater is the 89. 1 Debye is equal to
covalent character of an ionic bond.
(1) 3.3 × 10–30 Cm–1
b. Larger the size of anion, greater is the
covalent character of an ionic bond. (2) 3.3 × 1030 Cm–1
c. Cations with electronic configuration (3) 3.3 × 10–30 Cm
(n – 1)d10 ns0 is less polarising than cation (4) 3.3 × 1030 Cm
with ns2np6 configuration. 90. Consider the following statements.
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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

a. Canonical forms has no real existence. 96. How many bond angles of 90° are present in
b. There is equilibrium between the canonical PCl5?
forms.
(1) 9 (2) 6
c. Resonance hybrid cannot be depicted by
single Lewis structure. (3) 4 (4) 3
Incorrect statement is/are 97. The hybridisation of C-atoms in benzene is
(1) a only (2) b only (1) sp
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
(2) sp2
91. Total number of sigma bonds present in benzene
is (3) sp3
(1) 6 (2) 3 (4) sp3d
(3) 12 (4) 9 98. Which of the following species has minimum
92. Conversion of AlCl3 into AlCl−4 changes the number of lone pair on its central atom?
hybridisation of Al from (1) BrF3 (2) BrF4−
(1) sp to sp2 (2) sp2 to sp3
(3) sp2 to sp (4) sp to sp3 (3) XeF5+ (4) I3−
93. Maximum bond length among the following is 99. In which of the following compound octet rule is
of
not followed?
(1) N2 (2) N2+ (1) SCl2
(3) N2− (4) N22− (2) NO2
94. The compound which does not exist, is (3) NF3
(1) NCl3 (2) NCl5 (4) O3
(3) PCl5 (4) PH3 100. Which of the following molecule has zero dipole
95. Which of the following combinations cannot form moment?
π-bond? (1) ClF3 (2) CO2
(1) p-p overlapping (2) s-p overlapping (3) SF4 (4) NH3
(3) d-d overlapping (4) d-p overlapping

BOTANY
SECTION - A (1) NO3− (2) NO2−
101. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. essential
elements and their functions. (3) NH+4 (4) Both (1) and (2)

(1) Nitrogen – Essential for 103. Deficiency of which of the given groups of
reproductive growth elements delay flowering in plants?
also (1) K, Mg, Fe (2) Mn, Zn, Fe
(3) N, S, Mo (4) Ca, Cu, K
(2) Phosphorus – Constituent of cell
membranes 104. Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient for both natural and
agricultural ecosystems because
(3) Calcium – Required for binding of
(1) Their availability is abundant (78%) in
ribosome subunit during
atmosphere
protein synthesis
(2) It exist as two nitrogen atoms joined by a very
(4) Magnesium – Involved in synthesis of weak triple covalent bond (N ≡ N) in the
DNA and RNA atmosphere
102. Nitrogen is mainly absorbed as

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

(3) It is a constituent of amino acids, proteins, 113. How many molecules of ATP, electron and
hormones, chlorophylls and many of the protons is/are respectively required to produce
vitamins one molecule of ammonia w.r.t. nitrogen fixation?
(4) The availability of nitrogen from the soil is (1) 6e–, 6H+, 8 ATP
limited (2) 4e–, 4H+, 8 ATP
105. Which of the given bacteria fix nitrogen (3) 6e–, 6H+, 16 ATP
symbiotically as well as in free living state? (4) 3e–, 3H+, 8 ATP
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia 114. Division and growth of which of the given in roots
(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter of legumes leads to nodule formation?
106. During nodule formation in leguminous plant, the A. Cortex B. Epidermis
event of curling of root hair is due to which of the C. Pericycle D. Root hair
given events?
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(1) Multiplication of rhizobia on root hair cells (3) A and C only (4) B and D only
(2) Colonisation of rhizobia around root hair cells 115. The soil-less growth of plants in a nutrient
(3) Secretion of specific chemicals by legume solution is known as
roots (1) Hydroponics
(4) Release of Nod factors by bacteria over the (2) Aeroponics
root hairs (3) Phytoremediation
107. Select the incorrect one w.r.t. leghaemoglobin. (4) Etiolation
(1) It is red or pink coloured pigment present in 116. How many of the given essential elements are
root nodules macronutrients?
(2) It is an oxygen scavenger C, Fe, Zn, H, N, K, B, Cu
(3) It protects enzyme nitrogenase from oxygen
(1) Three (2) Four
(4) It is absent in cytosol of nodule cells
(3) Five (4) Two
108. Enzyme nitrite reductase 117. Select the correct option w.r.t. group of structural
(1) Contains Cu and Fe elements.
(2) Is Mo – Fe protein (1) C, H, O and N
(3) Is responsible for ammonification (2) Mg and P
(4) Is capable of reducing nitrogen (3) Mg, Zn and Mn
109. All of the given essential elements become toxic (4) Cl and K
in slight excess, except 118. The geometric growth mathematically can be
(1) Zn (2) Cu expressed by the following equation
(3) Cl (4) S W1 = W0 + ert
110. Mark the odd one w.r.t. mode of nutrition in Select the incorrect option for the above equation
following bacteria. (1) W1 = final size
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia (2) e = Base of natural logarithm
(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter (3) W0 = size at the end of the growth
111. During nitrogen cycle, ammonia is oxidised to (4) r = growth rate
nitrites by the activity of
119.
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Pseudomonas
(3) Nitrobacter (4) Nitrocystis
112. Which of the given enzyme catalyses nitrate
assimilation during nitrogen cycle?
(1) Nitrate reductase
(2) Nitrogenase
(3) Nitrite reductase
(4) Both (1) and (3)

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

Select the correct option for above graph. (4) Shoot apices
(1) It is geometrical growth curve 126. Select the incorrect about ethylene.
(2) Growth is never limited by resources and (1) It hasten fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples
surrounding conditions
(2) Accelerates abscission of flowers and fruit
(3) Growth occur at a constant rate
(3) It promote male flowers in cucumber
(4) Mathematically expressed as Lt = L0 + rt
(4) Its gaseous hormone
120. Tracheids do not collapse under extreme
environmental conditions due to presence of 127. Consider the following statements
A. Used to kill dicotyledonous weeds and do not
(1) Pectin
affect mature monocotyledonous crops.
(2) Strong and elastic lignocellulosic secondary
B. Stimulate closure of stomata.
cell wall
C. Breaks seed and bud dormancy.
(3) Proteins
Select the correct set of hormone for A, B and C
(4) Carbohydrates for the given functions.
121. Which among the following abiotic factor is (1) A-Auxin, B-Abscisic acid, C-Ethylene
notessential for germination and (2) A-Auxin, B-Gibberellins, C-ABA
seedlingdevelopment?
(3) A-Auxin, B-ABA, C-Cytokinin
(1) Oxygen
(4) A-Auxin, B-Cytokinin, C-Ethylene
(2) Nutrient 128. Which among the following gibberellins was first
(3) Light discovered and what is its nature?
(4) Gravity (1) GA2 and acidic
122. For which of the given process/feature water is (2) GA3 and acidic
not an essential factor? (3) GA2 and basic
(1) Cell elongation (4) GA3 and basic
(2) Cell differentiation 129. The stimulus of photoperiodism is perceived
(3) Direction of movement of stem of plant by
(1) Flowers
(4) Medium for enzymatic activity
(2) Shoot apex
123. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are formed
through (3) Lateral meristem
(4) Leaves
(1) Dedifferentiation
130. Those elements whose absence prevents plants
(2) Redifferentiation
from completing their life cycles are called
(3) Differentiation
(4) Development (1) Beneficial elements

124. At which period the growth and development is (2) Trace elements
temporarily stopped? (3) Non-essential elements
(1) Abscission (4) Essential elements
(2) Dormancy
131. Mineral element which is component of large
(3) Vernalisation
number of biomolecules and required in the
(4) Senescence greatest amount by the plants is
125. Site of synthesis of cytokinin is
(1) Phosphorus
(1) Senescence leaves
(2) Calcium
(2) Mature fruit
(3) Nitrogen
(3) Older leaves
(4) Cobalt

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

132. Common deficiency symptom(s) in plants due to (1) Only statement A is correct
low concentration of N, S and Mo is/are (2) Only statement B is correct
a. Chlorosis (3) Both statements are incorrect
b. Necrosis (4) Both statements are correct
c. Inhibition of cell division 140. Which of the following phytohormones initiates
d. Late flowering rooting in stem cutting?

(1) a and b (2) All except b (1) Cytokinin (2) Abscissic acid

(3) b only (4) b and c (3) Auxin (4) GA3

133. One of the major functions of phosphorus is in 141. It is largely an inhibitor of growth activities. This
statement is true for
the formation of
(1) Kinetin
(1) Cell-membranes
(2) Terpene derivative phytohormone
(2) Cell-wall
(3) A gaseous phytohormone
(3) Proteins
(4) Abscisic acid
(4) Carbohydrates
142. The phenomenon to promote flowering by a
134. Potassium is employed in
period of low temperature is referred as
(1) Chlorophyll synthesis
(1) Dormancy (2) Photoperiodism
(2) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Quiescence (4) Vernalization
(3) Binding of ribosomes
143. Select the statement that does not hold true for
(4) Opening and closing of stomata growth.
135. With respect to plants, critical elements are (1) Plant growth is open form of growth
(1) Na, K and Ca (2) N, P and Mg (2) Growth is limited in all living organisms
(3) N, P and K (4) Mn, B and Mo (3) Plant growth is localized w.r.t. meristems
SECTION - B (4) It is irreversible increase in size and volume
136. Denitrification is carried out by 144. Which of the following options is incorrect?
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrococcus (1) Increase in cell size is not a parameter for
(3) Nitrobacter (4) Pseudomonas measuring growth
137. The enzyme required for N2-fixation is (2) The growth of a pollen tube is measured in
(1) Enolase (2) Aldolase terms of length

(3) Aminotransferase (4) Nitrogenase (3) The cells of meristematic zone are rich in
protoplasm and with large nucleus
138. In which of the following element pairs, both are
involved in photosynthetic and mitochondrial (4) Constantly dividing cells are present at the
electron transport? shoot apex

(1) Cu and Fe (2) Ni and Mo 145. Scratching of seed coat to break the seed
dormancy is called
(3) K and Na (4) Co and Ca
(1) Stratification (2) Scarification
139. Read the following statements and choose the
option which is true for them. (3) Bioassay (4) Synergistic action

Statement-A:Gibberellins inhibit stem elongation. 146. In the geometric growth equation, W1 = W0ert, ‘e’
is
Statement-B : Ethylene promotes female flowers
in cucumber. (1) Growth rate

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

(2) Time of growth (4) Zeatin

(3) Base of natural logarithms 149. Which of the following is/are significance(s) of
(4) Initial size hydroponics?

147. In all of the following plants, leaves in juvenile a. It is useful in area having infertile soil.
plant is different from that of mature plants, b. It avoids problem of weeding.
except in c. It controls soil borne pathogens.
(1) Larkspur (2) Cotton (1) a and c only (2) b only
(3) Coriander (4) Onion (3) b and c only (4) All a, b and c
148. Which of the following phytohormones plays an 150. The plant that does not show any correlation
important role in seed development, maturation between exposure to light duration and induction
and dormancy? of flowering response is
(1) Naphthalene acetic acid (1) Radish (2) Tomato
(2) Gibberellic acid (3) Tobacco (4) Wheat
(3) Abscisic acid

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A Statement B : Electrical synapses are rare in
151. The nerve fibre primarily present in somatic human system.
neural system is (1) Both statements A and B are correct.
(1) Myelinated with Schwann cells (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(2) Unmyelinated with Schwann cells (3) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Myelinated with Oligodendrocytes (4) Only statement B is correct.
(4) Unmyelinated without Schwann cells 156. Identify the labelled structure and select the
function associated with it.
152. Multipolar neurons are found in
(1) Middle layer of retina of human eye
(2) Choroid of human eye
(3) Cerebral cortex
(4) Human embryonic stage
153. Autonomic neural system transmits impulse from
(1) CNS to skeletal muscles
(2) CNS to voluntary organs (1) A-Thalamus, major coordinating centre for
(3) CNS to striated muscles sensory and motor signalling
(4) CNS to smooth muscles (2) A-Hypothalamous, contains a number of
154. In knee jerk reflex, the efferent neurons terminate centres which control body temperature, urge
at for eating and drinking
(1) Motor end-plate (3) A-Epithalamus, includes pineal gland which
secretes melatonin
(2) Grey matter of spinal cord
(4) A-Midbrain, controls and coordinate the
(3) White matter of spinal cord movement of the head and eye at the same
(4) Receptor time to fix and focus on an object
155. Read the following statements and choose the 157. Major regions that make up the brain stem
correct option. include
Statement A : Impulse transmission across an (1) Pons varolii, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata
electrical synapse is slower than that across a (2) Pons varolli, Corpora quadrigemina, Medulla
chemical synapse. oblongata

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

(3) Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata (2) Tectorial membrane and macula
(4) Corpora quadrigemina, Cerebrum, Pons (3) Basilar membrane and otoliths
varolii (4) Crista ampullaris and macula
158. Cranial meninx which is in direct contact with the 166. How many statement(s) is/are incorrect w.r.t.
brain tissue is sense organs?
(1) Dura mater a. The chemical senses of gustation and
(2) Arachnoid olfaction are functionally dissimilar.
(3) Pia mater b. Nose and tongue detect dissolved chemicals.
(4) No cranial meninges is in contact c. The olfactory epithelium consists of three
159. The association areas are not responsible for kinds of cells.
(1) Memory d. Olfactory bulbs are extension of brain’s limbic
(2) Expression of emotional reactions system.
(3) Communication (1) One (2) Two
(4) Intersensory associations (3) Zero (4) Four
160. Dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve is an 167. Identify the incorrect statement.
example of (1) Space between cornea and lens is called
(1) Bipolar neuron aqueous chamber
(2) Multipolar neuron (2) Space between lens and retina is called
vitreous chamber
(3) Unipolar neuron
(4) Pseudounipolar neuron (3) Vitreous humor is a thin watery fluid
161. The fovea is a thinned-out portion of the retina (4) Aqueous humor is a thin watery fluid
where only the A cells are densely packed. It 168. Bipolar neurons present in retina of the eye
contain
is the point where the visual acuity is the B .
(1) One axon and two dendrites
Choose the option that fills the blanks A and B (2) Two axon and one dendrite
correctly. (3) One axon and one dendrite
(1) Cone, highest (2) Cone, lowest
(4) Two axons and two dendrites
(3) Rod, highest (4) Rod, lowest
169. Photosensitive compound in human eye is
162. Which of the following relays impulses to the composed of
muscles called Biceps?
(1) Glycoproteins
(1) Sympathetic nervous system
(2) Opsin and retinal
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system
(3) Transducin and retinene
(3) Visceral nervous system
(4) Guanosine and retinene
(4) Somatic nervous system
170. Peripheral neural system comprises of
163. Layer of retinal cells that responds first to ‘light’
as stimulus is composed of (1) All the nerves related with autonomic neural
(1) Rods and cones (2) Multipolar cells system only.
(3) Bipolar cells (4) Ganglionic cells (2) All the nerves related with somatic neural
164. Endolymph is present in systemonly.
(1) Scala tympani
(3) All the nerves of human body associated with
(2) Scala media
CNS.
(3) Scala vestibuli
(4) External acoustic meatus (4) All the nerves found in brain only.
165. ___ are specific receptors that are responsible 171. Nissl’s granules are found in
for maintenance of balance of the body and
posture. (1) Cell body
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. (2) Axon
(1) Hair cells and organ of corti

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

(3) Synaptic knob (3) Pons

(4) Schwann cells (4) Medulla
172. Nodes of Ranvier are present at which part of 177. Corpora quadrigemina is related to ______ part
neuron? of the brain.
(1) Cell body Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(2) Synaptic knob (1) Cerebrum (2) Thalamus
(3) Axon (3) Hind brain (4) Mid brain
(4) Dendrites 178. Dorsal root ganglion is found in
173. Select the correct option for the permeability of (1) Afferent pathway (2) Efferent pathway
ion channels present in the neural membrane. (3) Interneurons (4) Motor neuron
(1) Completely permeable 179. Cranial meninx that is in direct contact with brain
(2) Selectively permeable tissue is called

(3) Semi-permeable (1) Pia mater

(4) Impermeable (2) Dura mater

174. Which statement is incorrect with respect to (3) Arachnoid

electrical synapse? (4) Both dura mater and arachnoid
(1) Impulse is transmitted with the help of 180. Which of the following parts of brain is
neurotransmitters responsible for intersensory associations,
memory and communication?
(2) Pre- and post-synaptic membrane are in very
close proximity. (1) Corpus callosum
(2) Association areas
(3) Electrical synapse is always faster than a
(3) Hypothalamus
chemical synapse.
(4) Corpora quadrigemina
(4) Electrical synapses are rare in our body.
181. Resting membrane potential is maintained by
175. Consider the given statements and choose the (1) Hormones
correct option.
(2) Neurotransmitters
Statement-A : The malleus is attached to oval (3) Sodium potassium pumps
window and stapes is attached to the tympanic (4) Leaky channels
membrane of the cochlea.
182. If the ciliary muscles of eyes fail to contract, then
Statement-B : The vestibular apparatus is (1) We can’t see distant object
composed of three semicircular canals. Each
(2) We can’t focus on nearer object
semicircular canal lies in a same plane.
(3) We can’t focus on both distant and nearer
(1) Statement A is correct. object
(2) Statement B is correct. (4) We can’t focus on object in bright light
(3) Both statements are correct. 183. The major function of the thalamus is to
(1) Act as coordinating centre for sensory and
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
motor signalling
176. Urge for eating and drinking is controlled by (2) To regulate various aspects of human
which part of the brain? behaviour
(1) Cerebrum (3) Maintain tone of the muscle
(2) Hypothalamus (4) Control urge for eating

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Adv Regular Medical-2022 Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C)

184. Dorsal and ventral root of spinal nerves arise 190. Which of the following part of brain is involved in
from _____ of spinal cord. regulation of sexual behaviours, expression of
Choose the option which correctly fills the blank. emotional reactions and motivation?
(1) White matter (1) Thalamus (2) Pons
(2) Association area (3) Limbic system (4) Hindbrain
(3) Grey matter 191. The organ of Corti is located on
(4) Central canal (1) Reissner’s membrane
185. Which of the following function is not under the (2) Basilar membrane
control of medulla oblongata? (3) Tectorial membrane
(1) Respiration
(4) Scala vestibuli
(2) Cardiovascular reflex
192. Select the odd one w.r.t vestibular apparatus.
(3) Gastric secretion
(1) Crista (2) Saccule
(4) Body temperature
(3) Semi-circular canals (4) Organ of Corti
SECTION - B
193. The pigmented layer of human eye which looks
186. What is true about action potential across the bluish in colour and forms ciliary body anteriorly
plasma membrane of a neuron? is
(1) It is electrical potential difference across the (1) Retina (2) Iris
plasma membrane during resting state
(3) Sclera (4) Choroid
(2) The membrane at the point of applied 194. Match the column I with column II.
stimulus becomes depolarised
(3) It is the result of rapid efflux of Na+ Column I Column II

(4) Inner side of plasma membrane becomes (a) Unipolar (i) Retina of eye
negatively charged neuron
187. Myelin sheath is formed by (b) Unmyelinated (ii) Spinal and cranial
(1) Schwann cells nerve fibre nerves

(2) Goblet cells (c) Myelinated (iii) Embryonic stage

(3) Astrocytes nerve fibre

(4) Microglial cells (d) Bipolar neuron (iv) Somatic and

autonomous
188. At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the blind
neural system
spot, there is a yellowish pigmented spot called
_____ with a central pit called the fovea, densely Select the correct option.
packed with ____ cells. (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Select the option that fills the blanks correctly. (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) Macula lutea, rod (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) Macula lutea, cone (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) Corpus luteum, rod 195. The correct sequence of membranes protecting
(4) Orra serrata, cone brain from outside to inside is
189. Which of the following is not a common feature (1) Dura mater → Pia mater → Arachnoid
between the crista and macula? (2) Dura mater → Arachnoid → Pia mater
(1) Part of vestibular apparatus (3) Pia mater → Dura mater → Arachnoid
(2) Part of otolith organ (4) Arachnoid → Pia mater → Dura mater
(3) Related with maintenance of balance
(4) Presence of sensory hair cells

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Tri Weekly Test-06 (Code-C) Adv Regular Medical-2022

196. The brain stem forms the connection between (3) Four
the brain and spinal cord. The three major (4) Five
regions that make up the brain stem are
199. The mid brain is located between the :
(1) Pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata
(1) Thalamus/hypothalamus of the Hindbrain and
(2) Pons, cerebellum and mid brain pons of Fore brain
(3) Mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata (2) Cerebrum of Fore brain and cerebellum of
(4) Medulla oblongata, mid brain and cerebellum Hind brain
197. Correct sequence of meninges of brain from (3) Thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and
inside to outside is: pons of Hind brain
(1) Duramater → Arachnoid → Piamater (4) Cerebellum of Fore brain and pons of Hind
(2) Piamater → Duramater → Arachnoid brain
(3) Piamater → Arachnoid → Duramater 200. Identify the correct match.

(4) Duramater → Piamater → Arachnoid (1) Phonoreceptors – Organ of Corti

198. How many of the following reflexes given in the (2) Thermoreceptors – Ruffini’s organs
box are inborn? (cold)
Writing and reading; Knee jerk; Salivation on (3) Statoreceptors – Ommatidia
tasting the food; Salivation after seeing tasty
food; Knitting; Peristalsis; Cycling (4) Propioreceptors – Lateral line sense
organ
(1) Six
(2) Three

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