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VCS-252 5-0

The document consists of a series of questions and answers related to the administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX. It covers various topics such as virtual storage configurations, command line utilities, benefits of features, and commands for managing disk groups and volumes. The content is structured as a quiz format, likely intended for training or assessment purposes.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views72 pages

VCS-252 5-0

The document consists of a series of questions and answers related to the administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX. It covers various topics such as virtual storage configurations, command line utilities, benefits of features, and commands for managing disk groups and volumes. The content is structured as a quiz format, likely intended for training or assessment purposes.

Uploaded by

MCP Mark
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as ODT, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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VCS-252

Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix

Version 5.0

Topic 1, Volume A

QUESTION NO: 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for
UNIX?

A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?

A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)

A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select
two.)

A. improved deduplication for data backup


B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company's storage devices.
The excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to
set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires based on age.

How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?

A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?

A. optimized Data Deduplication process


B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for
UNIX instead of file system snapshots? (Select two.)

A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 8
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?

A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?

A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data


B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)

A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file


B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image

Answer: A, E

QUESTION NO: 11
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?

A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have
which two types of layouts? (Select two.)

A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with
striping or concatenation?

A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)

A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks
reside?

A. on separate disk slices


B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by
the Installation and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)?
(Select two.)

A. existing Symantec packages and patches


B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?

A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a
valid license key during installation without receiving warning messages?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
Management Server (MS) with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)

A. manage host deployment across the enterprise


B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities

Answer: B, E

QUESTION NO: 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)

A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default


B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?

A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and
Veritas File System (VxFS)?

A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow
multi-pathing of Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)

A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 24
What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?

A. based on configured policies, it performs the required actions on the message


B. based on configured policies, it scans the message for attributes and violations
C. based on default policies, it stores spam and virus messages
D. based on default policies, it provides automated synchronization from LDAP

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 25
Which Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX user interface provides a menu-driven, text-
based interface for performing some disk and disk group administration?

A. Veritas Enterprise Administrator (VEA)


B. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
C. vxedit
D. vxdiskadm

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 26
Which command can be run from the command line interface of a Scanner appliance to list,
backup or restore the current message audit logging logs?

A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. malquery
D. mallog

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 27
Which statement is true regarding the encrypted attachment disposition in the Virus policy
settings?

A. it is a subset of the 'unscannable' disposition


B. it leverages TLS or gateway to gateway encryption
C. the default action is to delete
D. it also includes password protected files

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28
A server with one disk group is running Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX and suffers a
system board failure. An administrator moves the disks in that disk group to a new server. When
the administrator tries to import the disk group, the import fails.

Which command should the administrator use to successfully import the disk group?

A. vxdg -C import
B. vxdg -f import
C. vxdg -n newname import
D. vxdg -t import

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 29
Which command can an administrator run to display all of the imported and deported disk
groups for a system?

A. vxdg
B. vxlist
C. vxddladm
D. vxconfig

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30
A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk
group.

Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?

A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4


B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 31
Which component do you configure to enable the Instant Messaging security proxy?

A. Premium Content Control


B. Control Center
C. Conduit
D. Scanner

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?

A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 33
A volume manager disk, EMC_10, in diskgroup appdg is used for a 30G simple volume and it is
mounted. An administrator needs to relocate the disk EMC_10 and its associated volume from
diskgroup appdg to webdg while preserving the user data.

Which command(s) should the administrator use after unmounting the file system?

A. vxdisk reclaim EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg adddisk EMC_10


B. vxdg -g appdg rmdisk EMC_10; vxdg -g webdg addisk EMC_10
C. vxdg move appdg webdg EMC_10
D. vxdg migrate appdg webdg EMC_10

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 34
An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup
webdg. There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of
volumes that will be affected for planning purposes.

Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?

A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg


B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which two commands can be used to determine the approximate amount of free space in a
diskgroup? (Select two.)

A. vxdisk
B. vxassist
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdg
E. vxdefault

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 36
What does the System Locale setting control?

A. language to use for display and reporting


B. time zone for the region in which a Scanner is deployed
C. format of numbers, dates, and time for Symantec Mail Security 8300
D. language to use for viewing quarantine

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 37
Which command-line option allows you to download the most recent version of the system
software?

A. update download
B. swupdate
C. swupdate download
D. update install

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 38
Which command renames the testdg disk group to engdg?

A. vxedit -f rename testdg engdg


B. vxdg set name=testdg engdg
C. vxdg -n engdg deport testdg
D. vxdg define name=engdg testdg

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 39
What does the command vxprint -v display?

A. verbose information about the volume creation


B. volume and layout information only
C. volume name and device information only
D. volume information only

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 40
Which volume layout is most resilient to disk failure?

A. mirror
B. layered
C. stripe
D. concatenated

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 41
Given the following command:

vxassist -g datadg make datavol 10g layout=stripe !ctrl:c2

Which instruction does the !ctrl:c2 attribute prompt Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX to
follow?

A. to exclude devices connected to controller c2


B. to use only devices connected to controller c2
C. to use two LUNs to create the volume
D. to stripe across LUNs on c2 only
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 42
What is the default volume layout used by the vxassist command?

A. layered
B. striped
C. mirrored
D. concatenated

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 43
An organization is trading in an array and needs to securely clean file system data.

Which command should the administrator use to shred the data?

A. vxassist
B. vxdiskunsetup
C. mkfs
D. fsadm

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 44
When using vxassist to create a volume, what is the default unit of the parameter length?

A. bit
B. byte
C. sector
D. cylinder

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 45
Which option allows creation of various RAID levels when using the vxassist utility?
A. raid=
B. type=
C. level=
D. layout=

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 46
What is the recommended placement of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 product in the
network?

A. at the perimeter of the network


B. behind other SMTP filtering products
C. behind other SMTP relays
D. directly in front of the firewall

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 47
Which command allows the removal of a mirror from a volume?

A. vxvol
B. vxmirror
C. vxplex
D. vxdiskadm

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 48
In which two situations is a Data Change Log automatically created when mirroring an existing
volume? (Select two.)

A. Any time a volume is mirrored.


B. The volume was created on thick LUNs.
C. SmartMove is enabled on the volume.
D. The volume is larger than 1G.
E. The volume was created on thin LUNs.
Answer: C, E

QUESTION NO: 49
How do you display the default email virus policies within the Control Center?

A. Select the Virus tab and then select Settings


B. Select the Policies link and then select Virus
C. Select the Virus tab and then select Email in the Policies section
D. Select Policies and then Settings

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 50
Refer to the exhibit.

How many log plexes exist in the volume?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?

A. as a user list
B. as a distribution list
C. as domain groups
D. as an LDAP list

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52
Which two statements are true regarding the LiveUpdate section in the Virus settings area?
(Select two.)

A. Certified (or Platinum) definitions are enabled by default.


B. A LiveUpdate can be initiated on demand.
C. Rapid Response definitions are enabled by default.
D. Rapid Response definitions can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis.
E. An intermediate proxy server is required for any virus definition download.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 53
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the layout of the volume?

A. concat-mirror
B. mirror-stripe
C. mirror-concat
D. stripe-mirror

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 54
Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?

A. nplex
B. nmirror
C. plex
D. ndisk

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 55
What does the following command do?

vxassist -g hrdg mirror payroll hrdg03

A. mirrors the hrdg03 volume


B. fails to complete
C. lists the disk under disk group hrdg
D. mirrors the payroll volume

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 56
Refer to the exhibit.
The appvol volume contains a Veritas File System (VxFS) file system and is mounted to /app.
The volume has experienced multiple disk failures.

What is the state of the data on the mounted file system?

A. unavailable
B. corrupted
C. partially available
D. fully accessible

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 57
An administrator only has the inode number of a file.

Which command should the administrator run to get the full path name for the file?
A. fsadm
B. fsmap
C. fsapadm
D. ff

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 58
Which command updates a Veritas File System (VxFS) layout from version 7 to version 8?

A. vxrelayout
B. vxupgrade
C. fsadm
D. vxfsconvert

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 59
A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted.
All hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts
the file system using the mount command.

What is the expected behavior?

A. Mount will replay the intent log.


B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 60
What is the default block size for a 2TB file system?

A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 4096
D. 8192

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 61
Which command is used to grow a Veritas File System (VxFS)?

A. fsmigadm
B. fsadm
C. fsppadm
D. vxfsconvert

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 62
Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system.

Which two pieces of information form the basis of an extent? (Select two.)

A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 63
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX components are required to perform thin
reclamation on a thin provision capable array? (Select two.)

A. Dynamic Multi-Pathing
B. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
C. FlashSnap
D. Veritas File System (VxFS)
E. Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)

Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO: 64
What are two benefits of SmartMove? (Select two.)

A. faster plex creation


B. faster disk group deport
C. reduced file system consistency checks
D. reduced storage requirements
E. faster sequential I/O performance

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 65
Why is FastResync enabled automatically for volumes created on thin LUNs?

A. Volumes based on thin LUNs are more likely to require resync than volumes based on thick
LUNs.
B. To ensure thin LUNs remain thin should resync be required.
C. To ensure data written to volumes based on thin LUNs is persistent.
D. Resync for volumes based on thin LUNs is slower than resync for volumes based on thick
LUNs and FastResync bridges this performance gap.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 66
Which two commands are used for thin reclamation? (Select two.)

A. fsadm
B. vxdctl
C. vxdisk
D. vxtune
E. fsmap

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 67
Which command displays thin provisioning capable devices?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdefault
C. vxddladm
D. vxdmpadm

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 68
Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 option protects against spammers who forge mail server
names to evade discovery?

A. Spammer deviation
B. Sender policy framework
C. Discovery recognition
D. Sender authentication standard

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 69
Which command attempts to repair a missing disk access record by finding the name of the
device in the private region and matching it to an existing disk media record?

A. vxdisk
B. vxdctl
C. vxreattach
D. vxrecover

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 70
Which switch needs to be added to the vxdg -g diskgroup adddisk disk_name command to force
Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) to take the disk media name of the failed disk and assign it to
a replacement disk?

A. -force
B. -k
C. -f
D. -assign

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 71
What is required when restoring a backup from one Symantec Mail Security 8300 appliance to a
different physical Symantec Mail Security 8300 appliance?

A. The software versions on the underlying appliances must be identical.


B. The hardware models must be identical.
C. A full backup must be initiated.
D. The group policies configured on the two systems must be identical.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 72
How many IP addresses are required to filter inbound and outbound mail on the same Scanner?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 73
What is the definition of the disk status FAILING?

A. uncorrectable I/O failure(s) on the public region; private region accessible


B. uncorrectable I/O failure(s) on the public region; private region inaccessible
C. uncorrectable I/O failure(s) on both the public and private regions
D. uncorrectable I/O failure(s) on private region; public region accessible

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 74
What does the TEMPRMSD plex state indicate?
A. The plex is synchronized.
B. The plex is removed.
C. The plex is detaching.
D. The plex is synchronizing.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 75
File system write performance starts to be affected on mirrored volumes assigned to a specific
disk array. A path failure is suspected.

Which two commands could be used to determine the controllers to the specified disk array?
(Select two.)

A. vxlist
B. vxdisk
C. vxddladm
D. vxprint
E. vxdmpadm

Answer: B, E

QUESTION NO: 76
The file system Storage Checkpoint Visibility feature is configured when mounting the primary
fileset.

What are the possible configuration options?

A. ro, off, rw
B. auto, ondemand
C. ondemand, remove
D. yes, no, error

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 77
What can be done while deporting a disk group using Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)?
A. some of the disks can be assigned to a new disk group
B. the disk group version can be upgraded to the latest version available
C. the name of the host, which will import the disk group at reboot, can be specified
D. the disk group can be split into two new disk groups

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 78
Which two Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) add-ons are deployed by default? (Select two.)

A. Veritas Storage Foundation Add-on for Storage Provisioning


B. Veritas Operations Manager Add-on for VCS Administration
C. Veritas Operations Manager Control Host Add-on
D. Veritas Operations Manager Add-on for SF Administration
E. Veritas Operations Manager Add-on for Storage Foundation Administration for UNIX

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 79
What is the namespace extension required to perform FileSnap over NFS?

A. ::clone:vxfs:
B. ::snap:vxfs:
C. ::filesnap:vxfs:
D. ::ckptfile:vxfs:

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 80
Which option can be selected for the log level from the Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
Management Server setting page?

A. Critical
B. Error
C. Warning
D. Notice
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 81
Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)

A. Suspect virus quarantine


B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 82
Which command is used to display current file system I/O parameters for a Veritas File System
(VxFS)?

A. vxtune
B. vxtunefs
C. vxfsio
D. fsadm

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 83
An administrator suspects that file creation performance is degraded in several directories on a
Veritas File System (VxFS).

Which command should be used to analyze directory organization?

A. fsadm
B. fiostat
C. fsapadm
D. fsppadm

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
A file is compressed using vxcompress with a strength of 3. The owner subsequently needs to
change it to a strength of 9.

Which steps must the owner take?

A. unmount file system, remount with new tunables


B. rename the file, recompress with strength 9
C. uncompress file, recompress with strength 9
D. rerun vxcompress with strength 9

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 85
Which Storage Foundation utility is used to generate random read and random write workloads
so that the performance of a file system can be analyzed?

A. vxbench
B. vxtrace
C. vxstat
D. vmstat

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 86
What is the primary purpose of Compliance Folders?

A. to block attempts to send confidential information outside the organization


B. to monitor, track, and remediate violations of a policy
C. to provide access to the document storage repository to monitor potential policy violations
D. to store archived messages

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 87
Which command is used to gather buffer cache statistics for a Veritas File System (VxFS)?
A. fiostat
B. vxstat
C. vxfsstat
D. vxmemstat

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 88
A disk group with four disks contains a two-column striped and mirrored volume.

Which step must be performed first to change the volume to have three columns without losing
the redundancy?

A. use the vxassist command to relayout the volume


B. use the vxrelayout command to relayout the volume
C. use the vxassist command to convert the volume
D. use the vxdg command to add two disks to the disk group

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 89
The vxassist convert command can be used to convert between which two volume layouts?
(Select two.)

A. mirror-stripe to stripe-mirror
B. mirror-stripe to RAID-5
C. concat-mirror to concat
D. mirror-stripe to stripe
E. concat-mirror to mirror-concat

Answer: A, E

QUESTION NO: 90
Which firewall port should be opened to download antispam rulesets from Symantec?

A. 80
B. 443
C. 41025
D. 41443

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 91
On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)

A. On the Control Center Dashboard


B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 92
What is a restriction for the volume relayout operation?

A. The file systems must be unmounted.


B. I/O to the file system must be stopped.
C. The file system must be checked for consistency.
D. The file systems must support online resizing.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 93
What happens when a mirrored volume is converted to RAID-5?

A. All plexes of the mirrored volume are converted to RAID-5.


B. One plex is converted to RAID-5 and all other plexes are removed.
C. The number of plexes converted depends on how many columns the RAID-5 volume has.
D. The number of plexes converted depends on the stripe unit size.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 94
If a system fails during a volume relayout, what happens to the transformation after the system is
restored?
A. Transformation continues after the system is restored.
B. Volume configuration can be restored from config copy backed up by vxconfigdbackupd.
C. Transformation is reversed and may have to be repeated manually.
D. Data may become corrupted and may have to be restored from backup.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 95
Which command should be used to manage the contents of volboot?

A. vxvolboot
B. vxdctl
C. vxedit
D. vxconfigd

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 96
Which setting adjustment can improve LDAP performance?

A. changing the default LDAP port from the standard port (389) to the Global Catalog Port
(3268)
B. always enforcing a full synchronization
C. setting the LDAP replication frequency to 4 hours
D. clearing the 'Ignore LDAP Referrals' check box

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 97
Which component of the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) architecture allows DMP to properly
claim devices and defines the array class (e.g., A/A, A/P, APF, ALUA)?

A. Device Discovery Layer


B. Array Support Library
C. Array Policy Module
D. Hardware Compatibility List
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 98
A system administrator has been notified by Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT) that
a new version of the Array Support Library/Array Policy Modules package is available. The
administrator first removes the old VRTSaslapm package and then installs the new one.

What is the final command that must be executed to complete the upgrade?

A. vxdmpadm -U cfgapm all


B. vxdisk scandisks
C. vxddladm includearray all
D. vxdctl upgrade

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 99
When should an administrator use the remount option with the mount command on a local
Veritas File System (VxFS)?

A. if the file system was accidentally unmounted


B. when updating mount options
C. after a file system corruption
D. to mount the file system in multiple places

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 100


An administrator is unable to receive output from vxprint, vxdisk list, or other reporting
commands but does have access to volumes and file system data.

What is the likely cause of this problem?

A. vxconfigd has stopped running.


B. vxdctl has stopped running.
C. A disk has failed.
D. The disk.info file is corrupt.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 101


Which command displays the number of paths for disk hds9500-alua0_57?

A. vxdisk -p list hds9500-alua0_57


B. vxdisk scandisk hds9500-alua0_57
C. vxdmpadm list hds9500-alua0_57
D. vxdisk list hds9500-alua0_57

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 102


Which three are valid configuration options when working with compliance folders? (Select
three.)

A. the format of the notification email


B. the incident archive tag
C. the retention time for compliance incidents
D. the maximum size for all compliance folders

Answer: A, B, D

QUESTION NO: 103


By default, how many times will Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) retry a failed I/O request for a
single path?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 104


Which two are reports provided by Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. Executive Summary
B. Reputation Summary
C. Hardware Utilization Summary
D. IM Compliance Summary
E. Capacity Planning Summary

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 105


The Concurrent I/O (CIO) option is enabled for a mounted Veritas File System (VxFS).

What must be done to disable it?

A. use the remount option to the mount command without specifying cio
B. unmount the file system and then mount it again without specifying cio
C. run vxtunefs
D. run vxtune

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 106


Which command should be used to determine the existing Array Support Libraries (ASL) and
supported disk arrays on an existing system?

A. vxprint
B. vxddladm
C. vxdmpadm
D. vxcheckasl

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 107


What is the major source of IP reputation information for the Symantec Sender Reputation
Service?

A. SMTP traffic shaping results


B. 3rd party real-time blacklist services
C. The Probe Network
D. customer submissions

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 108


Which command is required to make changes in I/O policies for multiple paths persistent?

A. vxdmpadm
B. vxdctl
C. vxtune
D. vxddladm

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 109


Which two can be managed with group policies? (Select two.)

A. Invalid recipient handling


B. Antispam protection
C. File transfers over IM
D. SMTP Traffic Shaping
E. Allowed Sender Lists

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 110


Which information is required when backing up the system to a remote location using the
Control Center?

A. a username and host to facilitate secure copy protocol (SCP) transfer


B. the domain, port, and path of the ftp server
C. the directory where the compressed backup should be downloaded
D. the IP address of the dedicated backup appliance

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 111


Which two fields must be configured to identify the LDAP server? (Select two.)

A. Host
B. Port
C. Name (Bind DN)
D. Password
E. Username

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 112


When creating a traditional third mirror breakoff snapshot, which plex state indicates that the
snapshot is ready?

A. ACTIVE
B. SNAPTMP
C. SNAPDONE
D. SNAPATT

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113


Which Veritas File System (VxFS) I/O error policy will place the file system into a degraded
state upon a metadata write failure?

A. nodisable
B. wdisable
C. mwdisable
D. mdisable

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 114


During which stage of the installation process is external Internet connectivity mandatory?

A. when racking the appliance


B. during the registration phase of the Site Setup Wizard
C. during the bootstrap phase
D. when physically connecting the appliance to the network

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 115


Which two are benefits of using IM security features of Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select
two.)

A. enables disclaimers in IM traffic


B. provides support for enterprise IM systems
C. allows administrator to restrict/allow IM use by network
D. archives IM traffic
E. enables security proxy for public IM traffic

Answer: C, E

Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION NO: 116


A snapshot is created under the command vxassist snapstart and successfully completes. The
server is subsequently rebooted.

What is the snapshot plex state after the server has come completely online?

A. SNAPCOMPLETE
B. SNAPATT
C. SNAPDONE
D. SNAPRECOVER

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 117


Deduplication is controlled at which level?

A. file system
B. disk group
C. directory
D. volume

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 118


Which command is used to change the default thin reclaim schedule?

A. vxdmpadm
B. vxdmptune
C. vxtune
D. vxdefault

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 119


What must be true in the DNS setup to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across
multiple SMTP gateway servers?

A. the preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same


B. the Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname
C. the load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally
routable IP address
D. the preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 120


When performing a dry run for deduplication, fsdedupadm may take a '-o threshold=percentage'
argument.

This argument will initiate an actual deduplication run when the metric reaches which given
value?

A. the percentage of file system disk usage


B. the percentage of expected savings
C. the percentage of duplicate file names
D. the percentage of the dry run completed
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 121


Which configuration setting specifies the host to which Scanners should route mail after
filtering?

A. SMTP Routes
B. External relay
C. System locale
D. Local relay

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 122


Which set of configuration choices will best help reduce the volume of messages that need to be
processed by the filtering engine?

A. enabling SMTP traffic shaping, rejecting Zombie connections in Sender Groups, configuring
invalid recipient configuration
B. deleting all spam messages, deleting all virus attachments, configuring sender authentication
C. enabling LDAP authentication, quarantining all spam and suspected spam, and increasing
concurrent MTA connections
D. controlling maximum attachment sizes, setting a lower recursion limit for ZIP files, enabling
bad message handling

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 123


Which two LDAP directories does Symantec Mail Security 8300 support for LDAP
Synchronization? (Select two.)

A. Groupwise
B. Open LDAP
C. Active Directory
D. Lotus Domino

Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO: 124
What is the proper function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 IM Scanner?

A. The proxy establishes the connection. The scanner accepts the instant message connection,
encrypts the transmission, and connects the instant message to the internal network.
B. The scanner accepts the instant message connection and connects instant messaging to the
external network.
C. The proxy establishes the connection. The scanner accepts the instant message connection,
encrypts the transmission, and connects instant messaging to the external network.
D. The scanner accepts the instant message connection and connects the instant message to the
internal network.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 125


What is a valid deduplication chunk size?

A. 1K
B. 2K
C. 32K
D. 256K

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 126


What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 default Email Virus Policy?

A. checks for viruses, mass-mailing worms, spyware, adware, and suspicious attachments
B. checks for viruses, mass-mailing worms, spam, and suspected spam
C. checks for internal and external mass-mailings and suspicious attachments
D. checks for spyware, adware, and all message attributes

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 127


A disk group is configured for site awareness for two sites (SiteA and SiteB) and the site
consistency flag for the disk group is set to off. Each site has four disks assigned. One disk on
SiteB fails.

What is the state of the disks assigned to the disk group?

A. All disks are marked as failed and SiteB is detached.


B. The failed disk is marked as failed and SiteB remains attached.
C. The failed disk is marked as failed and SiteB is detached.
D. The failed disk is marked as failed and both sites are detached.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 128


Which two are uses for a self-signed certificate? (Select two.)

A. SMTP Sender Authentication


B. TLS encryption
C. Scanner to Scanner communication in the DMZ
D. SSL-based administration of the Control Center

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 129


What does 'online invalid' indicate for a disk?

A. The disk is inaccessible


B. The VTOC is invalid
C. The disk is unlabeled
D. The disk is uninitialized

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 130


Which value is configured during the bootstrap process?

A. Administrator password
B. LDAP server
C. Internal mail host
D. Group policies

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 131


An administrator sets up site awareness on a host and needs to verify that everything is set up
correctly.

Which command should the administrator execute to break off one of the sites to verify the
configuration?

A. vxdiskadm
B. vxfiredrill
C. vxdg detachsite
D. vxsite detach

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 132


Which would receive a spam verdict from Symantec?

A. an unwanted account statement from an recipient's financial institution


B. unsolicited email
C. an email that has seven instances of the term 'viagra'
D. unsolicited commercial bulk email

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 133


What is the first action an administrator must take when configuring SmartTier on a newly
installed Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX server?

A. create placement classes


B. create a volume set
C. turn on the file change log (FCL)
D. define placement policies
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 134


Which three happen when performing a Factory Reset? (Select three.)

A. clears existing mail queues


B. clears all logs from the database
C. clears all reports from the database
D. clears all status information from the database

Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION NO: 135


Which is a predefined pattern available with a Premium Content Control subscription?

A. US phone number
B. social security number
C. ABA routing numbers
D. valid social security number

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 136


Which setting can only be configured during bootstrap?

A. system settings configuration


B. appliance role set up
C. time zone configuration
D. product registration

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 137


What is an example of a temporary SMTP failure code?

A. 3xx
B. 4xx
C. 5xx
D. 6xx

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 138


Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 appliance is configured for RAID 10?

A. 8320
B. 8340
C. 8360
D. 8380

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 139


A system administrator needs to optimize the use of solid state disks in a data center by
automatically allocating them to files that are frequently accessed and that require high
throughput.

Using Veritas Operation Manager (VOM) to configure SmartTier, which Canned File Placement
Policy should be configured to optimize the use of solid state disks?

A. Access age-based
B. Update age-based
C. I/O activity-based
D. Access age-based with preferred files

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 140


What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?

A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 141


What can be used to specify groups of users for group policies?

A. Email address, domain names, and LDAP group


B. Username, domain names, and IP address
C. Domain names, LDAP group, and username
D. Email address, domain names, and IP address

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 142


Which two questions can be answered using the available graphical reports in the Control
Center? (Select two.)

A. Who is sending me spam?


B. Which compliance policies are firing?
C. Which IP addresses are invalid?
D. Which LDAP servers are sending me viruses?

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 143


What is a recommended use of a compliance policy?

A. to verify sender authentication through a Sender ID


B. to improve the antispam effectiveness of the product
C. to check sender address against a blocked/allowed senders list
D. to check outbound messages for restricted attachment types and content

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 144


In which scenario should an administrator add MTA host information to the Internal Mail Host
page?
A. one or more MTAs are, with respect to inbound mail flow, upstream from the Symantec Mail
Security 8300 Scanners
B. the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Scanners, with respect to inbound mail flow, are deployed
at the Internet gateway
C. the Symantec Mail Security 8300 is configured as a combined Scanner/Control Center during
the initial bootstrap phase
D. Directory Harvest Attack prevention is enabled and the configured LDAP source is situated in
the internal network

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 145


What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?

A. selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option


B. importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. defining an LDAP source for authentication

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 146


What are two benefits of the Multi-Volume Support feature (MVS)? (Select two.)

A. Metadata can be placed on a separate volume.


B. It supports UNIX native file systems.
C. It provides data failover to secondary volumes.
D. A single Veritas File System (VxFS) can be created on multiple volumes.
E. Multiple file systems can share storage from an MVS volume.

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 147


What is considered a customer-defined verdict?

A. Virus
B. Email firewall
C. Spam
D. Compliance

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 148


What is the default logging level for Symantec Mail Security 8300?

A. Notices
B. All
C. Information
D. Errors
E. Warnings

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 149


How are email clients able to transfer non-text data, such as images, zip files, etc.?

A. using the enhanced SMTP protocol


B. using MIME encoding
C. using SMTP tunneling
D. using the IMAP protocol

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 150


An administrator needs to provide storage for a critical database application that maximizes both
database performance and protection against data loss.

Which storage configuration should the administrator select?

A. RAID-0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-1+0

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 151
Which scanner log would you consult if you suspect that antispam rules are not being updated?

A. MTA
B. Conduit
C. Filter hub
D. Transmission

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 152


Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?

A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 153


Hot-relocation is available for which two types of volume layouts? (Select two.)

A. striped
B. striped-mirror
C. striped with parity
D. concatenated with hot standby disk
E. striped with hot standby disk

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 154


Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for
use?

A. if a message is unscannable for viruses


B. if a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. if a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. if a message contains a virus

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 155


Which requirement must be met when using the Web Installer to install Veritas Storage
Foundation 6.0 for UNIX on multiple systems?

A. Only the target systems must be running the same operating system.
B. The installation server and all target systems must be running the same operating system.
C. All systems must be running the same operating system patch level.
D. Only one system can be installed at a time.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 156


Which process must be running for a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) managed host to be
added to one or more VOM Management Servers?

A. vxsvc
B. vxconfigd
C. xprtld
D. sfmcswd

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 157


Which command will mirror an encapsulated boot disk?

A. vxdisksetup
B. vxbootadm
C. vxrootadm
D. vxdmpadm

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 158
A disk has been initialized for use in Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM).

Which command is used to create a disk group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag
and using a disk media name of datadg01?

A. vxdg setup datadg datadg01=device_tag


B. vxdg define datadg device_tag=datadg01
C. vxdg init datadg device_tag=datadg01
D. vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 159


Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)

A. consolidates logging information


B. houses email Spam Quarantine messages
C. generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. executes email policies

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION NO: 160


Which two content compliance features are included with the Premium Content Control
subscription? (Select two.)

A. document training
B. pre-built policy templates
C. incident management
D. structured data matching
E. message level encryption

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 161


The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command.
Volumes have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted.
What happens to the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?

A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg
import appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can
import it.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 162


Group policies for the Sales and IT departments have been created. The Sales department’s
suspected spam action is set to quarantine the message, whereas the IT department’s suspected
spam action is set to delete the message.

If a user’s email address happens to be contained in both groups, how could you ensure the Sales
department’s group policy is enforced?

A. change the priority of the IT group policy to delete suspected spam


B. set the Sales group policy to quarantine spam
C. move the Sales group policy to the top of the Group's view
D. move the Sales group policy to the bottom of the Group's view

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 163


An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg.

Which command should the administrator use to move the data volumes?

A. vxdg move appdg webdg


B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 164


Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the
vxdg destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)

A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group
recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in
other disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 165


Which command displays the number of paths to the disk DISK01?

A. vxdisk listpath DISK01


B. vxdisk getpath DISK01
C. vxddladm getsubpaths DISK01
D. vxdisk list DISK01

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 166


Which command can be used to replace a failed or removed disk?

A. vxdmpadm
B. vxassist
C. vxdisksetup
D. vxdiskadm

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 167
Which best describes address masquerading?

A. rewriting the domain name in the address of inbound and outbound mail
B. expanding an email address to one or more other email addresses
C. encrypting outgoing email to ensure the sender information is concealed
D. email fraud tactic where the sender maliciously alters the From: headers

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 168


Which command configures a disk for use by Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?

A. vxdiskconfig
B. vxdisksetup
C. vxdg
D. vxdmpadm

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 169


What is the allowable score range for the Suspected Spam Threshold?

A. 20 through 89
B. 25 through 89
C. 90 through 100
D. 1 through 100

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 170


Which command is used to monitor a plex synchronization that is occurring in the background
when a mirror is added to a volume?

A. vxtask
B. vxplex
C. vxtrace
D. vxstat
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 171


What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?

A. in front of the external firewall


B. behind the existing Exchange server
C. at the SMTP gateway
D. integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 172


Which command is used to mirror all volumes from one disk to another?

A. vxedit
B. vxvol
C. vxdiskpr
D. vxdiskadm

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 173


Which statement is true regarding the encryption support on Symantec Mail Security 8300?

A. Enabling encryption requires a Premium Content Control license.


B. Administrators can configure a set of remote domains that require TLS encryption.
C. Encrypted messages can be routed to the Web Messenger for storage and end user access.
D. Encryption support always requires integrating with a third party vendor, such as PGP or
Voltage.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 174


What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the
hostnames should be tried
D. identifies the IP addresses associated with host names

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 175


Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?

A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 176


How often does Symantec Mail Security 8300 update new anti-spam rules?

A. every 5-7 minutes


B. several times a day
C. every day
D. every 3-7 days

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 177


What SMTP command precedes the transmission of the message body?

A. 250
B. Data
C. 100
D. Message

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 178
Which two are advantages of deploying multiple Symantec Mail Security 8300 Scanners? (Select
two.)

A. redundancy
B. management of policies
C. scalability
D. inbound and outbound scanning

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 179


What is the default action for an unscannable attachment?

A. Quarantine
B. Delete
C. Defer
D. Strip and hold

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 180


What does migrating from thick to thin LUNs involve?

A. array-level mirroring
B. attaching a plex
C. creating volume snapshots
D. encapsulation

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 181


Which statement is true about the Message Audit Logs feature on Symantec Mail Security 8300?

A. it requires a dedicated appliance to query data across all scanners


B. it is accessible only via the Control Center graphical interface
C. it is disabled by default
D. it supports a maximum of one mandatory and two optional query filters

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 182


Which two statements are true about SMTP Traffic Shaping? (Select two.)

A. It applies SMTP deferrals to incoming connections from spammers.


B. It analyzes outbound SMTP connections.
C. It performs remote DNS queries to Symantec's global reputation database.
D. It analyzes sender IPs based on local reputation data at the customer site.
E. It enables the appliance to be deployed after the gateway layer manages outbound messages.

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 183


Which three settings impact the size and performance of the Symantec Mail Security 8300
database? (Select three.)

A. report retention
B. log levels
C. quarantine retention
D. compliance incident size

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION NO: 184


Which daemon performs thin reclamation asynchronously?

A. vxattachd
B. vxrelocd
C. vxconfigd
D. vxcached

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 185


At which point during the installation process do you register the product?

A. during the Site Setup wizard


B. after the Site Setup wizard
C. during the bootstrap process
D. after connecting power and appropriate devices

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 186


What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?

A. True file type scanning


B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 187


How are shrunk spaces reclaimed on shrinking Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) volumes
based on thin reclaimable LUNs?

A. through automatic reclamation asynchronously


B. through aggressive reclamation
C. manually, by the administrator using the fsadm command
D. by using Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 188


What is a key consideration when deploying a scanner with IM filtering in production?

A. ensuring that the Symantec appliance points to an internal DNS server to route traffic to the
public network
B. allocating 4 externally routable IP addresses for each IM Scanner
C. adjusting internal DNS records to route internal IM traffic to the SMS Scanner that is
configured for IM filtering
D. installing Symantec IM Setup wizard on each client desktop in the organization

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 189


Portions of the same disk group were imported onto several systems at the same time resulting in
conflicting configuration copies.

Which command should be used to resolve the conflict?

A. vxreattach
B. vxsplitlines
C. vxrecover
D. vxconfigrestore

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 190


The volume datavol has yet to be started, its kernel state is DISABLED, and its plexes are
synchronized.

The volume datavol is in which state?

A. READY
B. WAIT
C. INIT
D. CLEAN

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 191


What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?

A. sends email alerts to administrators or other parties


B. sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by
Symantec
D. sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 192


How can an administrator uninstall the Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) management server
prior to upgrade?

A. execute the installation binary with the -uninstall option


B. use the Common Product Installer (CPI) script and select the VOM server to uninstall
C. uninstall the two VOM packages using OS-specific commands
D. connect to port 5634 on the VOM management server using a web browser

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 193


When creating a policy to check outbound messages for inappropriate dissemination of credit
card numbers, which policy resource should be leveraged in the policy?

A. Smart identifiers
B. Patterns
C. Dictionaries
D. Annotations

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 194


Which two actions are strongly recommended prior to shutting down a Symantec Mail Security
8300 Scanner? (Select two).

A. Stop the mail flow


B. Flush the mail queues
C. Shut down the attached UPS
D. Verify that all users are logged out
E. Back up the quarantine

Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO: 195
Which three are options for invalid recipient handling? (Select three.)

A. Reject invalid recipients


B. Accept all recipients
C. Drop invalid recipients
D. Quarantine invalid recipients

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION NO: 196


How should an administrator configure a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) management
server after installation?

A. by using the Common Product Installer (CPI) on the management server


B. by starting the xprtld and vxdclid processes on the management server
C. by using a Web browser to connect to port 5634 on the management server
D. by using the vomadm utility on the management server

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 197


For disaster recovery purposes, data is mirrored between arrays at two sites.

Which volume read policy preferentially reads from plexes at the locally defined site?

A. select
B. prefer
C. siteread
D. local

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 198


Which languages are supported by system locales?

A. English, German, and Simplified Chinese


B. English, French, Traditional Chinese, and Italian
C. English, German, and Korean
D. English, French, Japanese, Korean, Traditional Chinese, and Simplified Chinese

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 199


Which two Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) commands can be used for printing statistical
information on one or more disks? (Select two.)

A. vxdmpadm iostat
B. vxtrace
C. vxmemstat
D. vxstat
E. vxbench

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 200


Which attribute is configurable for alert notifications?

A. email address that appears in the FROM: line of the alert


B. subject line
C. HTML formatting
D. user name of recipient in LDAP

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 201


Which operation must be performed to change a layered volume to a non-layered volume?

A. Convert the volume using the vxassist command


B. Convert the volume using the vxrelayout command
C. Convert the volume using the vxedit command
D. Convert the volume using the vxcdsconvert command

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 202
What is only configured during the Site Setup wizard?

A. Local domains
B. Policy configuration
C. Add administrator accounts
D. Appliance role

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 203


Scanners configured for IM filtering act as a security proxy for which type of traffic?

A. public network IM traffic


B. enterprise IM traffic
C. encrypted IM traffic
D. internal IM traffic

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 204


Where do you customize settings for Sender Groups?

A. Spam tab
B. Administration tab
C. Virus tab
D. Status tab

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 205


After initial setup, what is the default action for suspected spam messages?

A. Qauarantine the suspected spam message to the Email Spam Quarantine


B. Delete the suspected spam message
C. Insert the text [Suspected Spam] into the subject line
D. Bounce the suspected spam message to the sender
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 206


Which operation can be performed during a volume relayout?

A. Create a volume snapshot


B. Stop and reverse the relayout
C. Change the number of mirrors in the volume
D. Perform another concurrent relayout on the volume

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 207


Which command should an administrator use to discover only new devices on a system?

A. vxdisk
B. vxdctl
C. vxconfigd
D. vxinfo

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 208


Which command is used to restart the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) configuration daemon
with the highest level of debugging?

A. vxconfigd -k -x 0
B. vxconfigd -k -x 6
C. vxconfigd -k -x 9
D. vxconfigd -k -x 10

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 209


Which IP address is required to complete the bootstrap of an SMS 8300 Appliance?

A. LDAP server
B. DNS server
C. Default gateway
D. Internal mail server

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 210


Which three are true regarding the 'Premium' and 'Basic' dictionaries that ship with the product?
(Select three.)

A. Both dictionaries ship with pre-populated terms.


B. Administrators can delete predefined terms in a Premium dictionary.
C. Basic dictionary includes a list of racially insensitive terms.
D. The dictionaries are case insensitive.

Answer: A, C, D

QUESTION NO: 211


Which command is used to change the dmp_cache_open tunable?

A. vxdmpadm tune dmp_cache_open=on


B. vxtune dmp_cache_open=on
C. vxtune dmp_cache_open on
D. vxdmpadm settune dmp_cache_open=on

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 212


Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) uses the I/O policy for distributing I/O load across multiple paths
to a disk array or enclosure.

What is the default I/O policy for all arrays?

A. minimumq
B. priority
C. round-robin
D. adaptive
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 213


What is the default Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) path restoration policy?

A. check_all
B. check_alternate
C. check_periodic
D. check_disabled

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 214


What is the default inbound action for a suspected virus?

A. Delete the message in virus quarantine


B. Strip and hold the message in virus quarantine
C. Strip the message's attachment
D. Bounce the message back to the sender

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 215


Which command will print information for Dynamic Multi-pathing nodes on a system?

A. vxdmpadm iostat show


B. vxdmpadm config show
C. vxdmpadm stat dmpnode
D. vxdmpadm list dmpnode all

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 216


What are the key components of a group policy in Symantec Mail Security 8300?

A. a list of sender groups, sender authentication profiles, and scan settings for an organization
B. disposition configuration, user email addresses, and quarantine settings
C. an LDAP source and a local domain
D. conditions, a set of actions, and groups to whom the policy applies

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 217


What is an advantage of the Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX checkpoint visibility
feature?

A. ensures checkpoint is automatically deleted under certain conditions


B. eliminates the need for manually mounting storage checkpoints
C. specifies verbose mode, which displays extensive statistical information
D. automatically creates new checkpoints as changes are made to the file system

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 218


In which two situations can FileSnap be used to create a space optimized copy of a file? (Select
two.)

A. within the same directory, original has another owner with 0400 permissions
B. between two different directories on the same file system
C. within the same directory over an NFS exported Veritas File System (VxFS)
D. between two different Veritas File Systems (VxFS) on the same host
E. between the primary fileset and a Storage Checkpoint on the same file system

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 219


Which three policy types can be applied at the group level? (Select three.)

A. Spam
B. Invalid recipients
C. Reputation
D. Virus
E. Compliance

Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION NO: 220
A Storage Checkpoint is created with the command:

fsckptadm -R create thu_8pm /data1

Which statement about this checkpoint is correct if the file system runs out of space?

A. It can only be removed manually because it is a non-removable checkpoint.


B. It is removed even if it is mounted.
C. This and all subsequent checkpoints are recursively removed.
D. It is removed only if the checkpoint is unused.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 221


A user creates a 10 MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size
to 1MB. Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host
using cp.

What is the resulting file size of the copy?

A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 222


When running vxfilesnap or deduplication on an already compressed file, what will happen to
the compressed extents?

A. become uncompressed and then shared


B. remain compressed and then shared
C. a copy of the compressed data will be made
D. a copy of the uncompressed data will be made
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 223


Which two could appear on a deployment checklist when integrating Symantec Mail Security
8300 in a production environment? (Select two.)

A. Ensure that the appliance is deployed at the gateway


B. Ensure that the firewall permits communication to and from Symantec over port 443
C. Ensure that the Exchange Spam Confidence Level is synchronized with suspect spam score
range in the Spam Scanning settings area
D. Block outbound traffic from flowing through the Symantec Mail Security Scanners

Answer: A, B

QUESTION NO: 224


Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?

A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 225


What will be the effect of reducing the compression block size by 50% when using vxcompress
to compress files?

A. Double the amount of logical data per compressed extent


B. Double the amount of compressed data per compressed extent
C. Half the amount of logical data per compressed extent
D. Half the amount of compressed data per compressed extent

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 226


Which two commands are used to configure the site awareness feature? (Select two.)

A. vxconfigd
B. vxdctl
C. vxdisksetup
D. vxdg
E. vxmend

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 227


Which three are used in the sender and body sections of a notification? (Select three.)

A. Policy violated
B. Subject
C. Recipient
D. Attachment names

Answer: B, C, D

QUESTION NO: 228


On a site-aware Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX system, which file contains the name
of the site to which the host belongs?

A. /etc/sites
B. /etc/hosts
C. /etc/vx/sites
D. /etc/vx/volboot

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 229


Which Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX command should be used to determine whether
a SmartTier File Placement Policy has been assigned to a file system?

A. fsmap
B. fsapadm
C. fsadm
D. fsppadm

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 230


Within a file system, mounted with -o ckptautomnt=ro and denoted by /mountpoint, in which
directory will Storage Checkpoints be automatically mounted?

A. /mountpoint/lost+found/.checkpoint
B. /mountpoint/.checkpoint
C. /mountpoint/lost+found/.snapshot
D. /mountpoint/.snapshot

Answer: B

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