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Test ID: Repeaters Jee Advanced Examination

The document outlines a JEE Advanced Examination for repeaters, covering Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics with a total duration of 3 hours and a maximum score of 240 marks. It includes various sections with objective type questions, multiple correct answer types, and numerical answer types related to gravitation and organic chemistry. Each question is designed to test the students' understanding of fundamental concepts and problem-solving skills in these subjects.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
63 views20 pages

Test ID: Repeaters Jee Advanced Examination

The document outlines a JEE Advanced Examination for repeaters, covering Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics with a total duration of 3 hours and a maximum score of 240 marks. It includes various sections with objective type questions, multiple correct answer types, and numerical answer types related to gravitation and organic chemistry. Each question is designed to test the students' understanding of fundamental concepts and problem-solving skills in these subjects.

Uploaded by

saaranganair3000
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

19-07-2024 Batch : i11-i14

STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS JEE ADVANCED EXAMINATION


Pu liyannoo r P.O., P A L A
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + MATHEMATICS
www.brilliantpala.org

Time: 3 hrs Max Marks: 240

PHYSICS : GRAVITATION Test ID


Section I - Straight objective type (4, -1)
811
1. If gravitational forces alone prevent a spherical rotating neutron star from disintegrating. Find minimum
 9 
time period of star that has a mean density of magnitude    10 kg / m ,
11 3

 20 
20
G  1011 N  m 2 / kg 2
3
A) 1sec B) 1.5sec C) 3 sec D) 5sec
2. A space vehicle approaching a planet has a speed v, when it is very far from the planet. At that
moment tangent of its trajectory would miss the centre of the planet by distance R. If the planet has
mass M and radius r, what is the smallest value of R in order that the resulting orbit of the space
vehicle will just miss the surface of the planet?
1
r 2GM  2 r  GM 
A) R   v 2  B) R  1
v r  v  2r 

r  2 GM  r
C) R 
v 
v 
r 
D) R   2GM 
v
3. In older times, people used to think that the Earth was flat. Imagine that the Earth is indeed not a
sphere of radius R, but an infinite plate of thickness H. What value of H is needed to allow the same
gravitational acceleration to be experienced as on the surface of the actual Earth? (Assume that the
Earth’s density is uniform and equl in the two models)

2R 4R 8R R
A) B) C) D)
3 3 3 3
4. Spaceman Fred’s spaceship (which has negligible mass) is in an elliptical orbit about Planet Bob.
The minimum distance between the spaceship and the planet is R; the maximum distance between the
spaceship and the planet is 2R. At the point of maximum distance, Spaceman Fred is traveling at
speed vo. He then fires his thrusters so that he enters a circular orbit of radius 2R. What is his new
speed?

A) v o 3 / 2 B) v o 5 C) v o 3 / 56 D) v o 2
FT 24B /PCM 2

5. Two satellites are launched simultaneously into orbits of radius R and 4R. At an instant the two
satellites are on the same radial line. The time after which they have maximum separation is (mass of
earth = Me): Assume same sense of rotation

8 R 3 R3 7 R 3 R3
A) B) 7 C) D) 
7 GM e GM e 8 GM e GM e

6. Consider motion of a planet around sun under influence of central force. Planet does not have any
moon. Mark the INCORRECT statement

A) The acceleration of centre of mass of planet is always parallel to the radius vector

B) For bound orbits motion of planet takes place in a plane but for unbound orbits, radius vector,
acceleration vector and velocity vector may not always lie in a plane

C) Under influence of central force spin angular momentum is conserved

D) Under influence of central force orbital angular momentum is conserved

7. A double star system consists of two stars A and B which have time period TA and TB. Radius RA and
RB and mass MA and MB. Choose the correct option

A) If TA > TB then RA > RB B) If TA > TB then MA > MB

2 3
 TA   R A 
C)      D) TA = TB
 TB   R B 

 dA 
8. A planet revolves about the sun is elliptical orbit. The areal velocity   of the planet is
 dt 
4.0  1016 m2 / s . The least distance between planet and the sun is 2  1012 m . Then the maximum
speed of the planet in km/s is

A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) None of these

9. The Sun travels in approximately circular orbit of radius R around the center of the galaxy and
completes one revolution in time T. The Earth also revolves around the Sun in time t. Assume orbit
of the Earth to be a circle of radius r (r <<R) and whole mass of the galaxy centered on its center. By
using only these given informations, find and expression for the ratio of the mass of the galaxy to that
of the Sun

3 2 3 2 2 3 2 3
R  t  R T R  t  R T
A)     B)     C)     D)    
 r  T r  t  r  T r  t

10. Consider two identical particles each of mass m held at a separation ro in free space. One of them is
given a velocity vo perpendicular to ro and the other one is simultanously released. For what range of
velocity vo will the masses be bound in orbital motion under their mutual gravitational forces

2Gm 2Gm Gm Gm
A) v o  ro
B) v o  ro
C) v o  2 ro
D) v o  2 ro
FT 24B /PCM 3

Section 2 - Multiple correct answer type (4, -1 Partial Mark +1)

Full marks : +4 - If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option (s)

is (are ) darkened. Partial Marks: + 1 - For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option

11. Two point objects of masses m and 4m are at rest at an infinite separation. They move towards each
other under mutual gravitational attraction. If G is the universal gravitational constant, then at a
separation r

A) the total mechanical energy of the two objects is zero

10Gm
B) their relative velocity is
r

4Gm 2
C) the total kinetic enregy of the objects is
r

D) their relative velocity is zero

12. Inside a uniform sphere of mass M (M is mass of complete sphere) and radius R, a cavity of radius
R/3 is made in the sphere as shown:

A) Gravitational field inside the cavity is uniform

B) Gravitational field inside the cavity is non - uniform

88GM
C) The escape velocity of a particle projected from centre of cavity is
45R

20GM
D) The escape velocity of a particle projected from centre of cavity is
9R
FT 24B /PCM 4

13. Two stars A and B travel in circular orbit around their common centre of mass with radii R1 and R2
respectively as shown in figure. The time for the star B to move through one orbit is 2 days with it
orbital radius R 2  2  109 m . The star A has a constant speed of 3.64  104 ms1 in its orbit

A) According to kepler’s law T 2  r 3 , so both have different time periods

B) the radius of the orbit of the star A, R1  1  109 m

C) the mass of star A is 3.57  1029 kg

D) the mass of star B is 1.79  1029 kg

14. Consider a satellite in bound orbit around earth. Mark the CORRECT statement(s)

A) If the satellite is to be geostationary it must orbit in equatorial plane

B) If satellite is in an elliptical orbit around the earth, radius of curvature of orbit both at perigee and
apogee are equal

C) If the satellite is to escape from the earth completely by firing the satellite’s rocket it will required
same additional kinetic energy at all the point on its circumference

D) Angular momentum of a satellite is conserved during its orbital motion

15. A planet is orbiting a star when for no apparent reason the star’s gravity sudenly vanishes. After
which planet moves in a straight line. Mark the CORRECT statement (s)

A) Newton’s first law is obeyed on planet after gravity vanishes

B) Kepler’s law of areas is obeyed only till the planet is in gravity of star

C) Kepler’s law of areas is obeyed even after gravity vanishes

D) Angular momentum of planet about centre of star is conserved through out its motion
FT 24B /PCM 5

Section III - Numerical answer type (4, –1)


The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. Each questions carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 marks for all other cases. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; eg. 6.25, 7.00,
30.27, 127.30)

Gm
16. Two equal masses are situated at a separation ro. One of them is imparted a velocity v o  ro
perpendicular to the line joining them both are free to move. Treating motion only under mutual
gravitational force find the ratio of maximum and minimum separation between them.

17. What is the time period of seconds pendulum at a depth of 64km from Earth’s surface?
18. A cord of length 64m is used to connect a 100kg astronaut to spaceship whose mass is much larger
than that of the astronaut. Estimate the value of the tension in the cord. Assume that the spaceship is
orbiting near earth surcace. Assume that the spaceship and the astronaut fall on a straight line from
the earth centre. The radius of the earth is 6400km
19. A binary star has a period (T) of 2 earth years while distance L between its components having
masses M1 and M2 is four astronomical units. If M1 = MS where MS is the mass of sun, find the ratio
M2/5MS

20. A small body starts falling onto the Sun from a distance equal to the radius of the Earth’s orbit. The
initial velocity of the body is equal to zero in the heliocentric reference frame. Making use of
Kepler’s laws, find how long (in days) the body will be falling
CHEMISTRY- Organic naming & isomerism
Section I - Straight objective type (4, -1)
21. Among the following, a non-aromatic heterocyclic compound is :
A) Pyrrole B) Tetrahydrofuran
C) Hydroquinone D) Cyclohexylamine
22. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : N-Ethylmethanamine is a correct IUPAC name
Statement II : N,N-diethylbutan-1-amine and diisobutylamine are functional group isomers

In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

A) Both S-I and S-II are correct

B) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect

C) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct

D) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect


FT 24B /PCM 6

23. The correct IUPAC name of isobutyric acid is :

A) 2-Methylpropenoic acid B) 3-Methylpropanoic acid

C) 2-Methylbutanoic acid D) None of these

24. How many carbon atom(s) are present in tricarballylic acid ?


A) six B) three C) Four D) eight
25. The total number of optically inactive stereoisomer(s) of 1,2-dimethylcyclopentane is
:
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
26. Among the following, the CH3-C-C-CH3 dihedral angle at which torsional strain of n-
butane becomes minimum is :
A) 0o B) 90o C) 45o D) 60o
27. Select the organic compound with maximum number of heteroatoms.
A) Malonic acid B) Glycerol
C) Ethylidene chloride D) Benzoic ethanoic anhydride
28. The relation between following two structures is :

A) Identical B) Neither identical nor isomers


C) Geometrical isomers D) Enantiomers

29. The IUPAC name of following compound is :

A) 3-Methylbutylphenoxide B) 1-Phenoxy-3-methylbutane

C) 2-Methyl-4-phenoxybutane D) (3-Methylbutoxy)benzene
FT 24B /PCM 7

30. How many of the following can show functional group isomerism?

I) Phenetole II) Propionaldehyde


III) Benzonitrile IV) Acetic acid
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
A) One B) Three C) Two D) Four
Section 2 - Multiple correct answer type (4, -1 Partial Mark +1)
Full marks : +4 - If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option (s)
is (are ) darkened. Partial Marks: + 1 - For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option

31. Identify the wrong IUPAC name(s) from the following.


A) 4-isopropyl-5-sec-butyldecane B) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclohexane
C) 1-Nitrocyclohex-2-ene D) Hexa-1,3-dien-6-yne
32. Choose the correct statement(s) about M, N, O, P and Q from the following.

HO HO Cl
H H H CH3 CH3
OH H HO HO H
HO Cl H CH3 HO
(M) H (N) OH (O) H (P) HO H (Q) HO H
Cl Cl
CH3 Cl CH3

A) M and P are mirror images of each other


B) M and Q are non-superimposable mirror images of each other
C) N and Q are identical
D) O and P are isomers having the same constitution of atoms
33. The correct statement(s) about the following stereoisomer Y is/are :

HO H

H3C CH3

H OH
Y

A) Y is chiral as it contains two chiral carbon atoms


B) All stereoisomers of Y are non-superimposable on Y
C) Y and its mirror image rotate plane polarized light in opposite direction

D) Y is achiral as it does not contain any asymmetric carbon atom(s)


FT 24B /PCM 8

34. Which of the following is/are true about 2,5,6-trimethyloctane?

A) It contains one isopropyl group B) It contains one sec-butyl group

C) It contains one isobutyl group D) It contains seven 2o H atoms

35. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.


O O

A) O and O are structural isomers


O OH

B) O and O are metamers


O OH

C) O and O are structural isomers


O O

D) O and O are functional group isomers

Section III - Numerical answer type (4, –1)


The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. Each questions carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 marks for all other cases. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; eg. 6.25, 7.00,
30.27, 127.30)

36. Total number of following compounds that contain(s) a nitrogen atom is __________.
o-Toluidine, 2-Chloro-4-methylanisole, Vanillin, Icosane, Tropolone
37. Total number of methylene groups in 5-(2,2-dimethylpropyl)nonane is ___________.
38. Total number of asymmetric carbon atom(s) present in phenyl isopentyl ether is
___________.
39. Total number of following compounds that can show geometrical isomerism is
__________.
Cinnamaldehyde, Mesityl oxide, 3-methylcyclohexanecarbaldehyde, Acrolein
40. Total number of monochloroderivatives possible for the following hydrocarbon
is ___________. (Including stereo isomers)

CH 3
H H
CH3
H3C
H
FT 24B /PCM 9

MATHEMATICS : Limits of real function

Section I - Straight objective type (4, -1)

41. limsin 1  sec x  is equal to


x 0


A) B) 0 C) 1 D) undefined
2

x x x
tan  tan  tan
42. lim 2 3 6  a . Then number of terms in the expansion of (x + x + x )a+b are
x 0 sin x.  e  1
2 x
b 1 2 3

A) 641 B) 741 C) 800 D) 1000

43. If the fundamental period of sin


2024
 
x k is  and lim k   . Then sum of all integral values in
n 
n

the range of the function  7   x  P  x    is (where P represents the permutation)

A) doesnot exist B) 40 C) 44 D) 24

44. If lim
n    n
k 1
 n!  n
sin 2   n!  n! is equal to k. Then lim1  n  is equal to ?
2

n 

A) e B) e–1 C) e–2 D) Doesnot exist

 11cos2   12 cos   1 
45. lim
Value of 0   is ([.] = G.I.F)
 cos2   cos  

A) 9 B) 0 C) 10 D) 12

tan({x}  1)sin{x}
46. lim is equal to (where {.} = Fractional point x)
x 0 {x}({x}  1)

A) 0 B) tan1 C) sin 1 D) doesnot exist

2025
   x
47. lim  tan   x   is equal to
x 0
 4 

A) e2025 B) e4050 C) e 2025 D) e2


FT 24B /PCM 10

1
48. lim  2 x  3x  5x  7 x  x is equal to
x 

A) 7 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8

eax  e x  x
49. If lim  b (b is finite) then which of the following is/are correct?
x 0 x2

A) a4 + 4b4 = 971 B) a3 + 8b3 = 351 C) a = 2; 2b = 51 D) 2025ab  0

 4x 
50. lim  x 2   2  x  is equal to a . Then sum of all even divisors of ab is (where a and b are in
x 
 3  b
lowest form)

A) 46 B) 50 C) 66 D) 56

51.  n 1  n 2  n 3  n 4  ..... n 11  11n


 k . Then k is divisible by
lim
e n
A) 1320 B) 945 C) 1386 D) 12!

an
 
n
52. If an and bn are positive integers and a n  b n 2  2  2 and lim   . Then which of the
n  b
n

following are correct? (where [.] = GIF)

A) [ ]  1 B) 5  2   7 C) 3 2  4   10 D)  2025   2025

53. If lim
x 
 
x 4  ax 3  3x 2  bx  2  x 4  2x 3  cx 2  3x  d  4 . Then the value of a + b + c + d is

A) 15 B) 2025 C) 2026 D) 1998

54. In which of the following limits vanish?

1
1 e x log 2
A) lim x 4 sin B) lim
x  x x  ex

tan x
   1
C) xlim
. 
tan   x   D) lim  sin x  x2
 
4
8  x 0

55. lim f (x) doesnot exist when


x c

A) f(x) = [[x]] - [2x-1]: c = 3 B) f(x) = [x] - x; c = 1

tan  sgnx 
C) f(x) = {x}2 – {–x}; c = 0 D) f (x)  ;c  0
sgnx

(where [x] = GIF; {x} = FPx)


FT 24B /PCM 11

Section III - Numerical answer type (4, –1)

The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. Each questions carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 marks for all other cases. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; eg. 6.25, 7.00,
30.27, 127.30)

log cos x
  . Then the number of ordered pairs of (a,b) such that | tan a |  sin  b   0
2
56. lim sin x
x 0 log cos(x / 2)
sin ( x/2)

and a 2  b2   are

1  cos 3x.cos 9x.cos 27x.cos81x......cos 3n x


lim  310 
cos kx a cos x  b
57. x 0 x x x x where n N &  .
1  cos .cos .cos .....cos n k 1 nk c  d cos x
3 9 27 3
Then a+b+c+d is

 a
58. Let x o  2cos and x n  2  x n 1 ; n = 1,2,3..... and lim 2n 1 2  x n  . Then
6 n  b
[a  b]  ([.]  G.I.F)

 sin   cos   2 2
3
sin 3   tan 3  m  lim
59. Let   lim and 1  sin 2 . Then find the value of [ 2  m 2 ] ([.]
0 5 
4

= GIF)

1.2.3  2.3.4  ....  n(n  1)(n  2)


60. Let 1  lim
n 
n 2  n  1
2

1.2.3.4  2.3.4.5  ....  n(n  1)(n  2)(n  3) 1 1


and  2  lim
n 
n  n  1
3 2 . Then the value of    is
1 2
FT 24B /PCM 12
19-08-2024 Batch : i11-i14
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS JEE ADVANCED EXAM
Pu liyannoo r P.O., P A L A
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + MATHEMATICS
www.brilliantpala.org

Test ID
KEY WITH HINTS
PHYSICS 811

1. A 3. A

2. A

4. A
FT 24B /PCM 2

5. A

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. A
FT 24B /PCM 3

10. D

11. ABC

12. AD
FT 24B /PCM 4

13. BCD

14. ABCD
15. ACD

16. 3
FT 24B /PCM 5

17. 2.01

18. 0.03

19. 3

20. 64 to 65
FT 24B /PCM 6

CHEMISTRY - Organic naming & isomerism


21. B
22. C
23. D
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. A
29. D
30. D
31. ABCD
32. ACD
33. B
34. ABC
35. A
36. 1
37. 7
38. 0
39. 2
40. 4
MATHEMATICS- Limits of real function

41. D A s x  0 , sec x  1
But sec x  1
 sec x  1
But sec x  1 or secx  1
lim sin 1 (sec x) is undefined
x 0

 x1  x 2  x 3 
37
42. B
 Number of terms in the expansion are
39  38
 37  3  1 c2  39c2   741
x
x x x
  0
2 3 6
x x x x x
tan  tan  tan  1  tan tan 
2 3 6 3 6
x x x x x 
tan  tan  tan  tan tan tan
2 3 6 2 3 6
x x x x x x
tan tan tan . .
lim 2 2 6 = 2 3 6 1 a
  x0 x 2 .x  36  b
x 0 sin 2 x. e x  1 lim

 a+b = 37
FT 24B /PCM 7


43. D period of sin
2024
 x k  is k
   k 1

  lim1n  1
n 

 f(x) =  7  x  Px 1
Df : 7  x  0  x  7  x  {...1,2,3...6}  A
x  1  0  x  1  x  {1, 2,3,....6,...}  B
x  1  7  x  x  4  x  {....1,2,3,4}  C
Df : x  {1, 2,3, 4}
R f : y  {6po ,5p1 , 4p2 ,3p3} ; y  {1,5,12,6}
sum = 1+5+12+6 = 24
44. B
 1  cos 1  11cos   
45. A lim  

 cos  1  cos   

1  11cos   1  11cos  
lim  ; lim 

 cos     cos  

lim 11  sec 




As   sec   1 
lim11  sec   11  2  9


46. D
 
{tan   x  1}2025
x 
47. B lim
1 form  e x 0 x

 
sec2   x 
4 
lim .2025
 e x0
1
 e 22025  e4050
x
  2 x  3 x  5 x 
48. A lim 7           1
x   3 
   7   7  
= 7(0+0+0+0+1) = 7o

49. D
1
50. D Put x   Then y  0
y

 1 y 1
lim  2  2 
 y 3y y
y 0

4
1  y  2y  1
3 0
lim  
y0 y  0
FT 24B /PCM 8

4
1 2 8
lim   2  2
y0 4y  3  3 3
2 1
3
a
  ab  24
b
Sum of even divisors of ab = 56
51. ABC
52. ABC
53. ABCD
54. ABCD
55. BC
56. 9
57. 30
58. 6
59. 6
n(n  1)(n  2)
60. 9 Tn   n  3   n  1 
4
1
  n(n  1)(n  2)(n  3)  (n  1)(n(n  1)(n  2)
4
n
1
Sn   Tn  n(n  1)(n  2)(n  3)
n 1 4

1  lim Tn

1
ly  
1 1  1  45 9
III ’
n  n  1 5 1  2
2
n  2
4 2

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