Test ID: Repeaters Jee Advanced Examination
Test ID: Repeaters Jee Advanced Examination
20
20
G 1011 N m 2 / kg 2
3
A) 1sec B) 1.5sec C) 3 sec D) 5sec
2. A space vehicle approaching a planet has a speed v, when it is very far from the planet. At that
moment tangent of its trajectory would miss the centre of the planet by distance R. If the planet has
mass M and radius r, what is the smallest value of R in order that the resulting orbit of the space
vehicle will just miss the surface of the planet?
1
r 2GM 2 r GM
A) R v 2 B) R 1
v r v 2r
r 2 GM r
C) R
v
v
r
D) R 2GM
v
3. In older times, people used to think that the Earth was flat. Imagine that the Earth is indeed not a
sphere of radius R, but an infinite plate of thickness H. What value of H is needed to allow the same
gravitational acceleration to be experienced as on the surface of the actual Earth? (Assume that the
Earth’s density is uniform and equl in the two models)
2R 4R 8R R
A) B) C) D)
3 3 3 3
4. Spaceman Fred’s spaceship (which has negligible mass) is in an elliptical orbit about Planet Bob.
The minimum distance between the spaceship and the planet is R; the maximum distance between the
spaceship and the planet is 2R. At the point of maximum distance, Spaceman Fred is traveling at
speed vo. He then fires his thrusters so that he enters a circular orbit of radius 2R. What is his new
speed?
A) v o 3 / 2 B) v o 5 C) v o 3 / 56 D) v o 2
FT 24B /PCM 2
5. Two satellites are launched simultaneously into orbits of radius R and 4R. At an instant the two
satellites are on the same radial line. The time after which they have maximum separation is (mass of
earth = Me): Assume same sense of rotation
8 R 3 R3 7 R 3 R3
A) B) 7 C) D)
7 GM e GM e 8 GM e GM e
6. Consider motion of a planet around sun under influence of central force. Planet does not have any
moon. Mark the INCORRECT statement
A) The acceleration of centre of mass of planet is always parallel to the radius vector
B) For bound orbits motion of planet takes place in a plane but for unbound orbits, radius vector,
acceleration vector and velocity vector may not always lie in a plane
7. A double star system consists of two stars A and B which have time period TA and TB. Radius RA and
RB and mass MA and MB. Choose the correct option
2 3
TA R A
C) D) TA = TB
TB R B
dA
8. A planet revolves about the sun is elliptical orbit. The areal velocity of the planet is
dt
4.0 1016 m2 / s . The least distance between planet and the sun is 2 1012 m . Then the maximum
speed of the planet in km/s is
A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) None of these
9. The Sun travels in approximately circular orbit of radius R around the center of the galaxy and
completes one revolution in time T. The Earth also revolves around the Sun in time t. Assume orbit
of the Earth to be a circle of radius r (r <<R) and whole mass of the galaxy centered on its center. By
using only these given informations, find and expression for the ratio of the mass of the galaxy to that
of the Sun
3 2 3 2 2 3 2 3
R t R T R t R T
A) B) C) D)
r T r t r T r t
10. Consider two identical particles each of mass m held at a separation ro in free space. One of them is
given a velocity vo perpendicular to ro and the other one is simultanously released. For what range of
velocity vo will the masses be bound in orbital motion under their mutual gravitational forces
2Gm 2Gm Gm Gm
A) v o ro
B) v o ro
C) v o 2 ro
D) v o 2 ro
FT 24B /PCM 3
Full marks : +4 - If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option (s)
is (are ) darkened. Partial Marks: + 1 - For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct
option
11. Two point objects of masses m and 4m are at rest at an infinite separation. They move towards each
other under mutual gravitational attraction. If G is the universal gravitational constant, then at a
separation r
10Gm
B) their relative velocity is
r
4Gm 2
C) the total kinetic enregy of the objects is
r
12. Inside a uniform sphere of mass M (M is mass of complete sphere) and radius R, a cavity of radius
R/3 is made in the sphere as shown:
88GM
C) The escape velocity of a particle projected from centre of cavity is
45R
20GM
D) The escape velocity of a particle projected from centre of cavity is
9R
FT 24B /PCM 4
13. Two stars A and B travel in circular orbit around their common centre of mass with radii R1 and R2
respectively as shown in figure. The time for the star B to move through one orbit is 2 days with it
orbital radius R 2 2 109 m . The star A has a constant speed of 3.64 104 ms1 in its orbit
14. Consider a satellite in bound orbit around earth. Mark the CORRECT statement(s)
B) If satellite is in an elliptical orbit around the earth, radius of curvature of orbit both at perigee and
apogee are equal
C) If the satellite is to escape from the earth completely by firing the satellite’s rocket it will required
same additional kinetic energy at all the point on its circumference
15. A planet is orbiting a star when for no apparent reason the star’s gravity sudenly vanishes. After
which planet moves in a straight line. Mark the CORRECT statement (s)
B) Kepler’s law of areas is obeyed only till the planet is in gravity of star
D) Angular momentum of planet about centre of star is conserved through out its motion
FT 24B /PCM 5
Gm
16. Two equal masses are situated at a separation ro. One of them is imparted a velocity v o ro
perpendicular to the line joining them both are free to move. Treating motion only under mutual
gravitational force find the ratio of maximum and minimum separation between them.
17. What is the time period of seconds pendulum at a depth of 64km from Earth’s surface?
18. A cord of length 64m is used to connect a 100kg astronaut to spaceship whose mass is much larger
than that of the astronaut. Estimate the value of the tension in the cord. Assume that the spaceship is
orbiting near earth surcace. Assume that the spaceship and the astronaut fall on a straight line from
the earth centre. The radius of the earth is 6400km
19. A binary star has a period (T) of 2 earth years while distance L between its components having
masses M1 and M2 is four astronomical units. If M1 = MS where MS is the mass of sun, find the ratio
M2/5MS
20. A small body starts falling onto the Sun from a distance equal to the radius of the Earth’s orbit. The
initial velocity of the body is equal to zero in the heliocentric reference frame. Making use of
Kepler’s laws, find how long (in days) the body will be falling
CHEMISTRY- Organic naming & isomerism
Section I - Straight objective type (4, -1)
21. Among the following, a non-aromatic heterocyclic compound is :
A) Pyrrole B) Tetrahydrofuran
C) Hydroquinone D) Cyclohexylamine
22. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : N-Ethylmethanamine is a correct IUPAC name
Statement II : N,N-diethylbutan-1-amine and diisobutylamine are functional group isomers
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
A) 3-Methylbutylphenoxide B) 1-Phenoxy-3-methylbutane
C) 2-Methyl-4-phenoxybutane D) (3-Methylbutoxy)benzene
FT 24B /PCM 7
30. How many of the following can show functional group isomerism?
HO HO Cl
H H H CH3 CH3
OH H HO HO H
HO Cl H CH3 HO
(M) H (N) OH (O) H (P) HO H (Q) HO H
Cl Cl
CH3 Cl CH3
HO H
H3C CH3
H OH
Y
36. Total number of following compounds that contain(s) a nitrogen atom is __________.
o-Toluidine, 2-Chloro-4-methylanisole, Vanillin, Icosane, Tropolone
37. Total number of methylene groups in 5-(2,2-dimethylpropyl)nonane is ___________.
38. Total number of asymmetric carbon atom(s) present in phenyl isopentyl ether is
___________.
39. Total number of following compounds that can show geometrical isomerism is
__________.
Cinnamaldehyde, Mesityl oxide, 3-methylcyclohexanecarbaldehyde, Acrolein
40. Total number of monochloroderivatives possible for the following hydrocarbon
is ___________. (Including stereo isomers)
CH 3
H H
CH3
H3C
H
FT 24B /PCM 9
A) B) 0 C) 1 D) undefined
2
x x x
tan tan tan
42. lim 2 3 6 a . Then number of terms in the expansion of (x + x + x )a+b are
x 0 sin x. e 1
2 x
b 1 2 3
A) doesnot exist B) 40 C) 44 D) 24
44. If lim
n n
k 1
n! n
sin 2 n! n! is equal to k. Then lim1 n is equal to ?
2
n
11cos2 12 cos 1
45. lim
Value of 0 is ([.] = G.I.F)
cos2 cos
A) 9 B) 0 C) 10 D) 12
tan({x} 1)sin{x}
46. lim is equal to (where {.} = Fractional point x)
x 0 {x}({x} 1)
2025
x
47. lim tan x is equal to
x 0
4
1
48. lim 2 x 3x 5x 7 x x is equal to
x
A) 7 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8
eax e x x
49. If lim b (b is finite) then which of the following is/are correct?
x 0 x2
4x
50. lim x 2 2 x is equal to a . Then sum of all even divisors of ab is (where a and b are in
x
3 b
lowest form)
A) 46 B) 50 C) 66 D) 56
an
n
52. If an and bn are positive integers and a n b n 2 2 2 and lim . Then which of the
n b
n
53. If lim
x
x 4 ax 3 3x 2 bx 2 x 4 2x 3 cx 2 3x d 4 . Then the value of a + b + c + d is
1
1 e x log 2
A) lim x 4 sin B) lim
x x x ex
tan x
1
C) xlim
.
tan x D) lim sin x x2
4
8 x 0
tan sgnx
C) f(x) = {x}2 – {–x}; c = 0 D) f (x) ;c 0
sgnx
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. Each questions carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 marks for all other cases. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; eg. 6.25, 7.00,
30.27, 127.30)
log cos x
. Then the number of ordered pairs of (a,b) such that | tan a | sin b 0
2
56. lim sin x
x 0 log cos(x / 2)
sin ( x/2)
and a 2 b2 are
a
58. Let x o 2cos and x n 2 x n 1 ; n = 1,2,3..... and lim 2n 1 2 x n . Then
6 n b
[a b] ([.] G.I.F)
sin cos 2 2
3
sin 3 tan 3 m lim
59. Let lim and 1 sin 2 . Then find the value of [ 2 m 2 ] ([.]
0 5
4
= GIF)
Test ID
KEY WITH HINTS
PHYSICS 811
1. A 3. A
2. A
4. A
FT 24B /PCM 2
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. A
FT 24B /PCM 3
10. D
11. ABC
12. AD
FT 24B /PCM 4
13. BCD
14. ABCD
15. ACD
16. 3
FT 24B /PCM 5
17. 2.01
18. 0.03
19. 3
20. 64 to 65
FT 24B /PCM 6
41. D A s x 0 , sec x 1
But sec x 1
sec x 1
But sec x 1 or secx 1
lim sin 1 (sec x) is undefined
x 0
x1 x 2 x 3
37
42. B
Number of terms in the expansion are
39 38
37 3 1 c2 39c2 741
x
x x x
0
2 3 6
x x x x x
tan tan tan 1 tan tan
2 3 6 3 6
x x x x x
tan tan tan tan tan tan
2 3 6 2 3 6
x x x x x x
tan tan tan . .
lim 2 2 6 = 2 3 6 1 a
x0 x 2 .x 36 b
x 0 sin 2 x. e x 1 lim
a+b = 37
FT 24B /PCM 7
43. D period of sin
2024
x k is k
k 1
lim1n 1
n
f(x) = 7 x Px 1
Df : 7 x 0 x 7 x {...1,2,3...6} A
x 1 0 x 1 x {1, 2,3,....6,...} B
x 1 7 x x 4 x {....1,2,3,4} C
Df : x {1, 2,3, 4}
R f : y {6po ,5p1 , 4p2 ,3p3} ; y {1,5,12,6}
sum = 1+5+12+6 = 24
44. B
1 cos 1 11cos
45. A lim
cos 1 cos
1 11cos 1 11cos
lim ; lim
cos cos
As sec 1
lim11 sec 11 2 9
46. D
{tan x 1}2025
x
47. B lim
1 form e x 0 x
sec2 x
4
lim .2025
e x0
1
e 22025 e4050
x
2 x 3 x 5 x
48. A lim 7 1
x 3
7 7
= 7(0+0+0+0+1) = 7o
49. D
1
50. D Put x Then y 0
y
1 y 1
lim 2 2
y 3y y
y 0
4
1 y 2y 1
3 0
lim
y0 y 0
FT 24B /PCM 8
4
1 2 8
lim 2 2
y0 4y 3 3 3
2 1
3
a
ab 24
b
Sum of even divisors of ab = 56
51. ABC
52. ABC
53. ABCD
54. ABCD
55. BC
56. 9
57. 30
58. 6
59. 6
n(n 1)(n 2)
60. 9 Tn n 3 n 1
4
1
n(n 1)(n 2)(n 3) (n 1)(n(n 1)(n 2)
4
n
1
Sn Tn n(n 1)(n 2)(n 3)
n 1 4
1 lim Tn
1
ly
1 1 1 45 9
III ’
n n 1 5 1 2
2
n 2
4 2