UNIVER

SITY OF

EXAM BANK FOR HI-EXIT

EXAM SELECTED COURSES

E-HEALTH
What is the core concept of eHealth?

a) Replacing all traditional healthcare with technology

b) Using information and communication technologies to support healthcare

c) Focusing solely on electronic medical records

d) Reducing the need for healthcare professionals

Which of these is NOT a primary goal of eHealth?

a) Improving global access to healthcare

b) Increasing reliance on technology, regardless of the need.

c) Enhancing the efficiency of healthcare services

d) Improving healthcare information management

What does "interoperability" in eHealth refer to?

a) The ability of systems to be used in all locations

b) The ability of different systems to communicate and exchange data effectively

c) The capacity to operate with any hardware

d) The capability to be used by any type of user

An eHealth system's architecture encompasses:

a) Only the hardware components

b) Only the software applications

c) Both the hardware and software components and how they interact

d) Only the network infrastructure

Which of the following is NOT considered a component of eHealth Architecture?

a)Shared Services

b)Institutional Based HIS & Data Source

c)Interoperability Service

d)Social Media Platform

eHealth Systems (mHealth, EHR, Telehealth)

mHealth primarily uses:

a) Stationary computers in hospitals

b) Mobile devices and wireless technologies

c) High-speed internet networks in urban areas

d) Paper-based record systems

Which of the following is a key advantage of mHealth?

a) Requiring a complex system

b) Limited reach in rural areas

c) Accessibility, portability, and personalized communication

d) High cost associated with the devices

An Electronic Health Record (EHR) is best described as:

a) A paper-based patient chart

b) A digital patient record maintained over time

c) A system for managing clinic appointments

d) A medical billing system

Which statement BEST describes the benefit of an EHR?

a) It increases the workload of health professionals

b) It reduces the risk of medical errors through better data access

c) It makes it difficult to share patient information between systems

d) It increases the cost and complexity of health care

Telehealth primarily involves:

a) Physical appointments in a hospital

b) Providing healthcare services at a distance via technology

c) Monitoring exercise and dietary habits

d) Dispensing medications

What is the main goal of telemedicine?

a) To replace all in person healthcare services

b) To provide healthcare services when there is a long distance or space barrier

c) To allow for more efficient record keeping

d) To be a cheaper alternative to face-to-face visits

What distinguishes Telehealth from mHealth?

a) Telehealth only involves mobile devices, while mHealth involves fixed computer.

b) Telehealth is a broader term that includes mHealth, while mHealth only involves mobile devices

c) mHealth is a broad term that involves telehealth

d) Telehealth has the sole purpose of keeping medical records

What does RPM stand for in the context of eHealth?

a) Radio Patient Monitoring

b) Remote Patient Monitoring

c) Real-time Patient Management

d) Routine Population Measurements

Which of the following is an example of an asynchronous form of Telemedicine?

a) Live video consultation

b) Telephone follow up visit

c) Emailing of an X-Ray for review by a Radiologist

d) Face-to-face examination

Opportunities and Challenges of eHealth

A primary opportunity of eHealth is:

a) Increased cost of healthcare

b) Improved patient engagement, data analysis, and coordination of care

c) Reliance on paper based records

d) Increasing barriers to access care

Which of the following is a significant challenge for eHealth implementation?

a) Limited patient access to medical advice

b) Data privacy and security concerns

c) Decreased efficiency of communication

d) Lack of data analytics

Which of these factors

ors

is a challenge associated with mHealth implementation in developing countries?

a) Widespread use of smart phones

b) The abundance of technical support staff

c) Limited access to reliable internet connectivity

d) High literacy rates

A main concern related to the development of Electronic Health records (EHR) system is?

a) Lack of need for standardization.

b) Poor data sharing among different systems.

c) The cost associated with the software and hardware.

d) Patient reluctance to use them

Which of the following is NOT a common challenge in implementing telemedicine programs?

a) Lack of interoperability among technology systems

b) Data security and privacy issues

c) High bandwidth requirements

d) Widespread adoption of telemedicine programs

Global and Local eHealth Experiences

Which country is often cited as a leader in eHealth adoption?

a) Ethiopia

b) The United States

c) India

d) European Union

In developing nations, eHealth initiatives often focus on:

a) Advanced surgical techniques

b) High-tech research

c) Improving primary healthcare access, especially in rural areas

d) Replacing all existing health facilities with online systems

A key area of focus for eHealth projects in Ethiopia, according to the reading?

a) Promoting health tourism

b) Development of new medications

c) Improving Health Extension Workers (HEWs) effectiveness and priority health areas

d) Building high tech research facilities

What does the term "pilot stage" refer to in the context of health call centers in the WHO survey results?

a) Full implementation of the call center programs.

b) The testing of call center initiatives

c) The evaluation stage for the call center program

d) The creation of all the needed documentation

According to a survey mentioned in the course, the rate of adoption of mobile telemedicine has the
highest success in:

a) Africa
b) European Region

c) South-East Asia

d) Americas

eHealth Architecture and Standards

What is the purpose of an eHealth architecture diagram?

a) To create new healthcare services

b) To create a visual of how eHealth systems are connected and interact

c) To replace existing healthcare facilities

d) To analyze patient data

Which of the following is NOT a necessary objective of eHealth architecture as stated in the reading?

a) Maximize IT investments

b) Improve data security

c) Maintain eHealth Architecture Roadmap

d) Maximize ICT resource utilization

What is the primary purpose of establishing eHealth standards?

a) To cause interoperability issues

b) To create barriers to data exchange

c) To ensure that all systems use different methods of data storage

d) To promote interoperability, data exchange, and quality of care

The DICOM standard mainly deals with

a) Electronic health records

b) Clinical messaging

c) Medical image communication

d) Medical laboratory data

HL7 standard is mainly used for

a) Medical image communication

b) Clinical data exchange

c) Medical lab data exchange

d) Managing inventory of equipment

Which level of the OSI Model does HL7 refer to?

a) Physical Layer

b) Application Layer

c) Data Link Layer

d) Transport layer

What does "De Facto" refers to in relation to standard development?

a) Standardized by legal entities

b) Arises when an entity controls enough of the market to become a norm.

c) Standardized when people agree on a specification

d) The standard was derived from a government mandate

Which of these is NOT a category for the data standard need?

a) vocabulary standards
b) structure and content standards

c) Messaging standards

d) Financial Standards

Mobile Devices & Technology

Mobile technology, in the context of eHealth, refers to

a) Only mobile phones

b) Only tablets

c) Hand held devices, including mobile phones, tablets, etc.

d) Any device connected to a network

Which of the following best describes "roaming" in mobile phones?

a) The ability of phones to use the Internet

b) The process of setting up a new mobile phone

c) The ability to use a phone in mult

iple countries

d) A way to check for missed calls

What is the function of the SIM card in a GSM mobile phone?

a) To allow the phone to connect to the internet

b) To store all contact information

c) To allow an account to be swapped among devices

d) To enable the phone camera

What is an IMEI number of a mobile phone?

a) The phone number

b) The sim card number

c) The unique identifier of the device

d) The pin to secure the device

When considering the Input mechanism, a keypad of a phone is best used for which input?

a) Writing an essay

b) Writing a professional email

c) Writing short text messages

d) Numerical data entry

mHealth Program & Projects

The term mHealth is best defined as:

a) A set of new medical equipment

b) Mobile marketing for hospitals

c) The use of mobile devices to support medicine and public health

d) A type of electronic medical record system

Which of the following is NOT a motivation for the development of mHealth?

a) High population growth

b) Lack of technology

c) Low health care workforce

d) Large number of rural inhabitants

What is the main purpose of mobile treatment compliance?

a) To keep data about the health condition

b) To help medical personnel comply with medication protocols

c) To give patients medical information

d) To help patients follow their medical care/advice

What do mobile appointment reminders aim to do?

a) To schedule in person appointments for patients

b) To assist the doctor in scheduling appointments

c) To send messages to patients to schedule or attend appointments

d) To send messages to providers to cancel appointments

Which is the most utilized feature of a mobile phone for mHealth programs?

a) The mobile phone camera

b) The mobile internet browser

c) SMS capabilities

d) The mobile calculator

According to the reading, which continent has the lowest level of mobile health activity?

a) Europe

b) South America

c) Africa

d) Asia
Telemedicine & Telehealth

The term Telecare refers to:

a) The care of patients with Telecommunication devices

b) The care of patients by Telecommunication experts

c) The remote care of elderly or vulnerable people using technology.

d) The care of patients through online consultations

A real-time videoconference consultation between a doctor and patient is an example of what type of
Telemedicine?

a) Telesurgery

b) Telemonitoring

c) Teleconsultation

d) Store and Forward

Which telemedicine technology is particularly useful in rural communities?

a) All of them, but they require a specific infrastructure

b) Telesurgery

c) Tele-radiology

d) Teleconsultation and tele-monitoring

What does "store-and-forward" telemedicine involve?

a) Live audio-video consultation between two parties

b) The use of a mobile device to transmit data

c) The transmission of patient information for review at a later time

d) The immediate treatment of emergencies

Which of these is an objective when thinking about equipment requirements for telemedicine?

a) To utilize the same equipment for all consultations.

b) To only utilize high end technology.

c) To consider the nature of the information that is being transmitted

d) To utilize technology that does not require specific training

Why is it important to ensure technology interoperability in a Telemedicine setting?

a) To reduce the cost of setting up telemedicine programs

b) To allow all technology to be compatible regardless of the make

c) To improve patient care

d) To improve efficiency in a Telemedicine program

What is the main advantage of utilizing Real-time TM services?

a) The need to schedule visits

b) The ability for quick turn around

c) The need to synchronize visits

d) The ability to capture data without the presence of a medical professional

Which of the following is considered the best method of transmission in Telemedicine?

a) Fax

b) Electronic data transfer

c) Standard mail

d) Hand delivery

ADBMS
Questions from Chapter 6 (Backup and Restore Database)

What is the primary purpose of a database backup strategy?

a) To speed up database performance

b) To ensure data can be recovered in a disaster

c) To reduce the size of the database

d) To simplify database queries

Before taking a backup of a database, what should be set up first?

a) Database indexes

b) Database tables

c) Database recovery model

d) Database permissions

Which database property setting determines the types of database backups available?

a) Database compatibility level

b) Database recovery model

c) Database collation

d) Database schema

In SQL Server, which recovery model logs all database changes to the transaction log?

a) Simple recovery
b) Bulk-logged recovery

c) Full recovery

d) No recovery

Which recovery model is suitable for a database that is rarely changed?

a) Full recovery

b) Bulk-logged recovery

c) Simple recovery

d) All recovery models are suitable

Which backup type backs up the whole database?

a) Differential backup

b) Transaction Log Backup

c) Full database backup

d) File backup

A differential backup captures changes since:

a) The last differential backup

b) The last full backup

c) The last transaction log backup

d) The last incremental backup

A differential backup cannot exist until which other type of backup is taken?

a) Transaction log backup

b) File backup
c) Full backup

d) Differential backup

In a restore, which backup needs to be restored first?

a) Transaction log backup

b) Differential backup

c) Full backup

d) Incremental backup

What does a tail log transaction log backup capture?

a) All committed transactions in a database

b) All transactions since the last full backup

c) All transactions since the last transaction log backup

d) All incomplete transaction

What is the first step to take in a corrupted database restore process (as listed)?

a) Rollback the database

b) Take a final transaction log backup

c) Recover from last full backup

d) Take a differential backup

If you only have a full backup, which type of backup do you restore?

a) Full backup only

b) Differential backup

c) Transaction log backup

d) Incremental backup

If you have a full backup and differential backup, which do you restore first?

a) Differential backup

b) Transaction log backup

c) Full backup

d) Does not matter

Which of these backup types are available in the Bulk Logged recovery model

a) Full and Differential only

b) Full and Transaction Log only

c) Full, Differential and Transaction log

d) Differential and Transaction log only

Which of these backup types are available in the Full recovery model

a) Full and Differential only

b) Full and Transaction Log only

c) Full, Differential and Transaction log

d) Differential and Transaction log only

Which of these backup types are available in the simple recovery model

a) Full and Differential only

b) Full and Transaction Log only

c) Full, Differential and Transaction log

d) Differential and Transaction log only

In what order would you generally restore a full, differential and transaction log backup?

a) Differential, Full, Transaction log

b) Full, Differential, Transaction Log

c) Transaction log, Differential, Full

d) Differential, Transaction log, Full

What is the function of the transaction log?

a) It stores all the data in the database

b) It stores information on all the transactions that have occurred

c) It is only used for storing table information

d) It stores all images in the database

What is the main purpose of recovery models?

a) To improve performance

b) To set the collation of the database

c) To determine the type of backups that you can perform

d) To manage the users of the database

Which of these is a characteristic of full backups?

a) They are quicker than differential backups.

b) They only back up changes to the

datab

abase.

c) They are the starting point for most database backup and recovery procedures.
d) They don’t take up as much storage space

Questions from Chapter 3 (Concurrency Control Techniques)

What does concurrency in database terms mean?

a) Data stored in a centralized location

b) Data being accessed by single user

c) Multiple transactions being processed simultaneously

d) A single user reading data

What is a primary advantage of concurrency?

a) Reduced resource utilization

b) Increased throughput

c) Increased waiting time for transactions

d) Data loss prevention

Why is concurrency control needed in a multi-user database environment?

a) To reduce database storage

b) To increase database access speed

c) To prevent interference and data loss

d) To improve SQL queries

Which technique is a common approach to control concurrency?

a) Data compression

b) Data normalization
c) Data Locking

d) Query optimization

What is a lock in the context of concurrency control?

a) A key used for encryption

b) A variable that describes the status of a data item

c) A method of grouping data

d) A method to validate access to a server

What does a Shared or read (S) lock indicate?

a) The data is locked for write operations

b) The data is locked for both read and write operations

c) The data is locked for a single reader

d) Multiple transactions can read the data item

What does an exclusive or write (X) lock indicates?

a) The data can be read only by multiple users

b) The data is exclusively locked for a write operation

c) The data is available for multiple write operations

d) The data is only locked for short periods of time

What is a blocking lock?

a) A lock that prevents all access to the database

b) A lock where processes wait for access to a resource.

c) A lock that forces a rollback

d) A lock that speeds up the read and write operations

What is a deadlock situation?

a) When multiple transactions complete without error

b) When two or more processes hold locks that the other needs

c) A lock that waits forever

d) An error in which a query does not produce any results

What action does SQL server take when a deadlock is detected?

a) Immediately cancels all transactions

b) Automatically resolves it by rolling back the cheapest transaction

c) Pauses and notifies a database administrator

d) Forces all processes to wait

What is granularity in a database context?

a) The data access speed

b) The security level of data

c) The size of data items

d) The complexity of database structure

What is the purpose of Multiple granularity level locking?

a) To improve query speed

b) To allow data items of different sizes

c) To simplify the database structure

d) To use only single level locking

 Intention locks are used in

a) Single level locking

b) Multiple granularity level locking

c) Read only operations

d) When a deadlock occurs

Which of these is NOT a benefit of concurrency?

a) Increased processor and disk utilization

b) Increased waiting time

c) Reduced waiting time for transactions

d) Better transaction throughput

Which is NOT a potential consequence of simultaneous manipulation of data in multiuser

environment?

a) Data interference

b) Data loss

c) Data consistency

d) Data integrity

What type of lock allows for multiple readers but no writers?

a) Exclusive Lock

b) Shared lock

c) Intention lock

d) Both exclusive and shared lock

 What happens if a process needs a lock that is already held by another process?

a) The process continues by reading the uncommitted data

b) The process waits for the lock to be released.

c) The process is automatically rolled back

d) The process immediately errors

In Multiple Granularity level locking, at what level can lock be requested?

a) Table or row

b) Column or row

c) Database, page, object, key

d) Data type or row

Why are intention locks used in multiple granularity level locking?

a) To allow data items of only a specific size to be locked

b) To improve the speed of locking a data item

c) To allow th

e appropriate type of lock to be applied at a higher level

d) To prevent access to data

If a database transaction only reads, and never updates information, what is the likely result
related to integrity?

a) Data Loss will be likely

b) Data interference is highly likely

c) No data integrity issue will be encountered

d) Data will need to be backed up immediately

Questions from Chapter 4 (Database Security and Authorization)

What is database security primarily concerned with?

a) Optimizing query speed

b) Protecting database data from loss or unauthorized access

c) Reducing database storage space

d) Managing user passwords

Which of the following is NOT a database security mechanism?

a) Authentication

b) Authorization

c) Backup and Restore

d) Encryption

What does "authentication" achieve?

a) Determines what data and actions user is allowed to perform

b) Establishes if a user is who they claim to be

c) Encrypts sensitive information in the database

d) Manages the connection status to the server

Which of the following is a mechanism used to obtain positive identification of the user?

a) Data encryption

b) Server roles

c) Strong authentication using biometrics

d) Permissions
What is the purpose of "authorization"?

a) Determining a user's identity

b) Granting the user rights and access privileges

c) Encrypting database information

d) Setting database server settings

In authorization, what is "GRANT"?

a) To remove privileges

b) To check the validity of privileges

c) To assign or give privileges

d) To prevent privileges

In authorization, what does "DENY" achieve?

a) to remove privileges

b) to assign privileges

c) to give privileges

d) to prevent privileges

What is a "security principal" in the database context?

a) An encryption key

b) An object or person that needs access to the database

c) The database server

d) An account created with no password

Which of these are NOT categorized as principles?

a) Logins

b) Users

c) Permissions

d) Roles

What are Windows-level principals used for?

a) Managing SQL Server logins

b) Managing database schemas

c) Managing access on a windows system

d) Managing application roles

What are server-level principals?

a) Access to a database

b) Access to all databases

c) Access to a server

d) Access to tables

Which is NOT a database level principal?

a) Database user

b) Database role

c) Server role

d) Database user mapped to SQL Server login

SQL Server logins is equivalent to

 a) User logins

b) Database logins

c) Server logins

d) Application logins

In mixed-mode authentication what type of account can login?

a) Only window account

b) Only SQL Server accounts

c) Either windows or SQL server accounts

d) Application login only

What happens when you change the authentication mode?

a) The server stops

b) The server will need to be backed up

c) The server needs to be restarted to apply

d) Nothing happens

The SQL Server sa login has what access?

a) access only to database security

b) Access to specific databases

c) Has access to limited server functions

d) Full access to the server

In order to allow SQL Server sa account to login to the SQL Server instance what do you need to
do?

a) Nothing, it is enabled by default

b) Ensure it is enabled in the properties

c) A specific command must be run to enable it

d) Ensure it is not blocked in a user configuration file

Which of the following is a way to create a SQL server login account?

a) Using SSMS

b) Using a command line

c) Both of the options provided

d) Only by changing existing logins

Which SQL commands is used to grant permission?

a) REVOKE

b) PERMIT

c) GRANT

d) DENY

Which SQL commands is used to remove permissions?

a) REVOKE

b) PERMIT

c) GRANT

d) DENY

Questions from Chapter 5 (Designing SQL Server Indexes)

What are the two primary methods SQL Server uses to access data?
a) Through encrypted or decrypted data

b) Via data page or user page

c) Using an index or a table scan

d) Through a schema or table

What

is the role of an index in SQL Server?

a) To store data

b) To manage table schemas

c) To search data more quickly

d) To back up data

How does a data page impact the performance of an index?

a) Data page has no impact

b) Determines how much data can be stored on a page

c) Data page determines the access to specific data

d) Data pages can encrypt or decrypt data

What structure does SQL server use to build and maintain the indexes?

a) Circular Queue

b) Binary Search algorithm

c) Balanced tree data structure

d) Linear Search algorithm

What is the characteristic of a B-tree structure?

a) It is a non-linear structure

b) It is designed for simple sorting.

c) It is a symmetric, linear structure

d) It has very complex architecture.

What is a unique characteristic of an index root page?

a) It can have multiple root pages

b) There is only one of them per index structure.

c) It is only required in indexes with large datasets.

d) It is the location where data is actually stored

What type of structure can be associated to the leaf levels?

a) The root and intermediate levels

b) The root, intermediate and leaf levels

c) The root and leaf levels

d) The intermediate and leaf levels

In a table scan, SQL server does the following:

a) reads only the required data

b) reads all indexes

c) reads all data pages

d) reads specific indexes

Which of these is a best practice when considering indexes?

a) Only create indexes on attributes that are rarely updated.

b) Only create indexes on frequently updated columns.

c) Do not create indexes on primary keys

d) Create indexes on all columns to maximize searching performance

Why do tables with indexes take more time to update?

a) Because the data also needs to be updated in the index

b) Because the server must analyze the index first

c) Because the data must be compressed to be updated

d) Because multiple keys must be analyzed.

Clustered indexes are automatically created on:

a) Foreign key columns

b) Secondary key columns

c) Primary key columns

d) unique columns

Which of these is a characteristic of a clustered index?

a) There can be multiple of them per table

b) It does not provide a good searching ability

c) It allows rows to be stored in a logical order

d) It makes data available out of order

Where is data stored in a clustered index?

a) In the intermediate level

b) In the root level nodes

c) In all levels of the structure

d) In the leaf level nodes

Non clustered indexes are primarily created on:

a) Primary keys

b) Unique and Secondary keys

c) Columns with frequent updates

d) Columns in which data is rarely searched against

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Nonclustered indexes?

a) It does not enforce any sort order

b) Multiple can be created per table

c) Leaf level of index provides pointer to the table

d) It is the same as the table data

What is fragmentation?

a) When index pages are not used

b) When index pages do not provide pointers

c) When index pages split over time

d) When indexes are very large

What does external fragmentation mean?

a) When data is split over multiple servers

b) When data in pages are not full

c) When pages are not in a logical sequence

d) When data is split over multiple drives

What is a method of detecting data fragmentation?

a) By using the system monitor

b) By using data explorer

c) Using index properties in the SQL Server Management Studio

d) By using a profiler

Which command can be used to remove data fragmentation?

a) ALTER TABLE

b) ALTER INDEX

c) CHECK INDEX

d) UPDATE INDEX

If you disable a clustered index the following happens to a table:

a) Nothing, the data is still accessible

b) Only the index data is not accessible

c) All data becomes inaccessible

d) Only data in that index is not accessible

OOP
Questions from Chapter 1 (Introduction to Object-Oriented Programming)

Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) primarily organizes a program around:

a) Functions and procedures

b) Data structures and algorithms

c) Data objects and methods

d) Sequential instructions

What is the first step in developing a program using OOP?

a) Defining the programming language

b) Identifying the objects and their interactions

c) Designing data structures

d) Setting up the development environment

Which of the following is NOT considered a fundamental concept of OOP?

a) Encapsulation

b) Inheritance

c) Polymorphism

d) Sequential flow

In OOP, what is a "class"?

a) A specific data value

b) A collection of variable types

c) A template or blueprint for creating objects

d) A function or routine

What does an "object" represent in OOP?

a) A class definition

b) A blueprint for data

c) An instance of a class

d) A method declaration

Inheritance in OOP is used to:

a) Secure data in the application

b) Redefine functions in a class

c) Reuse and organize code through a hierarchy

d) Implement new interfaces

What is a characteristic of the "subclass"?

a) It cannot use any of the parents functionality

b) It always replaces the parent class.

c) It inherits all properties and behaviors from the superclass

d) The superclass inherits from it

Polymorphism in OOP relates to:

a) Multiple inheritance

b) A single method that can behave differently across different classes

c) A mechanism to abstract all data

d) A single object to represent multiple data types

Which of the following describes the “Is-A” relationship?

a) A class can have many instances

b) A method can have multiple names

c) A subclass is considered to be a type of superclass.

d) Two unrelated classes can share an interface

What is a primary purpose of Abstraction in OOP?

a) To increase data visibility

b) To hide implementation details from the user

c) To speed up program execution

d) To manage complex class hierarchies

What does encapsulation mean in OOP?

a) Grouping data and methods within a class

b) Inheriting class attributes and behaviors

c) Creating different forms of a same method

d) Defining the data types

Which is NOT a common OOP programming language?

a) Java

b) C#

c) SQL

d) C++
What is a key benefit of Java?

a) It is always platform dependent

b) It always has to be re-written to run on new devices

c) You can write a program once and run it anywhere

d) It is not an object-oriented language

Which of the following does NOT relate to a Java application?

a) Requires JVM

b) Can be directly executed by a JVM

c) Can only run within a web browser

d) Java Development Kit

What does the Java Development Kit (JDK) do?

a) It is used to only test Java applications

b) It is the runtime environment

c) It is used for development, running and testing Java programs

d) It is only used to compile source code

Which of the following is NOT a type of Java Editions?

a) Java Standard Edition (JSE)

b) Java Enterprise Edition (JEE)

c) Java Micro Edition (JME)

d) Java Data Edition(JDE)

The Java Virtual Machine (JVM) does the following:

a) It is the platform specific set of libraries

b) It provides a Java runtime environment that executes bytecode

c) It directly compiles the Java source code

d) It is used for compiling but not running the code

A Java program should be save with what type of extension?

a) java_program

b) .java

c) .class

d) .jar

Which of the following is not a correct order to perform actions of a program?

a) Compile then execute

b) Write then compile then execute

c) Write, then load then execute

d) Write, compile, load and verify then execute

Questions from Chapter 2 (Basics in Java Programming)

What is the name of the Java program file extension?

a) .class

b) .java

c) .prog

d) .exe
What is the first letter that a class name should start with?

a) Lowercase letter

b) Uppercase letter

c) Number

d) Any special Character

Which of these is NOT true of the Java Syntax?

a) Method names start with lowercase

b) Package names start with lowercase

c) Constant variable names should be in uppercase

d) Java is case sensitive

What do "keywords" represent in Java programming?

a) User defined variables

b) Reserved words with a specific meaning

c) Class names

d) File names

Which of these is NOT a Java Keyword?

a) Public

b) for

c) char

d) Name

What are identifiers in Java?

a) Special characters

b) Numbers that are part of code

c) Reserved words with specific meaning

d) Names given to classes, variables, etc.

Which is NOT true of identifiers?

a) Start with a letter

b) Begin with an underscore

c) Can begin with a digit

d) Case sensitive

What is the purpose of comments in Java code?

a) They are used to define Java keywords

b) They are used for Java compilation

c) They are used for adding documentation and explanation

d) They are part of the class definition

Which of these is a way of creating a comment?

a) {...}

b) /* ...

c) //....

d) %...%

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Data Type?

a) Int
b) Float

c) Class

d) Double

Which operator is used to assign a value to a variable?

a) ==

b) =

c) !=

d) %

What is the "==" relational operator used for?

a) Assigning values

b) Comparing values for equality

c) Not equal

d) Checking relational state

What does the "String concatenation operator" (+) do?

a) Adds numerical value

b) Combines two or more String objects

c) Subtracts values from a String

d) Divides a String

Which method displays a new line output in the console?

a) print()

b) println()
c) printf()

d) out()

The java.lang package contains:

a) only user defined classes

b) only external classes

c) Only implicitly imported classes

d) only I/O classes

Which of the following is NOT a primitive type?

a) int

b) char

c) boolean

d) String

Which of the following is the simplified syntax for declaring a variable?

a) variableName dataType

b) dataType variableName

c) variableName = dataType

d) All the options

Which of the following is a correct way to initialize a variable?

a) int age

b) int age = 20

c) int age: 20
d) int age[20]

What does "case sensitive" mean for identifiers?

a) The identifiers have no capitalization

b) Capital and lowercase letters can be used interchangeably

c) Capital letters are prioritized over lowercase

d) Identifiers must match capitalization

Where should the package statement exist?

a) Before any classes

b) After class definitions

c) Within a class

d) Outside all classes

Questions from Chapter 7 (Abstract Classes and Interfaces)

What is the purpose of an abstract class?

a) To create instances of its self

b) To use a generic template that declares properties and behaviors without defining them.

c) To provide security for methods

d) To reduce run time of a program

What makes an abstract class abstract?

a) It is created with the keyword “abstract”

b) It only contains final classes

c) It is inherited from other interfaces

d) It does not allow multiple inheritances

What happens when a class inherits from an abstract class with an abstract method?

a) The subclass must also be abstract

b) The subclass does not need to provide any implementation

c) The subclass must provide a concrete implementation of the abstract method.

d) The subclass only adds new variables

Which of the following is true of an abstract method?

a) Can only exist in a normal class

b) Must have a method body to implement it

c) Cannot have private or static

modifiers

d) Does not provide an implementation (method bodies)

Which keyword is used to define a method as “abstract”?

a) Virtual

b) Final

c) Abstract

d) Static

What happens if you try to create an object of an abstract class directly?

a) It can easily be created

b) The object will not be able to use methods

c) It will not cause any error

d) It produces a compile error

What is an interface in Java?

a) A data structure

b) A type of file system

c) A class like construct that defines only constants and abstract methods.

d) A way to handle exception errors

What is a limitation of interfaces prior to Java 8?

a) They can not specify methods

b) They can not specify concrete methods.

c) They could only have static methods

d) They could not contain variables

Which is NOT a characteristic of an Interface?

a) It can be used to create an instance of itself

b) It is used for shared functionality

c) It can be used to create objects of its implementing subclasses

d) They can not specify data

When do you typically use an Interface?

a) When using an unrelated class that does not share a similar type

b) When using related class that share common type

c) When an object must be a certain data type

d) When classes need to implement different methods

Which keywords is used to define an interface?

a) Abstract

b) Implements

c) Interface

d) Public

What does the implements keyword signify?

a) Defines what a class does

b) Shows a classes relationship with another class

c) Allows a class to implement an interface

d) Defines what a method is

Which is NOT correct of an interface method?

a) All methods are implicitly public

b) All methods are abstract

c) It can have an implemented method

d) It may not include instance variables

If a class implements an interface, what needs to occur?

a) They need to be private

b) Must have all methods defined in the interface to be implemented in the class

c) Must be from an abstract class

d) Must not have any additional attributes

How do you call a method through an interface reference?

a) It depends on the declared type

b) It depends on the actual instance type.

c) It does not allow this to be done

d) It will always call the methods in the interface

What is the main difference between an abstract class and interface in regards to variables?

a) They have no variables.

b) They must be declared final

c) The variables in an interface are public and static final.

d) They both have the same characteristics

What is the difference between interface and abstract class in terms of constructors?

a) They both must have constructors

b) They both cannot have constructors

c) Interface do not have constructors, abstract classes may or may not

d) Abstract classes do not have constructors

What is the difference between inheritance of abstract classes and interfaces?

a) They both cannot support inheritance

b) Abstract classes support multiple, interfaces only single

c) Abstract classes support single inheritance, interface multiple inheritance

d) They both support the same form of inheritance

Can you create a reference variable of the interface type?

a) No

b) Only if the implemented classes has the method

c) Yes

d) Yes, if the class does not have a main method

Can you create an instance of an interface directly?

a) Yes

b) Only if there are no methods

c) No

d) Yes if there is also a constructor

Questions from Chapter 5 (Introduction to Methods, Classes and Objects)

What is a method in Java?

a) A variable type

b) A way to define classes

c) A collection of statements to perform an action

d) A method to access classes

What is a characteristic of "instance methods"?

a) They can only be invoked inside other methods

b) They are defined with the static modifier

c) They are known as a class method

d) They are defined without a non-access modifier

Which of the following does not apply to method?

a) They do not require local variables

b) Can have parameters

c) Can have a return type

d) They must have a

ve a body

Which statement is true of a method definition?

a) The parameters are optional

b) It must have a return value type

c) It must have a public modifier

d) It must always have a local variable

What is the difference between "formal parameters" and "arguments"?

a) There is no difference

b) Formal parameters are used at method call time and arguments at declaration

c) Arguments are used at method call time and formal parameters are used at definition

d) They are both used to specify type

What is Pass-by-value method of passing arguments?

a) When the reference of the variable is sent to the method

b) When a copy of the variable is sent to the method

c) Where the methods share the value in the same memory location

d) Where only objects may be sent

If you are to use a static method from another class, what is the correct way to do it?

a) By creating a new object of the class and accessing the method

b) Accessing the class directly with the method name

c) Access the method through the inherited class

d) You cannot access static methods from other classes

Which of the following is an example of a correct definition of a local variable?

a) public int i=0

b) private String s = “”;

c) int i = 0

d) static int I=0

A method defined to enable a data field to be updated to a set new value is known as:

a) A parameter method

b) A static method

c) A Getter method

d) A Setter Method

Which is a method that allows a client to retrieve the value of a private data field?

a) Setter method

b) Constructor method

c) Getter Method

d) Instance method

What is an object?
a) A definition of a class

b) A single static variable

c) A single instance of class

d) A definition of a method

What is an instance variable?

a) A variable that is only valid in a single method.

b) Variable that is created with the class definition.

c) A variable declared in the constructor

d) Variable that is accessible throughout a program.

What is a static variable?

a) A variable that is only valid in a single method.

b) Variable that is created with the class definition.

c) A variable that is shared among all objects of a class.

d) A variable that is accessible in a method

What is a final variable?

a) A variable that can only be modified once

b) A variable that must be initialized when it is declared

c) A variable that can only be used in a method

d) A variable that cannot be modified

Which is the purpose of a constructor?

a) To set default values to variables

b) To perform mathematical calculations

c) To construct and initialize the object

d) To display the contents of a class

A no-arg constructor is a constructor that has what characteristic?

a) It must have parameters

b) It must not have parameters

c) The number of parameters is irrelevant.

d) It must have a local variable declared

What is the default constructor?

a) It is created by the programmer

b) It is created by the compiler if none exist.

c) It will always create default values.

d) All default constructors have public modifiers.

What do you use the "new" keyword for?

a) Creating new classes

b) Calling class methods

c) Creating and calling objects

d) To declare local variables

What is a key purpose of the "this" keyword?

a) It points to an outer class

b) It is used to modify superclasses

 c) It refers to the current object

d) It is used for creating new objects

If an instance variable and method have the same name, what keyword is used to get the correct
variable?

a) super

b) new

c) this

d) All will point to the instance variable

Questions from Chapter 8 (Exploring the String Class)

What is the name of a String class in Java?

a) Int

b) float

c) String

d) Char

What is a characteristic of String literals in Java?

a) They are used for variables that will be used later

b) They can not be declared in the program

c) They are surrounded with “double” quotation

d) They are always defined as char

What does "immutable" mean in the context of String objects?

a) They can change after creation

b) They

cannot change after creation

c) They can be stored in any order

d) They are created when they are called

What is one way a String object can be created?

a) Using a string constructor from a string literal

b) Using only a variable

c) Using a number type

d) Only using double quotation

What is the purpose of the charAt(int index) method of the String class?

a) It converts to int

b) It converts to string

c) Returns the character at the specified index

d) Removes character at a specified index

What does the length() method of String class do?

a) Returns true if there is content in a String

b) Returns the number of character in a String

c) Returns true if the String is a number

d) Returns an error if no value has been declared

The method isEmpty() return what value?

a) Integer
 b) String

c) Boolean

d) Object

If two string objects are case sensitive and the content is the same, what method would be used to
determine equality?

a) equalsIgnoreCase

b) equals

c) isEmpty

d) length

Which method of the String class extracts a portion of a string?

a) subString

b) subStrings

c) ExtractString

d) ExtractSub

What does the method "endsWith" do?

a) Adds a suffix to a String

b) Finds if a string ends with a given suffix.

c) It appends to another string

d) Removes a suffix

Which String method tests if a String begins with a given prefix?

a) endWith

b) startWith
c) startsWith

d) beginsWith

Which of the following methods does not require a parameter?

a) toUpperCase()

b) substring(int startIndex)

c) format(String formatString, args)

d) charAt(int index)

Which method returns a copy of a String by removing leading or trailing white space?

a) trim()

b) substring()

c) toUppercase()

d) startsWith()

Which is NOT a characteristic of StringBuffer objects?

a) They are mutable

b) The methods and constructors are the same as StringBuilder

c) They can be safely be accessed with multi-threads

d) They are immutable

If a String must be accessed by multiple threads, which is the better option to use?

a) String

b) StringBuilder

c) StringBuffer
 d) It does not matter

What is meant by “modifiable character sequences” in the context of StringBuilder and

StringBuffer objects?

a) They can not change after creation

b) Their contents can be changed.

c) They are only used when creating static strings

d) They can only be modified in the class definition

Which class has better performance when accessed by just a single thread?

a) String

b) StringBuilder

c) StringBuffer

d) Both have the same performance

Which of these is used to get a formatted String value?

a) toString()

b) trim()

c) format()

d) equals()

What method converts all characters in the string to upper case?

a) toUpperCase()

b) toUpperCase

c) toUpper()

d) upperCase()
String object have which characteristics?

a) They are immutable and must have a variable name

b) They are mutable and have no limitations

c) They are mutable and do not need a declaration

d) They are immutable and declared as a string

Questions from Chapter 9 (Exception Handling)

What is an exception in Java?

a) A runtime error that only happens once

b) A special case of a variable type

c) An object that represents an error condition

d) A way to reduce execution times

When does an exception occur in a Java program?

a) During program startup

b) Only when the user inputs an error value

c) During the execution of a program when an exceptional situation arises

d) When a local variable is undefined

If an exception is not handled in a Java program, what happens?

a) The program will terminate abnormally

b) The program will automatically move to the next line

c) The program will automatically resolve

 d) The program does nothing

In exception handling, what is the purpose of the "try" block?

a) It contains the exception handling statement

b) It specifies the exception type

c) It contains the code that may throw an exception

d) It specifies methods that throw exceptions

Which keywords is used to handle the

thrown exceptions in try block?

a) Catch

b) Throw

c) Throws

d) Finally

Which keyword specifies code to be executed regardless of whether an exception occurs or not?

a) Throw

b) Catch

c) Finally

d) Try

What do you call exception that is thrown out of a method and must be defined by a "throws"
clause?

a) Unchecked exception

b) Checked exception

c) Run time exception

 d) Object exception

Which type of exceptions are also known as checked exceptions?

a) Error

b) RuntimeExceptions

c) Exceptions that inherit directly or indirectly from RuntimeException

d) Exceptions that inherit from the exception class except RuntimeException

Which keywords can be used to explicitly throw a specific exception?

a) new

b) throws

c) Throw

d) try

What does "Uncaught exception" mean?

a) Exception is caught by a catch statement

b) Exception is handled by a try statement

c) Exception is handled by default handler provided by the run time system

d) It is an exception that was not handled by the code

If there is an exception in a try block and there are two or more catch statements, how are they
inspected?

a) They are called randomly

b) They are inspected based on the priority

c) They are inspected in the order they are stated

d) They are all checked simultaneously

 When handling multiple exceptions what should be done with subclass exceptions?

a) They should be at the bottom

b) They must not be included at all

c) They need to be in order before their superclass exception

d) They need to be in order after their superclass exception

Which method of the throwable class can you use to show a description of an exception?

a) String

b) print

c) getMessage()

d) toString()

Which keyword indicates that an exception may be thrown from a method and not handled in the
method itself?

a) throw

b) throws

c) try

d) catch

Which types of exception are not required to be included in the "throws" list?

a) ClassCast Exception

b) IO exception

c) Error and Runtime Exceptions

d) Null pointer exception

 Which statement best describes implicit casting?

a) When you must use a casting method to assign to another variable.

b) When the compiler automatically casts an object of a subclass to a superclass.

c) It will throw a class exception error

d) When an object is never casted

Which statement best describes explicit casting?

a) It can be any value

b) It is performed by the compiler automatically

c) It is necessary to cast an object of a superclass to its subclass

d) It is for casting only primitive data types

Which of the following must not be done for declaring an exception?

a) Declare the exception in throws

b) You must have a try/ catch statement

c) Use the throw keyword

d) Use a try/ finally statement

If there is an error in your code that you want to explicitly throw to other programs, which
keywords is used?

a) try

b) throw

c) catch

d) throws

A method needs to be called within a try catch block if it has what type of exceptions?
a) All types

b) Only Run time

c) Only Error

d) Checked Exceptions

M&E
Questions from "Program and Program Theory" PDF:

What is a program, in a general sense, according to this presentation?

a) A temporary event with a specific goal

b) A set of unrelated activities.

c) A set of related activities managed to achieve objectives

d) A single activity with a definite start and end.

What is the purpose of a "program theory" as presented in this document?

a) To provide a list of activities in a program.

b) To describe the required funding for a program.

c) To specify the how, what, and why of a program's functioning and goals.

d) To outline a single logical sequence of events.

What does "program theory" articulate?

a) The program's resources

b) The program's activities

c) The program’s goals

d) All of the above

What is the best description of Implicit program theory?

a) It is well documented in program papers

b) It is well understood by staff and stakeholders

c) It assumes a specific purpose for a program

d) It means the underlying assumptions are not fully stated

Which of these is NOT mentioned as a component of program theory?

a) Service utilization plan

b) Program’s organizational plan

c) Impact Theory

d) Implementation Plan

What does a Program’s Organizational Plan describe?

a) How and why a program will work

b) The program budget

c) The resources, activities and how they are connected

d) The final result of a program

What does a service utilization plan articulate?

a) Who is using the resources

b) How and why the target population will be engaged

c) A plan on where resources should be distributed

d) The financial requirements of a program

What is Impact theory according to the presented information?

a) A causal theory

b) Describes the resource allocation

c) A strategy to get funding

d) An evaluation based strategy

Which of these is not a part of Lipsey (1993) program theory?

a) Problem definition

b) Critical inputs

c) Implementation plan

d) Mediating processes

A program theory plays a major role in

a) Describing specific project activities

b) Describing budget requirements.

c) Describing problems, population, and expected outcomes.

d) Providing evaluation methods

When assessing a program based on its logic and plausibility, what is most important?

a) That all assumptions about the program are true

b) The programs goals and objectives should be feasible

c) That financial planning matches the outcomes

d) That implementation occurs on time

If a program theory is not sound, it implies that:

a) The program may require more resources

b) There is no need to evaluate it

c) It will need more staff

d) The program might require less time

How are program evaluations used to provide insights?

a) For a better funding opportunity

b) To increase the amount of time allocated to a program.

c) To determine the effectiveness and efficiency of the project.

d) To highlight the need for a new program.

Which statement is true regarding program and project?

a) They both have indefinite start times

b) They both have a definitive end time.

c) They both involve related activities

d) They both have a fixed time frame

A program is said to have a broader scope than:

a) An activity

b) An intervention

c) A policy

d) A project
A project is said to have a fixed time frame, which means that:

a) All activities must occur in a given time.

b) All objectives must occur in a certain time

c) It has a defined start and finish

d) They can be defined at the start of a program

What should be considered in program development?

a) Financial resources only

b) Technical resources only

c) Manpower only

d) Financial, material and manpower

Which of the following BEST describes a measurable aspect of a health program?

a) The general feeling of community well-being.

b) The number of pamphlets distributed about HIV awareness.

c) The hope for a healthier future.

d) The perceived quality of the health staff.

Which of these is an example of a direct measure of a health outcome?

a) The budget allocated to a diabetes program.

b) The number of participants who attended a health education session.

c) The percentage reduction in HbA1c levels in diabetic patients.

d) The positive feedback received from program participants.

What is the main difference between process measures and outcome measures?
 a) Process measures assess the impact, outcome measures assess activities.

b) Process measures assess the activities, outcome measures assess the impact.

c) Process measures are subjective, outcome measures are objective.

d) Process measures are short-term, outcome measures are short-term.

The number of children vaccinated in a campaign is an example of a:

a) Impact measure.

b) Outcome measure.

c) Process measure.

d) Qualitative measure.

Which of these is an example of an impact measure in a health program?

a) The number of health care providers trained

b) The availability of medication in the pharmacy

c) The reduction in mortality rates due to a specific disease

d) The number of awareness events conducted

Which type of measure often involves collecting opinions and attitudes?

a) Quantitative measure

b) Process measure

c) Qualitative measure

d) Outcome measure

Which of the following is NOT a key consideration when defining measurable aspects of a health
program?

a) Relevance to program goals.

 b) Ease of data collection.

c) Subjective opinions of program managers

d) Availability of data

What is a measure of access to care related to?

a) The effectiveness of the care provided

b) The efficiency of the program

c) The cost of the intervention

d) The ease with which individuals can obtain health services

Which aspect of a program's performance does 'efficiency' usually refer to?

a) The relevance of the program goals.

b) The impact of the program on the targeted population.

c) The relationship between program inputs and outputs.

d) The overall cost of implementing the program

A program aims to improve child nutrition. Which of these is the most DIRECT measure of
success?

a) The number of nutrition workshops held.

b) The increase in community awareness about child health.

c) The decrease in the rate of child malnutrition.

d) The amount of budget allocated to the program

Measuring satisfaction of the target population is an example of a:

a) Process measure

b) Outcome measure
 c) Impact measure

d) Qualitative measure

What does 'fidelity' in the context of program measures mean?

a) The cost-effectiveness of the intervention.

b) Whether the program was implemented as intended.

c) The number of participants reaching a positive outcome.

d) The degree of community involvement.

Which of the following is a measure of a program's sustainability?

a) The number of staff trained on the program

b) The long-term availability of resources after the project ends

c) The ability of participants to take control of the program

d) The frequency of program activities

What does "mortality rate" refer to in health program measurement?

a) The number of new cases of a disease.

b) The proportion of deaths in a population.

c) The number of hospital admissions.

d) The number of health care providers in the region.

Measuring the number of patients who have been referred for a check up in a healthcare facility
is:

a) Process measure

b) Outcome measure

c) Impact measure
d) Qualitative measure

Which measure typically takes longer to demonstrate change?

a) Process measure

b) Output measure

c) Outcome measure

d) All the measures take the same time to demonstrate change.

What does "prevalence" refer to in disease surveillance?

a) The number of new cases in a given time period.

b) The proportion of individuals with a disease at a specific time.

c) The total number of deaths related to a disease.

d) The number of people who have recovered from the disease

Which of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of a good measure in a health program?

a) Validity

b) Reliability

c) Subjectivity

d) Feasibility

What are 'inputs' in the context of a program's measurable aspects?

a) The program’s goals and objectives.

b) The resources used for the program.

c) The actual activities undertaken in the program.

d) The results and effects of the program.

A program's success is often assessed through:

a) The amount of budget spent.

b) The quality of marketing materials used.

c) The measurable changes produced

d) The involvement of community leaders.

Topic 2: List and describe program theory and frameworks

Which of the following best describes program theory?

a) A detailed budget plan for program implementation

b) A set of activities to be undertaken by program staff

c) An explanation of how a program is supposed to work and achieve its goals

d) A list of all the stakeholders involved in the program

The logic model is an example of a:

a) Data collection tool.

b) Program implementation strategy.

c) Framework that shows the relationships between program elements.

d) Program evaluation plan.

In a logic model, what are "inputs"?

a) The program activities.

b) The immediate results of activities.

c) The resources that are invested in the program.

 d) The long-term changes desired by the program.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a logic model?

a) Inputs

b) Activities

c) Assumptions

d) Budget

A program theory is useful for:

a) Replacing the need for evaluation

b) Planning, implementing, and evaluating a program.

c) Securing program funding

d) Developing effective marketing materials

Which framework focuses on how a program creates a desired change by connecting program
activities with outcomes through a sequence of steps or events?

a) Logic Model

b) Stakeholder Framework

c) RE-AIM framework

d) Implementation Science Framework

The 'Theory of Change' approach is mainly used for:

a) Managing a budget.

b) Analyzing community needs.

c) Planning for complex, long-term change.

d) Training program staff.

 A program framework that emphasizes the importance of program reach, effectiveness, adoption,
implementation and maintenance is the:

a) Theory of Change

b) Logic Model

c) RE-AIM framework

d) Stakeholder framework

Which of the following best describes an "assumption" in program theory?

a) A measurable program goal.

b) A short-term outcome of the program.

c) A belief about how the program will work.

d) The budget of the program.

A stakeholder analysis is important for:

a) Designing program evaluation tools.

b) Identifying potential barriers to program implementation.

c) Selecting the appropriate program theory.

d) Determining the program's long-term sustainability.

Which framework is particularly useful for understanding and addressing the factors that
contribute to a problem?

a) RE-AIM framework

b) Logic Model

c) Ecological Model

d) Implementation Science Framework

 Which of the following best represents the relationship between program theory and program
evaluation?

a) Evaluation should come before the development of the program theory.

b) Program theory has nothing to do with program evaluation

c) Program theory should guide the evaluation process.

d) Program evaluation is not necessary if a good program theory exists.

A framework that is useful for understanding how specific interventions can translate into wider
population level impact is known as:

a) RE-AIM framework

b) Logic Model

c) Program Theory

d) Theory of Change

Program frameworks help in ensuring:

a) Programs are complex

b) Programs are simple

c) Programs are designed in a systematic way.

d) Programs are implemented haphazardly

When a program theory outlines how program activities will lead to short and long-term
outcomes, it is referred to as:

a) Action plan

b) Logic model

c) Outcome assessment
 d) Implementation strategy

Which of the following is NOT a key purpose of having a program theory?

a) To describe how a program is designed to work.

b) To predict the exact outcomes of a program.

c) To help plan program activities

d) To provide a roadmap for evaluation.

Which term describes the resources needed to run a program according to program theory?

a) Activities

b) Outputs

c) Inputs

d) Outcomes

A program framework helps in;

a) Collecting data for evaluation

b) Designing monitoring systems

c) Identifying appropriate resources

d) All of the above

Which type of framework is particularly useful for describing how a health intervention will be
integrated into an existing system?

a) Stakeholder Framework

b) Implementation Science Framework

c) Logic Model

d) Theory of Change
What is the primary focus of program theory?

a) Identifying the program’s target population.

b) Determining the program’s budget.

c) Explaining how a program will bring about its intended changes.

d) Describing the program’s staff and their roles.

Topic 3: Define and differentiate Monitoring and Evaluation

Which of the following best describes monitoring in the context of health programs?

a) Assessing the long-term impact of the program.

b) Tracking the program activities and their implementation on a regular basis.

c) Making recommendations for program improvements.

d) Comparing program outcomes to the initial goals.

How does monitoring differ from evaluation?

a) Monitoring is long-term, evaluation is short-term.

b) Monitoring focuses on program impact, evaluation focuses on process.

c) Monitoring is ongoing, evaluation is periodic.

d) Monitoring is done by external evaluators, evaluation by program staff.

Which of these activities is MOST associated with monitoring?

a) Measuring change in the rate of a disease

b) Assessing the effectiveness of a program

c) Tracking the distribution of resources for the program

 d) Comparing outcomes with other programs

The main purpose of an evaluation is to:

a) Collect data on program activities.

b) Improve program efficiency.

c) Assess program value, worth, and merit.

d) Track the implementation of program activities.

Which type of data is typically collected during monitoring?

a) Data on program inputs, activities, and outputs

b) Data on long-term program outcomes

c) Data on unexpected program effects

d) Data on program cost-effectiveness

Which type of evaluation is typically done at the end of a program to measure the extent to which
it achieved its goals?

a) Formative evaluation

b) Process evaluation

c) Summative evaluation

d) Implementation evaluation

Monitoring primarily helps with:

a) Determining long-term impact.

b) Assessing program efficiency.

c) Identifying immediate issues in program delivery.

d) Developing program theory.

 What type of evaluation focuses on the program's design and implementation during its early
stages?

a) Summative Evaluation

b) Outcome Evaluation

c) Formative Evaluation

d) Impact Evaluation

Which of these best describes the term “formative” evaluation?

a) It focuses on the long-term impact of a project.

b) It occurs after project completion to determine program success.

c) It provides feedback while the program is still being implemented.

d) It focuses on the costs and benefits of the project.

What kind of data would be most relevant for a monitoring system?

a) Changes in population demographics over a 10-year period.

b) Weekly progress on health education sessions delivered.

c) The prevalence of a disease before and after the program.

d) Cost-benefit analysis of the intervention.

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of program monitoring?

a) Continuous

b) Periodic

c) Process focused

d) Implemented using routine data

An evaluation that assesses the extent to which program activities are implemented as intended is:

a) Outcome evaluation

b) Process evaluation

c) Summative evaluation

d) Impact evaluation

What is an advantage of using both monitoring and evaluation together?

a) They serve the same purpose

b) They help in saving resources

c) They give a more comprehensive understanding of the program

d) They both are costly.

A key differentiator between monitoring and evaluation is that monitoring:

a) Is typically conducted by external experts.

b) Measures impact and sustainability.

c) Focuses primarily on the implementation process

d) Occurs at the end of the program.

Which type of evaluation assesses the long term effects of a program on its target population

a) Process evaluation

b) Impact evaluation

c) Outcome evaluation

d) Formative evaluation

Which of the following is a key goal of monitoring?

a) To determine if program objectives were achieved.

b) To make data driven decisions for improvement.

c) To assess the overall value of a program.

d) To compare program results with other programs

What is the primary focus of evaluation in health programs?

a) Collecting routine data on program implementation.

b) Assessing the efficiency and effectiveness of interventions.

c) Tracking the distribution of resources.

d) Monitoring staff performance.

The statement that "an evaluation is to assess the impact on the target population" refers to:

a) Process evaluation

b) Impact evaluation

c) Monitoring system

d) Formative evaluation

Monitoring is typically conducted by:

a) External consultants only

b) Program staff and stakeholders

c) Government ministries only

d) Academic researchers

Which best describes the relationship between Monitoring and Evaluation?

a) They are interchangeable and both are used for the same purpose
b) Monitoring provides data for evaluation.

c) Evaluation takes place only after the completion of Monitoring process

d) Monitoring is a cost-effective alternative to evaluation.

Topic 4: Describe Purposes of Monitoring and Evaluation

What is a primary purpose of monitoring in health programs?

a) To determine the long-term impact of a program.

b) To identify immediate problems in program implementation.

c) To develop a detailed program theory.

d) To assess the cost-effectiveness of a program.

Which of the following is a key purpose of program evaluation?

a) Tracking program activities.

b) Ensuring data quality for decision making.

c) Assessing the merit, worth, or significance of a program.

d) Identifying immediate problems during program implementation.

Monitoring is conducted primarily to:

a) Measure the changes in behavior among the target population.

b) Make sure the program is going according to plan.

c) Determine if a program should be continued.

d) Assess program sustainability.

What is a typical reason for conducting a mid-term evaluation?

a) To determine the final impact of the program after completion.

b) To provide feedback for improvement before the program concludes.

c) To make decisions about budget allocation.

d) To track activities on a daily basis

One of the goals of monitoring is to allow for:

a) Long-term planning.

b) Rapid response to emerging issues.

c) Measurement of population level changes

d) Cost-benefit analysis

Which of the following is a key purpose of a summative evaluation?

a) To help program managers during program implementation.

b) To determine the final impact and outcomes of the program.

c) To assess the implementation of program activities.

d) To collect data on a regular basis during program operation.

Evaluation findings help program managers to:

a) Track inputs and outputs

b) Assess program processes

c) Make informed decisions

d) Monitor routine activities

What is the main purpose of using program monitoring data?

a) To assess whether the program achieved its long-term goals.

b) To determine the cost-effectiveness of the program.

c) To track the progress of program activities against timelines.

d) To identify the sustainability of the program.

The purpose of assessing relevance in an evaluation includes:

a) Determining if the program was implemented as planned

b) Assessing the effectiveness of the intervention

c) Determining whether the program is in line with needs.

d) Analyzing the efficiency of resource utilization

Feedback from a monitoring system is primarily used for:

a) Making long-term program changes.

b) Making immediate adjustments to program activities.

c) Documenting program impact over several years

d) Assessing overall program value

Monitoring data is used for:

a) Measuring long-term impacts

b) Tracking progress against the work plan

c) Determining the value of the program

d) Assessing overall program sustainability

A key reason for conducting impact evaluations in health programs is:

a) To measure long-term effects on the target population.

b) To identify immediate implementation challenges.

c) To improve program budgeting processes.

d) To provide feedback for real-time program adjustments

Which of the following describes why monitoring should be continuous?

a) It is done only by external experts

b) It ensures data is collected only when it is needed.

c) It allows for timely identification of program issues

d) It allows for assessment of long term program goals.

Program monitoring data helps in making decisions about:

a) Program design

b) Program sustainability

c) Day to day activities

d) Long-term impact

What is one of the key purposes of evaluation for stakeholders?

a) To ensure the program is running smoothly

b) To learn about the program's worth and value.

c) To check the budget

d) To make immediate adjustments to program activities.

One of the purposes of evaluation is accountability; this means:

a) Ensuring program activities are implemented on time

b) Making sure the program is worth the resources invested

c) Keeping records of program implementation

 d) Program results are communicated to all stakeholders

What is a major reason to conduct an evaluation before the program is completed (formative)?

a) To determine whether the program was worth the money spent.

b) To improve the program based on early observations.

c) To finalize the program plan after it is implemented.

d) To measure the impact after the program has ended.

Which of these is NOT a typical purpose of monitoring data in health programs?

a) To measure progress in service provision.

b) To improve program efficiency and quality

c) To make long-term projections for program sustainability

d) To track the use of program inputs

An evaluation that aims to improve program implementation in real time is best described as:

a) Impact Evaluation

b) Outcome evaluation

c) Formative Evaluation

d) Summative Evaluation

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of utilizing both monitoring and
evaluation in health programs?

a) Monitoring is for the short-term, and evaluation for the long-term.

b) They work together to ensure accountability and program effectiveness.

c) They can be used interchangeably in the program implementation process.

d) They are both used for program budgeting and planning

Topic 5: List and describe components of Monitoring and Evaluation system

Which of the following is a CORE component of a Monitoring and Evaluation (M&E) system?

a) Developing program marketing materials.

b) A clear set of indicators for tracking program progress.

c) Hiring additional program staff.

d) Securing program funding.

A detailed work plan for the implementation of the program is part of the:

a) Evaluation framework

b) Monitoring and evaluation plan

c) Program theory

d) Data collection protocol

Which component of an M&E system ensures data accuracy and reliability?

a) Data analysis and reporting plan

b) Data collection and management plan.

c) Indicator selection

d) Data utilization plan

What is the role of "indicators" in an M&E system?

a) They determine the program budget.

b) They measure the program's success and track its progress.

c) They ensure a program's activities are carried out efficiently.

 d) They establish the program goals and objectives.

Which component of M&E involves collecting, storing, and ensuring access to program data?

a) Data Analysis and Reporting

b) Data Utilization

c) Data Collection and Management

d) Program Planning

Which aspect of an M&E system focuses on ensuring that program data is used for decision-
making?

a) Feedback loops and improvement

b) Data analysis

c) Data collection

d) Indicator development

A well-designed M&E plan should clearly describe:

a) Who will implement the program

b) How the program will operate

c) How data will be collected, analyzed, and used

d) How the program will get funding

What is the main purpose of feedback loops in an M&E system?

a) To determine long-term impact of a program.

b) To provide information that enables program improvement.

c) To collect program data.

d) To write evaluation reports.

 Which of these elements is MOST associated with data collection in an M&E system?

a) Establishing clear goals and objectives

b) Identifying what type of data is needed

c) Using data for decision making

d) Analyzing the data gathered.

Which component of an M&E system focuses on how the information collected will be
interpreted?

a) Data collection protocol

b) Data analysis plan

c) Data quality assurance

d) Indicator selection

A well developed M&E system will include procedures for:

a) Budget allocations

b) Staff performance reviews

c) Data quality assurance

d) Program marketing

Which of the following is NOT a key component of an M&E system?

a) Data analysis and reporting

b) Staff training on data collection tools.

c) Clear data collection protocols

d) Fundraising strategies
 In an M&E system, what does a data collection instrument refer to?

a) Software for data analysis.

b) The devices used for collecting data

c) A specific tool used for collecting data.

d) The process of storing data

Which component of an M&E system is most directly related to the identification of lessons
learned?

a) Data collection

b) Data analysis

c) Feedback and improvement

d) Indicator development

A strong M&E system is designed to:

a) Determine funding for the next phase of the program

b) Keep track of the program’s financial expenditure

c) Promote accountability, learning and evidence-based decision making.

d) Ensure there are good external evaluators

Which component of the M&E system deals with the communication of findings to relevant
stakeholders?

a) Indicator development

b) Reporting and Dissemination

c) Data Analysis

d) Data collection
 Which component of an M&E system would help in identifying any issues in program
implementation?

a) Indicator development

b) Data analysis

c) Feedback mechanisms

d) Resource mobilization

How do indicators help in the M&E process?

a) They provide the budget plan for a program.

b) They show the progress made towards achieving results.

c) They help in assigning program staff roles and responsibilities.

d) They are used for creating marketing materials.

In the M&E system, a log frame refers to:

a) A budget for the program activities.

b) A framework for planning the program interventions.

c) A summary of project’s goals and objectives and how they will be achieved.

d) The program marketing plan.

The purpose of having a data analysis plan is to ensure:

a) Data is collected ethically.

b) Data is analyzed using an appropriate method.

c) Data is stored in a secure place.

d) Data is collected using right tools.

Topic 6: Describe characteristics of Functional Monitoring and Evaluation system

A functional M&E system is characterized by its:

a) Complexity and difficulty to use.

b) Focus only on data collection

c) Regular use for program management and improvement.

d) Costliness in implementation.

What does "Reliability" refer to in the context of a functional M&E system?

a) The ease of data collection.

b) The ability of the system to generate consistent data.

c) The system’s usefulness in decision making

d) The cost efficiency of the system.

A functional M&E system should be "User-Friendly", what does this mean?

a) That it is difficult to learn and implement.

b) That the data collected is comprehensive.

c) That it is accessible and easy to use by program staff.

d) That the information is stored in a secure place.

A functional M&E system should be "Responsive", which of the following describes this?

a) It needs to have very complex process.

b) It responds to the stakeholders’ information needs.

c) It always follows a pre-determined plan

d) It produces all type of data.

When we say that a functional M&E system is ‘Integrated’, we mean:

a) It has various disconnected processes

b) It operates in isolation

c) It is well coordinated across different program areas

d) It is overly complicated.

A functional M&E system is data-driven, meaning that:

a) Data is never used in the system.

b) Data guides the decision-making processes.

c) Only quantitative data is collected

d) Only qualitative data is collected.

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a functional M&E system?

a) Data accuracy

b) Timeliness of data collection

c) Costliness of the system

d) Use of data for decision making

What does "Validity" refer to in a functional M&E system?

a) The system’s ability to collect data on time.

b) The degree to which the data measures what it is intended to measure.

c) The ease of the system’s implementation

d) The amount of data the system can generate.

A functional M&E system needs to be "Timely" meaning:

a) Data is collected when program is ending

b) Data is collected very rarely.

c) Data is available when needed for decision-making.

d) Data is collected in complex ways.

An "Efficient" M&E system is one that:

a) Collects data irrespective of cost and resource implications

b) Collects data irrespective of its usefulness

c) Collects and analyzes data using available resources.

d) Collects all the data.

A functional M&E system should promote learning; which of the following refers to this?

a) Using data to only measure the impact of the program

b) Using data for program improvement and adaptation

c) Data is used to collect program budget information

d) Data is never used for decision making

A M&E system that allows for easy access and use of information is:

a) Complicated

b) User friendly

c) Data focused

d) Costly

Which of these is NOT part of a functional M&E system?

a) Regular data collection.

 b) Systematic analysis of collected data.

c) Relying solely on external evaluators

d) Using data for decision making

What characteristic of a functional M&E system ensures that the system focuses on what’s most
important?

a) Relevance

b) Validity

c) Timeliness

d) Accuracy

A functional M&E system should be sensitive to change; this means that:

a) The system must collect a lot of data.

b) The system must be able to collect information on all aspects of the program

c) The system should be able to measure any changes, both positive and negative.

d) The system must have a lot of components

What is a characteristic of a “sustainable” M&E system?

a) It relies only on external funding.

b) It can continue to operate over time with available resources

c) It needs constant external technical assistance

d) It produces all types of data, even unnecessary ones.

For M&E systems to be functional, they must have strong institutional support meaning:

a) Data must be stored in a secure place

b) The system must have financial and technical resources.

c) There must be regular training of staff.

d) Data must be collected by stakeholders

A characteristic of a Functional M&E system is that is should be "action oriented" This refers to:

a) The system being used only for data collection.

b) Data should be used for making decisions about the program.

c) Data should be collected by external consultants

d) The system should have a complex reporting protocol

How does a functional M&E system ensure transparency?

a) By sharing information with selected few stakeholders.

b) By keeping M&E processes and results hidden from the public.

c) By regularly communicating results with all stakeholders

d) By not sharing the results to the stakeholders.

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of a functional M&E system?

a) Data is collected just once in the program.

b) The system does not use data for decision making

c) It has clear defined roles and responsibilities

d) It is complex and very costly to implement.

GIS
Spatial Phenomena and Fundamentals of GIS:

What is the core element that GIS is used to represent and analyze?

a) Text data

b) Tabular data

c) Spatially referenced data

d) Audio data

Which of the following is NOT a key component of a GIS system?

a) Hardware

b) Software

c) Data and Database

d) Social Media

What is 'Geocoding' in GIS terminology?

a) Creating map legends

b) Determining geographic coordinates based on addresses or other location information

c) The process of overlaying maps.

d) The procedure of choosing a projection

Which of the following describes 'spatial data'?

a) Data without geographic reference

b) Data with locations on a surface of the Earth

c) Only graphical data that needs to be digitized

d) Text based documents

Which of the following is a primary way that GIS answers questions about data?

a) It displays all attributes in a table

b) It provides a way to compare data

c) It utilizes the spatial relationship of data

d) It provides numerical data only

In GIS, what does 'attributes' generally refer to?

a) Specific locations on a map

b) The different layers of a map

c) Descriptive data linked to geographic features

d) The legend that is on the map.

A digital map has the following main advantage over a paper map:

a) It is always more accurate

b) It is less costly

c) It is easier to update

d) It needs more maintenance

The type of GIS Data that is described as “a container of maps in digital form is known as”:

a) Shape file

b) Layer
c) Raster data

d) Digital map

When dealing with spatial data, what do "lines" represent?

a) Individual points with no direction

b) A closed shape like a square

c) Linear features like roads or rivers

d) A region with similar characteristics

What is the term that represents the area of each polygon on the map?

a) Coordinates

b) Surface area

c) Attributes

d) Buffer

In GIS, what does a "centroid" represent?

a) The boundary of a region

b) The geometric center of a region

c) A buffer zone

d) A database record

The physical layer of the OSI model can be best related to which element of the GIS?

a) data

b) software

c) hardware
d) human element

What is the main purpose of map projections?

a) To ensure correct map colors

b) To convert the 3-D earth to a 2-D map

c) To make the map more detailed

d) To make the map larger

What does the term "cartography" refer to?

a) Creating the software for maps

b) The study and science of map creation

c) Converting maps to code

d) Analyzing data in maps

What type of data model is most suited to represent the type of data that shows locations on a grid?

a) Vector

b) Shape file

c) Raster

d) Layer

If you were to represent a river in GIS, what type of spatial data would be the most appropriate?

a) Point

b) Polygon

c) Raster

d) Line
A geographical area like a city boundary would be classified as what type of spatial element?

a) Vector

b) Line

c) Polygon

d) Point

If there was a point that needs to have the exact location of a restaurant to be presented on a map, what
type of data would that be?

a) Raster

b) Point

c) Polygon

d) Line

Which level of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model most directly relates to the
function of a Geographic Information System (GIS)?

a) Application Layer

b) Physical Layer

c) Network layer

d) Presentation Layer

Which of the following best describe “interoperability” in relation to spatial data?

a) Ability to be used on a phone

b) Ability to have different types of file formats.

c) Ability to use different GIS software

d) Ability of systems to share and exchange spatial data

II. Uses of GIS for Spatial Epidemiology and Public Health:

What is a key role of health geography in public health surveillance?

a) Managing finances

b) Mapping and monitoring

ing health interventions and prevention

c) Creating new medications

d) Managing public policy

GIS in health care administration helps to analyze what?

a) Geographic distributions only

b) Patient data only

c) Patient population, locations, and needs

d) Financial needs of a health facility

Mapping of diseases and epidemics using GIS is most related to:

a) Financial management

b) Supply chain management

c) Public health

d) Military applications

Which of the following is not an area that utilizes geographic locations?

a) Planning the highway

b) Financial management in banking

c) Analyzing patient locations

d) Tracking location of stolen cars

In health, GIS is used to identify:

a) A patient that needs specific medications

b) Where to build a hospital

c) Inequities in health service delivery

d) All the above

Which of these is NOT a typical use of GIS for Epidemiology?

a) Analyzing population growth in a region

b) Detecting the source of a disease outbreak.

c) Analyzing patterns of disease

d) Modeling disease spread

In 1854, Dr. John Snow used a hand-drawn map to show what?

a) The population in the London area

b) The location of the London city

c) The source of a cholera outbreak

d) The best method of preventing cholera

A map used to show the prevalence of a disease is classified as:

a) Reference map

b) Topographic map

c) Thematic map
d) Street Map

A map that is created to indicate location of cities and roads are known as:

a) Thematic map

b) Population map

c) Reference map

d) Geological map

Which type of map would best represent different types of soil in an area?

a) A reference map

b) A topographic map

c) A street map

d) A thematic map

Which type of data presentation would best represent the number of cases per district?

a) Line

b) Point

c) Polygon

d) All three options

What does an “isopleth map” utilize to represent spatial data?

a) Lines that connect similar locations

b) Points that identify a location

c) Different colors to represent different areas.

d) Symbols and labels

III. Mapping and Visual Presentations

What are the two ways maps can be generated using GIS?

a) Online or offline

b) Only printed version

c) Soft-copy (screen) and hard-copy (printer)

d) Vector based or raster based

Which of these is NOT a component that should be included in a map?

a) Title

b) Legend

c) Scale bar

d) Financial projections

What is the purpose of a title in a map?

a) To look nice and be artistic

b) To communicate its subject to viewer

c) To define the scale of the map

d) To be an input device

What is the purpose of the legend in a map?

a) To show what features exist

b) To describe scale

c) To explain map symbols

d) To guide directions on a map

What is a map's scale referring to?

a) The time that the map was created

b) The geographic region covered

c) The relation between units on a map to units on the ground

d) The level of detail that is needed

What does “North Arrow” help to define?

a) Specific locations on a map

b) The scale of the map

c) The direction or orientation

d) The legends

What does "label placement" ensure in a map?

a) The correct scale of the map

b) The correct placement of the north arrow

c) Readability and association of labels with map elements

d) The colors that are used in a map

IV. Geospatial Data/Info Tools:

What is the purpose of using a buffer analysis in GIS?

a) To identify the center of an area.

b) To create layers
c) To identify proximity of features

d) To perform analysis

What type of operation do you perform using “clip tool”?

a) Combining multiple layers

b) Identifying the proximity of two or more layers

c) Extract a defined area from a layer

d) Combine attributes from different tables

What is the purpose of using spatial interpolation?

a) To identify unique data in the region

b) To find the location of a feature.

c) To generate information on the surface of an area with a few known data

d) To make spatial data more visible

What is the “Inverse Distance Wei

ghting” (IDW) method used for?

a) To create buffer zones

b) Interpolate an area based on a weighted average of surrounding points

c) To combine information from multiple sources

d) To identify the shortest distance between two points.

What is the goal of Data conversion process?

a) Creating maps with new symbols

b) To reproject from Geographic to Projected coordinate systems

c) To transform real world data into useable digital format.

d) To add more layers to map

In data conversion, what type of data is collected by using a "digitizer?"

a) Remote sensed data

b) Audio data

c) Digital maps or charts

d) Sensor data

What does the term "geospatial" mean?

a) Any type of information

b) Only location information

c) A spatial attribute based on a location on earth.

d) A description of a place

If you have data with both geographic coordinates and attribute information, which type of file is most
likely?

a) Raster data

b) a Geodatabase

c) A shape file

d) An excel file

When displaying xy data, what type of input should you provide?

a) An shape file

b) A raster file

c) An excel file
d) A geodatabase

What is the function of a "spatial data model?"

a) To create graphic design elements in a map.

b) To define the format and structure of spatial information.

c) To set the color for layers

d) To organize attributes in a table

V. Map Projections and Digitization:

What is the purpose of map projections?

a) To enlarge a map area

b) To transform 3D earth to a 2D map surface

c) To help determine the color of a map

d) To allow for rotation of a map

The type of projection that preserves shape but distorts area?

a) Equal Area projection

b) Equidistant projection

c) Compromise projection

d) Conformal projection

Which projection preserves the true direction?

a) Equal Area projection

b) Equidistant projection
c) Conformal projection

d) Compromise projection

Which projection preserves the true area?

a) Equal Area projection

b) Equidistant projection

c) Conformal projection

d) Compromise projection

Which projection preserves distance?

a) Equal Area projection

b) Equidistant projection

c) Conformal projection

d) Compromise projection

What is a 'developable surface' in cartography?

a) The area covered by a certain map.

b) A surface that can be laid out flat without distortion

c) A 3D map representation

d) A type of projection

Which of the following is considered to be a developable surface?

a) Torus

b) Mobius strip

c) A cylinder
d) A sphere

What is the purpose of a "Digitizer"?

a) To create digital version of a map from paper based maps.

b) To analyze data on a digital map

c) To export a digital map

d) To import an excel document

What do you mean by the phrase “map projection”?

a) The act of drawing on a map

b) The scale of the map

c) The way the earth is made to look on a flat surface.

d) It is the labeling of a map

VI. Capture, Import, Analyze and Present Geographical Data:

Which method is mostly used for capturing data related to location?

a) Excel

b) Text file

c) GPS

d) All of the options

If you have collected GPS data, which would be an important step when using a GIS?

a) Use the data directly

b) Import them as a table

c) Importing the file directly and ensure that it contains latitude and longitude.

d) Use excel to analyze and manipulate the data first.

What is the method that allows you to define a relationship between two spatial datasets based on a
shared attribute?

a) Spatial join

b) Attribute join

c) Spatial aggregation

d) Data reduction

Which type of spatial operation is used for selecting features within a given distance from another
feature?

a) Overlay

b) Union

c) Buffer

d) Clip

What data type is typically displayed as an output after a spatial interpolation process?

a) Polygon

b) Line

c) Raster

d) Feature class

When converting from Geographic to projected coordinate system, you are converting from which type of
data?

a) 2-D to 3-D
b) 3-D to 2-D

c) Point to raster

d) Raster to

vector

**The process of using a geodatabase to generate a map that will show disease prevalence, is an example
of:

**

a) Data collection

b) Data mapping

c) Data manipulation

d) Data analysis

If you want to display a different color on a map based on population numbers in each district, this is an
example of using:

a) Labeling

b) Symbology

c) Classification

d) Data projection

What type of data should a choropleth map use?

a) Raw data points

b) Spatial lines

c) Polygon or area data

d) Line segments
What is a common reason to use thematic maps in public health?

a) To show only the geographical location of the population

b) To show location of health facilities

c) To show the location of water sources

d) To represent public health data in a map

If you use the "clip" tool for a city boundary over a raster data set of a water body, what are you doing?

a) Creating a buffer

b) Extracting a specific region from raster data

c) Combining both data sets

d) Changing the spatial properties of a layer

When you see a spatial feature on a map with different shades of a color, what is the name of that
technique?

a) Symbolization

b) Classification

c) Labeling

d) Generalization

VII. Apply GIS for Spatial Analysis

Which kind of analysis should be done to investigate potential sources of pollution using geographic
data?

a) Attribute analysis

b) Overlay analysis

c) Spatial regression analysis

d) Trend analysis

Which spatial operation is used to identify area at a certain distance from an object?

a) clip tool

b) spatial join

c) buffer tool

d) spatial regression

If you had a spatial dataset that you want to know information for locations where data is missing, which
method would you use?

a) Spatial aggregation

b) Vectorization

c) Spatial interpolation

d) Spatial analysis

Which would be a primary use case for creating buffer zones?

a) To combine multiple layers

b) To overlay multiple regions

c) To find features within a proximity

d) To clip data

What type of spatial analysis is used when using multiple input layers to get an output layer?

a) Buffer Analysis

b) Overlay Analysis

c) Spatial Join

d) Interpolation
Which type of spatial analysis will use distance as an important measurement?

a) Buffer Analysis

b) Overlay analysis

c) Spatial Join

d) Geocoding

Which type of analysis will require “data” with XY coordinates?

a) Buffer analysis

b) Overlay Analysis

c) Spatial Interpolation

d) Geocoding

Which of these best describes spatial analysis?

a) A process to only measure distance on a map

b) To manage and organize data

c) The process of turning raw data into information

d) To transform a map projection

VIII. Solve Problems Using GIS and Present Results

When creating a visual map in a presentation what are three things you must include?

a) Colors, scale and font type

b) Legend, scale bar and north arrow

c) Title, label and symbology

d) Attributes, labels and legends

What is the purpose of the map element "North arrow?"

a) To indicate the direction of the map.

b) To show the different layers.

c) To organize data

d) To show spatial relationships

Bonus Questions:

Which term describes the process where map features are transferred into a digital representation?

a) Geocoding

b) Buffering

c) Digitizing

d) Interpolation

What type of file would you import into a GIS if you had coordinates of cities?

a) Shape file

b) Tiff

c) JPG

d) CSV
 RHIS
Okay, here are 80 multiple-choice questions based on the learning objectives you provided. The
questions cover a range of difficulty and concepts.

Multiple Choice Questions on Health Information Systems

I. Introduction to HIS & Ethiopian HIS

Which of the following best describes a Health Information System (HIS)?

a) A system for managing healthcare finances.

b) A system for collecting, managing, and using health data.

c) A system for training healthcare professionals.

d) A system for distributing medical supplies.

What is a key characteristic of a routine HIS?

a) Focus on specific research studies.

b) Focus on data collected at ad hoc occasions.

c) Focus on data collected in regular, predictable intervals

d) Focus on one specific type of data

What is a key focus of the Ethiopian HIS?

a) Tracking economic indicators of the health sector

b) Monitoring health service delivery to improve health outcomes.

c) Managing patient billing and insurance information

d) Forecasting pharmaceutical demands.

Which of these is NOT a typical component of a Health Information System (HIS)?

a) Data Collection

b) Data Analysis

c) Data Storage

d) Social Media Advertising

What is the main purpose of an information system framework?

a) To give overview of the system components

b) To manage a data warehouse effectively

c) To plan for budget

d) To implement a data sharing platform

Which of these is a NOT considered a data source for HIS in the Ethiopian context?

a) HMIS reports

b) Population censuses

c) Social media platforms

d) Surveys like DHS

In the Ethiopian context, which of these is considered community level health information system?

a) Routine facility based HMIS

b) Household survey

c) CHIS
d) Demographic and Health Survey

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the benefits of HIS?

a) Providing trend analysis

b) Supporting clinical decision

c) Data security

d) Generating reports.

II. HIS Resources

Which of the following is a key resource for a Health Information System?

a) Adequate medical supplies

b) Trained personnel and technologies

c) Modern hospital facilities

d) Public transport networks

What is the purpose of having standardized data collection tools within a HIS?

a) To make them look nicer.

b) To make data entry easier.

c) To ensure data consistency and compatibility.

d) To increase data entry speed.

What is a core part of information policy in HIS?

a) Data sharing for commercial purposes

b) Legislative and regulatory framework for public and private providers

c) Restricting data use to government agencies

d) Ensuring only certain users can have access to data

Which of the following is a not a major financial resources for HIS?

a) Investment for data collection

b) Budget for personnel training

c) Funding for medical equipment

d) Funding for data analysis

Which of the following is a key aspect of infrastructure for a health information system?

a) Trained health staff

b) Data storage and processing facilities

c) Community health workers

d) Funding from the government.

What is key for coordinating HIS?

a) A legislative framework

b) Effective leadership and mechanism

c) Budgetary allocations

d) A detailed operation manual

III. Overview of Health Indicators

What is an indicator?

a) A measure that describes one specific health status

b) A set of guidelines for reporting data

c) A variable that evaluates status and permits measurement of changes over time.

d) A list of data collection tools

What is the main purpose of using health indicators?

a) To create charts and graphs

b) To compare health systems between countries

c) To measure performance of health programs.

d) To simplify health data collection.

What does a process indicator measure?

a) Availability of resources.

b) How activities are carried out.

c) The end results of an intervention.

d) Long-term health status.

Which of these is an example of output indicator?

a) Number of staff hired

b) Number of beds in a facility

c) Number of ANC visit

d) Vaccine storage capacity

Which of these is an example of outcome indicator?

a) Number of clinics built.

b) Number of community health workers hired.

c) Mortality rates.

d) Equipment purchased.

What does the SMART criteria stand for in indicator formulation?

a) Simple, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound.

b) Specific, Meaningful, Attainable, Realistic, Time-bound

c) Simple, Meaningful, Achievable, Realistic, Time sensitive

d) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

What is the most important function of metrics in indicators?

a) To compare different variables

b) To present data graphically

c) To give measurement or value

d) To calculate ratios

Which of these is considered as a rate metric?

a) Number of deaths

b) Number of births

c) Maternal mortality ratio

d) Total number of vaccines given

IV. HMIS Indicators

What is HMIS indicators?

a) Indicators used to monitor quality of care

b) Indicators used to check for program effectiveness

c) Indicators used for routine monitoring of health services

d) Indicators used to check for health outcomes

In HMIS, why is it important to have data sources defined?

a) To make data reporting more complex.

b) To trace data elements for calculation

c) To allow for greater data flexibility.

d) To make it easier to remove data.

What does “Numerator” and “Denominator” refer to in indicator formulation?

a) Names for the two types of data.

b) The main components of data elements that help in calculations

c) Labels for data categories.

d) They are synonymous to each other.

A longitudinal register primarily focuses on:

a) Collecting data for one particular visit

b) Tracking data for a single client over time

c) Collecting data for specific conditions

d) Data on specific diseases and their causes

What is the main difference between ratio and a proportion?

a) A ratio includes zero while proportion doesn't

b) A ratio compares two values while a proportion compares a value to a whole

c) They are synonymous terms

d) Proportion is used for rates

If the Contraceptive Acceptance Rate (CAR) in a region is increasing, this implies that:

a) Maternal mortality rate is rising

b) Use of contraceptive method is reducing.

c) More women are using contraception.

d) The number of pregnancies is rising

Which of the following best defines data element for an indicator?

a) A single data point

b) Data source for indicators

c) A well defined information or event that is measurable

d) All available information in the database

What is the main use of tally sheets?

a) To register patient information

b) To track individual patients

c) To ease reporting by tracking counts of events/services

d) To record medication usage

What is the primary use of registers in routine HMIS?

a) Aggregate data for facility reporting

b) Record daily activity of clinicians

c) Collect detailed patient information and track care.

d) To store patient information at the community level.

The following data elements are required to calculate full immunization coverage indicator EXCEPT

a) Number of children received all vaccine doses before 1st birthday

b) Total number of surviving infants

c) Vaccine wastage rate

d) Dose of vitamin A

V. HIS Data Sources & Reporting

Which of these is not a population-based data source for HIS?

a) Census data.

b) Vital registration data.

c) Administrative record

d) Population-based surveys.

Which of these is an institution-based data source for HIS?

a) Census data

b) Demographic and Health Surveys

c) Administrative records and patient records

d) Vital registration systems

In routine HMIS reporting, who is primarily responsible for collecting data at the health post?

a) Regional Health Bureau

b) Health Extension Workers

c) Federal Ministry of Health

d) District Heath Office

The primary purpose of reporting in HIS is:

a) To create pretty reports.

b) To distribute copies of tally sheet

c) To have information for decision-making.

d) To ensure staff work hard

What does "timeliness" of data refers to?

a) Data must be collected accurately

b) Data is collected with a particular time frame.

c) Data has to be processed correctly.

d) Data are analyzed correctly

When are data usually aggregated for the monthly HMIS report?

a) From the first to the last day of the month

b) 21st of the previous month to 20th of the report month

c) From the tenth of the month to the ninth of the next month

d) Every Monday.

VI. Community Health Information System (CHIS)

CHIS is different from other parts of the HMIS because

a) It focuses on services provided at facilities

b) It focuses on services delivered outside of facilities

c) It is not linked to the national HMIS

d) It uses different tools than HMIS.

What is the main function of a family folder in CHIS?

a) To manage facility supplies

b) To collect household level data for health services

c) To make appointments.

d) To track patient information only at hospitals

In community HIS what is the meaning of "Gote"?

a) A village level administrative unit.

b) A sub- segment of the kebele

c) A group of households in an area.

d) A unit of data collection tool

In community HIS, what is "household profiling"?

a) Identification of households based on income level.

b) Family data collection for planning health services

c) Identifying disease in a specific household.

d) Mapping of a household.

In CHIS, where are the community and family folder kept?

a) In the community health workers home

b) Kept at the facility

c) Sent to higher levels of reporting

d) Kept at the district offices

Which of the following is not a health cards that is used in community HIS?

a) Integrated maternal and child care card

b) Service identification card

c) Integrated communicable disease card

d) Comprehensive Integrated Nutrition card

VII. Disease Surveillance and Response

What is the primary goal of disease surveillance?

a) To treat diseases in hospitals.

b) To diagnose diseases in individuals.

c) To monitor disease trends and detect outbreaks.

d) To report cases of disease to national level

What type of surveillance involves routine, passive data collection?

a) Active surveillance.

b) Passive surveillance.

c) Sentinel surveillance.

d) Syndromic surveillance.

What is the main goal of active surveillance?

a) To provide treatment
b) To find new cases for specific diseases

c) To track all diseases in an area.

d) To conduct population surveys

What does 'case confirmation' mean in disease surveillance?

a) Listing all cases reported

b) Validating a case with lab results or expert opinion

c) Reporting cases of disease

d) Conducting surveys

Which of the following is not considered as a principle of PHEM?

a) Multi-hazard approach

b) From risk assessment to recovery

c) Risk assessment and mitigation

d) Disease elimination

Which of these are not among the diseases considered for immediate reporting in Ethiopia?

a) Measles

b) Tuberculosis

c) Cholera

d) Avian Flu

What is the purpose of "case definition" in surveillance?

a) To define which laboratory can confirm cases

b) To create new disease definitions

c) To help standardize reporting

d) To provide new ways of reporting data

What is “epidemic preparedness”?

a) Identifying all diseases in a community

b) Ensuring the community have protective measures

c) Planning, designation of facilities to respond to outbreaks.

d) Preventing further spread of infectious disease

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of disease surveillance system?

a) Case detection

b) Case registration

c) Case confirmation

d) Data dissemination

Which of these is a reporting tool for disease surveillance?

a) Family folder

b) Patient card

c) Daily epidemic reporting form

d) Tally sheet

In the reporting timeline of notifiable diseases, data from health facility should reach Woreda office in:

a) 12 hours

b) 30 minutes

c) One week
d) 24 hours

VIII. Logistics Information System (LMIS)

What is the primary focus of a Logistics Management Information System (LMIS)?

a) Managing patient records

b) Managing supply chain.

c) Managing budgets and finances

d) Managing health worker records

Which is NOT a right for LMIS data?

a) The right time

b) The right price

c) The right quality

d) The right staff

Which of these is one of the basic types of Logistics records?

a) Stock keeping records

b) Patient registers

c) Case reporting forms

d) Financial records

What is a key benefit of a computerized LMIS?

a) Reduced need for trained staff

b) Eliminating data error

c) Rapid aggregations and calculations

d) Increased manual labor.

Which of these is NOT a typical challenge in LMIS in developing countries?

a) Inadequate resources for software maintenance.

b) Poor infrastructure.

c) High level of skilled professionals.

d) Poor recordkeeping.

What does a reporting system in supply chain help in?

a) Monitoring service provision

b) Making logistics decision.

c) Increasing sales for suppliers.

d) Reducing cost of care

Which of the following is part of LMIS?

a) Record keeping and back-up

b) Client data analysis

c) Disease analysis

d) Human resource analysis

IX. Data Management and DHIS2

What is the main purpose of data validation in DHIS2?

a) To make data look nice

b) To make sure data is captured in correct format

c) To analyze data

d) To change data

What does “data set” mean in DHIS2?

a) A single data point.

b) A collection of data elements used for data entry

c) A place to store analyzed data.

d) A collection of different databases.

What is a unique characteristic of data entry in DHIS2?

a) Data entry on the app is always manual

b) Data is entered for an org unit for a specified period

c) Data sets are not user friendly

d) It does not support custom forms

What is a key use of the audit trail in DHIS2?

a) To track who enters data

b) To see previous values for a data field.

c) To correct mistakes.

d) To log out of the system.

Which of these is a benefit of online data entry using DHIS2?

a) Data is automatically uploaded to the central server when a user is connected to the internet

b) There is no need for internet connectivity

c) Data can be edited at any point

d) Data is not saved locally.

What is meant by ‘Organizational Unit’ in DHIS2?

a) A group of health workers

b) A system of storing information

c) A location or facility where data is collected

d) An indicator on dashboard.

Which dimension is used to answer ‘What’ question in DHIS2?

a) Organization units

b) Data elements

c) Periods

d) Dashboard

Which of the following is NOT a core part of DHIS2 environment?

a) Apps

b) User profile

c) Data base

d) Messages

What is the main use of dashboards in DHIS2?

a) To analyze complex data

b) To present data using GIS

c) To provide quick access to analytical results

d) To share data in form of excel

Which type of reports are reports with predefined designs?

a) Data set reports

b) Standard reports

c) Static reports

d) Event reports

Which of the following is a visualization tool in DHIS2?

a) Event capture

b) Import export

c) Data entry

d) Pivot table.

What is used to visualize aggregate data on maps in DHIS2?

a) Pivot tables

b) Data visualizer

c) GIS

d) Event reports

X. Information dissemination and Use

What is information dissemination?

a) Analysis and visualization of data

b) Data collection from different sources

c) Making information products accessible to end users

d) Developing a quality information products

What are some of the common channels for information dissemination?

a) Patient cards

b) Annual performance reports, Broadcast Media, Academic journals, and Technical reports

c) Tally sheet and registers

d) Facility based reports

What is ‘Performance Monitoring’ concerned about?

a) Only tracking of data quality

b) Tracking the progress toward set goal.

c) Only following budget allocation

d) All of the above

What are PMT meetings focused on?

a) Solving technical issues in the facility

b) Reporting data quality gaps to higher levels

c) Discussion of progress, problems and root cause analysis

d) Feedback on previous meeting minutes

The goal of integrated supportive supervision is:

a) To find errors in staff’s work

b) To identify bad behavior in staff

c) To solve problems together and improve performance

d) To provide outside control

What is the central focus of supportive supervision feedback?

a) Punishing workers

b) Finding mistakes and bad behaviors

c) Respectful and non-authoritarian.

d) Just providing a report.

Let me know if you would like any adjustments or further questions based on these objectives.