FORCE

Multiple Choice Questions-I

(1 Mark)

1. If the center of gravity of a metre scale of mass 80 g lies at the 45 cm mark, then which one
of the following diagrams will show the balanced position of the scale?

2. The relation between CGS and S.I. unit of moment of force is:
(a) 1Nm = 105 dyne cm (c) 1Nm = 107 dyne cm
(b) 1Nm = 105 dyne (d) 1 dyne cm = 107 Nm

3. The diagram below shows the balanced position of a metre scale.

Which of the following diagram shows the correct position of the scale when it is supported
at the centre?
4. The iron door of a building is 4.m broad. It can be opened by applying a force of 100 N
normally at the middle of the door. The torque needed to open the door is:
(a) 200 Nm (c) 400 Nm
(b) 300 Nm (d) 500 Nm

5. Two forces each of magnitude 4 N act vertically upwards and downwards respectively at the
two ends of a uniform rod of length 1 m. The moment of couple so formed is:

( F1 × F 2 )
i. Moment of couple=
d
F
ii. Moment of couple=
d
iii. Moment of couple=either force × d
4×4
iv. Moment of couple= =16
1
v. Moment of couple=4 ×1=4
Choose the correct option for the steps from the following
 (a) i then iv (c) iii then v
(b) ii then iv (d) ii then v

6. A uniform half metre rule balances horizontally on a knife edge at 29 cm mark when a
weight of 20 gf is suspended from one end. The weight of the half metre rule is:

(a) 50 gf (c) 210 gf

(b) 105 gf (d) 52.5 gf

7. A force of 10 newton, with 1-meter-long arm rotates a body in the anticlockwise direction.
The torque is:
(a) -10 Nm (c) 10 Nm
(b) -5 Nm (d) 5 Nm

8. Which of the following is correct?

(a) 1 kgf = 1N (c) 9.8 kgf = 1N
(b) 1 kgf = 9.8 N (d) 1 kgf = 980 N

9. 1 N is the force which produces an acceleration of:

(a) 1 ms-2 in the body of mass 1 g (c) 1 cms-2 in the body of mass 1 kg
(b) 1 cms-2 in the body of mass 1 g (d) 1 ms-2 in the body of mass 1 kg

10. If a body is pivoted at a point and a force of 20 N is applied at a distance of 20 cm from the
pivot. Then moment of force about the pivot is:
(a) 4 Nm (c) 5 Nm
(b) 3 Nm (d) 2 Nm

11. Centripetal force is a ............................... force and centrifugal force is ..............................

force.
(a) Real, imaginary (c) Real, real
(b) Imaginary, real (d) Imaginary, imaginary

12. Which one of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion:

 Multiple Choice Questions-II
(2 Marks)

13. A stone tied at the end of a string is whirled by hand in a horizontal circle with uniform
speed.

(A) Name the force required for this circular motion:

(a) Centrifugal force (c) Force of gravity
(b) Centripetal force (d) Frictional force

(B) What is the direction of the above-mentioned force:

(a) Towards the centre of the circular path
(b) Away from the centre of the circular path
(c) Normal to the radius at a point which the body is present on the circular path
(d) Direction of the force keeps on changing alternately towards and away from the centre.

14. (A) Uniform circular motion has .....................

(a) Constant speed and variable (c) Circular motion with uniform
velocity velocity
(b) Variable speed and constant (d) None of the above
velocity

(B) Uniform linear motion has .......................

(a) Constant speed, variable (b) Constant speed, constant
velocity velocity
 (c) Variable speed, constant (d) Variable speed, variable
velocity velocity

15. Find the weight of a metre scale balanced at 30 cm mark such that two weights one of 30 gf
and 10 gf are suspended at 5 cm mark and 40 cm mark respectively.
(a) 10 gf (c) 25 gf
(b) 105 gf (d) 32.5 gf

16. From the given figure, state whether the rod will:

(a) rotate clockwise (c) remain in rotational equilibrium

(b) rotate anticlockwise (d) None of these

17. A gate 4 m wide can be opened by applying a force of 200 N at its centre (middle). The
minimum force required to open the gate is:
(a) 100 N (c) 200 N
(b) 50 N (d) 80 N

18. A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70 cm mark when a mass of 0.05 kg is hung at
94 cm mark. The mass or metre scale is:
(a) 0.05 kg (c) 0.10 kg
(b) 0.06 kg (d) None of these

Multiple Choice Questions-III

(4 Marks)

19. The given figure shows a uniform metre scale weighing 100 gf and pivoted at its centre O.
Weights of 150 gf and 200 gf are hung from the scale as shown

(a) The anticlockwise moment about O is:

(a) 0.02 kgf m (c) 0.07 kgf m
(b) 0.06 kgf m (d) 0.08 kgf m

(B) The clockwise moment about O is:

(a) 0.01 kgf m (c) 0.04 kgf m
(b) 0.03 kgf m (d) 0.05 kgf m

(C) The net moment is:

(a) +0.01 kgf m (c) +0.02 kgf m
(b) -0.01 kgf m (d) -0.02 kgf m
 (D) The principle used is:
(a) Law of conservation of mass (c) Law of conservation of energy
(b) Principle of moments (d) Law of action-reaction

WORK, POWER AND ENERGY

MCQ-I
(1 Mark)

1. A coolie raises a load upwards against the force of gravity then the work done by the load is:
(a) zero (c) negative work
(b) positive work (d) none of these

2. The energy change during photosynthesis in plants is:

(a) heat to chemical energy (c) chemical to light energy
(b) light to chemical energy (d) chemical to heat energy

3. Which of the following is the correct mathematical relation?

(a) Power = Force/Velocity (c) Power = Force/Acceleration
(b) Power Force × Acceleration (d) Power = Force × Velocity

4. 1 Joule = ................................ erg:

(a) 10⁹ (c) 10⁵
(b) 10⁷ (d) 10⁶

5. The usable form of mechanical energy is:

(a) elastic potential energy (c) gravitational potential energy
(b) kinetic energy (d) none of these

6. One horse power is equal to:

(a) 100 W (c) 764 W
(b) 735 W (d) 746 W

7. If A and B of the same mass can climb the third floor of the same building in 3 minutes And 5
minutes respectively, then the ratio of the powers of A is to B in an ideal situation:
(a) 1:1 (c) the information is insufficient to form a
(b) 3:5 conclusion.
(d) 5:3

8. Work done by a body moving on a circular track is zero at every instant because:
(a) displacement is zero. (c) there is no force acting.
(b) displacement is perpendicular to the (d) reason is not mentioned in the other
centripetal force. options.

9. In an electric cell while in use the change in energy is from:

(a) chemical to mechanical energy (c) electrical to mechanical energy
(b) chemical to electrical energy (d) electrical to chemical energy
10. The conversion of part of the energy into an undesirable form is called
(a) residual energy (c) unwanted work
(b) dissipation of energy (d) none of these

11. Work done is positive when ...........................

(a) distance is positive
(b) maximum distance is travelled along direction of force applied
(c) displacement is in the direction of force applied
(d) distance is negative

12. In an oscillating pendulum the energy is maximum at extremes.

(a) potential (c) kinetic
(b) vibrational (d) None of these

13. During a free fall the total energy at ½ of the height is ........................
(a) half (c) p.E. at top
(b) zero (d) none

14. In a photovoltaic cell, converts ......................... energy to ...................... energy.

(a) heat, chemical (c) light, wind
(b) light, electrical (d) thermal, kinetic

15. Which of the following quantities have the same unit?

(a) Work and power (c) Work and energy
(b) Power and energy (d) Work, power and energy

MCQ-II

16. A light body x and a heavy body y have the same momentum:
(A) Choose a correct statement from the given options:
(a) Kinetic energy of body x and body y will be the same.
(b) Kinetic energy of body x is greater than kinetic energy of body y.
(c) Kinetic energy of body y is greater than kinetic energy of body x.
(d) Unless we know the velocity we cannot find which body has greater kinetic energy.

(B) If the ratio of kinetic energies of x and y is 5:2, then which of the following gives the mass ratio
of the bodies respectively?
(a) 5:2 (c) 25:4
(b) 2:5 (d) 4:24

17. A body has kinetic energy 2500 J. If the mass of the body is 500 g, then:
(A) The velocity of the body is:
(a) √ ❑ m/s (c) 20 m/s
(b) 10 m/s (d) 100 m/s

(B) The momentum of the body will be:

(a) 10 kg m/s (c) 50 kg m/s
(b) 500 √ ❑ kg m/s (d) 5 kg m/s
18. The diagram below shows a pendulum having a bob of mass 80 g. P and R are extreme position and
Q is the mean position. The bob has velocity 5 m/s at position Q. [g= 10 N/kg]

(A) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) At Point P the bob has only kinetic energy.
(b) At point R the bob will have both kinetic and potential energy.
(c) At point Q the bob will have maximum kinetic energy.
(d) At point S the bob will have more potential and less kinetic energy.

(B) The height h is:

(a) 1.25 cm (c) 1.25 m
(b) 125 m (d) 0.125 m

19. For a given mass of a body, if velocity is doubled, the kinetic energy is
(a) halved (c) becomes one fourth
(b) becomes four times (d) none of these

20. A body possesses a linear momentum of 20 kg m/s and mass of 2 kg.

(A) The velocity of the body is:
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 20 m/s
(d) 4 m/s

(B) Kinetic energy of the body is:

(a) 100 J
(b) 50 J
(c) 1000 J
(d) 20 J

MCQ-III
(3 Marks each)

21. A body of mass 200 g falls, freely from a height of 15 m. [g = 10 m/s²]

(A) When the body reaches 10 m above the ground its potential energy will be:
(a) 20,000 J (c) 10,000 J
(b) 10 J (d) 20 J

(B) The gain kinetic energy of the body when it reaches 10 m above the ground is:
(a) 20 J (c) 30 J
(b) 10 J (d) 25 J

(C) The total mechanical energy it will possess, when it is just about to strike the ground is:
(a) 30,000 J (b) 20000J
 (c) 30 J (d) 20 J

(D) The velocity in m/s with which the body will hit the ground is:
(a) 30 (c) 10√ ❑
(b) 10 (d) 10√ ❑

22. A girl, at rest, at gate of her society is 3.2 m above the road comes down the slope xy on a cycle
without paddling. [g = 10 m/s²]

(A) The mechanical energy possessed by the girl at y is:

(a) vibrational kinetic energy (c) elastic potential energy
(b) translational kinetic energy (d) gravitational potential energy

(B) The velocity with which girl reaches point x is:

(a) 32 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 8 m/s
(d) insufficient information to calculate velocity

(C) If the mass of the girl is 40 kg then the kinetic energy of the girl at x is (Assuming no loss of
energy):
(a) 1280 J (c) 400 J
(b) 1600 J (d) 3200 J

(D) The potential energy of the girl (of mass 40 kg) when it reaches the mid-point of the slope of AB:
(a) 800 J (c) 1600 J
(b) 200 J (d) 640 J

MACHINES

MCQ-I

1. A woman draws water from a well using a fixed pulley. The mass of the bucket and the water
together is 10 kg. The force applied by the woman is 200 N. The mechanical advantage is (g = 10
m/s²)
(a) 2 (c) 0.05
(b) 20 (d) 0.5

2. A single fixed pulley is used because:

(a) It changes the direction of applied effort conveniently.
(b) It multiplies speed.
(c) It multiplies effort.
(d) Its efficiency is 100%.

3. In the diagram shown below, the velocity ratio of the arrangement is:
 (a) 1 (c) 3
(b) 2 (d) 0

4. Mechanical advantage (M.A.), load (L), and effort (E) are related as:
(a) M.A. = L × E (c) M.A. × E = L
(b) M.A. = E/L (d) M.A. x L = E

5. Which one of the following statement(s) is correct?

(a) A machine is used to have more output energy as compared to input energy.
(b) Mechanical advantage of a machine can never be greater than 1.
(c) If a machine gives convenience of direction, then its mechanical advantage should be greater
than 1.
(d) For a given design of a machine, even if the mechanical advantage increases, the velocity
ratio remains the same.

6. If a block and tackle system with convenient direction has 3 movable pulleys then its velocity ratio:
(a) is either 6 or 7 (c) should by 7
(b) should be 6 (d) is 3

7. Mechanical advantage is ratio of:

(a) effort to load (c) load arm to effort arm
(b) load to effort (d) none

8. Velocity ratio is the ratio of:

(a) velocity of effort to velocity of load (c) load to effort
(b) velocity of load to velocity of effort (d) none

9. A pulley system has velocity ratio 5 and is used to lift a load of 100 kgf through a verti- cal height of
15 m. Find the distance through which effort is moved:
(a) 15 m (c) 3 m
(b) 75 m (d) None

10. A pulley system consists of 5 pulleys having efficiency of 80%. The mechanical advan- tage of the
system is:
(a) 300 (c) 4
(b) 40 (d) 0.4

MCQ-II

11. (A) When a machine is used as a force multiplier, then:

 (a) Effort = Load (c) Effort < Load
(b) Effort > Load (d) None of these
(B) For an ideal machine:
(a) Input work = Output work (c) Input work > Output work
(b) Input work < Output work (d) None of these

12. (A) A block and tackle pulley system has n pulleys. If the load moves up through a distance d, the

(a) d (c) d +nd

effort end moves through a distance:

(b) nd
d /n (B) Which of the following quantity is unit less?
(a) Load (c) Velocity ratio
(b) Effort (d) Work output

13. Calculate the effort applied in the upward direction in case of a single movable pulley which lifts a
bucket of water of weight 30 kgf, if efficiency of the given pully system is 60%:
(a) 100 kgf (c) 25 kgf
(b) 20 kgf (d) None

14. A block and tackle system of pulleys is used to lift the load of 360 kgf by applying an effort of 200
kgf such that load is lifted to a height of 2 m and effort is applied through a distance of 8 m. Find
M.A. and V.R. of the system.
(a) M.A. = 3.6, V.R. = 2 (c) M.A. = 1.8, V.R. = 4
(b) M.A. = 2, V.R. = 8 (d) M.A. = 4, V.R. = 6

15. A crow bar of length 100 cm has its fulcrum situated at a distance of 25 cm from the load. The
mechanical advantage of crow bar is:
(a) 3 (c) 2
(b) 4 (d) 1

16. A cook uses a fire tongs of length 30 cm to left a piece of burning coal of mass 500 g. If he applies
his effort at a distance of 10 cm from the fulcrum, what is the effort?
(a) 2 kgf (c) 1 kgf
(b) 0.5 kgf (d) 1.5 kgf

MCQ-III

17. The diagram given shows a system of pulleys. The upper two pulleys are fixed and the lower are
movable:
 With respect to this diagram, answer the following questions:
(A) The velocity ratio of the system is:
(a) 2 (c) 4
(b) 3 (d) 5
(B) The load and effort of the given pulley system are related as (considering ideal case):
(a) L = E/4 (c) L = E + 4
(b) E = L/4 (d) E = L + 4
(C) The effort needed to lift a load of 360 N if efficiency is 90% is:
(a) 400 N (c) 150 N
(b) 200 N (d) 100 N
(D) A pulley system works as:
(a) energy gainer (c) friction reducer
(b) force multiplier (d) energy conservator

18. A pulley system with velocity ratio 4 is used to lift a load of 150 kgf through a vertical height of 20
m. The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction. With reference to this, answer the
following questions:
(A) Distance moved by the effort is:
(a) 10 m (c) 40 m
(b) 20 m (d) 80 m
(B) Work done by the effort is:
(a) 20,000 J (c) 40,000 J
(b) 30,000 J (d) 50,000 J
(C) The mechanical advantage is:
(a) 3 (c) 2
(b) 4 (d) 1
(D) Efficiency of the pulley system is:
(a) 60% (c) 90%
(b) 75% (d) 100%
19. A pulley system with V.R. 4 is used to lift a load of 175 kgf through a vertical height of 15 m. The
effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction. With reference to this, answer the following
questions:
(A) The total number of pulleys is:
(a) 2 (c) 5
(b) 4 (d) 6
(B) The number of pulleys in lower block is:
(a) 2 (c) 4
(b) 3 (d) 1
(C) Mechanical advantage of the pulley system is:
(a) 2 (c) 3.5
(b) 2.5 (d) 4.5
(D) The efficiency of the pulley system is:
(a) 70% (c) 85%
(b) 80% (d) 87.5%

20. A block and a tackle have a velocity ratio 4 and is used to lift a load of 300 kgf through a vertical
height of 15 m. The effort applied Is 90 kgf in the downward direction with reference to this, answer
the following questions:
(A) The distance moved by the effort:
(a) 60 m (c) 30 m
(b) 45 m (d) 15 m
(B) The mechanical advantage:
(a) 2.11 (c) 3.33
(b) 3.13 (d) 4.44
(C) The efficiency of the pulley system:
(a) 80% (c) 82.3%
(b) 81% (d) 83.3%
(D) Total number of pulley:
(a) 2 (c) 5
(b) 4 (d) 6

21. The figure given alongside show a single movable pulley system with reference to this, answer the
following questions:

(A) The velocity ratio of this pulley system is:

(a) 1 (c) 3
(b) 2 (d) 4
(B) The mechanical advantage is:
(a) 1.46 (b) 1.53
 (c) 1.64 (d) 1.79
(C) The efficiency of the pulley system is:
(a) 89.5% (c) 91.8%
(b) 92.4% (d) 87.6%
(D) The ideal mechanical advantage is:
(a) 1 (c) 2
(b) 3 (d) 4

22. State whether the given statements are true or false.

(A) A lever works on the principle of moments.
(B) Unit of mechanical advantage is same as that of Load.

23. State whether the given statements are true or false.

(A) A simple machine can act as a force and velocity multiplier simultaneously.
(B) Steeper the inclined plane more is the effort needed to push a load up the plane.

REFRACTION OF LIGHT AT PLANE SURFACES

1. The deviation produced by an equilateral prism does not depends on:

(a) the angle of incidence
(b) the size of the prism
(c) the material of the prism
(d) the colour of light used

2. The refractive index of a diamond is 2.4. It means that:

(a) the speed of light in vacuum is equal to 1/2.4 times the speed of light in diamond.
(b) the speed of light in the diamond is 2.4 times the speed of light in vacuum.
(c) the speed of light in vacuum is 2.4 times the speed of light in the diamond.
(d) the wavelength of light in diamond is 2.4 times the wavelength of light in vacuum.

3. A ray of light IM is incident on a glass slab SABCD as shown in the figure below. The emergent ray
for this incident ray is:

(a) NO (c) NP
(b) NR (d) NS

4. Choose the correct statement with respect to refraction of light:

(a) The frequency always changes when light enters from one optical medium to another.
(b) Absorption of light when it strikes the surface of a medium is refraction.
(c) Speed of light changes when it enters from one optical medium to another of different optical
density.
 (d) Speed of light does not change when it enters from one optical medium to another of different
optical density.

5. When a light ray enters from a denser medium to a rarer medium:

(a) the light ray bends towards the normal.
(b) angle of incidence is less than angle of refraction.
(c) speed of light decreases.
(d) speed of light remains unchanged.

6. In the diagram shown below:

(a) B is incident ray and C is refracted ray.

(b) A is incident ray and B is refracted ray.
(c) C is incident ray and B is refracted ray.
(d) A is incident ray and C is refracted ray.

7. Choose the correct statement with respect to refraction of light when refractive indices of both the
mediums are same:
(a) When light ray travels from first medium to another, it bends towards the normal
(b) When light ray travels from first medium to another, it bends away from the normal
(c) There is no change in the direction of ray of light.
(d) The light ray is reflected back in the same medium.

8. The principle of reversibility of light states that:

(a) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
(b) The path of a light ray is reversible.
(c) There is no change in path of ray of light when it passes from one medium to another.
sin sini
(d) n=
sin sin r

9. In the diagram shown below, identify the refracted ray:

(a) A (c) C
(b) B (d) D

10. In the given diagram the phenomenon occurring is:

 (a) total internal reflection (c) refraction
(b) reflection (d) dispersion

11. In the position of minimum deviation:

(a) Refracted ray is parallel to the base of prism.
(b) Angle of incidence = Angle of refraction.
(c) Phenomenon of total internal refraction takes place.
(d) Angle of deviation becomes equal to angle of refraction.

12. The factors affecting the refractive index of a medium are:

(A) Nature of the medium
(B) Temperature
(C) Colour or wavelength of light used
Choose the correct option.
(a) only option (A) is correct (c) options (B) and (C) are correct
(b) options (A), (B) and (C) are (d) options (A) and (C) are correct
correct

13. The phenomenon of mirage occurs due to:

(a) reflection (c) diffraction
(b) refraction (d) total internal reflection

14. A water pond appears to be 2.4 m deep. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 , the actual depth of
pond is:
(a) 2.4 m (c) 3.6 m
(b) 3.2 m (d) 4.0 m

MCQ-II

15. The diagram below shows the path of light passing through a right-angled prism of critical angle 42.
(A) The angle C of the prism is:
(a) 45° (c) 90°
(b) 60° (d) 30°
(B) Which of the following diagrams shows the correct path of this ray out of the prism?
16. The wavelength of light in a medium A is 600 nm. The wave enters medium B of refractive Index 1.5
with respect to medium A.
(A) Select the correct option from the following:
(a) The wavelength of light becomes 1.5 times the initial wavelength.
(b) The wavelength of light decreases.
(c) The wavelength becomes half of initial wavelength.
(d) The wave bends away from the normal
(B) The wavelength in medium B will be:
(a) 400 nm
(b) 900 nm
(c) 300 nm
(d) Information is insufficient to calculate

17. (A) Select correct options for Total internal reflection in a medium:
(a) can take place in an optically denser medium as compared to an optically rarer medium
(b) takes place for any angle of incidence greater than 42 degrees.
(c) this reflection does not obey the laws of reflection.
(d) can take place if the angle of incidence in a denser medium is less than the critical angle.
(B) Diamonds glitter in the dark because:
(a) they emit light.
(b) they have a very small critical angle due to very high refractive index.
(c) due to the fluorescence
(d) chemical reaction in the diamond produces light energy

18. (A) Refraction of light is the phenomenon of

(a) movement of light (c) distribution of light
(b) bending of light (d) scattering of light
(B) A ray of light bends the normal when it travels from optically rarer medium to an optically denser
medium.
(a) away (c) far away
(b) towards (d) very close

19. (A) Greater the optical density ........................ lateral displacement.

(a) greater (c) equal
(b) less (d) None of these
(B) Slimmer the glass slab ........................ lateral displacement.
(a) more (c) equal
(b) less (d) none of these
20. (A) Greater the refractive index ...................... is the apparent depth:
(a) more (c) less
(b) same (d) none of these
(B) Is Snell's law applicable when a ray of light is incident perpendicular to the surface at the point of
incidence?
(a) yes (c) It is an exception for the validity of
(b) undecided the law
(d) None of these

21. (A) A ray of light travels undeviated on ren passing through the optical boundary:
(a) if both mediums are same.
(b) both have the same refractive index.
(c) the ray makes an angle of 0° with the normal
(d) all of the above
(B) Two light rays incident parallel to each other on an optical boundary will undergo the same
refraction.
(a) true (c) can't say
(b) false (d) none of the above

22. (A) Angular deviation in case of lateral displacement is:

(a) 0° (c) 360°
(b) 180° (d) both (a) and (c)
(B) Lateral displacement ................... with increase in angle of incidence:
(a) Increases (c) remains same
(b) decreases (d) keeps changing

MCQ-III

23. The diagram below shows a ray of light travelling from air into a glass material as shown below.
Answer the questions that follow.

(A) The angle of incidence at the surface AB is:

(a) 43° (c) 90°
(b) 47° (d) 0°
(B) Select a correct statement from the following:
(a) The speed of light at the curved surface AD does not change while entering the block.
(b) The ray at the surface AD is not travelling along the radius of the curved part.
(c) The ray at the surface AD is travelling along the rays of the curved part.
(d) Light never refracts when it enters a curved surface.
(C) The angle of incidence on the surface BC is:
(a) 43° (c) 90°
(b) 47° (d) 0°
(D) The critical angle of this material of glass is:
(a) 47° (b) 43°
 (c) 42° (d) 45°

24. The diagram shows the path of light through 3pra right-angled prism of critical angle 42°. Observe
the diagram and answer the questions that follow:

(A) The phenomenon at the surface AC is:

(a) refraction (c) total internal reflection
(b) partial reflection (d) scattering
(B) The angle of incidence at the surface AC is:
(a) 30° (c) 60°
(b) 45° (d) 90°
(C) The angle of incidence at the surface AB is:
(a) 30° (c) 60°
(b) 45° (d) 90°
(D) Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Speed of light ray PQ is equal to the speed of light ray ST.
(b) Speed of light ray QR is equal to the speed of light ray RS.
(c) Speed of light ray PQ is greater than the speed of light ray RS.
(d) Speed of light ray RQ is greater than the speed of light ray ST.

25. The diagram shows the path of light through a right-angled prism of critical angle 42°. Observe the
diagram and answer the questions that follow:

(A) The phenomenon at the surface AB is:

(a) refraction (c) scattering
(b) reflection (d) total internal reflection
(B) The angle of incidence at surface BC:
(a) 90° (c) 45°
(b) 60° (d) 0°
(C) Which surface will appear shiny?
(a) BC (b) AB
 (c) AC (d) None of them will appear shiny
(D) How much light energy (approx..) is reflected back in total Internal reflection?
(a) 50% (c) 70%
(b) 90% (d) 100%

26. The deviation produced by an equilateral prism does not depends on:
(A) Optical density is independent with the density of medium
(B) Refracted ray may lie in different plane depending on the plane of incident ray

27. State whether the following statements are true or false.

(A) Optical density and mass density are two same quantities as they both depend of inter-molecular
spacing
(B) When light passes through a denser medium, the frequency remains unchanged.

28. Name any two factors on which lateral displacement is case of a glass slab to depends.

29. In which direction, a ray of light bends when it goes from water to glass?

LENSES

MCQ-I

1. An object of height 10 cm is placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm at a distance 25

cm from the lens. Is it possible to capture this image on a screen?
Select a correct option from the following:
(a) Yes, as the image formed will be real
(b) Yes, as the image formed will be erect
(c) No, as the image formed will be virtual
(d) No, as the image formed will be inverted

2. From the diagram shown below, identify the characteristics of the image that will be formed.

(a) Real (c) Formed within the focal length

(b) Diminished (d) Virtual

3. From the diagram shown below, identify the characteristics of the image that will be formed.

(a) real (c) formed within the focal length

(b) diminished (d) virtual
4. Assuming all lenses shown below are of the same material, state which lens had the maximum power.

(a) R (c) Q
(b) P (d) S

5. The characteristics of the image formed by a lens are virtual, erect and diminished. The defect of eye
which can be corrected by this lens is:
(a) myopia (c) cataract
(b) hypermetropia (d) both myopia and hypermetropia

6. The focal length of a concave lens is 40 cm. The power of the lens is:
(a) +4 D (c) +2.5 D
(b) -2.5 D (d) -4 D

7. For which object position the image formed by a convex lens is of equal size of the object?
(a) At F (c) At ∞
(b) At 2F (d) Between F and O

8. Powers of a convex lens and a concave lens are respectively....................... and ........................
(a) positive, positive (c) positive, negative
(b) negative, negative (d) negative, positive

9. A lens which always forms an upright and diminished image is:

(a) concave lens (c) plano concave lens
(b) convex lens (d) none of these

10. Four lenses of focal length ± 15 cm and ± 150 cm are available for making a telescope. To produce
the maximum magnification, the focal length of the eyepiece should be:
(a) +15 cm (c) - 150 cm
(b) + 150 cm (d) - 15 cm

11. When an object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex spherical mirror, the magnification
produced is 1/2. The position of object to get a magnification of 1/3 will be:
(a) -30 cm (c) 120 cm
(b) -120 cm (d) 30 cm

12. In order to determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the image of distant object on
screen, the position of screen should be:
(a) parallel to plane of concave mirror
(b) perpendicular to plane of concave mirror
(c) inclined at an angle 60° to plane of mirror
(d) in any direction with respect to the plane of concave mirror

13. No matter how far you stand from a spherical mirror, your image always appears erect. The mirror is
likely to be:
 (a) Plane (c) Concave
(b) Convex (d) Either plane or convex

14. Which of the following depend on whether the rays are paraxial or not for spherical mirrors?
(a) Pole (c) Radius of curvature
(b) Focus (d) Principal axis

15. Determine which of the following statement is true or false.

(A) A converging lens can be made up of number of prisms but same cannot be done for diverging
lens.
(B) A simple microscope is based on the principle of that convex lens produces erect, real and highly
magnified image.

MCQ-II

16. (A) If a part of the lens is covered then:

(I) Its focal length changes.
(II) Its focal length remains unchanged.
(III) Intensity of image changes.
(IV) Intensity of unchanged. image remains
(a) (I) and (II) are correct
(b) (II) and (III) are correct
(c) (I) and (IV) are correct
(d) (II) and (IV) are correct
(B) The magnification of a lens is given by:
−v v
(a) (c)
u u
−u
(b)
v
u
v
17. (A) Where will be the image formed by a convex lens when the position of the object is between the
optical centre and principal focus?
(a) At second focus point (c) Same side of object
(b) At second center of curvature (d) Beyond second center of curvature
(B) An object at a distance of 30 cm from a convex lens gets its image at the same distance on other
side. The focal length of the lens is:
(a) -30 cm (c) -15 cm
(b) +30 cm (d) +15cm

18. There are four convex lenses A, B, C, D of focal length 10 cm, 20 cm, 60 cm and 100 cm.
(A) From the following, the lens with highest power is:-
(a) Lens A (c) Lens C
(b) Lens B (d) Lens D
(B) For which lens, an object placed at 80 cm from lens will produce a virtual image:
(a) Lens A (c) Lens C
(b) Lens B (d) Lens D

19. For which of the following positions of object convex lens produces magnified image?
(a) u = f and u = 2f (b) u > 2f and u < f
 (c) 2f > u > f and u < f (d) u = 2f and u < f

MCQ-III

20. The diagram below shows an image formed at a distance of 36 cm from the lens LL' of local length
12 cm.

With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(A) The position of the object on the left-hand side should be:
(a) between 12 cm to 30 cm from the lens (c) between 12 cm to 24 cm from the lens
(b) beyond 24 cm from the lens (d) within 12 cm from the lens

(B) Power of this lens is:

(a) - 8.33 D (c) + 8.33 D
(b) 8.4 D (d) - 84 D

(C) The object distance with sign convention is:

(a) - 18cm (c) - 9 cm
(b) - 15cm (d) + 18 cm

(D) If the lens LL' is replaced by another lens of same type but focal length 15 cm then for the same
object distance:
(a) the size of the image decreases (c) the size of the image remains the same.
(b) the size of the image increases (d) information is insufficient to conclude

21. A convex lens forms an image 12.0 cm long of an object 3.0 cm long kept at a distance of 6 cm from
the lens. The object and the image are on the same side of lens. With respect to this, answer the
questions that follow:
(A) The nature of the image is:
(a) real (c) laterally inverted
(b) same size as the object (d) virtual

(B) The position of the image is:

(a) 24 cm (c) 6 cm
(b) 12 cm (d) 8 cm

(C) The focal length of the lens is:

(a) 6 cm (c) 10 cm
(b) 8 cm (d) 12 cm

(D) Power of this lens is:

(a) - 12.5 D (c) +10.0 D
(b) -10.0 D (d) +12.5 D
22. A lens forms the Image of an object placed at a distance 15 cm from It, at a distance 60 cm In front of
it. With reference to this condition, answer the following questions:
(A) The focal length of lens is:
(a) 10 cm (c) 30 cm
(b) 20 cm (d) 40 cm

(B) The power of lens is:

(a) + 3D (c) + 5D
(b) - 3D (d) - 5D

(C) The magnification is:

(a) 2 (c) 4
(b) 35 (d) 50

(D) The nature of image is:

(a) real (c) laterally inverted
(b) real and inverted (d) virtual

23. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. With
reference to this, answer the following questions:
(A) The position of image is:
(a) 10 cm behind the lens (c) 20 cm in front of lens
(b) 10 cm in front of lens (d) 20 cm behind the lens

(B) The power of lens is:

(a) + 4 D (c) - 5 D
(b) - 4 D (d) + 5 D

(C) The magnification of image will be:

(a) + 0.5 (c) - 0.75
(b) - 0.5 (d) + 0.75

(D) The size of image with respect to object is:

(a) larger (c) same size
(b) highly magnified (d) diminished

24. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. With
reference to this, answer the following questions:
(A) The position of image is:
(a) 5 cm behind the lens (c) 10 cm behind the lens
(b) 5 cm in front of the lens (d) 10 cm in front of the lens

(B) The size of image in relation to the object is:

(a) 0.3 (c) 0.5
(b) 0.4 (d) 0.6

(C) The characteristic of image formed:

(a) real and inverted (c) real and erect
(b) virtual and erect (d) virtual and inverted

(D) The power of lens is:

 (a) - 10 D (c) 10 D
(b) - 5 D (d) 5 D

25. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at a distance of 16 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm.
(A) The nature of image is
(a) virtual and inverted (c) real and erect
(b) virtual and erect (d) real and inverted

(B) The position of image will be:

(a) 6.2 cm in front of the lens (c) 18.6 cm behind the lens
(b) 6.2 cm behind the lens (d) 18.6 cm in front of the lens

(C) The size of image is:

(a) 4.0 cm (c) 2.5 cm
(b) 6.0 cm (d) 1.5 cm

(D) The power of lens is:

(a) +10 D (c) -10 D
(b) +15 D, (d) -15 D

26. Observe the diagram which shows the path of an incident ray through an optical plane LL' of a lens.
The focal length of the lens is 20 cm.

(A) If an object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of the lens, then:

(a) The image will be virtual. (c) The image will be diminished.
(b) The image will be diminished and (d) The image will be real and magnified.
inverted.

(B) This type of lens can be used:

(a) to correct hypermetropia (c) to diverge light
(b) to correct myopia (d) in the door peepholes

(C) An object is placed in front of the lens at a distance of 60 cm. Then the image distance from the
lens with proper sign convention is:
(a) +60 cm (c) - 30 cm
(b) + 30 cm (d) + 15 cm

(D) An object is placed in front of the lens at a distance of 60 cm. Then the linear magnification of the
image is:
(a) 0.25 (c) - 0.5
(b) 1.25 (d) 1

27. The diagram below shows an Image formed at a distance 40 cm from the lens LL' of focal length 16
cm. With respect to this answer the questions that follow:
 (A) The position of the object on the left- hand side should be:
(a) between 16 cm to 30 cm from the lens (c) between 16 cm to 32 cm from the lens
(b) beyond 32 cm from the lens (d) within 16 cm from the lens

(B) Power of this lens is:

(a) -6.25 D (c) +6.25 D
(b) +6.50 D (d) -6.50 D

(C) The object distance with sign convention is:

−80 (b) −16 cm
(a) cm
3 (c) −¿32 cm
(d) −¿ 24 cm

(D) If the lens LL' is replaced by another lens of same type but focal length 15 cm then for the same
object distance:
(a) the size of the image decreases (c) the size of the image remains the same
(b) the size of the image increases (d) information is insufficient to conclude

28. Match the following on the basis of their nature of image formed:
 SPECTRUM

MCQ-I
1. The colour of white light which is deviated least by a prism is:
(a) Green (c) Red
(b) Yellow (d) Violet

2. The wavelength range of visible lights is:

(a) 40 nm to 80 nm (c) 4 nm to 8 nm
(b) 4000 nm to 8000 nm (d) 400 nm to 800 nm

3. Which the following rays, of produce Vitamin D in human body?

(a) Infrared (c) Visible light
(b) Ultraviolet (d) All of these

4. Which of the following rays is used for night photography?

(a) Infrared (c) Visible light
(b) Ultraviolet (d) X-rays

5. The phenomenon due to which polychromatic light split into its comp colours when passed through a
pris called.......................
 (a) refraction (c) reflection
(b) dispersion (d) interference

6. The band of colour obtained on the screen when polychromatic light splits into colour is
called...................
(a) bright band (c) spectrum
(b) dispersion (d) diffraction

7. The region of spectrum which extends beyond violet and of visible spectrum is
called................spectrum.
(a) ultraviolet (c) electromagnetic
(b) infrared (d) none of these

8. ............... rays produce heating effect on being absorbed by material objects.

(a) Ultraviolet (c) X-rays
(b) Infrared (d) Gamma rays

9. The most energetic electromagnetic radiations are:

(a) microwaves (c) x-rays
(b) ultraviolet waves (d) gamma rays

10. The electromagnetic waves having longest wavelength is:

(a) ultraviolet waves (c) gamma Rays
(b) infrared waves (d) radio waves

11. In the white light of the sun, maximum scattering by the air molecules present in the earth's
atmosphere is for:
(a) red colour (c) blue colour
(b) yellow colour (d) green colour
(e)

12. To an astronaut in a spaceship, the earth appears:

(a) white (c) blue
(b) red (d) black

13. State whether the given statements are true or false?

(A) Dispersion of light occurs at middle of the prism.
(B) A prism is the only object which produces different colours.

MCQ-II

14. (A) Which of the following arrangements is in correct order of increasing wavelength?
(a) Gamma rays, X-rays, Ultraviolet rays, visible light, Infrared radiations.
(b) Infrared radiations, visible light, Ultraviolet rays, X-rays, Gamma rays.
(c) Infrared radiations, Ultraviolet rays, visible rays, Gamma Rays, X-rays.
(d) X-rays, Gamma Rays, Ultraviolet rays, Infrared radiations, visible light.

(B) Which of the following is the common property of all electromagnetic radiations?
(a) All electromagnetic waves have the same frequency.
(b) All electromagnetic waves have the same velocity in vacuum.
(c) All the electromagnetic waves have the same wavelength.
(d) All electromagnetic waves have the same intensity.

15. (A) Rock salt prism does not absorb radiations.

(a) infrared (c) microwaves
(b) ultra violet (d) radio waves

(B) ...................radiations are not absorbed by quartz prism.

(a) microwaves (c) infrared
(b) radio waves (d) ultraviolet

16. (A) Identify the reasons for use of ultrasonic waves over audible sound in sound ranging and echo
depth sounding:
(a) They can travel undeviated through a long distance.
(b) speed of ultrasonic waves is more than audible sound in a given medium
(c) They can travel through vacuum.
(d) Humans can hear ultrasonic sounds.

(B) Radiations used in remote control of televisions and other gadgets:

(a) ultraviolet (c) infrared
(b) x-rays (d) radio waves

17. (A) Radiations used for sterilizing purpose:

(a) infrared (c) ultraviolet
(b) microwaves (d) visible light

(B) The cause of dispersion of white light is:

(a) change in speed of light with (c) change in intensity of light
wavelength (d) none of these
(b) change in speed of light with frequency

18. (A) If an electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 3000 MHz and a wavelength of 10 cm, its velocity
will be:
(a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s (c) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
(b) 3 × 10⁹ m/s (d) 3× 10⁷ m/s

(B) The quantity that remains same when light enters in another medium is:
(a) Wavelength (c) Speed
(b) Frequency (d) Direction

SOUND

1. Free vibrations are:

(a) The vibrations under the influence of a periodic force
(b) The vibrations with larger amplitude
(c) The vibrations when the frequency continuously decreases
(d) The vibrations with a constant frequency and constant amplitude.

2. The diagram below shows four sound waves. Which sound has the highest pitch?
3. Pendulum A, B, C and D are tied to flexible string PQ and are at rest. Pendulum C is disturbed.
Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Only pendulum C will start vibrating

(b) Pendulums A, B and D will also start vibrating but A and D will vibrate with the maximum
amplitude.
(c) Pendulums A, B and D will also start vibrating.
(d) Vibrations of pendulum C are forced vibrations.

4. Resonance is:
(a) a forced vibration, in which amplitude remains constant.
(b) a forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is greater than the free vibrations of
the body.
(c) a forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is equal to the free vibrations of the
body.
(d) a forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is less than the free vibrations of the
body.

5. If a sound wave is produced from a source and an echo is heard in 't' seconds afterwards, then if 'd' is
the distance of the reflecting surface from the source and 'v' is the speed having wavelength λ and 'T'
period of wave, then:
2t 2T
(a) d= (c) d=
λ λt
λt
(b) d=
2T
λT
d=
2t
6. What does word SONAR stand for?
(a) Sound navigation and ranging (c) Sound network and ranging
(b) Sound navigation and reaching (d) Sound network and restore
7. When a sound wave travels outward n all directions and encounters an obstacle such as a wall, floor
or ceiling surface the direction of the sound will be changed or reflected. The direction of travel of the
reflected sound will be at the same angle as the original sound striking the surface.
Which among the following figure will show that sound can be reflected?

(a) Figure 1 and figure 4 only (c) Figure 1, Figure 2 and Figure 3 only
(b) Figure 2 and Figure 3 only (d) Figure 3 and figure 4 only

8. The vibrations of a body that take place under the influence of an external periodic force are called:
(a) natural vibrations (c) free vibrations
(b) forced vibrations (d) damped vibrations

9. Resonance is a special case of

(a) natural vibrations (c) forced vibrations
(b) damped vibrations (d) any of the above

10. Pitch of a sound is determined by its:

(a) amplitude (c) wavelength
(b) frequency (d) intensity

11. It is possible to recognise a person by hearing his voice even if he is hidden behind a solid wall. This
is due to the fact that his voice:
(a) has a definite pitch (c) has a definite loudness
(b) has a definite quality (d) can penetrate the wall

12. To increase loudness of a sound, we should increase its:

(a) frequency (c) pitch
(b) intensity (d) amplitude

13. Which of the following characteristics of sound will change if there is a change in its waveform?
(a) pitch (c) loudness
(b) quality (d) none of these

14. Noise pollution is caused by an undesirable sound of level above:

(a) 150 dB (c) 120 dB
(b) 90 dB (d) 50 dB

15. The vibrations produced in strings of guitar while playing it, are examples of
 (a) natural vibrations (c) forced vibrations
(b) damped vibrations (d) none of these

16. State whether the following statements are true or false.

(A) Formation of crests and troughs are in longitudinal waves.
(B) Sound waves can easily travel through vacuum without losing any energy.

MCQ-II

17. When describing frequency we use simple waveform, a sine wave to describe the basic principle of
oscillation or vibration. A simple waveform is made up of a single frequency, a perfect oscillation
resulting in a periodically repeating waveform. Overtones are the harmonics above the fundamental
frequency. Based the information, on answer the questions.

(A) Which among the following figures represent second overtone for a wave on a string?
(a) Figure 1 (c) Figure 3
(b) Figure 2 (d) Figure 4
(B) Which among the following figures will represent fundamental tone for a wave on a string?
(a) Figure 1 (c) Figure 3
(b) Figure 2 (d) Figure 4

18. In the sound waves, the frequency is the number of vibrations in one second. The closer the waves are
together, the higher the frequency and higher will be the pitch of the sound. Based on the information,
answer the questions.

(A) Which among the following information is correct regarding figure 2 in comparison with figure
1?
(a) The wave has many vibrations in 1 (c) The wave has highest pitch
second (d) All of these
(b) The wave has the highest frequency
(B) From figures given, which among the following waves will have different amplitude and volume?
(a) Figure 1 will have different volumes (b) Figure 1 will have different
of the sounds. amplitude of wave.
 (c) Both have same volumes. (d) None of these.

MCQ-III

19. Echo is the repetition of sound which is caused by the reflection of sound wave. If we happen to shout
near a mountain, we hear the same sound again after sometime. For echo to be created, there should
be specific distance between the source and reflecting object. Animals also receive information about
their prey through echo by sensing and processing information with their brain. Based on the
information, answer the following questions.
(A) The minimum distance between the reflecting object and the source to produce echo in air is:
(a) 15 m (c) 14 m
(b) 16 m (d) 17 m
(B) If a man standing on the other side of the hill, shout loudly, happens to heard an echo after 3 s,
then the distance of the mountain from the man, when the speed of sound 'v' is 346 m/s will be:
(a) 1038 m (c) 1519 m
(b) 519 m (d) 346 m
(C) Echo will help bats in analysing their prey in terms of
(a) size (c) distance
(b) shape (d) colour
(D) Echo will help dolphins to create an image about their prey in terms of:
(a) distance
(b) shape
(c) characteristics
(d) all of these

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

MCQ-I

1. The graph plotted for potential difference (V) against current (I) for ohmic resistors is:
(a) a curve passing through the origin
(b) a straight line not passing through origin,
(c) a straight line passing through origin
(d) a circle centered at the origin.

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of parallel combination of resistors?

(a) If one resistor is fused, the circuit does not become open.
1 1 1 1
(b) The total resistance R is given by the formula = + + +…
R R 1 R 2 R3
(c) The total resistance becomes less than the least resistor, present in the combination.
(d) The current through each resistor always remains the same.

3. 1 C charge means a deficit of electrons.

(a) 1 (c) 6.25 × 1018
(b) 1019 (d) 1.6 × 10-19

4. For Ohmic resistors a graph plotted for potential difference V against current I is a:
(a) straight line (c) line parallel to Y-Axis
(b) curve (d) can be of any shape
5. Unit of specific resistance is:
(a) Ω (c) Ωm-1
(b) ΩΜ (d) Ω-1m

6. A substance of zero resistance at a very low temperature is:

(a) conductor (c) electrolyte
(b) resistor (d) super conductor

7. When the resistance of the combination is to be decreased, they are connected in:
(a) series (c) mixed
(b) parallel (d) in any of the way

8. In the diagram shown, the reading of voltmeter is 20 V and that of ammeter is 4 A. The value of R
should be (Consider given ammeter and voltmeter are not ideal).

(a) Equal to 5 Ω (c) Less than 5 Ω

(b) Greater than 5 Ω (d) Greater or less than 5 Ω

MCQ-II

9. Current is the rate of flow of electric charge while voltage is the electromotive force, which is the
potential difference between two points in an electrical field.
Based on the given information, answer the following questions:

(A) In the circuit shown, resistors R1 and R2 are connected in series with resistances of 15 Ω and
25 Ω, respectively. If the voltage across the resistor R₁ is 10 V, now the value of current that
passes through the resistor R₂ is:
(a) 1.66 A (c) 6.66 A
(b) 2.66 A (d) 0.66 A
(B) Value of voltage across the resistor R₂:
(a) 16.66 V (c) 13.66 V
(b) 12.66 V (d) 11.66 V
10. Resistance of a wire depends on many factors and on nature of conductor.
Based on the given information, answer the following questions:
(A) The resistance of a wire will not depend on:
(a) Length (c) Temperature
(b) Area (d) Volume
(B) Which among the following substances has high resistance?
(a) Silver (c) Rubber
(b) Copper (d) All of these

11. Resistor circuits that combine series and parallel resistors networks together are generally known as
Resistor Combination or mixed resistor circuits. The method of calculating the circuit's equivalent
resistance is the same as that for any individual series or parallel circuit. Based on the above, Answer
the following questions.
(A) In the following figures, which arrangements of resistors have similar resistance between its
terminals?

(B)
(a) (I) and (III) (c) (III) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (I) (d) (I) and (IV)
(C) A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected to two resistors of resistances
3 Ω and 7 Ω in series. Find the current through the battery:
(a) 1 A (c) 3 A
(b) 2 A (d) 4 A

MCQ-III

1. The following diagrams show an electrical circuit containing a battery, fuse, two switches and a
globe. One switch is to enable the circuit for the globe to be opened or closed. The second switch
opens or closes a circuit to bypass the globe.
 (A) In which figure, the switch between the battery and the globe is open?
(a) Fig A (c) Fig C
(b) Fig B (d) Fig D
(B) In which figure, the fuse between the battery and switch is broken?
(a) Fig A (c) Fig C
(b) Fig B (d) Fig D
(C) In which figure, the switch in the bypass circuit is closed?
(a) Fig A (c) Fig C
(b) Fig B (d) Fig D
(D) In which figure, the circuit is in shorted condition?
(a) Fig A (c) Fig C
(b) Fig B (d) Fig D

2. A cell of emf 1.5 V, internal resistance 1 Ω is connected to the resistors of 4 Ω and 20 Ω in series.

(A) The current in the circuit:

(a) 0.06 A (b) 1.06 A
 (c) 0.6 A (d) 10.06 A
(B) The P.D. across each resistor:
(a) 1.50 V, 0.50 V. (c) 1.95 V, 1.50 V
(b) 1.20 V, 0.24 V (d) 2.25 V, 2.75 V
(C) The P.D. across the cell:
(a) 2.75 V (c) 1.44 V
(b) 4.25 V (d) 3.15 V
(D) The voltage drop when the current is flowing:
(a) 0.75 v (c) 0.44 V
(b) 0.25 V (d) 0.06 V

ELECTRICAL POWER & ENERGY

MCQ-I

1. When a current I flows through a resistance R for time t, the electrical energy spent is:
(a) IRt (c) IR²t/t
(b) IR²t (d) I²Rt

2. How many joules are there in one watt- hour?

(a) 3600 J (c) 1000 J
(b) 3.6 × 10⁶ J (d) 1800 J

3. An electric bulb is rated 100 W, 250 V. The electrical energy spent by source of 250 V in lighting this
bulb for one minute is:
(a) 5000 J (c) 4000 J
(b) 6000 J (d) 5500 J

4. An electric heater having resistance equal to 5 Ω is connected to electric source. If the heater
produces 180 J of heat in one second, then the potential difference across the electric heater will be:
(a) 50 V (c) 40 V
(b) 30 V (d) 70 v

5. The electric heating device having resistors that generates heat energy is:
(a) Electric iron (c) Water heater
(b) Electric geyser (d) All of these

6. From which among the following, the elements of electrical heating devices are made?
(
a) Tungsten (b) Nichrome
(e) Bronze (c) Argon

7. When a current i flows through a resistance R for time t, and potential difference V the electrical
energy spent is:
(a) iRt (c) iR²/t
(b) iR²t (d) Vit

8. An electric bulb is rated 200 W, 220 V. The electrical energy spent by source of 220 V in lighting this
bulb for one minute is:
(a) 1200 J (b) 120 J
 (c) 12,000 J (d) 12 J

MCQ-II

9. If an electric geyser consumes electricity at the rate of 1000 W and if the potential difference through
the electric circuit is 250 V, then:
(A) The value of the electric current through the circuit will be:
(a) 1 A (c) 3 A
(b) 2 A (d) 4 A
(B) The resistance offered by geyser will be:
(a) 62.5 Ω (c) 44.5 Ω
(b) 56.5 Ω (d) 76.5 Ω

10. An electric heater draws a current of 8 A and works on 250 volts on an average for 8 hours a day.
Then the:
(A) power consumed by the bulb will be:
(a) 5 kW (c) 4 kW
(b) 2 kW (d) 7 kW
(B) energy dissipated as heat will be:
(a) 3.55 × 10⁶ kJ (c) 5.76 × 10⁴ kJ
(b) 1.75 × 10⁹ kJ (d) 4.25 × 10⁵ kJ

MCQ-III

11. In a flat there are 6 bulbs of 100 W each, a heater of 2 kW and 5 fans of 50 W each which are used
every day as per the order mentioned:
(1) 6 bulbs of 100 W each used 8 h per day
(2) 1 heater of 2 kW used ½ hour daily
(3) 5 fans of 50 W each are used 6 h everyday
(A) The cost of energy consumption for 6 bulbs for a month used 8 h per day at the rate of ₹ 3.50 per
kWh will be:
(a) ₹ 504 (c) ₹ 205
(b) ₹ 306 (d) ₹ 425
(B) The cost of energy consumption of 1 heater for a month used ½ hour daily at the rate of 3.50 per
kWh will be:
(a) ₹ 504 (c) ₹ 105
(b) ₹ 306 (d) ₹ 425
(C) The cost of energy consumption for 5 fans of 50 W each used 6 h every day for a month at the
rate of 3.50 per kWh will be:
(a) ₹ 158 (c) ₹ 278
(b) ₹ 306 (d) ₹ 427
(D) Which among the following appliance will be charged with more cost, if works for a month with
particular hours as mentioned?
(a) 6 bulbs (c) 5 fans
(b) 1 heater (d) none of these

12. State true and false in the following statements.

(A) Electric energy is dependent on time.
(B) Battery creates energy for electrical use.
(C) Fuel of sun is due to nuclear reaction.
13. From the given figures, which of the following is a non-renewable energy?

HOUSEHOLD CIRCUITS

MCQ-I

1. A main switch in the main distribution board is present in:

(a) a live wire (c) a live as well as neutral wire
(b) a neutral wire (d) an each wire.

2. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Live wire has zero potential.
(b) Fuse is connected in a neutral wire.
(c) Potential of live and earth wire is always the same.
(d) Earth wire is used to prevent electric shock.

3. The MCB must be connected in the:

(a) live wire (c) earth wire
(b) neutral wire (d) earth wire or neutral wire

4. According to new sign convention which colour code is used for earth wire:
(a) red (c) blue
(b) green (d) any colour

5. Two fuse wires are rated 5 A and is 15 A. Which one is thicker?

(a) 15 A fuse wire (c) Same thickness
(b) 5 A fuse wire (d) Cannot be determined

6. Fuse wire is always fitted in a porcelain casing because porcelain is:

(a) insulator (c) looks bright
(b) conductor (d) flexible

7. Name the device which is used to protect the electric circuits from overloading and short circuit.
(a) Rheostat (c) MCB
(b) Voltmeter (d) Ammeter
8. Top pin of a three-pin plug is connected to:
(a) live wire (c) neutral wire
(b) earth wire (d) any of the above

9. In household circuits all electrical appliances rare connected in:

(a) series (c) series or parallel any
(b) parallel (d) mixed grouping

10. The rise in temperature of fuse wire depends on:

(a) time for which current flows (c) current flowing
(b) resistance of wire (d) All of above

11. 1 Megawatt = ......................... Watt

(a) 10³ (c) 10⁶
(b) 10² (d) 10⁴

12. An electric bulb is marked 60 W-230 V. What current does it take?

(a) 0.235 A (c) 0.260 A
(b) 0.465 A (d) 0.561 A

MCQ-II

13. A fuse is an electrical safety device built around a conductive strip which is designed to melt and
separate during the time of excessive current.
(A) A fuse wire is always connected to:
(a) live wire (c) earth wire
(b) neutral wire (d) none of these
(B) An electric fuse is based on the principle of:
(a) magnetic effect of current. (c) chemical effect of current
(b) heating effect of current (d) none of these

14. 14. Consider four fuse wires are rated at 4 A, 12 A, 16 A and 20 A.

(A) Which of the wire is thicker?
(a) 4 A (c) 16 A
(b) 12 A (d) 20 A
(B) Which of the wire is longer?
(a) 4 A and 20 A (c) 16 A and 4 A
(b) 12 A and 16 A (d) All of these

MCQ-III

15. Consider the arrangement of fuse with socket and porcelain holder. Based on the figure, answer the
following questions?
 (A) In the figure, alphabet 'C' represents:
(a) live wire (c) earth wire
(b) neutral wire (d) fuse wire
(B) In the figure, alphabets 'D and E' represents to bear
(a) live wire (c) earth wire
(b) neutral wire base (d) fuse wire
(C) In the figure, alphabets A represents: 'A and B'
(a) terminals (c) joint
(b) socket (d) fuse wire base
(D) In the figure, if the current variation in an appliance is shown as 10-13 A, then you should use
fuse of rating. .
a) 15 A (c) 10 A
(b) 15 A (d) 13 A

16. Consider the data in the table shown where current in three different electrical appliances exists if the
appliances are connected to 240 V mains supply. Based on the data shown, answer the following
questions.

(A) Which appliance has the greatest electrical resistance? How does the data show this?
(a) Kettle (c) Toaster
(b) Lamp (d) Lamp and Toaster
(B) The lamp is connected to the mains supply by using a thin, twin-cored cable consisting of live
and neutral wires. What could be the reasons, why the cable should not be used for connecting the
kettle to the mains supply?
(a) Due to less current drawn by kettle
(b) Due to need of earth connection
(c) Due to the large current drawn by kettle
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(C) The power rating of the kettle when it is operated from the 240 V mains supply is:
(a) 5.25 kW (c) 3.54 kW
(b) 2.04 kW (d) 6.15 kW
(D) A man takes the kettle abroad where the mains supply is 120 V. What is the current in the kettle
when it is operated from the 120 V supply?
(a) 4.25 A
(b) 2.25 A
(c) 1.50 A
(d) 6.25 A

ELECTROMAGNETISM

MCQ-I

1. A coil wound around a piece of soft iron can become an electromagnet only when:
(a) the circuit is open
 (b) a magnetic compass is present in the vicinity
(c) a galvanometer is connected to the circuit
(d) a current flow in the circuit.

2. When number of turns in the solenoid increases, magnetic field:

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) may decrease or increase
(d) cannot be determined.

3. Which rule is used to determine the direction of force on a current carrying conductor?
(a) Fleming's right-hand rule
(b) Fleming's left-hand rule
(c) Right hand thumb rule
(d) Any of the above

4. When an electric current is passed through a conducting wire, a magnetic field is produced around it.
This was proved by:
(a) Oersted's experiment
(b) Fleming's experiment
(c) Newton's experiment
(d) Lenz's experiment

5. When the direction of current in the wire is or reversed, the direction of deflection of the compass
needle:
(a) changes
(b) may change
(c) never change
(d) reversed

6. When soft iron rod is placed in the core of solenoid, its magnetic strength:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) may decrease/increase

7. Electromagnet can be demagnetised by:

(a) passing the current
(b) switching off the current
(c) decreasing the current
(d) increasing the number of turns.

8. The diagram below shows a free conductor AB kept in a magnetic field and is carrying current from
A to B. (To avoid confusion complete path of the circuit is not shown) The direction of the force
experienced by the conductor will be:
 (a) up
(b) down
(c) towards N
(d) towards S

9. The diagram below shows a magnet moved near a coil along its axis. Which of the diagram shows
correct flow of current during this motion?

10. A current carrying wire is held over a magnetic needle, such that electric current is passed through it
from south to north direction. Then the north pole of the needle will be deflected towards:
(a) east
(b) west
(c) north
(d) south

11. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight thin walled pipe. Then:
(a) the magnetic field is same at all points, inside the pipe but not zero
(b) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero
(c) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe
(d) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe

MCQ-II

12. In a current carrying circular loop magnetic field lines are concentric circle around its perimeter and
straight at its centre.
 (A) The pattern of the magnetic field due to a circular loop will be:
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) both of these
(d) none of these
(B) The pattern of the magnetic field inside a solenoid will be:
(a) parallel straight lines
(b) parallel circular lines
(c) non-parallel straight lines
(d) zig-zag lines

13. Fleming's Left Hand Rule gives the direction of force experienced by a current carrying conductor
kept in a magnetic field. Based on this, answer the following questions.
(A) Which finger shows the direction of the force acting on the conductor?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(C) Which finger points towards the direction of magnetic field?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

MCQ-III

14. Faraday's law of induction shows how an electric current produces a magnetic field, and changing
magnetic field generates an electric current in a conductor. If a current carrying conductor comes
under a magnetic field, there will be a force acting on conductor whose direction can be found using
Fleming's Left Hand Rule. If a conductor is forcefully brought under a magnetic field, there will be an
induced current in that conductor where direction of induced current be found using Fleming's Right
Hand Rule.

(A) Which rule/law is applied to find direction of a magnetic field produced around a current-
carrying conductor?
(a) Maxwell's Right-Hand Thumb rule
(b) Fleming's left Hand Rule
(c) Fleming's Right Hand Rule
(d) Faraday's law of induction
(B) Which rule/law is applied to find current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field?
(a) Maxwell's Right-Hand Thumb rule
(b) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
(c) Fleming's Right Hand Rule
 (d) Faraday's law of induction
(C) Which rule/law is applied to current induced in a circuit by changing magnetic flux due to the
motion of a magnet?
(a) Maxwell's Right-Hand Thumb rule
(b) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
(c) Fleming's Right Hand Rule
(d) Faraday's law of induction
(D) Which rule/law is applied to find force experienced by current-carrying a straight conductor
placed in a magnetic field perpendicular to it?
(a) Maxwell's Right-Hand Thumb rule
(b) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
(c) Fleming's Right Hand Rule
(d) Faraday's law of induction

15. State whether the following statements are true or false.

(A) North pole brought near a negatively charged stationary conductor will not experience any force.
(B) Vertically moving positive charge will experience force towards left when it leaves a region of
magnetic field directed towards north.
(C) Solenoid expands when current is passed through it.

CALORIMETRY

MCQ-I

1. 200 g of ice at 0°C needs heat to melt. [Specific latent heat of ice = 336000 J/kg]
(a) 6720 J (c) 672000 J
(b) 67200 J (d) 67.2 J

2. If water absorbs 4000 joules heat to increase the temperature of 1 kg water through 1°C then the
specific heat capacity of water is:
(a) 4 J/kg-°C (c) 4 J/g-°C
(b) 400 J/g-°C (d) 4.2 4 J/g-°C

3. Water is used in car radiators because:

(a) It is a good conductor of heat.
(b) It conducts heat faster as compared to the other substances and cools the engine quickly.
(c) Its specific heat capacity is very low.
(d) Its specific heat capacity is very high so it can cool the engine without greater increase in its own
temperature.

4. The relation between heat capacity and specific heat capacity of a substance?
(a) Mass of the substance = heat capacity × Specific Heat capacity
(b) Specific Heat capacity Mass of the substance heat capacity
(c) Heat capacity = Mass of the substance × Specific heat capacity
(d) Specific Heat capacity = Heat capacity

5. To raise 100 grams of water from 40 to 60 °C (specific heat capacity of water is 1 cal/g) requires the
addition of.
(a) 120 calories. (c) 2000 calories.
(b) 1500 calories. (d) 2400 calories.
6. Heat capacity per unit mass of a body is called:
(a) Latent heat (c) Heat energy
(b) Specific heat (d) None of these

7. If 3000 J of heat energy is required to raise the temperature of 5 Kg a metal by 5° C, then which
among the following correctly describes an expression of specific heat capacity?
3000 J 3000 J
(a) (c)
5× 5 kg ° C 5/5 kg ° C
3000 J
(b)
5× 5 kg ° C
5 J
5× 3000 kg ° C
8. 400 g of water at 80°C is mixed with 1 kg of water at 20°C. If specific heat capacity of water is 4200
J/kg K, find the final temperature of the mixture.
(a) 23.25°C
(b) 41.44 °C
(c) 18.52 °C
(d) 37.14 °C

9. The meaning of the statement 'Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kg K' is:
(a) Water needs 4200 J heat to raise its temperature by 1 kelvin.
(b) To raise the temperature of water 4200 J of heat is absorbed.
(c) 1 kg water absorbs 4200 J heat to increase its temperature by 1 kelvin.
(d) 1 kg Water needs 1 kelvin temperature to absorb 4200 J heat.

10. The quantity of heat energy absorbed to increase the temperature is directly proportional to:
(a) mass of the body (m)
(b) Increase in temperature of the body (∆t)
(c) material of the body i.e., c
(d) All of the above

11. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It will overflow:

(a) when heated but not when cooled
(b) when cooled but not when heated
(c) both when heated or cooled
(d) neither when heated nor when cooled

12. Melting point of ice:

(a) increases with increasing pressure
(b) decreases with increasing pressure
(c) is independent of pressure
(d) is independent of characteristic of the substance.

MCQ-II

13. It is observed that when two objects at different temperatures are brought in contact with each other,
energy is transferred from the hotter to the colder object till the bodies reach thermal equilibrium.
 Now if the cane of coca cola and ice cube are brought near each other:
(A) Heat transfer occurs between them, due to difference in:
(a) pressure
(b) temperatures
(c) size
(d) volume
(B) As coca cola and ice cube are in contact with the surrounding, so the ultimate equilibrium
temperature will be that of surroundings ............................. as
(a) less
(b) more
(c) double
(d) same

14. Places around lake will have moderate climate due to large specific heat capacity of water.
(A) If there are fishes in the lake, then fishes will experience ..................................... temperature of
water all through the same from day to night.
(a) low
(b) high
(c) very high
(d) same
(B) During daytime in summers, water from the lake absorbs heat from the surroundings and make
the temperature of surroundings:
(a) low
(b) chilly
(c) high
(d) same

MCQ-III

15. Heat is the transfer of thermal energy between two bodies at different temperatures. Heat flow will
change the energy of the substances. Consider three different cases where we have high temperature
substance (H) and low temperature substances (L). Based on the following information, answer the
following Questions:

(A) The atoms and molecules in substance H will have...................energy than those in substance L
(a) low
(b) high
(c) medium
(d) very high
 (B) If substance H is placed in contact with substance L, then energy will ............................ substance
H to substance L.
(a) flow from
(b) get absorbed
(c) get release from
(d) not be flow in
(C) When the two substances are in contact, then:
(a) temperature of both the substances will increase.
(b) temperature of substance H will decrease, while temperature substance L will increase. of
(c) temperature of substance H will increase, while temperature of substance L will decrease.
(d) temperature of both the substances will decrease.
(D) When the two substances are in contact, then:
(a) there will be no heat flow
(b) there will be flow of heat
(c) heat will absorb by substance H
(d) none of these

16. Raju on walking on a beach happens to find an unknown piece of metal. He brought the metal piece
to his school lab, where he got the piece checked by lab assistant. The lab assistant measures the mass
of unknown metal piece and found it as 0.5 kg. The lab assistant shows the chart as shown to Raju
where there are different substances with their values of specific heat. With the data given, answer the
following questions. (To heat the metal by 1°K, add 115 J of heat).

(A) Identify the metal

(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Platinum
(d) Silver
(B) How many Joules of heat would be required to heat 0.5 kg of aluminium by 2K?
(a) 300 J
(b) 450 J
(c) 900 J
(d) 1800 J
(C) If 130 J of energy were added to 1 kg of each of these samples, which among the following will
experience highest increase in temperature?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Brass
(c) Copper
(d) Platinum
(D) Which sample of copper will show maximum increase in temperature, if 500 J of energy were
added to the sample?
 (a) 0.5 kg
(b) 1.0 kg
(c) 1.5 kg
(d) 2.0 kg

RADIOACTIVITY

MCQ-I

1. The heaviest nuclear radiation

(a) X-radiation (c) γ-radiation
(b) α-radiation-bun (d) β-radiation

2. To study the age of excavated material of archeological significance we study the rate of decay of
an isotope of:
(a) Carbon (c) Carbon
(b) Cobalt (d) Chlorine

3. The radiation with maximum penetrating power is:

(a) γ (c) X-radiation
(b) β (d) α

4. The nuclear radiation which gets deflected towards negatively charged plate in an electric field is:
(a) Gamma (c) Beta
(b) Ultraviolet (d) Alpha

5. Which atomic particle has a negative charge?

(a) Electron (c) Neutron
(b) Proton (d) None of these

6. What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it undergoes beta
decay?
(a) The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2.
(b) The mass number does not change and the atomic number decreases by 2.
(c) Neither the mass number nor the atomic number change.
(d) The mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 1.

7. The least penetrating radiation is:

(a) α-particles (c) γ-radiations
(b) β-particles (d) X-rays

8. Which of the following has least ionization power?

(a) α-particles
(b) β-particles
(c) γ-radiations
(d) All radiations have same ionisation power

9. By emitting an electron, a neutron may change into a

(a) beta particle (c) proton
(b) positron (d) no change
10. Rest mass of α-particle:
(a) 6.68 × 10-27 kg (c) 9.1 × 10-31 kg
(b) 2.7 × 10-21 kg (d) zero

11. The speed of γ-radiations is about:

(a) 10⁷ m/s (c) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
(b) 2.7 × 10⁸ m/s (d) 2 × 10⁷ m/s

12. An element X having atomic number 7 and atomic mass 15 emits 1 proton and 2β particles and
forms element Y. Atomic number and atomic mass y respectively.
(a) 7, 15 (c) 6, 17
(b) 7, 14 (d) 8, 14

MCQ-II

13. The nucleus contains the majority of an atom's mass because protons and neutrons are much
heavier than electrons, whereas electrons occupy almost all of an atom's volume. A certain
nucleus has a mass number 20 and atomic number 9.
(A) The number of neutrons present in it is:
(a) 9 (c) 11
(b) 20 (d) 10
(B) The number of protons present in it is:
(a) 9 (c) 11
(b) 20 (d) 10

14. A radioactive atom possesses an unstable nucleus which shows that radioactive atoms emit
radiations sooner or later and converts into stable state. At the time the types of radiation that may
be emitted are alpha (α), beta (β) and gamma (γ) radiation.

Experimental evidence shows that if radiations given out by radioactive substance are subjected to an
electric field perpendicular to their path, they separate into three constituents. Based on the
information, answer the questions.
(C) Identify A in given figure?
(a) alpha rays (c) gamma rays
(b) beta rays (d) cosmic rays
(D) Identify B in given figure?
(a) alpha rays (b) beta rays
 (c) gamma rays (d) cosmic rays

MCQ-III

15. Alpha, beta, and gamma emissions have different abilities to penetrate matter. Answer the
following questions based on the diagram shown below.

(E) Identify the B in given figure.

(a) Alpha ray (c) Gamma ray
(b) Beta ray (d) Neutrons
(F) Identify the A in given figure.
(a) Alpha ray (c) Beta ray
(b) Gamma ray (d) Neutrons
(G) Identify the D in given figure.
(a) alpha ray (c) X ray
(b) Beta ray (d) Neutrons
(H) Identify the C in given figure.
(a) Alpha ray
(b) Beta ray
(c) X ray
(d) Neutrons