01

PHYSICS
After analysing the previous year question papers, we have seen that 40-45 questions are asked from
science section, out of these 20-22 questions are asked from Physics. From physics section, around 2 to 3
questions each are asked from topics like motion, sound, electric current and 1 to 2 questions each are
asked from topics like optics, modern physics and heat.

MEASUREMENT, MOTION, WORK,

ENERGY AND POWER

PHYSICAL QUANTITIES e.g. unit of speed can be derived from fundamental units as,
All the quantities which can be measured directly or Unit of distance m
Unit of speed = = = ms-1
indirectly in terms of which law of physics are Unit of time s
described and whose measurement is necessary, are
called physical quantities. e.g. velocity, time, mass, etc. SI System
It is based on the following seven basic units and two
Unit supplementary units.
The standard amount of a physical quantity chosen
Name of Quantities Name of Units Name of Quantities Name of Units
to measure the physical quantity of same kind is
called a physical unit. Basic Units
Length Metre Thermodynamic Kelvin
temperature
Fundamental and Derived Units Mass Kilogram Luminous intensity Candela
The unit of a defined set of physical quantities called Time Second Quantity of matter Mole
fundamental quantities are known as fundamental Electric current Ampere
units and the units for all other physical quantities,
Supplementary Units
except fundamental quantities are known as derived
units. Plane angle Radian Solid angle Steradian
580 CDS Pathfinder

SCALAR AND VECTOR Speed

The path length or the distance covered by an object divided
QUANTITIES by the time taken by the object to cover that distance is called
• Physical quantities which have magnitude only and the speed of that object. Its unit is m/s or km/h.
no direction are called scalar quantities. Distance travelled
e.g. mass, speed, volume, work, time, power, energy, Speed =
Time taken
etc.
• An object is said to be moving with a uniform speed, if it
• Physical quantities which have magnitude and
covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.
direction both and which obey triangle law are called
vector quantities. • An object is said to be moving with a variable speed, if it
e.g. displacement, velocity, acceleration, force, covers equal distances in unequal intervals of time or
momentum, torque, etc. unequal distances in equal intervals of time.
Average Speed
MECHANICS • If a motion is the ratio of the total distance travelled by the
Mechanics deals with the study of motion of particles, object to the total time taken.
rigid and deformable bodies and general system of s + s 2 + s 3 + ...
i.e. average speed, v av = 1
particles. t1 + t 2 + t 3 + ...
• If the body covers equal distances with different speeds,
Motion 2 v1v 2
A body is said to be in motion when its position then v av =
v1 + v 2
changes continuously with respect to a stationary body
taken as a reference point. When the speed of an object is constantly changing, then the
speed at a particular moment or instant of time is called the
Distance and Displacement instantaneous speed of that object.
• The distance covered by a body is the actual length
of the path travelled by the body between the initial
Velocity
position and final position. The rate of change in position or displacement of a body with
– It is always positive. time is called the velocity of that body. It is a vector quantity.
– It is a scalar quantity which has magnitude only. Displacement in particular direction
Velocity =
Its unit is metre. Time taken
• The displacement of a particle is the change in • A body is said to be moving with uniform velocity, if
position of the particle in a particular direction and is equal displacements of the body take place in same
given by a vector drawn from its initial position to its direction in equal intervals of time.
final position. • If a body moves in such a way that its speed or the
– Displacement may be positive, negative or zero. direction or both changes with time, the body is said to
– It is a vector quantity and its unit is also metre. have variable velocity.
– The magnitude of displacement may or may not be
equal to the path length travelled by an object. Average Velocity
– Displacement ≤ Distance • If a body is defined as the net displacement divided by the
C time taken for displacement.
E B x − x1
v av = 2
t 2 − t1
D
C As net displacement = x2 − x1 and time taken = t 2 − t1
• Average velocity could be zero, positive or negative but
A A
(a) (b) B average speed is always positive for moving body. When a
particle returns to the starting point, its average velocity is
– In Fig. (a) a particle starts from A and reach B zero but average speed is not zero.
through points C, D and E, then AB is the
displacement and ( AC + CD + DE + EB ) is the Relative Velocity
distance travelled. • When two bodies are moving in the straight line, the speed
– Also, in Fig. (b), a particle starts from A and reach (or velocity) of one with respect to another is known as its
to C through point B, then AC is displacement relative speed (or velocity).
and distance covered is ( AB + BC ). • When two bodies are moving in the same direction, then
relative velocity = v1 − v 2 . When the two bodies are moving
in opposite directions, then relative velocity = v1 + v 2 .
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 581

Acceleration 2. Velocity-Time Graphs

• It is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. Its SI (i) In case of zero acceleration, the velocity of
2 2
unit is m/s and CGS is cm/s . It is a vector quantity. the object does not change with time.

• An object is said to be moving with uniform acceleration, if its

velocity changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time.

Velocity
• An object is said to be moving with a variable acceleration, if
its velocity changes by unequal amounts in equal intervals of
time.
• If the velocity of an object increases without change in
Time
direction, it is said to be moving with positive acceleration.
• If the velocity of an object decreases without change in (ii) If the object is moving with uniform
direction, the object is said to be moving with negative positive acceleration having zero initial
acceleration or deceleration or retardation. velocity, then the velocity - time graph is a
straight line starting from origin.
• Acceleration of an object is zero, if it is at rest or moving with
uniform velocity.

Graphical Representation of Motion

Velocity
1. Position–Time Graphs
(i) When distance covered by a moving
object goes on increasing with time, Time
Position

the object is said to have positive (iii) In case of negative and constant
acceleration (i.e. velocity increases acceleration, the velocity of the object
with time). decreases linearly with time.
(ii) When distance covered by a moving
Time
object goes on decreasing with time,
the object is said to have negative acceleration (i.e.
Velocity

velocity decreases with time).

Position

Time
(iv ) When the acceleration of the object is
increasing, line bending towards velocity
Time axis represent the increasing acceleration in
(iii) When the moving object covers equal distance in equal the body.
time, the object is said to have zero acceleration i.e.
uniform velocity.
Velocity
Position

Time
(v) When the acceleration of the object is
Time decreasing, line bending towards time axis
(iv) When the position of object does not change with time, represents the decreasing acceleration in the
the object is at rest (i.e. velocity is zero). body.
Velocity
Position

Time
Time
582 CDS Pathfinder

• The horizontal range is the same when the body is

Equations of Motion projected at θ and (90 ° − θ ).
For a moving object, the relations among its velocity, • The horizontal range of a projectile is maximum when
displacement, time and acceleration can be represented by angle of projection is 45°.
equations. These equations are called equations of motion.
• When two balls of different masses are projected
• For motion a straight line with constant acceleration a
horizontally they will reach ground at same time.
1
(i) v = u + at (ii) s = ut + at 2
2
(iii) v 2 = u 2 + 2as FORCE
• Equation of motion under gravity, (downward Force is a push or pull which produces or tends to produce
direction) a change in uniform motion of body; stops or tends to stop
1 a body which is in motion. Its unit is Newton.
(i) v = u + gt (ii) h = ut + gt 2
2 • It is a vector quantity and the straight line along which a
(iii) v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh force is directed is called the line of action of the force.
Where, u = initial velocity • The rotational effect of a force on a body about an axis
v = final velocity of rotation is described in terms of moment of force.
g = gravitational acceleration • CGS unit of force is dyne i.e. 1 dyne = 10 −5 N.
If an object is thrown vertically upward away from the Force is of two types
earth, then we shall substitute −g in place of g in the (i) Component of Force Forces acting at same angle from
above equations. The value of g is 9.8 m /s 2 . the coordinate axes can be resolved into mutually
➨ Note If a body starts from rest and moves with uniform perpendicular forces called components. The
acceleration, then distance covered by the body in t sec is component of a force parallel to the X-axis is called
proportional to t2(i. e. s ∝ t2 ). x-component, parallel to the y-component and so on.

Projectile Motion
F sin θ
F
When a body moves under an acceleration whose
direction is different from the direction of the initial
θ
velocity, then both the magnitude and direction of its
F cos θ
velocity changes with time. Hence, the body moves on a
curved path in a plane. This type of motion is called Here,
projectile motion. • x-component of force F is Fcosθ.
• A bullet fired from a rifle and a body dropped from the • y-component of force F is F sinθ.
window of a moving train shows the projectile motion. (ii) Contact and Non-contact Force The forces which act
on bodies when they are in physical contact are called
Y
contact forces. e.g. muscular force, frictional force, etc.
A force which can be exerted by an object on another
v sin θ

u
v object even from a distance (without physical contact
u sin θ

with each other) is called a non-contact force. e.g.

v cos θ
magnetic force, electrostatic force and gravitational
h force.
θ
O u cos θ
R
X NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION
Newton has given three laws of motion as below:
2u sinθ
• Flight time of projectile, T =
g First Law
u sin θ
2 2
• Height of projectile, h = It states that every body continues in its state of rest or in
2g uniform motion in a straight line, unless it is compelled by
u sin 2θ
2 an external force to change that state.
• Range of projectile, R = .
g First law is also called law of Galileo or law of inertia.
• We drop down a ball from a roof and at the same time • The property of bodies by virtue of which they oppose
throw another ball in a horizontal direction, then both only change in their present state is called inertia.
the balls would strike the earth simultaneously at • Mass is a measure of the inertia of a body.
different places.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 583

Here some practical examples are as follows in which first • It is difficult to drive a nail into a wooden block
law is used. without holding the block.
• Athlete runs some distance, before taking a long jump. • A jet plane moves on the principle of Newton’s third
• A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform law of motion. As exhaust gases come out from the
velocity returns to the hand of thrower. nozzle at a greater speed, the reaction of the same
• The mud from the wheels of a moving vehicle flies-off moves the plane forwards.
tangentially.
• When we shake the branch of a mango tree, the mangoes Validity of Newton’s Laws of Motion
fall down. Newton’s laws are valid in classical physics only under
• A man jumping from a moving train may fall down. certain conditions
• If a cloth placed under a book is given a sudden pull, it • In general, the distances which one work must be
comes out without disturbing the book. much greater than the size of atoms and molecules.
• When a horse suddenly starts moving, the rider falls Else, quantum mechanics must be used in place of
backward. classical mechanics.
• When a running horse suddenly stops, the rider falls • In general, the speeds which one work with must be
forwards. much less than the speed of light. Else, relativistic
• We hit a carpet with a stick to remove the dust. mechanics must be used in place of classical mechanics.
• Also, this is valid with respect to inertial frame of
Second Law reference only.
The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly
proportional to the applied force and takes place in the Linear Momentum
direction in which the force acts. According to second law • The linear momentum of a body is defined as, the
dp dp product of its mass and its velocity i.e.
F∝ or F = k
dt dt Momentum = Mass × Velocity, p = m × v
where, k is constant of proportionality • It’s direction is the same as the direction of velocity of
d the body. It is a vector quantity. It’s SI unit is kg-m/s.
F=k (mv) = kma
dt • Concept of momentum was introduced by Newton.
for simplicity let k = 1. • A heavier body has a larger linear momentum than a
⇒ F = ma lighter body moving with the same velocity. i.e. In the
1 newton = 10 5 dyne absence of external forces, the total momentum of the
system is conserved.
• Newton’s second law gives the magnitude of force.
i.e. m1v1 = m2v 2 [For single body]
• Newton’s first law is contained in the second law.
and m1u1 + m2u 2 = m1v1 + m2v 2 [For two bodies]
Here some practical examples are as follows in which second
law is used. Applications of Conservation of
• China wires are wrapped in straw or paper before
Momentum
packing.
• A person falling on pucca floor (or frozen ice) is likely to
When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils or
gives a sharp pull in backward direction. While firing a
receive more injuries than one falling on kuccha floor
bullet, the gun must be held tight to the shoulder.
(loose earth).
• While catching a ball, a cricket player lowers his hands to • When a man jump from a boat to the shore, the boat
save himself from getting hurt. slightly moves away from the shore.
• Bogies of the trains are provided with buffers to avoid • Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
severe jerks during shunting of trains. momentum.
• If someone left on a frictionless floor desires to get out
Third Law of it, he can do so by blowing air out of his mouth.
According to this law, to every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction. ‘Action and reaction always act on the Impulse
different bodies.’ Here some practical examples are as • An impulse is a large force acting on a body for a
follows in which third law is used short time to produce a finite change in momentum.
• In order to walk, we press the ground in backward • Impulse = Force × Time interval i.e. I = F × ∆t
direction with our feet. As a result, the ground pushes us It’s SI unit is N-s or kg-m/s
in forward direction.
584 CDS Pathfinder

Examples of momentum and impulse are as follows: • Friction is independent of the area of contact of the two
• In catching a ball, a player by drawing his hands surfaces. Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
backward increases the time of contact. • Force of friction ( F ) is directly proportional to the
• An athlete is advised to come to stop slowly after normal reaction ( R).
finishing a fast race. i.e. F ∝R
• The layer of bricks is broken by player. F = µR
• Vehicles like cars, buses, and scooters, are provided with where, µ = coefficient of friction.
shockers. Also, µ = tan α, where α is the angle of friction.
• Bogies of the trains are provided with buffers, because Angle of repose = Angle of friction i.e. θ = α
buffers increase the time duration of jerks during
shunting. This reduces the force with which bogies push Methods for Reducing Friction
or pull each other and severe jerks are avoided. • By using lubricants e.g. grease, oil, etc.
• By using ball or roller bearings, which changes sliding
FRICTION into rolling.
• By using soap solution.
The opposing force which comes into play when a body
• By using powder.
moves or tries to move the surface of another body is
known as friction. • Friction due to air is considerably reduced by streamling
• The maximum value of the force of friction which comes the shape of the body moving at high speed in air. e.g.
into play before a body just begins to slide over the aircraft, jet-planes, fast cars are streamlined.
surface of another body is called limiting friction. • The tyres are provided with treads which increases the
• The force of friction that comes into play between the
friction between the tyres and the road.
surfaces of two bodies before the body actually starts ➨ Note Pulling is easier than pushing
moving is called static friction. While pushing, there is one component of force that acting
downward on the object adds to the weight of the body hence
• The force of friction that opposes relative motion
there is more friction opposing the effort. Whereas on pulling, the
between two surfaces in contact is called kinetic or vertical component of force is against the weight of the body and
sliding friction. hence there is less overall friction. So, it is easy to pull than push.
• The frictional force developed, when a body rolls over a
surface, is known as the rolling friction. CIRCULAR MOTION
• Static friction is a self adjusting force and it adjusts
When an object moves along a circular path, then its motion
itself, so that it became equal to the applied force.
is called circular motion as motion of top, etc. In circular
Advantages of Friction motion force is always at right angles to the displacement
therefore no work is done by the force on the particle.
• Due to friction, we are able to move on the surface of
• When an object moves along a circular path with
the earth.
uniform speed, its motion is called uniform circular
• The fibres of thread are held together due to force of
motion.
friction.
• Circular motion is accelerated even, if the speed of the
• The brakes applied in automobiles work only due to
body is constant. The motion of a satellite is accelerated
friction.
motion.
• Sledges are used in Arctic region as friction is very low
on the surface of ice. Angular Velocity
Disadvantages of Friction Angular velocity is the rate at which angle swept by the
• A lot of energy is wasted in the form of heat due to
radius at the centre changes with time. Its unit is rad/s.
friction that causes wear and tear of the moving parts. B, t=1

• Due to friction, speed of automobiles cannot be s

increased beyond a certain limit. θ
O A, t=1
r
Laws of Friction
Friction acts in a direction opposite to the direction of
motion of the objects. It depends upon the nature of the θ θ
two surfaces in contact. • Angular velocity, ω = ⇒ s = v × t and ω = ,
t t
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 585

s
θ= Centrifugal Force
r
There are certain situations in which we feel that a body is
So, v=ω ×r
acted upon by a force, but actually there is no force on the
as v = linear speed, body. Such an apparent force is called a pseudo force.
ω = angular velocity, • Centrifugal force is such a pseudo force. It is equal and
r = radius of the circular path. opposite to centripetal force. When a person stand on a
Thus, linear velocity = Angular velocity rotating platform, then he feels the centrifugal force.
× Radius of circular path. • Cream separator and centrifugal drier work on the
The angular velocity of revolution of a planet around the principle of centrifugal force.
sun in an elliptical orbit increases. When the planet came ➨ Note Centrifugal is a device to separate the particles of different
closer to sun and vice-versa. masses present in liquid.

Angular Acceleration WORK

• The rate of change of angular velocity is defined as Work is said to be done, if a force acting on a body is able
angular acceleration. to actually move it through some distance in the direction
ω of the force.
• Angular acceleration, α = . Its unit is rad/s 2 or
t • Work = Force × Distance,
revolution/sec 2 . i.e. W = F ⋅s
• Relation between angular acceleration and linear • If the force F is making an angle θ with the direction of
acceleration, a = α × r displacement of the body, then the work done is
W = Fs cosθ
Centripetal Acceleration • It’s SI unit is joule (J).
The acceleration is directed towards the centre and is given
• CGS unit of work is erg i.e. 1 J = 10 7 ergs
v2
by a = , where v is the speed and r is the radius. This is
r
called centripetal acceleration.
Types of Work
Work can be of following types
Centripetal Force 1. Positive Work Done Positive work means that force
A body performing circular motion is acted upon by a is parallel to displacement.
force which is always directed towards the centre of the Examples
circle. This is called centripetal force. Work done by • When a body falls freely under gravitational pull.
centripetal force is always zero. • When a horse pulls a cart on a level road.
• If a body of mass m is moving on a circular path of 2. Negative Work Done Negative work means that force
radius R with uniform velocity v, then the required is opposite to displacement.
mv 2 Examples
centripetal force, F = = mω 2 R
R • When a body is made to slide over a rough surface
or when a positive charge is moved towards
• Any of the forces found in nature such as frictional
another positive charge.
force, gravitational force, electrical force, magnetic force
may act as a centripetal force. 3. Zero Work Done If the force is perpendicular to the
displacement and if either the force or the displacement
• Cyclist bends his body towards the centre on a turn is zero, work done will be zero.
while turning to obtain the required centripetal force.
Examples
• Generally, in rain the scooter slips off the turning of a • When a coolie travels on a platform with a load on
road because the friction between tyre and road is
his head.
reduced. Due to this necessary centripetal force is not
provided. • When a body is moved along a circular path. When
a person does not move from his position but he
• Vehicles can move on circular path safely, if friction
may be holding any amount of heavy load.
force ≥ required centripetal force.
• If the force is perpendicular to the displacement
• Roads are banked at turns to provide the required
and if either the force or the displacement is zero,
centripetal force for taking a turn.
work done is zero.
• Work done by centripetal force is always zero.
586 CDS Pathfinder

Conservative and Applications of potential energy are given below

(i) The potential energy of the wound spring of a clock
Non-conservative Forces is used to drive the hands of the clock.
• A force is said to be conservative, if the work done by (ii) Due to potential energy of the stretched bow, the
the force in moving a body depends only upon the arrow goes forward with a large velocity on releasing
initial and final positions of the body and is independent the bow.
of the path followed between the initial and final (iii) The potential energy of water in dams is used to run
position, e.g. gravitational force, electrostatic force and turbines in order to produce electrical energy using
magnetic force, etc. the generators.
• A force is said to be non-conservative, if the work done
by the force or against the force, in moving a body from Principle of Conservation
one position to another, depends upon the path followed of Energy
between the two positions. e.g. friction force, etc.
According to the law of conservation of energy it can
neither be created nor be destroyed but can only be
ENERGY transformed from one form to another.
The energy of an object is its capacity for doing work. It is • The total amount of energy in the universe remains
a scalar quantity and its unit is joule (J). constant. e.g. when an object falls, its potential energy
• Energy can exist in different forms such as mechanical decreases but at the same time kinetic energy increases
energy, heat energy, sound energy, light energy, chemical by an equal amount.
energy, etc.
• Mechanical energy is of two types i.e. kinetic energy and
Transformation of Energy
potential energy. • In a heat engine, heat energy changes into mechanical
energy. In the sun, mass changes into radiant energy.
1. Kinetic Energy • In an electrical heater, the electric energy is converted
into heat energy.
The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is
• In an electric bulb, the electric energy is converted into
called its kinetic energy.
light energy in burning coal, oil, etc. The chemical
• If a body of mass m is moving with velocity v, then
energy changes to heat energy.
1 p2
kinetic energy = mv 2 = • When we rub our hands, heat is generated. Here,
2 2m mechanical energy of muscles is converted into heat energy.
• When momentum is doubled kinetic energy becomes • In an electromagnet the electric energy is converted into
four times. magnetic energy.
• If a body is moving in horizontal circle then its kinetic
energy is same at all points, but if it is moving in Einstein’s Mass-Energy Equivalence
vertical circle, then the kinetic energy is different at In 1905, Einstein proved the relation between mass and
different points. energy. E = mc 2 , where c is the velocity of light.
Applications of kinetic energy are given below E = mc 2 leads to verification of the two laws, law of
(i) Kinetic energy of air is used to run wind mills. conservation of mass and law of conservation of energy.
(ii ) Kinetic energy of running water is used to run the
water mills.
(iii ) A bullet fired from a gun can pierce a target due to
POWER
its kinetic energy. The time rate of doing work is called power.
W
If W is work done in time t then power, P = .
2. Potential Energy t
For a constant force F, the
It is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its
position. Power ( P ) = F ⋅ v ⇒ P = Fv cosθ
• Suppose a body is raised to a height h above the surface where v = velocity of object
of the earth, then potential energy θ = angle between F and v
of body = mgh • Power is a scalar quantity with SI unit watt (W) or joule/s.
• Also, here potential energy = work done = mgh • Some other units of power are 1 watt hour = 3600 J
• When the body is projected upwards, then its kinetic 1 kilowatt hour = 3. 6 × 10 6 J
energy goes on changing to potential energy and
vice-versa. 1 HP (Horse Power) = 746 W
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 587

ROTATIONAL MOTION AND GRAVITATION

ROTATIONAL MOTION Radius of Gyration
When a body rotates about a fixed axis, it is said to Radius of gyration is defined as the distance from axis of
perform a rotational motion and the axis is called the rotation at which, if total mass of the body were supposed to
axis of rotation. In rotational motion every particle of be concentrated, the moment of inertia would be same.
the body moves in a circle and the centres of all these I = MK 2
circles lie at the axis of rotation. where, M = total mass of the body, K = radius of gyration
• The rotating blades of an electric fan and the motion
of a top are examples of rotational motion. Torque or Moment of Force
• Rigid body is the body in which there is no The turning effect of a body is known as the moment of the
displacement among the particles of the body on force or torque.
applying an external force. • Moment of force or torque, τ = F ⋅ d, here d is the
perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation.
Centre of Mass [CM] • It is a vector quantity having SI unit N-m.
A point within the body or outside the body at which the • A body of lesser weight can produce the same turning
whole mass of the body is assumed to be concentrated. effect as the body of higher weight by adjusting their
distance from the axis of rotation.
• The centre of mass of sphere, cylinder and ring is at
• Torque is equal to the product of moment of inertia and
its geometric centre.
angular acceleration. i.e. τ = I × α.
• The centre of mass may lie outside the body where
Practical applications of torque are given below
there is no material as in case of ring, hollow sphere,
• The handle or the knob is fitted near the free edge of the
hollow cylinder, etc.
door. So that, a heavy revolving door is opened or closed
easily, when the force is applied at the edge of the door.
Moment of Inertia • A wrench with a long arm is used to unscrew a nut fitted
Moment of inertia of a body with respect to axis of tightly into a bolt and the handle of a screw driver is made
rotation is the product of the mass ( m) and the square wide.
of distance from the axis of rotation ( R).
i.e. moment of inertia I = mR2 ANGULAR MOMENTUM
• The angular momentum ( J ) of a body about an axis is equal
• The SI unit of moment of inertia is kg-m 2 .
to the product of the moment of inertia ( I ) of the body and
• Moment of inertia of a ring about an axis passing
its angular velocity (ω ) about that axis. i.e. J = I ω.
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is • If no external torque is acting upon a body rotating about
I = MR2 . an axis, then the angular momentum of the body remains
• Moment of inertia of a diameter about its diameter is constant. It is called conservation of angular momentum.
1 Examples related to conservation of angular momentum are
I= MR2 .
2 given below
• The moment of inertia depends not only on the mass • When a diver jumps into water from a height, he does not
and size of the body but also upon the manner in keep his body straight but pulls in his arms and legs
which the mass is distributed around the axis of towards the centre of his body. On doing so, the moment
rotation. of inertia of his body decreases. But, since the angular
momentum remains constant, his angular velocity increases.
Practical applications of moment of inertia are given
• A man with his arms outstretched and holding heavy
below
dumb-bells in each hand, is standing at the centre of a
• The moment of inertia plays important role in our rotating table. When the man pulls-in his arms, the speed of
daily life. rotation of the table increases.
• In cycle, rikshaw, bullockcart, etc., the moment of • The reason is that on pulling-in the arms, the distance of
inertia of the wheels is increased by concentrating the dumb bells from the axis of rotation decreases and so
most of the mass at the rim of the wheel and the moment of inertia of the man decreases. Therefore by
connecting the rim to the axle of the wheel through conservation of angular momentum, the angular velocity
spokes. increases.
• It is due to the large moment of inertia of the wheels • The angular velocity of revolution of planet around the sun
that when we stop cycling, the wheels of the cycle in elliptical orbit increases, when the planet comes closer to
continue rotating for some time. the sun.
588 CDS Pathfinder

• If a cat is dropped from a height, they almost always tend

to land on their feet because they use the conservation of
Acceleration due to Gravity
angular momentum to change their orientation. It is the force by which the earth attracts a body towards
• When a cat is in the air, no net external torque acts on it
its centre.
• The acceleration due to gravity is the rate of change of
about its centre of mass, so the angular momentum about
velocity of a body due to the gravitational force acting
the cat’s centre of mass cannot change. GMe
• Stretching out its legs increases its rotational inertia and towards the earth. It is represented by g =
Re2
thus slows the cats angular speed. The conservation of
angular momentum allows the cat to rotate its body and where, M e is the mass of the earth and Re is the radius
slow its rate of rotation enough, so that it lands on its of the earth.
feet easily. • The value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s 2 .
• Earth is surrounded by an atmosphere of gases due to
gravity. The value of g on the moon is 1/6th of that of
ROLLING MOTION the earth.
The rolling motion can be regarded as the combination of
pure rotation and pure translation. Variation in the Value of (g)
• The kinetic energy of a body rolling without slipping is • When we go above the surface of the earth, the
the sum of kinetic energies of translational and rotational acceleration due to gravity goes on decreasing.
motion. • When we go below the surface of the earth, the
i.e. total KE of a rolling body acceleration due to gravity goes on decreasing and
= Rotational KE + Translational KE becomes zero at the centre of the earth.
1 1 Decreasing the rotational motion of the earth, the value
= I ω 2 + mv cm2 •
2 2 of g increases. When we go from the equator towards
• If a ring, a disc and a sphere, all of the same radius and the poles, the value of g goes on increasing.
mass roll down an inclined plane from the same height, • If earth stops its rotation about its own axis, then at
the sphere will reach the bottom first and ring at last. the equator, the value of g increases and consequently
the weight of body lying there increases.
GRAVITATION • The value of g is maximum on surface of the earth.
The phenomena of action of attractive forces between two
bodies by virtue of their masses is known as gravitation. MASS AND WEIGHT
The mass of a body is the quantity of matter contained in
Newton’s Law of Gravitation it. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. Mass does
The force of gravitational attraction between two bodies is not change from place to place and remains constant.
directly proportional to the product of their masses ( m1 ⋅ m2 ) The weight of the body is the force with which it is
and inversely proportional to the square of the distance (r) attracted towards the centre of the earth.
m m • Weight of the body w = mg
between them i.e. F = G 1 2 2
r • Weight of a body is not constant, it changes from place
where, m1 is the mass of first body, m2 is the mass of second to place. At the pole, the weight of a body will be
body and r is the distance between them. maximum whereas at the equator it is minimum.
• The value of G is 6 . 67 × 10 −11 N-m 2 /kg 2 . • Mass is measured by an ordinary equal arm balance,
while weight is measured by a spring balance.
• It is always attractive in nature, unlike electric and
magnetic force which can be attractive or repulsive both. Weight of a Body at Moon
• It acts along the line joining the centres of two interacting As mass and radius of moon is lesser than the earth, so
forces. the force of gravity at the moon is also less than the
• The gravitational force between two masses is independent earth. Its value at the moon’s surface is g/6.
of the presence of any other object medium present
between two masses. Centre of Gravity
• The predictions of solar and lunar eclipses on the basis of The centre of gravity of a body is that point, at which
the Newton’s law of gravitation come out in perfect the whole weight of the body appears to act.
agreement with actual observation. • It can be inside the material of the body or outside it.
• Tides are formed in oceans due to gravitational attraction • For regularly shaped body, the centre of gravity lies at
between moon and ocean water. its geometrical centre.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 589

Weight of a Body in Lift Energy of a Satellite

Some conditions are given below A satellite revolving around the earth has potential energy as
• If lift is stationary or moving with uniform speed well as kinetic energy. It has potential energy because it
(either upward or downward), the apparent weight of a remains in the gravitational field of earth and kinetic energy
body is equal to its true weight. because it is in motion.
• If lift is going up with acceleration, the apparent Total energy of the satellite,
weight of a body is more than the true weight. E = Kinetic energy + Potential energy
• If lift is going down with acceleration, the apparent GM e m  GM e m
weight of a body is less than the true weight. E= + − 
2Re  Re 
• If the rod of the lift is broken, it falls freely. In this
situation, the weight of a body in the lift becomes GM e m
E=−
zero. This is the situation of weightlessness. 2Re
• While going down, if the acceleration of lift is more where, m is the mass of satellite.
than acceleration due to gravity, then the body in the
lift raise towards the ceiling of the lift.
ESCAPE VELOCITY
Escape velocity is that minimum velocity with which a body
SATELLITE should be projected from the surface of the earth, so as it
The heavenly body which revolves around the sun is called goes out of gravitational field of earth and never returns to
planet e.g. the earth, while the heavenly body which the earth. Escape velocity at the surface is 11.2 km/s.
revolves round the planets is called Satellite. Moon is a Escape velocity is given by
natural satellite of the earth.
2GM
• Orbital speed of a satellite is independent of its mass ve =
Re
and depends upon the radius of orbit.
i.e. v 0 = gR  GM 
v e = 2gRe Q g = 2 
• The orbital speed of a satellite revolving near the  Re 
surface of the earth is 7.9 km/s. • The value of the escape velocity of a body does not
• Time period of revolution of satellite revolving near the depend on its mass. Its value on the moon surface is
surface of the earth is 1 hr 24 min (84 min). 2.38 km/s. So, there is no atmosphere around the moon.
• Period of revolution of a satellite depends upon the • Escape velocity is 2 times the orbital velocity.
height of satellite from the surface of the earth. • Satellites are launched with the escape velocity as needed.
• Every body inside the satellite is in a state of
weightlessness.
• Period of revolution of a satellite is independent of its
KEPLER’S LAWS
mass. Kepler’s law of planetary motion are three scientific laws
describing motion of planets around the sun.
• If a satellite revolves in equatorial plane in the direction
of the earth’s rotation i.e. from West to East with a • All planets move around the sun in elliptical orbits having
period of revolution equal to time period of rotation of the sun at one focus of the orbit.
the earth on its own axis i.e. 24 h, then the satellite will • The areal speed of a planet around the sun is constant.
appear stationary relative to the earth. Such a satellite is • The square of the period of revolution of any planet
called geo-stationary satellite. Such a satellite revolves around the sun (T ) is directly proportional to the cube of
around the earth at a height of 3600 km. its mean distance from the sun (a) i.e.
• INSAT 2B and INSAT 2C are geo-stationary satellites T 2 ∝ a3.
of India. It is used to reflect TV signals and telecast TV
programs from part of the work to another. Black Hole
• Polar satellite revolves around the earth in polar orbit A black hole is a region of spacetime exhibiting such strong
at a height of 800 km. Time period of the satellites is gravitational effects that nothing not even particles and
84 min. These are used for weather forecasting and electromagnetic radiation such as light can escape from
mapping, etc. inside it. Event horizon is the boundary marking the limits
➨ Note The earth rotates on its axis from West to East. This rotation of a black hole. Thus, nothing that enters a black hole can
makes the sun and the stars appear to be moving across the sky get out or can be observed from outside the event horizon.
from East to West.
590 CDS Pathfinder

PROPERTIES OF MATTER
ELASTICITY Atmospheric Pressure
Elasticity is the property of material of a body by virtue of The pressure exerted by the atmosphere is called
which the body acquires its original shape and size after atmospheric pressure.
the removal of deforming force. • Atmospheric pressure = 1.01 bar
• Steel and ivory are more elastic than rubber and water is = 1.01 × 10 5 N/m 2
more elastic than air.
= 760 torr
• The internal restoring force acting per unit area of
• Atmospheric pressure is measured by barometer.
cross-section of a deformed body is called stress. Its unit
is N/m 2 or Pascal. • Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude (height
from the earth’s surface). This is why
• The fractional change in configuration i.e. length, volume
– It is difficult to cook on the mountain.
and shape is called strain.
– The fountain pen of a passenger leaks in aeroplane at
• The ratio of stress to strain is a constant for the material
height.
and is called modulus of elasticity.
Stress • The slow rise in the barometric reading is the indication
i.e. E= of clear weather.
Strain
• Sudden fall in barometric reading is the indication of
It is also called Hooke’s law. storm.
• The maximum deforming force up to which a body • Slow fall in barometric reading is the indication of rain.
retains its property of elasticity is called the limit of
➨ Note Building and dams are laid on a larger area of ground so that,
elasticity. the height of the building or dam produces less pressure on ground.
• Putty, paraffin wax are nearly perfectly
plastic bodies.
PASCAL’S LAW
• Iron, copper, silver, aluminium, etc., are examples of
ductile materials. Glass, dry clay, etc., are examples of Pascal’s law states that ‘Pressure in a fluid in equilibrium is
brittle materials. the same everywhere, if the effect of gravity can be
neglected.’
• Rubber is one example of elastomers.
• Hydraulic lift, hydraulic press, hydraulic brakes work
on the basis of Pascal’s law.
PRESSURE • Hydraulic lift is used to lift heavy loads.
Pressure is defined as, force acting normally on unit area of
the surface.
Force
ARCHIMEDES’ PRINCIPLE
Pressure = When a solid body is immersed wholly or partially in a
Area
liquid (in general, in a fluid), then there is some apparent
• Its unit is N/m 2 also called Pascal. It is a scalar quantity. loss in its weight. This loss in weight is equal to the
• The pressure exerted by liquid at depth h below the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.
surface of liquid is given as, Applications of Archimedes’ principle are given below
p = hdg, where d is density of liquid. • Archimedes’ principle is used in determining the relative
• It is measured by manometer. density of a substance.
• Pressure at a point in a static liquid has same value in all • Archimedes’ principle is used in designing ships and
directions. submarines.
• Pressure at a point in a liquid is proportional to the • The hydrometers used for determining the density of
density of the liquid and depth of the point from the liquids are based on Archimedes’ principle.
free surface. • The lactometers used for determining the purity of milk
• Boiling point of all substances increases with the increase are based on Archimedes’ principle.
in pressure.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 591

DENSITY Fluid Dynamics

(i) Streamline Flow or Steady Flow In this flow
Density is defined as mass per unit volume. velocity at every point in the fluid will remains
Mass M constant.
• Density, ρ = = . Its SI unit is kg/m 3 .
Volume V (ii) Turbulent Flow In this flow, the fluid does not
• Relative density of substance is defined as the ratio of the maintain constancy of the velocity.
density of that substance to the density of water at 4°C (iii) Critical Velocity The velocity above which flow
i.e. will become turbulent.
Density of material
Relative density =
Density of water at 4 ° C PRINCIPLE OF CONTINUITY
• Relative density has no unit. It is a scalar quantity. It states that, when an incompressible and non-viscous
• The density of water is maximum at temperature 4°C. liquid flows in streamlined motion through a tube of
• Relative density of liquid or fluid is measured by non-uniform cross-section, the product of the
hydrometer. area-section and the velocity of flow is same at every
point in the tube. For a tube of flow, between two
• The density of sea water is more than that of normal
points having area of cross-section A1 and A 2 and
water. This explains why it is easier to swim in sea water.
velocities V1 and V2 .
• If ice floating in water in a vessel melts, the level of water
Then,
in the vessel does not change.
AV = Constant
• Ice floats on water surface as its density (0.92 g /cm 3 ) is
A1V1 = A 2V2
lesser than the density of water (1 g/cm 3 ).
According to the equation of continuity, the speed of
• Iron will sink in mercury because density of mercury is
fluid flow becomes faster in the narrower pipe.
more than the iron.

BUOYANT FORCE BERNOULLI’S THEOREM

When an incompressible and non-viscous liquid (or gas)
When a body is immersed partially or wholly in a liquid, a flows in streamlined motion from one place to another,
force acts on the body by the liquid in the upward direction. then at every point of its path the total energy per unit
This force is called buoyant force or force of buoyancy of volume (Pressure energy + Kinetic energy + Potential
upthrust. energy) is constant.
• It is equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body 1
and acts at the centre of gravity of displaced liquid. P + ρv 2 + ρgh = constant
2
• The buoyant force exerted by a liquid depends on the
where, ρ is density of fluid. This is the principal of
volume of the solid object immersed in the liquid.
conservation of energy for the non-viscous fluids i.e.
• The buoyant force exerted by a liquid depends on the there is no viscous force acting between the layers of the
density of the liquid in which the object is immersed. fluid.
Venturimeter, Pitot tube, Bunsen’s burner, atomizor,
Law of Floatation filter pump and magnus effect are based upon the
When body floats in neutral equilibrium, the weight of the Bernoulli’s theorem.
body is equal to the weight of displaced liquid.
➨ Note Bernoulli’s theorem is applicable only to streamline flow
• The centre of gravity of the body and centre of gravity of of a fluid. It is not valid for non-steady or turbulent flow.
the displaced liquid should be in one vertical line.
• Three cases are possible when the body is immersed in the SURFACE TENSION
fluid. Surface tension of a liquid is measured by the normal
(i ) If the weight of the body is greater than the force acting per unit length on either side of an
upward force or upthrust by the fluid acting imaginary line drawn on the free surface of liquid and
upwards, then the body sinks. tangential to the free surface.
(ii ) If the weight of the body is equal to the upthrust • If a force F acts on an imaginary line of length l, then
or the weight of the body is just balanced by F
upthrust, then the body floats fully immersed. surface tension T = . Its SI unit is Newton/metre.
l
(iii ) If the weight of the body is less than the upward • Force of attraction applied between molecules of same
force, then the body floats partially immersed. The substance is called cohesive force, while attractive
centre of gravity of a body is that point at which force between molecules of different substances is
the whole weight of the body appears to act. called adhesive force.
592 CDS Pathfinder

• The surface tension of a liquid decreases with increase in • Writing nib is split in the middle, so that a fine
temperature and becomes zero at the critical temperature. capillary is formed in it. When it is dipped in
• On mixing soap, the surface tension of water decreases. ink, the ink rises in the capillary.
➨ Note The liquids which wet glass for which the angle of
Some Phenomena Based contact is accute, rise up in capillary tube, while those
which do not wet glass, for which the angle of contact is
on Surface Tension obtuse are depressed down in the capillary.
• Warm soup is tasty because at high temperature its surface
tension is low and consequently the soup spreads on all parts of VISCOSITY
the tongue. It is the property of the liquid by virtue of which,
• Medicines used for washing wounds, as dettol have a surface it opposes the relative motion between its adjacent
tension lower than water. So, they reach the fine cavities formed layers.
in the wound. • Viscosity is the property of liquids and gases
• The surface tension of the tooth-paste scum is also less that it both.
spreads quickly on the full areas of teeth and clean them.
• With rise in temperature, viscosity of liquids
• Insects and mosquitoes swim on the surface of water in ponds decreases and that for gases increases.
and lakes due to surface tension.
• Viscosity of liquid increases with increase in
• Hair of a shaving brush cling together due to surface tension, pressure.
when the brush is taken out from the water.
• Viscosity of a fluid is measured by its coefficient
The ends of a glass tube become rounded on heating. Small
of viscosity. It’s SI unit is (N - s / m −2 ).
•
drops of mercury are spherical while large ones are flat.
Formation of lead shots, liquid-drop model of nucleus.
Floatation of needle on water. Dancing of camphor on water STOKES’ LAW
and helping. Detergent in cleaning the clothes all are due to
When a small spherical body of radius r is moving
surface tension.
slowly with a constant velocity v through a
perfectly homogeneous medium (liquid or gas) of
ANGLE OF CONTACT infinite extension and coefficient of viscosity η,
The angle inside the liquid between the tangent to the solid then the retarding viscous force acting an the body
surface and the tangent to the liquid surface at the point of contact is F = 6π ηr v
is called the angle of contact for that pair of solid and liquid. • This law is used in Millikan’s method for
• The angle of contact for pure water and clean glass is zero. For determining the electronic charge and for finding
ordinary water and glass it is about 8°. out the radii of small aid-drops by measuring their
terminal velocity in air.
• The angle of contact for water and silver is 90°.
• The liquids which wet the solid have acute angle of contact.
Meniscus of these liquids will be concave. TERMINAL VELOCITY
• The liquids which do not wet the solid have obtuse angle of When a body falls in viscous medium, its velocity
contact as for mercury and glass the angle of contact is 135°. first increases and finally becomes constant. This
Meniscus of these liquids will be convex. constant velocity is called terminal velocity. The
terminal velocity of the sphere is directly
proportional to the square of the radius of the
CAPILLARITY sphere.
If a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, liquid ascends or descends • The cloud particles fall down very slowly
in the capillary tube. This phenomenon is called capillarity. because of the viscosity of air and hence appear
• The oil in the wick of a lamp rises due to capillary action of floating in the sky.
threads in the wick. • Thin liquids like water, alcohol, etc are less
• To prevent loss of water due to capillary action, the soil is viscous than thick liquids coal for blood, honey,
loosened and split into pieces by the farmers. glycerine, etc.
• The root hairs of plants draws water from the soil through • Honey is less viscous than glycerine.
capillary action.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 593

HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS

TEMPERATURE Total Radiation Pyrometer
The measurement of hotness or coldness of a body is Radiation pyrometer measures the temperature of a body by
called its temperature. When two bodies are placed in measuring the radiation emitted by the body. It cannot measure
contact, heat always flows from a body at higher temperature below 800°C because at low temperature, emission
temperature to the body at lower temperature. of radiation is very small and cannot be detected. Sun's
temperature is measured by it.
THERMOMETER ➨ Note Bolometer and thermopile are also used to measure the amount of
heat radiated by a body.
An instrument used to measure the temperature of a
body is called a thermometer. Mercury is generally
used as, thermometric substance, because it is sensitive
HEAT
to slightest change in temperature which is notable It is a form of energy which produces the sensation of warmth
when it is used in a thermometer. Mercury has a in our body.
freezing point of − 38 ⋅ 83°C and boiling point at • It is due to the kinetic energy of the molecules constituting
356 ⋅ 7 °C, this gives a very big range to measure the object or body. Its units are calorie, kilocalorie or joule.
temperatures for many general purposes. Also, it does • Calorie is the amount of heat required to raise the
not stick to (wet) the capillary wall of the thermometers temperature of 1 g of water through 1°C (from 10°C to
and it is easy to obtain in its elemental form. 11°C). It is represented by cal, 1 cal = 4.18 J.
• Air is a non-conductor of heat and silver is the best
Temperature Scales conductor of heat.
Some temperature scales are as follows • Ebonite rubber, glass and air are bad conductors of heat.
1. Celsius Scale (C) The melting point of the ice at
standard atmospheric pressure is regarded as 0°C Specific Heat
and the boiling point of water as 100°C. This • Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the
scale was designed by Anders Celsius in the year
temperature of a unit mass of the substance by 1°C.
1710.
• If Q heat changes the temperature of m by ∆T , then specific
The degree celsius (°C) can refer to a specific
temperature on the celsius scale as well as a unit heat
Q
to indicate a temperature interval. C=
2. Fahrenheit Scale (F) The melting point of ice is m∆ T
regarded as 32°F and the boiling point of water as The SI unit of specific heat is J/kg-K.
212°F. This scale was designed by Gabriel • Specific heat of gold = 130 J/kg-K
Fahrenheit in the year 1717. • Specific heat of water = 4180 J/kg-K
3. Reaumer Scale (R) The melting point of ice is
• The specific heat of water is maximum.
regarded as 0°R and the boiling point of water as
80°R. This scale was introduced by RA Reaumer • Mercury has low specific heat.
in year 1730.
• Scales of temperature measurement,
Thermal Capacity
C− 0 F − 32 R−0 K − 273 It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a
= = = body through 1K. Its units are J/K or cal/°C or kcal/°C.
100 − 0 212 − 32 80 − 0 100 − 0
Thermal capacity = mC
C F − 32 R K − 273
⇒ = = = where, m is the mass of the body and C is the specific heat.
5 9 4 5
• The normal temperature of a human body is 37°C or Water Equivalent
98.4 F. It is the mass of water, which absorbs or emits the same
• − 40 ° is the temperature at which Celsius and amount of heat as is done by the given body for the same rise
Fahrenheit thermometers read same. or fall in temperature.
• The range of a laboratory thermometer is generally • The water equivalent of a body is denoted by W. Its SI unit
from − 10 ° C to 110 ° C. A laboratory thermometer is kg and CGS unit is g.
cannot be used to measure the human body • Water equivalent, W = mC
temperature. where, m is mass of the body and C is the specific heat.
594 CDS Pathfinder

Principle of Calorimetry Anamalous Expansion of Water

The heat lost by the hot body must be equal to the heat Almost every liquid expands with the increase in
gained by the cold body. This is known as principle of temperature. But when temperature of water is increased
calorimetry or principle of mixtures, i.e. from 0°C to 4°C its volume decreases. If the temperature is
Heat gained = Heat lost increased above 4°C its volume starts increasing, clearly
density of water is maximum at 4°C.
• Work and heat are two equivalent forms of energy.
• Calorimeter is a cylindrical vessel made of copper. Interconversion of States of Matter
The temperature at which solid starts to liquify is known
THERMAL EXPANSION as melting point of that solid.
The phenomenon of change in dimensions of an object due • The process in which a solid changes into a liquid on
to heat supplied is known as thermal expansion. heating is called melting solid. Change of state takes
place i.e. ice changes into water.
• A solid can undergo three types of expansions:
• The process in which a liquid changes into a solid is
– Linear expansion (expansion in length)
called fusion. The temperature at which liquid starts to
– Superficial expansion (expansion in area) freeze is known as freezing point of the liquid.
– Cubical expansion (expansion in volume) • The process in which a liquid changes into a vapour on
• Relation between the coefficients of linear, superficial heating is called vaporisation. The temperature at which
and cubical expansion : α : β : γ = 1: 2 : 3 the liquid starts to evaporate is called the boiling point
where change of state takes place i.e. water changes into
Practical Applications of Thermal water vapour or steam.
• The process of change of state directly from solid to
Expansion vapour (or gas) is known as sublimation.
• When hot tea is poured into a glass tumbler made of
soft glass, it cracks because of thermal expansion of LATENT HEAT
glass.
• Telegraph wires are given enough gap to allow the wires It is the amount of heat absorbed by a unit mass of the
for contraction in winter. substance to change its state without change in temperature.
• SI unit of latent heat is joule per kilogram.
• An ordinary pendulum clock runs faster in winter but
slower in summer, because in summer the length of • Latent heat of fusion is 80 cal/g and vaporisation is
pendulum increases, while in winter it decreases. 540 cal/g.
• A metallic ball before heating can pass easily through the • Ice at 0°C is more effective in cooling a substance than
ring, but after heating the ball does not pass through the water at 0°C.
ring because of the thermal expansion of ball. • If Q is quantity of heat absorbed (or given out), then
• A gap is provided between the iron rails of the railway Q = mL
track, so that rails can easily expand during summer and where, m = mass of the substance
do not bend. In the construction of bridges, ends of L = latent heat of substance.
steel gerders are not fixed but placed on rollers to allow • Steam contains more heat, in the form of latent heat,
free expansion and contraction in summer and winter then boiling water.
respectively to avoid any damage to the bridge. • The burns caused by steam are much more severe than
• A tightly fitted cork can be removed from a glass bottle those caused by boiling water though both of them are
without breaking it on heating its mouth carefully. The at the same temperature of 100°C.
glass wall expand and the cork will come out easily.

Expansion of Liquids EVAPORATION

It is the slow process of conversion of a liquid into its
• Liquids do not have their definite length and surface
vapour even below its boiling temperature.
area. It always need a container. When they are heated,
they expand and at the same time the container also • Cooking is caused by evaporation due to expansion.
expands. • Factors affecting the evaporation of a liquid are
– the area of the liquid surface
• The expansion of a liquid, when the expansion of its
– the nature of the liquid
container has not been taken into account is called
– temperature of the liquid
apparent-expansion.
– dryness of air
• The expansion of a liquid, when the expansion of its
– the movement of the air
container is taken into account, is called real expansion.
– temperature of air or surrounding
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 595

RELATIVE HUMIDITY Difference between Petrol Engine and Diesel Engine

The ratio of amount of water vapour ( m) actually present Petrol engine Diesel engine
in a certain volume of air at a given temperature to the It works with a spark plug. It works with an oil plug.
amount of water vapour ( M ) required to saturate it, is Efficiency is smaller (47%). Efficiency is larger (55 %).
called relative humidity, RH .
m It is associated with the risk of No risk of explosion, because only
RH = × 100%. explosion, because petrol vapour and air is compressed. Hence,
M air is compressed. So, low compression ratio is kept large.
compression ratio is kept.
• The amount of water vapour in air is called as
humidity. Petrol vapour and air is created with Spray of diesel is obtained through
spark plug. the jet.
• The amount of water vapour in the air varies as it
depends on the rate of evaporation.
• The amount of water vapour present in 1 m 3 air is
Transmission of Heat
called its absolute humidity. Transfer of heat from one place to other place is called
transmission of heat.
• Relative humidity is measured by hygrometer.
There are three processes by which transmission of heat takes
• Relative humidity increases with the increases of
place.
temperature.
(a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation
• In solids, transmission of heat takes place by conduction
THERMODYNAMICS process.
Thermodynamics is a branch of physics which deals with • In liquids and gases heat takes place by convection
exchange of heat energy between bodies and conversion
process.
of the heat energy into mechanical energy and
• Heat from the sun reaches on the earth by radiation.
vice-versa.
• Mercury though a liquid is heated by conduction and not
First Law of Thermodynamics The amount of heat
by convection.
given to a system is used up in two ways, first to
increase the internal energy and second to do the • In rooms, ventilators are provided to escape the hot air by
external work. i.e. the process of convection.
• Air is poor conductor of heat.
dQ = dU + dW .
• On a cold night two thin blankets gives more hotness than
Second Law of Thermodynamics The second law of
a single thick blanket because the layer of air between the
thermodynamics is the outcome of human experience
two blankets works as better insulator of heat.
under which heat energy can be converted into
mechanical energy. This law is based upon the two • Cooking utensils are made up of aluminium, brass and
statements given below. steel, because these substances have low specific heat and
(i) It is impossible to construct a device which operates high conductivity.
in a cycle that will take heat from a body and
convert it completely into the work. KIRCHHOFF’S LAW
(Kelvin-Planck’s Statements) Kirchhoff’s law signifies that good absorbers are good
(ii) It is impossible to construct a self acting device emitters. If a shining metal ball with some black spot on its
which operates in a cycle that will transfer heat surface is heated to a high temperature and seen in dark, the
from a cold body to a hot body without shining ball becomes dull but the black spots shines
expenditure of work (Clausius Statement). brilliantly because black spot absorbs radiation during heating
and emit in dark.
Nature of Internal Energy
• White and light colours are bad absorbers and good
• According to the kinetic modal of matter, every
reflectors of heat.
substance is composed of molecules which are in
constant motion inside the substance. Hence, • In deserts, day temperature is very high and night
molecules posses kinetic energy. temperature is extremely low because the specific heat of
sand is very low. Therefore, it absorbs the heat readily and
• Molecules also exert force on one another which is
its temperature raises by a large degree during day. At
called intermolecular force, hence they posses potential night sand radiates the heat equally readily making the
energy also. The kinetic energy and potential energy temperature loss.
of molecules is the internal energy of the substance.
• The internal energy of an ideal gas is only the kinetic
Perfectly Black Body A perfectly black body is one which
absorbs completely all the radiations falling on its surface,
energy of its molecules which depends only upon the
whatever be the wavelength.
temperature of the gas.
596 CDS Pathfinder

Perfectly black body is a perfect absorber hence, where, σ is Stefan's constant.

according to Kirchhoff’s law, it will also be a perfect
radiator. It is not essential that a perfectly black body
➨ Note Wein's displacement law can be used to compute the
temperature of the sun or of the stars.
should appear black. Sun emits radiation of all
Newton’s Law of Cooling The rate of loss of heat by a
wavelength, so it may be called a black body, even
body is directly proportional to the difference in
though it looks white.
temperature between the body and the surrounding.
Stefan’s Law The radiant energy emitted by unit area of
If the door of refrigerator is kept open, it will not cool the
perfectly black body per unit time is directly
room, it will increases the temperature of the room, because
proportional to the fourth power of its absolute
heat rejected by the refrigerator to the room, will be more
temperature.
than the heat taken by the refrigerator from the room.
E ∝T4 ⇒ E = σ T 4

OSCILLATIONS AND WAVES

PERIODIC MOTION –no force acts on the particle.
When a body repeats its motion continuously on a definite
–velocity is maximum.
– acceleration is zero.
path in a definite interval of time, then its motion is called
– kinetic energy is maximum.
periodic motion and the interval of time is called time
– potential energy is zero.
period. Motion of hands of a clock, motion of earth around
the sun and motion of the needle of a sewing machine are • When a particle executing SHM is at the extreme end,
examples of periodic motion. then
– velocity of particle is zero.
Oscillatory Motion – acceleration of the particle is maximum.
– kinetic energy of particle is zero.
If a body in periodic motion moves along the same path
– potential energy is maximum.
to and fro about a definite point (mean position or
– restoring force acting on particle is maximum.
equilibrium position), then the motion of the body is a
vibratory motion or oscillatory motion. Oscillatory motion • In case of spring block system, time period of oscillation
is also called as harmonic motion. m
is given by T = 2π , where m is the mass of the block.
• The motion of the pendulum of a wall clock, the motion k
of the bob of a simple pendulum, the motion of a loaded
• In case of spring block system, the restoring force
spring, the motion of liquid contained in a U-tube , the
F = − kx
motion of the prongs of tuning fork and the motion of a
where, x is displacement of the block from mean
bar magnet suspended in the earth’s magnetic field are
position and k is spring constant.
examples of oscillatory motion.
• All oscillatory motions are periodic motions, but all
periodic motions are not oscillatory. RESTORING FORCE
When oscillating particle is displaced from its equilibrium
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION position, then a periodic force acts upon it which is always
directed towards the equilibrium position. This force is
(SHM) called restoring force.
If a particle repeats its motion about a fixed point after a
regular time interval in such a way that at any moment the Simple Pendulum
acceleration of the particle is directly proportional to its A simple pendulum consists of a small metal ball
displacement from the fixed point at that moment and is suspended by a long thread from a rigid support, such that
always directed towards the fixed point, then the motion the bob is free to swing back and forth.
of the particle is called simple harmonic motion. • The distance of the pendulum from its mean position is
• Vibrations of the prongs of a tuning fork, oscillations of called its displacement.
a body. Suspended by a spring. Oscillations of a body • The maximum displacement of the pendulum on either
partly immersed in a liquid and oscillations of a simple side of its mean position is called the amplitude of
pendulum are examples of simple harmonic motion. oscillations.
• When a particle executing SHM passes through the mean
• Time period is the time taken by the pendulum to
position, then
complete one full oscillation.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 597

• Frequency is the number of full oscillations completed by

pendulum in one second.
WAVES
A wave is a disturbance which propagates energy
• Second pendulum is one whose time period is 2s.
from one place to the other without the transport
L of matter.
• Time period of simple pendulum T = 2π , where L is length
g These are of two types
of thread and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
• The time period of a simple pendulum of infinite length is 84.6
Mechanical Waves
min. A pendulum clock goes slow in summer and fast in winter. The waves which require material medium (solid,
liquid or gas) for their propagation are called
• If a simple pendulum is suspended in a lift descending down
mechanical waves or elastic waves. These are of two
with acceleration, then time period of pendulum will increase. If
types
lift is ascending, then time period of pendulum will decrease.
(i) Longitudinal Waves If the particles of the
• If a lift falling freely under gravity, then the time period of the
medium vibrate in the direction of propagation
pendulum will be infinite. of wave, the wave is called longitudinal waves.
• At moon, the time period of simple pendulum increases because Waves on springs or sound waves in air are
acceleration due to gravity at moon is lesser. examples of longitudinal waves.
➨ Note Every body inside a satellite remains in a state of weightlessness, that (ii) Transverse Waves If the particles of the
is the effective value of g remains zero. Hence, a pendulum inside a satellite medium vibrates perpendicular to the direction
will not oscillate. Therefore, the pendulum clock cannot work inside space of propagation of wave, the wave is called
satellites. transverse waves.
Oscillation of Liquid Column in a U-tube Waves on strings under tension, waves on the
surface of water are examples of transverse
If a liquid is taken in a U-tube, it maintains equal level in both the waves.
columns of the tube. When air is blown-in on side B, the liquid
may go down upto point D. The displacement of the liquid is Electromagnetic Waves
given by BD = x.
The waves which do not require any medium for
In the second column, the
their propagation i.e. which can propagate even
liquid goes upto E and the E
B C x through the vacuum are called electromagnetic
displacement is CE. As the x
B C
D F waves. They propagate as transverse wave.
applied force is withdrawn,
the liquid level in the second h • Electromagnetic waves of wavelength range 10 −3
column comes down because m to 10 −2 m are called microwaves.
of gravity from E to C. But • Microwaves are absorbed by water molecules and
due to inertia, it overshoots the mark C and goes to F (CF = x ), living tissue internal heating will damage or kill
whereas the liquid in the other column also goes up by the same cells.
distance. • Microwaves are used in communications,
Thus, the liquid starts oscillating in both the columns. This satellites, telephony, heating water and food.
motion of the liquid in the U-tube is SHM with time period, ➨ Note Cathode rays, canal rays, α-rays, β-rays are not
h electromagnetic waves. Light and heat are examples of
T = 2π where, h is the height of liquid in each column.
g electromagnetic waves.

Spectrum of Electromagnetic Waves

Wavelength range Frequency
Electromagnetic Waves Discoverer (in metre) Uses
range
γ-rays Henry Becqueral 10 − 14 to 10 − 10 10 20 to 1018 Medical tracers, killing cancerous cells,
steralisation, imaging defects in metal.
X-rays W Roenetgen 10 − 10 to 10 − 8
1018 to 1016 Imaging defects in bones, hidden devices.
− 8 − 7 16 14
Ultraviolet rays Ritter 10 to 10 10 to 10 Making vitamin D, making ions.
−7 −7
Visible radiation Newton 3.9 × 10 to 7.8 × 10 10 14
to 10 12
Photography
−7 −3
Infrared rays Hershel 7.8 × 10 to 7.8 × 10 10 12 10
to 10 TV remote control
−3 10 8
Short radio waves Heinrich 10 to 1 10 to 10 Communication, radio, TV.
or Hertz hertzian waves
Long radio waves Marcony 1 to 10 4 10 8 to 10 6 Communication, radio, TV.
598 CDS Pathfinder

Important Terms Related to Waves • To hear echo, the minimum distance between the observer

• Amplitude (A) Maximum displacement of a vibrating

and reflection should be 17. Persistance of ear is 1/10 s.
particle of medium from its mean position is called • At the moon, the echo is not heared due to absence of
amplitude. atmosphere.
• Wavelength (λ) Wavelength is the distance between any
two nearest particle of the medium, vibrating in the SONAR
same phase.
It stands for sound navigation and ranging. It is used to
• Frequency ( f ) Frequency of vibration of a particle is measure the depth of a sea and to locate the submarines
defined as the number of vibrations completed by and shipwrecks. The transmitter of a sonar produces pulses
particle in one second. of ultrasonic sound waves of frequency of about 50000 Hz.
1 The reflected sound waves are received by the receiver.
Frequency =
Time period
• Velocity of wave (v) = Frequency (f ) × Wavelength ( λ ) Speed of Sound
The distance travelled by sound wave in one second is
Waves in Different Frequency Range known as speed of sound wave. i.e.
According to their frequency range, longitudinal Speed of sound, v = Frequency × Wavelength
mechanical waves are divided into the following categories: • Speed of sound basically depends upon elasticity and
• The longitudinal mechanical waves which lie in the range density of medium. The speed of sound in a medium is
20 Hz to 20000 Hz are called audible or sound waves. E
given by v = , where E is modulus of elasticity of
Human ears are sensitive to the waves in this frequency d
range. the medium and d = density.
• The longitudinal mechanical waves having frequencies γp
• For gases, v =
less than 20 Hz are called infrasonic. These are d
produced by earthquakes, volcanic eruption, ocean waves where, p is pressure and γ is ratio of specific heats.
and elephants and whales.
• Speed of sound is maximum in solids and minimum in
• The longitudinal mechanical waves having frequencies gases. Speed of sound in air is 332 m/s, 1483 m/s in
greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves. water and 5130 m/s in iron.
• Human ear cannot detect the ultrasonic waves. But • When sound enters from one medium to another
certain creatures like dog, cat, bat, mosquito can detect medium, its speed and wavelength changes but frequency
these waves. Bat also produces ultrasonic waves. remains unchanged.
• Ultrasonic waves are used for sending signals, measuring • Speed of sound remains unchanged by the increase or
the depth of sea, cleaning clothes and machinery parts of decrease of pressure.
clocks removing lamp shoot from chimney of factories • The speed of sound increases with the increase of
and in ultrasonography. temperature of the medium. The speed of sound in air
• The use of ultrasonic waves to investigate the action of
increases by 0.61 m/s, when the temperature is
increased by 1°C.
the heart is called echocardiography.
• The speed of sound is more in humid air than in dry air
Sound Waves because the density of humid air is less than the density
of dry air.
Sound wave is the form of energy which make us hear and
• The speed of sound in air is very slower as compared to
having frequency and high wavelength. These can not
the speed of light in air. Therefore, in rainy season, the
travel in vacuum. It is of two types i.e. longitudinal wave
flash of lightning is seen first and the sound of thunder
and mechanical wave. is heard a little later.
• The rebouncing back of sound when it strikes a hard ➨ Note The astronauts who land on moon, talk to one another
surface is called reflection of sound. The reflection of through wireless sets using radio waves.
sound is utilised in working of devices such as
megaphone, bulbhorn, stethoscope and sound board. Characteristics of Sound Waves
• The repetition of sound caused by the reflection of There are following characteristics of sound waves.
sound waves is called an echo. In addition to curtains,
carpets and sofa-sets in our rooms also reduce the Intensity
formation of echoes by absorbing sound waves. Intensity of sound at any point in space is defined as
• The persistence of sound in a big hall due to repeated amount of energy passing normally per unit area held
reflections from walls, ceiling and floor of the hall is around that point per unit time. SI unit of intensity is
reverberation. W / m 2.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 599

• Intensity of sound at a point is inversely – If mach number > 1, body is called supersonic.
proportional to the square of the distance of point – If mach number > 5, body is called hypersonic.
from the source and directly proportional to the – If mach number < 1, body is said to be moving with
square of amplitude of vibration, square of subsonic speed.
frequency and density of the medium.
• The loudness depends on intensity as well as on Resonance
sensitivity of ear. • If however, the frequency of the external force is equal to
• The loudness of sound is measured in decibel (dB). the natural frequency of the body, then the amplitude of the
I forced oscillations of the body becomes quite large. This
• Sound level, β = 10 log 10   phenomenon is called resonance.
 I0 
• A group of soldiers on a bridge are advised not to walk in
where, I0 = the minimum intensity that can be heard steps because their movement causes the bridge to vibrate. If
called threshold of hearing 10 −12 W/m 2 at 1 kHz. they walk in step, the frequency of vibration may match the
Standard value of noise pollution natural frequency of the bridge structure and thus causing
resonance. This resonance of frequency can cause the bridge
Areas Day time (dB) Night time (dB) to collapse.
Industrial area 75 70
Commercial area 65 55 Some Definitions Regarding Waves
Residential area 55 45 Interference When two waves of same frequency, same
Silence 50 40 wavelength, same velocity moves in the same direction. Their
superimposition results in the interference. In interference,
➨ Note Likewise intensity of sound wave, intensity of an energy is neither created nor destroyed but is redistributed.
earthquake defines the energy released by it which is indicated
by the local effects and potential for damage produced on the Beat When two sound waves of slightly different frequencies,
earth’s surface. It can be measured by a seismograph. travelling in a medium along the same direction, superimpose
on each other, the intensity of the resultant sound at a
Pitch particular position rises and falls regularly with time. This
It is that characteristic of sound, which distinguishes a phenomenon of regular variation in intensity of sound with
sharp sound from a grave sound. time at a particular position is called beats.
• Pitch depends upon frequency of sound waves. Progressive Waves The disturbance produced in the medium
• The pitch of female voice is higher than the pitch of travels onward, it being handed over from one particle to the
male voice. next. Each particle executes the same type of vibration as the
• The pitch of sound produced by roaring of lion is preceding one, though not at the same time.
lower whereas the pitch of sound produced by Stationary Waves When combination of two waves moving in
mosquito whisper is high. opposite directions, each having the same amplitude and
frequency.
Quality (or Timbre)
It is that characteristic of sound which enables us to
distinguish between sounds produced by two sources
DOPPLER’S EFFECT
having the same intensity and pitch. If there is a relative motion between source of sound and
observer, the apparent frequency of sound heard by the
observer is different from the actual frequency of sound
SHOCK WAVES emitted by the source. This phenomenon is called Doppler’s
A body moving with supersonic speed in air leaves effect.
behind it a conical region of disturbance which spreads When the distance between the source and observer decreases,
continuously. Such a disturbance is called shock the apparent frequency increases and vice-versa.
waves.
• These waves carry huge energy and may even make
Uses of Doppler’s Effect
(i ) By police to check over speeding of vehicles.
cracks in window panes or even damage a building.
• The speed of supersonic wave is measured in mach
(ii ) At airport to guide the aircraft.
number. One mach number is the ratio of velocity (iii ) To study heart beats and blood flow in different parts on
of source to the velocity of sound. the body.
Velocity of source (iv) It is used to determine the velocities of which stars and
• Mach number =
Velocity of sound galaxies are moving toward or away from the earth.
600 CDS Pathfinder

OPTICS
LIGHT • Focal length of plane mirror is infinity i.e. power of the
It is the radiation which makes our eyes able to see the plane mirror is zero.
• Linear magnification produced by plane mirror is 1.
object. Its speed is 3 × 10 8 m/s in vacuum.
• Light is the form of energy. It is a transverse wave and it • When two plane mirrors are kept facing each other at an
takes 8 min 19 s to reach on the earth from the sun. angle θ and an object is placed between them, then
360 °
• The light reflected from the moon takes 1.28 s to reach (i) Number of images, n = −1
the earth. θ
360 °
• It represents the phenomenon of reflection, refraction, If , is even or object lies symmetrically.
interference, diffraction, scattering and polarisation. θ
 360 °   360 ° 
(ii) Number of images, n =   . If   is odd
Reflection of Light  θ   θ 
Reflection is the phenomenon of change in the path of light or the object lies symmetrically.
without any change in its medium. In reflection, the
frequency, speed and wavelength do not change, but a
Uses of the Plane Mirror
phase change may occur depending on the nature of (i) Plane mirrors are used as looking glass.
reflecting surface. (ii) Plane mirrors are used in constructing periscope
Normal which is used in submarines.
N (iii) Plane mirror are used to make kaleidoscope.
A B

Spherical Mirrors
y
ra
In

Spherical mirrors can be regarded as a part of a hollow

c

ed
id
en

ct

i reflecting spheres of glass. These are of two types

f le
tr

r
Re
ay

Mirror Point of incidence (i) Concave mirror (ii ) Convex mirror

P Concave mirror The spherical mirror whose reflecting
Reflection of Light surface is inwardly leaned, called concave mirror. It is also
called converging mirror.
Laws of Reflection
• The angle of reflection ( ∠r ) is always equal to the angle Principal axis
C F P B
of incidence ( ∠i ) i.e. ∠i = ∠r. A Centre of Focus Pole
• The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the curvature
point of incidence all lie in the same plane. f
Concave mirror
MIRROR Convex mirror The spherical mirror whose reflecting
surface is outwardly leaned, called convex mirror. It is also
It is a polished surface (one side) like glass, which reflects
called diverging mirror.
almost all the light that is incident on it.
There are two types of mirror
Pole (P) Principal
axis
Plane Mirror F C
If the reflecting surface of a mirror is plane, then the Focus Centre of
mirror is called a plane mirror. curvature
• Size of image is always equal to the size of object.
Convex mirror
• The minimum size of the mirror required to see the full
image of an observer is half the height of the observer. Real Image
• If the plane mirror is rotated in the plane of incidence by
• Real images can be formed on a screen by the actual
an angle θ, then the reflected ray rotates by an angle 2θ.
• If the object is displaced by a distance x towards or
intersection of reflected (or refracted) light rays.
• The image formed on a cinema screen is a real image.
away from the mirror, then its image will be displaced
by a distance x towards or away from the mirror. • A concave mirror forms real image, when an object is
placed beyond its focus.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 601

Virtual Image (iii) When the object is between infinity and C

The image formed is real, inverted and smaller in
• Virtual images cannot be formed on the screen by the
size and is formed between F and C.
apparent intersection of reflected (or refracted) light
Concave mirror
rays.
• The image of our face when we look into a plane A
D
mirror is a virtual image. A concave mirror forms a B′
virtual image, when an object is placed between focus P
B C F
and pole of the mirror. Object A′
Image E

Position of Position of Size of image Nature of (iv) When the object is at C The image formed is
object image image inverted, real, equal in size and is formed at C
At infinity At F Highly diminished Real and itself.
inverted Concave mirror
Between infinity Between F and C Diminished -do- Object
and C A D
At C At C Same size -do- B P
Between F and C Between infinity Enlarged -do- B' C F
and C E
A′
At F At infinity Highly enlarged -do- Image
Between F and P Behind the pole Enlarged Virtual and
erect (v) When the object is between F and C The
image is formed beyond C and is inverted, real and
larger than the object.
Position of Position of Size of Nature of Concave mirror
object image image image
At infinity At F Highly diminished Erect and Object
virtual A
D
B′ B
Between infinity Between F Diminished in size Erect and P
C F
and pole and P virtual
A′
Image Formation by
Concave Mirror (vi) When the object is at focus The image is
formed at infinity. The image is real, inverted and
The following are the positions and nature of the images infinitely large in size.
formed in a concave mirror for different positions of the
Concave mirror
object E
(i) When the object is at infinity Image is A D
formed at F. C B P
From F
Concave mirror Object
infinity
At infinity
C F
P (vii) When the object is between F and P The images
B
formed behind the pole. The image is virtual, erect
A
Image and large.
B′
(ii) When the rays are parallel to the principal
axis The image is formed at F. Object B
Image
Concave mirror
P A
C F P A′
From infinity
P
C F
602 CDS Pathfinder

Image Formation by Convex Mirror REFRACTION OF LIGHT

(i) When the object is at infinity The image is formed When a ray of light passes from one medium to other, it
at focus. bends from its path. This phenomenon of bending of light
Convex mirror
is called as refraction of light.
• When light passes from rarer medium to a denser
A′ medium, it bends towards the normal at the point of
B B′
F
incidence.
Object at
Image • When light passes from a denser medium to a rarer
infinity
medium, it bends away from the normal.
(ii) When the object is between infinity and pole
• When a ray of light enters from one medium to other
The image is formed between pole and focus.
medium its frequency and phase do not change but
Convex mirror
wavelength and velocity change.

A
Laws of Refraction
E A′ • The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the
point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
B P B′ F C
Object Image • The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the
M sine of the angle of refraction is a constant for a given
medium.
sin i
MIRROR FORMULA sin r
=µ [Snell’s law]
• If v is the image distance, u is the object distance and f
where, µ is refractive index of the second medium with
1 1 1 2
is the focal length of a mirror, then + = = respect to first.
v u f R µ2 c /v 2
• The linear magnification (m) produced by a mirror is
Q µ= =
µ1 c / v1
equal to the ratio of the image distance to the object v1 v
v f f −v ∴ µ= or 1 µ 2 = 1
distance with negative sign, m = − = = v2 v2
u f −u f
where, v1 is speed of light in first medium and v 2 is speed
• If the magnification has positive sign, then the image is
of light in second medium.
virtual and erect.
• If the magnification has negative sign, then the image is
real and inverted.
Some Illustrations of Refraction
• Twinkling of stars.
Uses of Spherical Mirrors • Oval shape of sun in the morning and evening.
• Bending of a linear object when it is partially dipped in
Concave Mirrors
a liquid inclined to the surface of the liquid.
• These are used as reflectors in automobiles (car, buses,
• A fish in a pond when viewed from air appears to be at
etc.), head light, search light, hand torches and table a smaller depth than actual depth.
lamps. • A coin at the base of a vessel filled with water appears
• These are used as shaving mirrors. raised.
• These are used by doctors for focussing intense light to
examine inside of eye, ears, etc.
• Large concave mirrors are used in the application of
TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION
solar energy, to focus the sun’s rays for heating solar In case of propagation of light from denser to rarer
furnaces etc. medium through a plane boundary. Critical angle is the
angle of incidence for which angle of refraction is 90°.
Convex Mirrors
• If light is propagating from denser medium towards the
• These are used as rear-view mirrors in automobiles as
rarer medium and angle of incidence is more than critical
they give large view of the traffic. angle, then the light incident on the boundary is
• Big convex mirrors are used as shop security mirrors. reflected back in the denser medium, obeying the law of
• These are used wherever we want to see erect images. reflection. This phenomenon is called total internal
➨ Note We cannot use a concave mirror as a rear-view mirror in reflection.
motor vehicles.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 603

• Conditions of Total Internal Reflection

Light must be propagating from denser to rarer
–
Position of Position of Nature of
medium. object image
Size of image
image
– Angle of incidence must exceeds the critical angle.
At infinity At F2 Diminished Erect and
• Sparkling of diamond, mirage and looming, shinning virtual
of air bubble in water and optical fibre are the Between infinity Between F2 and Diminished Erect and
examples of total internal reflection. and lens lens virtual
➨ Note Optical fibre is used for the transmitting and receiving the
electrical signals after converting it into the light signal. Image Formation by a Convex Lens
(i) Object at infinity The image formed is at second focus,
SPHERICAL LENSES real, inverted and highly diminished.
A lens is a piece of transparent glass bounded by two A
Para
spherical surfaces. poin llel ray Convex lens
A t of s
dist from to
There are two types of lenses ant
obje p
ct D
(i) Convex lens (converging lens) A lens which is
F2 B′
thicker at the centre and thinner at its ends. B
F1 C
(ii ) Concave lens (diverging lens) A lens which is Object A′
thinner at the centre and thicker at its ends. at infinity Image
Principal
Principal Optical (ii) Object beyond 2F1 The image formed is between F2
axis
First focus axis centre
F1 F2 Second and 2F2 on the right side of the lens, real, inverted and
focus
F2 F1 diminished.
Optical First
Second Convex lens
centre focus
Convex lens focus Concave A
lens D
(a) (b)
F2 B′ 2F2
• The centre point of a lens is known as its optical B 2F1 F1 C
Object A′
centre. Image
• The line joining the centres of the surfaces of the lens
is called the principal axis of the lens. (iii) Object at 2F1 The image formed is at 2F2 , real, inverted
• The distance of the first focus from the optical centre and of same size as that of the object.
of the lens is called the first focal length of the lens. Convex lens
• The distance of the second focus from the optical A
D
centre of the lens is called the second focal length or
the principal focal length. B F2 2F2
2 F1 F1 O B′
Object
A′
Position of Nature of
Position of image Size of image Image
object image
At infinity At F2 Highly Real and (iv) Object between F1 and 2F1 The image formed is beyond
diminished inverted 2F2 , real, inverted and magnified.
Beyond 2 F1 Between F2 and 2 F2 Diminished -do- Convex lens
At 2 F1 At 2 F2 Same size -do- A
D
Between 2 F1 Beyond 2 F2 Enlarged -do-
and F1 B F2 2F2 B′
2F1 F1 O
At F1 At infinity Highly enlarged -do-
Object
Between F1 Behind the object, Enlarged Virtual and
and lens on the same side of erect
the object f A′
2f
Image
604 CDS Pathfinder

(v) Object at F1 The image formed is real, inverted, • If m is the total magnification of two lenses in contact
and highly enlarged at infinity. having magnification m1 and m2 , then
Convex lens m = m1 × m2
A • Power (P) of a lens is the reciprocal of focal length of lens
D 1
i.e. P=
B F1 F2 f
Object O
SI unit of power is dioptre (D).
X
• If two or more lenses are combined, then
Y
f – there is an increase in the magnification of image.

(vi) Object between F1 and O The image formed is – the final image is erect.

behind the object, virtual, erect and enlarged. – the spherical aberration is reduced.

A′ • If P is power of two lenses in contact having powers P1

Convex lens and P2 , then
D 1 1 1
A P = P1 + P2 or = +
F f1 f2
F2 • If two lenses of equal focal length but of opposite nature
B′ F1 B O X are in contact, then combination will behaves as a plane
Object Object
glass plate and f = ∞
Y ➨ Note When lens is dipped in a liquid of higher refractive index the
focal length increases and convex lens behaves as concave lens and
vice-versa.
Image Formation by a Concave Lens An air bubble trapped in water or glass appears as convex but behaves
(i) Object at infinity The image formed is at F2 , as concave lens.
erect, virtual and diminished.
Concave lens
Properties of Light
Dispersion of Light
F2
Sir Isaac Newton observed that when a narrow beam of light
O
is incident on a prism, the emergent beam is not only
Object at Image
infinity deviated but at the same time splits up into a coloured band
of seven colours. This phenomenon is called dispersion
of light.
(ii) Object anywhere between infinity and lens The • The seven colours of band are Violet, Indigo, Blue,
image formed is between F2 and lens, erect, virtual Green, Yellow, Orange and Red (can be memorised as
and diminished. VIBGYOR).
Concave lens • The colour of an object is determined by the colour of the
A light reflected by it.
C
A′
• Violet colour deviates through maximum angle and red
colour deviates through the minimum angle.
B F2 B′ O
Image Image • Rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of light suffering
refractions and total internal reflection in the droplets
present in the atmosphere.

LENS FORMULA Primary Colours

• If v is the image distance, u is the object distance and f Red, green and blue are called primary colours or basic
is the focal length of a lens, then colours.
1 1 1
= − Mixing of Colours
f v u
Red + Green + Blue = White
v I Size of image
Magnification, m = = = Red + Blue = Magenta
u O Size of object
Blue + Green = Peacock blue (or Cyan)
• If the magnification m has a positive value, the image Red + Green = Yellow
is virtual and erect. And if the magnification m has a
negative value the image will be real and inverted.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 605

• Magenta, Cyan and Yellow, etc., are called secondary

colours. HUMAN EYE
• A rose appears red, when day light falls on it because it Human eye is an optical instrument which forms real image
absorbs all the constituent colour of white light except of the objects.
red which it reflects to us. • The ability of an eye to focus the distant objects as well
• If all the colours of white light are reflected back from as the nearby objects on the retina by changing the focal
the object, then it appears white. length of its lens is called accommodation.
• If all the colours of white light are absorbed by the • Least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm.
object, then it appears black. • Far point of normal eye is at infinity.
• The natural colours of transparent objects are due to
their selective transmission of light. Defect of Human Eye
The ability to see is called vision. The defects of vision are
Scattering of Light known as defects of eye. There are following defects of
• When sunlight passes through the earth’s atmosphere, human eye
much of the light is absorbed by the fine dust particles • Myopia A person suffering from myopia can see the
and air molecules in the atmosphere which give out the near objects clearly while far objects are not clear;
absorbed light in some other direction. This is concave lens is used to remove it. The defect of eye called
scattering of light. myopia is caused
• The scattering of light by particle in its path is called (i) due to high converging power of eye lens or
Tyndall effect. (ii) due to eye ball being too long.
• The blue coloured light present in white sunlight is • Hypermetropia A person suffering from
scattered much more easily by air molecules causes the hypermetropia can see the distant objects clearly but not
blue colour of the sky. the near objects. Convex lens is used to remove it.
• The sun and the surrounding sky appear red at sunrise The defect of eye called hypermetropia is caused
and at sunset because at that time most of blue colour (i) due to low converging power of eye lens or
present in sunlight has been scattered out and away (ii) due to eye ball being too short.
from our line of sight, leaving behind mainly red colour • Presbyopia In the old age, the power of accomodation
in the direct sunlight beam that reaches our eyes. of the eye is so much lost that a person can neither see
• Dangers signals are of red colour because red colour of the near objects distinctly nor the distant objects. To
light scatter least and therefore signals can be see from correct this defect bifocal lens is used.
far. • Astigmatism In this defect, a person cannot distantly
• If the earth had no atmosphere, there would have been see the horizontal and vertical lines, simultaneously at a
no scattering of sunlight at all. In that case, no light normal distance. To correct this defect, cylindrical lens is
from the sky would have entered our eyes and the sky used.
would have looked dark and black to us. • Cataract In this defect, an opaque, white membrane is
developed on cornea due to which a person losses power
Interference of Light of vision partially or completely. This defect can be
When two waves of exactly same frequency travels in a removed by removing this membrane through surgery.
medium, in the same direction simultaneously, then due to
➨ Note Colour blindness is a genetic disorder which occurs by
their superposition at same points, intensity of light is inheritance. John Dalton was colour blind.
maximum while at some other points intensity is
minimum. This phenomenon is called interference of light. Optical Magnifying Instruments
• Thin layer of oil on water surface and soap bubbles
show various colours in white light due to interference
Microscope
of waves reflected from the two surfaces of the film. A microscope is an instrument used to see objects that are
• Polarisation is the only phenomenon which proves that too small for the naked eye.
light is a transverse wave. • A simple microscope consists of a convex lens of small
focal length.
Diffraction of Light • It is used to see the details of very small objects.
If an opaque obstacle is kept between a source of light • The magnifying power of a simple microscope is given by
and a screen, a sufficiently distinct shadow is obtained on  D
the screen. This shows that light which travels the M = 1 + , D is least distance of distinct vision.
 f
obstacle is small. There is a departure from straight line
propagation and so the light bends round the corners of • For compound microscope m = mo × me , where mo is
obstacle and enters in the geometrical shadow. This magnification of objective lens and me is magnification of
bending of the light is called diffraction. eye-piece.
606 CDS Pathfinder

Telescope fo
• Magnifying power of telescope, m = where fo
• Telescope is an optical instrument which is used for observing fe
distinct images of heavenly bodies like stars, planets, etc., is focal length of objective of the telescope and
when the final image is formed at infinity. where fe is focal length of eye-piece of the
• There are two types of telescopes telescope.
– Astronomical telescope (invented by Kepler in 1611) • Length of telescope tube in astronomical telescope
– Galilean telescope (invented by Galileo in 1609)
is
L = fo + fe
• In an astronomical telescope, the objective lens is a convex lens In Galilean telescope the length of telescope,
of large focal length but eye-piece is a convex lens of short L = fo + fe .
focal length.
➨ Note Periscope consists of two plane mirrors inclined at an
• In Galilean telescope, the objective lens is a convex lens of angle of 45°. The principle of working of periscope is based
large focal length but the eye-piece is a concave lens of short upon reflection and refraction.
focal length.

ELECTRIC CURRENT
ELECTRIC CHARGE Electric Field
Charge is the basic property associated with matter due to The region around an electric charge in which its effect can
which it produces and experience electrical and magnetic be experienced is called the electric field.
effects. The SI unit of electric charge is Coulomb. F
Electric field intensity (E ) =
• Positively charged particles called protons and negatively q0
charged particles called electrons. A proton possesses a
positive charge of 1. 6 × 10 −19 C, whereas, an electron Electric Potential
possesses a negative charge of 1. 6 × 10 −19 C. The electric potential at a point in an electric field is the
• Similar charges repel each other and opposite charges work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity
attract each other. to that point.
Work done
• Electric potential = . Its SI unit is volt (V).
Conservation of Charges Charge
When two or more charged bodies come in contact, then • Potential difference (VA − VB ) between two points A and
total charge on all the bodies are conserved. B is the work done in bringing a unit charge from point
• Conductors are those substances which allow passage of B to point A.
electrical charges to flow through them and have very • Potential difference is a scalar quantity and is measured
low electrical resistance e.g. copper, aluminium, gold, by means of voltmeter (a high resistance device).
silver, etc. • The electric potential inside a spherical surface is same at
• Human body and earth act like a conductor. Silver is the each point and is equal to the potential on the surface.
best conductor. • Electrical potential on earth is considered to be zero.
• Charges are always distributed on the surface of the • A voltmeter connected in parallel with conductor to
conductor. measure the potential difference across its ends.
• Resistors offer high resistance to the flow of current • Voltage is the other name for potential difference.
through them e.g. eureka, nichrome, etc.
• Insulators have infinite resistance and do not allow the Electric Current
passage of current. e.g. rubber, glass, ebonite, etc. • The rate of flow of electric charges through any
cross-section of conductor is called electric current.
➨ Note The presence of free electrons in a substance makes it a
conductor. • The direction of positive charges is same as direction of
conventional current.
Coulomb’s Law • Current =
Charge
⇒I=
Q
• The force of attraction or the force of repulsion acting Time t
between the two point charges is proportional to the • The SI unit of electric current is ampere.
product of the magnitudes of the two charges and • Current is measured by an instrument called ammeter.
inversely proportional to the square of the distance
• An ammeter is connected in series with the conductor to
1 q1 q2
between them i.e. F = measure the current passing through it.
4πε 0 r 2
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 607

• There are two types of electric current (i ) Alternating • The reciprocal of resistance of a conductor is called the
current (AC) and (ii) Direct current (DC). electrical conductance of the conductor.
1
• Alternating current is used in houses and factories and its Conductance =
frequency is 50 Hz. Resistance
• Ordinary DC ammeter and DC voltmeter cannot • Unit of conductance is mho or siemen.
measure alternating current/voltages. They record zero • The specific resistance of the material depends only on
reading, when used in AC circuits, because average value the material of conductor and its temperature.
of alternating current/voltage over a full cycle is zero. • Resistivity increases with temperature.
• Resistivity of a conductor change with impurity.
Galvanometer • Resistivity of an alloy is greater than the resistivity of
It is a device used to detect and measure electric current in its constituents and remains unchanged with
a circuit. It can measure current up to 10 −6 A. temperature.
A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by • If a wire is stretched or doubled on itself, its resistance
connecting a very high resistance in its series. will change, but its specific resistance will remains
➨ Note Conventionally the direction of electric current is opposite to unaffected.
that of electrons. Since, electrons flow from negative terminal of a • The reciprocal of resistivity of a conductor is called its
cell to its positive terminal, electric current flows from positive
terminal to negative terminal. conductivity. Its SI unit is mho m −1 or siemen/metre
( Sm −1 ).
Capacitor
A capacitor or condenser is a device over which a large Combination of Resistances
amount of charge can be stored. There are two combinations given below:
• Capacitance of capacitor (C) =
Charge (Q ) (i) Series combination R = R1 + R2 + R3 and here
Potential (V ) current flows through each conductor is same.
• Its unit is coulomb/volt or farad.
• A capacitor is used in several electrical devices having an R1 R2 R3
electric motor and in several electronic circuits.
+ –
E
OHM’S LAW The total resistance in the series combination is more
If the physical circumstances of the conductor. (length, than the greatest resistance in the circuit.
temperature, etc) remains constant then the current flowing 1 1 1 1
(ii ) Parallel combination = + + and here
through the conductor is directly proportional to the R R1 R2 R3
potential difference across its ends. potential across each conductor is same.
i.e. I ∝V R1
or V = IR , where R is resistance.
R2

Resistance R3
The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its
V
length and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area.
If l and A are respectively length and cross-sectional area of
a conductor and R is its resistance, then + –
E
l l The total resistance in parallel combination is less
R∝ ⇒ R=ρ
A A than the least resistance of the circuit.
Unit of resistance is ohm ( Ω ).
where, ρ is a constant of material of conductor is called ELECTRIC POWER
specific resistance or resistivity. Its SI unit is ohm-metre. Electrical power is the electrical work done per unit time.
• On increasing the temperature of the metal, its resistance W
increases. P = or P =V ×I
t
• Those materials whose electrical conductivity lies in
or P = I 2R [Q V = IR]
between that of insulators and conductors are called 2
semiconductors. On increasing the temperature of V
or P =
semiconductor, its resistance decreases. R
Its SI unit is watt (W).
608 CDS Pathfinder

• 1 kilowatt hour =3600000 J = 3.6 × 10 6 J • When poles of two magnets are brought close together,
they exert force on each other. This force is called
1 Horse power (HP) = 746 W
intersection between the poles.
1 Horse power (HP) = 550 foot-pound/second • If we cut a magnet in two parts, then each separate part
volt × ampere × hour will behave as a magnet.
Unit =
1000 • Permanent magnets are usually made of alloys such as
watt × hour carbon steel, chromium steel, cobalt steel, tungsten steel
Unit =
1000 and alnico (alloy of aluminium, nickel, cobalt and iron).
• Such permanent magnets are used in microphones,
Heating Effect of Electric Current loudspeakers, electric clocks, ammeters, voltmeters,
speedometer and many other devices.
Heat is produced, when electric current is passed through
a conductor. This effect is called heating effect of electric ➨ Note The Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) technique which is used
current. to scan inner human body parts in hospitals also uses magnets for its
working.
V 2t
Heat produced = I 2 Rt = VIt = joule
R Magnetic Field
➨ Note The filament of an electric bulb gets very hot and therefore The space in the surrounding of a magnet or a current
easily oxidised. Thus, bulbs are sealed with inactive nitrogen and carrying conductor in which its magnetic effect can be
argon gases to prevent oxidation of the filament and increase its experience is called magnetic field.
life.
In electric bulb, tungsten is used for the construction of filament • Magnetic lines of force are imaginary lines in the magnetic
because it has high melting point. field, which shows the direction of magnetic field
continuously.
IMPORTANT POINTS BASED • The magnetic field lines originate from the North pole of
ON HEATING EFFECT a magnet and end at its South pole.
●
In home appliances like electric iron, electric heater • The magnetic field lines do not intersect one another.
and heating rod, the heating element used is of a
nichrome (an alloy of Ni and Ci) wire. Nichrome has
high melting point and high resistivity. To avoid the
Magnetic Materials
risk of electric shock, the metal body of electrical According to behaviour of magnetic substances, they are
appliances is earthed. classified into three classes
●
An electric fuse is generally prepared from tin-lead alloy • Those substances when placed in an external magnetic
(63% tin + 37% lead). It should have high resistance and field, acquire a very low magnetism in direction opposite
low melting point. It is connected in the series. to the field are called diamagnetic substances. e.g. copper,
●
Tubelight contains a long tube of glass which is linked silver, bismuth, zinc, diamond, salt, water, mercury, etc.
internally with a fluorescent substance. It is filled with an • The permeability of diamagnetic substance is less than
inert gas like argon along with some mercury. one.
• Those substances when placed in an external field, acquire
Magnetic Effect of Current a feeble magnetism in the direction of field are called
When electricity passes through insulated copper wire, it paramagnetic substances. e.g. aluminium, sodium,
develops a magnetic field around it. Larger the amount of potassium, oxygen, etc.
electricity, stronger the magnetic field. And when we • The permeability of paramagnetic substance is slightly
place compass needle in the radius of the magnetic field it greater than one.
diverts from its North-South position. • Those substances, when placed in a magnetic field, acquire a
strong magnetism in the direction of field are called
ferromagnetic substances. These substances when brought
MAGNETS near the end of a strong magnet get radially attracted
Magnet is a piece of iron or other materials that can towards it. e.g. iron, nickel, cobalt, magnetite, etc.
attract iron containing objects and the property of • The permeability of ferromagnetic substance is much
attracting the magnetic substance by a magnet is called greater than one.
magnetism.
• The magnets which do not lose their magnetism with Electromagnet
normal treatment are called permanent magnets.
An electromagnet is a solenoid coil that attains magnetism due
• The materials which retain their magnetism for a long
to flow of current. It works on the principle of magnetic effect
time are called hard magnetic materials. of current. It is used in electric bells, electric motors,
• In bar, rod and horse-shoe magnets, North or South
telephone, diaphragms, loudspeakers etc.
poles are either indicated by the letter N or S.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 609

• AC generator consists of slip rings, armature, magnet

Magnetic Flux and brushes while DC generator consists of magnet
The magnetic flux linked with a surface is equal to the commutator, armature and brushes.
total number of magnetic lines of force passing through ➨ Note Electric motor is a rotating device which converts electrical
that surface normally. Its unit is weber. energy into mechanical energy.

ELECTROMAGNETIC Transformer
Transformer is a device which converts low voltage AC
INDUCTION into high voltage AC and high voltage AC into low
When a change occurs in the magnetic flux linked with the voltage AC. It is based on mutual induction.
coil, an emf is induced in the coil. The phenomenon is • Core of a transformer is made up of soft iron.
called electromagnetic induction. • Step-up transformer converts a low voltage of high
• The phenomenon of production of induced emf in a current into a high voltage of low current.
circuit due to change in magnetic flux in its • Step-down transformer converts a high voltage of low
neighbouring circuit is called mutual induction. current into a low voltage of high current.
• When the electric current flowing through a circuit
• The main energy losses in a transformer are given below:
changes, the magnetic field linked with circuit also
(a) Iron loss (b) Flux loss
change. As a result an induced emf is set up in the
circuit. This phenomenon is called self-induction. (c) Hysteresis loss (d) Humming loss
• Transformer is used in voltage regulators, refrigerators,
• Microphone converts sound energy into electrical energy
and works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. computer, air conditioner.
• Step-down transformer is used for welding purpose.
Electric Generator • Audio transformer allowed telephone circuits to carry on
a two-way conservation over a single pair of wires.
It is a device which converts mechanical energy into
• Radio frequency transformers are used in radio
electrical energy. An electric generator is based on the
principle of electromagnetic induction. It is used to communication.
produce electric current by varying magnetic field through ➨ Note A mobile phone charger is one of the best example of step
a coil. down transformer as it extracts the power from the home supply
(AC 220V) and convert it to DC of required voltage.
• A generator can produced both alternating current and
direct current.

MODERN PHYSICS
CATHODE RAYS • X-rays were discovered by scientist Roentgen.
−2 −3 • These produce illumination on falling the fluorescent
If the gas pressure in a discharge tube is 10 to 10 mm
of Hg and a potential difference of 10 4 V is applied substances and travel in a straight line with the speed of
between the electrode, then a beam of electrons emerges light.
from the cathode which is called cathode rays. • X-rays penetrate through different depth into different
• Cathode rays are invisible and travel in a straight line. substances.
• These rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields. • Soft X-rays have greater wavelength and lower
• These rays can ionise gases. frequency and hard X-rays have lower wavelength and
• They can produce chemical change and thus affect a higher frequency.
photographic plate. • X-rays ionise gases through which they pass.
• When they strike a target of heavy metal such as
• X-rays are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
tungsten, they produce X-rays.
• They show all the important properties of light rays like,
reflection, refraction, interference, diffraction and
X-RAYS polarisation, etc.
When cathode rays strike on a heavy metal of high melting • X-rays are used in surgery, radiotherapy, engineering
points, then a very small fraction of its energy converts department and searching.
into a new type of waves, called X-rays. ➨ Note Barium and Iodine are some chemicals used as contrast
• X-rays are electromagnetic waves and these produce mediums for X-ray based imaging method. i.e. they absorbs X-ray
photoelectric effect. to highlight the targeted body part.
610 CDS Pathfinder

Photoelectric cell is based on photoelectric effect. It is a

POSITIVE OR device by which light energy is converted into the
CANAL RAYS electrical energy.
These rays are positively charged particles and are called Applications of photoelectric effect are given below
positive rays or canal rays. These rays were discovered by (i) In reproduction of sound in cinema, television and
Goldstein. photo telegraphy.
• These rays can affect the photographic plates. (ii) In automatic switches for street lights.
• These rays are capable of producing physical and (iii) In photoelectric sorters.
chemical changes. (iv) To control the temperature in furnace and in
• These rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields. chemical process.
These rays can produce fluorescence and (v) In industries for locating minor flows or holes in
phosphorescence. metallic sheets.

Fluorescence SEMICONDUCTOR
Some substances absorb the light of higher frequency or Semiconductors are those materials whose electrical
shorter wavelength and emits a light having lower frequency conductivity at room temperature lies in between that of
or higher wavelength in the presence of light source. This insulator and conductor. A semiconductor in an extremely
phenomenon of emission of light is called fluorescence. pure form is known as intrinsic semiconductor.
Such substances are called fluorescence substances. • If a measured and small amount of chemical impurity is
• Fluoresphor, petrol, uranium oxide and barium platino added to intrinsic semiconductor, it is called extrinsic
cyanide are examples of fluorescence substance. semiconductor or doped semiconductor.
• Barium platino cyanide is used in search of X-rays. • External semiconductors are of two types
(i) n-type semiconductor
Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) (ii) p-type semiconductor
Compact fluorescent lamp converts electrical energy into • An extrinsic semiconductor in which electrons are
radiant energy.
majority charge carrier is called n-type semiconductor.
• It has two components
• An extrinsic semiconductor in which holes are the
– A glass tube filled with argon and mercury vapour and
majority charge carrier is called p-type semiconductor.
coated with layer of fluorescent materials.
– An electronic ballast circuit.
Special Purpose Diodes
• The ballast circuit (small circuit board with rectifiers, a
An arrangement consisting a p-type semiconductor
filter capacitor and usually two switching transistors) brought into a close contact with n-type semiconductor is
takes a 220V input from external power source and sends called a p-n junction or p-n junction diode.
a current into the fluorescent tube as output. • A device which converts alternating current (AC) or
• When power supply is given to the CFL, filament voltage into direct current (DC) or voltage is known as
attached with the cathode heats up and emits electrons in rectifier. DC can be converted into AC with the help
the tube. This ionises the argon and mercury vapour of an inverter.
particles, causing it, ultraviolet light emission. • LED’s are specially designed diode made up of GaAsP,
GaP and are used in electronic gadgets as indicator
Phosphorescence light. It is used as a rectifier which converts an
alternating current into direct current.
Some substances after being kept in sunlight for sometime • LED’s light up very quickly. A typical red indicator
emit light even after the light source is removed. This LED will achieve full brightness in microseconds.
phenomenon is called phosphorescence. Zinc sulphide, • LED or semiconductor laser is used to convert
calcium sulphide and barium sulphide are examples of electrical energy into optical energy.
phosphorescence. • Zener diode is a highly doped p-n junction diode which
is not damaged by high reverse current. It can be used
PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT as voltage regulator.
• Photo diode is a special p-n junction diode fabricated
When the ultraviolet rays (or the visible light of low
wavelength or any other kind of electromagnetic radiation) with a transparent window to allow light to fall on the
diode. It is used in reverse biasing.
are made incident on a metal, the electrons are emitted from
it. This phenomenon is called the photoelectric emission or ➨ Note Diode valve acts as a rectifier and triode valve can be used as
amplifier oscillator and detector.
photoelectric effect.
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 611

Solar Cell frequencies upto 1500 kHz. The ground wave

propagation is generally used for local broadcasting.
Solar cell is a p-n junction device which converts solar • In space wave propagation, the radio wave from the
energy into electrical energy. It is consist of a silicon or transmitting antenna reach the receiving antenna either
gallium arsenide p-n junction. directly or after reflection from the ground or from
troposphere. The space wave propagation utilises the
Uses of Solar Cell electromagnetic waves of very high frequency band
(i) Solar cells are used as solar cooker. (between 30 MHz to 300 MHz), ultra high frequency
(ii) Solar cells are used in wrist watches, calculators and band (between 300 MHz to 3000 MHz) and microwaves
light meters. having frequencies range 100 GHz to 300 GHz.
(iii) Solar cells are also used in artificial satellite to • In sky wave propagation the radio waves from the
provide power inside the satellite. transmitting antenna reach the receiving antenna after
(iv) Solar cells are used for charging storage batteries. entering in ionosphere. The sky wave frequency lies
between 2 MHz to 30 MHz.
Integrated Circuits • A communication satellite is a space craft, provided with
An IC can be defined generally as an arrangement of microwave receiver and transmitter.
multifunction semiconductor devices. It consists of a single – It is placed in an orbit around the earth.
crystal chip of silicon, nearly 1.5 mm 2 in cross-section. – The frequencies used in satellite communication lies in
TV remote control is an electronic device containing an IC UHF/ microwave regions.
and few other components. If a key on a remote control is – These waves can cross the ionosphere and reach the
pressed, it emits infrared signals which are received by the satellite.
electronic circuit of the TV receiver, etc. • The satellite communication is used effectively in mobile
communication, metrology and weather forecasting.
LASER • Remote sensing is the technique to obtain information
The word LASER is the short form of Light about an object by observing it from a distance and
Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It is without coming to actual contact with it. It is used in
an optical device, which produces an intensive beam development of weather forecasting system.
highly coherent, monochromatic light. • Parallel wire line is used to connect an antenna with TV
Applications of laser rays are described below receiver. Parallel wire lines are never used for
transmission of microwaves.
(i) Laser rays are used in treatment of detached retina,
treatment of skin cancer and surgery of brain. • Twisted pair wires are used to connect telephone system.
(ii) Laser beams are used in signals and radio • Coaxial cables are used for long distance high frequency
communications. transmission. e.g. TV channel transmission.
(iii) The property of high intensity is used to cut hard ➨ Note Maser is a device working on the same principle as a laser.
metals. Maser means ’Microwave Amplification by Stimulated Emission of
(iv) The weather informations are collected with the help Radiation, It is used to produce very high magnetic field and in radio
astronomy and communications.
of radar, an instrument based on the properties of
laser.
(v) The laser rays are parallel and do not spread. This
Optical Communication
property of laser rays is used in the measurement of It is a better communication system for large number of
long distance. channels and higher bandwidth transmission. Now-a-days
optical fibres of very small diameters ( ≈ 10 −5 m ) are used in
COMMUNICATION optical communication. Advantages of optical
communication over the conventional two wires or coaxial
The term communication refers to the transmitting cable systems are
receiving and processing of information by electronic
(i) In optical fibres energy losses are less.
means. A basic communication system consists of an
information source, a transmitter, a link and a receiver. (ii) Secret information like banking, defence, etc., is more
secure because optical signal is confined to the inside
• Electromagnetic waves which are used in radio,
of fibre and cannot be tampered easily.
television and other communication system are
(iii)It can be used at high frequencies ( ≈ 10 14 Hz).
radiowaves and micro waves.
• In ground wave propagation, the radio wave travel Phenomenon of total internal reflection is the principle behind
through atmosphere following the surface of the earth optical fibres. Light can be transmitted along it with almost no
from transmitting antenna to receiving antenna. The loss because of total internal reflection. Important applications
ground wave propagation is useful for low range of optical fibres are in telecommunications and medicine.
612 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
Measurement, Motion, Work, (a) The object is moving with uniform 13. External forces acting on an object
speed (a) are always balanced
Energy and Power (b) The object is in non-uniform (b) are always unbalanced
1. A train travels a distance with a accelerated (c) may or may not be balanced
speed of 30 km/h and returns with (c) The object is at rest (d) None of the above
(d) The object is in non-uniform
a speed of 50 km/h. The average 14. When horse starts running all of a
decelerated.
speed of the train is sudden, the rider on the horse
(a) 36 km/h (b) 37.5 km/h 8. Which of the following figure falls back because
(c) 38 km/h (d) 40 km/h represents uniform motion of a (a) he is afraid
2. Average velocity of an object is moving object correctly? (b) he is taken a back
equal to the mean of its initial and (c) due to inertia of motion, the lower
Distance

Distance
final velocities, if the acceleration is part of his body comes in motion
(a) uniform (b) variable (a) (b) (d) due to inertia of rest, the upper
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these part of his body remains at rest
2 Time Time 15. A scooter driven over an oily road
3. A water tank filled upto of its generally slips because on the oily
Distance

Distance
3
height is moving with a uniform road
© (d)
speed. On sudden application of the (a) inertia of the scooter tyres increases
(b) inertia of the scooter tyres decreases
brake, the water in the tank would Time
Time (c) friction between tyres and road
(a) move backward (b) move forward
increases
(c) be unaffected (d) rise upwards 9. A body falls from rest. The
(d) friction between tyres and road
4. When the distance, an object velocity acquired by falling a
decreases
travels is directly proportional to distance 2h is
(a) 2 gh (b) gh 16. Newton’s second law of motion
the length of time, it is said to
(c) 2 gh (d) None of these connects
travel with
(a) momentum and acceleration
(a) zero velocity (b) uniform velocity 10. The velocity-time graph for an (b) change of momentum and velocity
(c) constant velocity object is shown. Which one of the (c) rate of change of momentum and
(d) constant acceleration
following statements holds true external force
5. If the displacement of an object is for this object? (d) rate of change of force and
proportional to square of time, momentum
then the object moves with 17. When a ball drops onto the floor it
Velocity

(a) uniform velocity

bounces. Why does it bounce?
(b) uniform acceleration
(a) Newton’s third law implies that for
(c) increasing acceleration
Time every action (drop) there is a
(d) decreasing acceleration reaction (bounce)
(a) The object has uniform velocity
6. A passenger in a moving train (b) The object has uniform acceleration (b) The floor exerts a force on the ball
tosses a five rupee coin. If the coin during the impact
(c) The object has non-uniform
falls behind him, the train must acceleration (c) The floor is perfectly rigid
be moving with a uniform (d) None of the above (d) The floor heats up on impact
(a) acceleration 18. If an object having mass of 1 kg is
(b) deceleration 11. A boy throws four stones of same
shape, size and weight with equal subjected to a force of 1 N, it
(c) speed
speed at different initial angles moves with
(d) velocity
with the horizontal line. If the (a) a speed of 1 m/s
7. The velocity-time graph for an angles are 15°, 30°, 45° and 60°, (b) a speed of 1 km/s
object is shown below. Which one (c) an acceleration of 10 m/s 2
at which angle the stone will
of the following statements helds (d) an acceleration of 1 m/s 2
cover the maximum distance
true for this object? horizontally? 19. Momentum has the same unit as
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° that of
Velocity

(a) couple
12. Which one of the following is a (b) torque
vector quantity? (c) impulse
(a) Force (b) Area
(d) moment of momentum
Time (c) Volume (d) Density
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 613

20. Rocket works on the principle of 27. Frictional force 33. Match the following columns.
conservation of 1. is self-adjusting force.
Column I Column II
(a) mass (b) energy 2. is a non-conservative force. (Situation) (Centripetal force)
(c) momentum (d) None of these 3. is a necessary evil.
A. Revolution of the 1. Tension in the
21. Two balls of different masses have Codes earth around the string
the same kinetic energy. The ball (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 sun
having greater momentum will be (c) Only 1 (d) All of these B. Vehicle taking a turn 2. Friction force
(a) lighter one 28. Consider the following statements on level road exerted by the
(b) heavier one road on the tyres
1. Friction force is conservative
(c) both having equal masses C. A vechicle on a 3. Weight of the
force. speed braker body
(d) cannot say 2. Magnetic force and electrostatic D. A particle tied to a 4. Gravitation force
22. A goalkeeper in a game of football force are non-conservative force. string and whirled in exerted by the
pulls his hands backwards after a horizonal circle sun
Which of the following sentences
holding the ball shot at the goal. is/are correct? Codes
This enables the goalkeeper to (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 A B C D A B C D
(a) exert larger force on the ball (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
(b) reduce the force exerted by the
29. The chance of a vehicle to overturn (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
ball on hands
(c) increase the rate of change of while negotiating a circular path 34. When work is done on the body
momentum depends on (a) it gains energy
(d) decrease the rate of change of (a) speed of the vehicle only (b) it loses energy
momentum (b) radius of the circular path only (c) its energy remains constant
(c) speed and height of the vehicle (d) None of the above
23. A cricket player moves his hands and radius of the circular path
along the direction of the moving 35. Statement I When the force
(d) height of the vehicle only
ball while catching it in order to retards the motion of a body, the
(a) kill the googly of the ball 30. Fat can be separated from milk in work done is zero.
(b) conserve energy a cream separation because of Statement II Work done depends
(c) conserve mass (a) cohesive force
on angle between force and
(d) reduce the force of impulse (b) gravitational force
displacement.
(c) centrifugal force
24. Consider the following statements (d) centripetal force
Codes
1. The impulse given to a body is (a) Both the statements are correct
equal to the change in the 31. Consider the following statements and statement II is the correct
momentum of the body. 1. If a body is rotating in a explanation of statement I
2. The unit of the impulse is the circular path, then after one (b) Both the statements are correct,
same as that of the momentum. rotation its distance will be but statement II is not the correct
zero. explanation of statement I
3. The product of the force and
2. distance and displacement are (c) Statement I is correct, but
velocity is called the impulse.
equal in straight line. statement II is incorrect
4. Impulse is a vector quantity.
3. The speedometer of the car (d) Statement I is incorrect, but
Which of the following statements shows its instantaneous speed. statement II is correct
is/are correct? 36. An object of mass 2 kg is lifted
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 4 Which of the following statements
is/are correct? vertically through a distance of
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1.5 m. The work done in process is
25. It is easier to roll a barrel along (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) 29.4 J (b) 19.4 J
the road than to pull it because (c) 17.4 J (d) 20.4 J
(a) rolling involves only one point of 32. Match the following columns.
37. The work done on an object does
contact between the barrel and the Column I Column II
earth not depends upon the
A. We hit a carpet with a 1. Law of (a) displacement (b) force applied
(b) rolling friction is considerably less
than the sliding friction stick to remove the dust motion II (c) final velocity (d) initial velocity
(c) the full weight of the barrel does B. China wires are wrapped 2. Law of 38. Consider the following statements
not become effective while rolling in straw or paper motion I
1. When a body falls freely under
(d) None of the above C. A jet plane moves 3. Law of gravity the work done by
motion III
26. It is difficult to walk on ice than gravity is positive.
D. Bogies of the train are 4. Impulse 2. If a force of 1 dyne produces a
on road because provided with buffers
(a) ice is harder than road displacement of 1 cm in the
(b) road is harder than ice Codes direction of the force, the work
(c) ice does not offer any reaction, A B C D A B C D done is called 1 erg.
when we push it, with our foot (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 3. Work is scalar quantity.
(d) ice has a lesser friction than road (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 4. Work done is always positive.
614 CDS Pathfinder

Which of the following statements Previous Years’ Questions (a) The object is moving with uniform
is/are correct? speed
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 47. Statement I Pulling a lawn roller (b) The object is at rest
(c) Only 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 is easier than pushing it. (c) The object is having non-linear motion
Statement II Pushing increases (d) The object is moving with
39. If the velocity of a particle is
the apparent weight and hence non-uniform speed
reduced to half of its initial value,
the force of friction. e 2012 II 53. An electron and a proton are
then the kinetic energy of the
particle will (a) Both the statements are correct circulating with same speed in
(a) get doubled and statement II is the correct circular paths of equal radius.
(b) become four times explanation of statement I Which one among the following
(c) reduce to half of its original value (b) Both the statements are correct, will happen, if the mass of a
but statement II is not the correct
(d) reduce to one-fourth of its original proton is about 2,000 times that of
explanation of statement I
value an electron? e 2015 I
(c) Statement I is correct, but
40. A horse and a dog are running (a) The centripetal force required by
statement II is incorrect
the electron is about 2,000 times
with the same speed. Then, the (d) Statement I is incorrect, but more than that required by the
ratio of their kinetic energies, if statement II is correct proton
the weight of the horse is ten 48. A bus travels at a speed of (b) The centripetal force required by
times that of dog, is 50 km/h to go from its origin of its the proton is about 2,000 times
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 100 : 1 more than that required by the
destination at a distance of 300 km
(c) 1 : 9 (d) 9.8 : 98 electron
and travels at a speed of 60 km/h
(c) No centripetal force is required for
41. If acceleration due to gravity is to return to the origin. What is any charged particle
10 m/s 2, then the potential energy the average speed of the bus? (d) Equal centripetal force acts on
of a body of mass 1 kg kept at a e 2012 II both the particles as they rotate in
height of 5 m, is (a) 54.55 km/h (b) 55 km/h the same circular path
(a) 50 J (b) 100 J (c) 500 J (d) 50 KJ (c) 55.55 km/h (d) 54 km/h 54. An object is raised to a height of
42. When a body falls freely 49. Magnetic, electrostatic and 3 m from the ground. It is then
(a) its PE is converted into KE gravitational forces came under allowed to fall on to a table 1 m
(b) its KE is converted into PE the category of e 2013 II high from ground level. In this
(c) its mechanical energy is converted (a) non-contact forces context, which one among the
into heat energy (b) contact forces following statements is correct?
(d) None of the above (c) frictional forces e 2015 I
43. Consider the following statements (d) non-frictional forces (a) Its potential energy decreases by
1. When a body falls its potential 50. You are asked to jog in a circular two-thirds its original value of total
energy decrease but at the track of radius 35 m. Right one energy
same time kinetic energy (b) Its potential energy decreases by
complete round on the circular
increases by an equal amount. one-third its original value of total
track, your displacement and energy
2. The total amount of energy in
the universe remains constant.
distance covered by you (c) Its kinetic energy increases by
Which of the following statements respectively e 2014 I two-third, while potential energy
is/are correct? (a) zero and 220 m (b) 220 m and zero increases by one-third
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) zero and 110 m (d) 110 m and 220 m (d) Its kinetic energy increases by
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these one-third, while potential energy
51. In cricket match, while catching a decreases by one-third
44. If acceleration due to gravity is fast moving ball, a fielder in the
55. Statement I When a gun is
9.8 m /s 2. A bag of wheat weighs, ground gradually pulls his hands
fired it recoils i.e. it pushes back,
200 kg. The height to which it backwards with the moving ball to
with much less velocity than the
should be raised, so that its reduce the velocity to zero. The
velocity of the bullet.
potential energy may be 9800 J, is act represents e 2014 I
(a) 5 m (b) 4 m (c) 3 m (d) 10 m
Statement II Velocity of the
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
recoiling gun is less because the
45. Two bodies of equal mass move (b) Newton’s second law of motion
gun is much heavier than the
with the velocity of 2v and 3v, (c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Law of conservation of energy
bullet. e 2015 I
respectively. Then, the ratio of (a) Both the statements are correct
their kinetic energies is 52. The distance-time graph for an and statement II is the correct
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 8 : 11 object is shown below. Which one explanation of statement I
of the following statements holds (b) Both the statements are correct,
46. Power of the moving body is but statement II is not the correct
stored in the form of true for this object? e 2014 II
explanation of statement I
(a) work and time (c) Statement I is correct but
Distance

(b) force and distance statement II is incorrect

(c) force and velocity (d) Statement I is incorrect but
(d) distance and acceleration Time statement II is correct
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 615

56. A body is falling freely under the 2. Torque is a vector quantity. 69. A sphere of mass 40 kg is attracted
action of gravity alone in vacuum. 3. The rate of change of angular by a second sphere of mass 60 kg
Which one of the following acceleration is equal to the with a force equal to 4 × 10− 5 N. If
remains constant during the fall? torque. G is 6 × 10− 11 N-m 2/
(a) Potential energy e 2015 II 4. The turning effect of a body k 2, what is the distance between
(b) Kinetic energy is known as torque. them?
(c) Total linear momentum Which of the following (a) 7 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 12 cm
(d) Total mechanical energy statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 4
70. If suddenly the gravitational force
57. Newton’s laws of motion do not of attraction between the earth and
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
hold good for objects e 2015 II a satellite revolving around it
(a) at rest 64. Consider the following becomes zero, then the satellite
(b) moving slowly quantities. will
(c) moving with high velocity I. Angular momentum (a) continue to move in this orbit with
(d) moving with velocity comparable to II. Kinetic energy same velocity
velocity of light Which of the quantities given (b) move tangentially to the original
58. A brick is thrown vertically from above will remain constant for a orbit in the same velocity
an aircraft flying 2 km above the satellite in orbit? (c) became stationary in its orbit
Earth. The brick will fall with a (a) Only I (b) Only II (d) move towards the earth
(a) constant speed e 2015 II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 71. The force of gravitation between
(b) constant velocity 65. A boy suddenly comes and sits on two bodies does not depend on
(c) constant acceleration a circular rotating table. What (a) their separation
(d) constant speed for sometime, then will remain conserved? (b) the product of their masses
with constant acceleration as it (a) Angular momentum (c) the sum of their masses
nears the Earth (b) Potential energy (d) the gravitational constant
59. The rate of change of momentum (c) Linear momentum 72. If the distance between two objects
of a body is equal to the resultant (d) Kinetic energy is doubled, the force of attraction
e 2016 I 66. A man is sitting on a revolving between them will
stool with his arm outstretched. 1
(a) energy (b) power (a) become times (b) become 2 times
(c) force (d) impulse When he suddenly pulls his arms 4
inside, then 1
60. The SI unit of mechanical energy (c) become times (d) remains same
(a) his angular velocity decreases 8
is e 2016 I
(b) his moment of inertia decreases 73. Consider the following statements
(a) Joule (b) Watt
(c) his angular velocity remains 1. Gravitational force is always
(c) Newton-second (d) Joule-second constant attractive in nature.
(d) his angular momentum increases 2. Gravitational force is a central
Rotational Motion force.
and Gravitation 67. The cat can survive fall from a
3. Tides are formed in oceans due
height much more than human
to gravitational attraction
61. The centre of mass of a system or any other animal. It is because between moon and ocean water.
(a) is always at its geometric centre the cat
(b) is always anywhere inside it (a) can immediately adjust itself to Which of the following statements
(c) is always outside it land on all four paws and bend the is/are correct?
(d) may be inside or outside it legs to absorb the impact of falling
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
62. Assertion (A) To unscrew a (b) has elastic bones (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
rusted nut, we need a wrench (c) has thick and elastic skin
(d) also gets injury equally with other 74. The acceleration due to gravity
with longer arm. (a) has the same value everywhere in
animals, but has tremendous
Reason (R) Wrench with longer endurance, resistance and speedy space
arm reduces the torque of the recovery (b) has the same value everywhere on
arm. the earth
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is 68. An athlete diving off high (c) varies with the latitude on the earth
the correct explanation of the A springboard can perform a variety (d) is greater on the moon due to its
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is of exercise in tube air before smaller diameter
not the correct explanation of the A entering the water body, which
one of the following parameters 75. Two objects of different masses
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
will remain constant during the falling freely near the surface of
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct
fall? the moon would
63. Consider the following (a) The athlete’s linear momentum
(a) have same velocities at any instant
statements (b) The athlete’s angular momentum
(b) have different accelerations
1. Torque is equal to the product (c) The athlete’s kinetic engine (c) experience forces of same
of moment of inertia and magnitude
(d) The athlete’s moment of inertia
angular acceleration. (d) undergo a change in their media
616 CDS Pathfinder

76. An apple falls from a tree because 82. A line drawn from the sun to a (c) its period of revolution is less than
of gravitational attraction planet, moving around it, sweeps the period of rotation of the earth
between the earth and apple. If F1 over a fixed area in a given on its axis
is the magnitude of force exerted interval of time. This is according (d) its mass is less than the mass of
by the earth on the apple and F2 is to the earth
the magnitude of force exerted by (a) Kepler’s law (b) Ohm’s law 88. A missile is launched with a
apple on the earth, then (c) Lenz’s law (d) Newton’s law velocity less than the escape
(a) F1 is very much greater than F2 83. The earth revolves around the sun velocity. The sum of its kinetic
(b) F2 is very much greater than F1 in an elliptical orbit, its speed and potential energy is
(c) F1 is only a little greater than F2 (a) is greatest when it is farthest from (a) positive (b) negative
(d) F1 and F2 are equal the sun (c) zero
(b) is greatest when it is closest of the (d) may be positive or negative
77. When an object is thrown up, the depending upon its initial velocity
sun
force of gravity
(c) remains the same at all points on 89. The escape velocity of a projectile
(a) is opposite to the direction of
the orbit from the surface of the earth is
motion
(d) goes on decreasing continuously approximately
(b) is in the same direction as the
direction of motion 84. The square of time period of (a) 11.3 km/s (b) 11.2 km/s
(c) decreases as it rises up revolution of a planet round the (c) 11.5 km/s (d) 11.4 km/s
(d) increases as it rises up sun is 90. The velocity with which a
(a) directly proportional to its average projectile must be fired so that it
78. Assertion (A) Moon’s gravity is distance from the sun
equivalent to one-eighth of the escapes the earth’s gravitation
(b) directly proportional to the square of
earth’s gravity. does not depend on
its average distance from the sun
(a) mass of the earth
Reason (R) Due to less gravity, (c) directly proportional to the cube of
(b) mass of the projectile
moon is unable to retain its its average distance from the sun
(c) radius of the projectile’s orbit
atmosphere. (d) inversely proportional to its average
(d) gravitational constant
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is distance from the sun
the correct explanation of A 91. The escape velocity of a body on
85. Consider the following statements
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is the surface of the earth is 11.2
1. Time period of geo-stationary
not the correct explanation of A km/s. If the earth’s mass increases
satellite is 24 h.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect to twice its present value and the
2. Geo- stationary satellite
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct radius of the earth become half
revolves in equatorial plane in
79. A body has a mass of 6 kg on the the direction of the earth’s the escape velocity would become
(a) 5.6 km/s
earth, when measured on the rotation i.e. from West to East
(b) 11.2 km/s (remain unchanged)
moon, its mass would be 3. Geo-stationary satellite revolves
(c) 22.4 km/s (d) 44.8 km/s
(a) nearly 1 kg (b) less than 1 kg around the earth at 800 km.
(c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg 4. INSAT 2B is a polar satellite. 92. The escape velocity at the moon
80. Match the following columns. Which of the following statements 1. is 2.38 km/s
is/are correct? 2. is less than the average velocity
Column I Column II (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 of the gas molecules at the
A. g is maximum 1. At the moon (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 temperature of the moon
B. g is minimum 2. At pole Codes
86. Two satellites are revolving in the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
C. g is zero 3. At the equator same circular orbit, their (c) 1 and 2
D. g is 1/6 of 4. At centre of the 1. masses are same (d) None of the above
original value earth 2. velocities are same
Codes Codes 93. Match the following columns.
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 and 2
Column I Column II
(b) Only 2 (Definition)
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (Quantity)
(c) Only 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 A. Mass 1. Attractive force only
(d) None of the above
81. Consider the following statements B. Gravitational 2. The attractive force
87. A communication relay satellite is force exerted by the earth
1. Mass of a body is not constant
able to telecast programmes C. Escape 3. It is a quantity of
it changes from place to place.
2. Mass is measured by an continuously from one part of the velocity matter
ordinary equal arm balance. world to another, because D. Weight 4. Body must be
3. At the equator, the mass of a (a) its period of revolution is greater projected up
body is maximum. than the period of rotation of the
earth on its axis Codes
Which of the following statements A B C D A B C D
is/are correct? (b) its period of revolution is equal to
the period of rotation of the earth (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
on its axis (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 617

94. Satellite having the same orbital Properties of Matter 106. Consider the following statements
period as the period of rotation of 1. Pressure is measured by
the earth about its own axis is 100. What is the value of stress in a barometer.
known as wire of steel having radius of 2. Atmospheric pressure is
(a) polar satellite 2 mm if 10 KN of force is applied measured by manometer.
(b) stationary satellite on it? 3. Atmospheric pressure decrease
(c) geostationary satellite (a) 7.96 × 10 8 N/m 2 with altitude.
(d) INSAT (b) 8.00 × 10 7 N/m 2 4. Atmospheric pressure is
700 torr.
95. A typical black hole is always (c) 10 × 10 7 N/m 2
specified by Which of the following statements
(d) 10 × 10 8 N/m 2
(a) a (curvature) singularity is/are correct?
(b) a horizon 101. Why the spring is made up of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
steel in comparison of copper? (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 4
(c) either a (curvature) singularity or a
horizon (a) Copper is more costly than steel 107. The relative density of silver is
(d) a charge (b) Copper is more elastic than steel 10.8. If the density of water be
(c) Steel is more elastic than copper 1.0 × 103 kg/m3 the density of
96. The motion of the wheel of a cycle (d) None of the above
is silver will be
(a) rectilinear 102. Match the following columns. (a) 10.8 × 10 3 kg/m 3 (b) 9 × 10 2 kg/m 3
(b) translatory and rotatory Column I Column II (c) 8 × 10 3 kg/m 3 (d) 5 × 10 2 kg/m 3
(c) rotatory (Property) (Example)
(d) translatory 108. The apparent weight of a steel
A. Elastic 1. Iron
sphere immersed in various
Previous Years’ Questions B. Plastic 2. Steel
liquids is measured using a spring
C. Ductile 3. Quartz
balance. The greatest reading is
97. In respect of the difference of the D. Perfectly elastic 4. Paraffin wax
gravitational force from electric obtained for the liquid
Codes (a) having the smaller density
and magnetic forces, which one of
A B C D A B C D (b) having the largest density
the following statements is true?
e 2015 I (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) in which the sphere was
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 submerged deepest
(a) Gravitational force is stronger than
the other two 103. Consider the following statements (d) having the greatest volume
(b) Gravitational force is attractive only, 1. The internal restoring force 109. Hydraulic brakes in automatic
whereas the electric and the acting per unit area of vehicles are based on
magnetic forces are attractive as cross-section of the deformed
(a) Archimedes’ principle
well as repulsive body is called stress.
2. The ratio of stress to strain is (b) Toricellis equation
(c) Gravitational force has a very short (c) Pascal’s law
a constant for a material and
range (d) Bernoulli’s equation
is called modulus of elasticity
(d) Gravitational force is a long range 3. Air is more elastic than water.
force, while the other two are short 110. If a ship moves from fresh water
Which of the following statements into sea water, it will
range forces
is/are correct? (a) sink completely
98. A brick is thrown vertically from (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (b) sink a little bit
an aircraft flying 2 km above the (c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 3
(c) rise a little higher
earth. The brick will fall with a 104. A 50 kg girl wearing high heal (d) remain unaffected
(a) constant speed e 2015 II
shoes balances on a single heal. 111. Archimedes’ principle is used
(b) constant velocity
(c) constant acceleration
The heal is circular with a 1. determining the relative
(d) constant speed for sometime, then diameter 1.0 cm. The pressure density of a substance.
with constant acceleration as it exerted by the heal on the 2. in designing ships and
nears the Earth horizontal floor is (g = 9.8 N) kg submarines
99. Which one of the following (a) 6.2 × 10 6 N / m2 3. measuring a terminal velocity
(b) 2.6 × 10 5 N / m2 in air.
statements is not correct?
e 2015 II (c) 6.2 × 10 8 N / m2 Which of the following statements
(d) 2.6 × 10 6 N / m2 is/are correct?
(a) Weight of a body is different on
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
different planets 105. The pressure exerted on the (c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2
(b) Mass of a body on the earth, on ground by a man is greatest
the moon and in empty space is (a) when he lies down on the ground 112. A needle made of steel floats in
the same (b) when he stands on the toes of one water, if it is placed horizontally
(c) Weightlessness of a body occurs foot because of
when the gravitational forces acting (c) when he stands with both foot flat (a) capillary action
on it is counter-balanced on the ground (b) interference
(d) Weight and mass of a body are (d) All of the above yield the same (c) viscosity
equal at sea level on the surface pressure (d) surface tension
of the earth
 618 CDS Pathfinder

113. If the temperature of a liquid is 122. The rise of a liquid in a capillary 128. Consider the following
raised, then its surface tension is tube is due to statements.
(a) decreased (b) increased (a) diffusion (b) osmosis 1. The property of the liquid by
(c) irregular (d) equal to viscosity (c) surface tension (d) viscosity virtue of which it opposes the
relative motion between its
114. More liquid rises in a thin tube 123. The action of a nib spilt at the top adjacent layers is known as
because of is explained by viscosity.
(a) larger value of radius (a) gravity flow (b) diffusion of fluid 2. Viscosity of liquid increases
(b) larger value of surface tension (c) capillary action (d) osmosis of liquid with increase in pressure.
(c) small value of surface tension 3. Viscosity of a fluid is
124. Choose the wrong statement
(d) small value of radius measurement by its coefficient
among the followings.
115. Coatings used on raincoat are (a) Surface tension is a molecular of viscosity.
waterproof because phenomenon 4. Viscosity is not property of
(b) Tiny drops of a liquid are spherical
gases.
(a) water is absorbed by the coating
due to spherical tension Which of the following statements
(b) cohesive force becomes greater
(c) Oil rises in the wick due to is/are correct?
(c) water is not scattered away by the
capillarity (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
coating
(d) Cold drink rises in the straw due (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4
(d) angle of contact decrease
to capillarity 129. Hair of a shaving brush cling
116. Small droplets of a liquid are
125. Due to capillary action together when the brush is
spherical in shape because of
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension 1. the oil in the wick of the lamp removed from water due to
(c) density (d) conductivity rises. (a) viscosity (b) surface tension
2. refill pen writes (c) friction (d) elasticity
117. A U shaped wire is dipped in a Which of the following statements
soap solution and removed. The 130. Match the following columns.
is/are correct?
thin soap film formed between the (a) Only 1 Column I Column II
wire and a light slider supports a (b) Only 2 A. Hook’s law 1. Lactometers
weight of 1.5 × 10−2N. The length of (c) 1 and 2
B. Pascal Law 2. Elasticity
the slider is 30 m. What is the (d) None of the above
surface tension of the film? C. Archimedes’ Principle 3. Hydraulic press
126. Machine parts get jammed in
(a) 0.025 N/m (b) 0.052 N/m D. Stokes’ law 4. Terminal velocity
winter, because
(c) 25 N/m (d) None of these
(a) the viscosity of the lubricant used Codes
118. Due to surface tension in machine parts increases with the A B C D A B C D
1. Dancing of camphor on water. decrease in temperature
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
2. Floatation of needle on water. (b) the viscosity of lubricant used in
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
Which of the following statements machine parts decreases with the
is/are correct? decrease in temperature
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) the inertia of machine parts Previous Years’ Questions
(c) Only 2 (d) Both are wrong increases with the decrease in
temperature
131. A liquid is kept in a regular
119. Cohesive force is experienced (d) the inertia of machine parts cylindrical vessel upto a certain
between increases with the decrease in height. If this vessel is replaced
(a) magnetic substance temperature by another cylindrical vessel
(b) molecules of different substances 127. After rising a short distance the having half the area of
(c) molecules of same substances smooth column of smoke from a cross-section of the bottom, the
(d) None of the above pressure on the bottom will
cigarette breaks up into an
120. Which one of the following irregular and random pattern. In e 2012 I
statements is correct? a similar fashion, a stream of fluid (a) remain unaffected
(a) The angle of contact of water with flowing past an obstacle breaks up (b) be reduced to half the earlier
glass is acute while that of mercury into eddies and vortices which pressure
with glass is obtuse give the flow irregular velocity (c) be increased to twice the earlier
(b) The angle of contact of water with components transverse to the flow pressure
glass is obtuse while that of direction. Other examples include (d) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier
mercury with glass is acute the wakes left in water by moving pressure
(c) Both the angle of contact of water
ships the sound produced by 132. It is difficult to cut things with a
with glass and that of mercury with
glass are acute whistling and by wind blunt knife because e 2012 II
(d) None of the above instruments. These examples are
(a) the pressure exerted by knife for a
the results of given force increases with increase
121. In an oil lamp, the oil rises up in (a) laminar flow of air in bluntness
the wick because (b) streamline flow of air
(a) oil is volatile (b) oil is very light (b) a sharp edge decreases the
(c) turbulent flow of air pressure exerted by knife for a
(c) of the capillary action (d) viscous flow at low speed given force
(d) of the surface tension
 GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 619

(c) a blunt knife decreases the 138. Consider the following statements Which of the following statements
pressure for a given force 1. Fahrenheit is the smallest unit is/are correct?
(d) a blunt knife decreases the area of measuring temperature. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
intersection 2. Fahrenheit was the first (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
133. When deep sea fishes are brought temperature scale used for 145. Specific heat of a substance
to the surface of the sea, their measuring temperature. depends upon
bodies burst. This is because the Which of the following statements (a) mass of the substance
blood in their bodies flows at very is/are correct? (b) volume of the substance
e 2012 II (a) Only 1 (c) shape of the body
(b) Only 2 (d) nature of the substance
(a) high speed
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) high pressure 146. Vapour pressure of liquid depends
(d) None of the above
(c) low speed upon the
(d) low pressure 139. The temperature for which the (a) quantity of heat
134. Which type/types of pen uses/use reading on Celsius and (b) temperature of liquid
capillary action in addition to Fahrenheit scales are identical, is (c) specific heat of liquid
gravity for flow of ink? e 2013 I (a) − 40° C (b) 40° C (d) density of liquid
(c) − 30° C (d) 30º C 147. Two bodies A and B are of same
(a) Fountain pen
(b) Ballpoint pen 140. Temperature of the body mass and same amount of heat is
(c) Gel pen measures given to both of them. If the
(d) Both ballpoint and gel pens (a) hotness of the body temperature of A decreases more
(b) amount of heat contained in the body than that of B because of heat
135. After rising a short distance the
(c) degree of hotness of the body addition, then
smooth column of smoke from a (a) the specific heat capacity of A is
(d) the average energy of molecules of
cigarette breaks up into an more than that of B
the object
irregular and random pattern. In (b) the specific heat capacity of A is
a similar fashion, a stream of fluid 141. The instrument used to mark the less than that of B
flowing fast an obstacle breaks up highest fixed point of a (c) both A and B have the same
into eddies and vortices which thermometer is specific heat capacity but A has
(a) pyrometer (b) hydrometer greater thermal conductivity
give the flow irregular velocity
(c) spherometer (d) calorimeter (d) both A and B have the same
components transverse to the flow specific heat capacity but B has
direction. Other examples include 142. P and Q are two objects. The greater thermal conductivity
the wakes left in water by moving temperature of P is greater than
148. Consider the following statements
ships the sound produced by that of Q. This means that
1. Specific heat is amount of heat
whistling and by wind (a) the heat content of P will always
required to raise the
instruments. These examples are be greater than that of Q
temperature of a unit of the
the results of e 2013 II (b) the average potential energy of P
substance by 1°C.
(a) laminar flow of air is greater than the average
potential energy of Q 2. The specific heat of water is
(b) streamline flow of air maximum
(c) the total energy of P is greater
(c) turbulent flow of air 3. Gases have no specific heat.
than the total energy of the
(d) viscous flow at low speed molecules of Q Which of the following statements
136. Dirty cloths containing grease and (d) the molecules of P are moving is/are correct?
oil stains are cleaned by adding faster on the average than the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
detergents to water. Stains are molecules of Q (c) 2 and 1 (d) 1 and 3
removed because detergent 143. Which one of the following 149. Consider the following statements
e 2013 II statements is true? 1. Cooking utensils have low
(a) reduces drastically the surface (a) Temperatures differing 25° on the specific heat and high
tension between water and oil Fahrenheit (F) scale must differ by conductivity.
(b) increases the surface tension 45° on the celsius (C) scale 2. Specific heat is the amount of
between water and oil (b) 0°F corresponds to − 32 ° C heat required to raise the
(c) increases the viscosity of water and temperature of unit mass of
(c) Temperatures which differ by 10°
oil on the celsius scale must differ by
mass of the substance by 1°C
(d) decreases the viscosity of 18° on the Fahrenheit scale Which of the following statements
detergent mixed water (d) Water at 90°C is warmer than water is/are correct?
at 202°F. (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
Heat 144. Consider the following statements
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these
150. Real expansion of a liquid is
137. The value of − 30°C on Fahrenheit 1. Mercury is used in clinical
always
scale is thermometer for measuring
(a) greater than apparent expansion
(a) −54° F (b) 32 ° F body temperature.
(b) less than apparent expansion
(c) 22 ° F (d) −22 ° F 2. Mercury shines and is easily
(c) equal to apparent expansion
observable. (d) None of the above
 620 CDS Pathfinder

151. Match the following columns. 157. Consider the following statements 164. The wet clothes dry more quickly
1. Water kept in an open vessel on a warm day because
Column I Column II
will quickly evaporate on the (a) air carries less moisture
A. Bimetallic strip 1. Radiation from a surface of the moon. (b) air can absorb moisture rather
hot body quickly
2. The temperature at the
B. Steam engine 2. Energy conversion surface of the moon is much (c) high temperature of the air helps
C. Incondescent 3. Melting fast evaporation
higher than the boiling point
lamp (d) All of the above
of the water.
D. Electric fuse 4. Thermal expansion Which of the following statements 165. A glass chimney stops an oil lamp
of solids
is/are correct? from smoking because
Codes (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) it increases the supply of oxygen to
A B C D A B C D (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these the flame by connection
(b) the heat produced ensures complete
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 2 1 4 158. Heat energy of an object is combustion of carbon particles
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4 (a) the average energy of the (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
152. Match the following columns. molecules of the object (d) None of the above
(b) the total energy of the molecules
Column I Column II of the object
166. Consider the following statements
(c) the average velocity of the 1. The water in a vessel placed on
A. Freezing point of 1. 0°C
mercury molecules of the object fire becomes hot by convection.
B. Freezing point of ice 2. − 115°C (d) the average potential energy of the 2. Heat is also transmitted in the
C. Freezing point of alcohol 3. − 39°C molecules of the object form of electromagnetic waves
from a hot body.
Codes 159. A glowing electric bulb becomes Which of the following statements
A B C A B C hot after some time because the is/are correct?
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 heat from filament is transmitted (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 to the glass bulb by (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
(a) conduction (b) convection
153. Latent heat of fusion of any body (c) radiation (d) another process 167. A perfect black body has the
(a) is independent of pressure unique characteristic feature as
(b) is dependent of volume 160. Diesel engine (a) a good absorber only
(c) is always same 1. works with a oil plug. (b) a good radiator only
(d) varies under different conditions 2. is associated with the risk of (c) a good absorber and a good radiator
explosion. (d) Neither a radiator nor an absorber
154. Water is used in hot water bottles
3. has larger efficiency (58%) 168. Nights are cooler in the deserts
in preference to any other liquid
Which of the following statements than in the plains because
because
is/are correct? (a) sand radiates heat more quickly
(a) water has greatest latent heat
(a) Only 1 than the earth
(b) water is good conductor of heat
(b) 2 and 3 (b) the sky remains clear most of the
(c) water has greatest specific heat time
(c) Only 2
(d) water has high boiling point (c) sand absorbs heat more quickly
(d) All of the above
155. Consider the following statements than the earth
161. If there were no atmosphere, the (d) None of the above
1. Steam is more harmful for
average temperature on the
human body than the boiling 169. We are asked to wear white clothes
water in case of burn.
surface of the earth would be
(a) higher (b) lower
in summer because
2. Boiling water contains more (a) they look more graceful
(c) same as today (d) 0° C
heat than steam. (b) it is a convention
Which of the following statements 162. Transfer of heat energy from the (c) they are visible from long distance
is/are correct? sun to the moon takes place by (d) None of the above
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) radiation only
170. Half portion of a rectangular piece
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (b) radiation and conduction
of ice is wrapped with a white
(c) radiation and convection
156. Factors affecting evaporation of a piece of cloth while the other half
(d) radiation, conduction and convection
liquid are with a black one. In this context,
1. the nature of the liquid 163. Material used for making cooking which one among the following
2. temperature of surrounding utensils should have statements is correct?
3. humidity of surrounding air (a) low specific heat and high thermal (a) Ice melts more easily under black
4. temperature of liquid conductivity wrap
Which of the following statements (b) high specific heat and high (b) Ice melts more easily under white
is/are correct? thermal conductivity wrap
(a) Only 2 (c) low specific heat and low thermal (c) No ice melts at all under the black
conductivity wrap
(b) Only 3
(d) high specific heat and low thermal (d) No ice melts at all under the white
(c) 1, 2 and 3
conductivity wrap
(d) All of the above
 GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 621

171. Mr. X was advised by an architect 177. If the door of a running

to make outer walls of his house refrigerator in a closed room is
Oscillations and Waves
with bricks. The correct reason is kept open, what will be the net 185. The force acting on a particle
that such walls effect on the room? executing simple harmonic motion
(a) make the building stronger (a) It will cool the room
is
(b) help keeping inside cooler in (b) It will heat the room
(c) It will make no difference on the (a) directly proportional to the
summer and warmer in winter displacement and is directed away
average
(c) prevent seepage of mositure from from the mean position
(d) It will make thte temperature go up
outside (b) inversely proportional to the
and down
(d) protect the building from lightning displacement and is directed
178. The gas used in a refrigerator is towards the mean position
172. The blackboard seems black (a) cooled down on flowing
because it (c) directly proportional to the
(b) heated up on flowing displacement and is directed
(a) reflects every colour (c) cooled down, when compressed towards the mean position
(b) does not reflect any colour (d) cooled down, when expanded (d) inversely proportional to the
(c) absorbs black colour
displacement and is directed away
(d) reflects black colour Previous Years’ Questions from the mean position
173. Consider the following statements 179. The celsius temperature is a/an 186. Three pendulum clocks A , B and C
1. Rough surface is a better (a) relative temperature e 2013 I
radiator than smooth surface. are synchronised on the surface of
(b) absolute temperature
2. Highly polished surface is a the earth at the sea-level. The
(c) specific temperature
very good radiator. (d) approximate temperature clock A is taken to the top of a
3. Black surface is a better mountain and the clock B is taken
180. The gas used in a refrigerator is under a deep mine. The
absorber of radiation than a (a) cooled down on flowing e 2013 II
white one. temperature at the three locations
(b) heated up on flowing
4. Black surface is a better are assumed to be the same. On
(c) cooled down when compressed the basis of the above, which one
radiator than white one.
(d) cooled down when expanded of the following is correct?
Which of the following statements
is/are correct? 181. A ray of white light strikes the (a) Both A and B run faster than C
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 surface of an object. If all the (b) Both A and B run slower than C
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 colours are reflected the surface (c) A runs slower than B but runs
would appear e 2013 II faster than C
174. A polished plate with a rough
(a) black (b) white (c) grey (d) opaque (d) B runs slower than C but A runs
black spot is heated to a high
182. Two layers of a cloth of equal faster than C
temperature and taken in a dark
room, then, thickness provide warmer 187. The length of a simple pendulum
(a) spot will appear brighter than the covering than a single layer of becomes four times the original
plate cloth with double the thickness. length. If the initial time period of
(b) spot will appear darker than the Why? e 2014 I pendulum is T, then the new time
plate (a) Because of the air encapsulated period is
(c) both will appear equally bright between two layers (a) T (b) 2 T (c) 3T (d) 4T
(d) Neither the spot, nor the plate will (b) Since effective thickness of two
be visible layers is more 188. If the amplitude of a simple
(c) Fabric of the cloth plays the role pendulum is made one-fourth, its
175. The temperature of the stars can (d) Weaving of the cloth plays the role time period will become
be estimated by (a) twice (b) half
183. Which one of the following
(a) Wien’s displacement law (c) one-fourth (d) will not change
physical quantities is the same for
(b) Rayleigh-Jeans law
(c) Faraday’s law
molecules of all gases at a given 189. Water waves are
(d) Maxwell-Boltzmann law
temperature? e 2015 II (a) transverse (b) longitudinal
(a) Speed (b) Mass (c) partly transverse, partly longitudinal
176. A solid copper sphere of radius R (c) Kinetic energy (d) Momentum (d) sometimes longitudinal, sometimes
and hollow sphere of the same transverse
material and outer radius R are 184. Two systems are said to be in
heated to the same temperature
thermal equilibrium, if and only if 190. Energy is not transferred by
e 2016 I (a) transverse progressive waves
and allowed to cool in the same
(a) there can be a heat flow between (b) longitudinal progressive waves
environment, the (c) stationary waves
them even if they are at different
(a) hollow sphere cools faster temperatures (d) electromagnetic waves
(b) solid sphere cools faster (b) there cannot be a heat flow
(c) both spheres cool at the same rate between them even if they are at
191. Waves inside a gas are
(d) in the beginning solid sphere cools different temperatures (a) longitudinal (b) transverse
faster, at the end hollow sphere (c) there is no heat flow between them (c) partly longitudinal and party
cools faster (d) their temperatures are slightly transverse
different (d) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
 622 CDS Pathfinder

192. What type of vibrations are (c) Both sound and light waves in air 205. Sound travels in rocks in the form
produced in a sitar wire? are transverse of
(a) Longitudinal vibration (d) Both sound and light waves in air (a) longitudinal elastic waves only
(b) Transverse vibration are longitudinal (b) transverse elastic waves only
(c) Both (a) and (b) 199. Microphone is a device in which (c) both longitudinal and transverse
(d) None of the above (a) amplification is not required at all elastic waves
193. Consider the following statements (b) sound waves are directly transmitted (d) non-elastic waves
1. Waves on springs or sound (c) sound waves are converted into 206. Ultrasonic waves are those waves
waves in air are longitudinal electrical energy and then (a) to which man can hear
waves. reconverted into sound after (b) man cannot hear
2. Waves on surface of water is transmission (c) are of high velocity
mechanical waves. (d) electrical energy is converted into (d) of high amplitude
3. Mechanical waves are used in sound waves
communication, telephony 207. Consider the following statements
4. Mechanical waves can propagate 200. Sound travels faster when the 1. The frequency of sound waves
in solid, liquid and gas. medium is of is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
Which of the following statements (a) low density (b) medium density 2. Sound waves are transverse
is/are correct. (c) high density (d) vacuum mechanical waves.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 201. A source of sound has a noise level 3. Sound waves travel in vacuum.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3 of 20 dB. If the intensity of sound 4. Sound waves have low frequency
194. The most familiar form of radiant produced by the source increases and high wavelength.
energy in sunlight that causes by 100 times, the noise level Which of the following statements
tanning and sunburning of human becomes is/are correct?
(a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
skin, is called
(c) 400 dB (d) 20000 dB (c) 1 and 4 (d) Only 4
(a) ultraviolet radiation
(b) visible radiation 202. Which among the following 208. Ultrasonic waves are used
(c) infrared radiation statement is correct regarding the 1. to investigate the action of
(d) microwaves radiation
audible sound waves? heart.
2. for sending signals.
195. Microwaves are 1. Its frequency is greater than
1. used in photography. 3. measuring the depth of sea
20000 Hz.
2. absorbed by water molecules Which of the following statements
2. It is used in measuring the
and living tissue internal depth of sea. is/are correct?
heating will damage or kill cells. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
3. The liquid from which the
Which of the following statements (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
audible sound waves pass gets
is/are correct? hot. 209. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 The correct statement(s) is/are 1. Speed of sound basically
(c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 depends upon elasticity and
196. Match the following columns. (c) Only 1 density of medium .
(d) None of the above 2. Speed of sound is changed by
Column I Column II the increase or decrease of
203. Match the following columns.
A. Infrared rays 1. Medical tracers pressure
B. γ-rays 2. TV control Column I Column II 3. The speed of sound is more in
C. Radio waves 3. Making ions
(Waves) (Sources) humid air than in dry air.
D. Ultraviolet rays 4. Communication A. Ultrasonic waves 1. Ocean waves Which of the following statements
B. Sound waves 2. Energetic is/are correct?
Codes disturbance (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
A B C D A B C D C. Infrasonic waves 3. Generated by (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 vibrating bodies
210. A woman’s voice is shriller than a
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 D. Shock waves 4. Wave produce by
bat man’s due to
197. Sound waves travel with a speed Codes
(a) higher frequency
of about 330 m/s. The wavelength (b) higher amplitude
A B C D A B C D
of sound whose frequency is 550 (c) lower frequency
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 1 4 (d) weak vocal chords
Hz is
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
(a) 0.8 m (b) 8.4 m (c) 0.6 m (d) 0.2 m 211. The phenomenon of beats can
204. Which of the following statement take place
198. Which one of the following
is incorrect? (a) for longitudinal waves only
statements is correct?
(a) Sound travels in straight line (b) for transverse waves only
(a) Sound waves in air are longitudinal
(b) Sound is a form of energy (c) for both longitudinal and transverse
while light waves are transverse
(c) Sound travels in the form of waves waves
(b) Sound waves in air are transverse
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum (d) for sound waves only
while light waves are longitudinal
than in air
 GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 623

212. Doppler’s effect is used 219. Which one of the following 226. The phenomenon of mirage is
1. to determine the velocities of statements is not correct? e 2016 I due to
which stars and galaxies are (a) Sound waves in gases are (a) change in refractive index of air
moving toward or away from longitudinal in nature with change in temperature
the earth (b) Sound waves having frequency (b) total internal reflection
2. to increase the pressure. below 20 Hz are known as (c) absorption of light by air at high
Which of the following statements ultrasonic waves temperature
is/are correct? (c) Sound waves having higher (d) polarisation of light on reflection
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 amplitudes are louder
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these (d) Sound waves with high audible 227. Which one of the following
frequencies are sharp phenomenon cannot be
Previous Years’ Questions 220. A person rings a metallic bell near attributed to the refraction of
a strong concrete wall. He hears light?
213. The time period of a simple the echo after 0.3 s. If the sound (a) Twinkling of stars
pendulum having a spherical moves with a speed of 240 m/s, how (b) Mirage
wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is far is the wall from him? (c) Rainbow
replaced by a metallic one twice e 2016 I (d) Red shift
as heavy, the time period will be (a) 102 m (b) 11 m (c) 51 m (d) 30 m 228. Match the following columns.
e 2012 I
(a) more than 2s (b) 2s Optics Column I Column II
(c) 1s (d) less than 1s A. Intensity of light 1. Properties of the
221. The mirror used in vehicles as rear medium
214. Two identical piano wires have
view mirror is B. Colour of light 2. Refractive index
same fundamental frequency when (a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror of medium
kept under the same tension. What (c) plane mirror C. Velocity of light 3. Amplitude of light
will happen if tension of one of the (d) plano-concave mirror D. Propagation of light 4. Frequency of light
wire is slightly increased and both
222. Viewfinders, used in automobiles to Codes
the wires are made to vibrate
locate the position of the vehicles A B C D A B C D
simultaneously? e 2012 I
(a) Noise (b) Beats
behind, are made of (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
(c) Resonance (d) Non-linear effects
(c) convex mirror (d) parabolic mirror
215. In SONAR, we use e 2012 II
229. Which of the following
223. Concave mirrors are used illustrations is of refraction?
(a) ultrasonic waves 1. as reflectors in automobiles and
(b) infrasonic waves 1. Twinkling of stars
hand torches.
(c) radio waves 2. in the field of solar energy to 2. Oval shape of sun in the
(d) audible sound waves focus sun’s ray for heating solar morning and evening
furnaces. 3. Sparking of diamond
216. Motion of an oscillating liquid
3. as rear-view mirror in automobiles. 4. Mirage and looming
column in a U-tube is e 2013 II
Which of the following statements Which of the following
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic
is/are correct? statements is/are correct?
(b) non-periodic
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) simple harmonic and time period is
(c) 3 and 1 (d) Only 1 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
independent of the density of the
liquid 224. A coin immersed in water pond 230. Efficient working of optical fibre
(d) simple harmonic and time period appears to be raised, when viewed is dependent on which one of the
depends on the density of the from the top. What is this due to? following?
liquid (a) Total internal reflection of light (a) Reflection
217. An oscilloscope is an instrument (b) Scattering of light (b) Interference
which allows us to see waves (c) Reflection of light (c) Diffraction
produced by e 2014 II (d) Refraction of light (d) Total internal reflection
(a) visible light (b) X-rays 225. Sun appears reddish during the 231. Condition of total internal
(c) sound (d) γ-rays rising and setting time, because reflection
218. Which one of the following (a) the atmosphere absorbs short 1. Light must be propagating
wavelengths more than long from denser to rarer medium.
statements is correct?
wavelengths 2. The critical angle must
The velocity of sound e 2016 I (b) red light is emitted in huge amount exceeds the angle of incidence.
(a) does not depend upon the nature by it
of media (c) the atmosphere absorbs long Which of the following
(b) is maximum in gases and minimum wavelength more than short statements is/are correct?
in liquids wavelengths (a) Only 1
(c) is maximum in solids and minimum (d) light of shorter wavelengths are (b) Only 2
in liquids scattered to a greater extent than (c) 1 and 2
(d) is maximum in solids and minimum the longer wavelengths by the (d) None of the above
in gases atmosphere
 624 CDS Pathfinder

232. Where should an object be placed, 241. Two beams of light, one red and 247. If the light moving in a straight
so that a real and inverted image the other green, fall on the same line bends by a small but fixed
of the same size is obtained using spot on a white screen. The colour angle, it may be a case of
a convex lens? on the screen will appear to be (a) diffraction
(a) Between the lens and its axis (a) magenta (b) blue (b) dispersion
(b) At the focus (c) yellow (d) cyan (c) reflection
(c) At twice the focal length (d) refraction and dispersion
242. Consider the following statements
(d) At infinity
1. The colour of the green flower 248. If a glass rod is immersed in a
233. A thin lens has a focal length of seen through red glass appears liquid of the same refractive
−25 cm. Then, the nature of lens is to be dark. index, then it will
(a) concave lens of power 4 D 2. Red glass transmits only red (a) look longer (b) disappear
(b) convex lens of power 4 D light. (c) look bent (d) None of these
(c) convex lens of power 25 D Which of the following statements
1 249. Why is it difficult to see through
(d) convex lens of power D is/are correct? fog?
4 (a) Only 1 (a) Rays of light suffer total internal
234. Parallel light rays entering a (b) Only 2 reflection from the fog droplets
convex lens always converge at (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Rays of light are scattered by the
(a) centre of curvature (d) None of the above fog droplets
(b) the focal plane 243. The focal length of convex lens is (c) Fog droplets absorb light
(c) the principal focus (d) The refractive index of fog is
(a) the same for all colours
(d) a point on the principal axis extremely high
(b) shorter for blue light than for red
235. We always get real image in a (c) shorter for red light than for blue 250. The colour of the sky is blue
convex lens, if object is situated (d) maximum for yellow light because of
beyond (a) combination of various lights
(a) optical centre 244. Consider the following statements
1. The colour of an object is producing blue colour
(b) focus (b) scattering of light by dust particles
(c) centre of curvature determined by the colour of
the light reflected by it. (c) diffraction of light
(d) None of the above
2. If all the colours of white light (d) reflection of light by water droplets
236. The power of a lens of focal length are absorbed by the object 251. Rainbow is formed due to a
80 cm is then it appears white. combination of
(a) 80 D (b) 40 D (c) 12.5 D (d) 1.25 D
3. Dangers signals are of red (a) refraction and scattering
237. A diffraction pattern is obtained colour because red colour of (b) refraction and absorption
using a beam of red light. Which light scatter least and (c) dispersion and focusing
one among the following will be therefore signals can be seen (d) total internal reflection and
the outcome, if the red light is from far. dispersion
replaced by blue light? Which of the following statements
(a) Bands disappear is/are correct? 252. As the sunlight passes through
(b) Diffraction pattern becomes broader (a) 1 and 3 the atmosphere, the rays are
and further apart (b) Only 3 scattered by tiny particles of dust,
(c) Diffraction pattern becomes (c) Only 1 pollen, soot and other minute
narrower and crowded together (d) 2 and 3 particulate matters present there.
(d) No change However, when we look up, the
245. Rainbow is formed due to
sky appears blue during mid-day
238. Dispersion produced by a prism 1. dispersion of light
because
depends on 2. suffering refraction (a) blue light is scattered most
(a) its refracting angle 3. total internal reflection (b) blue light is absorbed most
(b) size of the prism 4. All of the above
(c) height of the prism (c) blue light is reflected most
Which of the following statements (d) ultraviolet and yellow component of
(d) one of the angle at the base of is/are correct?
the prism sunlight combine
(a) 1 and 2
239. When dispersion of white light (b) 3 and 1 253. Consider the following statements
takes place through a prism, the (c) Only 4 1. Clear sky appears blue due to
maximum deviation is suffered by (d) Only 1 poor scattering of blue
which one of the following colour? wavelength of visible light.
246. Which one of the following sets of 2. Red part of light shows more
(a) Red (b) Yellow
colour combinations is added in scattering than blue light in
(c) Green (d) Violet
colour vision in TV? the atmosphere.
240. In the visible spectrum, the colour (a) Yellow, green and blue
3. In the absence of atmosphere,
having the shortest wavelength is (b) White, black, red and green
there would be no scattering of
(a) blue (b) yellow (c) Red, green and blue
light and sky will look black.
(c) red (d) violet (d) Orange, pink and blue
 GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 625

Which of the statements given 260. A ray of white light strikes the 268. The focal length of the lens of a
above is/are correct? surface of an object. If all the normal human eye is about
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 colours are reflected the surface e 2015 II
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these would appear e 2013 II (a) 25 cm (b) 1 m
254. We cannot see the details of a (a) black (b) white (c) grey (d) opaque (c) 2.5 mm (d) 2.5 cm
distant object because 261. Which one among the following 269. A myopic person has a power of
(a) there is a defect in our eyes colours has the highest − 1.25 D. What is the focal length
(b) the light rays are absorbed and wavelength? e 2013 II and nature of his lens? e 2016 I
scattered in this way (a) 50 cm and convex lens
(a) Violet (b) Green(c) Yellow (d) Red
(c) there is a limit of resolution for our (b) 80 cm and convex lens
eyes 262. No matter how far you stand from (c) 50 cm and concave lens
(d) the objects are too far away a mirror, your image appears (d) −80 cm and concave lens
255. Match the following columns. erect. The mirror is likely to be
e 2014 I
Column I Column II (a) either plane or convex
Electric Current
A. Myopia 1. Cylindrical (b) plane only 270. Which of the following is a good
B. Hypermetropia 2. Bifocal
(c) concave (d) convex only conductor of heat but a bad
C. Presbyopia 3. Convex 263. The position, relative size and conductor of electricity?
D. Astigmatism 4. Concave nature of the image formed by a (a) Mica (b) Aluminium
concave lens for an object placed at (c) Mercury (d) Platinum
Codes
infinity are respectively e 2014 I 271. Consider the following statements
A B C D A B C D
(a) at focus, diminished and virtual 1. The direction of positive
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(b) at focus, diminished and real charges is same as direction of
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 (c) between focus and optical centre,
conventional current.
256. The principle of working of diminished and virtual
(d) between focus and optical centre,
2. The rate of flow of electric
periscope is based on current charges through any
magnified and real
(a) reflection only cross-section of conductor is
(b) refraction only 264. In the phenomenon of dispersion called as electric current.
(c) reflection and interference of light, the light wave of shortest Which of the following statements
(d) reflection and refraction wavelength is e 2014 II is/are correct?
257. For a telescope, the focal lengths (a) accelerated and refracted the most (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
of two lenses are 30 cm and 10 cm. (b) slowed down and refracted the most (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
One acts as objective and other as (c) accelerated and refracted the least 272. The work done in moving a unit
eyepiece. The length of the (d) slowed down and refracted the least positive charge across two points
telescope is 265. The upper and lower portions in in an electric circuit is a measure
(a) 40 cm (b) 3 cm common type of bi-focal lenses are of
(c) 200 cm (d) 30 cm respectively e 2014 II (a) potential difference
(a) concave and convex (b) electrostatic force
258. Consider the following statements (c) current (d) power
1. Periscope consists of two plane (b) convex and concave
(c) both concave of different focal 273. Potential difference between two
mirror inclined at an angle of
lengths points of a wire carrying 2A
45°.
(d) both convex of different focal lengths
2. The principle of working of current is 0.1 V. The resistance of
periscope is based upon 266. A person standing 1m in front of a the wire is
reflection and refraction. plane mirror approaches the (a) 0.05 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω
Which of the following statements mirror by 40 cm. The new distance (c) 5 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω
is/are correct? between the person and his image 274. Match the following columns.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 in the plane mirror is e 2015 I
(c) Only 3 (d) None of these Column I Column II
(a) 60 cm (b) 1.2 m (c) 1.4 m (d) 2.0 m
A. Electrical force between 1. Volt
267. The outside rear view mirror of two charged particles
Previous Years’ Questions modern automobiles is marked B. Electric charge 2. Newton
259. Dispersion process forms spectrum with warning ‘objects in mirror C. Electric potential 3. Farad
due to white light falling on a are closer than they appear’. D. Electrical capacity 4. Coulomb
prism. The light wave with Such mirrors are e 2015 II
shortest wavelength e 2013 II (a) plane mirrors Codes
(b) concave mirrors with very large A B C D
(a) refracts the most
(b) does not change the path focal lengths (a) 2 4 1 3
(c) concave mirrors with very small (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) refracts the least
focal lengths (c) 1 2 3 4
(d) is reflected by the side of the (d) convex mirrors
prism (d) 2 1 3 4
 626 CDS Pathfinder

275. In electric supply lines in India, 282. Consider the following statements 288. In a filament type high bulb, most
which parameter is kept constant? 1. The property of a substance by of the electric power consumed
(a) Voltage (b) Current virtue of which it opposes the appear as
(c) Frequency (d) Power flow of current through it, is (a) visible light
known as the resistance. (b) infrared rays
276. Which one of the following is not
2. Resistance of a conductor is (c) ultraviolet rays
correctly matched? directly proportional to it’s (d) fluorescent light
(a) Voltmeter — Potential
length.
difference
3. Resistance of a conductor is
289. Why are inner lining of hot water
(b) Potentiometer — EMF
directly proportional to area of geysers made up of copper?
(c) Ammeter — Electric current (a) Copper has low heat capacity
cross-section.
(d) Meter bridge — Electrical (b) Copper has high electrical
4. Resistance of a substance is
resistance conductivity
always equal to resistivity.
277. A DC voltmeter is capable of Which of the following statements (c) Copper does not react with steam
measuring a maximum of 300 V. is/are correct? (d) Copper is good conductor of both
heat and electricity
If it is used to measure the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
voltage across a device operating (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 290. Consider the following statements
at 220 V AC supply, the reading of 283. Consider the following statements 1. Fuse wire is made up of tin
the voltmeter will be 1. Electric appliances with lead alloy.
(a) 0 V (b) 110 V (c) 220 V (d) 300 V metallic body e.g. heater, 2. Fuse wire have low resistivity.
presses, etc., have three pin 3. Fuse wire have low melting
278. Galvanometer point.
1. is a device used to detect and connections whereas, an
electric bulb has a two pin 4. Fuse wire is used in parallel
measure electric current in a as a safety device in an
circuit. connection.
2. Three pin connections reduce electric circuit.
2. can be converted into a
heating of connecting cables. Which of the following statements
voltmeter by connecting a very
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
high resistance in its parallel.
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
Which of the following statements
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 4 (d) 1 and 2
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these 291. A bird sitting on a high power line
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these 284. An electric bulb is marked as (a) gets a fatal shock
(b) gets a mild shock
279. When you pull out the plug 240 V, 60 W. The resistance of its
(c) gets killed instantly
connected to an electrical filament is
(d) is not affected practically
appliance, you often observe a (a) 940 Ω (b) 245 Ω
spark. To which property of the (c) 950 Ω (d) 960 Ω 292. The total resistance of 3 resistors,
appliance is this related? 285. A tube light works on the each of 3 Ω, connected in parallel,
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance principle of is
(c) Capacitance (d) Wattage (a) 3 Ω (b) 2 Ω
(a) chemical effect of current
(c) 1 Ω (d) 9 Ω
280. Match the columns. (b) magnetic effect of current
(c) heating effect of current 293. The circuit element where the
Column I Column II (d) discharge of electrons through gases impressed voltage is always in
A. Voltage 1. q phase with the resulting current,
286. The wire used in the filaments of
t is
household bulbs has
l (a) an ideal resistor
B. Current 2. ρ (a) high resistance, high melting point
(b) an ideal coil
A (b) high resistance, low melting point (c) an ideal capacitor
C. Capacity 3. c (c) low resistance, high melting point (d) an ideal transformer
v (d) low resistance, low melting point
D. Resistance 4. IR
294. The tape of a tape recorder is
287. Safety fuses are integral part of coated with
Codes electric installations and (a) zinc oxide
A B C D A B C D instruments. This is so because (b) mica
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 safety fuses (c) copper sulphate
(a) block the passage of current due (d) ferromagnetic powder
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
to increase in their resistance and
281. Two resistances when connected saves it 295. Consider the following statements
in parallel give the resultant (b) switch off the service of electric 1. Permanent magnets are
value of 2 Ω, when connected in supply through relay action usually made of alloys such as
series the value becomes 9 ohm. (c) provide alternative path to excess carbon steel, chromium steel,
current as does a shunt tungsten steel and alnico.
The value of each resistance is
(d) switch off the supply, if current 2. Alnico is alloy of gold, silver
(a) 1 Ω and 8 Ω (b) 2 Ω and 7 Ω
beyond a certain limit flows through and zinc.
(c) 3 Ω and 3 Ω (d) 3 Ω and 6 Ω the circuit
 GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 627

3. Permanent magnets are used Select the correct answer using the 309. Tungsten is used for the
in microphone etc. codes given below. construction of filament in
Which of the following statements (a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 4 electric bulb because of its
is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 e 2014 II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) high specific resistance
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Previous Years’ Questions (b) low specific resistance
296. An electric generator converts (c) high light emitting power
302. In step-down transformer, the AC
(a) electric energy into sound energy (d) high melting point
output gives the e 2012 II
(b) electric energy into light energy 310. Electricity is produced through
(a) current more than the input current
(c) electric energy into mechanical dry cell from e 2015 I
(b) current less than the input current
energy
(c) current equal to the input current (a) chemical energy
(d) mechanical energy into electric
(d) voltage more than the input voltage (b) thermal energy
energy
(c) mechanical energy
297. The essential difference between 303. A rectifier is an electronic device
(d) nuclear energy
an AC generator and a DC used to convert e 2012 II
(a) AC voltage into DC voltage 311. A wire-bound standard resistor
generator has permanent magnet.
(b) DC voltage into AC voltage uses manganin or constantan. It
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet
(c) sinusoidal pulse into square pulse is because e 2015 I
while a DC generator has
permanent magnet (d) None of the above (a) these alloys are cheap and easily
(b) DC generator will generate a higher available
304. A device which is used in our TV (b) they have high resistivity
voltage set, computer, radio set for storing (c) they have low resistivity
(c) AC generator will generate a higher the electric charge, is e 2012 II (d) they have resistivity which almost
voltage
(a) resistor (b) inductor remains unchanged with
(d) AC generator has slip rings while temperature
DC generator has a commutator (c) capacitor (d) conductor
305. If two conducting spheres are 312. Two pieces of conductor of same
298. The core of a transformer is material and of equal length are
laminated so that separately charged and then
brought in contact e 2013 I connected in series with a cell.
(a) ratio of the voltages across the
(a) the total energy of the two spheres One of the two pieces has
secondary and primary is doubled
is conserved cross-sectional area double that of
(b) the weight of the transformer can
(b) the total charge on the two spheres the other. Which one of the
be kept low
is conserved following statements is correct in
(c) the rusting of the core is prevented this regard? e 2015 I
(c) both the total energy and the total
(d) energy loss due to eddy currents charge are conserved (a) The thicker one will allow stronger
is minimised (d) the final potential is always the current to pass through it
mean of the original potential of the (b) The thinner one would allow
299. Which one of the following two spheres stronger current to pass through it
common devices works on the (c) Same amount of electric current
basis of the principle of mutual 306. When an incandescent electric would pass through both the
induction? bulb glows e 2014 I pieces producing more heat in the
(a) Tubelight (b) Transformer (a) the electric energy is completely thicker one
(c) Photodiode (d) LED converted into light (d) Same amount of electric current
(b) the electric energy is partly would pass through both the pieces
300. Consider the following statements converted into light energy and producing more heat in the thinner
1. Core of a transformer is made partly into heat energy one
up of soft iron. (c) the light energy is converted into
2. Step-up transformer converts a 313. Which one of the following
electric energy
low voltage of high current statements about bar magnet is
(d) The electric energy is converted
into a high voltage of low correct? e 2016 I
into magnetic energy
current. (a) The pole strength of the North
3. Transformer is used for
307. A mobile phone charger is e 2014 I pole of a bar magnet is larger
(a) an inverter (b) an UPS than that of the South pole.
charging voltage only.
(c) a step-down transformer (b) When a piece of bar magnet is
Which of the following statements bisected perpendicular to its axis,
(d) a step-up transformer
is/are correct? the North and South poles get
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 308. Inactive nitrogen and argon gases separated.
(c) Only 3 (d) None of these are usually used in electric bulbs (c) When a piece of bar magnet is
301. Transformer is a kind of appliance in order to e 2014 II bisected perpendicular to its axis,
that can (a) increase the intensity of light emitted two new bar magnets are formed.
(b) increase the life of the filament (d) The poles of a bar magnet are
1. increase power
(c) make the emitted light coloured unequal in magnitude and opposite
2. increase voltage
(d) make the production of bulb in nature.
3. decrease voltage economical
4. measure current and voltage
 628 CDS Pathfinder

Modern Physics 322. Match the following columns. 328. Photoelectric cells are used
1. to control the temperature in
Column I Column II
314. Which is not true with respect to furnace and in chemical
the cathode rays? A. Cathode rays 1. Electromagnetic waves process
(a) A stream of electrons B. X-rays 2. Beam of electron 2. in automatic switches for
(b) Charged particles C. Positive-rays 3. Positively charged street light
(c) Move with speed same as that of particles 3. in transformer
light Codes 4. in photoelectron sorters
(d) Can be deflected by magnetic fields A B C A B C Which of the following statements
315. Consider the following statements (a) 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 is/are correct?
X-rays (c) 1 2 3 (d) 1 3 2 (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
1. can pass through aluminium. 323. Consider the following statements
2. can be deflected by magnetic 1. Diode laser are used as 329. The majority charge carriers in
field. optical sources in optical p-type semiconductors are
3. move with a velocity less than communication. (a) electrons (b) protons
the velocity of ultraviolet ray (c) holes (d) neutrons
2. Diode laser consume less
in vacuum. energy. 330. If the temperature of a
Which of the statements given Which of the following statements semiconductor is raised, its
above is/are correct? is/are correct? resistivity will
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) increase (b) decrease
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these (c) remains same (d) reduce to zero
316. Consider the following statements 324. An ordinary tubelight used for 331. Consider the following statements
1. Soft and hard X-rays differ in lighting purpose contains 1. Solar cells are used as solar
frequency as well as velocity.
(a) fluorescent material and an inert cooker.
2. The penetrating power of hard gas
X-rays is more than the 2. Solar cells are used in wrist
(b) one filament, reflective material and watches, calculators and light
penetrating power of soft mercury vapour
X-rays. meters.
(c) fluorescent material and mercury 3. Solar cells are used for
Which of the following statements vapour
is/are correct? charging storage batteries.
(d) two filaments, fluorescent material 4. Solar cells are used in
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and mercury vapour
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these artificial satellite
325. Fire fly gives us cold light by Which of the following statements
317. X-ray will travel minimum virtue of the phenomenon of is/are correct?
distance in (a) fluorescence (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) air (b) iron (c) wood (d) water (b) phosphorescence (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
318. X-ray beam can be deflected by (c) chemiluminescence
332. Laser is a device to produce
(a) magnetic field (d) effervescence
(a) a beam of white light
(b) electric field 326. Photoelectric cell is a device of (b) coherent light
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (a) collecting the photons (c) microwaves (d) X-rays
(d) None of the above
(b) measuring the intensity of light 333. Which of the following is the
319. X-rays were discovered by (c) changing the photon energy to correct combination of the
(a) Johnson (b) Milikan mechanical energy
inventors and the inventions?
(c) Roentgen (d) Thomson (d) substituting the accumulators by
(a) Elisha G Otis — Windmill
storing the electrical energy
320. Positive rays were discovered by (b) Galileo Galilei — Transistor
(a) Thomson (b) Goldstein 327. What is the difference between a (c) Sir Frank Whittle — Laser
(c) W Crookes (d) Rutherford CFL and an LED lamp (d) J L Baird — Television
321. Consider the following statements 1. To produced light, a CFL uses 334. Match the following Columns.
mercury vapour and phosphor
1. Positive rays are capable of Column I Column II
while an LED lamp uses
producing physical and
semiconductor materials. A. Ground wave 1. Radio waves
chemical changes.
2. The average life span of a propagation received from
2. Positive rays can produce troposphere
CFL is much longer than that
fluorescence and phosphorescence.
of an LED lamp. B. Space wave 2. Radio waves
3. Positive rays are not deflected propagation travel through
3. A CFL is less energy efficient
by electric field and magnetic atmosphere
as compared to an LED lamp.
field. C. Sky wave 3. Microwaves cross
Which of the following statements propagation the ionosphere
Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
is/are correct? D. Satellite 4. Radio waves
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 communication received from
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these ionosphere
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2
 GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 629

Codes Previous Years’ Questions 339. Dual energy X-ray

A B C D Absorptiometry (DEXA) is
(a) 2 1 4 3 337. Before X-ray examination (coloured used to measure e 2013 II
(b) 1 3 4 2 X-ray) of the stomach, patients are given (a) Spread of solid tumour
(c) 3 2 1 4 suitable salt of barium because e 2012 I (b) bone density
(d) 2 1 3 4 (a) barium salts are white in colour and this (c) ulcerous growth in stomach
helps stomach to appear clearly
335. The television set receives (d) extent of brain haemorrhage
(b) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and
(a) magnetic waves helps stomach to appear clearly 340. X-rays are e 2015 II
(b) radio waves (c) barium salts are easily available (a) deflected by an electric field,
(c) microwaves but not by a magnetic field
(d) barium allows X-rays to pass through the
(d) None of the above stomach (b) deflected by a magnetic field,
336. Optical fibres are mainly used but not by an electric field
338. Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts
for which of the following? (c) deflected by both a magnetic
e 2013 I
(a) Communication field and an electric field
(a) light energy into electrical energy (d) not deflected by an electric
(b) Eye surgery
(b) electrical energy into light energy field and a magnetic field
(c) Weaving
(d) Food industry (c) thermal energy into light energy
(d) mechanical energy into electrical energy

ANSWERS
1 b 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 b 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 a
11 c 12 a 13 c 14 d 15 d 16 c 17 a 18 d 19 c 20 c
21 b 22 d 23 d 24 a 25 b 26 d 27 d 28 d 29 c 30 c
31 c 32 b 33 c 34 a 35 b 36 a 37 d 38 d 39 d 40 a
41 a 42 a 43 a 44 a 45 a 46 c 47 a 48 a 49 a 50 a
51 b 52 b 53 b 54 a 55 a 56 d 57 d 58 c 59 c 60 a
61 d 62 c 63 d 64 a 65 a 66 b 67 a 68 b 69 b 70 b
71 c 72 a 73 d 74 c 75 a 76 d 77 a 78 d 79 d 80 b
81 b 82 a 83 c 84 c 85 a 86 b 87 b 88 a 89 b 90 b
91 b 92 a 93 b 94 c 95 b 96 b 97 b 98 c 99 d 100 a
101 c 102 a 103 c 104 a 105 b 106 c 107 a 108 c 109 c 110 c
111 c 112 d 113 a 114 d 115 b 116 b 117 a 118 a 119 c 120 a
121 c 122 c 123 c 124 d 125 a 126 a 127 c 128 a 129 b 130 a
131 c 132 c 133 a 134 a 135 c 136 a 137 d 138 a 139 a 140 c
141 a 142 d 143 c 144 a 145 d 146 b 147 b 148 a 149 a 150 a
151 a 152 c 153 c 154 c 155 a 156 d 157 a 158 b 159 c 160 a
161 b 162 a 163 a 164 d 165 b 166 c 167 c 168 a 169 d 170 a
171 b 172 b 173 d 174 a 175 a 176 a 177 b 178 d 179 c 180 d
181 b 182 a 183 c 184 c 185 c 186 b 187 b 188 d 189 a 190 c
191 a 192 b 193 a 194 a 195 c 196 b 197 c 198 a 199 c 200 c
201 b 202 d 203 a 204 d 205 c 206 b 207 c 208 d 209 a 210 a
211 c 212 a 213 b 214 a 215 a 216 c 217 a 218 d 219 b 220 c
221 a 222 c 223 a 224 d 225 d 226 b 227 c 228 c 229 b 230 b
231 a 232 b 233 a 234 c 235 b 236 d 237 a 238 a 239 d 240 d
241 c 242 c 243 b 244 a 245 c 246 c 247 d 248 d 249 b 250 b
251 d 252 a 253 c 254 b 255 a 256 d 257 a 258 b 259 c 260 b
261 d 262 a 263 a 264 c 265 a 266 b 267 d 268 c 269 d 270 c
271 c 272 a 273 a 274 a 275 c 276 a 277 a 278 a 279 c 280 b
281 d 282 a 283 a 284 d 285 d 286 a 287 d 288 b 289 d 290 a
291 d 292 c 293 a 294 d 295 d 296 d 297 d 298 d 299 b 300 a
301 c 302 a 303 a 304 c 305 b 306 b 307 c 308 b 309 d 310 a
311 d 312 a 313 c 314 c 315 b 316 c 317 b 318 d 319 c 320 b
321 a 322 b 323 c 324 d 325 c 326 b 327 c 328 a 329 c 330 b
331 d 332 b 333 d 334 a 335 c 336 a 337 b 338 b 339 b 340 d
 Solutions
1. (b) Given, 45. (a) Given, 1 × 10 4
100. (a) Stress = Force =
v 1 = 30 km/h m1 = m2 = m, v 1 = 2v, v 2 = 3 v Area π × ( 2 × 10 − 3) 2
and v 2 = 50 km/h and v av = ? K = 1 mv 2 ⇒ K ∝ v 2 1 × 10 4
=
Q
× 30 × 50 2
v av = 2v1 v2 =
2 12.56 × 10 − 6
2 2
v1 + v2 30 + 50 K 1 =  v1  =  2v 
∴   = 7.96 × 10 8 N/m 2
K 2  v2   3v 
= 3000 = 37.5 km/h 1. 0
80 ⇒ K1 : K2 = 4: 9 104. (a) Radius of the heal, r =
2
5. (b) From second equation of motion, 48. (a) Time taken by the bus to go from
= 0 . 5 cm = 0 . 005 m
origin to destination with speed of
s = ut + 1 at 2 mg
2 50 km/h, is Pressure, P = F =
A πr 2
⇒ s = 0 + 1 at 2 t = 300 = 6 h
2 50 50 × 9.8
=
s ∝ t2 (if a = constant) (Q distance = 300 km) 3.14 × (0.005) 2

So, object moves with constant or Time taken by the bus to go from = 6.2 × 10 6 N/m 2
uniform acceleration. destination to origin with speed of
Density of substance
60 km/h, is 107. (a) Relative density =
11. (c) For maximum cover horizontal range, Density of water
t2 = 300 = 5 h
u2 sin 2θ 60 Density of silver
R max = 10.8 =
g ∴ Average speed = Total distance 1.0 × 10 3
2 Total time
⇒ R max = u (θ = 45° ) 300 + 300 600 Density of silver = 10 . 8 × 10 3 kg / m 3
g = =
6+5 11 117. (a) There are two free surfaces of the film.
18. (d) Given, m = 1 kg, F = 1 N = 54 . 55 km/h So, surface tension, T = F
F = ma 2l
50. (a) In this case initial and final position
⇒ 1=1× a are same. So, displacement will be zero. ⇒ T × 2l = F
⇒ a = 1 m /s 2
Distance travelled by object = 2πr ⇒ T × 2l = Mg
−2
= 1.5 × 10 −2
Mg
36. (a) Given, = 2 × 22 × 35 T=
7 2l 2 × ( 30 × 10 )
m = 2 kg, h = 1. 5 m and work done = ?
g = 9.8 m/s 2 = 70 × 22 = 220 m = 0.025 N/m
7
Work done = PE = mgh 2 137. (d) Given, Celsius, TC = − 30 ° C, TF = ?
53. (b) The centripetal force, F = mv
= 2 × 9 . 8 × 1. 5 = 29.4 J r Q TC = TF − 32
Because an electron and a proton are 5 9
40. (a) Let the weight of dog be m kg, then
circulating with same speed in circular − 30 TF − 32
the weight of horse be 10 m kg ∴ =
paths of equal radius 5 9
Q KE = 1 mv 2 or K ∝ m So, F ∝m
2 − 6 × 9 = TF − 32
K 1 = m1 = m and Fe = m e = m − 54 = TF − 32
∴ F p m p 2000 m
K 2 m2 10 m TF = 32 − 54
K 2 : K 1 = 10 : 1 F p = 2000 Fe Fahrenheit = − 22° F
Therefore, the centripetal force required 139. (a) TC = − 40 ° C
41. (a) Given, g = 10 m/s , m = 1 kg
2
by the proton is about, 2000 times more
and h = 5 m, PE = ? than that required by the electron. Q TC = TF − 32
5 9
∴ PE = mgh = 1 × 10 × 5 = 50 J 55. (a) From law of conservation of linear − 40 TF − 32
44. (a) Given, momentum ∴ =
5 9
g = 9.8 m/s , 2 The total momentum of the system is − 72 = TF − 32
conserved.
m = 200 kg TF = 32 − 72
i.e. mG v + mB v G = 0
PE = 9800 J and h = ? TF = − 40 ° F
⇒ v G = − mB vG or vG ∝ 1
Q PE = mgh mG mG 187. (b) Given l1 = l, l2 = 4l and T ′ = ?
9800 = 200 × 9.8 × h Therefore, gun is much heavier, so Q T∝ l
⇒ h = 9800 = 5 m velocity of the recoiling gun is less.
200 × 9.8 T ′ = l2
T l1
GENERAL SCIENCE Physics 631

233. (a) Given, f = −25cm (for concave lens) R1 R2

⇒ T ′ = 4l T ⇒ =2
l Power of the lens, R1 + R2
⇒ T ′ = 2T ⇒ R 1 R 2 = 18
Q P = 1 = 100 = 100 = 4D …(ii)
197. (c) Given, v = 330 m/s, f = 550 Hz f ( m ) f ( cm ) 25 We have,
and λ=? So, the nature of lens is concave lens of ( R1 − R 2 ) 2 = ( R1 + R 2 ) 2 − 4R1R 2
power 4D.
Q v= fλ = ( 9) 2 − 4 × 18 = 81 − 72
236. (d) Given, the focal length of lens
∴ 330 = 550 × λ ( R1 − R 2 ) 2 = 9
f = 80 cm
⇒ λ = 3 = 0.6 m ⇒ R1 − R 2 = 3 …(iii)
5 The power of the lens,
On solving Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
201. (b) Given, I = 100 l0 P = 100 = 100 = 1. 25 D
f (cm) 80 R1 = 6 Ω and R2 = 3 Ω
Q β = 10 log 10  I  257. (a) Given, fo = 30 cm, fe = 10 cm 284. (d) Power of electric bulb, P = V
2
 I0 
R
L = fo + fe
β = 10 log 10  100 I0 
Q 2
∴ ∴ So, the resistance of bulb, R = V
 I0  ∴ L = 30 + 10 = 40 cm P
= 2 × 10 log 10 10 266. (b) The distance between the person and R = 240 × 240
= 20 dB his image in the plane mirror 60
Total noise level = (20 dB + 20 dB) = 60 + 60 = 120 cm = 1.2 m ⇒ R = 960 Ω
= 40 dB Plane Mirror 292. (c) The effective resistance
Image of 1 = 1 + 1 + 1
213. (b) According to the formula, T = 2π l Person Person
R R1 R2 R3
g
60 cm 60 cm ⇒ 1 =1+ 1+ 1
Since, the time period of a simple R 3 3 3
pendulum does not depend on mass. 1 = 1+ 1+ 1
Therefore, the time period will be 269. (d) Myopia is the defect of human eye by R 3
remain same. virtue of which one cannot see clearly 1 =3
⇒
far-off object. R 3
220. (c) Total distance travelled by the sound
Remedy : using concave lens.
in going to the surface and back ⇒ R=1Ω
= speed × time Power of lens ( P ) = 1
f 312. (a) In series, the current flows through
So, the distance of the wall from the each conductor is same.
sound source Here, P = − 1.25 D
Heat produced by resistance R, H = i 2Rt
= 1 × speed × time ∴ P= 1
2 f Resistance of thinner wire, R1 = ρ l
A
= 1 × 340 × 0.3 ⇒ f = 1 = −1 = −4 m
2 P 1.25 5 Resistance of thicker wire,
= 51 m ⇒ 4
f = − × 100 cm = − 80 cm R2 = ρ l ⇒ R2 = R1
5 2A 2
232. (b) We know that lens formula, ∴ Heat produced in the thinner wire,
or f = − 80 cm
1−1= 1
Since, focal length of the lens is negative, H 1 = i 2 R1t
v u f
so the lens is concave in nature. Heat produced in the thicker wire,
⇒ 1+ 1 = 1
v ∞ f 273. (a) The resistance of wire H2 = i 2 R 2 t
⇒ v= f R=V 2
i H 2 = i R1t
2
⇒ R = .1 = 0 .05 Ω
0
F 2 = H1
2
281. (d) According to the question,
So, same amount of electric current
R1 + R2 = 9 …(i) would pass through both the pieces
R1 + R2 1 producing more heat in the thinner one.
Clearly, image will be virtual diminished and =
at focus. R1 R2 2
02
CHEMISTRY
After analysing the previous year question papers, we have seen that 40-50 questions are asked from science section,
out of these 15-18 questions are asked from Chemistry. From chemistry section, around 2-3 questions are asked
from matter, man-made materials, 1-2 questions from atomic structure, electrochemistry, radioactivity, acid base
and 4-6 questions from inorganic, environment and its pollution and 1-2 question each from chemical bonding and
redox reaction gas law and solution, surface chemistry, chemical thermodynamics, organic chemistry etc.

MATTER
As we look at our surroundings, we see a large variety range arrangement of constituents particles) like non-metals,
of things with different shapes, sizes and textures. glass, most of the polymers, etc.
Everything in this universe is made up of material, • Liquid They have a fixed volume but no fixed shape and
which scientists have named “matter”. have moderate to high densities. The particles in liquids are
loosely packed and free to move. Their thermal conductivity
MATTER decreases with rise in temperature with the exception of
water.
Anything that has mass, occupies space and can be felt
• Gas They have neither a fixed shape nor a fixed volume and
by our one or more sense organs is called matter.
Matter is found in five physical states-solid, liquid, have very low density. The particles in gas are widely spaced
gas, plasma and Bose-Einstein condensate. Out of apart and uniformly distributed in the container.
which, three states, i.e. solid, liquid and gas are more
common. Two More States of Matter
• Plasma The state consists of super energetic and super
• Solid They have a fixed shape, volume and high
density. The particles in solids are (closely) packed excited particles which are in the form of ionised gases. Due
and held in rigid positions. They can be true or to the presence of plasma, the sun and stars glow.
crystalline, (i.e. having ordered arrangement of • Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) They are formed by
constituent particles to a larger distance) like metals cooling a gas of extremely low density to super low
or amorphous or pseudo solids, (i.e. having short temperatures.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 633

Properties of Matter CLASSIFICATION OF MATTER

The properties of matter are as follow : On the basis of chemical composition, matter is
(i) Density It is the measure of relative heaviness of objects classified in the following manner:
having constant volume and is defined as mass per unit
volume. Mathematically, it can be written as : Elements
Mass
Density = = g /mL The term element was first used by Robert Boyle in
Volume 1661. These are the simplest form of matter and
At 4°C, density of water is maximum while its specific therefore, cannot be split into simpler substances by any
volume is minimum. physical or chemical methods, e.g. sodium (Na),
Gases possess very low density. iron(Fe), mercury (Hg), etc. There are 118 elements
(ii) Compression Gases are more compressible because of known at present, out of which 98 occur in nature,
the presence of large intermolecular spaces while solids while the remaining elements have been prepared
are least compressible. Compressibility of liquids lies in artificially.
between of the two other states.
(iii) Thermal Expansion It is minimum in case of solids but Compounds
maximum in case of gases because intermolecular force of These are made up of two or more elements combined
attraction is maximum in solids but minimum in gases. in a fixed ratio. A compound cannot be separated into
its components by physical methods.
Change of States of Matter • The properties of a compound are entirely different
This is phenomenon of change of matter from one state to from those of its constituent elements.
another and come back to original state by altering the • A compound has a fixed melting point, boiling point.
original temperature and pressure. A compound is a homogeneous substance. e.g. water,
(i) Boiling Point The process of conversion of liquid into ammonia, sugar, etc.
vapours by heating is called boiling and the temperature
at which the vapour pressure of a liquid becomes equal Mixtures
to the atmospheric pressure is called boiling point. A mixture is a substance which is made up of two or
Boiling point increases in the presence of impurity. more elements or compounds, chemically combined
At high altitude, boiling point decreases because together in any ratio (so no definite formula).
atmospheric pressure is low. Hence, food takes more
time for cooking at higher altitudes. Similarly, in These can be separated into its constituents by the
pressure cooker, food cooks early due to elevation in physical methods. A mixture does not have a fixed
boiling point. melting point, boiling point and shows the properties of
(ii) Melting Point The process of conversion of a solid into its constituents.
liquid by heating is called melting and the temperature at There are two types of mixtures:
which a solid state to convert into its liquid state is called 1. Homogeneous Mixtures In this type of mixture,
melting point. the constituents are uniformly distributed through
(iii) Sublimation It is the process of heating a solid, so that out. e.g. salt solution, sugar solution, air etc. These
it converts directly into gas. e.g. naphthalene, camphor. are also called true solutions.
(iv) Freezing It is the process of conversion of a liquid into 2. Heterogeneous Mixtures In this type of mixture
solid at its freezing point and melting is the process of constituent does not have uniform composition.
conversion of a solid into liquid at its melting point. They may or may not settle on standing for a long
(v) Evaporation It is a process of conversion of a liquid time. They exhibit Tyndall effect. e.g. colloidal
into vapour at any temperature, while boiling is the solutions, mixture of salt and sugar, iodised salt
conversion of a liquid into vapour at its boiling point. (mixture of potassium iodide and common salt) etc.
Evaporation causes cooling as the liquid takes energy for
evaporation from surroundings.
(vi) Latent Heat When heat is supplied to a body either at PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL
its melting point or boiling point, the temperature of the
body does not change. In this condition, heat supplied
CHANGES
to the body is used up in changing its state and is called In physical changes, only the physical properties of
the latent heat. matter like colour, hardness, density, etc., changes while
Quantity of heat ( Q ) the chemical properties and composition remain the same.
Latent heat ( L) = .
Mass ( m ) Crystallisation, boiling, dissolution of salt and sugar,
vaporisation, melting of ice etc., are examples of
Its SI unit is Jkg −1 .
physical change.
634 CDS Pathfinder

In chemical changes, the chemical composition as well (iv) Gay Lussac’s Law of Gaseous VolumesThe volume of
as chemical properties of the matter changes and a new reactants and products in large number of chemical
substance is formed. Burning of any substance, reactions are related to each other by small integers,
photosynthesis, ripening of fruits, etc., are examples of provided the volumes are measured at same temperature
chemical change. Physical changes are reversible (i.e. and pressure. These statements are considered as the law
can be reversed to obtain the original substance) while of definite proportions by volume given by Gay-Lussac.
chemical changes are irreversible.

Laws of Chemical Combination MOLECULES

The term molecule was given by Avogadro. It is the smallest
Combination of elements/atoms to form compounds is particle of a compound which can exist in free state. All the
governed by following basic laws: properties of a compound depend on its constituent molecules.
(i) Law of Conservation of Mass This law was put Molecules of a compound contain two or more different types
forth by Antoine Lavoisier in 1789. It states that, of atoms in a fixed ratio. e.g. ammonia (NH 3 ), water (H 2O ),
matter can neither be created nor destroyed but etc.
can be converted from one form to another.
• Molecular mass is the mass of a molecule. It is an additive
In a chemical reaction, total mass of reactants is
property and is calculated by adding the atomic masses of
equal to total mass of products. In terms of
total atoms present in a molecule.
energy, it is called law of conservation of energy.
(ii) Law of Definite Proportions A pure compound
e.g. NH 3 = 14 + (1) × 3 = 17 .
always contains same elements combined in same • Equivalent weight is obtained by dividing molecular or
proportions by mass, whatever be its source. This atomic mass by valency.
is called law of definite proportions by weight and Molecular mass or atomic mass
is given by Joseph Proust, e.g. water obtained Equivalent weight =
Valency
from any source like tap water, well water, etc.,
always contain hydrogen and oxygen in 1:8 by (i.e. equivalent weight is affected by change in valency)
mass.
(iii) Law of Multiple Proportions This law was Mole Concept
proposed by John Dalton in 1803 . It states The number of molecules present in 12 g of C-12 atom is
that when the fixed mass of an element combines called one mole. 1 mol = 6 . 022 × 10 23 = Avogadro’s number
with different masses of another element, then the
masses of other elements (in two or more Mass (in g)
• Number of moles =
compounds) are in the ratio of small whole Atomic or molecular mass (g mol −1 )
numbers..
1 mol of atom = 6.022 × 10 23 atoms
e.g. H 2O 2 g : 16 g
H 2O 2 2 g : 32 g 1 mol of molecules = 6 . 022 × 10 23 molecules
or 1 g : 32 g. • Atomic mass is the relative mass as compared with an atom
Thus, ratio of O combining with same mass of of C-12 and is expressed in amu.
H = 1 : 2. (1 amu = 1.6 × 10 −24 g).

ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Atoms are the basis of chemistry, even they are the basis for According to this theory,
everything in the universe. Maharishi Kanad was one of the • Atom is the smallest indivisible particle of an element,
first person to propose that matter is made up of every small i.e. it can neither be created nor be destroyed.
particles called parmanu. John Dalton called the particles • Atoms of different elements differ in mass, size and
by the name of atom. chemical properties.
• Atoms of same or different elements combine together
to form compound or molecule. The ‘number’ and
DALTON’S ATOMIC THEORY ‘kinds’ of atoms in a given molecule is fixed.
In 1808, John Dalton gave a theory, called atomic theory of • Atoms of the same elements can combine in more than
matter which is based upon laws of chemical combination. one ratio to form different compounds.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 635

Atom and Molecule Properties of Subatomic Particles

Atom is the smallest particle of the element that can The properties of subatomic particles are as follow :
exist independently and retain all its capable of • Electron ( −1e 0 ) It is negatively charged particle. It was
independent chemical reactions. Atoms are made up
discovered by J. J. Thomson in 1897.
of subatomic particles like electrons, protons,
neutrons, meson, positron, etc. Charge on electron = − 1. 6 × 10 −19 C
A molecule is the smallest particle of an element or a Mass of electron = 9 . 1 × 10 −31 g
compound existence under ordinary conditions. The magnitude of negative charge on electron was determined
by Millikan in his oil drop experiment.
Properties of Atom • Proton (1 H1 ) It was discovered by E. Goldstein. It is
The properties of atom are as follow:
positively charged particle.
• Atomic Number For an element, it is the number
Charge on proton = 1 . 6 × 10 −19 C
of protons present inside the nucleus of its atom.
Atomic number (Z) = number of protons Mass of proton (1 H1 ) = 1. 6 × 10 −27 kg
= number of electrons • Neutron ( 0 n1 ) It was discovered by Chadwick. It has neutral
(in case of neutral atom) particle, i.e having no charge.
• Mass Number It is the total number of protons Mass of neutron = 1. 6 × 10 −27 kg
and neutrons (i.e nucleons) present in one atom of
an element. Hydrogen and protium is the only atom that does not possess
Mass number (A) neutrons.
= number of protons + number of neutrons Subatomic Particles
= atomic number + number of neutrons Particle Discoverer Charge Mass
= number of electrons + number of neutrons
Electron Thomson − 1
Representation of an Atom Proton Rutherford + 1836
Mass number or Neutron Chadwick 0 1836
atomic mass Meson Yukawa +, 0, − 273.8

ZX
A Positron Anderson + 1
Neutrino Fermi 0 20.04
Symbol of
Atomic the atom
number
NUCLEUS
Discovery of Subatomic Atom consists of a heavy and positively charged part at its
Particles centre, called the nucleus (dia = 10 −4 m). Nucleus was discovered
by Rutherford by α-particle scattering experiment. The
The subatomic particles are discovered in many ways: negatively charged electrons revolve around the nucleus in well
defined orbits. A nucleus consists of positively charged protons
Cathode Rays and electrically neutral neutrons.
These rays travel in straight line and cast shadows of
metallic object placed in their path. In the presence of Planck’s Quantum Theory
electrical or magnetic field, the behaviour of cathode (Particle Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation)
rays are similar to that of negatively charged
The radiant energy which is emited or absorbed discontinovsly
particles, called electrons.
in the form of small discrete packets of energy known as
The first precise measurement of the charge on the quantum and in care of light, the quantum of energy is called
electron was made by Robert A. Millikan in 1909. photon.
E = hν ( c = νλ )
Anode Rays hc
In 1886, Engen Goldstein discovered the canal rays. E=
λ
These rays travel in straight line and can also produce
mechanical effects. These are positively charged, i.e. where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10 −34 J-s
made up of protons. E = Energy of photon or quantum
636 CDS Pathfinder

If n is the number of quanta of a particular frequency and • A shell can have a maximum of 2n2 electrons
ET be the total energy, then ET = nhν. The energy possessed (where, n = number of shells). e.g. the maximum
by one mole of quanta (or photon), i.e. Avogadro’s number number of electrons in
(N 0 ) of quanta, is called one Einstein of energy i.e., 1 K (or first) shell = 2n2 = 2 (1)2 = 2
hc
Einstein of energy ( E ) = N 0 hν = N 0 L (or second) shell = 2n2 = 2 ( 2)2 = 8 and so on.
λ
• The outermost shell cannot have more than 8 electrons.
Different Atomic Species • Electrons enter in the new shell only after filling the
(i ) Isotopes Atoms of the same element having the same previous one completely.
atomic number ( Z ) but different mass number ( A ) are
called isotopes, Quantum Numbers
e.g. 1 H1 (protium), 1 H 2 (deuterium or heavy hydrogen) Quantum numbers are just like address of electrons.
and 1 H3 (tritium) are isotopes of hydrogen. There are four types of quantum numbers which are
12 13 14 given below
6 C , 6 C , 6 C are isotopes of carbon.
16 17 18 (i) Principal quantum number ( n) = 1, 2, 3, 4, …
8 O , 8 O , 8 O are isotopes of oxygen.
20 21 22 (ii) Azimuthal quantum number ( l ) = 0 to n − 1 for a
10 Ne , 10 Ne , 10 Ne are isotopes of neon.
given value of n.
(ii ) Isobars Atoms of different elements having the same
(iii) Magnetic quantum number (m or ml ) = − 1 to + 1
mass number ( A ) but different atomic number ( Z ) are
including ‘0’ for a given value of m.
called isobars, e.g. 1 H 3 and 2 He 3 ; 18 Ar 40 , 19 K 40 and
1 1
40 130
20 Ca ; 52 Te , 56 Ba
130
and 54 Xe130 , etc. (iv) Spin quantum number (s or ms ) = + , − for a given
2 2
(iii) Isoelectronic Species Species having the same number value of m .
of electrons but different nuclear charge are known as
isoelectronic species. They also have same bond order. Electronic Configuration
e.g. Mg 2+ and Na + , etc., are isoelectronic species as
It is the arrangement of electrons in various shells,
both have 10 electrons.
sub-shells and orbitals in an atom. It is written as
(iv) Isotones These have the same number of neutrons. e.g. 2,8,8,18,32.
14 15
6C , 7N . e.g. the electronic configuration of
Bohr-Bury Scheme K L M N
Sodium ( Na11 ) 2, 8, 1, 0
It shows the distribution of electrons in different shells, i.e.
Calcium (Ca 20 ) 2, 8, 8, 2
orbitals or paths of different and definite energies in which
the electrons revolve. According to this scheme,

RADIOACTIVITY
All heavy elements and a few of lighter elements have The spontaneous emission of invisible radiations by
naturally occuring isotopes, which possess the property of disintegration of heavy elements into comparatively lighter
radioactivity. elements is called radioactivity. The invisible rays emitted
These isotopes have unstable nuclei and attain stability by radioactive elements consists of the following particles:
through the phenomenon of radioactivity. (i) Alpha (α) particles, i.e. 2 He 4 (+ 2 unit charge and
The unstability results in the emission of a complex type mass four units) They are deflected towards
of powerful radiations known as alpha (α ), beta (β ) and negative plate in the electric and magnetic field
gamma ( γ ) rays. and have very high ionising power.
α- particle
A −4
ZX
A
→ Z − 2Y
RADIOACTIVITY (ii) Beta (β) particles, i.e. electrons (−1 charge and
Radioactivity was discovered by a French physicist Henri zero mass) They are deflected towards positive
Becquerel in 1896. However, the term radioactivity was plate in the electric and magnetic field.
given by Marie Curie, the scientist who got Nobel Prize β − particle
twice (for physics and chemistry). ZX
A
→ Z + 1Y
A
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 637

(iii) Gamma ( γ ) rays (no charge and no mass) They Nuclear Fusion
are not deflected from their path in the electric or
magnetic field. These are electromagnetic The union of (two or more) lighter nuclei to form a heavier
radiations and have very high penetrating power. nucleus is called the nuclear fusion. It is also accompanied
Emission of γ-rays is the secondary effect of by release of energy because the total mass of products is
radioactive charge. lesser than the total mass of reactants.
• Nuclear fusion occurs only at extremely high
➨ Note
temperature (> 10 6 K), so it is also called thermonuclear
1. Stable nuclei are those for which number of neutrons and
protons are equal. reactions.
2. The time taken by half of the atoms of a radioactive element to • Hydrogen bomb (mixture of deuterium oxide and
disintegrate is called its half-life. Its unit is time −1. tritium dioxide) is the result of nuclear fusion.
3. X-rays were discovered by Roentgen in 1896. These are
electromagnetic waves of very short wavelength and are used • Source of solar (sun) and stellar energy is nuclear fusion.
to detect cracks in fractured bones. • The source of emission of large amount of energy during
4. If the energies of α , β and γ-particles is same, then penerating
power α < β < γ.
nuclear fission or fusion processes is conversion of mass
into energy. It is given by the relation, E = mc 2 and
Group Displacement Law calculated in MeV.
This law was put forward by Soddy, Fajan and Russel on
the basis of following fact : Applications of Radioisotopes
(i) When a radioactive element emits an α-particle, the
Isotopes of all the known elements with Z > 83 are
atomic number of the resulting nuclide decreases by 4
units e.g. radioactive and are called radioisotopes. These are used for
various purposes, e.g. radiocarbon dating is used to
92 U → 90 Th + 2 He
238 234 4
determine the age of dead specimen with C14 content by
(ii) When a radioactive element emits a β-particle, the comparing it with C-12 content.
atomic number of the resulting nuclide increases by n
 1
one unit but the atomic mass remains unchanged e.g., N = N0  
 2
92 U → 93 Np + −1e
238 238 0
where, n = total time(T)/t1 / 2
N 0 = ratio of C14 /C12 in green plant
NUCLEAR REACTIONS
These are of following two types: N = ratio of C14 / C12 in wood
Rock dating or uranium dating is used to determine the age
Nuclear Fission of rocks or earth. It is based on 82 Pb206 and 92 U 238 ratio.
The splitting of a heavy nucleus into two smaller of nearly Uses of other Radioisotopes
comparable masses and release of about 200MeV of energy
is called nuclear fission. Nuclear fission was discovered by Radioisotope Uses
‘Hahn’ and ‘Strassmann’ in 1939. I 131
(Iodine-131) (i) To study the structure and activity of
thyroid gland
• Atom bomb is the result of uncontrolled nuclear fission.
(ii) For the treatment of thyroid disease
• The device in which controlled nuclear fission (chain
reactions) is carried out is called nuclear reactor. The I123 (Iodine-123) Brain imaging
fission is controlled by absorbing neutrons by using Co 60 (Cobalt-60) Treatment of cancer
cadmium or boron rods. Na 24
(Sodium-24) To trace the flow of blood
• Heavy water ( D 2O, molecular weight 20) and graphite 32
P (Phosphorus-32) For leukemia therapy (blood cancer)
are used as moderator for slowing down the fast moving 14
neutrons. U 235 is used as a nuclear fuel. C (Carbon-14) To study the kinetics of photosynthesis
638 CDS Pathfinder

CHEMICAL BONDING AND REDOX REACTIONS

CHEMICAL BOND Electrovalent or Ionic Bond
The forces of attraction like interatomic, The bond formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom
intermolecular or interionic forces which holds two (usually metal) to another (usually non-metal) is called
or more constituents (atoms, molecules or ions) electrovalent bond and the compound is called electrovalent or
together are called chemical bonds and the process of ionic compound. In other words, it is an intercoulombic forces
their combination is called chemical bonding. of attraction between two oppositely charged species. The
In general, it is believed that atoms combine in order number of electrons transferred shows the electrovalency of the
to complete their octet, i.e. 8 electrons in their atom.
outermost shell (with the exception of hydrogen and The properties of electrovalent compounds are as follow:
helium in case of which outermost shell can have a • They are usually crystalline solids, i.e. have definite shape and
maximum of two electrons). are hard and brittle.
• They have high melting and boiling points.
Ions • They conduct electricity when dissolved in water or in molten
An ion is an electrically charged species. A positively
state due to the presence of free or mobile ions.
charged ion is called cation, e.g. Na + , H + , Mg 2+
• These are soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvents
while a negatively charged ion is called anion, like alcohol, benzene, etc.
e.g. Cl − , F− , I− .
• If the electronegativity difference of two atoms is 1.7, the
• A cation contains less electrons than a normal bond between them is 50% ionic.
atom while an anion contains more electrons than
a normal atom. Some Electrovalent Compounds
• When an atom loses one electron, it carries one Name Formula Ions present
positive charge, i.e. converted into cation, and if it Aluminium oxide (alumina) Al 2O 3 Al 3 + and O 2−
gains one electron, it carries one negative charge, Ammonium chloride NH4Cl NH4+ and Cl −
i.e. converted into anion.
Copper sulphate CuSO 4 Cu 2 + and SO 2−
4
• There is no change in atomic number or number
of protons when an atom forms ion. Magnesium chloride MgCl 2 Mg 2 + and Cl −
Magnesium oxide MgO Mg 2 + and O 2−
Valence Electrons Sodium chloride NaCl Na + and Cl −
An electron of an atom, located in the outermost Sodium hydroxide NaOH Na + and OH−
shell (valence shell) of the atom, that can be
transferred to or shared with another atom is called Covalent Bond
valence electrons.
The bond formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms
• Elements having same number of valence electrons of same or different elements is called covalent bond and the
have similar chemical properties. compound is called covalent compound. When a non-metal
• Elements having 1, 2 or 3 valence electrons in their combines with another non-metal, a covalent bond is formed.
atoms are metals and form cation while those Covalent bond may be single, double or triple depending upon
having 4, 5, 6 or 7 are non-metals and form anion. the number of sharing pairs of electrons. The number of
• Elements with 8 valence electrons (except H and electrons shared shows the covalency of the element.
He which have 2 valence electrons) are inert, i.e. The properties of covalent compounds are as follow:
unreactive and exist as neutral atom. • Normal covalent compounds are gases or liquid under
• If number of valence electrons = 1, 2 or 3 ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure.
Valency = Number of valence electrons • These do not conduct electricity (due to the absence of free
If number of valence electrons ≥ 4 ions) and are insoluble in water but dissolve in organic
Valency = 8 - number of valence electrons solvents.
• Graphite although is covalent but conducts electricity because
Types of Chemical Bonds of the presence of free electrons (electrical conduction).
Chemical bonds can be of following types depending • These show stereoisomerism because covalent bond is
upon their mode of formation: directional in nature.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 639

Some Covalent Compounds

RANCIDITY
Name Formula Elements present
The oils or fats containing materials get oxidised in the
Alcohol (ethanol) C 2H5 (OH) C, H and O presence of oxygen or air and produce foul odour and
Ammonia NH 3 N and H taste. This process is called rancidity. It is the source of
destructive free radicals. A sliced apple turns brown if
Acetylene (ethyne) C 2 H2 C and H
kept open for sometimes due to oxidation of iron present
Carbon disulphide CS 2 C and S in the apple. The chips packets are filled with inert gas
Carbon tetrachloride CCl 4 C and Cl nitrogen to protect them from being oxidised (or rancid).
Cane sugar C12 H22 O 11 C, H and O
Ethylene C 2 H4 C and H Reduction
Glucose C 6 H12 O 6 C, H and O The process which involves the gain of hydrogen or
electropositive element or one or more electrons
Coordinate or Dative Bond (electronation) or loss of oxygen by an atom, ion or
This type of bond is formed by one sided sharing of one molecule is called reduction.
pair of electrons between two atoms. The atom having e.g. S + 2 e − → S 2 − .
complete octet which provides the electron pair for sharing
is known as donor atom. The other atom which accepts the Reduction involves decrease in the positive valency of an
electron pair is called the acceptor atom, element.
e.g. NH 3 → BF3 , NH 4+
Oxidising Agent (Oxidant)
Hydrogen Bond It is a substance which accepts electron in the chemical
reaction, i.e. electron acceptors are oxidising agent. All the
This bond is formed due to the electrostatic force of
positively charged species behave like oxidising agents.
attraction between hydrogen atom highly electronegative
Oxidising agents are Lewis acids.
atom.
i.e. N, O or F and any other electronegative atom which is Reducing Agent (Reductant)
present in the same or different molecules.
The substance which donates electron in a chemical
It is mainly of two types: reaction is called reducing agent, i.e. electron donors are
(i) Intermolecular H-bonding (e.g. H 2 O, HF, NH 3 reducing agents. All the negatively charged species behave
molecule). It occurs between different molecules of a like reducing agents. Reducing agents are Lewis bases.
compound.
Some Oxidising and Reducing Agents
(ii) Intramolecular H-bonding (e.g. o-nitrophenol)
Both oxidising and
It occurs with in different parts of a same molecule. Oxidising agents Reducing agents
reducing agents
• Molecules having O—H, N—H or H—F bond show KMnO 4 , Cr 2O 2−
7 , H 2 SO 4 , Na, Al, Fe, Zn, LiH, H2O 2 , SO 2 , HNO 2 ,
abnormal properties due to H—bond formation. HNO 3, O 2, CO 2 etc. NaH, (COOH)2 etc. NaNO 2, O 3, Na 2SO 3 etc.

Redox Reactions Oxidation State

The reactions which involve both oxidation and reduction It is the real or imaginary charge which an atom appears to
as its two half reactions are called redox reactions. When have in its combined state. Oxidation state of an element
the same element is oxidised or reduced simultaneously, may be positive, negative, zero or fractional.
the reaction is called disproportionation reaction.
Rules for Determining Oxidation State
Oxidation • The oxidation state of an element in its free or
The process which involves gain of oxygen or any other uncombined state is zero. e.g. oxidation state of O in O 2
electronegative element or loss of hydrogen or loss of one and O 3 is zero.
or more electrons (de-electronation) from an atom, ion or • Oxidation state of hydrogen in most of its compounds is
molecule is called oxidation,
+ 1 but in metallic hydrides it is −1.
e.g. Mg → Mg 2 + + 2e − . • Oxidation state of oxygen in most of its compounds is
The positive valency of an element increases by its − 2. Except peroxides ( −1), superoxides ( −1 / 2) and
oxidation. oxygen fluorides (+2 or +1).
640 CDS Pathfinder

• Oxidation state of elements of I A, II A and III A • The algebraic sum of the oxidation states of all elements
subgroups in their compounds are + 1, + 2 and + 3, present in polyatomic ion is equal to the charge on the
respectively. ion.
• Oxidation state of any ion is equal to its charge present • Oxidation state of fluorine (F) is always −1.
on it.
➨ Note Compounds of all elements with oxygen are called oxides with
• The algebraic sum of oxidation states of all the elements the exception of fluorine in case of which it is called fluorides, e.g.
in the neutral molecule is zero. oxygen fluoride (OF2 ).

GAS LAWS AND SOLUTIONS

GAS LAWS GAS EQUATION
Gases exhibit dependency on temperature, pressure, The three laws (Boyle’s, Charle’s and Avogadro’s law) can
volume and mass. These interrelations can be analysed by be combined together in a single equation which is known
gas laws. as ideal gas equation.
At STP/NTP, temperature, (T ) = 273.15 K, pressure ( p ) = 1 V ∝1/ p (Boyle’s law)
atm = 101. 35 kPa, volume, (V ) = 22. 4 L mol − 1 V ∝T (Charles’ law)
Some gas laws are given below V ∝n (Avogadro’s law)
Boyle’s Law (Robert Boyle-1662) nT
On combining, V ∝
• At constant temperature, the volume of fixed mass of a p
gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. nT
or V =R
1 P
V ∝ [at constant temperature and moles (n)]
p or pV = nRT (where, R = gas constant)
or p1V1 = p2V2 For 1 mole, pV = RT
• Value of gas constant, R depends upon the units of
Charles’ Law (Jacques Charles-1787) measurements.
• At constant pressure, volume of fixed mass of a gas is
R = 0.0821 L atm mol −1 K −1
directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
V ∝T (at constant pressure and moles) = 8.3143 J mol −1 K −1 = 5.189 × 1019 eV mol −1 K −1
V1 V2 = 1.99 cal mol −1 K −1
=
T1 T2 Gas constant, R for a single molecule is called Boltzmann
R R
constant (k) or k = =
Gay Lussac’s Law (J.Gay Lussac-1802) N 6.022 × 10 23
• At constant volume, the pressure of fixed mass of a gas • Density of a gas is directly proportional to pressure and
is directly proportional to its temperature. inversely related to temperature,
p ∝T  Mass ( m) 
p1 p2 i.e. d = pM /RT Q n = 
= [at constant volume and moles]  Molecular weight ( M )
T1 T2

Avogadro’s Law (Amedeo Avogadro-1811) Graham’s Law of Diffusion

• At constant temperature and pressure, the volume of (or Effusion)
any gas is directly proportional to the number of moles The rate of diffusion (r) of a gas at constant temperature
of gas. and pressure is inversely proportional to the square root of
V ∝n [at constant T and P] its molecular mass, M or density, d.
V1 V2
or = r1 M2 d2
n1 n2 = =
r2 M1 d1
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 641

Maxwell’s Distribution of Molecular Molality (m) The number of moles of solute dissolved in
1000 g of a solvent is called its molality.
Speeds (Velocities) Weight of solute (in g) × 1000
Maxwell and Boltzmann proposed that gas molecules are Thus, m =
Molecular weight × weight of solvent (in g)
always in rapid random motion colliding with each other
and with the walls of container because of which their Normality (N ) The number of gram equivalents of solute
velocity changes. On increasing temperature, the velocity dissolved in one litre of solution is known as its normality.
or molecular motion increases because of which the rate of Weight of solute (in g) × 1000
reaction increases. N=
Equivalent weight × volume of solution (in mL)

SOLUTION ➨ Note Normality and molarity are affected by temperature as these

depend upon the volume whereas molality remains unaffected from
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more temperature change.
substances on molecular level is called true solution or
solution. e.g. lemonade, soda water. The substance which is Henry’s Law
dissolved in a liquid to make a solution is called ‘solute’
and the liquid in which the solute is dissolved is called According to this law, ‘at particular temperature, the
‘solvent’. solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the
pressure of the gas above the solvent.
A true solution does not scatter light and its particles
cannot be seen even by microscope. e.g. salt solution, sea Its main applications are as follow:
water, sugar solution, copper sulphate solution, vinegar, – Soft drinks and soda water bottles are sealed under
etc. high pressure in order to increase the solubility of CO2
Depending upon the amount of solute present, the solutions in them.
– To minimise the painful effects (bends) accompanying
can be classified as :
the decompression of deep sea divers, oxygen diluted
• A solution, in which more quantity of solute can be
with less soluble helium gas is used as breathing gas.
dissolved without raising its temperature is called an
– Oxygen diluted with nitrogen cannot be used for this
unsaturated solution.
purpose due to high solubility of N 2 in blood.
• A solution, in which no more solute can be dissolved at
that temperature is called a saturated solution.
Osmosis
Concentration of a Solution It is the process of movement of solvent molecules from
The amount of a solute dissolved in unit weight or volume of the solution of low concentration to high concentration
solution is called strength (concentration) of a solution. through semipermeable membrane.
• If pressure greater than osmotic pressure (pressure
So, concentration of a solution
require to stop osmosis) is applied on the solution of
Amount of solute (in g) Amount of solute (in g)
= = high concentration, reverse osmosis takes place. e.g.
Weight of solution Volume of solution desalination of sea water.
• Isotonic solutions have same concentration and osmotic
Different Terms to Express pressure. e.g. 0.91% solution of pure NaCl is isotonic
Concentration with human red blood cells (RBCs).
Parts Per Million It shows the parts of solute present per Diffusion
million parts of solution, i.e. ppm.
• Diffusion is the process of spontaneous mixing of
Mass of solute (in g) × 10 6 different gases and in this process, molecules of a
=
Volume of solution (in mL) substance move from higher concentration to lower
concentration and goes on until a uniform mixture is
Molarity (M) The number of moles of solute dissolved in
formed. Its rate is highest for gases and lowest in solids.
one litre of solution is called its molarity.
e.g. the smell of food being cooked, reaches us even
Weight of solute (in g) × 1000 from a considerable distance by the process of diffusion.
Thus, M =
Molecular weight × volume of solution (in mL) Due to diffusion the scent spread all over the room if
the lid is opened.
642 CDS Pathfinder

ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

ACIDS BASES
The substances which have sour taste and turn blue litmus These substances which have bitter taste and turn red litmus
to red are called acids. to blue are called bases.
• According to Arrhenius acids give hydrogen ion H + in • According to Arrhenius, bases give hydroxyl ion (OH − )
an aqueous solution. in aqueous solution. e.g. NaOH, KOH, CsOH,Mg(OH)2 ,
HCl (aq) → H + ( aq) + Cl − ( aq) etc.,
• According to Bronsted Lowry concept, acids donate NaOH ( aq) → Na + ( aq) + OH − ( aq)
proton (hydrogen ion). • According to Bronsted Lowry concept, bases have a
− + tendency to accept proton, e.g. NH 3 , H 2O, etc.
HCl + NH 3 → Cl + NH4 NH 3 + H 2 O s NH 4+ + OH −
Acid Conjugate Base Conjugate
base acid
(A conjugate acid-base pair differ by a proton) • According to Lewis concept, bases have a tendency to
• According to Lewis concept, acids have tendency to donate electron pair. e.g. simple anions like Cl − , F −
OH − ,
••
accept electrons, i.e. these behave as electrophiles. etc., molecules containing lone pairs like N H 3 ,
e.g. electron deficient species like BF3 , AlCl 3 , positive •• ••
ions like Na+ , K + and molecules having multiple bond R— O —H, R— O —R , etc.
•• ••
between dissimilar atoms (e.g. CO 2 , SO 2 , etc).
Sources of Some Acids Properties of Bases
Acid Sources • Base reacts with metal to form salt and liberates hydrogen
Citric acid Lemon, orange, grapes (citrus fruits) gas. However, such reactions are not possible with all
Maleic acid Unripe apple metals.
Tartaric acid Tamarind , grapes • Water soluble bases are called alkali. Thus, all alkalis are
Lactic acid Milk , curd bases but all the bases are not alkali.
Acetic acid Vinegar • In aqueous solution and molten state, they are good
conductors of electricity.
Oxalic acid Tomato , spinach
Hydrochloric acid Stomach and other chemicals Acid and Base in a Reaction
Formic acid Red ant sting
Acid-base pair
• Most of the acids contain hydrogen.
→ H3O –
• HCl, H 2 SO 4 , HNO 3 are mineral acids and are much
CH3COOH + H2O + CH3COO
Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate
stronger than organic acids. (as donates proton) (as accepts proton) acid base
• Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric
Acid-base pair
acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio 3 : 1. It
can dissolve inert materials like platinum, gold, etc. • Paraldehyde (a carbonyl compound) is used as a hypnotic.
• Clove oil can be used as indicator.
Properties of Acids
• Acids liberate hydrogen gas with more reactive metals.
SALTS
e.g. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl 2 + H2↑ • When acid and base react together, they form salt and
Metal Salt Hydrogen
water. This reaction is known as neutralisation reaction,
• Acids evolve carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) gas with metal e.g.
carbonates and bicarbonates. e.g. HNO 3 + KOH → KNO 3 + H 2O
Acid Base Salt Water
MCO3 + H 2 SO4 → M SO4 + H 2 O + CO2 ↑ • When acid and base both are strong, 13.7 kcal energy is
Metal carbonate Acid released. However, if either the acid or the base is weak,
• In aqueous solution, they are conductor of electricity energy released is less than 13.7 kcal because some part of
due to the presence of free H + ions. energy is utilised to ionise weak acid or base.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 643

• KNO 3 , K 2 SO 4 , NaNO 3 , KCl, NaCl, KNO 3 are

salts of strong acids and strong bases so, they cannot
Importance of pH in Everyday Life
be hydrolysed and their aqueous solution is neutral. • Bee or ant sting (formic acid) leaves an acid into the skin
− which causes pain and irritation. Use of a mild base like
• Solutions of salts of Cl , SO42 − , NO3−
with metals
+ +
baking soda (NaHCO3 ) or calamine (zinc carbonate) is a
other than Na and K are acidic. e.g. NH 4 Cl . In remedy for it.
other words, salt of a strong acid and a weak base • Wasp sting introduced some base, so a mild acid is a
undergoes hydrolysis in water to give acidic solution. remedy.
• Solutions of salts of Na + and K + with anions (except • Falling of pH of the mouth below 5.5 because of substances
SO42 − , NO3− , Cl − ) are basic, e.g. CH 3 COONa. like chocolates and sweets lead to tooth decay which is
In other words, salt of a weak acid and a strong base naturally controlled by saliva (basic) to some extent but
undergoes hydrolysis in water to give basic solution. toothpaste being basic maintain this pH by neutralising
excess acid.
pH SCALE • Excessive acid (hydrochloric acid) secreted in our stomach
which causes acidity, is neutralised by mild bases called
SPL Sorensen suggested a scale to express the antacids like milk of magnesia
acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution in terms (or magnesium hydroxide) [Mg(OH)2 ] , aluminium
of hydrogen ion concentration which is known as hydroxide [Al(OH)3 ] , etc.
pH scale. This scale is based on the ionic product
of water. • Every crop grows better in a particular pH range. e.g. slightly
acidic soil is good for rice, neutral is good for sugarcane while
The pH of solution is defined as ‘‘the negative citrus fruits generally grow in alkaline soil.
logarithm to the base 10 of the hydrogen ion
concentration in moles per litre’’, ➨ Note Use of strong acid or base is not prescribed as these are corrosive
i.e. pH = − log [H+ ] in nature.
■ Pickles are kept in glass jar because acid present in them reacts with
or in other words, the logarithm to the base 10 of the metal of metallic pot to give poisonous substances.
inverse of H+ ion concentration in the solution is its ■ Acidity of soft drinks is regulated by bicarbonate salts.
1
pH. pH = log +
[H ] pOH Scale
• The negative power to which 10 must be raised in The pOH value of an aqueous solution may be defined as the
order to express the H + ion concentration of a negative logarithm of the hydroxide ion concentration,
solution in moles per litre, is its pH. i.e. pOH = − log [ OH − ] and pH + pOH = 14.
− pH
i.e. [H + ] = 10
➨ Note
• In pure water or in neutral solution, 1. When fresh ground water comes in contact of air its pH is slightly
[H + ] = 10 − 7 so, pH = 7 reduces. This is because of the presence of CO2 in air which dissolves
in water to give a weak acid, H2CO3 (carbonic acid). This acid provides
• In an acidic solution, [H + ] > 10 − 7 so, pH < 7 H + ions and hence, increases the acidity of water due to which pH
• In an alkaline solution, [H + ] < 10 − 7 so, pH > 7
reduces.
2. pH of acidic solution increases when a base is added to it and pH of
pH of Some Common Substances basic solution decreases when an acid is added to it.

Soft drinks 2.0-4.0 Common Ion Effect

Tears 7.4 Addition of a strong electrolyte in the solution of weak acids
Lemon 2.2-2.4 or bases, decreases the ionisation of acid or base due to the
presence of common ion. This is called common ion effect. e.g.
Sea water 8.5
H2S s 2H+ + S2– …(i)
Human urine 4.8-8.4
Weak acid

H+
Cow’s milk,saliva 6.5
HCl → + Cl– …(ii)
Rain water 6.0 Strong acid Common
ion (excess)
Human blood 7.36-7.42
So, the reaction (i) goes in the reverse direction.
644 CDS Pathfinder

CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS AND SURFACE CHEMISTRY

THERMODYNAMICS • Only a very small amount of catalyst is sufficient to catalyse

It deals with the study of heat and energy changes a reaction. A catalyst does not initiate a reaction.
occurring during a physical and chemical processes. • A catalyst does not change the equilibrium state of a

An open system can exchange matter as well as energy reversible reaction as it increases the rate of forward as
with its surroundings, e.g. hot tea in a cup. well as backward reaction to the same extent.
• When a reversible reaction is performed in a closed
A closed system can exchange energy but not matter with
container, a state is reached when the rate of forward and
its surroundings, hot water in a closed beaker.
backward reactions become equal. This state is called
An isolated system can exchange neither matter nor chemical equilibrium or equilibrium state.
energy with its surroundings, e.g. thermos flask.
• Free energy change (∆G°) at equilibrium is zero.

Thermodynamic Processes Types of Catalyst

Isothermal Process The process in which temperature of 1. Positive and Negative Catalysts A catalyst which
the system remains constant, i.e., dT = 0 increases the rate of a reaction (in forward direction) is
Maximum work done during the isothermal expansion of called a positive catalyst while which decreases the
‘n’ moles of an ideal gas is given as rate of a reaction is called as negative catalyst.
V 2. Induced Catalyst The product of one reaction acts as
Wmax = − 2 . 303 nRT log 2 catalyst for another reaction is called induced catalyst.
V1
3. Catalytic Promoters and Inhibitors The substance
Adiabatic Process The process in which no heat enters which increases the activity of a catalyst are called
or leaves the system during any step of process, i.e. promoters and which decreases the activity of a
dq = 0. catalyst are called inhibitors.
Isobaric Process The process which takes place at 4. Catalytic Poisons Catalytic poisons destroy the
constant pressure, i.e. dp = 0. activity of a catalyst completely.
Isochoric Process The process in which volume of Enzyme Catalysis
system remains constant, i.e. dV = 0.
The increase in the rate of reactions by the enzyme is
Cyclic Process In a cyclic process, a system in a given known as enzyme catalysis. Since, they increase the rate of
state goes through a series of different processes but reaction occurring in living organisms, they are known by
finally returns to its initial state, i.e. dE or dU = 0. the name biocatalysts.
Spontaneous Process A process, i.e physical or chemical • All enzymes are protein in nature. Enzymes are highly
change, which can proceed by itself is known as specific in their nature. They are highly sensitive to
spontaneous process. There are also some processes temperature, i.e. the temperature at which the activity of
which require some initiation before they proceeds enzymes is maximum, varies between 25-37°C.
spontaneously, i.e. physical or chemical change. • The rates of enzymatic reactions are very much affected
• It is also known as feasible and probable process. by pH change.
• The process is spontaneous, if free energy change, ∆G is Some Important Catalyst used in Different Processes
negative.
Processes Catalyst used

SURFACE CHEMISTRY Manufacture of ghee from vegetable oils

Haber’s process for the manufacture of ammonia
Nickel
Fe (here Mo, acts
Surface chemistry deals with the phenomenon that occurs as an activator)
at the surface or interfaces. Contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid Pt powder
Conversion of proteins into peptide Pepsin enzyme
Catalysis Conversion of proteins into amino acids Erepsin enzyme
Conversion of glucose into ethanol Zymase enzyme
The term catalyst is given by Berzelius. A catalyst is a
Conversion of starch into maltose Diastase enzyme
substance which alters the rate of reaction without being
consumed in it and the phenomenon is known as catalysis. Formation of vinegar from cane sugar Mycoderma aceti
Conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose Invertase enzyme
General Characteristics of Catalysts Conversion of milk into curd Lactase (lactobacilli)
• A catalyst remains unchanged in mass and chemical Ostwald’s process for the manufacture of nitric acid Platinum (Pt)
(HNO 3)
composition during a reaction.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 645

COLLOIDS Types of Emulsions

There are two types of emulsions
In a colloid, the size of solute particles is bigger than
that of true solution but smaller than that of • Oil in water type e.g. milk in which tiny droplets of liquid fat
suspension, i.e. lies in between 1 to 100 nm. A are dispersed in water.
colloidal solution is a heterogeneous system in which • Water in oil type e.g. stiff greases, in which water being
one substance is dispersed as very fine particles in dispersed in lubricating oil.
another substance, called dispersion medium.
Emulsifying Agents
Properties of Colloidal During the preparation of emulsion, a small amount of some
Solutions substances such as soap, gum, agar and protein etc are added to
stabilise the emulsion. These substances are known as emulsifying
The important properties of the colloidal solutions agents.
are given below • Gel is a colloidal system in which dispersed phase is liquid and
Brownian Movement The rapid zig-zag movement dispersion medium is solid. e.g. butter, cheese. When a gel is
executed by colloidal particle is termed as Brownian allowed to stand for some time, it loses the dispersed phase
movement. (liquid), this phenomenon is called syneresis or weeping of the
Tyndall Effect When a strong and converging beam gel.
of light is passed through a colloidal solution, its • Fog, clouds, mist are the colloidal systems of liquid in gas.
path becomes visible due to scattering of light by • Smoke is a colloidal systems of carbon (solid) in air (gas).
particles. It is called Tyndall effect. Blue appearance
• Foams are the colloidal systems in which a gas is dispersed in
of sea water is an example of Tyndall effect.
liquid. e.g. alcohol, castor oil, shaving cream etc.
Electrophoresis The phenomenon involving the
• Digestion of fats in intestine is aided by emulsification.
migration of colloidal particles under the influence
of electric field towards the oppositely charged • Coagulation is the process of precipitation of colloid when it is
electrode, is called electrophoresis. shaked with some electrolyte. Its applications are
1. Purification of muddy water by alum.
➨ Colloidal solutions are purified by dialysis.
2. Ferric chloride and alum are applied on wound to stop
bleeding.
Emulsions ➨ Note
These are the colloidal solutions of two immiscible 1. Blue colour of sky is due to the scattering of light by dust particles
liquids in which the liquids act as the dispersed present in air.
phase as well as the dispersion medium. 2. The order of energy is 1 calorie > 1 joule > 1 erg.
3. Milk is a natural emulsion while paint is an artificial emulsion.

ELECTROCHEMISTRY
It is the branch of chemistry which deals with Electrochemical Cell
inter-conversion of chemical energies and electrical It is a device, that produces an electric current from energy
energies. It can be converted into electrical energy by released by a spontaneous redox reaction (in short, which
means of an electrochemical cell (electrolysis). converts chemical energy into electrical energy).
Important Terms This kind of cell includes the galvanic cell or voltaic cell. It
has two conductive electrodes, i.e. anode or negative electrode
• Chemical changes involving production or
(at which oxidation occurs) and cathode or positive electrode
consumption of electricity are called electrochemical (at which reduction occurs). Electrolyte is filled in between
changes. the electrodes and contains freely moving ions.
• The substance, which allow the electricity to pass
through them are called electrolytes. e.g. common
salt (NaCl), water (H 2 O) etc. BATTERY
• The substance which do not allow the electricity to An arrangement of one or more cells connected in a series, is
pass through them are called non-electrolytes. e.g. called a battery. It is basically a galvanic cell.
sugar, wax, naphthalene etc. Batteries are of two types :
• A number of metals such as Na, Mg, Ca and Al and a
1. Primary Batteries (non-rechargeable) These batteries act
number of chemicals such as NaOH, Cl 2 , Fe etc. are as galvanic cell and used only once. e.g. dry cell,
commercially produced by electrochemical methods. mercury cell etc.
646 CDS Pathfinder

2. Secondary Batteries (rechargeable) These act as galvanic

as well as electrolytic cell and can be reused. e.g. lead
ELECTROLYSIS
storage battery, nickel-cadmium battery. The process, in which a non-spontaneous reaction is
Some Important Batteries carried out by using electrical energy is called electrolysis
and the instrument or container, in which the process of
Battery Anode Cathode Electrolyte Used in electrolysis is done, is called electrolytic cell.
Leclanche Zinc Carbon Paste of ammonium Transistors,
cell (Dry (Graphite) rod chloride (NH 4 Cl) clocks
Electrolysis of brine (the water saturated or nearly
cell) and zinc chloride saturated with salt, usually sodium chloride) gives
(ZnCl 2) hydrogen and chlorine. The products are gaseous.
Mercury cell Zinc-
mercury
Paste of HgO
and C
Paste of KOH
and ZnO
Hearing aids
watches and
NaCl → Na + + Cl −
amalgam camera H 2 O → H + + OH −
Lead Lead Lead packed 38% solution of Automobiles,
storage cell with lead sulphuric acid invertors At anode 2Cl − Oxidation
 → Cl 2 + 2e −
dioxide
Nickel Cadmium Nickel OH Torchlights,
At cathode 2H + + 2e − Reduction
 → H 2
Cadmium Dioxide Solution Electric
cell Shavers Na + + OH – → NaOH
Net reaction
NaCl + 2H 2O → 2NaOH + H 2 + Cl 2
FUEL CELLS K
+ –
These are galvanic cells, which use energy of combustion of +
–
–
fuels like hydrogen (H 2 ), methane (CH 4 ) , methanol
(CH 3 OH) etc., as the source to produce electrical energy. e.g. Cathode or
Anode or
hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell. This cell was used for the first positive
negative
electrode
time in Apollo space programme. The byproduct of this cell, electrode +
+ +
i.e. water vapours, were condensed and used by the astronauts +
for drinking.
Advantages associated with fuel cell are Electrolytic cell
• Fuel cells are more efficient than conventional power ➨ Note During electrolysis, electrolytes get decomposed at the
stations or batteries etc. electrodes.
• With a fuel cell there are fewer stages in producing the
Electrolysis is used in the following ways :
useful energy, so there is less opportunity to lose
potentially useful energy, e.g. waste heat, friction from • In the production of oxygen for spacecraft and
moving parts etc. nuclear submarines.
• In layering metals to fortify them.
• A hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is a non-polluting clean fuel
since, the only combustion product is water. • In production of hydrogen for fuel.
• In electrolytic etching of metal surfaces like tools or
Disadvantages associated with fuel cell are
knives with a permanent mark or logo.
• Fuel cells cannot be used for large scale energy production,
• In electroplating, electrorefining, electroprinting,
so conventional fossil fuels or nuclear power stations still electro-metallurgy and industrial preparation.
have an important future.
• Hydrogen is a gas and requires a much larger storage volume
as compared to fossil fuels like petrol. FARADAY’S LAWS OF
• Safe storage is also an issue, especially as it would be stored ELECTROLYSIS
under high pressure to decrease the storage space required.
This immediately makes leaks and, accidents more likely to First Law of Electrolysis
happen because hydrogen is a highly flammable explosive It states that “The amount of electricity (or charge)
gas, too easily ignited. required for oxidation or reduction depends upon
• Efficient large scale technology is not yet developed to stoichiometry of the electrode reaction.”
produce hydrogen on large scale, e.g. from electrolysis w ∝Q , w = ZQ = Zit
using solar power electricity, photovoltaic power system,
wind turbines or hydroelectric power. Q Charge (Q) = Current (i) × time (t)
• Although water is cheap and plentiful, it requires expensive 1 Faraday = 96500 C mol −1
electrical energy to electrolyse water to split it into
hydrogen and oxygen.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 647

Second Law of Electrolysis e.g. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl 2 + H 2

It states that the masses of the resulting separated elements The metals placed above are good reducing agent and
are directly proportional to the atomic masses of the reduces the metal oxides of the metal placed below them.
elements, when an appropriate integral divisor is applied.
W ∝E or
W1 E1
=
CORROSION
W2 E2 It is the process of oxidative deterioration of a metal
surface by the action of environment to form unwanted
Electrochemical Series corrosive products. e.g. conversion of iron into rust
When metals are arranged in the (Fe 2O 3 ⋅ xH 2O). Corrosion of iron is called rusting.
K Tarnishing of silver (due to the formation of Ag 2 S),
increasing order of their Ca Highly reactive
standard reduction electrode Na metals never development of green coating [of Cu (OH)2 ⋅ CuCO 3 (basic
potential, a series is obtained, Mg found in free state copper carbonate)] on copper and bronze. It is basically an
Metals Al
which is called electrochemical above Zn electrochemical process.
series. It is also called hydrogen Cr
Moderately It is accelerated by the presence of impurities, H + , electrolytes
Fe
reactivity series (as reactivity Ni reactive such as NaCl and gases such as CO 2 , SO 2 , NO, NO 2 etc.
follows the reverse order). Sn metals
Lower is the value of reduction Pb
H
Prevention of Corrosion
potential, greater would be its Cu Less reactive • By coating with a suitable material (barrier protection
reducing power. Metals Hg
below Ag
metals viz paint, grease, metals (like Zn, Cu, Ni, Cr, Sn),
Depending upon the reactivity, hydrogen Pd adherent film of iron phosphate, adherent coating of
Least reactive
the occurrence of metals in the Pt
magnetic oxide (Fe 3O 4 ).
Au metals (found
reactivity series may be in the free state)
represented as shown in the • By alloying with suitable metals.
figure. • By cathodic protection–the metal is made cathode by
Thus, gold is the least reactive metal and hence, found in application of external circuit.
native state. The more reactive metals of the series can • By using artificial anode (sacrificial protection), more
displace the less reactive metals from their salt solutions. anodic metal (like Zn, Mg, Al etc.,) is connected to iron
e.g. Cu + FeSO 4 → No reaction article by a wire. In such cases, current flows
towards more reactive metal and prevents iron from
but Fe + CuSO 4 → FeSO 4 + Cu corrosion.
Moreover, metal placed before H can evolve H 2 from • By galvanisation (covering of iron article with zinc).
dilute acids.

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS Atomic and ionic size, electron affinity, ionisation
• In 1896, Mendeleev gave a periodic law. According to potential, electronegativity, electropositive character,
which ‘‘the properties of elements are the periodic acidic or basic character, metallic nature, etc., are some
function of their atomic masses’’. important periodic properties.
There were seven periods (horizontal rows) and eight
•
groups (vertical columns) in the periodic table of
Characteristics of Periods
Mendeleev having 63 known elements at that time. • The number of valence electrons in elements increases
• Moseley modified Mendeleev’s periodic law and from 1 to 8 on moving from left to right in a period.
proposed modern periodic law. According to modern • The elements in a period have consecutive atomic
periodic law, ‘‘the properties of elements are periodic numbers.
function of their atomic numbers.’’ • The valency of the element increases from 1 to 4 and
• There are eighteen vertical columns, known as groups then decreases to 0 (zero) on moving from left to right
in a period, with respect to hydrogen.
and seven horizontal rows, known as periods, in the
long form of periodic table. • Atomic size, electropositive character, metallic character,
reducing nature of elements and basic nature of oxides
• Periodic Properties The properties which are repeated
all decrease from left to right in a period.
at regular intervals are known as periodic properties.
648 CDS Pathfinder

• Electronegative nature, non-metallic nature, acidic nature of Removal of Hardness of Water

oxides, ionisation potential increases from left to right in a
• Temporary hardness is removed by boiling or by
period. In a period, electronegativity and electron affinity
adding lime water (Clark’s process).
also increases from left to right.
• Permanent hardness is removed by adding sodium
Characteristics of Groups carbonate (washing soda,Na 2 CO 3 ) or calgon (sodium
hexa metaphosphate, Na 6 P6O18 or zeolite which is also
• All the elements of a group of the periodic table have the called permutit (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate,
same number of valence electrons and hence, have almost Na 2 Al 2 Si 2 O8 ⋅ xH 2 O).
similar chemical properties. • From sea water, pure water is obtained by a process,
• Atomic radius, electropositive nature, metallic nature, called reverse osmosis, i.e. by applying pressure higher
reducing nature of elements and the basic nature of oxides than the osmotic pressure towards the solution side.
increase from top to bottom in a group. This process is also called desalination of sea water.
• Electronegative nature, ionisation potential, electron affinity, • Boiling, chlorination and treatment with UV irradiation all
electronegativity, non-metallic nature and acidic nature of kill the microorganisms present in water.
oxides decrease down a group with increasing atomic
number. Heavy Water
• Heavy water (D 2 O, molecular weight = 20) is the
HYDROGEN oxide of heavy hydrogen. It is used as a moderator in
• Hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table with nuclear reactors.
atomic number 1 and mass number 1. • In hydrogen peroxide (H 2 O 2 ) oxygen is in
• Hydrogen has three isotopes-protium or ordinary
−1 oxidation state, which is the intermediate oxidation
state of oxygen. H 2O 2 behaves as an oxidising,
hydrogen ( 1 H 1 ) , deuterium or heavy hydrogen ( 1 H 2 or reducing and bleaching agent.
2 3 3
1 D ), tritium ( 1 H or 1 T ). Tritium is the radioactive • Lead painting becomes blacken in air due to the
isotope of hydrogen. formation of PbS by the action of H 2 S present in air,
• Hydrogen is a non-supporter of combustion and burns H 2 O 2 is used to wash it. H 2 O 2 oxidises PbS to
with ‘pop’ sound. It is an inflammable gas. PbSO 4 .

Compounds of Hydrogen Aquifers

Water is one of the most important compound of hydrogen. An aquifer is an underground layer of water bearing
permeable rock, i.e. they have opening through which
Water only liquids and gases can pass.
• Water is the neutral oxide of hydrogen. Pure water freezes Clay layers although are poor aquifers. This is because
at 0 ° C and boils at 100° C. This abnormal high boiling clay minerals are dense impermeable materials. They act
point is due to the association of H 2 O molecules through as aquiferal, i.e. a layer of material that is almost
hydrogen bonding. impenetrable to water.
• Water is a polar compound (dipole moment 1.85 D) and
possesses a high dielectric constant, i.e. 81. Its presence is Metallurgy
tested by using anhydrous copper sulphate which turns It is the process of extraction of metals from their ores is
blue in the presence of water. called metallurgy.
• Water is a universal solvent because of its tendency to
form H-bond and polar nature. Terminology Related with Metallurgy
• Water has very high specific heat and thus, widely used as • Metals occur in the form of minerals in nature.
a coolant. • Gangue or matrix are the impurities associated with
• Water which form lather with soap is called soft and ore.
which does not form lather is called hard water as the • Roasting is the process of heating ore (mainly sulphide
ions present in it form scum (precipitate) with the soap. ore) in the excess of air whereas calcination is heating
the ore (carbonate or hydroxide ore) in the absence or
Hardness of Water limited supply of air.
• Hardness of water may be due to the presence of • Flux is added to gangue to convert it into slag.
bicarbonates of calcium or magnesium (temporary • Ores are the minerals from which metal is extracted
hardness) or due to the presence of chlorides or sulphates conveniently and beneficially.
of Ca or Mg (permanent hardness).
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 649

Some Important Ores and their Uses Alloys Composition Important uses
Brass Copper, zinc Utensils, condenser, tubes,
Metal Ores/minerals Chemical composition cartridge caps, etc.
Sodium Rock salt NaCl Aluminium Copper and aluminium Coins, picture, cheap jewellery,
Chile salt petre NaNO 3 bronze flames
Borax, tincal Na 2B 4O 7 ⋅ 10H2O
German silver Copper, zinc, nickel Utensils, resistance wires
or suhaga carnallite
Constantan Copper, nickel Electrical apparatus
Magnesium Magnesite KCl, MgCl 2, 6 H2O, MgCO 3 Dental alloy Silver, mercury, tin, zinc For filling teeth
Asbestos CaSiO 3 ⋅ 3MgSiO 3
Stainless steel Iron, chromium. nickel Utensils, bicycle parts, etc.
Carnallite KCl ⋅ MgCl 2 ⋅ 6H 2O
Magnalium Magnesium and aluminium Automobile and aeroplane
Calcium Lime stone CaCO 3 parts
Gypsum CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H 2O
Nichrome Nickel, iron, chromium, In making coils of heater
Fluorspar CaF 2 manganese
Aluminium Bauxite Al 2O 3 ⋅2H2O Misch metal Cerium, lanthanum, In making cigarette lighters
Cryolite Na 3AIF 6 neodymium, praseodymium
Feldspar KAISi 3O 8 and other lanthanoids
Mica KAISi 2O10(OH) 2
Granite SiO2 and Al2O3 (73 : 14) Elements of IA Group (Alkali Metals)
Iron Haematite Fe 2 O 3 • Lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium and caesium are
Magnetite Fe 3O 4
Iron pyrites FeS 2
alkali metals and are s-block elements.
Siderite FeCO 3 • These metals are soft and can be cut with knife.
Copper Copper glance Cu 2S • Lithium is the lightest metal.
Copper pyrites CuFeS 2 • Alkali metals are stored under kerosene or paraffins to
Malachite Cu(OH) 2⋅CuCO 3 protect them from the action of air.
Azurite 2CuCO 3⋅ Cu(OH) 2
• Lithium shows diagonal relationship with magnesium.
Silver Silver glance Ag 2S
Horn silver AgCl • In Castner’s process, metallic sodium is prepared by
Ruby silver Ag 2S ⋅ Sb 2S 3 electrolysis of molten NaOH.
• Sodium is used in yellow light lamps.
Gold Sylvanite AuAgTe 4
• Sodium chloride (NaCl) or common salt or table salt is used
Zinc Zinc blende ZnS
Calamine ZnCO 3
in our daily diet, as a preservative for pickles, meat and fish.
Zincite ZnO It is also used in the manufacture of NaOH, Cl 2 gas and soap.
Mercury Cinnabar HgS
• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or caustic soda is used in the
soap, dyes and artificial silk industries and in the refining
Tin Cassiterite SnO 2
of bauxite mineral.
Lead Galena PbS
• Sodium bicarbonate is used in the kitchen for making food
Cerrusite PbCO 3
Anglesite PbSO 4
tasty and crispy.
– Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate or
Potassium Nitre KNO 3
baking soda) is used for making baking powder, which is
Sylvine KCl
a mixture of baking soda and a mild edible acid such as
tartaric acid.
Alloy – It is also an ingredient of antacids. Being alkaline, it
• An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more neutralises excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.
metals or a metal and a non-metal : – It is also used in soda acid fire extinguishers.

Some Important Alloys and their Uses • Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na 2 CO 3⋅10 H 2 O) or
Alloys Composition Important uses washing soda is used in the manufacture of glass, soap,
Solder Tin and lead Soldering
washing powder and for softening hard water.
Bronze Copper and tin Making utensils, statues, • Sodium sulphate (Na 2 SO 4⋅10H 2 O) is Glauber’s salt. It is
coins, etc. used as purgative.
Type metal Tin, lead and antimony Used in printing • Sodium thiosulphate (Na 2 S 2 O 3 ⋅5H 2 O) is also known as
Bell metal Copper, tin Making bells hypo. It is used in photography as a fixing agent because it
Gun metal Copper, tin and zinc Gears and bearing removes the undecomposed AgBr as soluble silver
thiosulphate salt.
650 CDS Pathfinder

• Gypsum is used in the preparation of building’s plaster

Elements of IB Group and anhydrous, CaSO 4 .
• 29 Cu, 47 Ag, 79 Au are the elements of I B group.
• Anhydrous CaSO 4 is a dehydrating agent and is used for
These elements are called coinage or currency metals. the manufacture of ammonium sulphate (Sindri fertiliser)
Their important properties are as follow: and sulphuric acid.
– They are d-block, transition elements.
• Plaster of Paris is a white powder, which sets into hard
– These are very hard, malleable and ductile metals.
mass called gypsum on hydration with water, so it is used
– They have high density and high melting and boiling in making casting for statues, toys, for plastering
points. fractured bones, etc.
• CuSO 4 is used as a mordant in dyeing. Copper • Cement has the following composition: Calcium oxide
sulphate pentahydrate is blue in colour and is called (CaO, 50-60%), alumina (Al 2 O3 , 5-10%) and magnesium
blue vitriol. CuSO4 is used to test the presence of water. oxide (MgO, 2-3%). Raw materials used for its
• Copper is alloyed with gold and silver for making preparation are limestone and clay. When cement mixed
ornaments. with water, the setting of cement takes place to give a
• AgNO3 is called lunar caustic. It is stored in dark hard mass.
brown bottles because it is photosensitive. This is due to the hydration of the molecules of the
constituents and their rearrangement.
• Au, Ag, Pt, etc., metals which remain unaffected by the
action of other strong acids dissolve in aqua-regia • Adding gypsum is only to slow down the process of
(which is a mixture of HCl and HNO 3 in 3 : 1). setting time of the cement.
• Portland cement is a mixture of silicates and aluminates of
Elements of IIA Group calcium with small amount of gypsum. The chemical
composition of portland are CaO,SiO2 ,Al 2 O3 ,
(Alkaline Earth Metals) SO3 MgO,Fe2 O3 , silica SiO2 imparts strength to the cement
• II A subgroup elements are Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba and Ra. due to the formation of dicalcium and tricalcium silicates.
They are called alkaline earth metals and are s-block • Alumina (Al 2 O3 ) imparts quick setting property to the
elements. cement. It acts as a flux and lowers the clinkering
• Calcium of this family is most abundant element in the temperature.
earth’s crust while magnesium is present in chlorophyll,
the green pigment of the leaf. Elements of IIB Group
• Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. • Zinc ( 30 Zn), cadmium ( 48 Cd) and mercury (80 Hg) are the
three elements present in II B subgroup. These are
• Mg(OH) 2 is called milk of magnesia. Being a mild
d-block elements.
base, it is used as an antacid to neutralise the excess • Their properties are as follow:
acid present in the stomach. – Zinc is used in making alloys like brass, bronze,
• MgSO 4 is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning German silver, etc.
industry. It is also used as a purgative. – Zinc is deposited on the surface of iron articles by the
• Calcium oxide (CaO), also called quicklime, gives process called galvanisation.
hissing sound when dissolved in water. It is used in the – Mercury, Hg is a liquid at room temperature and is
manufacture of glass, calcium chloride, cement, mortar, filled in CFL lamps.
bleaching powder, calcium carbide, slaked lime, etc. It – Mercurous chloride or calomel(Hg 2Cl 2 ) is used for
is also used in the extraction of iron and as a drying making calomel electrode which is a reference electrode.
agent for ammonia and alcohol.
• Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) [Ca(OH) 2 ], is used in Elements of III A Group (Boron Family)
the manufacturing of bleaching powder, caustic soda • Elements are 5 B, 13 Al, 31 Ga, 49 In and 81 TI.
and soda lime and for softening of hard water. • Boron is a semi-metal. Rest of elements are metals.
• When CaCO 3 is dipped in water, the bubbles evolve • Aluminium is the most abundant metal (and third most
due to the evolution of carbon dioxide. adundant element) in the earth’s crust.
• Calcium sulphate is gypsum (CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H 2 O). It loses a • Boron halides are Lewis acids. The order of acidity is BBr 3 >
 2 BCl 3 > BF 3 .
  rd part of its water of crystallisation when heated at
 3 • Being lighter, all alloys are used in making aeroplanes.
120°C to form (CaSO 4 ) 2 ⋅ H 2 O which is known as • Aluminium sulphate is used as a mordant in dyeing.
Plaster of Paris.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 651

Elements of IVA Group (Carbon Family) Carbon Dioxide (CO 2 )

• Air contains CO 2 to an extent of 0.03%-0.05% by
• The IVA group consists of elements C, Si, Ge, Sn, Pb.
the volume. CO 2 is an acidic oxide of carbon.
• All are p-block elements.
• Solid CO 2 is technically known as dry ice (dricold).
• The stability and volatility of tetrahalide of carbon decrease
• It produces very low temperature (− 100°C) with
with increasing molecular weight of the tetrahalide
ether, hence gives an excellent freezing mixture.
e.g. CF 4 > CCl 4 > CBr 4 > CI 4 .
• It is a non-supporter of combustion so generally used
Carbon as fire extinguisher.
This is the element which forms highest number of • When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it
compounds (except hydrogen) due to its catenation power turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate
(tendency of self linking) and tetravalency. It has two (which is milky white in colour). However, in excess
crystalline allotropes : Diamond and graphite. of the gas, the precipitate dissolves because of the
formation of soluble calcium bicarbonate.
Diamond CO 2 + Ca (OH )2 → CaCO 3 + H 2O
• It is the purest form of carbon and has rigid three Lime water White
dimensional network structure in which each carbon CaCO 3 + CO 2 + H 2O → Ca(HCO 3 )2
atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in tetrahedral Excess Soluble
fashion. • Carbon dioxide is the product of calcination and
• It is hardest substance and is a bad conductor of respiration processes.
electricity.
• It is used in making jewellery. Silicon
• It is used as an abbrasive for sharpening hard tools, i.e. in • It is the second most abundant element in the earth’s
making rock drilling machines , glass cutting etc. crust.
• Crystalline form of SiO 2 (silica) is quartz. SiO 2 is the
Graphite major component of glass and is soluble in HF. That’s
• It has layered two dimensional hexagonal structure. why HF cannot be stored in glass bottles.
• Large amounts of graphite are prepared artificially by
Glass
Acheson process.
Glass is an amorphous and transparent solid, obtained
• Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
by solidification of various silicates and borates.
• It is used as dry lubricant and in nuclear reactor as a
• Various varieties of glass are : Coloured glass, hard
moderator. glass, high refractive index glass, pyrex glass, Crook’s
➨ Note Fullerenes form another class of carbon allotropes. The first one glass.
to be identified was C-60 which has carbon atoms arranged in the Types of Glasses and their Uses
shape of football.
Types of Glasses Uses
Coal and Charcoal Soft glass Window panes, bottles, test tubes, etc.
• Coal is the amorphous variety of carbon. It is used as fuel.
Hard glass Combustion tubes, etc.
Coals are of following types :
Crook’s glass Absorbs UV rays, used for making lenses
(a) Peat (60% carbon).
Pyrex glass Cooking utensils
(b) Lignite or brown coal (70% carbon).
High refractive index glass Lenses, cut glasses
(c) Bituminous (78-83% carbon). It is the most
common variety. Glass laminates Bullet proof materials
(d) Anthracite (90% carbon). • Coloured glass can be obtained by adding following
• Charcoal can be animal charcoal, wood charcoal, sugar compounds.
charcoal and activated charcoal.
Compound added Colour imparted
• It is used in the manufacture of fuel gases like-water gas,
Cobalt oxide Blue
producer gas and semi-water gas.
Cuprous oxide Red
• Water gas (CO + H 2 ), semiwater gas (water gas +
producer gas), producer gas (N 2 + CO) are obtained Cadmium sulphide Lemon yellow
from CO. Chromium oxide Green
• Charcoal (animal charcoal) is used as a fuel and also as a Auric chloride Ruby
deodorant in the purification of water, decolourising sugar Manganese dioxide Purple
solution and in gas masks.
652 CDS Pathfinder

Glass Wool • Order of reactivity of halogens, F 2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 .

It is an insulating material, obtained from fibre glass • Order of electronegativity, F > Cl > Br > I.
arranged into a texture similar to wood. It is produced or • Order of acidic strength, HI > HBr > HCl > HF.
rolled in slabs with different thermal and mechanical
• Iodine is a powerful antiseptic and used as a tincture
properties.
of iodine (a solution of iodine in alcohol).
Elements of VA Group Elements of VIIIth Group
• Elements present in this group are 7 N, 15 P, 33 As, 51 Sb and
• Elements present in this group are 26 Fe, 27 Co, 28 Ni
83 Bi.
• Phosphorus is the most abundant element of this family in
(Ferrous metals)
the earth’s crust. 44 Ru, 45 Rh, 46 Pd (Light platinum metals)

• Nitrogen is an essential component of explosives. It is 76 Os, 77 Ir, 78 Pt (High platinum metals)

generally filled in chips packets or electric bulbs to • All of these are d-block elements. Pig iron is obtained
increase their life because of its inert nature. from blast furnace. It is most impure form of iron. It
• Ammonia NH 3 is an alkaline gas, extremely soluble in is very hard, but brittle. It cannot be welded. It
water and is dried over quicklime. contains maximum amount of carbon (2.5% to 4.3%).
• Oxides of nitrogen when dissolve in water give oxyacids, • Wrought iron is the purest form of iron. It contains
e.g. NO 2 when dissolves in water, gives HNO 3 (nitric acid). 0.1 to 0.25% carbon. Wrought iron is soft, ductile and
malleable, so it can be welded.
• Nitric acid is a strong acid and used in the synthesis of
fertilisers and explosives.
• Steel is the most important form of iron. It contains
0.2 to 1.5% carbon.
• Red phosphorus is largely used in match industry and in
the manufacture of phosphor bronze-an alloy of Cu, Sn
• Iron is present in haemoglobin (blood) and its
and P. oxidation state in haemoglobin is +2.
• Fe 2 O 3 is called jeweller's rough.
• The ignition temperature (543K) is much higher than that
of white phosphorus (303K). Hence, it does not catch fire • Vitamin B12 is also called cobalamine and contains
easily. CO 3+ ion. Its deficiency in diet causes pernicious anaemia.

Elements of VIA Group Elements of Zero Group

• Elements present in this group are 2 He, 10 Ne, 18 Ar,
(Oxygen Family-Chalcogens)
36 Kr, 54 Xe and 86 Rn which are called nobel or inert
• Elements in this group are 8 O, 16 S, 34 Se, 52 Te and 84 Po. gases.
• Most abundant element of the family is oxygen.
• Argon is the most abundant inert gas in air.
• Common oxidation state of oxygen is (− 2). In gaseous
• Helium was discovered by Frankland and Lockyer.
form oxygen is a supporter of combustion.
He-III is abundant on the lunar surface and holds the
• Oil of vitriol or king of chemicals is H 2 SO 4 . potential to put an end to the energy crisis of the
• Sulphuric acid (H 2 SO 4 ) is a dibasic acid and is a earth.
dehydrating agent. It is used in making explosives. • Argon was discovered by Rayleigh and Ramsay.
• Ozone (O 3 ) is an allotrope of oxygen. It is diamagnetic • Ne, Kr and Xe were discovered by Ramsay and Traverse.
gas. • Radon was discovered by Dorn and is not present in air.
• SO 2 is a bleaching agent. Its bleaching action is due to • All of these elements are colourless monoatomic gases.
reduction and is temporary. • Their electronegativity and electron affinity are zero.
• Oxides of sulphur causes acid rain in the atmosphere.
Gas Uses
Elements of VIIth Group (Halogens) Helium With oxygen for respiration in case of
deep seadives, filling balloons and in
• Elements present in this group are 9 F, 17 Cl, 35 Br, 53 I and low temperature applications.
85 At. Out of these, bromine (Br2 ) exists in liquid state and Neon In advertising signs.
iodine (I2 ) in solid state.
Argon Light bulbs
• Fluorine ‘F’ has maximum electronegativity.
• Chlorine is prepared by oxidation of HCl with Krypton/Xenon Photographic flash, TV tubes

MnO 2 , KMnO 4 , K 2 Cr 2 O 7 etc.

• Chlorine has maximum electron affinity in the halogens.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 653

Some Important Compounds

Common name Chemical name Formula Uses
Aqua-fortis Nitric acid HNO 3 It is used especially in the production of fertilisers and explosives and rocket fuels.
Aqua-regia Nitric acid + Conc. HNO 3 + conc. HCl It is used for testing metals and dissolving platinum and gold.
hydrochloric acid (in 1 : 3 ratio)
Baking soda Sodium bicarbonate NaHCO 3 It is sodium bicarbonate that is added to baked goods to make them rise.
Brine Sodium chloride NaCl solution The electrolysis of brine is a large-scale process used to manufacture chlorine from
solution salt.
Blue vitriol Copper sulphate CuSO 4⋅ 5H 2O It is used as antiseptic agent, dyes, treatment of copper deficiency etc.
Bone ash Calcium phosphate Ca 3(PO 4 )2 Bone ash can be used alone as an organic fertiliser. It can be treated with sulphuric
acid to form a ‘‘single superphosphetic’’ fertiliser which is more water soluble.
Bleaching powder Calcium oxy-chloride CaOCl 2 It is used as disinfectant and germicide in the sterilization of drinking water.
Caustic soda Sodium hydroxide NaOH It is used as a cleansing agent and in the manufacturing of washing soda.
Chile salt petre Sodium nitrate NaNO 3 It is used in solid propellants, explosives, fertilizers etc.
Dry ice Solid carbon dioxide CO 2 It is the solid form of CO 2. It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
Epsom salt Heptahydrate MgSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O This is used as an antacid or as a mineral supplement to maintain the body's
magnesium sulphate magnesium balance and laxative.
Foul air Nitrogen N2 It is used in food processing, in purging air conditioning and refrigeration.
Grain alcohol Ethyl alcohol C 2H5OH It is used as a solvent, in the synthesis of other organic chemicals. as an additive to
automotive gasoline,
Grape sugar Dextrose C 6H12O 6 Dextrose is a type of sugar better known today as glucose. It is used for treatment of
hypoglycemia.
Gypsum Calcium sulphate CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H2O It is widely used as fertilizer and the main constituent in many forms of plaster,
dihydrate blackboard chalk and wallboard.
Green vitriol Ferrous sulphate FeSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O It is also used in medicine to treat iron deficiency.
heptahydrate
Gammexane Benzene C 6H6Cl 6 It is also known as lindane. It is used as an agricultural inseticide and as
hexachloride (BHC) pharmaceutical treatment for lice and scabies.
Heavy water Deuterium oxide D 2O It is used in certain types of nuclear reactors. It acts as a neutron moderator to slow
down neutrons.
Halite or table salt Sodium chloride NaCl It is commonly used as a condiment and food preservative.
Lime stone (pearl) Calcium carbonate CaCO 3 It is a chemical or biolozical sedimentary rock that has many uses in agriculture and
industry.
Laughing gas Nitrous oxide N 2O This gas used as anaesthetic, as a propellant in whipped cream cans and as an
oxidizing agent in racing cars.
Milk of magnesia Magnesium Mg(OH) 2 It is used as a laxative to relieve occasional constipation and as an antacid to relieve
hydroxide indigestion.
Milk of lime Calcium hydroxide Ca(OH) 2 It is used as lubricant carrier in wire drawing.
(slaked lime)
Oil of vitriol Sulphuric acid H 2SO 4 It uses in the production of fertilizers, manufacture of chemicals in petrolium refining etc.
Plaster of Paris Calcium sulphate 1 It is used for casts to hold broken limbs in place, modeling casts, sculptures and in
CaSO 4 ⋅ H 2O
hemihydrate 2 plasterboard walls and ceilings etc.
Phosgene Carbonyl chloride COCl 2 It is a major industrial chemical used to make chemicals and pesticides.
Paris green Double salt Cu(AsO 2 )2 ⋅ Cu(C 2H3O 2 )2 It is used as a pigment and insecticide. It is used as preservative also.
Pearl white Bismuthoxychloride BiOCl It is used as a yellow pigment for cosmetics and paints.
Quartz or sand Silicon dioxide SiO 2 Common uses of silica (quartz) is the manufacture of glass.
Quick silver Mercury Hg It is the chemical element of mercury. It is used in batteries, fluorescent lights,
thermometers etc.
Quicklime Calcium oxide CaO It is used in the petroleum industry as an alkali in biodiesel production.
Red lead Lead tetraoxide Pb 3O 4 It is used in the manufacture of batteries, lead glass and rust-proof primer paints.
Stranger gas Xenon Xe Xenon is used in photographic flash lamps, stroboscopic lamps, bactericidal lamps,
high intensive arc lamps for motion picture protection etc.
Spirit of salt Hydrochloric acid HCl An old fashioned name for hydrochloric acid. It is used in production of batteries.
photoflash bulbs and fireworks etc.
Soda ash Sodium carbonate Na 2CO 3 It is used in the manufacturing of glass, detergents, chemicals and other industrial
products.
654 CDS Pathfinder

Common name Chemical name Formula Uses

Salt cake Sodium sulphate Na 2SO 4 It used in the manufacture of glass, ceramic glazes, soaps and sodium salts.
Tear gas Chloropicrin CCl 3NO 2 (or chloro It is used as a riot control agent.
compounds or NH 3)
Vinegar Acetic acid CH 3COOH It is mainly used as cooking ingredient or in pickling.
Washing soda Sodium carbonate Na 2CO 3 ⋅ 10 H 2O (i) It is used in manufacturing of glass borax, paper etc. (ii) To remove parmanent
decahydrate hardness of water.
Water glass Sodium silicate Na 2SiO 3. It is used as coagulant/deflocculant agent in wastewater treatment places.
White vitriol Zinc sulphate ZnSO 4 ⋅ 7 H 2O It is used for preserving skins and wood, in the electro deposition of zinc etc.

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
ORGANIC COMPOUNDS – First member is C 2 H 4 , (CH 2 == CH 2 ) known as
• Chemistry of hydrocarbons and their derivatives are called ethylene or ethene.
organic compounds which deal with an organic chemistry. – Ethene is used in the manufacture of plastics, for
• Urea (NH 2 CONH 2 ) was the first organic compound artificial ripening of fruits (banana, apple and
orange), as an anaesthesia etc.
prepared in laboratory. It was prepared by Wohler.
• Acetic acid (CH 3 COOH) was the first organic compound (ii ) Alkynes or Acetylenes (—C ≡≡ C—)
synthesised from its elements by Kolbe. – General formula Cn H 2 n − 2
• Main sources of organic compounds are plants, animals, Type formula R—C ≡≡ C—H
coal and petroleum.
– Common name Acetylene, IUPAC name
Alkynes.
HYDROCARBONS – Acetylene (C 2 H 2 ) is the first member of the
Hydrocarbons are the compounds made up of carbon and series.
hydrogen only. These are of two types: – It is used in oxyacetylene torch and for welding
in acetylene lamps.
1.Saturated Hydrocarbons or Paraffins or – Alkynes can be distinguished from alkenes by
Alkanes (Contain C—C Bond) the reaction with Tollen’s reagent (ammoniacal
silver nitrate).
• General formula C n H 2 n + 2 where, n = 1, 2, 3, ...
• All the carbon atoms in alkanes are sp 3 -hybridised. They Aromatic Hydrocarbons
show chain isomerism. • General formula C nH 2 n − 6
• Methane, CH 4 is the first and least reactive member of the
• Common name Arenes
series. Its source is wet and marshy land. It is also present
in the air exhaled by animals whose food contains cellulose. • Most of these compounds contain benzene ring. e.g.
• Cavities in coal contains 90% methane. It is called benzene, toluene, naphthalene, etc.
fire-damp. It is responsible for the explosions occurring in • Benzene (C 6 H 6 ) was first synthesised by Berthelot. It
coal mines. is used in the production of various organic
• It is used as a gaseous fuel, for preparing carbon black and compounds, as a solvent and fuel in motor vehicle
in the preparation of variety of organic compounds. when mixed with petrol, etc.

2. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons Hydrocarbon Derivatives

Contains C C or C C Bond 1. Haloalkanes



These further are of two types : • General formula C n H 2 n + 1⋅ X (where, X = Cl, Br, I)
Type formula These are of three types:
(i ) Alkenes or Olefins C C




Primary alkyl halide, R—CH 2 —X

– General formula CnH 2 n
R2
Type formula R CH == CH 2
– Common name Alkylene, IUPAC name Alkenes. Secondary alkyl halide, R1 CH X
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 655

R2 • Ethanol changes the colour of sodium or potassium

dichromate from orange to green. It is also used in the
Tertiary alkyl halide, R1 C X manufacture of paints, varnishes, in making transparent soop
in the preparation of chloroform, as a fuel in internal
R3 combustion engines. It is used in alcoholic drinks, whisky,
wine, beer, etc.
• Common name Alkyl halide;
IUPAC name Haloalkane. 3. Ethers
• Trihalo methane are called haloforms, e.g. • General formula Cn H 2 n + 2 ⋅ O
chloroform (CHCl 3 ), iodoform (CHI 3 ), etc.
• Common name Dialkyl ether
• Chloroform oxidises to COCl 2 (carbonyl chloride
or phosgene gas) in the presence of air and light.
• IUPAC name Alkoxy alkane
So, it is kept in closed dark coloured bottles and • Ethers behave like Lewis bases.
mixed with ethyl alcohol which acts as negative • Diethyl ether (C2H5OC2H5 ) is used as an industrial solvent
catalyst and form non-poisonous, ethyl carbonate and also as an anaesthesia.
with COCl 2 .
• Chloroform is used as a general anaesthetic. 4. Aldehydes
• Chloropicrin (CCl 3 ⋅ NO2 ) is used as an insecticide • General formula Cn H 2 n + 1CHO or Cn H 2 nO ;
and also called tear gas. Carbon tetrachloride • IUPAC name Alkanal
(CCl 4 ) is used for extinguishing fire under the name • 40% solution of formaldehyde is called formalin and used in
pyrene. the preservation of dead animals.
• Ethylene dibromide is added to petrol in place of • Benzaldehyde is almond extract.
tetraethyl lead to save the environment from lead • Paraldehyde (a carbonyl compound) is used as a hypnotic.
pollution.
• Eugenol is an active component of clove oil.
• Chlorofluorocarbons (freons or CFC) are used as
refrigerants. They contain carbon, chlorine, 5. Ketones
hydrogen and fluorine and destroy the ozone layer. • General formula C nH 2 nO or (C nH 2 n+1 )2 O
2. Alcohols • IUPAC name Alkanone.
• Ketones containing — COCH 3 (methyl ketonic group) gives
• General formula C nH 2 n + 1 ⋅ OH
yellow colour (iodoform) in iodoform test.
• Common name Alkyl alcohol; • Acetone (CH 3COCH 3 ) is the first member of this class.
IUPAC name Alkanol. • Acetone is used as nail polish remover. However, now-a-days,
• Primary alcohol is R—CH 2 OH, secondary alcohol acetone free removers are in common use. Its main ingredient
is R2 CH  OH and tertiary alcohol is R 3 C—OH. is ethyl acetate or butyl acetate.
• Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK) is used as paint stripper.
• Lucas reagent (conc. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl 2 ) is
• Aldehydes and ketones having α-hydrogen atom
used to distinguish between primary, sec and
tert-alcohols. give aldol condensation. Such carbonyl compounds which
have α-hydrogen atom undergo condensation in the presence
• CH 3 OH is produced by the destructive distillation of dilute base to form aldol.
of wood, hence also known as, wood spirit, methyl
alcohol, methanol or carbinol. It is used as a 6. Carboxylic Acids
solvent for paints and varnishes, in making dyes,
drugs, perfumes and also used as motor fuel with • General formula C n H 2 n + 1 ⋅ COOH or Cn H 2 nO2 ;
petrol. IUPAC name Alkanoic acid.
• The destructive distillation of wood yields wood • First member of the carboxylic acid series is formic acid,
gas (gaseous), tar (liquid), charcoal (solid residue), HCOOH, which is present in ant’s or bee’s sting.
methyl alcohol (liquid) and acetic acid (vinegar). • HCOOH is the strongest acid among the carboxylic acids.
• Various products obtained by the destructive • CH 3 COOH is the ethanoic or acetic acid (vinegar).
distillation of coal are coal gas (H 2 + CH 4 + CO),
ammoniacal liquor, coal tar and coke. • Vinegar contains 6-10 % acetic acid. Acetic acid is used in the
manufacture of rubber from latex and casein from milk. It is
• CH3 CH2 OH is ethyl alcohol or ethanol or grain used for coagulation.
alcohol. It is made unfit for drinking purpose by
adding methanol or pyridine. Such alcohol is called • Lactic acid is α-hydroxy propanoic acid. It is present in milk
methylated spirit or denatured alcohol. and provides it sour taste.
656 CDS Pathfinder

• Citric acid is a hydroxy tricarboxylic acid. It is present in • These are used in making artificial perfumes,
citrus fruits. flavours and essence used in cold drinks,
• Oxalic acid removes rust stains. ice-creams, etc.
• Sodium benzoate is used as a food preservative.
• Salicylic acid is used to prepare aspirin (o-acetyl salicylic acid).
• These have characteristic sweet fruity smell.
7. Esters Ester Flavour Ester Flavour
• General formula CnH 2 n+1COOR or CnH 2 nO 2 Amyl acetate Banana Isoamyl valerate Apple
• IUPAC name Alkyl alkanoate. Octyl acetate Orange Methyl butyrate Pineapple

MAN-MADE MATERIALS
SOAPS 3. Semi-synthetic Polymers These are synthesised by
Soaps are the sodium or potassium salts of long chain man from natural substances, e.g. rayon (a polymer of
cellulose nitrate) is also called artificial silk due to its
carboxylic (fatty) acids (RCOONa) e.g. sodium palmitate
silk like appearance.
(C15H 31COONa), sodium stearate (C17H 35COONa ) and
sodium oleate (C17H 33COONa) etc. Animal fat or On the basis of intermolecular forces, these are classified as:
vegetable oil, sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride act as the 1. Elastomers In these polymers, the polymer chains
raw materials for the manufacture of ordinary soap. The are held together by weak van der Waals’ forces, e.g.
process of making soap is called saponification. vulcanised rubber.
• Soaps do not form lather with hard water due to the 2. Fibres In this type, polymer chains are attached with
formation of scum. one another through H-bonds, e.g. nylon-6,6.
• When the medium is acidic, soaps form insoluble long 3. Thermoplastics In these, the intermolecular forces
chain fatty acids and hence, lost their cleansing action. are intermediate of elastomers and fibres. These are
soften on heating and become hard on cooling, e.g.
polystyrene, polythene, PVC, etc.
DETERGENTS 4. Thermosetting These are highly cross-linked, hard,
• These are also called “soap-less” soaps as they do not non-fusible and insoluble polymers. These can only be
contain any soap. moulded into desired shape on heating once. e.g.
• These are the long chain benzene sulphonic acid or the
bakelite (phenol-formaldehyde resin), melamine, etc.
sodium salt of the long chain alkyl hydrogen sulphate.
Some Important Synthetic Polymers
• Long chain hydrocarbons, sulphuric acid and sodium
• Polyethylene (polythene) The monomer units are
hydroxide are the raw materials for the manufacturing of
ethylene molecules. It is frequently used in making
detergents.
• These are non-biodegradable and cause water pollution
coats, milk cartons and electrical insulation.
However, straight chain detergents are biodegradable. • Polystyrene The monomer units are styrene molecules.
• They form lather with soft as well as hard water. It is a white thermoplastic material and is used for
making toys, combs, lining material for refrigerators and
Polymers TV cabinets.
• Teflon (Polytetrafluoroethylene) The monomer unit is
A polymer is a compound of high molecular weight
formed by the union of a large number of molecules of tetrafluoroethylene molecule. It is very tough material. It
one or two types of low molecular weight (known as is a bad conductor of electricity and is used in coating
monomers) and the process involving the formation of a utensils, making seals, baskets, pipes, flooring, etc.
polymer is called polymerisation. • Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) The monomer units are
vinyl chloride molecules. PVC is a hard, horny material.
Types of Polymers It is resistant to chemicals as well as heat. It is used for
On the basis of their origin, the polymers are classified in making raincoats, hand bags, electrical insulators and floor
the following manner: covering.
1. Natural Polymers These are found in nature, e.g. • Nylon or Nylon-6, 6 It was first fully synthetic fibre
cellulose, starch, rubber, wool ,silk etc. and has good elasticity, low water absorption and
2. Synthetic Polymers These are prepared in the wrinkle resistant. It has also high tensile strength. It is
laboratory by synthetic means, e.g. polythene, nylon, used in making fishing nets, tyre cord, parachute fabrics,
orlon, dacron, etc. ropes, etc.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 657

• Phenol-formaldehyde Resins (Bakelite) These are Some Important Fertilisers

made by the reaction of phenol and formaldehyde in the • Basic Calcium Nitrate (Nitrate of lime)
basic medium. Bakelite is a cross-linked thermosetting
[CaO ⋅ Ca(NO3 )2 ] It is a good nitrogeneous fertiliser, used
polymer. It is used for making combs, fountain pen
in acidic soil.
barrels, electrical goods making electrical appliances,
• Ammonium Sulphate [(NH4 )2 SO4 ] It contains 21.2%
handles of crockery, etc. Sulphonated bakelites are used
as ion-exchange resins for softening of hard water. nitrogen. Its repeated use makes the soil acidic and
• Rubber It is a polymer of isoprene (2-methyl buta-1, unfit for the germination of seeds. Hence, addition of
3-diene). It is insoluble in water, dilute acids and alkalis, lime to the soil becomes necessary.
absorbs a large amount of water, has low tensile strength • Calcium Cynamide [CaCN 2 ] (Nitrolim) It is black in
and elasticity. colour because of the presence of carbon. It contains
• Neoprene It is a synthetic rubber which resembles 19% nitrogen.
natural rubber in its properties. It is obtained by the • Urea [NH 2 CONH 2 ](Carbamide) It contains 46.6%
polymerisation of chloroprene (2-chlorobuta-1, 3-diene). nitrogen. It is the best nitrogeneous fertiliser as it leaves
It is superior to natural rubber in its stability. only carbon dioxide after ammonia has been assimilated
Easy availability of raw materials from products of by plants. Its repeated use does not change the pH of
petroleum refining industries lead to growth of synthetic the soil.
rubber. It is generally used for making hoses, shoe heels, • Superphosphate of Lime
stoppers, etc. [Ca(H 2 PO4 )2 + 2CaSO4 ⋅ H 2 O] It is phosphatic fertiliser.
• Buna-S It is a copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and • Vermicompost It is the product or process of
styrene. It is also known as SBR (Styrene-Butadiene composting by using various species of worms, usually
Rubber). It has slightly less tensile strength than natural red wigglers, white worms and earthworms to create a
rubber. It is used in the manufacturing of automobile heterogeneous mixture of decomposing vegetables or
tyres, rubber soles, etc. food, bedding material and vermicant containing water
• Terylene or dacron or phthalate It is a polymer of soluble nutrients. Vermicompost is an excellent, nutrient
ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid, i.e. it is a rich organic fertiliser and soil conditioner.
polyester. It is used for making wash and wear fabrics, • Magnesium, manganese and sulphur are the
tyre cords, safety belts, tents, etc. macronutrients which are provided by the inorganic
fertilisers.
• Vulcanisation of Rubber It is the process of heating of
rubber with sulphur. It makes the rubber hard, strong
and more elastic. FUELS
• Kevlar It is a polymer of terephthalic acid and The substances which on combustion produces energy in
1,4-diaminobenzene so, it is a polyamide. It is used for the form of heat, is called a fuel, e.g. coal, wood, kerosene,
making bulletproof vests. petrol, diesel, cooking gas, etc. Fuel efficiency is expressed
• Lexan or polycarbonate It is a polymer of diethyl in terms of calorific value (kJg −1 ).
carbonate and bi-phenol. It is used in making • Sulphur compound (ethyl mercaptan or thioethanol) is
bulletproof windows and safety helmets. added to odourless LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) for
imparting a detectable smell to the gas.
• Polyurethanes It is a polymer of toluene diisocyanate
• LPG contains mainly butane alongwith some propane.
and ethylene glycol. It is used for making washable and
long lasting mattresses, cushions, pillows , etc. CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) contains mainly
methane and is used as a fuel in many vehicles because it
• Lucite It is a polymer of methyl methacrylate. It is used produces less pollutants therefore , it is a better fuel than
for making contact lenses. Plexiglass, acrylite or perspex petrol or diesel.
are other terms used for lucite. • Petrol is used as a fuel to run cars and aeroplanes
• Orlon or Acrilon Polyvinyl Cyanide It is a polymer whereas diesel is used to run trucks, buses, trains and
of vinyl cyanide or acrylonitrile. It is used as a substitute ships.
for wool in making synthetic blankets (acrylic fibres). • Quality of petrol or gasoline is expressed in terms of
octane number and of diesel in terms of cetane number.
FERTILISERS • Synthetic rubber, liquid ammonia, liquid hydrogen are
used as propellants.
Repeated cultivation of crops makes the soil deficient in • Acetylene is a fuel used in gas welding. It is used to
some elements, mainly nitrogen, phosphorus and weld and cut the metals that have a temperature of
potassium. The substances which are added to the soil to 300 °C of a flame.
make up the loss of these elements are called fertilisers.
658 CDS Pathfinder

Renewable and Non-renewable black because of the presence of unburned carbon particles.
Middle region is yellow luminous due to partial combustion.
Resources Outermost region is blue due to complete combustion of fuel
• Natural resources such as coal, petroleum and natural which is the hottest part of the flame.
gas take thousands of years to from naturally and
cannot be replaced as fast as they are being Paint
consumed. It is a non-renewable resource.
It is a mixture of four ingredients, viz, binder, solvent,
• Natural resources such as solar energy, water and pigment and additives (like driers, plasticisers, emulsifiers,
fisheries are renewable resources. corrosion inhibitors, etc).
• Binders are polymers (resins) forming a continuous film on
Petroleum the surface of the substrate. These are responsible for good
It is dark oily liquid also called rock oil, mineral adhesion. Resins, chlorinated rubber, latex (PVA) are the
oil, crude oil or black gold. On fractional distillation, it examples of binders.
gives different substances at different temperatures.
• Solvent (water or organic solvents like toluene, ketone,

Biogas or Gobar Gas alcohol, etc.,) is a medium where all other ingredients of
paint are dispersed in molecular form (true solutions) or as
The gaseous mixture obtained by the degradation of
animal and plant wastes by anaerobic microorganisms colloidal dispersion (emulsions).
in the presence of water is called biogas. It is a • Pigments are responsible for imparting colour to the paint.
convenient fuel for domestic use. It is used for street It may also protect the substrate from UV light.
lighting.
• Ultramarine blue is the natural pigment made up of
• Constituents of biogas are methane (45-70%), carbon
semiprecious mineral lapis lazuli. It is resistant towards
dioxide, hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide.
fading.
• Gobar gas is produced by the fermentation of cow
dung. It contains CH 4 (main component), CO 2 and H 2 . Pigment added Colour of paint
Chromium oxide Green
➨ Note Bagasse is the fibrous matter remains after sugarcane
stacks are crushed to extract their juice. It is used as a biofuel Vermillion or cuprous oxide Red
and as a substitute for wood in many tropical and subtropical Cobalt oxide Blue
countries for the production of pulp, paper, board, etc.
Titanium dioxide White

Flame Benzidine yellow Yellow to red

A flame is a region where combustion of gaseous Iron (II) oxide Black

substances take place. Innermost region of flame is

ENVIRONMENT AND ITS POLLUTION

Air Air Pollution
• Composition of air is nitrogen (78.084%), oxygen It is due to the presence of foreign undesirable substances in
(20.946%), argon (0.934%), carbon dioxide (0.033%) air. The substance which causes pollution is known as
and small amount of other gases. Region of air present pollutant. Main air pollutants are SO 2 , CO, nitrogen oxides,
around the earth is called atmosphere. particulates, etc.
• Main layers from the surface of earth towards upward Carbon monoxide CO combines with the haemoglobin of the
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere blood about 300 times more readily as compared to oxygen
(c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere and forms a stable carboxyhaemoglobin complex due to which
• Most of the atmospheric air is present in troposphere. supply of oxygen is restricted which results in headache,
• Ozone layer present in the stratospheric region nervousness, asphyxia and even death in some cases.
(at a height of about 20 to 40 km) protects the living Major gaseous air pollutants:
beings from the harmful UV radiations coming from (a) Oxides of carbon
the sun. Due to high concentration of ozone, this (b) Oxides of nitrogen
region is also known as ozonosphere.
(c) Oxides of sulphur
• In 1775, French scientist Lavoisier performed (d) Hydrocarbon (esp CH 4 )
experiments on composition of air.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 659

Methyl isocyanate (CH 3NC) is responsible for the Bhopal – Burning of sulphur alongwith coal results in the
gas tragedy (in 1984). In which thousands of people were formation of oxides of sulphur as
killed. It was a case of serious air pollution in which MIC S + O 2 → SO 2
1
(Methyl Isocyanate) gas released from a pesticide SO 2 + O 2 → SO 3
manufacturing plant of union carbide. 2
when sulphur trioxide (SO 3 ) reacts with water of douds
Smog it forms acid, hence causes acid rain
The word smog is derived from smoke and fog. It is of SO 3 + H 2O → H 2SO 4
two types : – Acid rain damages the marble buildings (Taj Mahal) and
1. Classical Smog It is also called London smog. It is monuments, corrodes metal pipes and results in several
formed in cool humid climate and is reducing in diseases.
nature. Acid rain reacts which buildings made from limestone
and causes its decomposition
2. Photochemical Smog It is also called Los Angeles
smog. It is formed in warm, dry and sunny climate CaCO 3 + H 2SO 4 → CaSO 4 + CO 2 + H 2O
and is oxidising in nature. • Ozone Layer Depletion Thinning of ozone layer
because of its reaction with chlorine free radicals usually
Particulates generated by chlorofluorocarbons is called ozone layer
These are minute solid particles and liquid droplets depletion.
dispersed in air such as mists, dusts, smoke , etc. – Hypochlorous acid and chlorine on photochemical

Diseases Caused by Particulates decomposition also produce nascent chlorine

(Cl • or chlorine free radical) which causes ozone
Disease Cause
depletion in the following manner:
Pneumoconiosis Coal dust hν
Silicosis Silica (from ceramics, HOCl ( g ) → • OH ( g ) + Cl • ( g )
glass and pottery
industry) hν
Cl 2 ( g ) → 2 Cl • ( g )
Black lung Coal mines
disease CF2Cl 2 → • CF2 + Cl •
White lung Textile industries – The released chlorine free radical reacts with ozone
disease
breaking it into molecular oxygen.
Asbestosis Asbestos
Cl • + O 3 → ClO • + O 2
Byssinosis Cotton fibre dust
Melanosis Hyperpigmentation due 2ClO • + O 2 → 2Cl • + 2O 2
to increased
concentration of melanin Water Pollution
Water pollution is due to the presence of foreign substances,
Consequences of Air Pollution i.e water pollutants in water.
• Greenhouse effect It is the heating up of earth and its • Cholera, dysentery, typhoid, etc., are water-borne diseases
objects due to trapping of infrared radiations (IR) by caused by bacteria.
greenhouse gases present in atmosphere like CO 2 , CH 4 ,
• Mercury causes minimata disease, chromium and arsenic
NO, O 3 , chlorofluorocarbon and water vapours.
causes cancer and cadmium causes itai-itai disease.
• Global Warming It is due to increased concentration
• Presence of excessive fluoride leads to dental fluorosis, i.e.
of greenhouse gases. It may lead to melting of ice caps
developmental disturbance of dental enamel.
and glaciers, spreading of several infectious diseases like
malaria, sleeping sickness, etc. • The usual effect of agricultural run off due to the
excessive increase of nutrients such as nitrogen,
• Since, the late 19th century, the temperature of
phosphorus etc., in an ecosystem like ponds or results in
atmosphere increases due to the increase in
excessive algal growth in affected water bodies. It is called
CO 2 concentration which is responsible for the
eutrophication.
expansion of water in the ocean.
• For clean water, DO (Dissolved Oxygen) is 5-6 ppm and
• Acid Rain The pH of normal rain water is 5.6-6.5 due
BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is less than 5 ppm.
to the dissolution of carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere. When the pH of rain water is below 5, it • Recycling, sewage treatment, incineration are some
is called acid rain (by Robert Augus). strategy to control water pollution.
– The main cause of acid rain is oxides of sulphur and ➨ Presbycusis is gradual hearing loss in both ears that commonly
nitrogen (H2 SO4 and HNO 3 ). occurs in aged people but noise pollution also lead to it.
660 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
8. Which of the following is a 13. Statement I All compounds
Matter chemical change? contain more than one element.
1. During evaporation, particles of a 1. Burning of coal in air Statement II All compounds are
liquid change into vapours only 2. Crystallisation of table salt heterogeneous mixtures.
(a) from the surface (b) from the bulk from sea water. e 2012 II
(c) from both surface and bulk (a) Both the Statements are correct
Select the correct answer using
(d) None of the above and Statement II is the correct
the codes given below.
explanation of Statement I
2. Arrange the following in (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (b) Both the Statements are correct
increasing order of density.
but Statement II is not the correct
1. Air 2. Honey 9. Which of the following is not a explanation of Statement I
3. Water 4. Iron mixture? (c) Statement I is correct but
5. Chalk
1. Toothpaste 2. Baking soda Statement II is incorrect
Codes
3. Vinegar (d) Statement I is incorrect but
(a) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 < 5
Statement II is correct
(b) 1 < 2 < 3 < 5 < 4 Choose the correct option
(c) 1 < 3 < 2 < 5 < 4 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 14. A liquid initially contracts when
(d) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 < 5 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 cooled down to 4°C but on further
3. Which one of the following 10. On addition of salt to water, its cooling down to 0°C, it expands.
mixtures is homogeneous? 1. boiling point increases The liquid is e 2013 II
(a) Starch and sugar 2. boiling point decreases (a) alcohol (b) water
(b) Methanol and water (c) molten iron (d) mercury
3. boiling point is not affected
(c) Graphite and charcoal 4. freezing point decreases 15. A metal screw top on a glass
(d) Calcium carbonate and calcium bottle which appears to be stuck
bicarbonate
The correct option(s) is/are
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 could be opened by using the fact
4. Which one of the following (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 that e 2014 I
properties changes with valency? (a) the metal expands more than the
(a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight
11. Match the following Columns. glass when both are heated
(c) Molecular weight (d) Density Column I Column II (b) the metal and glass expand
(Process) (Changes) identically when heated
5. 44 g of carbon dioxide at STP
A. Evaporation 1. Liquid into gas
(c) the metal shrinks when heated
contains
(d) both metal and glass shrink when
(a) 6.02 × 10 23 molecules B. Sublimation 2. Gas into liquid
cooled
(b) 3 . 01 × 10 23 molecules C. Freezing 3. Solid into gas
(c) 6.02 × 10 24 molecules D. Melting 4. Solid into liquid 16. Which one among the following is
(d) 3 . 01 × 10 24 molecules 5. Liquid into solid
an example of chemical change?
e 2014 II
6. Which of the following is a Codes (a) The melting of an ice cube
physical change? A B C D (b) The boiling of gasoline
(a) Decomposition (b) Oxidation (a) 2 1 3 4 (c) The frying of an egg
(c) Sublimation (d) Reduction (b) 1 3 5 4 (d) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet
7. Statement I Ice floats over water. (c) 4 3 2 1 17. Which one among the following
Statement II Density of liquids is (d) 5 3 1 2 compounds has same equivalent
generally lower than that of the weight and molecular weight?
solids. Previous Years’ Questions
Codes e 2015 I
12. Iodised salt is a e 2012 II
(a) Both the Statements are correct (a) mixture of potassium iodide and (a) H 2SO 4 (b) CaCl2
and Statement II is the correct common salt (c) Na2SO4 (d) NaCl
explanation of Statement I (b) mixture of molecular iodine and 18. Creation of something from
(b) Both the Statements are correct common salt nothing is against the law of
but Statement II is not the correct (c) compound formed by the e 2015 I
explanation of Statement I combination of potassium iodide
(c) Statement I is correct but (a) constant proportions
and common salt
Statement II is incorrect (b) conservation of mass energy
(d) compound formed by molecular
(d) Statement I is incorrect but (c) multiple proportions
iodine and common salt
Statement II is correct (d) conservation of momentum
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 661

19. Match the following Columns. 26. Which of the following properties (a) Six (b) Nine
e 2015 II of the element can be a whole (c) Twelve (d) Eighteen
number? 36. Composition of two nuclei is
Column I Column II (a) Atomic mass (b) Atomic number
(Exponent) (Law) shown below.
(c) Atomic radius (d) Atomic volume
A. John Dalton 1. Law of definite X Y
proportion by 27. There are 15 protons and 16 Atomic number 7 9
volume neutrons in the nucleus of an Mass number 15 17
B. Joseph Proust 2. Law of multiple element. The element is
proportion X and Y are
represented by the symbol (a) isobars (b) isotones
C. Antoine 3. Law of definite 16 30 31 31
Lavoisier proportion by weight (a) 15 X (b) 15 X (c) 16 X (d) 15 X (c) isotopes (d) isomers
D. Joseph Louis 4. Law of conservation 28. Isotopes of the same elements 37. Statement I X-rays are not
Gay Lussac of mass deflected by electric field.
have
Codes (a) same number of neutrons Statement II X-rays travels with
A B C D A B C D (b) same number of protons the velocity of light.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) same atomic mass Codes
(d) different chemical properties (a) Both the Statements are correct
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
29. The atomic number of an element and Statement II is the correct
20. Which one of the following is an explanation of Statement I
example of chemical change? of mass number 27, which has 13
neutrons is (b) Both the Statements are correct
e 2016 I but Statement II is not the correct
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 13
(a) Burning of paper explanation of Statement I
(b) Magnetisation of soft iron 30. Which of the following (c) Statement I is correct but
(c) Dissolution of cane sugar in water statement(s) is/are true? Statement II is incorrect
(a) Atomic number is always greater
(d) Preparation of ice cubes from water (d) Statement I is incorrect but
than mass number
Statement II is correct
21. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is (b) Mass number may be equal to
kept at 0°C. The amount of heat it atomic number 38. Consider the following statements
requires to melt at 0° C is (take (c) Mass number is equal to the sum 1. An atom consists of a positively
latent heat of melting of ice to be of number of protons and electrons charged sphere and the electrons
(d) Mass number never be equal to are embedded in it.
333.6 J/g). e 2016 I
atomic number
(a) 750.6 J (b) 83.4 J 2. The negative and positive
(c) 33360 J (d) 3.336 J 31. How many electrons are present charges are equal in magnitude,
in the M shell of an atom of an therefore the atom as a whole is
22. After a hot sunny day, people
element with atomic number 24? electrically neutral.
sprinkle water on the roof-top
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 14 Select the correct statement(s).
because e 2016 I
(a) water helps air around the roof-top 32. The atom of an element contains 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
to absorb the heat instantly electrons in its M shell. The (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
(b) water has lower specific heat element is 39. Consider the following statements.
capacity (a) aluminium (b) sodium
1. Cathode rays are originated
(c) water is easily available (c) chlorine (d) magnesium
from cathode and anode rays
(d) water has large latent heat of 33. While performing cathode ray from anode.
vaporisation experiment, it was observed that 2. Both travel in straight line.
there was no passage of electric 3. Electrons are the fundamental
Atomic Structure current under normal conditions. particle of an atom.
Which of the following can 4. e/m ratio of anode rays does
23. Neutrons are present in all atoms
account for this observation? not depend upon the nature of
except (a) Dust particles are present in air
(a) He (b) C (c) H (d) Ne gas taken in discharge tube.
(b) Carbon dioxide is present in air
(c) Air is a poor conductor of Select the correct statement(s).
24. Positive rays in a discharge tube (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
with perforated cathode travel electricity under normal conditions
(d) All of the above (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) parallel to the anode
(b) parallel to the cathode 34. If K and L shells of an atom are 40. Match the following Columns.
(c) from cathode to anode full, then what would be the total Column I Column II
(d) from anode to cathode number of electrons in the atom?
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 6 A. Proton 1. Chadwick
25. The increasing order (lowest first) B. Neutron 2. Millikan
for the value of e/m (charge/mass) 35. Taking into account three isotopes
C. Charge of 3. Goldstein
is of hydrogen and three isotopes of electron
(a) e, p, n, α oxygen occurring in nature, how D. Shelled nature 4. Rutherford
(b) n, p, e, α many different kinds of water of atom
(c) n, p, α, e molecules can we expect on the 5. Madam Curie
(d) n, α, p, e earth?
662 CDS Pathfinder

Codes 47. Which one of the following 56. The difference between a nuclear
A B C D A B C D statements is not correct? reactor and atomic bomb is that
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 1 5 4 e 2016 II (a) no chain reaction takes place in
(c) 5 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4 (a) Atoms of different elements may nuclear reactor while in the atomic
have same mass numbers bomb, there is a chain reaction
Previous Years’ Questions (b) Atoms of an element may have (b) the chain reaction in nuclear
different mass numbers reactor is controlled
41. Which one among the following (c) All the atoms of an element have (c) the chain reaction in nuclear
statements about an atom is not same number of protons reactor is uncontrolled
correct? e 2012 I (d) All the atoms of an element will (d) no chain reaction takes place in
(a) Atom always combine to form always have same number of atomic bomb while it takes place
molecules neutrons in nuclear reactor
(b) Atoms are the basic units from
57. ‘Yellow cake’ an item of smuggling
which molecules and ions are Radioactivity across the border is
formed
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature 48. In which categories did Marie Curie (a) a crude form of heroin
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers win her two different Nobel Prizes? (b) a crude form of cocaine
to form the matter that we can (a) Physics and Chemistry (c) uranium oxide
see, feel and touch (b) Chemistry and Medicine (d) unrefined gold
(c) Physics and Medicine
42. Which one among the following is 58. Hydrogen bomb is based on the
(d) Chemistry and Peace
not a correct statement? principle of
e 2013 II 49. The α-particles are (a) nuclear fission
(a) Cathode rays are negatively (a) high energy electrons (b) nuclear fusion
charged particles (b) positively charged hydrogen ions (c) natural radioactivity
(b) Cathode rays are produced from all (c) high energy X-ray radiations (d) artificial radioactivity
the gases (d) double positively charged helium 59. In treatment of cancer, which of
(c) Electrons are basic constituents of nuclei
the following is used?
all the atoms 50. Gamma rays have (a) 131I 53
(d) Hydrogen ions do not contain any (a) zero mass and no charge
proton (b) 32 P15
(b) zero mass and positive charge
(c) 60 Co 27
43. In tritium ( T ), the number of (c) unit mass and zero charge
(d) unit mass and negative charge (d) 2 H 1
protons (p) and neutrons (n)
respectively, are e 2014 II 51. An α-particle consists of which of 60. Statement I Hydrogen bomb is
(a) 1 p and 1 n (b) 1 p and 2 n the following? more powerful than atomic bomb.
(c) 1 p and 3 n (d) 2 p and 1 n (a) 2 protons and 2 neutrons Statement II In hydrogen bomb,
(b) 1 proton and 1 electron reaction is initiated by fission
44. The distribution of electrons into followed by fusion.
(c) 2 protons and 4 neutrons
different orbits of an atom, as (d) 1 proton and 1 neutron Codes
suggested by Bohr, is e 2014 II
52. Which of the following particles (a) Both the Statements are correct
(a) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6
and Statement II is the correct
electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons cannot be accelerated?
(a) Electrons (b) α-particles explanation of Statement I
in the M-orbit
(b) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 (c) Neutrons (d) Protons (b) Both the Statements are correct
electrons in the L-orbit, 32 electrons but Statement II is not the correct
53. A nuclear reactor produce nuclear explanation of Statement I
in the M-orbit
energy by (c) Statement I is correct but
(c) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8
(a) nuclear fusion Statement II is incorrect
electrons in the L-orbit, 18 electrons
(b) spontaneous fission
in the M-orbit (d) Statement I is incorrect but
(c) uncontrolled chain reaction Statement II is correct
(d) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8
(d) controlled chain reaction
electrons in the L-orbit, 16 electrons 61. Consider the following statements
in the M-orbit 54. In nuclear reactors, the speed of
1. Atomic number decreases by 2
45. Who among the following neutrons is slowed down by and mass number increases by
(a) heavy water (b) ordinary water
proposed that atom is indivisible? 4 on α-particle emission.
(c) zinc rods
e 2015 I 2. Atomic number increases by 1
(d) molten caustic soda
(a) Dalton (b) Berzelius and mass number remains
(c) Rutherford (d) Avogadro 55. The energy generation in stars is unchanged on β-particle
(a) mainly due to the fusion of heavy emission.
46. The atomic theory of matter was nuclei
(b) mainly due to the fusion of lighter Choose the correct statement(s)
first proposed by e 2015 II (a) Only 1
nuclei
(a) John Dalton (c) solely due to the fusion of heavy (b) Only 2
(b) Rutherford nuclei (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) due to both fission and fusion of (d) None of the above
(d) Niels Bohr lighter nuclei
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 663

62. Which one of the following is not 66. Match the following Columns. (c) the neutrons are made slow
needed in a nuclear fission (d) the protons are made slow
Column I Column II
reactor? (Radioisotopes) (Medicinal uses) 73. In an observation, α-particles,
1. Moderator 2. Accelerator
A. 60
Co 1. Leukemia β -particles and γ-rays have same
3. Coolant B. 131
2. Anaemia energies. Their penetrating power
I
Choose the correct option. C. 59
Fe 3. Cancerous
in a given medium in increasing
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 tumours order will be e 2015 I
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 D. 32
P 4. Disorders of (a) α, β, γ (b) β, γ , α
63. Match the following Columns. thyroid gland (c) α, γ , β (d) β, α, γ
Codes
Column I A B C D A B C D Chemical Bonding and
Column II
(Nuclear reactor
component)
(Substance used) (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 Redox Reactions
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
A. Moderator 1. Uranium 74. In case of a cation,
B. Control rods 2. Graphite
67. Which one of the following is (a) number of electrons are more than
heavy water used in nuclear the number of protons
C. Fuel rods 3. Boron
reactor? (b) number of electrons are equal to
D. Coolant 4. Lead (a) Water having molecular weight 18u the number of protons
5. Sodium (b) Water having molecular weight 20u (c) number of electrons are more than
(c) Water at 4°C but having molecular the number of neutrons
Codes
weight 19u (d) number of electrons are less than
A B C D the number of protons
(d) Water below the ice in a frozen
(a) 2 1 3 5 sea
(b) 2 3 1 5
75. Atomic numbers of A and B are 2
(c) 3 2 1 5
68. The light emitted by firefly is due and 12, respectively. Valency (or
(d) 3 4 1 2
to number of electrons taking part in
(a) the radioactive substance bonding) is two in case of
64. Consider the following statements (b) chemiluminiscence process (a) Only A (b) Only B
In nuclear power reactors, (c) the photoelectric process (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B
1. uranium-235 is used as the (d) burning of phosphorus
76. A bond formed by the transfer of
fission material.
Previous Years’ Questions electrons between atoms of the
2. graphite is used as a
elements is called
moderator. 69. Age of fossil may be found out by (a) ionic bond (b) covalent bond
3. rods of lead are used to determining the ratio of two (c) coordinate bond (d) hydrogen bond
control the rate of nuclear isotopes of carbon. The isotopes
reaction. 77. The compound which contains
are e 2012 I
Which of the above statements are ionic bond is
(a) C-12 and C-13 (b) C-13 and C-14 (a) CH 4 (b) N 4
correct? (c) C-12 and C-14
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) CaCl 2 (d) CCl 4
(d) C-12 and carbon black
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 78. Which of the following is a
70. Which one of the following covalent compound?
65. Consider the following statements
reactions is the main cause of the (a) NaCl (b) CaCl 2
1. Gamma rays are not the energy radiation from the sun? (c) MgCl 2 (d) C2H 2
constituents of nuclei but they (a) Fusion reaction e 2012 I
are emitted when a nucleus in 79. Strongest bond is
(b) Fission reaction
an excited state returns to its





(a) C C (b) C == C




(c) Chemical reaction




normal state.
(d) Diffusion reaction
2. The neutron to proton ratio for (c) C ≡≡ C (d) All of these


stable nuclei is always less 71. In an atomic explosion, release of

than one. large amount of energy is due to 80. Molten NaCl is a good conductor
the conversion of e 2012 II of electricity due to the presence
3. Beta rays consist of ordinary
electrons which are of nuclear (a) chemical energy into nuclear energy
of
(a) free electrons
origin but do not revolve in (b) nuclear energy into heat
(b) free ions
orbits. (c) mass into energy
(c) free molecules
4. X-rays and gamma rays are (d) chemical energy into heat
(d) None of the above
electromagnetic radiations. 72. Carbon or graphite rods are used
Which of the above statements 81. Which one has hydrogen bonding?
in atomic reactors as moderators (a) HCl (b) HBr
are correct? for sustained nuclear chain
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (c) HF (d) HI
reaction through nuclear fission
(b) 1, 3 and 4 82. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in
process. In this process, e 2014 II
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (a) ethanol (b) diethyl ether
(a) the neutrons are made fast
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) ethyl chloride (d) triethyl amine
(b) the protons are made fast
664 CDS Pathfinder

83. Salt is soluble in water because 92. Statement I Nitric acid , Previous Years’ Questions
(a) water forms hydrogen bond with it hydrogen peroxide and potassium
(b) water is a polar solvent and 96. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
dichromate are reducing agents.
interact with the ions of salt In the given chemical reaction,
Statement II The substance
(c) water is a non-polar solvent and e 2013 II
whose oxidation number increases
exists as water of crystallisation (a) sodium is oxidised and oxygen is
is oxidised and it is a reducing reduced
(d) water loses electrons and form
agent. (b) sodium is oxidised and chlorine is
ionic compound with salt
Codes reduced
84. In the following reaction, (a) Both the Statements are correct (c) sodium and hydrogen are oxidised
Zn + [Ag (CN)2]− → and Statement II is the correct (d) None of them are oxidised or
[ Zn (CN)4 ]2− + Ag explanation of Statement I reduced
(b) Both the Statements are correct
(a) Zn is reduced and Ag + is oxidised but Statement II is not the correct 97. Date of manufacture of food items
(b) Zn is oxidised and Ag + is reduced explanation of Statement I fried in oil should be checked
(c) Zn is reduced and Ag is oxidised (c) Statement I is correct but before buying because oils become
(d) Neither Zn nor Ag is oxidised Statement II is incorrect rancid due to e 2014 I
(d) Statement I is incorrect but (a) oxidation
85. Reducing agent can Statement II is correct
(a) accept protons (b) reduction
(b) donate protons 93. Consider the following statements (c) hydrogenation
(c) accept electrons 1. The oxidation state of C in (d) decrease in viscosity
(d) donate electrons CO2 is +4 which is its
86. Starch iodide paper is used to test maximum oxidation state. Gas Laws and Solutions
for the presence of 2. Nitrous acid (HNO2 )
sulphurous acid (H2 SO3 ) and 98. At constant temperature, the
(a) iodine (b) iodide ion product of pressure and volume of
(c) oxidising agent (d) reducing agent sulphur dioxide (SO2 ) act as as
both reducing as well as a given amount of a gas is
87. Oxidation number of N in N3 H is oxidising agent. constant. This is
(a) − 3 (b) + 3 (a) Gay-Lussac law
1 1 Which of the statement(s) given
(c) + (d) − (b) Charles’ law
above is/are correct?
3 3 (c) Boyle’s law
(a) Only 1
(d) Avogadro’s law
88. A redox reaction is (b) Only 2
(a) proton transfer reaction (c) Both 1 and 2 99. Charles’ law is represented by
(b) ion combination reaction (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1
(c) a reaction in solution (a) V ∝ (b) V = T
94. Which of the following T
(d) electron transfer reaction 1
statement(s) is/are true? (c) V ∝ T (d) V ∝
89. From the following elements, 1. The process of oxidation leads T3
which one has the same oxidation to a gain of electrons. 100. At constant temperature and
state in all of its compounds? 2. The process of oxidation leads pressure, the volume of a gas is
(a) Hydrogen (b) Fluorine to a loss of electrons. directly proportional to the
(c) Carbon (d) Oxygen 3. The process of reduction leads number of molecules. This law
90. Consider the following statements to a gain of electrons.
had been given by
about ionic compounds. 4. The process of reduction leads
to a loss of electrons. (a) Boyle
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble (b) Charles
in alcohol. Select the correct answer using
(c) Graham
2. Ionic compounds in the solid the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 4 (d) None of the above
state are good conductor of
electricity. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 101. When a balloon is filled with air,
95. Match the following Columns its pressure and volume both
Which of these statement(s) is/are
increases, so it is a violation of
correct? Column I Column II
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles’ law
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 A. Ionic bond 1. NH3 (c) Avogadro’s law (d) All of these
B. Covalent bond 2. Diamond
91. The fatty substances can be 102. An ideal gas is one which obeys
C. Molecular bond 3. NaCl
protected from being rancid by (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles’ law
D. Hydrogen bond 4. Iodine
1. storing them in refrigerator. (c) Avogadro’s law (d) All of these
2. keeping them in an inert Codes
A B C D
103. In general gas equation
atmosphere.
(a) 1 2 4 3
pV = nRT , V is the volume of
3. adding some antioxidant. (a) n moles of a gas
The correct option is (b) 3 2 4 1
(b) any amount of a gas
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 3 1 4 (c) one mole of a gas
(c) 3 and 1 (d) All of these (d) 4 1 3 2 (d) one gram of a gas
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 665

104. Which one of the following is not 113. The number of moles of solute 2. In the reverse osmosis, external
the value of R ? per kg of a solvent is called pressure is applied to the dilute
(a) mole fraction (b) normality solution.
(a) 1.99 cal K −1 mol −1
(c) molality (d) molarity Codes
(b) 0.0821 L atm K −1mol −1
(a) Only 1
(c) 9.8 kcal K −1 mol −1 114. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in l L
(b) Only 2
(d) 8.3 JK −1 mol −1 of solution. Its molarity is (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 0.8 M (b) 0.4 M
105. Cooking of chapatti (roti) is a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 0.2 M (d) 0.1 M
practical implementation of
122. Statement I A chemical reaction
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles’ law 115. The molarity of pure water at
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) All of these
becomes faster at higher
298 K is
(a) 5.5 M (b) 5.55 M temperature.
106. Absolute zero is the temperature Statement II At high temperature,
(c) 5.50 M (d) 55.55 M
where all the gases are expected to molecular motion becomes more
have 116. In which mode of expression, rapid.
(a) different volumes the concentration of the Codes
(b) same volume (c) zero volume solution remains independent (a) Both the Statements are correct and
(d) None of the above of temperature? Statement II is the correct explanation
107. The density of the gas is equal to (a) Normality (b) Molality of Statement I
(c) Molarity (d) Formality (b) Both the Statements are correct but
(a) np (b) Mp/RT (c) p/RT (d) M/V
117. At a given temperature, the Statement II is not the correct
108. Deviations from ideal behaviour explanation of Statement I
solubility of a gas in liquid
will be more if the gas is subjected (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
increases with
to (a) increase in temperature is incorrect
(a) low temperature and high pressure (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
(b) reduction is gas pressure
(b) high temperature and low pressure II is correct
(c) increase in gas pressure
(c) low temperature
(d) amount of liquid taken 123. Match the following Columns
(d) high temperature
118. Low concentration of oxygen Column I
109. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen is Column II
in the blood and tissues of (Concentration of
about (Unit)
(a) one half that of helium people living at high altitude solution)
(b) 1.4 times that of helium is due to A. Molarity 1. mol kg −1
(a) the low temperature
(c) twice that of helium B. Molality 2. mol L −1
(b) the low atmospheric pressure
(d) four times that of helium C. Normality 3. Gram equiv L −1
(c) the high atmospheric pressure
110. Rate of diffusion of a gas is (d) both low temperature and high Codes
(a) directly proportional to its density atmospheric pressure A B C A B C
(b) directly proportional to its molecular
mass 119. Which one of the following is (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
(c) directly proportional to the square involved for the desalination of (c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1
of its molecular mass sea water?
(a) Reverse osmosis Previous Years’ Question
(d) inversely proportional to the square
root of its molecular mass (b) Simple osmosis 124. By what mechanism does scent
(c) Use of sodium aluminium spread all over the room if the lid is
111. A bottle of dry ammonia and one of silicate as zeolite
dry hydrogen chloride are opened? e 2013 II
(d) Use of ion selective electrodes
connected through a long tube. (a) Pressure in the bottle
120. Scuba divers are at risk due to (b) Compression from the bottle
The stoppers at both ends of the
high concentration of dissolved (c) Diffusion
tube are opened, simultaneously.
gases while breathing air at (d) Osmosis
The white ammonium chloride
high pressure under water.
ring will first formed
(a) at the centre of the tube The tanks used by scuba Acids, Bases and Salts
(b) near the hydrogen chloride bottle divers are filled with
(a) air diluted with helium 125. An acid is a substance which
(c) near the ammonia bottle
(b) O 2 (a) donates a proton
(d) throughout the length of the tube
(c) N 2 (b) accepts an electron pair
112. A solution which contains the (d) a mixture of N 2 and helium (c) gives H + in water
maximum amount of the solute (d) All of the above
121. Which of the following
that is dissolved in a given amount 126. Formic acid is obtained from
statement(s) is/are correct?
of solvent at a particular (a) red ants (b) fats
temperature is called 1. During the pressure of
(c) vinegar (d) orange
(a) saturated solution osmosis, the solvent travels
(b) unsaturated solution from the concentrated 127. An aqueous solution of NH4Cl is
solution to the dilute (a) basic (b) neutral
(c) supersaturated solution
solution. (c) acidic (d) amphoteric
(d) None of the above
666 CDS Pathfinder

128. Burning of substance X produces Which of the statement(s) given 143. Match the following Columns.
a gas, solution of which turns red above is/are correct? Column I Column II
litmus paper blue. The substance (a) Only 1 (Acid) (Source)
X is (b) Only 2
(a) base (b) acid (c) Both 1 and 2 A. Lactic acid 1. Tamarind
(c) salt (d) None of these (d) Neither 1 nor 2 B. Tartaric acid 2. Orange
C. Oxalic acid 3. Tomato
129. Which is not a Lewis base? 139. When lime juice is dropped on
D. Citric acid 4. Sour curd
(a) H 2 O (b) NH 3 baking soda, brisk effervescence
(c) CO 2 (d) BF 3 takes place because the gas Codes
130. Out of the three solutions, i.e. A, evolved is A B C D A B C D
B and C, only one turns blue 1. hydrogen 2. oxygen (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
3. carbon dioxide (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
litmus red. This shows that the
remaining two are Choose the correct option.
(a) acidic (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 Previous Years’ Questions
(b) definitely neutral (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
144. Which one among the following
(c) either acidic or basic 140. Statement I Solution of blue statements is correct? e 2012 I
(d) definitely basic vitriol (CuSO4 ) turns red litmus (a) All bases are alkali
131. The negative logarithmic value of blue. (b) None of the bases is alkali
hydrogen ion concentration is Statement II It is a salt of strong (c) There are no more bases except
called acid and weak base. the alkalis
(a) pH (b) pOH (c) pK a (d) pK b Codes (d) All alkalis are bases but all bases
(a) Both the Statements are correct are not alkalis
132. Water is neither acidic nor
and Statement II is the correct 145. The pH of fresh ground water
alkaline because
(a) it boils at a high temperature explanation of Statement I slightly decreases upon exposure
(b) it cannot donate or accept (b) Both the Statements are correct to air because e 2012 I
electrons but Statement II is not the correct
(a) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved
explanation of Statement I
(c) it can dissociate into equal number in the water
of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions (c) Statement I is correct but
(b) oxygen from air is dissolved in the
Statement II is incorrect
(d) it cannot accept or donate protons water
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
(c) the dissolved carbon dioxide of the
133. The pH value of wine is Statement II is correct
ground water escapes into air
(a) 6.5 (b) 2.8 (c) 8.5 (d) 7.0
141. Match the following Columns. (d) the dissolved oxygen of the ground
134. The pH value of sea water is water escapes into air
(a) 8.5 (b) 2.6 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5 Column I Column II
(Acid) (Use) 146. Antacids are commonly used to
135. What is the pH value of pure get rid of acidity in the stomach. A
A. Boric acid 1. Explosives (TNT)
water? commonly used antacid is
B. Oxalic acid 2. Preservatives
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 10
C. Benzoic acid 3. Rust stain remover e 2012 II
136. pH values of four solutions X, Y, D. Nitric acid 4. Eye wash (a) sodium hydrogen phthalate
Z, and P are (b) magnesium hydroxide
Codes
5, 7, 9 and 2, respectively. Which (c) calcium hydroxide
A B C D
of these is the strongest acid? (d) manganese acetate
(a) 1 3 2 4
(a) X (b) Z (c) P (d) Y
(b) 4 3 2 1 147. On the labels of the bottles, some
137. Aqua-regia used by chemists to (c) 4 2 3 1 soft drinks are claimed to be
separate silver and gold is a (d) 4 1 2 3 acidity regulators. They regulate
mixture of 142. Statement I Addition of water to acidity by using e 2012 II
(a) hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
an aqueous solution of HCl (a) carbon dioxide
and nitric acid (concentrated)
decreases the pH. (b) bicarbonate salts
(b) hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
Statement II Addition of water (c) Both (a) and (b)
and sulphuric acid (concentrated)
suppresses the ionisation of HCl. (d) carbon dioxide and lime
(c) nitric acid (concentrated) and
sulphuric acid (concentrated) Codes 148. Which of the following solutions
(d) hydrochloric acid (dilute) and (a) Both the Statements are correct will not change the colour of blue
sulphuric acid (dilute) and Statement II is the correct litmus paper to red?
explanation of Statement I 1. Acidic solution
138. Consider the following statements (b) Both the Statements are correct
about pH value 2. Basic solution
but Statement II is not the correct
1. Human blood has pH value in explanation of Statement I 3. Common salt solution
the range of 7.36-7.42. (c) Statement I is correct but Select the correct answer using
2. A change in pH of blood by Statement II is incorrect the codes given below e 2014 I
0.2 blood by 0.2 units results (d) Statement I is incorrect but (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
in death. Statement II is correct (c) Only 1 (d) Only 2
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 667

149. Statement I During indigestion, 156. When a strong beam of light is 166. Dialysis can separate which of the
milk of magnesia is taken to get passed through a colloidal following in addition to the
rid of pain in the stomach. solution, the light is glucose from human blood?
Statement II Milk of magnesia is (a) reflected (b) scattered (a) Fructose (b) Starch
a base and it neutralises the (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) Protein (d) Sucrose
excess acid in the stomach. 157. Colloidal solution commonly used 167. Generally, the path of light
Codes e 2015 I in the treatment of eye disease is becomes visible when we enters in
(a) Both the Statements are correct (a) colloidal silver a cinema hall. The similar effect is
and Statement II is the correct (b) colloidal gold observed in case of all except
explanation of Statement I (c) colloidal antimony (a) gold sol (b) sugar solution
(b) Both the Statements are correct (d) colloidal sulphur (c) emulsions (d) suspension
but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I 158. Which of the following colloidal 168. A catalyst increases the rate of a
(c) Statement I is correct but solution is commonly used as chemical reaction by
Statement II is incorrect germ killer? (a) increasing the activation energy
(d) Statement I is incorrect but (a) Colloidal sulphur (b) decreasing the activation energy
Statement II is correct (b) Colloidal gold (c) reacting with reactants
(c) Colloidal silver (d) reacting with products
Chemical Thermodynamics (d) Colloidal antimony
169. TEL minimises the knocking
and Surface Chemistry 159. Which one of the following is effect when mixed with petrol.
correctly matched? Here, it acts as a/an
150. A system which can exchange (a) Aerosol-smoke (b) Foam-mist (a) positive catalyst (b) negative catalyst
energy with the surroundings but (c) Emulsion-curd (d) All of these (c) autocatalyst (d) induced catalyst
no matter is called 160. In case of which of the following, 170. The catalyst used in the
(a) a heterogeneous system one phase is not dispersed in
(b) an open system
hydrogenation of oils is
another? (a) Ni (b) Cu (c) Fe (d) Pb
(c) a closed system (a) Chlorophyll (b) Smoke
(d) an isolated system 171. The temperature at which the
(c) Ruby glass (d) Milk
catalytic activity of the catalyst is
151. When a gas is subjected to 161. Which of the following makes maximum, is called
adiabatic expansion, it gets cooled path of the light visible when (a) critical temperature
due to passing through it? (b) room temperature
(a) no change in entropy (a) Air (b) A gold ring (c) absolute temperature
(b) loss in kinetic energy (c) Smoke (d) Salt water (d) optimum temperature
(c) decrease in velocity
(d) energy spent in doing work 162. Fog is an example of colloidal 172. In the Haber’s process for the
system of synthesis of NH3 ,
152. If a refrigerator’s door is kept (a) liquid in a gas (b) gas in a liquid (a) Mo acts as a catalyst and Fe as a
open, then (c) gas in a solid (d) solid in a liquid promotor
(a) room will be cooled (b) Fe acts as a catalyst and Mo as a
(b) room will be heated 163. An emulsion consists of promotor
(c) may get cooled or heated (a) two liquids (b) two solids
(c) Fe acts as an inhibitor and Mo as
depending upon the weather (c) two gases (d) two salts
a catalyst
(d) no effect on room 164. Artificial rain is caused by (d) Fe acts as a promotor and Mo as
153. When ammonium chloride is spraying autocatalyst
dissolved in water, the solution (a) neutral charged colloidal dust over
173. The enzymes are killed
becomes cold. The change is a cloud
(a) at a very high temperature
(a) endothermic (b) exothermic (b) similar charged colloidal dust over (b) during chemical reaction
(c) supercooling (d) None of these a cloud
(c) at low temperature
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) under atmospheric pressure
154. Which one is true? (d) opposite charged colloidal dust
(a) 1 calorie > 1 erg > 1 joule over a cloud 174. Enzyme catalysis is an example of
(b) 1 erg > 1 calorie > 1 joule (a) autocatalysis
(c) 1 calorie > 1 joule > 1 erg 165. The bleeding of a wound is (b) heterogeneous catalysis
(d) 1 joule > 1 calorie > 1 erg stopped by the application of (c) homogeneous catalysis
ferric chloride because (d) induced catalysis
155. Out of the following given (a) blood starts flowing in the opposite
systems, in case of which direction 175. Which of the following statements
exchange of energy takes place (b) ferric chloride seals the blood is true?
but not of matter? vessels (a) All the catalyst are enzymes
(a) Jet engine (c) blood reacts and a solid is formed (b) All the enzymes are biocatalysts
(b) Tea placed in steel kettle which seals the blood vessels (c) All other catalysts except enzymes
(c) Pressure cooker (d) blood is coagulated and the blood are called biocatalysts
(d) Rocket engine during propulsion vessels are sealed (d) Biocatalysts are non-proteinous in
nature
668 CDS Pathfinder

176. Which of the following properties 181. Match the following Columns. 188. Which one of the following metals
is/are shown by colloid? Column I Column II is less reactive than hydrogen?
1. Absorption 2. Tyndall effect (a) Barium
A. Smoke 1. Dispersion of gas in (b) Copper
3. Paramagnetism liquid
(c) Lead
Choose the correct code B. Gel 2. Dispersion of solid in (d) Magnesium
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 solid
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these C. Emulsion 3. Dispersion of liquid in 189. The life span of a Daniell cell may
177. Gelatin is often used as an
liquid be increased by
D. Foam 4. Dispersion of liquid in (a) large Zn electrode
ingredient in the manufacture of solid (b) large Cu electrode
ice cream. This is due to 5. Dispersion of solid in gas (c) lowering the temperature
1. to cause the mixture to solidify (d) lowering the concentrations
Codes
2. to stabilise the colloid and
prevent crystal growth A B C D A B C D 190. The device which converts
Choose the correct reason(s) and (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 5 4 3 1 chemical energy of fuels such as
select the correct code. (c) 2 4 1 5 (d) 5 2 1 3 CO, CH4 directly into electrical
(a) Only 1 energy is called
(b) Only 2 Previous Years’ Questions (a) concentration cell
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) galvanic cell
182. What is the role of positive (c) fuel cell
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
catalyst in a chemical reaction? (d) Both (b) and (c)
178. Statement I In a chemical e 2013 I
reaction, a catalyst increases the (a) It increases the rate of reaction 191. The source of electrical energy on
rate of reaction. (b) It decreases the rate of reaction the Apollo moon flights was
(a) a generator set
Statement II Catalyst possesses (c) It increases the yield of the
(b) fuel cell
high activation energy. products
(c) Ni-Cd cell
Codes (d) It provides better purity of the
(d) lead storage batteries
(a) Both the Statements are correct products
and Statement II is the correct 183. Which type of mixture is smoke? 192. When a lead storage battery is
explanation of Statement I
e 2013 II charged, it acts as
(b) Both the Statements are correct (a) a primary cell
(a) Solid mixed with a gas (b) a galvanic cell
but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I (b) Gas mixed with a gas (c) a concentration cell
(c) Liquid mixed with a gas (d) an electrolytic cell
(c) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect (d) Gas mixed with a liquid and a solid
193. Iron rusts in the presence of
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
(a) vacuum
Statement II is correct Electrochemistry (b) moisture
179. Consider the following statements (c) oxygen
184. Electrolysis finds its applications
1. Emulsifiers stabilise the (d) Both (b) and (c)
in all the places except in
emulsion. (a) production of hydrogen 194. The depolariser used in dry cell
2. Soaps and detergents are (b) electrorefining of copper batteries is
emulsifiers. (c) Leclanche cell (a) manganese dioxide
3. Cleansing action of soap is due (d) galvanisation (b) NH 4 Cl
to the formation of emulsions. (c) sodium triphosphide
Which of the above statements 185. During the electrolysis of fused
(d) potassium hydroxide
is/are correct? NaCl which reaction will take
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 place at anode? 195. The electrolytes which is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) Na+ ions are oxidised generally used in one time
(b) Cl − ions are oxidised batteries that are used in
180. Which of the following statements (c) Na+ ions are reduced cameras, hearing aids etc., is
are true regarding a catalyst? (d) Cl − ions are reduced (a) ammonium chloride
1. It is a substance which (b) zinc oxide
186. Pure water does not conduct
increases the rate of reaction. (c) alkaline zinc oxide
electricity because it is
2. It is a substance which (a) almost non-ionised (d) paste of potassium hydroxide and
reduces the activation energy. (b) low boiling
zinc oxide
3. It is a substance which (c) neutral 196. Corrosion is basically a/an
increases the activation energy. (d) readily decomposed (a) interaction
4. It is a substance which is (b) union between two light metals and
consumed in the reaction. 187. Which of the following aqueous
a heavy metal
solutions will conduct an electric
Select the correct answer using (c) altered reaction in the presence of
current quite well? H 2O
the codes given below (a) Glycerol (b) HCl
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) electrochemical phenomenon
(c) Sugar (d) Pure water
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 669

197. Which one of the following pairs of 203. Statement I Zinc is used for 208. Which one among the following
materials serves as electrodes in galvanisation of iron. metals is prominently used in
rechargeable batteries commonly Statement II Zinc is an mobile phone batteries? e 2014 II
used in devices like torchlights, amphoteric element. (a) Copper (b) Zinc
electric shavers, etc? Codes (c) Nickel (d) Lithium
(a) Nickel and cadmium (a) Both the Statements are correct
(b) Zinc and carbon 209. Electricity is produced through
and Statement II is the correct
(c) Lead peroxide and lead explanation of Statement I dry cell from e 2015 I
(d) Iron and cadmium (b) Both the Statements are correct (a) chemical energy
but Statement II is not the correct (b) thermal energy
198. To protect iron against corrosion,
explanation of Statement I (c) mechanical energy
the durable metal plating on it, is
(d) nuclear energy
(a) tin plating (c) Statement I is correct but
(b) copper plating Statement II is incorrect
(c) zinc plating (d) Statement I is incorrect but Inorganic Chemistry
(d) nickel plating Statement II is correct 210. Magnalium is an alloy of
199. In order to prevent corrosion, iron 204. Which of the following statements magnesium with
pipes are often coated with a layer about the commonly used (a) silicon (b) chlorine
of zinc. This process is known as automobile battery are true? (c) aluminium (d) calcium
(a) electroplating (b) annealing 1. It is usually a lead-acid 211. Composition of bauxite is
(c) galvanisation (d) vulcanisation battery. (a) Al 2O 3 ⋅ 2H 2O (b) Al 2O 3 ⋅ H 2O
200. When items or jewellery made of 2. It has six cells with a (c) Al 2O 3 ⋅ 4H 2O (d) Al 2O 3 ⋅ 3H 2O
metals such as copper of nickel potential of 2V each.
212. Which of the following occurs in
are placed in a solution having a 3. Its cells work as galvanic cells the native state?
salt of gold, a thin film of gold is while discharging power. (a) Silver (b) Copper
deposited by 4. Its cells work as electrolytic (c) Both Ag and Au (d) Carbon
1. cooling to below 0° C cells while recharging.
213. Most abundant metal in earth’s
2. heating above 100° C Select the correct answer using
crust is
3. passing an electric current the codes given below. (a) carbon (b) steel
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Choose the correct code. (c) iron (d) aluminium
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 1 214. The percentage of carbon is
205. Match the following
highest in
201. Sacrificial anode protects iron or List I List II (a) tool steels (b) steel
ships, underground pipelines etc., (Batteries) (Cathode) (c) cast iron (d) solder
from rusting, a process known as A. Lechlanche cell 1. Paste of HgO
and carbon
215. Carnallite is an ore of
cathodic protection Which of the (a) Cu (b) Co
following metals cannot be used B. Lead storage 2. Nickel dioxide
battery (c) Mg (d) Al
as a sacrifical anode?
C. Nickel-Cadmium 3. Carbon 216. The formula of Plaster of Paris is
1. Tin 2. Zinc cell (graphite) rod (a) CaSO 2 ⋅ 2H 2 O
3. Magnesium 4. Aluminium D. Mercury cell 4. Lead packed 1
with PbO 2 (b) CaSO 4 ⋅ H 2 O
Choose the correct code. 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 4 Codes (c) 2CaSO 2 ⋅ 8H 2 O
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) CaSO 4 ⋅ 8H 2 O
A B C D A B C D
202. Statement I Zinc displaces (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 217. Bone black is obtained by
copper and silver from solutions of (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 (a) treating bones with H 2 SO 4
their salts. (b) destructive distillation of bones
Statement II Zinc has a lower Previous Years’ Questions (c) heating bones
oxidation potential than copper 206. Food cans are coated with tin but (d) heating wood
and silver. not with zinc because e 2013 I 218. Chief ore of iron is
Codes (a) zinc is costlier than tin (a) bauxite (b) magnetite
(a) Both the Statements are correct (b) zinc has a higher melting point (c) haematite (d) dolomite
and Statement II is not correct than tin
explanation of Statement I (c) zinc is more reactive than tin 219. Iron used for casting is
(a) steel (b) wild steel
(b) Both the Statements are correct (d) tin is more reactive than zinc
(c) pig iron (d) wrought iron
but Statement II is not the correct 207. Iron sheet kept in moist air
explanation of Statement I 220. Which is found in transistors?
covered with rust. Rust is
(c) Statement I is correct but (a) an element e 2014 I (a) Ge (b) Ag (c) Pb (d) Kr
Statement II is incorrect (b) a compound 221. Noble gases are
(d) Statement I is incorrect but (c) a mixture of iron and dust (a) monoatomic (b) diatomic
Statement II is correct (d) a mixture of iron, oxygen and water (c) triatomic (d) pentaatomic
670 CDS Pathfinder

222. Nitrous oxide is called 235. Which one of the following 245. Which one of the following is the
(a) laughing gas (b) tear gas varieties of coal has the highest secondary source of light in a
(c) producer gas (d) methane gas amount of carbon in it? fluorescent lamp?
223. Stainless steel is a/an (a) Anthracite (b) Bituminous (a) Neon gas
(a) element (b) compound (c) Lignite (d) Peat (b) Argon gas
(c) alloy (d) None of these (c) Mercury vapour
236. Which of the following has largest
(d) Fluorescent coating
224. Which one is the mineral of electron affinity?
aluminium? (a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I 246. Ordinary water, when compared
(a) Malachite (b) Azurite 237. Lead painting and lead articles to the heavy water used in
(c) Bauxite (d) Galena when exposed to atmosphere turn nuclear reactors is
black due to reaction with (a) several times lighter
225. What is the jeweller’s rouge? (b) marginally lighter
(a) Ferric oxide (a) carbon dioxide
(b) hydrogen sulphide (c) heavy
(b) Ferrous oxide (d) as heavy because chemically both
(c) Ferrous carbonate (c) oxygen
(d) sulphur dioxide are the same
(d) Ferric carbonate
238. Which of the following is not a 247. Carbon exists in a
226. ‘Misch metal’ is widely used in the three-dimensional tetrahedral
manufacture of which of the transition metal?
(a) Silver (b) Lead structure, which is the hardest
following? among all the known solids. This
(c) Tungsten (d) Manganese
(a) Material of car brake
solid is kept under the category of
(b) Smoke detectors 239. Zero group elements are also (a) metallic crystal (b) molecular crystal
(c) Cigarette lighters called (c) ionic crystal (d) covalent crystal
(d) Emergency lights (a) noble gases
(b) rare earth elements 248. As which one of the following,
227. German silver is an alloy of
(c) alkali metals does carbon occur in its purest
(a) gold and silver
(b) copper and silver
(d) Transition metals form in nature?
(a) Carbon black (b) Graphite
(c) copper, zinc and silver 240. The process of extraction of metal (c) Diamond (d) Coal
(d) copper, zinc and nickel from ore is called
(a) calcination 249. Which one of the following
228. Which one of the following is a
(b) conductivity vitamins contains cobalt?
mordant used in dyeing? (a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin B 2
(c) concentration
(a) Calcium hydroxide
(d) metallurgy (c) Vitamin B 6 (d) Vitamin B12
(b) Aluminium sulphate
(c) Calcium carbonate 241. Gypsum (CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2O) is added to 250. Which of the following metals are
(d) Zinc phosphate clinker during cement present in haemoglobin and
229. The following substances are used manufacturing to chlorophyll, respectively?
(a) decrease the rate of setting of cement (a) Fe and Mg
in low temperature applications
(b) bind the particles of calcium silicate (b) Fe and Zn
(a) liquid argon (b) liquid nitrogen (c) facilitate the formation of colloidal gel (c) Mg and Zn
(c) dry ice (d) liquid air (d) impart strength to cement (d) Zn and Mg
230. Permanent magnets can be made 242. What is the main constituent of a 251. The process of heating ore in
from Pearl? absence of air is called
(a) cobalt (b) aluminium (a) Calcium carbonate and magnesium (a) smelting (b) decomposition
(c) zinc (d) lead carbonate (c) roasting (d) calcination
231. The most electronegative element (b) Calcium sulphate only
(c) Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate
252. What is the purpose of adding
among the following is baking soda to dough?
(d) Calcium carbonate only
(a) fluorine (b) oxygen (a) To generate moisture
(c) sodium (d) sulphur 243. Sodium thiosulphate (Na 2 S 2O3 ) (b) To give a good flavour
232. The element which forms ions in solution is used in photography to (c) To give good colour
(a) remove reduced silver (d) To generate carbon dioxide
dimeric state is
(b) reduce silver bromide (AgBr) grain
(a) Hg (b) Cu (c) Be (d) Ni 253. Naturally occurring metal
to silver
233. Diamond used in jewellery is (c) remove undecomposed AgBr as a containing compound is called
(a) a compound soluble silver thiosulphate complex (a) matrix (b) ore
(b) a metal (d) convert the metallic silver to silver (c) gangue (d) mineral
(c) a mixture of compounds salt 254. Which of the following properties
(d) an element
244. Which one of the following is the generally decreases along a
234. Dry ice is softest? period?
(a) supercooled ice (a) Sodium (a) Atomic size
(b) solid water with zero humidity (b) Aluminium (b) Electron affinity
(c) solid carbon dioxide (c) Iron (c) Ionisation energy
(d) solidified ammonia (d) Copper (d) Electronegativity
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 671

255. Long form of periodic table is 262. Consider the following elements. 267. Statement I It is dangerous to
based on the properties of 1. Cobalt 2. Gold pour water on hot oil while
elements as a function of 3. Nickel 4. Silver cooking.
(a) atomic size (b) atomic mass Statement II Boiling point of
Which of these are magnetic
(c) electronegativity (d) atomic number water is higher than that of
substances?
256. The elements belonging to second (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 cooking oil.
period are called (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Codes
(a) normal elements (a) Both the Statements are correct
263. Consider the following statements and Statement II is the correct
(b) noble gases
1. Nitric acid is used in the explanation of Statement I
(c) transition elements
production of fertilisers. (b) Both the Statements are correct
(d) None of the above
2. Sulphuric acid is used in the but Statement II is not the correct
257. On extracting a compound from a production of explosives. explanation of Statement I
mixture, if it remain also Which of the statements given (c) Statement I is correct but
associated with oxide of above is/are correct? Statement II is incorrect
dihydrogen, then the best (a) Only 1 (d) Statement I is incorrect but
scientific method to test the (b) Only 2 Statement II is correct
presence of this liquid is (c) Both 1 and 2 268. Match the following Columns.
(a) smell (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) taste Column I Column II
264. Statement I On mixing with
(c) use of litmus paper A. Zeolite 1. Purgative
(d) use of anhydrous copper sulphate
water, plaster of Paris hardens.
B. Sodium 2. Safety matches
Statement II By combining with thiosulphate
258. Which one of the following is not a water, plaster of Paris is C. Magnesium 3. Dry cell
periodic property, i.e. does not converted into gypsum. sulphate
show any trend on moving from Codes D. Graphite 4. Purification of water
one side to the other in the (a) Both the Statements are correct 5. Photography
periodic table? and Statement II is the correct
(a) Atomic size (b) Valency explanation of Statement I Codes
(c) Radioactivity (d) Electronegativity (b) Both the Statements are correct A B C D
259. Heavy water implies but Statement II is not the correct (a) 3 5 2 4
explanation of Statement I (b) 3 2 1 5
1. water which is used in heavy
(c) Statement I is correct but (c) 4 1 2 3
industries such as thermal
Statement II is incorrect (d) 4 5 1 3
power plants
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
2. water which contains SO2−
4
and Statement II is correct 269. Match the following Columns.
Cl − of calcium and magnesium
265. Statement I During the setting of Column I Columns II
Choose the correct code. (Composition)
cement, the structure has to be (Alloy)
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these cooled by spraying water. A. Bronze 1. Lead, antimony, tin
Statement II The constituents of B. Brass 2. Copper, zinc, nickel
260. Water is a good coolant and is
cement undergo hydration during C. German silver 3. Copper, zinc
used to cool the engines of cars,
setting of cement and it is an D Type metal 4. Copper, tin
buses, trucks etc. It is because
exothermic reaction. 5. Copper, zinc, nickel,
water has a Codes aluminium
1. high specific heat (a) Both the Statements are correct
2. high boiling point and Statement II is the correct Codes
Choose the correct code. explanation of Statement I A B C D A B C D
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Both the Statements are correct (a) 4 3 2 5 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these but Statement II is not the correct (c) 5 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 5 1
explanation of Statement I
261. Consider the following statements 270. Match the following Columns.
(c) Statement I is correct but
about graphite.
Statement II is incorrect Column I Column II
1. It is a good conductor of (Alloy) (Constituent)
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
electricity. Statement II is correct A. Solder 1. Iron and carbon
2. It is an allotropic modification
of carbon. 266. Arrange the following in the B. Brass 2. Copper and zinc
3. It has a high refractive index. descending order of their carbon C. Bronze 3. Copper and tin
4. It is present in the non-volatile content. D. Steel 4. Lead and tin
part of crude petroleum. 1. Cast iron 2. Wrought iron
Codes
Which of the above statements are 3. Steel
A B C D A B C D
correct? Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 3, 2 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
672 CDS Pathfinder

271. Which of the following when 279. A compound that is a white solid (a) high specific resistance
dissolved in H2O gives hissing which absorbs water vapour from (b) low specific resistance
sound? the air is e 2013 II (c) high light emitting power
1. Limestone (a) sodium nitrate (d) high melting point
2. Slaked lime (b) calcium chloride 287. Inactive nitrogen and argon gases
3. Quickime (c) sodium carbonate are usually used in electric bulbs
Choose the correct code (d) calcium sulphate in order to e 2014 II
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3 280. Which of the following are the two (a) increase the intensity of light emitted
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these main constituents of granite? (b) increase the life of the filament
e 2014 I (c) make the emitted light coloured
(d) make the production of bulb
Previous Years’ Questions (a) Iron and silica
economical
(b) Iron and silver
272. The elements of a group in the (c) Silica and aluminium 288. When carbon dioxide is passed
periodic table e 2012 I (d) Iron oxide and potasium through lime water, the solution
(a) have similar chemical properties turns milky, but, on prolonged
281. Which one of the following
(b) have consecutive atomic numbers passage the solution turns clear.
(c) are isobars
elements is present in green
pigment of leaf? e 2014 I
This is because e 2014 II
(d) are isotopes
(a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorus (a) the calcium carbonate formed
273. The gas which turns lime water initially is converted to soluble
(c) Iron (d) Calcium
milky is e 2012 II calcium bicarbonate on passage of
(a) carbon dioxide
282. Which method of water more carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide purification does not kill (b) the reaction is reversible and lime
microorganism? e 2014 I water is regenerated
(c) ammonia
(d) nitrogen dioxide (a) Boiling (b) Filtration (c) the calcium bicarbonate formed
(c) Chlorination (d) UV-irradiation initially is converted to soluble
274. Why hard water does not give calcium carbonate on passage of
lather with soap? e 2013 I 283. What causes dough (a mixture of more carbon dioxide
(a) Hard water contains calcium and flour, water, etc.) to rise when (d) the initially formed insoluble
magnesium ions which form yeast is added to it? e 2014 I compound is soluble in carbonic
precipitate with soap (a) An increase in temperature acid
(b) Hard water contains sulphate and (b) An increase in the amount of the 289. Which of the following is a good
chloride ions which form precipitate substance
lubricant? e 2014 II
(c) pH of hard water is high (c) An increase in the number of yeast
cells (a) Diamond powder
(d) pH of hard water is less
(b) Graphite powder
(d) Release of carbon dioxide gas
275. Which one among the following (c) Molten carbon
metals is used in fireworks to 284. Which one of the following gases (d) Alloy of carbon and iron
make a brilliant white light? is supporter of combustion?
290. The form of carbon known as
e 2013 I e 2014 I
graphite e 2014 II
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium (a) Hydrogen (a) is harder than diamond
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver (b) Nitrogen
(b) contains a higher percentage of
(c) Carbon dioxide carbon than diamond
276. Which allotropy of carbon is in (d) Oxygen
rigid three-dimensional structure? (c) is a better electrical conductor than
e 2013 I 285. Statement I Clay layers are poor diamond
aquifers. (d) has equal carbon-to-carbon
(a) Graphite (b) Fullerene
Statement II The inter-particle distances in all directions
(c) Diamond (d) Carbon black
space of clay minerals is the least. 291. Which of the following is not
277. What are the elements which are Codes e 2014 I correct about baking soda?
liquids at room temperature and (a) Both the Statements are correct e 2014 II
standard pressure? e 2013 II and Statement II is the correct (a) It is used in soda-acid fire
1. Helium 2. Mercury explanation of Statement I extinguisher
3. Chlorine 4. Bromine (b) Both the Statements are correct (b) It is added for faster cooking
but Statement II is not the correct
Select the correct answer using (c) It is a corrosive base
explanation of Statement I
the codes given below. (d) It neutralises excess acid in the
(c) Statement I is correct but stomach
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Statement II is incorrect
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 292. Sodium metal should be stored in
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
278. Which element forms the highest Statement II is correct e 2015 I
number of compounds in the 286. Tungsten is used for the (a) alcohol
periodic table? e 2013 II
construction of filament in electric (b) kerosene oil
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen (c) water
bulb because of its e 2014 II
(c) Silicon (d) Sulphur (d) hydrochloric acid
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 673

293. Which one among the following is 2. Alumina makes the cement 306. The main point of difference
used in making lead pencils? quick setting. between an organic and inorganic
e 2015 I 3. Excess of lime increases the compound is that
strength of cement. (a) the former contains carbon but the
(a) Charcoal (b) Graphite
later is not
(c) Coke (d) Carbon black 4. Calcium sulphate decreases the
initial setting time of cement. (b) the later contains carbon but
294. When hard water is evaporated former is not
completely, the white solid Select the correct answer using (c) the later may or may not contain
remains in the container. It may the codes given below. carbon but the former always
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 contain it
be due to the presence of e 2015 I
(c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (d) the former may or may not contain
1. carbonates of Ca and Mg
300. Which one of the following carbon but the later always contain
2. sulphates of Ca and Mg it
3. chlorides of Ca and Mg statements is not correct?
(a) Hydrogen is an element e 2016 I 307. The isomerism observed in
Select the correct answer using (b) Hydrogen is the lightest element alkanes is
the codes given below. (c) Hydrogen has no isotopes (a) metamerism
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an (b) chain isomerism
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these explosive mixture (c) position isomerism
295. How many elements are there in (d) geometrical isomerism
301. Vitamin-B12 deficiency causes
the 5th period of modern periodic pernicious anaemia Animals 308. General formula for the alkenes is
table? e 2015 I cannot synthesise vitamin-B12. (a) C n H 2 n (b) C n H 2 n + 2
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 36 Humans must obtain all their
(c) C n H 2 n− 2 (d) C 2n H 2n + 1
296. Which one of the following is not vitamin-B12 from their diet. The
true for diamond? e 2015 II complexing metal ion in 309. The offending substance in the
(a) Each carbon atom is linked to four vitamin-B12 is e 2016 I liquor tragedies leading to
other carbon atoms (a) Mg 2 + (magnesium ion) blindness etc., is
(a) ethyl alcohol (b) amyl alcohol
(b) Three-dimensional network structure (b) Fe 2 + (iron ion)
(c) benzyl alcohol (d) methyl alcohol
of carbon atoms is formed (c) Co 3 + (cobalt ion)
(c) It is used as an abrasive for (d) Zn2 + (zinc ion) 310. Which of the following is an active
sharpening hard tools component of oil of clove?
(d) It can be used as a lubricant 302. German silver is used to make
(a) Menthol (b) Eugenol
decorative articles coinage metal, (c) Methanol (d) Benzaldehyde
297. Which one of the following ornaments etc. The name is given
statements is not correct? 311. In cold countries, ethylene glycol
because e 2016 I
e 2015 II (a) it is an alloy of copper and is added in the water used in the
(a) Water starts boiling when its vapour contains silver as one of its radiators of cars during winter.
pressure becomes equal to components This results in
atmospheric pressure (a) lowering in freezing point
(b) Germans were the first to use
(b) Water is known as universal solvent silver (b) reducing the viscosity
(c) Permanent hardness of water is (c) its appearance is like silver (c) reducing the specific heat
due to presence of MgCl 2, CaCl 2, (d) it is an alloy of silver (d) making water a better conductor
MgSO 4 , CaSO 4 of electricity
(d) Density of ice is greater than that 312. Denatured spirit is mainly used
of water
Organic Chemistry
as a
298. Red phosphorus is used in the 303. The first organic compound (a) drug
manufacture of safety matches. synthesised in the laboratory from (b) good fuel
its element is (c) material in preparing
This is due to the fact that
(a) urea (b) methane (d) solvent in preparing varnishes
e 2015 II
(a) it shows phosphorescence (c) ethylene (d) acetic acid 313. Which of the following is
(b) at ordinary temperature , it is less 304. The compound which cannot be generally present in tonics?
reactive than other varieties of obtained from plants or animals (a) Ethanol (b) Ether
phosphorus but can be obtained from its (c) Ethanal (d) Chloral
(c) it cannot be converted to white elements is
phosphorus on heating
314. The most important ingredient of
(a) ammonium cyanate dynamite is
(d) it does not react with halogen on (b) marsh gas (a) nitrobenzene (b) picric acid
heating (c) urea (c) nitroglycerine (d) TNT
299. Which of the following statements (d) cane sugar
315. Dynamite is prepared by mixing
with regard to Portland cement 305. Which of the following is used as a nitroglycerine with
are correct? e 2015 II hypnotic? (a) saw dust and ammonium nitrate
1. Silica imparts strength to (a) Paraldehyde (b) Methaldehyde (b) cellulose nitrate
cement. (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Formaldehyde (c) saw dust alone
(d) conc. sulphuric acid
674 CDS Pathfinder

316. Wine contains 330. Wood spirit is known as 339. Statement I Large cold storage
(a) CH 3 OH (b) C 2 H 5 OH (a) ethanol (b) methanol plants use ammonia as refrigerant
(c) C 6 H 5 OH (d) glucose (c) acetone (d) benzene while domestic refrigerators use
317. Chloroform is used as 331. Ethanol containing some chlorofluorocarbons.
(a) antiseptic (b) insecticides methanol is called Statement II Ammonia can be
(c) antipyretic (d) anesthetic (a) methylated spirit (b) rectified spirit liquefied at ambient temperature
(c) absolute spirit (d) None of these and low pressure.
318. A sample of chloroform before
Codes
using as an anaesthetic is tested 332. Lucas test is performed for
(a) amines (b) alkyl halides (a) Both the Statements are correct
by and Statement II is the correct
(a) Fehling’s solution (c) ethers (d) alcohols
explanation of Statement I
(b) ammoniacal cuprous chloride 333. Lemon is sour due to (b) Both the Statements are correct
(c) ammoniacal silver nitrate solution (a) citric acid (b) tartaric acid but Statement II is not the correct
(d) silver nitrate solution (c) oxalic acid (d) acetic acid explanation of Statement I
319. The name fire damp is given to 334. Which one of the following is (c) Statement I is correct but
(a) methane (b) ethane Statement II is incorrect
likely to be a pollutant free
(c) propane (d) butane (d) Statement I is incorrect but
alternative to petrol for Statement II is correct
320. Denatured spirit is a mixture of automobiles?
ethyl alcohol, methyl alcohol and (a) Ethanol (b) Acetylene 340. Match the following Columns.
(a) acetic acid (b) pyridine (c) Butane (d) Propane Column I Column II
(c) benzene (d) water (Chemical name) (Molecular Formula)
335. The tracking of people by trained
321. Vinegar contains acetic acid dogs is based on the recognisation A. Ammonia 1. C 6 H6
(a) 10-20% (b) 100% of which of the following B. Benzene 2. NH 3
(c) 7-8% (d) 25% compounds, in the sweat from C. Ethyl alcohol 3. CH 3OH
322. Liquor poisoning is due to the feet? D. Methyl alcohol 4. C 2H 5OH
presence of (a) Carboxylic acids (b) Uric acid Codes
(a) methyl alcohol (c) Sugar (d) Salt
A B C D A B C D
(b) ethyl alcohol 336. The law enforcement agencies use (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) carbonic acid a chemical test to approximate a (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
(d) bad compound in liquor person's blood alcohol level. The
341. Which of the following statements
323. The chemical name of tear gas is mouthpiece of a bag containing
are correct about chloroform?
(a) acetophenone sodium dichromate solution in
1. Liquid fuel
(b) benzophenone acidic medium. A chemical
(c) bromoacetophenone 2. Anaesthetic in nature
reaction with ethanol changes the
(d) chloroacetophenone 3. Produces phosgene
colour of the solution from
(a) orange to green 4. Fire extinguisher
324. Petroleum is found
(a) on the surface of the earth (b) orange to colourless Choose the correct code
(b) in the atmosphere (c) yellow to orange (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) in Arctic ocean (d) colourless to orange (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(d) deep under the surface of the 337. Consider the following statements 342. The sources of alkanes are
earth 1. Saturated hydrocarbons 1. coal 2. petroleum
325. Which one among the follwing undergo substitution reaction. 3. natural gas 4. minerals
fuels is used in gas welding? 2. Carbon black is obtained when The correct sources are
(a) LPG (b) Ethylene methane is heated in the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Methane (d) Acetylene absence of air (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 4
326. CaC2 react with water to give Which of the above statement(s) 343. Match the following Columns.
is/are correct?
(a) C 2 H 4 (b) CH 4 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Column I Column II
(c) C 2 H 2 (d) CO 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (Haloalkane/arene) (Applications)
327. Which one of the following is used 338. Consider the following chemicals, A. Iodoform 1.
CF4
in welding industry? B. BHC 2.
Antiseptic
1. Benzene
(a) Methane (b) Ethane C. Freon-14 3.
Moth repellent
(c) Acetylene (d) Benzene 2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Sodium carbonate D. Halothanes 4.
Inhalative
328. The fuel used in spirit lamp is anaesthetic
Which of the above is/are used as
E. p-dichlorobenzene 5. Termite pesticide
(a) ethanol (b) methanol dry cleaning chemicals?
(c) propanol (d) butanol (a) Only 1 Codes
329. Grain alcohol is common name of (b) Only 2 A B C D E A B C D E
(a) amyl alcohol (b) ethyl alcohol (c) 1 and 2 (a) 2 4 5 3 1 (b) 2 5 1 4 2
(c) methanol (d) None of these (d) All of the above (c) 3 4 2 1 5 (d) 1 3 5 2 4
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 675

Previous Years’ Questions 354. Which one of the following fuels 366. Commercial vulcanisation of
causes minimum environmental rubber involves
344. Which one among the following pollution? (a) sulphur (b) carbon
non-toxic gases helps in formation (a) Diesel (b) Hydrocarbon (c) phosphorus (d) selenium
of enzymes which ripen fruit? (c) Hydrogen (d) Kerosene
367. The order of appearance of the
e 2012 I
355. Which one of the following has the following with increasing
(a) Acetylene (b) Ethene highest fuel value? temperature during the refining
(c) Methane (d) Carbon dioxide (a) Hydrogen (b) Charcoal of crude oil is
345. Addition of ethylene dibromide to (c) Natural gas (d) Gasoline (a) kerosene, gasoline, diesel
petrol e 2014 I 356. The gas supplied in cylinders for (b) diesel, gasoline, kerosene
(a) increases the octane number of fuel cooking is (c) gasoline, kerosene, diesel
(b) helps elimination of lead oxide (a) marsh gas (d) gasoline, diesel, kerosene
(c) removes the sulphur compound in (b) LPG 368. Which one among the following is
petrol (c) mixture of CH 4 and C 2 H 6 a strong smelling agent added to
(d) serves as substitute of tetraethyl (d) mixture of ethane and propane
lead LPG cylinder to help in the
357. Which of the following is detection of gas leakage?
346. Bagasse, a byproduct of sugar biodegradable? (a) Ethanol (b) Thioethanol
manufacturing industry, is used (a) Polythene (b) BHC (c) Methane (d) Chloroform
for the production of e 2014 II (c) Paper (d) Copper
369. The cleaning of dirty clothes by
(a) glass (b) paper
358. Oil gas is a mixture of soaps and detergents is due to a
(c) rubber (d) cement (a) H 2 + CH 4 + CO type of molecules, called
347. End of detergent have (b) H 2 + CH 4 + C 2 H 4 + CO surfactants, which are present in
(a) ester group (c) CO + N 2 soaps and detergents.The
(b) aldehyde (d) All of the above surfactant molecules remove the
(c) amine group dirt by
359. An ideal fuel should have
(d) sodium sulphate (a) high calorific value (a) making the cloth slippery
(b) low ignition temperature (b) producing some gases between the
Man Made Materials (c) regulated and controlled dirt and the cloth
(d) All of the above (c) dissolving the dirt
348. Soaps can be classified as (d) forming some aggregates of
(a) carbohydrates 360. The quality of gasoline sample is themselves and take away the dirt
(b) ethers determined by its in the core of the aggregates
(c) salt of fatty acids (a) iodine value (b) cetane number
(d) None of the above (c) octane number (d) mass density 370. Consider the following statements
1. Superphosphate of lime can be
349. Soft soaps are 361. The process by which vegetable assimilated by plants which is
(a) sodium salt ghee is manufactured is known as soluble in water.
(b) calcium salt (a) saponification (b) hydrogenation
2. Soaps do not form lather with
(c) magnesium salt (c) esterificaiton (d) hydrolysis
water containing salts of
(d) potassium salt 362. The major portion of combustable calcium and magnesium.
350. Made synthetic fibre is part of gobar gas is Choose the correct statement(s)
(a) methane (b) ethane (a) Only 1
(a) wool (b) rayon
(c) ethylene (d) acetylene (b) Only 2
(c) nylon (d) cotton
363. Octane number of fuel can be (c) Both 1 and 2
351. Natural fibre is (d) None of the above
(a) polyester (b) wool increased by
(c) nylon (d) cashmillon (a) isomerisation (b) alkylation 371. Which one of the following is used
(c) reforming (d) All of these in the preparation of antiseptic
352. Polyethene is a polymer of solution?
(a) ethane 364. Candles contains a mixture of
(b) ethene (a) bees wax and paraffin wax 1. Potassium nitrate
(c) ethyne (b) bees wax and stearic acid 2. Iodine
(d) methane (c) paraffin wax and stearic acid Choose the correct code
(d) higher fatty acid (a) Only 1
353. Which one of the following pairs is (b) Only 2
not correctly matched? 365. Ammonium sulphate and lime
should be applied to the soil at the (c) Both 1 and 2
Plastic Type (d) None of the above
same time because
(a) Nylon fibres Fibres (a) nitrogen would be lost as ammonia 372. Statement I Phenyl is used as a
(b) PVC Thermoplastic (b) it support fungal growth household germicide.
(c) Phenol formaldehyde Thermoplastic (c) soil structure would be adversely Statement II Phenyl is phenol
affected
(d) Polypropylene Thermoplastic derivative and phenol is an
(d) harmful bacterial population would
get activated effective germicide.
676 CDS Pathfinder

Codes Which of the statement(s) given 381. Statement I Superphosphate of

(a) Both the Statements are correct above is/are correct? lime can be assimilated by plants.
and Statement II is the correct (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 Statement II Superphosphate
explanation of Statement I (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these of lime is soluble in water.
(b) Both the Statements are correct Codes
but Statement II is not the correct 377. Consider the following statements
(a) Both the Statements are correct
explanation of Statement I regarding the properties and uses and Statement II is the correct
(c) Statement I is correct but of glass wool. explanation of Statement I
Statement II is incorrect 1. Glass wool has tensile strength (b) Both the Statements are correct
(d) Statement I is incorrect but greater than steel. but Statement II is not the correct
Statement II is correct 2. Glass wool is fire proof. explanation of Statement I
373. Some statements about the 3. Glass wool has high electrical (c) Statement I is correct but
benefits of organic farming are conductivity and absorbs Statement II is incorrect
given below. moisture. (d) Statement I is incorrect but
1. It reduces CO2 emission. 4. Glass wool is used to prepare Statement II is correct
2. It does not lead to toxic effect. fibre glass.
3. It improves the water-retention Which of the statements given Previous Years’ Questions
capacity of the soil. above are correct? 382. Vermicompost is an/a e 2012 I
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Which of the above statements (a) inorganic fertiliser
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
is/are correct? (b) toxic substance
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 378. Statement I The main (c) organic bio-fertiliser
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 constituent of the liquified (d) synthetic fertiliser
374. Arrange the following fertilisers petroleum gas is methane. 383. The macro nutrients provided by
according to the decreasing order Statement II Methane can be inorganic fertiliser are e 2012 I
of their nitrogen content. used directly for burning in homes (a) carbon, iron and boron
1. Ammonium sulphate and factories where it can be (b) magnesium, manganese and sulphur
2. Ammonium nitrate supplied through pipelines. (c) magnesium, zinc and iron
Codes (d) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
3. Potassium nitrate
(a) Both the Statements are correct
4. Urea and Statement II is the correct 384. Which one among the following
Codes explanation of Statement I polymers is used for making
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 bulletproof material? e 2012 I
(b) Both the Statements are correct
(c) 4, 2, 1, 3 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 but Statement II is not the correct (a) Polyvinyl chloride (b) Polystyrene
375. Match the following Columns. explanation of Statement I (c) Polyethylene (d) Polyamide
(c) Statement I is correct but
Column I Column II Statement II is incorrect 385. Soaps cannot be used in acidic
A. Sodium palmitate 1. Ore (d) Statement I is incorrect but condition because they lose their
B. Galena 2. Fertiliser Statement II is correct cleansing effect due to formation
of insoluble e 2012 II
C. NPK 3. Soap 379. Match the following Columns.
(a) esters
D. Cellulose 4. Natural polymer Column I Column II (b) alcohols
5. Artificial fibre (Fuel gases) (Major constituents) (c) hydrocarbons
Codes A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, (d) long chain fatty acids
hydrogen
A B C D 386. Chromium oxide in paints makes
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, propane
(a) 5 4 1 2 the colour of paint e 2014 II
C. LPG 3. Butane, ethane
(b) 5 2 1 4 (a) green (b) white (c) red (d) blue
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, methane,
(c) 3 1 2 4 CO 387. The main constituent of Gobar gas
(d) 3 1 4 2
Codes or bio gas is
376. Consider the following statements (a) ethane (b) methane
A B C D
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) (c) propane (d) acetylene
(a) 2 1 3 4
is liquefied under extremely 388. Which one among the following
(b) 3 4 2 1
cold temperatures and high
(c) 2 4 3 1 fuels is used in gas welding?
pressure to facilitate storage or
(d) 3 1 2 4 e 2015 I
transportation in specially
designed vessels. 380. Which one of the following (a) LPG (b) Ethylene
2. First LNG terminal in India (c) Methane (d) Acetylene
polymeric materials is used for
was built in Hassan. making bullet proof jacket? 389. Which one of the following is a
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are (a) Nylon-66 non-renewable resource?
separated from LPG and these (b) Rayon e 2015 II
include ethane, propane, (c) Kevlar (a) Solar energy (b) Coal
butane and natural gasoline. (d) Dacron (c) Water (d) Fisheries
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 677

390. The synthetic rubber has replaced 396. Which one of the following is the (c) It contains compounds of reducing
natural rubber for domestic and major cause of depletion of ozone nature
industrial purposes. Which one of strata of the atmosphere? (d) It contains smoke, fog and sulphur
(a) Carbon dioxide dioxide
the following is the main reason
behind that? e 2016 I
(b) Chlorofluoro carbon 403. Which of the following compounds
(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet (c) Sulphur dioxide caused tragedy of Bhopal in 1984?
the growing demand of different (d) Nitrogen oxide (a) Phosphene
industries. 397. Which of the following statements (b) Methyl isocyanate
(b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical is correct? (c) Carbon monoxide
countries only (a) Ozone hole is a hole formed in (d) Methyl cyanate
(c) Raw materials for synthetic rubber stratosphere from which ozone 404. SO 2 and NO 2 causes pollution by
are easily available ooze out
increasing
(d) Natural rubber is not durable (b) Ozone hole is a hole formed in the (a) alkalinity
troposphere from which ozone ooze
391. The handle of pressure cookers is (b) neutrality
out
made of plastic because it should (c) acidity
(c) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone (d) buffer action
be made non-conductor of heat layer of stratosphere at some
The plastic used there is the first places 405. Freon used as refrigerants is
man-made plastic, which is (d) Ozone hole means vanishing of chemically known as
e 2016 I ozone layer around the earth (a) chlorinated hydrocarbon
(a) polythene (b) terylene completely (b) fluorinated hydrocarbon
(c) nylon (d) bakelite (c) chlorofluoro hydrocarbon
398. Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into
(d) fiuorinated aromatic compound
sulphur trioxide in the absence of
Environment and a catalyst is a slow process but 406. Which one of the following is
its Pollution this oxidation occurs easily in the considered as point source for
392. How much amount of sun rays atmosphere. Which substance water pollution?
catalyse the reaction? (a) Factories
reaching the earth is used by (b) Construction site
(a) Oxygen (b) Particulate
plants? (c) Acid rain
(c) UV rays (d) IR rays
(a) 90% (b) 1% (c) 15% (d) 48%
(d) Field lawns
393. The pollutants which come 399. Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main
constituents of air but these do 407. Sewage containing organic waste
directly in the air from sources
not react with each other to form should not be disposed in water
are called primary pollutants.
oxides of nitrogen because bodies because it causes major
Primary pollutants are sometimes
(a) the reaction is endothermic and water pollution. Fishes in such a
converted into secondary
requires very high temperature contaminated water die because of
pollutants. Which of the following (a) large number of mosquitoes
(b) the reaction can be initiated only in
belongs to secondary air the presence of a catalyst (b) increase in the amount of dissolved
pollutants? (c) oxides of nitrogen are unstable oxygen
(a) CO (c) decrease in the amount of
(d) N2 and O2 are unreactive
(b) Hydrocarbon dissolved oxygen
(c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) 400. In acid rain, the acid present in
(d) clogging of gills by mud
(d) NO highest concentration is
(a) nitric acid (b) hydrochloric acid 408. Biochemical Oxygen Demand
394. Ozone is formed in the upper (c) sulphuric acid (d) carbonic acid (BOD) is a measure of organic
atmosphere from oxygen by the materials present in water. BOD
action of 401. Which of the following statements
is not true? value less than 5 ppm indicates a
(a) thermal radiation from sunlight
(a) London smog is a mixture of water sample to be
(b) cosmic rays
smoke and fog (a) rich in dissolved oxygen
(c) ultraviolet rays
(b) London smog is oxidising in nature (b) poor in dissolved oxygen
(d) infrared rays (c) highly polluted
(c) Photochemical smog causes
395. Which of the following statements irritation in eyes (d) not suitable for aquatic life
is wrong? (d) Photochemical smog results in the 409. For dry cleaning, in the place of
(a) Ozone is not responsible for formation of PAN
greenhouse effect
tetrachloroethane, liquefied
(b) Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide 402. Which of the following statements carbon dioxide with suitable
present in the atmosphere to is not true about classical smog? detergent is an alternative
sulphur trioxide (a) Its main components are produced solvent. What type of harm to the
(c) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone by the action of sunlight on environment will be prevented by
layer present in stratosphere emissions of automobiles and stopping use of tetrachloroethane?
(d) Ozone is produced in upper factories (a) It results in tropospheric pollution
stratosphere by the action of UV (b) Produced in cold and humid (b) It causes depletion of ozone layer
rays on oxygen climate (c) It causes particulate pollution
(d) Both (a) and (b)
678 CDS Pathfinder

410. From which of the following water 415. Match the following Columns. 422. Which of the following gases in
sources, the water is likely to be the atmosphere is/are responsible
Column I Column II
contaminated with fluoride? (Pollutant) (Source) for acid rain? e 2013 I
1. Ground water 1. Oxides of sulphur
A. Microorganisms 1. Chemical fertilisers
2. River water 2. Oxides of nitrogen
B. Plant nutrients 2. Abandoned coal
Choose the correct code mines 3. Oxides of carbon
(a) Only 1 C. Sediments 3. Domestic sewage Select the correct answer using
(b) Only 2 D. Mineral acids 4. Erosion of soil by the codes given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 strip mining (a) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Detergents (b) 1 and 3
411. Consider the following (c) Only 2
Codes (d) All of the above
statements. A B C D A B C D
1. Ultraviolet rays coming from (a) 2 5 3 1 (b) 3 1 4 2
423. Match the following Columns.
sun causes skin cancer. e 2013 I
(c) 4 2 5 1 (d) 1 3 2 4
2. Taj Mahal is threatened by Column I Column II
416. Which one of the following is
pollution from SO2 (Agent) (Disease)
associated with the formation of
Choose the correct statement and brown air in traffic congested A. Arsenic 1. Fluorosis
select the correct code. cities? B. Fluoride 2. Melanosis
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Sulphur dioxide C. Dust 3. Presbycusis
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Nitrogen oxide D. Noise 4. Silicosis
412. Statement I Oxides of sulphur (c) Carbon dioxide
and nitrogen present in high (d) Carbon monoxide Codes
concentration in air are dissolved A B C D
417. Which one of the following
in rain drop. (a) 3 1 4 2
chemicals is commonly used by
Statement II Oxy acids of (b) 3 4 1 2
farmers to destroy weeds?
sulphur and nitrogen makes rain (a) DDT (b) Malathion (c) 2 1 4 3
water acidic. (c) Methyl bromide (d) 2,4-D (d) 2 4 1 3
Codes
418. From which one among the 424. Statement I Chlorine radicals Cl•
(a) Both the Statements are correct initiate the chain reaction for
and Statement II is the correct
following water sources, the water
is likely to be contaminated with ozone depletion.
explanation of Statement I Statement II Gaseous
(b) Both the Statements are correct fluoride?
(a) Ground water (b) River water hypochlorous acid and chlorine
but Statement II is not the correct
(c) Pond water (d) Rain water are photolysed by sunlight.
explanation of Statement I
Codes e 2013 I
(c) Statement I is correct but 419. Which of the occupational health (a) Both the Statements are correct
Statement II is incorrect hazards commonly faced by the and Statement II is the correct
(d) Statement I is incorrect but workers of ceramics, pottery and explanation of Statement I
Statement II is correct glass industry is (b) Both the Statements are correct
413. Which of the following (a) stone formation in gall bladder
but Statement II is not the correct
occupational health hazards (b) melanoma explanation of Statement I
commonly faced by the workers of (c) silicosis
(c) Statement I is correct but
ceramics, pottery and glass (d) stone formation in kidney Statement II is incorrect
industry. (d) Statement I is incorrect but
1. Stone formation in gall bladder Previous Years’ Questions Statement II is correct
2. melanoma 420. Which one among the following is 425. Nitric oxide pollution can lead to
3. silicosis responsible for the expansion of all of the following, except
Choose the correct code water in the ocean? e 2013 I e 2014 I
(a) Only 2 (a) Carbon dioxide (a) leaf spotting in plants
(b) Only 3 (b) Nitrogen dioxide (b) bronchitis related respiratory
(c) 1 and 2 (c) Carbon monoxide problems in human
(d) All of the above (d) Sulphur dioxide (c) production of corrosive gases
414. Ordinary dry air consists of the 421. Which one among the following through photochemical reaction
following. gases readily combines with the (d) silicosis in human
1. Nitrogen 2. Argon haemoglobin of the blood? 426. The technique of inducing rain
3. Oxygen 4. Carbon dioxide e 2013 I from cloud is called? e 2014 II
What is the decreasing sequence (a) Methane (a) Cloud computing
of these in percentages? (b) Nitrogen dioxide (b) Cloud control
(a) 1, 3, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 3 (c) Carbon monoxide (c) Cloud engineering
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (d) Sulphur dioxide (d) Cloud seeding
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 679

427. Match the following Columns. 428. Which one of the following is the 3 Eutrophication is an effective
e 2015 I most appropriate and correct measure to control pollution.
Column I Column II practice from the point of view of Select the correct answer using
(Air pollutants) (Effect) a healthy environment? e 2015 I the codes given below. e 2016 I
(a) Burning of plastic wastes to keep (a) 1 and 2
A. Chlorofluorocarbon 1. Acid rain the environment clean (b) 2 and 3
B. Sulphur dioxide 2. Depletion in (b) Burning of dry and fallen leaves in
ozone layer in (c) Only 1
a garden or field (d) All of the above
the atmosphere
(c) Treatment of domestic sewage
C. Lead compound 3. Harmful for 430. Methyl isocyanate gas, which was
before its release
human nervous
system (d) Use of chemical fertilisers in involved in the disaster in Bhopal
D. Carbon dioxide 4. Topmost agricultural fields in December, 1984, was used in
contribution to 429. Which of the following the Union Carbide factory for
greenhouse
statement(s) is/are correct? production of e 2016 I
effect. (a) dyes
1. Acid rain reacts with buildings (b) detergents
Codes made from limestone.
A B C D A B C D (c) explosives
2. Burning of sulphur containing (d) pesticides
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2 coal can contribute to acid
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 rain.

ANSWERS
1 a 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 a 6 c 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 a
11 b 12 c 13 c 14 b 15 a 16 c 17 d 18 a 19 a 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 c 24 d 25 d 26 d 27 d 28 b 29 b 30 b
31 d 32 d 33 c 34 b 35 d 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 a 40 d
41 a 42 d 43 b 44 c 45 a 46 a 47 d 48 a 49 d 50 a
51 a 52 c 53 d 54 a 55 b 56 b 57 c 58 b 59 c 60 b
61 b 62 b 63 b 64 b 65 b 66 c 67 b 68 b 69 c 70 a
71 c 72 c 73 a 74 d 75 b 76 a 77 c 78 d 79 c 80 b
81 c 82 a 83 b 84 b 85 d 86 c 87 d 88 d 89 b 90 a
91 b 92 d 93 c 94 c 95 b 96 d 97 a 98 c 99 c 100 d
101 a 102 d 103 a 104 c 105 b 106 c 107 b 108 a 109 b 110 d
111 b 112 a 113 c 114 c 115 d 116 b 117 c 118 b 119 a 120 a
121 d 122 a 123 c 124 c 125 d 126 a 127 c 128 a 129 d 130 c
131 a 132 c 133 b 134 a 135 c 136 c 137 a 138 c 139 b 140 d
141 c 142 c 143 d 144 d 145 a 146 b 147 b 148 b 149 a 150 c
151 d 152 b 153 a 154 c 155 b 156 b 157 c 158 a 159 a 160 a
161 c 162 a 163 a 164 d 165 d 166 c 167 b 168 b 169 d 170 a
171 d 172 b 173 a 174 d 175 b 176 c 177 b 178 c 179 d 180 a
181 b 182 a 183 a 184 c 185 b 186 a 187 b 188 b 189 b 190 c
191 b 192 d 193 d 194 a 195 d 196 d 197 a 198 c 199 c 200 b
201 a 202 c 203 c 204 d 205 c 206 c 207 b 208 d 209 a 210 c
211 a 212 c 213 d 214 c 215 c 216 b 217 b 218 c 219 c 220 a
221 a 222 a 223 c 224 c 225 a 226 c 227 d 228 b 229 c 230 a
231 a 232 a 233 d 234 c 235 a 236 b 237 b 238 b 239 a 240 d
241 a 242 d 243 c 244 a 245 d 246 b 247 d 248 a 249 d 250 a
251 d 252 d 253 d 254 a 255 d 256 d 257 d 258 c 259 d 260 a
261 a 262 b 263 c 264 a 265 a 266 c 267 c 268 d 269 b 270 b
680 CDS Pathfinder

271 b 272 a 273 a 274 a 275 b 276 c 277 c 278 a 279 b 280 c
281 a 282 b 283 d 284 d 285 a 286 c 287 b 288 a 289 b 290 c
291 c 292 b 293 b 294 d 295 c 296 d 297 d 298 b 299 d 300 c
301 c 302 c 303 a 304 a 305 a 306 c 307 b 308 a 309 d 310 b
311 a 312 d 313 a 314 c 315 a 316 b 317 d 318 d 319 a 320 b
321 c 322 a 323 d 324 d 325 d 326 c 327 c 328 a 329 b 330 b
331 a 332 d 333 a 334 a 335 a 336 a 337 c 338 c 339 a 340 b
341 c 342 b 343 b 344 b 345 d 346 b 347 d 348 c 349 d 350 c
351 b 352 b 353 c 354 c 355 a 356 b 357 c 358 b 359 d 360 c
361 b 362 a 363 d 364 c 365 a 366 a 367 c 368 b 369 d 370 c
371 b 372 a 373 d 374 c 375 c 376 b 377 d 378 d 379 b 380 c
381 a 382 c 383 b 384 c 385 d 386 a 387 b 388 d 389 b 390 c
391 d 392 b 393 c 394 c 395 a 396 b 397 c 398 b 399 a 400 c
401 b 402 a 403 b 404 c 405 c 406 a 407 c 408 a 409 b 410 b
411 c 412 a 413 b 414 a 415 b 416 b 417 d 418 b 419 c 420 a
421 c 422 a 423 c 424 b 425 b 426 d 427 c 428 c 429 a 430 c

Solutions
5. At STP, 44 g (1 mole) carbon dioxide rH M He
109. = = 2
= 6.02 × 10 23
molecules rHe MH
7. Density of liquid is generally less than that of its solid form. rH = 14
. r He
But solid ice is lighter than water as it floats on water, Mass of solute
114. Molarity =
i.e. the density of solid form of water (ice) is less than that of Molar mass of solute × volume of solution (L)
the liquid form of water. 8
= (Q NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g mol −1 )
14. Pure water reaches at its maximum density, when cooled at 40 × 1
approximately 4°C (39°F). As it is cooled further, at 0°C, 1
water expands to become less dense. = = 0 . 2M
5
This unusual negative thermal expansion is attributed to 1000
strong, orientation dependent, intermolecular interactions 115. Molarity of pure water = = 55.55 M
18
(hydrogen bonds).
120. The tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with
16. Chemical changes are generally irreversible. So, the frying of
helium (i.e. He—O2 mixture) because unlike nitrogen, helium
an egg is a chemical change.
is not soluble in blood even under high pressure.
17. Molecular weight of NaCl = 23 + 35.5 = 58.5
147. Soft drinks regulate acidity with bicarbonate salts.
Equivalent weight Bicarbonate of soda is effective in regulating the pH levels of
Molecular weight 58.5 other substances, it ensures that the substance is neither too
= = = 58.5 alkaline nor too acidic.
Valence factor 1
. 21. Latent heat is the amount of heat required per mass during the 148. The blue litmus paper turns red in acidic solution and the red
change of phase of a substance. litmus paper turns blue in basic solution. The neutral solution
does not affect the litmus paper. Thus, only acidic solution can
Sl unit Jkg −1 change the colour of blue litmus paper to red.
Quantity of heat (Q)
Latent heat (L) = 241. Gypsum (CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2O) is added to clinker during cement
Mass ( m)
manufacturing to decrease the rate of setting of cement so that
Here, m = 1100 g of ice it gets sufficiently hardens.
L = 333.6 J/g
242. Pearl consists of approximately 85% calcium carbonate hence,
So, amount of heat (Q) = m × L = 100 × 333.6 the main constituent of a pearl is calcium carbonate.
Q = 33360 J
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 681

243. Sodium thiosulphate (Na 2S 2O3 ) solution is used in 275. Magnesium burns with a very bright white light, so it is used to
photography as a fixer since, it removes undecomposed AgBr add white sparks or improve the overall brilliance of a
as a soluble silver thiosulphate complex. Na 2S 2O3 firework.
AgBr + 2Na 2S 2O3 → Na 3 [Ag(S 2O3 )2 ] + NaBr 276. Carbon atoms in diamond form a rigid, three dimensional
Sodium argento structure with each carbon atom bonded to four other carbon
thiosulphate atoms.
245. Fluorescent coating on the glass is the secondary source of 282. Boiling kills most of the microorganisms. Filtration removes
light in a fluorescent lamp. most of the bacteria but not the viruses less than 0 . 3 µm
258. Radioactivity is not a periodic property. It is a nuclear diameter. These viruses are removed/killed by chlorination or
‘property. Atomic size, valency and electronegativity are UV-treatment.
periodic properties because they show a trend on moving from 286. Tungsten is uniquely suitable for using as a filament in electric
one side to the other in the periodic table. bulbs because of its high melting point (3695 K), high
259. Heavy water or deuterium oxide (D2O) is an oxide of resistance, lowest vapour pressure and tensile strength.
deuterium which is an isotope of hydrogen. It is a colourless, 290. The two common allotropes of carbon are diamond and
odourless and tasteless liquid. It contains 0.014% normal graphite. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity whereas
water (H2O). It is used as moderator in nuclear reactor to slow diamond is a non-conductor of electricity. In a graphite
down the neutrons. crystal, each carbon atom is joined to only three other carbon
atoms by covalent bonds.
264. On mixing with water, Plaster of Paris hardens because it takes
up the water of crystallisation again and thus converts back The fourth valence electron of each carbon atom is ‘free’ to
into the dihydrate, i.e. gypsum and sets to a hard mass with move, which is responsible for the conduction of electricity. In
slight expansion. a diamond crystal, each carbon atom is linked to four other
carbon atoms by strong covalent bonds.
1 1
CaSO4 ⋅ H2O + 1 H2O → CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2O
2 2 Each carbon atom in
Gypsum graphite is joined to only
Plaster of Paris
three other carbon atoms
2
270. Alloy Constituent 1
Solder Lead and tin Flat layer of
carbon atoms 3
Brass Copper and zinc
Weak forces
Bronze Copper and tin hold the layers
of carbon
Steel Iron and carbon Flat layer of atoms together
carbon atoms
274. The hardness of water is mainly due to the presence of Ca or Strong bonds exist
Mg ions. When hard water containing these ions is treated with Flat layer of between carbon
soap solution, it reacts to form white crudy precipitate, known carbon atoms atoms in a layer
as scum.
Structure of Graphite
03
682

BIOLOGY
CDS Pathfinder

After analysing the previous year question papers, we have seen that 40-45 questions are asked from science
section, out of these 10-15 questions were asked from Biology. From biology section, around 2-3 questions are
asked from classification, genetics and evolution, 3-4 questions from human physiology, and 1 to 2 questions
each from topics like cell, human health and diseases and applied biology.

CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE

Biology is the branch of science concerned with the • Robert Hooke in 1665 discovered the cell. He is the
study of living organisms. The term ‘biology’ is coined Father of Cytology.
by Lamarck and Treviranus. The study of plants is • Cell theory was given by Schleiden and Schwann.
called Botany, while study of animals is called Zoology. • Matthias Jacob Schleiden (1838) a German botanist said
that, all plants are composed of different kinds of cells,
THE CELL which in turn form plant tissues.
Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all the • Theodor Schwann (1839) said that, all animals and plants
living organisms. The word ‘cell’ comes from the Latin are made up of cells. Cell theory is not applicable for
word cellula which means a ‘small room’. viruses.
• Living organisms may consist of one or more cells, • According to Virchow ‘new cells arise from pre-existing
according to this there are two types of organisms, cells’, i.e. Omnis cellula-e-cellula.
i.e. unicellular (composed of single cell) and • Smallest cell is mycoplasma or Pleuropneumonia Like
multicellular (composed of many cells). Organism (PPLO). Largest cell is ostrich’s egg and the
longest cell is nerve cell.
Cell
• The smallest human cell is the red blood cell. Bacteria was
discovered by AV Leeuwenhoek.
Living parts of cell Non-living parts of cell • First compound microscope was invented by Jansen and
Cell membrane Endoplasmic reticulum Cell wall Jansen.
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria Vacuoles • Electron microscope was invented by Knoll and Ruska.
Golgi bodies Vital stains are used for staining living cells or living parts
Nucleus Cell Fat droplets •
organelles Lysosomes of cell, e.g. Janus green for mitochondria.
Granules
Ribosomes
Waste materials
• Protoplasm is the living component of cell that includes
Plastids
cytoplasm, cell organelles and nucleoplasm.
Centrosomes
• Cytoplasm term was given by Strasburger.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 683

• Mitochondria, chloroplast, nucleus are (ii) Eukaryotic cell It is a complex cell with double
double-membraned structures. membrane bound nucleus, e.g. plant and animal cells.
• Lysosome, Golgi body, Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) Eukaryotic organisation is seen in all the protists,
are single-membraned structures. plants, fungi and animals.
• Centrosome, flagella, ribosome are non-membranous in Differences between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cell
structure.
Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell
• Glycogen is referred to as animal starch.
Simplest and primitive in Advanced and comparatively
Some Discoveries about the Cell nature. complex in nature.
Scientist Discovery Nucleus is absent. Nucleus is present.
Robert Brown (1831) Nucleus Membrane bound cell Membrane bound cell organelles
Purkinje (1837) Named protoplasm to be a content of cell organelles are absent. are present.

W Flemming (1882) Observed mitotic cell division, splitting of Single naked chromosome Many chromosomes are present.
chromosome and named the term chromatin is present.

F Miescher Discovered the nucleic acid Cell division is direct. Cell division by mitosis or meiosis.
C Benda (1897) Mitochondria
Beneden and Boveri (1887) The chromosome number is constant in a
species
Structure of Animal and Plant Cell
Camillo Golgi (1891) Golgi body Animal and plant cell structures are described below
WS Sutton (1902) Significance of reductional division Microvilli

F Meves (1904) Mitochondria in plant cell

JB Farmer and Moore (1905) Named meiosis Plasma membrane
Golgi
FA Johanssen (1909) Chiasma formation apparatus Lysosome
TH Morgan (1933) Role of chromosomes in heredity
Smooth Centriole
endoplasmic
Types of Cells reticulum
Ribosomes
On the basis of the organisation, complexity and variety, Nuclear Mitochondrion
all cells can be grouped into two types: envelope
Rough
(i) Prokaryotic cell It is a simpler cell, lacking a true Nucleus endoplasmic
nucleus, i.e. nuclear membrane is absent in these cells, reticulum
e.g. bacteria, mycoplasma, etc.
Nucleolus
Bacteria are the microscopic prokaryotic organisms
Cytoplasm
whose single cell have neither a membrane enclosed Animal cell
nucleus nor other membrane enclosed organelles like
mitochondria and chloroplasts. Lysosome Rough endoplasmic
reticulum Nucleolus
●
The bacterial cell wall is strong and rigid.
●
Murein or peptidoglycan or mucopeptide is present Smooth
endoplasmic
in the cell wall. Chloroplast
reticulum
Bacteria are mainly of two types:
Nucleus
(i) Archaebacteria They are obligate anaerobes. Golgi
(ii) Eubacteria They are true bacteria. Microtubule apparatus
Some examples are as follow:
Nuclear
●
Staphylococcus aureus causes boils, pneumonia, envelope
food poisoning and other diseases. Plasma
membrane
●
Staphylococcus thermophilus gives yoghurt its
creamy flavour. Middle lamella
Cell wall
●
S. lactis often added to milk for the production Peroxisome
Mitochondrion
of cheese.
Cytoplasm Ribosomes
Plant cell
684 CDS Pathfinder

Differences between Plant and Animal Cell Cell Membrane or Plasmalemma

Plant cell Animal cell It is the innermost layer of cell envelope that is semipermeable
Cell wall is present in plant cell. Cell wall is usually absent.
in nature and is responsible for the interaction of cell with the
outside environment.
Plastids are found. Plastids are usually absent.
• It consists of protein (52%), lipid (40%) and carbohydrate
Centrioles are found in some algae Centrioles are found in all (5-10%). It is elastic in nature because of the presence of lipids.
and fungi. cells.
• The most popular theory ‘fluid mosaic model’ of membrane
Big vacuoles are present but they Vacuole is very small in size
are less in number. but present in more structure was given by Singer and Nicolson.
number. • It states that integral and peripheral proteins are found in
Cell shape is usually round or Cell shape is rectangular cell membrane.
irregular. and fixed.
• Pinocytosis (cell drinking) In this process, cells ingest
extracellular fluid.
Composition of Cell • Phagocytosis (cell eating) Engulfing and digestion of
Representation of the chemical composition of living extracellular solid food by cell.
tissue is as follows:
The total cellular The total cellular
Nucleus
Component Component
mass in % mass in % The term ‘Nucleus’ is given by Waldeyer (1888). Nucleus is a
Water 70-90% Lipids 2% specialised largest principal cell organelle of the cell, which
Proteins 10-15% Nucleic acids 5-7%
contains all genetic information for controlling all essential
processes related to metabolism and transmission. It was first
Carbohydrates 3% Ions 1%
discovered by Robert Brown in 1831.
• Most of the eukaryotic cells are uninucleate except
Cell Organelles Paramecium, which is binucleate.
There are some organelles as follow: • Nucleus is made up of nuclear membrane, nucleoplasm,
nucleolus, chromatin. Chromatin is composed of nucleic
Cell Wall acid and protein (histone and non-histone chromosome).
It is a rigid and solid covering that gives shape and • Chromosome of eukaryotic cell is composed of DNA +
strong structural support to the cell. It is a non-living histone protein + some amount of RNA. Normally each cell
structure, which forms the outer covering of the contains 23 pair of chromosomes in humans.
plasma membrane in plants and fungi, but is absent in • Nucleic acid, the genetic material was discovered by
animal cells. Cell wall consists of following parts: Friedrich Miescher. The term ‘Nucleic acid’ was given by
• Middle lamella It is composed of calcium pectate Altman.
(chief component) and magnesium pectate.
• Primary cell wall It is composed of cellulose, Chromosome
hemicellulose and lignin. Rigidity of cell wall is due During the cell division, chromatin shrinks (compressed) and
to lignin. gets divided into various smaller, thick and consolidated form,
• Secondary cell wall It is composed of cellulose and known as chromosomes.
hemicellulose. Chromosome Number in Some Organisms
• Tertiary cell wall It is present in tracheids of
Chromosome Chromosome
gymnosperms.
Organisms number in each Organisms number in each
• Bacterial cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan or body cell body cell
murein. Bacterial cell wall contains D-amino acids. Roundworm 2 Mouse 40
• Fungal cell wall is composed of chitin. Mosquito 6 Rat 42
Functions of Cell Wall Drosophila 8 Human beings 46
• It helps in preventing cell from bursting or Garden pea 14 Potato 48
collapsing and allows the material to pass in and out Onion 16 Dog 64
of the cell.
Maize 20 Pigeon 80
• It wards off the attack of pathogens like viruses,
Frog 24 Gold fish 100
bacteria, fungi and protozoans.
Rice 26 Amoeba 250
Sunflower 34
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 685

Study of Cell Organelles

Cell organelle Nature/Composition Function Present (P)/Absent (A)

Animal cell Plant cell

Cell membrane Double layer of lipid molecules with proteins molecules, Gives shape to the cell, maintains distinct P P
differentially permeable. composition of the cell.
Cell wall Freely permeable, made up of fibrous polysaccharide Gives strength and rigidity to the cell. A P
(cellulose). Bacteria and unicellular eukaryotes have
peptidoglycan compound in their cell wall.
Cytoplasm Consists of aqueous ground substance, having starch, Provides medium for suspension of materials and P P
glycogen, etc. cell organelles.
Vacuoles Fluid-filled spaces without any definite shape and size. Store water, minerals, salts, food pigments, P P
Larger in plant cell. wastes, etc.
Nucleus Oval-shaped, bounded by double membrane having Controls the metabolic activities, regulates cell P P
pores possess genetic material. division, synthesises and stores proteins, also
called as the controller of the cells.
Mitochondria Bounded by a double membrane, found in cytoplasm. Cellular respiration or oxidation of food, ATP is P P
They contain DNA also. stored in it, so called as powerhouse of the cell.
Endoplasmic Membranous network of fluid-filled with lumen with or Forms supporting skeletal framework of the cell P P
Reticulum (ER) without ribosomes, absent in RBCs. also called skeleton of the cell.
Ribosomes Dense and spherical particles, found either attached to Play a vital role in protein synthesis also called P P
endoplasmic reticulum or freely in cytoplasm. It is the protein factory of the cell.
smallest non-membranous organelles.
Lysosomes Tiny spherical bag-like structures found in cytoplasm Helps in intracellular digestion, digest worn out P P
with hydrolytic enzymes. organelles, also called suicidal bags of the cell.
Chloroplasts Sac-like double walled with protein matrix generally called Sites of photosynthesis, give colour to organ, also A P
plastids, contain photosynthetic pigments called called as kitchen of the cell.
chlorophyll and carotenoids. These also contains DNA.
Golgi bodies Consist of tubules and vesicles. Secrete hormones, enzymes, involved in synthesis P P
of cell wall, plasma membrane, etc.
Centriole Hollow and cylindrical structures made up of Helps in cell division in animal cell. P A
microtubules.
Microtubules Tubulin protein Spindle formation P P

(i) G1 -phase (Gap 1) It corresponds to the duration

CELL CYCLE between the mitosis (M-phase) and initiation of
• Cell cycle is an orderly sequence of events or stages by replication of DNA. Cell grows, becomes metabolically
which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesise the other active, but does not undergo DNA replication.
constituents of the cell and eventually divides into two Some time after G1 -phase cell may enter S-phase and
daughter cells. It is a cyclic process, which involves cell continue the cell cycle or it may enter into G 0 -phase. In
growth and cell division. G 0 -phase the cells leave cell cycle.
• Cell division is an essential process in all living (ii ) S-phase (Synthesis) It is known to be the phase, in
organisms. The mode of cell division is fundamentally which actual synthesis or replication of DNA takes
similar in all organisms. During cell division, the place. In case of animal cell, during S-phase DNA
processes like DNA replication and cell growth must replication begins inside the nucleus, while the
take place in a sequential coordinated manner to duplication of centrioles takes place in the cytoplasm.
ensure the correct division and formation of progeny (iii ) G 2 -phase (Gap 2) This phase is also called
cells with intact genome. Cell cycle involves two post-synthetic or pre-mitotic phase. During this stage,
phases, i.e. interphase followed by M-phase. the synthesis of DNA stops and proteins required for
M-phase are being synthesised, while the growth of the
cells continues. It prepares the cell to undergo divisions.
1. Interphase
It is the period between the end of one cell division to 2. M-phase
the beginning of the next cell division (i.e. between true
M-phase is the actual phase of cell division. It may occur in
successive M-phase). Interphase is further divided into
following three substages on the basis of various two way depending upon the type of cell, it is taking place
synthetic activity. in, i.e. mitosis (vegetative cell) or meiosis (generative cell).
686 CDS Pathfinder

(A) Mitosis (ii ) Metaphase-I Lining of chromosomes in the middle.

Formation of spindle apparatus takes place and each
A type of cell division, in which chromosomes replicate centromere is joined by chromosomal fibres.
themselves and get equally distributed into daughter nuclei,
(iii ) Anaphase-I Separation of homologous
i.e. the chromosome number in the parental and the progeny
chromosomes (disjunction) to form two cells with
becomes same.
haploid number of the chromosomes.
The four phases of mitosis are: (iv ) Telophase-I This is the last stage of meiosis-I, two
(i ) Prophase Chromosome deviation in chromatids starts cells with n number of chromosomes are formed.
and nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.
(ii ) Metaphase Chromosomes line up in the middle and Meiosis-II
spindle fibres from centriole connect to each chromatid It is very similar to mitosis.
(half of chromosome). (i ) Prophase-II The shortening and thickening of the
(iii ) Anaphase Chromatids are pulled apart to separate poles chromatids.
and the membrane begins to pinch off in the middle. (ii ) Metaphase-II Lining of chromosomes in the
(iv ) Telophase Complete division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis) middle.
and two cells are formed. Two daughter cells, which are (iii ) Anaphase-II Separation of chromosomes into
formed by mitosis have same/equal number of chromatids.
chromosomes. It results in formation of somatic cells. (iv ) Telophase-II Uncoiling and lengthening of the
chromosomes, four daughter cells with haploid set
(B) Meiosis of chromosomes are formed.
A type of cell division that results in the formation of four
daughter cells each with half the chromosome number of the Differences between Mitosis and Meiosis
parent cell. Mitosis Meiosis
In the process of meiosis, there are two main stages: Found in somatic cells. Found in diploid reproductive cells.

Meiosis-I Forms two identical diploid cells. Forms four haploid cells.

It is further divided into four phases: Every chromosome behaves Homologous chromosomes show
independently. pairing.
(i ) Prophase-I The longest phase of meiosis-I.
Chromosome number remains Chromosome number becomes
It is composed of five substages: constant. half.
(a) Leptotene Chromatins condense to form Crossing over does not occur. Crossing over occurs.
chromosome.
(b) Zygotene Pairing of homologous chromosomes
called synapsis, in this phase, synaptonemal complex IMPORTANT POINTS
is formed. ●
Chromoplasts are yellow, orange and red coloured.
(c) Pachytene Crossing over between non-sister ●
Leucoplasts are colourless plastids.
chromatids. ●
Golgi bodies are absent in bacteria, blue-green
(d) Diplotene Longest duration phase, in which algae, mature sperm and RBCs.
chiasmata formation takes place. ●
Dinomitosis is failure of meiosis-II to occur after
(e) Diakinesis It involves slipping of chiasmata called meiosis-I. It solely occurs in the class–Dinophyceae,
terminalisation. a class of Alga with chlorophyll-c.

CLASSIFICATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS

TAXONOMY • Classification means the ordering of organisms into

The classification results in an organised system, which is groups. The branch of science that deals with the
essential for the naming and cataloging of future specimens principles and procedures of biological classification is
and reflects inter-relationships between living organisms. called taxonomy.
Biologists use method of classification to understand the • Carolus Linnaeus is the Father of Taxonomy. ‘Systema
evolutionary history and it provides an organised way of Naturae’ and ‘Species Plantarum’ books are written by
studying characteristics of living organisms. Carolus Linnaeus.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 687

• Nomenclature means providing distinct and proper (a) Algae These are plant-like organisms that are usually
names to organisms, so that they can be easily recognised photosynthetic and aquatic in nature.
and differentiated from others. The two codes for These are chlorophyll containing thallophytes, in
nomenclature are which vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) are absent.
– ICBN International Code of Botanical Nomenclature Some examples are as follow:
– Chlorella used as component of sewage oxidation
– ICZN International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
tanks.
• Binomial nomenclature was given by Linnaeus. It is the
– Antibiotic chlorellin is obtained from Chlorella.
system of nomenclature using two terms, the first
– Iodine is obtained from Laminaria.
indicating the genus and the second one indicating the
– Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
species, e.g. Mangifera indica (mango).
– Spirogyra is also called as pond silk.
– The categories used in classification are kingdom,
phylum, class, order, family, genus and species. (b) Fungi These are non-vascular, heterotrophic, spore
forming eukaryotic organisms.
– Genus and species terms were proposed by John
They have stored food material as glycogen. Cell wall
Ray. is made up of chitin or fungal cellulose.
– The smallest unit of classification is species. Some examples are as follow:
• Living organisms have been classified by different – Albugo candida – White rust of crucifers
scientists. Some of the main classification systems are: – Puccinia graminis tritici – Black rust of wheat
(i ) Two system classification was given by Linnaeus – Rhizopus stolonifer – Fumatic acid
in 1758. It was the first classification. He divided – Aspergillus – Produces aflatoxin (natural mycotoxin)
all the living organisms into two kingdoms. These – Agaricus – Mushroom, these have filamentous
are Plantae and Animalia.
structure called hyphae.
(ii ) Copeland designed four kingdom classification – In Whittaker’s five kingdom classification, fungi
system in 1956. has been placed in a separate kingdom – Fungi. It
(iii) Whittaker gave five kingdom classification system is mainly because fungi do not have chlorophyll.
in 1969. (c) Lichens Symbiotic relationship between algae and
fungi. These are the indicators of water pollution.
CLASSIFICATION OF PLANTS (ii) Bryophyta
Many systems for classifying the plant kingdom have been
formulated by various researchers and scientists, from time These are called as the amphibians of plant kingdom.
to time. Scientist Eichler has classified the plant kingdom (a) They do not possess vascular tissue.
into two main groups. (b) Roots are generally absent in them. They are
Thallophyta (Algae) present in damp and shady places.
(c) Some examples are as follow:
Cryptogamae Bryophyta • Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria.
• Zoopsis is the smallest bryophyte.
Plant Kingdom Pteridophyta
• Dawsonia is the largest moss.
Gymnosperms • Sphagnum is employed for dressing of wound.
Phanerogamae Monocot
Angiosperms
Dicot (iii) Pteridophyta
The term ‘Pteridophyta’ comes from Greek word Pteris
1. Cryptogamae means fern and phyton means plant.
These plants never bear flowers and seeds. These are the most (a) These are seedless vascular plants that have plant
primitive. This division includes three main groups: body differentiated into true roots, stems and
leaves. Secondary growth is absent in them.
(i) Thallophyta (b) Some examples are as follow:
These are the simplest and primitive plants. Plant body is • Selaginella, Equisetum.
an undifferentiated mass of cells called as thallus. They lack • Dryopteris (male shield fern).
vascular tissues. • Azolla, Marsilea, Salvinia are aquatic ferns.
This group includes algae and lichens (a symbiotic • Adiantum (maiden hair fern).
combination of an alga with a fungus). • Cyathium (tree fern).
688 CDS Pathfinder

2. Phanerogamae Phylum–Protozoa
These are also known as spermatophytes. They include • These are unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
those plants, which produce seeds. These are divided • In these, all the metabolic activities like digestion,
into two major types: respiration, excretion and reproduction take place in
unicellular body.
(i) Gymnosperms • Respiration and excretion take place through diffusion, e.g.
The term ‘Gymnosperm’ comes from Greek word Amoeba, Paramecium, Plasmodium (malarial parasite).
Gymno means naked and sperma means seed. These are • Euglena have characters of both animals and plants.
vascular plants. Vascular plants means xylem and • Phylum–Protozoa has now been placed in
phloem are present in them for transportation of water kingdom–Protista.
and food, respectively.
Gymnosperms do not have outer covering around their Phylum–Porifera
seeds, i.e. their seeds are naked. Pollination type is • These are multicellular animals.
anemophily (pollination by wind).
• These all are found in marine water and have porous body.
Some examples are as follow:
The pores are called ostia.
• Cycas (sagopalm)-Nostoc /Anabaena show symbiotic • Their skeleton is made up of minute calcareous or silicon
association with Cycas (most primitive gymnosperm). spicules, e.g. Sycon, sponge, etc.
• Pinus – Resin and terpentine obtained from Pinus
chilgoza is obtained from Pinus. Phylum–Coelenterata
• Ginkgo (maiden hair tree) – Living fossil. • These are aquatic animals that possess thread-like structures
• Ephedra – Drug ephedrine is obtained from the stem called tentacles around the mouth, which help in holding
of Ephedra. the food.
• Sequoia gigantia (red-wood tree), tallest (largest tree • They have specialised cnidoblast cells to help in catching
in term of total volume). the food.
• Hydra has a tendency of regeneration of body organs,
• Rhynia (most primitive gymnosperms).
e.g. Hydra, jellyfish, sea anemone, etc.
(ii) Angiosperms Phylum– Platyhelminthes
These are seed bearing, flowering vascular plants. Their • These animals are also called flatworms.
seeds are enclosed within fruits. Double fertilisation • Excretion takes place by flame cells.
takes place in angiosperms. Flowers are generally
• There is no skeleton, respiratory organ, circulatory system,
bisexual, e.g. mustard plant (Brassica campestris).
etc., but alimentary canal is present.
They are further divided into two types:
• These are hermaphrodite animals.
(a) Monocots These are angiospermic or flowering e.g. Planaria, liver fluke, tapeworm, etc.
plants, which are characterised by the presence of
• These organisms are found as internal parasites. For
single cotyledon in their seeds, e.g. maize, grass, etc.
example, tapeworm is a common parasite found in intestine
(b) Dicots These are angiospermic flowering plants
of human beings.
characterised by the presence of two cotyledons in
their seeds, e.g. pea, rose, cotton, sunflower, etc. Phylum–Aschelminthes
• These are long cylindrical, unsegmented and unisexual
CLASSIFICATION OF worms, also called Nematoda or round worms.
• Their alimentary canal is complete, in which mouth and
ANIMALS anus both are present.
Animals are classified in a variety of ways. This helps • There is no circulatory and respiratory systems, but
scientists to study the relationships in animal groups and nervous system is well-developed.
to see the whole animal family as it has developed • Excretion takes place through protonephridia.
through time. Phylum is the grouping of different
• Most forms are parasitic, but some are free -living in soil
classes of animals, which have some common
characteristic features like mode of nutrition, and water, e.g. Ascaris, threadworm, etc.
reproduction, locomotion, etc. • Threadworm is found mainly in the anus of child.
Children feel itching and often vomit. Some children
Storer and Usinger classified animals into following
urinate on the bed at night.
phylums:
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 689

• Wuchereria bancrofti (filaria) is human parasitic

Phylum –Hemichordata
roundworm, which causes elephantiasis (filariasis) that
spread through larvae. The mosquito (Culex) is the Hemichordata was earlier placed as a sub-phylum under
intermediate host. the phylum-Chordata. But now, it is considered as a
separate phylum (under non-chordata). These are also
Phylum–Annelida called
• These are segmented worms.
Phylum–Chordata
• Their body is long, thin and soft.
• They have notochord, a dorsal hollow tubular nerve
• Alimentary canal is well-developed, nervous system is
cord and paired pharyngeal gill slits.
normal and the colour of the blood is red.
• This phylum is subdivided into two subphylum, i.e.
• They respire through skin, excretion occurs by
Protochordata and Vertebrata.
nephridia.
• They move through setae made up of chitin, Some main groups of phylum– Chordata are:
e.g. earthworm, Neries, leech, etc.
Group–Pisces
• Earthworm has four pair of hearts and it possess both
male and female sex organ, i.e. it is hermaphrodite. • These are aquatic animals (cold-blooded animals).

• Earthworm's body is sensitive for acidic, basic • Their heart pumps only impure blood and have
temperature and humidity. two chambers.
• Class–Cyclostomata includes jawless fishes, e.g.
Phylum–Arthropoda lampreys.
• This is the largest phylum of Animalia.
• Cartilaginous fishes come under class–Chondrichthyes,
• Jointed leg is their main feature. Their body is divided e.g. Indian shark.
into three parts , i.e. head, thorax and abdomen. It is
• Class–Osteichthyes includes bony fishes, e.g. sea-horse
covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
(Hippocampus)
• Circulatory system is open type.
• Respiration takes place through gills, gill slits, etc. e.g.
• Cockroach’s heart has 13 chambers and has spiracles. Scoliodon (dogfish), Torpedo, etc.
• Trachea, book lungs, body surface are respiratory organs.
• Insects generally have six feet and four wings, e.g. Group–Tetrapoda
cockroach, prawn, crab, bug, housefly, mosquito, Group Tetrapoda classified into four clasess
bees, etc.
• Arachnids possess 8 legs, e.g. spider. (i) Amphibia
• Ant is a social animal, which reflects labour division. • These can live both on land and water. All these animals
• Termite is also a social animal, which lives in colony. are cold-blooded or ectothermic.
• Insect bite releases formic acid, which can cause itching, • Ectothermic organisms can not regulate their body
swelling, redness, etc. temperature.
• Respiration takes place through gill, skin and lungs.
Phylum–Mollusca e.g. frog, toad, Necturus, Icthyophis, Salamander.
• Their body is soft unsegmented and divided into head,
• In water frog respires through the moist skin, while on
muscular foot and visceral hump.
land it respires through lungs.
• Body is covered by a hard calcareous shell.
• Their alimentary canal is well-developed. (ii) Reptilia
• Respiration takes place through gills or ctenidia. • These are crawling animals, which are cold-blooded and
• Blood is blue due to the presence of haemocyanin. contain two pair of limbs.
• Excretion takes place through kidneys. e.g. Pila, Aplysia • Their skeleton is completly flexible.
(sea rabbit), Doris (sea lemon), Octopus (devilfish), Sepia • Respiration takes place through lungs.
(cuttlefish). • Their eggs are covered with shell made up of calcium
carbonate.
Phylum–Echinodermata e.g. lizard, snake, tortoise, crocodile, turtle,
• All the animals in this group are marine.
Sphendon, etc.
• They have water vascular system.
• Cobra is the only snake, which makes nests.
• Brain is not developed in nervous system. • Sea snake is also called Hydrophis. It is world’s most
• They have a special capacity of regeneration, e.g. starfish, poisonous snake.
sea urchin, sea cucumber, etc. • Heloderma is the only poisonous lizard.
690 CDS Pathfinder

(iii) Aves • There is no nucleus in its red blood cells (except in

camel and llama). Skin of mammals have hairs. External
• The animals of this group are warm-blooded
ear is present, e.g. human, whale, platypus, kangaroo,
(endothermic), tetrapod vertebrates with flight adaptation
etc.
and show the property of Homeothermy.
• Mammals are divided into three subclasses:
• Homeothermy is the thermoregulation that maintains
– Prototheria It lays eggs, e.g. Echidna.
internal body temperature regardless of external influence.
– Metatheria It bears the immature child,
• Their forefeet are modified into wings for flying.
e.g. kangaroo.
• They respire through lungs. – Eutheria It bears the well-developed child,
• Birds have no teeth, beak helps in feeding, e.g. crow, e.g. humans, cow, etc.
peacock, parrot, etc.
• Mammals give birth to young ones but Echidna and
• Flightless birds are kiwi and emu. Largest alive bird is duck-billed platypus are the only egg laying mammals.
Ostrich. • Bats have poor vision, but can fly in dark due to the
• Smallest bird is humming bird. production of ultrasonic waves by them.
• Largest zoo in India is Alipur (Kolkata) and the largest • Cheetah is the fastest mammal.
zoo of the world is ‘Cruiser National Park’ in South • Blue whale is the largest mammal.
Africa.
• Spiny anteater is the most primitive mammal.
(iv) Mammalia • Gorilla is largest ape.
• They are heterotrophs, mostly omnivorous organisms. • Panthera tigris is the largest animal of cat family.
• These are warm-blooded or endothermic animals. • Dolphin is the national aquatic animal of India.
• Tooth comes twice in these animals (diphyodont). • Homo sapiens is the commonest mammal.

Classification of animals
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 691

GENETICS AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
GENETICS Mendel’s Laws
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as the Father of Mendel’s laws of inheritance are based on his observations on
Genetics. The term ‘Genetics’ was first used by monohybrid and dihybrid crosses. He summarised his findings
William Bateson in 1905. into following three laws:
• Genetics is the process of transfer of character Law of Dominance
(traits) from one generation to next generation
(a) Law of dominance states that, when two alternative forms
through genes.
of a trait or character (genes) are present in an organism,
• A gene is known as the molecular unit of heredity only one factor expresses itself in F1 progeny and is called
of a living organism. dominant, while the other whose expression remain
• Dr. Hargovind Khorana (1968) discovered the masked is called recessive.
genetic code and its function in protein systhesis. (b) This shows that crossing between pure organisms for two
contrasting characters produce only one character in
Mendel’s Experiments F 1 -generation and both in F 2 -generation.
GJ Mendel for the first time conducted experiments Law of Segregation
to understand the pattern of inheritance of variation
in living organisms. (a) This law states that, though, F1 hybrid, alleles for dominant
and recessive characters remain together, but these alleles do
• He conducted hybridisation (crossing) experiments
not show any blending and both the characters are
on garden pea (Pisum sativum) for seven years and recovered as such in the F2 -generation.
proposed the laws of inheritance in living
(b) These two co-existing alleles of an individual for
organisms.
contrasting trait segregate (separate) during gamete
• Mendel conducted artificial pollination/cross- formation, so that each gamete receive only one of the two
pollination experiments using several true-breeding alleles.
lines of pea. (c) Alleles again unite during fertilisation of gametes.
• A true-breeding line refers to one that have
undergone continuous self-pollination and Law of Independent Assortment
expressed stable traits for several generations. (a) It is also known as inheritance law and it states that alleles
for one character assort independently of alleles for another
• Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant
character during gamete formation.
varieties, which were similar except for one
(b) When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid,
character with contrasting traits.
segregation of one pair of character is independent of the
These characters are listed in table given below: other pair of characters during gamete formation.
A List of Contrasting Traits Studied ➨ Note Back cross is performed between F1 hybrid and one of its parent
by Mendel in Pea Plant whether dominant or recessive, while test cross is a cross between F1
hybrid and recessive parent only.
Contrasting traits
Characters Exceptions to Principle of Dominance and Principle of
Dominant Recessive
Paired Factors
Stem height Tall Dwarf
Incomplete dominance is the phenomenon, in which
Flower colour Violet White
phenotype of the F 1 hybrid offspring does not resemble any of
Flower position Axial Terminal the parent, but it is an intermediate between the expression of
Pod shape Inflated Constricted two alleles in their homozygous state.
Pod colour Green Yellow Red and white flowering true breeding lines of Mirabilis jalapa
Seed shape Round Wrinkled are when crossed, they shows F1 hybrid having pink flowers,
i.e. incomplete dominance (exception to dominance law).
Seed colour Yellow Green
Codominance is the phenomenon, in which two alleles of a
In 1900, Mendel’s work was ‘rediscovered’ by three hybrid express themselves independently. In this, offsprings
European scientists, Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns show resemblance to both the parents. ABO blood group
and Erich von Tschermak. system in humans is the well-known example of codominance.
692 CDS Pathfinder

A, B, O BLOOD GROUP SOME HEREDITARY DISEASES

The ABO blood group system was discovered by the These are anatomical or physiological abnormalities present
Austrian scientist Karl Landsteiner. ABO blood from birth, also called congenital diseases. These diseases
grouping is controlled by the gene I. The plasma can be caused by genetic mutations or environmental factors.
membrane of the Red Blood Cells (RBCs) has sugar Mutation is nothing but the sudden change in genetic make
polymers that protude from its surface. These gene up due to addition, deletion or replacement of any gene.
controls the kind of sugar protruding from RBC. The Diseases by genetic mutation can be transmitted to next
gene I has three alleles, I A , I B and i. The alleles generation, whereas by environmental factors are
I A and I B produce a slightly different form of sugar, non-transmissible.
while allele i does not produce any sugar.
On the basis of the presence or the absence of the Haemophilia-A
antigen A or B, four types of blood groups are present, • It is the most common X-linked recessive genetic disorder
which are A, B, AB and O. associated with serious bleeding.
• It is caused by a reduction in the amount and activity of
The Genetic Basis of Blood Groups coagulation factor VIII.
in Human Population
(Haemophilic (Normal
Allele from Allele from Genotype of Blood types of male) female)
parent 1 parent 2 offsprings offsprings XhY XX
IA IA IA IA A
A B
I I I A IB AB Xh Y X X
A A
I i I i A
IB IA I A IB AB
IB IB IB IB B
XhX XhX XY XY
B
I i IB i B
i i ii O Carrier daughters Normal sons
Haemophilia-A
• For transfusion purpose the Rhesus factor and ABO
grouping are the two most important compatibility
factors to consider. Colour Blindness
+ − • It is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder, which results
• An individual may be Rh or Rh -factor. In simpler
in the inability to perceive differences between some of
term, if an individual's blood type is A and positive for
the colours that others can distinguish.
the Rhesus factor, then he or she is deemed to be
• It does not mean not seeing any colour at all infact it
‘A + ’.
leads to the failure in discrimination between red and
green colour.
SEX DETERMINATION (Colourblind female) (Normal male)
XC XC
IN HUMANS X
Y
In humans, each cell contains 46 chromosomes
(44 autosomes + 2 sex chromosomes). Male sex C
chromosome is XY, whereas female sex chromosome is XC X X Y
XCX XCY Carrier Colourblind
XX. During gamete formation, in female, all gametes Carrier Colourblind daughter son
contain only one type of chromosome, i.e. X and in male, daughter son

half of the sperm contain X-chromosome, while half Colour blindness

contain Y-chromosome.
Thus, when a male gamete, i.e. sperm carrying Cri-du-Chat Syndrome
X-chromosome fertilises an ova, the zygote develops into • It is a rare genetic disorder due to a missing part of
female and when a sperm carrying Y-chromosome chromosome 5.
fertilises an ova, the zygote develops into a male. Any • It is characterised by having a cat-like cry of affected
increase or decrease in the number of sex chromosomes children.
or autosomes causes genetic disorder.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 693

Sickle-Cell Anaemia Progeria

• It is an autosome linked recessive trait that can be Caused due to the point mutation in position LMNA
transmitted from parents to the offsprings, when both the gene replacing cytosine for thymine. Creating a truncated
partners are carriers for the gene. from progenin of prelamin a protein. Early aging, small
• It is a genetic blood disorder characterised by an face and jaw, pinched nose, loss of eye sight, hair loss
abnormal, sickle-shape red blood cells. are some of major symptoms.
• It is caused by the substitution of glutamic (Glu) acid by Blue Baby Syndrome
valine (Val) at the sixth position of the β-globin chain of
It is used to describe newborns with cyanotic heart
the haemoglobin molecules.
lesions. It is caused basically due to high nitrate
Down’s Syndrome/ Trisomy-21 contamination in ground water resulting in decreased O2
• It is a chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of all
carrying capacity of haemoglobin in babies leading to
death. It is also called as methaemoglobinemia.
or a part of an extra 21st chromosome.
• It is associated with impairment of cognitive ability and
physical growth and a particular set of facial MOLECULAR BASIS OF
characteristics. INHERITANCE
• In this syndrome, the person exhibit Mongolism.
Nucleic acid is the genetic material found in living
Klinefelter’s Syndrome beings. It was discovered by Friedrich Miescher. The
term ‘Nucleic acid’ was given by Altman. Nucleic acids
• It is a condition, in which human males have an extra
are polymers as nucleotides. Basically two types of
X-sex chromosome (44 + XXY).
nucleic acids are found in living systems, i.e. Ribonucleic
• Effects are development of small testicles and reduced
Acid (RNA) and Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA).
fertility.
• Such persons are sterile males or feminised males with Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
undeveloped testis and some feminine characteristics like
RNA was the first genetic material to be discovered even
enlarged breasts, etc. They may be mentally retarded aslo.
before DNA evolved as a genetic material.
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy • The 2 ′−OH group of ribonucleotides is a reactive
• It is an X-linked disease associated with muscular group that makes RNA, a catalyst. It is evident that
dystrophy (mutations in the dystrophin gene). the essential life processes such as metabolism,
• It is characterised by rapid progression of muscle translation and splicing, etc., have evolved, around
degeneration, eventually leading to loss in ambulation, RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence, unstable.
respiratory failure and death. • Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with
chemical modification that makes it more stable.
Turner’s Syndrome RNAs are of three main types, i.e. messenger RNA
• It is a condition, in which human female has only one sex (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA) and ribosomal RNA
chromosome (XO). (rRNA), which participate in the process of
• Effects are rudimentary ovaries and lack of secondary transcription and translation also.
sexual character in women. • RNA helps in the formation of protein, i.e. protein
synthesis or translation.
Patau Syndrome/Trisomy-13
• A syndrome, in which a patient has an additional copy of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
autosomal chromsome 13 due to a non-disjunction of
DNA acts as a genetic material in most organisms.
chromosomes during meiosis.
• It is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.
• Its effects are mental retardation, cut mark in the lip.
• The number of nucleotides or base pair (bp) present in
Alkaptonuria the DNA determines its length.
It is a rare inherited genetic disorder of phenylalanine and • DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains and its
tyrosine metabolism. back bone is constituted by sugar and phosphate.
From this backbone the nitrogenous bases project
Phenylketonuria inwards.
It is an autosomal recessive metabolic genetic disorder • The two strands of DNA are paired through hydrogen
characterised by mutation in the gene for hepatic enzyme bonds (H-bonds) between bases.
phenylalanine hydroxylase.
694 CDS Pathfinder

Differences between DNA and RNA Discoveries Related to Structure of DNA

DNA RNA and Composition of DNA
It usually occurs inside nucleus and in Very little RNA occurs inside • Friedrich Miescher (in 1869), identified DNA as an
some cell organelles like mitochondria nucleus. Most of it is found in the acidic substance present in nucleus and termed it
and chloroplast. cytoplasm. nuclein.
DNA is the genetic material. RNA is not the genetic material • James Watson and Francis Crick (in 1953) proposed
except in certain viruses, e.g. HIV,
retrovirus. the double helix model of the DNA structure.
It is double-stranded with the exception RNA is single-stranded with the • Erwin Chargaff observed that for a double-stranded
of some viruses like polyomavirus. exception of some viruses, e.g. DNA, the ratios between adenine, thymine and
double- stranded inT2, T4 , T6 guanine, cytosine are constant and equal to one.
bacteriophage, etc.
DNA shows regular helical coiling. There is no regular coiling except in A+T
=1
some parts of RNA.
G+C
It contains deoxyribose sugar. It contains ribose sugar.
Nitrogen base thymine occurs in DNA Thymine is replaced by uracil in Genetic Code
along with three other adenine, RNA. The other three are adenine,
cytosine and guanine. cytosine and guanine. The relationship between the sequence of nucleotide on
It replicates to form new DNA It cannot replicate itself except in mRNA (i.e. messenger RNA) and sequence of amino
molecules. RNA-RNA viruses. acids in the polypeptide is called genetic code.
DNA controls heredity, evolution, RNA controls only protein synthesis. • In this nitrogenous bases in mRNA encode the
metabolism, structure and information required for protein synthesis.
differentiation.
• The sequence of nitrogenous bases (nucleotides) in
mRNA for coding a single amino acid is called as
Structure of a Polynucleotide codon.
Chain (DNA/RNA) • A codon is triplet, i.e. it is formed of three nucleotide
RNA and DNA both are comprised of polynucleotide chain. bases, specific, continuous, i.e. without comma or
A nucleotide is composed of a nitrogenous base, pentose punctuation and universal in nature.
sugar and a phosphate group.

Nitrogenous Base
ORIGIN OF LIFE
The origin of life is considered a unique event in the
It is a nitrogen containing organic molecule having physical history of universe. The study of history of life forms on
properties similar to a base. the earth is called evolutionary biology. The important
• There are two types of nitrogenous bases: theories of origin of life are as follows:
1. Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
2. Pyrimidines (Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil) Theory of Spontaneous Generation
• Adenine and thymine are bonded by double bond (A==T). • It states that life originated from decaying and rotting
• Cytosine and guanine are bonded by triple hydrogen bond
matter like straw, mud, etc., spontaneously, i.e. organism
(C ≡≡G ). is formed automatically from non-living matter.
• Out of pyrimidines, cytosine is common for both DNA • Van Helmont (1652) stated that young mice could
and RNA, while thymine is present in DNA only. arise from wheat grains, when these are put in the dark
along with a moist shirt.
• Uracil is present in RNA in place of thymine.

A Pentose Sugar Theory of Biogenesis

• Theory of spontaneous generation (life) was rejected
• Nitrogenous base is attached to the pentose sugar by
N-glycosidic linkage to form nucleoside. by Francesco Redi (1668), Lazzaro Spallanzani
(1765) and Louis Pasteur (1861).
• Two types of sugars are present in RNA and DNA
respectively, i.e. ribose in case of RNA and deoxyribose in • Spontaneous generation of flies from rotting meat was
case of DNA. disproved by F Redi.
• Spallanzani stated that air carried microorganisms.
A Phosphate Group • Pasteur is famous for ‘Germ Theory of Diseases’.
When a phosphate group is attached to 5′–OH of a • Theory of biogenesis states that the living things can
nucleoside through phosphodiester linkage, a nucleotide is
only arise from previously existing living things.
formed.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 695

• The most important condition for the origin of life is the

Modern Theory (Oparin’s Hypothesis) presence of water.
• This theory is also known as modern theory or • Hydrogen atoms were most numerous and most active in
abiogenic origin or naturalistic theory or primitive atmosphere.
physiochemical evolution.
• According to this theory, life originated on earth
after a long period of ‘abiogenic molecular evolution’.
EVOLUTION
The term ‘Evolution’ has been derived from the Latin word
• It was hypothesised by AI Oparin. Oparin wrote a
evolvere (e–out; volvere–to roll) means to unfold or to unroll
book ‘The Origin of Life’ in 1936.
to reveal hidden potentialities. Evolution is a process by
• The first experimental support to Oparin-Haldane’s which different kinds of living organisms develope from
theory of origin of life came from Urey and Miller’s earlier froms.
simulation experiment in 1853.
• They demonstrated clearly that the UV radiations or Geological Time Scale and Events in
electrical discharge or combination of these can the Evolution
produce complex organic compounds from a mixture
of CH 4 , NH 3 , H 2 O and H 2 with ratio of methane, By studying fossils occurring in different strata of rocks,
ammonia and hydrogen was 2 : 1 : 2 in the geologists are able to reconstruct the time and course of
experiment. evolutionary change.

Time Scale of Earth

Period Epoch
Era Age in million years Age in million years Fauna (Animals) Flora Plants
from present from present
Cenozoic Quarternary 0-2 Recent (Holocene) Modern man dominant; Rise of herbaceous plants,
(Era of modern life) (0.01) Modern mammals, birds, fishes, insects. decline of woody plants.
Age of mammals and Pleistocene 2 Extinction of great mammals; Humans appeared
angiosperms evolution of human society and culture.
Tertiary 2-65 Pliocene 6-7 Formation and adaptive radiation of modern Adaptive radiation of
(Age of mammals) mammals. flowering plants.
Miocene 26 Mammals at peak, first man-like apes formed.
Oligocene 38 Rise of first monkeys and apes.
Eocene 54 Diversification of placental mammals, origin of Angiosperm dominance.
horse.
Palaeocene 65 Rise of first primates.
Mesozoic Creataceous 135 Extinction of dinosaurs and toothed birds; Rise of Dominance of angiospermic
(Era of medieval life) and placental mammals. plants.
Age of reptiles and Jurassic 145 Origin of toothed birds (first birds) dinosaurs Origin of angiosperm.
gymnosperms (Age of reptiles) dominant. Dominance of gymnosperms.
Triassic 225 Origin of dinosaurs and mammals. Abundance of gymnosperms.
Palaeozic Permian 280 Extinction of trilobites. Origin of mammals-like Origin of conifers.
(Era of ancient life) reptile (therapsids) and most modern orders of
insects.
Carboniferous 350 Origin of reptiles and winged insects. Amphibians Abundance of tree ferns,
(Age of amphibians) dominant. forming coal forests.
Devonian 400 Origin of amphibians; fishes abundant spiders Earliest mosses and ferns.
(Age of fishes) appeared. First speed plants appeared.
Silurian 440 Origin of jawed fishes and wingless insects; earliest Earliest spore-bearing plants.
coral reefs.
Ordovician 500 Origin of vertebrates (Jawless fishes); invertebrates
(Age of invertebrates) abundant, also called age of giant molluscs.
Cambrian 570 All invertebrate phyla established; origin of trilobites.
Proterozoic 1000, 2000, 3000 Ancient metazoans (sponges, cnidarians), primitive
(Era of early life) eukaryotes; scanty fossils (prokaryotes).
Archaezoic 3500 Origin of life; no recognisable fossils.
(Era of invisible life)
Azoic (Era of no life) 4600 Origin of solar system; no life.
696 CDS Pathfinder

(ii) Lamarck arranged his theory in four postulates.

Evidences of Organic Evolution – Internal forces tend to increase size of the body.
• Homologous organs are similar in basic structure – Formation of new organs is the result of the need.
and origin, but dissimilar in functions, e.g. wings of – Development of organs is based on the continuous use
bat, cat’s paw, front foot of horse, human hands and and disuse.
wings of birds are homologous organs. – All changes acquired by the organism are transmitted to

• Analogous organs are the organs similar in shape and offspring by the process of inheritance.
function, but their origin, basic development plan are (iii) Some examples of uses and disuses of organs are:
dissimilar, e.g. wings of insects, birds and bats are – Webbed feet of swimming birds.
analogous organs. Analogous organs are also called as – Rudimentary eyes of cave dwellers.
homoplastic organs. – Elongated limbless body of snake.
– Long thin neck in giraffe.
• Vestigial organs are degenerated, non-functional
– Vestigial organs of living animals.
organs, which were functional earlier. Human body
has been discribed to possess about 90 vestigial
organs. Darwinism
• Some of these are muscles of ear pinna, canine teeth Charles Darwin (1809-1882) and Alfred Russel Wallace
and third molar teeth, body hairs, vermiform (1823-1913) proposed, the ‘Theory of Natural Selection’.
appendix (degenerated terminal part of caecum) Darwin’s theory is based on five principles:
nictitating membrane of eye, caudal vertebrae (coccyx (i) Over production is shown by every organism.
or tail bone), etc. (ii) Organism show struggle for existence.
• Atavism or reversion is the sudden reappearance of (iii) Struggle for existence leads to variations and their
some ancestral features. Appearance of thick body inheritance.
hair, large canines, monstral face, short temporary (iv) The variations in the organisms lead to the survival of the
tails, additional pairs of nipples, etc., are examples of fittest.
atavism. (v) Natural selection and species formation is due to
• Connecting links are organisms that has features of variations.
two existing group of organisms. These also provide One major criticism against Darwin’s theory was his failure to
an evidence for evolution. give an explanation for variations.
Organism Connecting link between
Virus Living and non-living
Mutation Theory
Euglena (Protozoa) Plants and animals Hugo de Vries (1845-1935) gave much importance to the
discontinuous variation or saltatory variations and proposed that
Proterospongia (Protozoa) Protozoa and Porifera
new species arise not by the accumulation of minor and
Peripatus (Arthropoda) Annelida and Arthropoda
continuous variation through the natural selection, but by
Neopilina (Mollusca) Annelida and Mollusca saltatory variations that appear suddenly for, which he coined
Balanoglossus (Chordata) Non-chordata and Chordata the term ‘mutation’.
Dipnoi (Lung fish) Pisces and Amphibia (i) After that he proposed the ‘theory of mutation’.
Archaeopteryx (Aves) Reptiles and Aves (ii) Mutations are discontinuous variation.
Prototheria (Mammalia) Reptiles and Mammalia (iii) These are due to changes in chromosomes, genes and
DNA. These changes may or may not be inherited.

Theories of Evolution Synthetic Theory

Evolution is generally progressive and variation is most The modern theory of origin of species or evolution is known
important requirement for it. The ultimate source of as modern synthetic theory of evolution.
organic variation is mutation (sudden change in genes). (i) Initial basis of synthetic theory was given by
These are some important theories of evolution: Dobzohansky (1937). Modern synthetic theory of
evolution was designated by Huxley in 1942.
Lamarckism (ii) According to it the five basic factors are:
The French biologist Jean Baptiste de Lamarck – Gene mutation
(1744-1829) suggested a complete theory of evolution. – Changes in chromosome structure and number
Lamarckian theory is also known as ‘Theory of – Genetic recombinations
Inheritance of Acquired Characters’ or ‘Theory of Use – Natural selection
and Disuse of Organs’. – Reproductive isolation
(i) Lamarck’s theory was published in his book First three factors are responsible for genetic variability.
‘Philosophie Zoologique’ in 1809.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 697

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium – Mutation must not occur.

Hardy-Weinberg law is the fundamental law of population – The population must be very large.
genetics, which provides the basis for studying the Mendelian – All genes must have an equal chance of being
population. According to this law, passed to the next generations.
(i) Mutations introduce new genes into a species resulting into (iii) Constant gene frequencies over several
a change in gene frequencies. generations indicate that natural selection and
(ii) In certain conditions gene frequencies remain constant. The evolution are not taking place.
conditions necessary for gene frequency to remain constant (iv) Changing gene frequencies would indicate that
are: evolution is in progress.
– Mating must be completely random.

PLANT MORPHOLOGY AND PHYSIOLOGY

Angiosperms are the seed bearing, flowering plants in which Type of parasitic plants are as follow:
seeds are formed inside fruits; and male and female reproductive (i) Obligate parasite, e.g. Nuytsia floribunda.
parts are organised into flowers. (ii) Facultative parasite, e.g Rhinanthus.
(iii) Root parasite, e.g. Rafflesia, sandal wood.
MORPHOLOGY OF ANGIOSPERMS (iv) Stem parasite, e.g. Cuscuta, Loranthus.
Morphology (Morphe–form; logos–study) is the branch of (v) Saprophytic humus plants Grow on dead
biology, which deals with the study of external forms and organic matter, e.g. fungi.
features of different plant organs like roots, stems, leaves,
(vi) Symbiotic plants Symbiosis or mutually
flowers, seeds, fruits, etc. The body of typical angiospermic
beneficial partnership of two organisms, e.g.
plant is differentiated into an underground root system and an mycorrhiza associated with roots of higher plants
aerial shoot system. and legumes associated with Rhizobium
Shoot tip (N2 -fixing bacteria).
(apical bud)
Different organ systems present in angiosperms are as
Flower follow:
Lateral bud
Stem Leaf Root System
Roots develop from radicle of seed. They are
non-green, underground, geotropic, phototropic and
Seeds Fruit hydrotropic in nature and they do not bear buds,
nodes and internodes. They have unicellular root
hairs. Lateral roots arise endogenously from pericycle.
Shoot
Root
Types of Roots
Roots are of two types:
Primary root
Lateral root (i) Tap root It develops from radicle. The primary
Root hair
Root tip root grows and gives rise to secondary and
Root cap tertiary roots forming tap root system, e.g. dicot.
Morphology of plant (ii) Adventitious root These roots develop from any
part of the plant body other than the radicle, e.g.
Types of Plants monocot.
On the basis of nutrition, plants are of following types: Functions of Roots
(i) Autotrophic plants These are green and capable of making • Roots help in fixation and absorption of water and
their own food by the process of photosynthesis, e.g. all minerals.
green plants. • Storage of food is one of the major function of
(ii) Parasitic plants Depend on other plants for food and roots, conduction of water takes place by roots.
water. They have special roots for absorption of food and • It helps in photosynthesis and respiration by
water. These roots are called sucking roots or haustoria, providing supply of water to all parts of plant.
e.g. Cuscuta, Duranta.
698 CDS Pathfinder

Venation • The symmetry of a flower depends

Shoot System upon the size, shape and arrangement
The arrangement of veins and the
Shoot system consists of following of floral parts.
veinlets in the lamina of leaf is called
parts:
venation. These are of two main • On the basis of symmetry flower can
types: be:
Stem
• Reticulate venation The branches (i) Actinomorphic When a flower
Stem is the ascending part, of plant, can be divided into two exactly
or veins form a network, e.g.
bearing branches, leaves, flowers and equal halves by any verticle
dicots.
fruits, formed by the prolongation section passing through the
of the plumule of embryo. It bears • Parallel venation The veins and
centre of a flower, e.g. mustard.
nodes and internodes and has buds. veinlets remain parallel to each
other, e.g. monocots. (ii) Zygomorphic When a flower
It may also bear multicellular hairs can be divided into two
on external surface. identical halves through only
Phyllotaxy
Modifications of Stem one particular plane, e.g.
It is the arrangement of leaves on the
Cassia.
Stem is modified in the following stem or branch and is adopted, so
forms: that each leaf is properly exposed to • An extra whorl of sepal-like green
sunlight. coloured structures called bracteoles
• Rhizome It grows parallel or occurs on the outside of calyx in
horizontal to soil surface. It bears Types of Phyllotaxy members of Malvaceae. It is called as
nodes, internodes, buds and epicalyx fused sepals and petals form
Phyllotaxy is usually of three types:
leaves, e.g. ginger. perianth.
• Alternate When a single leaf
• Tuber It is the terminal portion arises at each node it is called • Stamens and pistils are the male and
of underground stem branch, female reproductive organs of a
as alternate, e.g. Hibiscus sp.
which is swollen due to flower. Stamen consists of anthers
accumulation of food, e.g. potato. • Opposite When two leaves arise
and filaments while pistil consists of
at each node and occurs opposite
• Corm It grows vertically to soil stigma, style and ovary.
to each other it is called as
surface and is covered by thin Anther consisting of four
opposite, e.g. Syzygium, Calotropis. •
sheathing leaf bases of dead leaves microsporangia (tetrasporangiate) is
called scales, e.g. Colocasia, • Whorled If more than two leaves called dithecous. Anthers are
Gladiolus. arise at a node and form a whorl.
reniform or kidney-shaped and
Heterophylly is occurrence of more
• Phylloclade It is green, consisting of two microsporangia
than one type of leaves on the same
flattened or rounded succulent (bisporangiate) is called as
plant, e.g. Ranunculus sp.
stem with leaves either feebly monothecous.
developed or modified into Flower • In Cruciferae, stamens are six
spines, e.g. Opuntia, Euphorbia. (2 outer shorts and 4 inner longs).
A flower is the reproductive unit in
Cladode Phylloclade with one This condition is called
• angiosperms, which is meant for
or two internodes are called sexual reproduction. A flower arises tetradynamous.
cladode, e.g. Asparagus. in the axil of a leaf-like structure • Monoadelphous stamens are found
• Thorn It is the modification of called bract, e.g. Bougainvillea. in members of Malvaceae.
axillary bud. Thorns not only • Axile placentation is found in
reduce transpiration, but also Structure of a Flower members of Malvaceae, Liliaceae and
check browsing by animals, e.g. Flower consists of four distinct parts, Solanaceae.
Citrus, Duranta. calyx, corolla, androecium and • Basal placentation is present in
gynoecium. members of Asteraceae.
Leaves • The calyx and corolla are accessory
A leaf is a flat, lateral outgrowth of parts while the androecium and Types of Flower
the stem or the branch, arising from gynoecium are essential parts. On the basis of position of ovary in
a node and usually having a bud in • When calyx, corolla, androecium flowers, these can be of different types
its axil. It originates from shoot and gynoecium are all present on such as:
apical meristem. These are the most same flower it is called as (i ) When the ovary is at the top of
important organ for photosynthesis. complete flower. thalamus, flowers are hypogynous
The chief functions of the leaf and ovary is superior, e.g. Brassica,
include photosynthesis and
• A flower can be unisexual or
bisexual. Citrus.
transpiration.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 699

(ii ) When calyx and corolla arise from the upper Types of Fruits
side of ovary and surrounded by thalamus, Fruits can be broadly classified into following types:
ovary is inferior and flower is epigynous,
e.g. Cucurbita, Sunflower. (i ) Simple fruits These are the fruits develop from the single
simple or compound ovary of a flower. These can be dry
(iii ) When ovary is half superior and half inferior
(pericarp dry) or fleshy fruits.
then it is called as perigynous, e.g. rose,
plum, etc. (ii ) Aggregate fruits They are the group of fruitlets, which
The flowers, in which both male and female develops from a flower having polycarpellary free gynoecium,
reproductive organs are present and called as also called etaerio.
bisexual flowers, whereas the flowers having either (iii ) Multiple (Composite) fruits These are composite fruits, which
male or female reproductive organ are called as develop from an entire inflorescence.
unisexual flowers.
Types and Edible Parts of some Common Fruits
On the basis of the presence of male and female
flowers, plants are of following types: Common name Botanical name Type Edible parts

(i) The plants, in which both male and female Simple Fruits
flowers are present are called as monoecious Mango Mangifera indica Drupe Fleshy mesocarp
plants, e.g. Cocos, Ricinus, Zea, Colocasia, Coconut Cocos nucifera Drupe Endosperm
Acalypha. Almond Prunus amygdalus Drupe Seeds
(ii) The plants, in which either male or female Walnut Juglans regia Drupe Cotyledons
flowers are found, are called as dioecious Apple Pyrus malus Pome Fleshy thalamus
plants, e.g. mulberry, papaya. Pear Pyrus communis Pome Fleshy thalamus
(iii) When unisexual (male or female), bisexual Betel nut Areca catechu Berry Seeds
flowers are present on the same plant the Pea Pisum sativum Legume Seeds
plant is called polygamous plants, Cashew nut Anacardium Nut Cotyledons and fleshy
e.g. Polygonum, mango. occidentale thalamus
Largest flower is Rafflesia and smallest is Wolffia. Litchi Litchi chinensis Nut Aril
Water chestnut Trapa bispinosa Nut Seeds
Inflorescence Pomegranate Punica granatrum Balausta Succulent testa
The arrangement of flowers and mode of Bengal quince Aegle marmelos Amphisarca Inner fleshy layer of
distribution of flowers on the shoot system of a (bael) pericarp and placenta
plant is called inflorescence. Grape Vitis vinifera Berry Pericarp and placenta
Papaya Carica papaya Berry Mesocarp
Types of Inflorescence
Tomato Solanum Berry Mesocarp
(i ) Racemose (Indefinite) Main axis of lycopersicum
inflorescence does not end in a flower, but Banana Musa paradisicica sp. Berry Pericarp and placenta
continues to grow. The development of Watermelon Citrullus lanatus Pepo Mesocarp and endocarp
flowers is acropetal. The opening of flowers is Lemon Citrus limon Hesperidium Juicy placenta and juicy
centripetal. hairs developed from
(ii ) Cymose (Definite) Main axis ends in a endocarp
flower. The development of flowers is Wheat Triticum aestivum Caryopsis Starchy endosperm
basipetal and opening of flowers is centrifugal. Aggrate Fruits
(iii ) Special type capitulum It is characteristic Lotus Nelumbo nucifera Etaerio of Fleshy thalamus and
type of inflorescence in members of achenes seeds
Compositae (Asteraceae). Strawberry Fragaria vesca Etaerio of Fleshy thalamus and
achenes seeds
Fruits Custard apple Anona squamosa Etaerio of Inner layer of pericarp and
berries thalamus
A fruit is a part of a flowering plant that is derived
from specific tissues of the flower. The ovary of Multiple or Composite Fruits
the flower develops into the fruit. It is the Mulberry Morus alba and Sorosis Succulent perianth and
M. nigra fleshy axis
characteristic feature of flowering plant. The term
Pineapple Ananas comosus Sorosis Fleshy axis, bracts, fused
‘fruit’ refers to the mature or ripened ovary that peria and pericarp
contains seeds.
Jack fruit Artocarpus Sorosis Fleshy axis, bracts,
Parthenocarpy is the formation of fruits without heterophyllus perianth and seeds
fertilisation, such fruits are seedless. Fig Ficus carica Syconus Fleshy receptacle or
thalamus
700 CDS Pathfinder

Seeds • Parenchyma is a simple permanent tissue. When cells of

A seed is an embryonic plant enclosed in a protective outer this tissue have large intercellular spaces they are called
covering called seed coat, usually with some stored food. The as aerenchyma, e.g. hydrophytes.
ovary of the flower contains the ovules. The fertilised ovules
develop into seeds. The study of seed is called Spermology. PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
The seeds are of mainly two types:
Plant physiology is concerned with the functioning of
(i ) Non-endospermic or exalbuminous. plants. It is the science, which is connected to the material
(ii ) Endospermic or albuminous. and energy exchange, growth and development as well as
• Vivipary When the seeds of a plant germinate before movement of plant.
they detach from the parent, e.g. mangroves.
Plant Nutrients
• Parthenogenesis When an unfertilised egg develops
into embryo (false embryo), the process is called The minerals required for proper growth and development
parthenogenesis. plants are called as nutrients. There are two types of
nutrients:
• Parthenogamy When sexual reproduction fails, the
(i ) Macronutrients Minerals needed in large amount,
gametes directly behave as spores, these are called
parthenospores or zygospores. The phenomenon is e.g. C, H, O Ca, P, Mg, S, K, N.
called parthenogamy. (ii ) Micronutrients Minerals needed by plants in traces,
• Polyembryony The occurrence of more than one e.g. Fe, Zn, Cl, Cu, Mo, B, Mn, Ni.
embryo in the seed is called polyembryony. • C, O, H and N are non-mineral elements that are
abundent in plants.
Plant Anatomy Imbibition
The branch of botany dealing with the internal
organisation of plants is called anatomy. N Grew (1682), It is the phenomenon of absorption of water or liquid by
‘Father of Plant Anatomy’, gave the terms tissue and the solid particles of a substances without forming a
parenchyma. Nageli (1850) coined the terms meristem, solution.
xylem and phloem. A group of similar or dissimilar cells • The solid particles, which absorb water are called
that perform a common function and have a common imbibants. These are hydrophillic colloids.
origin is called tissue. The tissues have been classified into • The liquid, which is imbibed is called imbibate.
two groups: The pressure that an imbibant develops after being
(i) Meristematic tissues constitute an undifferentiated imbibed is called imbibition pressure/matric potential
mass of cells, that are in a continuous state of ( ψ m ).
division or retain their power of division. • Increase in the pressure will increase the imbibition.
• These tissues divide to form new cells, which
differentiate to give rise to permanent tissues. Diffusion
• Procambium is the meristematic tissue, which It is the net movement of particles from a region of its
forms primary xylem, phloem and vascular higher concentration to a region of its lower concentration
cambium. due to their own kinetic energy.
(ii ) Permanent tissues do not have the power of division. 1
• Rate of diffusion ∝ temperature ∝
They include protective tissue (e.g. epidermis), Size or mass of particle
supporting tissue (e.g. parenchyma, collenchyma,
sclerenchyma) and conducting tissue (e.g. xylem, • Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD) The difference
phloem). between diffusion pressure of the solution and its solvent
• Phloem, consists of three types of cells are called sieve at a particular temperature and atmospheric conditions, is
element, companion cells and phloem parenchyma. called DPD.
• Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem
parenchyma and xylem fibres. Permeability
➨ Note Marchantia belongs to Bryophyta and conducting tissues, i.e. Permeability is the ability of a membrane to permits the
xylem and phloem are absent in them for water absorption. movement of molecules across it.
• In monocot leaf, mesophyll is undifferentiated and made Types of membrane on the basis of permeability are:
up of only spongy parenchyma. 1. Permeable membrane Allows the diffusion of both
• In bicollateral vascular bundles, xylem is sandwiched the solvent and solute molecules across it.
between external and internal phloem. 2. Impermeable membrane Neither the solute nor
solvent molecules can diffuse across membrane.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 701

3. Semipermeable membrane Allows movement of Types of Transpiration

solvent molecules across it, but not the solute
Transpiration are of following types:
molecules.
(i ) Stomatal transpiration Stomata is a tiny pore that is
4. Selectively permeable membrane Membrane
allowing diffusion of only selected molecules across it. used for gas exchange. Air containing CO2 and O2
enters the plant through these openings and utilised
Osmosis by the plant. It accounts for 80-90% of total water
loss from the plant.
It is the movement of solvent (water) molecules from a
region of lower concentration to a region of higher (ii ) Cuticular transpiration Cuticle is the relatively
concentration across a semipermeable membrane. It was impermeable covering of plant. If it is thin and green
discovered by Nollet in 1748. then upto 10-20% transpiration take place through it.
(iii ) Lenticular transpiration Transpiration through
Types of Osmosis lenticels, i.e. an airy aggregation of cells within the
Osmosis are of following types: structural surfaces of stem, roots and other parts of
(i ) When a cell is placed in hypotonic (less concentrated) vascular plants. Very little transpiration occurs
solution water enters into the cell. This is called as through lenticels.
endosmosis.
(ii ) When a cell is placed in hypertonic (high concentrated) Factors Affecting Rate of Transpiration
solution water exits the cell. It is called as exosmosis. Two factors affect rate of transpiration, which are as
• Isotonic solutions are the solutions of same follow:
concentration. No net movement of molecules occurs
between isotonic solution. External Factors
• The actual pressure that develops in a solution, when it • Temperature Transpiration increases with increase in
is separated from pure water by means of a atmospheric temperature.
semipermeable membrane is called osmotic pressure. • Light Rate of transpiration, i.e. rate of transpiration
• Osmotic pressure of a plant cell can vary from 4-5 atm. increases in light and decreases in dark.
• Wind velocity Upto 20-30 km/hr the rate of
Turgor Pressure transpiration increases, while wind velocity of
As a result of osmosis, water enters into the cell sap. Due 40-50 km/hr decreases transpiration.
to this a pressure is developed by cell sap against cell well • Humidity The rate of transpiration is inversely
making the cell turgid. This pressure is called turgor proportional to the relative humidity.
pressure/hydrostatic pressure/pressure gradiant ( ψ p ). 1
Transpiration ∝
ψ p = ψs Humidity
Where, ψ s = Concentration gradiant.
Internal Factors
Plasmolysis and Deplasmolysis
• Area of leaf Rate of transpiration is directly
The phenomenon of shrinkage of protoplasm away from proportional to the area of leaf. Transpiration ∝ Area of
the cell wall under the influence of hypertonic solution is leaf
called plasmolysis. Deplasmolysis occurs enters into the
cell sap, due to this the cell becomes turgid resulting into • Leaf structure Some modifications of leaf structure
protoplasm that assumes its normal shape. such as thick cuticle on surface of plant parts, wax, resin
and suberin coating on plants, sunken stomata in leaves
contributes to reduction in transpiration.
TRANSPIRATION
The loss of water vapour from the living tissues of aerial
parts of plant into the atmosphere is referred to as
PHOTOSYNTHESIS
transpiration. Photosynthesis (Gk. photon–light; synthesis–putting
together) is the anabolic process by which green plants
• The transpiration occurs from the leaves all the time and
synthesise complex carbohydrates from simple substances
water released from leaves absorbs heat from the
like carbon dioxide and water with the help of light
surrounding atmosphere to vapourise (similar to
energy.
evaporation) due to which, area becomes cool nearby.
Light
• It is also the ultimate cause of water movement in a 6CO 2 + 12H 2O → C6H12O 6 + 6H 2O + 6O 2
plant stem against the gravity. Chlorophyll
702 CDS Pathfinder

Site of Photosynthesis Mechanism of Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts. These are Photosynthesis is a two step process:
the green plastids, which occur in green parts of • The first step is dependent on light and responsible for
plants. accumulation of assimilatory power. It is called as light
• Maximum number of chloroplasts are present in reaction.
leaves. • The second step is called dark reaction as light is not required
• It is a double membranous organelle enclosing a for the purpose. It is responsible for CO 2 -fixation into
liquid matrix called stroma. carbohydrate.
• In the stroma, tiny, membranous sac-like lamellae
present. These are called as thylakoids. ●
If vaseline is applied on both the surfaces of the leaf of a
plant photosynthesis, transpiration and respiration in
• Thylakoids are stacked over one another to form
plant will get affected as all these processes require the
grana. direct contact between the leaf and atmosphere.
• Stroma is the site of dark reaction and thylakoids ●
Mushroom (white fungi) plant is not capable of
for light reaction. manufacturing its own food.

Photosynthetic Pigments
Pigments are the organic molecules that absorb the RESPIRATION
light of specific wavelength in the visible region. It is the process of exchange of respiratory gases (O 2 and CO 2 )
Different types of pigments are: between an organism and its environment. Respiration is the
most important catabolic process, which involves the liberation
Chlorophylls (Gk. Chlor–green, phyll–leaf ) of energy by oxidation and breakdown of food inside living cell.
These are the green photosynthetic pigments present On the basis of O 2 , respiration is of two types:
in all photosynthetic autotrophic organisms. There (i) Aerobic respiration The process that leads to a complete
are about ten types of chlorophylls-a, b, c, d and e, oxidation of organic food in the presence of O 2 releasing
bacteria chlorophyll-a, b, c and d and bacteriovirdin. CO 2 , H 2O and a large amount of energy.
Chl-a is found in all the oxygen evolving organisms. It C 6 H12 O 6 + 6O 2 → 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O + 686 kcal
is the primary photosynthetic pigment. (ii) Anaerobic respiration Organic food is broken down
incompletely to release energy in the absence of oxygen and
Structure of Chlorophyll the products are CO 2 , C2H5OH and C3H 6O 3 (lactic acid).
The structure of chlorophyll consists of porphyrin
head and phytol tail. Glycolysis
• The porphyrin head is made up of four pyrole The breakdown of a glucose molecule into two molecules of
rings linked together by methane groups, forming pyruvic acid is called glycolysis. Net yield of glycolysis is 6 ATP
a ring system. molecules.
• In the centre of tetrapyrole ring a divalent ion TCA or Kreb’s Cycle
Mg 2+ is present, which is complexed with the
TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with
nitrogen atoms of four pyrole rings.
Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA) and water to yield citric acid.
• The phytol tail is made up of 20 carbon alcohol
Pyruvic acid + 4NAD + + FAD + + 2H 2 O + ADP + Pi
and bound by ester linkage to the 4th pyrole ring.
Mitochondrial matrix
←      → 3CO 2 + 4NADH + 4H +
Carotenoids
+ FADH 2 + ATP
These are accessory pigments that help in Volume of CO 2 evolved
photosynthesis in plants. Two major classes of Respiration Quotient (RQ) =
Volume of O 2 absorbed
carotenoids are carotenes (contain no oxygen) and
xanthophylls (contain oxygen atom in their terminal
ring). PLANT GROWTH
All living organisms show various changes in their weight, shape,
Phycobilins size and volume during their entire life cycle (birth to death).
These pigments are found in red algae and blue-green The process of increase in the size, weight and shape is known as
algae, but not in higher plants. The phycoerythrin growth. The growth of plants is regulated by certain
and phycocyanin are the two main phycobilins found chemical substances, which are synthesised by them and these are
in red algae and blue-green algae, respectively. called growth hormones or growth regulators. Plant growth
regulators are also called as phytohormones.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 703

Plant growth regulators are as follow: Types of asexual reproduction are fission, budding,
fragmentation, regeneration, vegatative propagation
Auxins (potato), etc.
• Auxin was initially isolated from the urine of human, (ii) Sexual reproduction It is the process of development
but later on its presence was also found in plants. of a new individual and the formation and fusion of
two gametes, e.g. all types of plants and animals.
• They promote cell elongation, cell division and cell
enlargement. • Flowers are the sit of sexual reproduction in
• IAA is natural auxin, while IBA, NAA and 2, 4-D are angiosperms.
synthetic auxins. Auxins can inhibit lateral bud • Androecium consisting of stamens represents the male
formation. reproductive parts. Gynoecium consisting of pistils
represents the female reproductive parts.
Gibberellins • Pollen grains (male reproductive organ) develop inside
• Gibberellins are weakly acidic growth hormone. the microsporangia (anther).
• It causes cell elongation and increases length and is • The pistil has three parts–stigma, style and ovary.
produced in embryos, roots and young leaves near the Ovules are present in the ovary.
shoot tip. • Pollination is the mechanism to transfer pollen grains
• It is helpful in flowering, enzyme synthesis and fruit from the anther to the stigma.
growth. • A cell of the archesporium, the megaspore mother cell
divides meiotically and one of the megaspore forms the
Cytokinins embryo sac (the female gametophyte).
• Natural cytokinins are known to be synthesised in the • Angiosperms exhibit double fertilisation.
regions, where rapid cell division takes place, e.g. root • The mature embryo sac is 7-celled and 8-nucleated.
apex, young fruits, etc. • The developing embryo through different stages
• They promote cytokinesis (cell division). develops into seed.
• Kinetin was first isolated from degraded sample of
DNA. IMPORTANT POINTS
• Zeatin was isolated from maize endosperm. ●
The study of structure and development of embryo is
• It is also responsible for cell division, cell enlargement, called Embryology. The great embryologist of India is
prevention of senescence and enzyme synthesis. P Maheshwari.
●
Tissue culture It is the technique to exploit the
Ethylene property of totipotency of the plant cells.
• It is a gaseous hormone, which is produced from the ●
Rose, Bryophyllum and marigold can be propagated by
ripening fruits and mainly acts as growth inhibitor. cutting.
• It fastens ripening of fruits and promotes ageing of plant
organs.
• It promotes senescence and break dormancy. ECONOMIC BOTANY
• Natural rubber is para rubber, obtained from
Abscisic Acid (ABA) Hevea brasiliensis.
• It is a growth inhibitor as it counteract other hormones. • Seeds of groundnut have 23-30% proteins.
• It is responsible for dormancy in buds and seeds, ageing • Starch is a polymer of glucose used as a thickening agent
in leaves, it inhibits mitosis, abscission of leaves, flowers or emulsifier in pharmaceutical or detergents.
and fruits. • Coir is a natural fibre obtained from fibrous mesocarp
• It causes partial closure of stomata and therefore, called of coconut. It is used in products such as floormats,
anti transpirant. doormat’s, etc.
• Sunflower is cultivated for oil and ornamental flowers.
REPRODUCTION • Red and black seeds of Abrus (Ratti) are used as
jeweller’s weight.
It is a biological process, in which organisms produce
young ones (offspring) similar to themselves. • Eucalyptus grows very fast and its stem is used in paper
Reproduction is of two types: and pulp industry.
(i) Asexual reproduction When offsprings are produced • Chief source of sugar in India is shoot of sugarcane
by a single parent without the involvement of gametic (Saccharum officinarum).
fusion, e.g. unicellular (monerans and protists), many • Coffee is obtained from seeds of Coffea arabica
plants and simple animals. (family–Rubiaceae).
704 CDS Pathfinder

• Sunnhemp is the plant used for green manuring in • Bagasse is the fibrous matter remains after sugarcane stacks are
India. crushed to extract their juice. It is used as a biofuel and as a
• Botanical name of tea is Thea sinensis substitute for wood in many subtropical anatropical countries
(family–Theaceae). for the production of pulp, paper, board, etc.
• Most important cereals are rice, wheat, maize, etc. • Cereals are rich in carbohydrates and belong to
• Banana, mango and Citrus are indigenous to family–Gramineae.
India. Common Medicinal Plants
• Pungent smell in garlic is due to allicin Common name Botanical name Part used
compound.
Aconite Aconitum napellus Tuberous roots
• ‘Black gold of India’ is pepper.
Belladona Atropa belladona Leaves
• Cutting and peeling of onions bring tears to eyes
Sarpgandha Rauwolfia serpentina Roots
because onion acids combine with sulphur to
form amino acid sulphoxides. Quinine Cinchona officinale Bark

• Quinine is a natural white crystalline alkaloid Opium Papaver somniferum Fruits

used in the treatment of malaria. It has antipyretic Ashwagandha Withania somnifera Roots
(fever reducing), antimalarial, analgesic and Isubgol Plantago ovata Fruits and seeds
anti-inflammatory properties and found naturally Ephedrine Ephedra Bark
in the bark of Cinchona tree.

ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY
Animal physiology is the biological study of the is termed as heterotrophic nutrition, e.g. animals, parasites
functions of animals and their parts, including all and saprophytes are heterotrophs.
physical and chemical processes. Physiology basically Food or Diet is the nutritive substances taken by an
focuses principally at the level of organs and organ organism for growth, work, repair and maintaining life
systems. Human physiology studies how our cells, processes. It is a mixture of various components, in which
muscles, organs work together and how they the quality and quantity of components may vary.
interact. The major seven components of food are as follow:
It involves growth and development, absorption and (i) Carbohydrates (ii) Lipids
processing of nutrients, synthesis and distribution of (iii) Proteins (iv) Minerals
nutritive substances and functioning of different (v) Vitamins (vi) Water
tissues, organs and other anatomical structures.
(vii) Roughage

NUTRITION Carbohydrates CH2 OH

It is the sum of all those activities, which are Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde or H C C OH
concerned with ingestion, digestion and absorption ketones, usually composed of C, H and O in
of digested food into blood or lymph followed by C H C
the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 with some exceptions. OH H
egestion. General formula of carbohydrates is HO C C H
There are mainly two types of nutrition: Cn (H 2O )n (n = number of carbon atoms).
H OH
1. Autotrophic or Holophytic nutrition 1g of carbohydrate = 17 kJ of energy.
Structure of
Preparation of organic food from inorganic Carbohydrates release energy more quickly as Carbohydrate
material by organism itself, e.g. all green plants, compared to fats. (glucose)
some unicellular organisms, e.g. like Euglena,
Chlamydomonas and Volvox are autotrophs. Sources of Carbohydrates
2. Heterotrophic nutrition Taking the readymade
Main sources of carbohydrates include potatoes, fruits, cereals
organic food material synthesised by autotrophs
(rice, wheat, maize), sugar, honey, bread, milk, etc.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 705

Categories of Carbohydrates Excessive intake of fat can lead to obesity and high
cholesterol level gives rise to hypercholesterolemia
On the basis of number of sugar units present,
resulting in cardiac damage. Fat deficiency results in drying
carbohydrates are of mainly following three types:
of skin and deficiency of fat soluble vitamins. Fats are also
Monosaccharides required in cell membrane formation.
Definition Examples Functions Sterols are also organic compounds. The most common
These are the simple Glucose, Glucose is the blood sugar, ribose, sterol in animals is cholesterol.
carbohydrates, which fructose, (5-carbon monosaccharide), forms
are made up of only ribose, etc. the backbone of genetic molecule
The sterols found in plants are called as phytosterols, e.g.
one sugar molecule. RNA. stigmasterol, sitosterol, etc.

Disaccharides Proteins
Definition Examples Functions Proteins are the biochemical compounds consisting of one
These are formed of Sucrose Sucrose is the table sugar and or more polypeptides folded in a typical way. Polypeptide
two or more unit of (sugarcane), used in preparation of desserts and is a single linear polymer chain of amino acids bonded
monosaccharides maltose, can also act as a food preservative.
inter-linked by lactose, etc. together by peptide bonds.
glycosidic bonds. • Proteins are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and
nitrogen.
Polysaccharides
• Some proteins also contain sulphur, phosphorus and
Definition Examples Functions iron.
These are formed of Starch, Polysaccharides serve for the • There are 20 essential amino acids.
large number (9<) of glycogen, storage of energy (e.g. starch
monosaccharides chitin, cellulose, and glycogen) and as a • The term proteins was given by J Berzelius (1938).
inter-linked by hyaluronic acid, structural component O R2 H
glycosidic bond. etc. (e.g. cellulose in plants and
chitin in animals).
NH2 C CH N COOH
CH N C CH
Lipids
Lipids are esters of long chain fatty acids and an alcohol R1 H O
called glycerol. They are insoluble in water, but soluble in
non-polar solvents, e.g. chloroform, benzene or ether. Peptide bonds
• Hydrolysis of fats occurs by a pancreatic enzyme called Structure showing peptide bonds between amino acids
amylase.
• Animal fats are semi-solid, while vegetable fats are oils. Sources of Proteins
• 2 g of fat = 37 kJ of energy. Main sources of proteins are cereals, pulses, fishes, eggs,
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
milk, leafy vegetables, fruits, soyabean, peas, beans, cheese,
CH CH2 CH curd, etc.
CH3 • Deficiency of proteins causes two diseases in children,
CH3
i.e. Marasmus and Kwashiorkor.
CH3
• Silk is a protein fibre secreted by pupa of silk insect.

Some Essential Proteins

HO Body proteins Functions
Structure of lipid Enzymes These are the biocatalysts, which help in
biochemical reactions. All enzymes are
Sources of Lipids proteinaceous in nature.
Hormones These are non-virulent chemicals, which regulate
Fats are supplied to our body by many food sources such body functions.
as butter, ghee, cheese, milk, egg-yolk, meat, nuts, etc.
Transport proteins Haemoglobin transports oxygen throughout the
Categories of Lipids body.
Structural proteins These help in the formation of cells and tissues.
On the basis of the presence or absence of fatty acids,
lipids can be divided into two types : Protective proteins Antibodies help to fight against infection.
Contractile proteins These proteins are responsible for contraction of
Lipids
muscles and movements, e.g. myosin, actin, etc.

Simple Lipids Complex Lipids Proteins are also found in the body of living organisms as
(They do not contain (They contain fatty acids and are
enzymes. Thus, all enzymes are proteins only, but all
fatty acids and are saponifiable lipids as they yield
non-saponifiable). soaps on alkaline hydrolysis). proteins are not enzymes.
706 CDS Pathfinder

Minerals (Inorganic Salts) (b) Micronutrients (needed by body in small amounts),

e.g. iodine (I), iron (Fe), zinc (Zn), manganese (Mn),
The metals, non-metals and their salts are called minerals. copper (Cu), cobalt (Co), fluorine (F), molybdenum
They form about 4% of our body weight. Minerals are (Mo) and selenium (Se).
generally of two types:
Sources of Minerals
(a) Macronutrients (needed by body in large amount),
e.g. calcium (Ca), phosphorus (P), potassium (K), These are obtained from the food and drink consumed
sulphur (S), sodium (Na), chlorine (Cl) and by animals. These are also present in milk, eggs, meat,
magnesium (Mg). fruits, vegetables and tables salts.

Sources and Functions of Different Minerals and their Associated Deficiency Diseases
Minerals Daily requirement Sources Functions Deficiency diseases
Sodium Adequate amount in Table salt, vegetables Essential for nerve impulse conduction Nervous depression, improper
ordinary diet muscle contraction
Potassium Adequate amount in Vegetables Required for muscle contraction and Nervous disorder, poor muscles
ordinary diet nerve impulse conduction leading to paralysis
Iron 18 mg Leafy vegetables Helps in oxygen transport as part of Anaemia
haemoglobin and myoglobin
Iodine 150 mg Sea foods, water, Essential for metabolic control as part Goitre
onions of thyroid hormone thyroxine
Calcium 1200 mg Cereals, meat Bone and teeth formation Nervous disorder
Phosphorus 1200 mg Meat, vegetables Bone and teeth formation Tetany and rickets
Magnesium 400 mg Soyabean, green leafy Activator of enzymes Heart disease in infants
vegetables
Zinc 15 mg Beet, cheese Cofactor of enzymes Retardation of growth and
loss of appetite
Manganese 5 mg Peanuts Cofactor of enzymes Impairs glucose metabolism
Copper Adequate amount in Peanuts, beet Cofactor of enzymes Haematological and neurological
ordinary diet disorder
Cobalt Traces Meat, milk Part of vitamin-B12 Leads to deficiency of vitamin- B12
Fluorine Traces Water Prevention of dental carries Dental carries
Molybdenum Traces Water Part of enzyme system Neurological damage

Vitamins • Deficiency causes night blindness (patient cannot see

Vitamins are the compounds essential for the metabolic the object in dim light) and xerophthalmia or
activities of our body, but in very small quantities. These do keratomalacia (dryness and wrinkleness of outer layer
not provide energy, but control energy yielding reactions of of eyeball).
our body. The term ‘vitamin’ was coined by Casimir Funk. Vitamin-D (Calciferol)
On the basis of solubility, vitamins are of two types: • It is called poorman’s vitamin and is a sterol
(a) Fat soluble vitamin, i.e. Vitamin-A, D, E and K. derivative.
(b) Water soluble vitamin, i.e. Vitamin-B complex and C. • Its formation takes place under the skin in the
Our body can synthesise vitamin-D and K. presence of sunlight thats why also called as sun-shine
vitamin or antiricket vitamin.
Fat Soluble Vitamins • It is needed for strong bones and teeth, helps in DNA
synthesis, absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
Fat in diet is essential otherwise these vitamins will not be
• Some main sources are egg, milk, fish liver oil, etc.
absorbed.
• It affects the bones and causes rickets and osteomalacia
Vitamin-A (Retinol) in children and adults, respectively.
• Steenbock (1919) discovered the vitamin-A and Karrear
(1931) determined the structure of vitamin-A.
Vitamin-E (Tocopherol)
• It is also known as beauty or antisterility vitamin.
• It is also called as antiinfective vitamin.
• It acts as an oxidant, helpful in making RBCs and is
• It is necessary for healthy eye sight (normal vision).
• It is destroyed by strong light. necessary for normal functioning of reproductive
system in male and female both.
• The main sources are yellow or green leafy vegetables
(spinach), carrot, papaya, ripe mango, maize, milk, ghee, • The most important sources are green vegetable,
cod liver oil, etc. wheat, vegetable oil and animal food.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 707

• Its deficiency destroys the muscles and causes Vitamin-B 5 (Pantothenic Acid)
abnormal functioning of the reproductive system in • It is a part of coenzyme-A required for cell respiration,
males as well as in females. normal nerves and skin.
Vitamin-K (Phylloquinone) • Its sources include yeast, peas, liver, eggs, kidney, etc.
• It was discovered by Henrik Dam (1935). • Its deficiency can leads to anaemia, dermatitis and nerve
• It is also called as naphthoquinone and is synthesised degeneration.
in body by some bacteria. Vitamin-B 6 (Pyridoxine or Pyridoxal)
• It is a coagulation vitamin, that is why it helps in • It is an essential part of coenzymes for amino acid
clotting of blood. synthesis.
• The main sources are cauliflower, spinach, tomatoes, • Extreme excess of this vitamin leads to poor control and
soyabean, etc. coordination.
• Its deficiency delays clotting of blood and causes • The main sources include meat, milk, liver, eggs, etc.
haemorrhage that is why also called antihaemorrhagic • Its deficiency can lead to disturbance of central nervous
vitamin. system and anaemia.
Water Soluble Vitamins Vitamin-B 7 (Biotin)
These are the vitamins, which are soluble in water that is • It is a sulphur containing substance also called vitamin-H.
why excess of these vitamins are normally excreted • It serves as coenzyme for fatty acid synthesis.
through the urine. • Sources include fruits, vegetables, liver, milk, eggs, etc.
• Its deficiency can lead to scaly and itchy skin, muscle pain
Vitamin-B 1 (Thiamine)
and weakness.
• The name of vitamin-B1 was given by Funk and
discovered by Eijkman. Vitamin-B 9 (Folic Acid)
• It is destroyed on cooking and get dissolved in • It is also called vitamin-M.
cooking water. • It was first isolated from the spinach leaves.
• It is helpful in normal functioning of nerve cells and • It is essential for growth and maturation of red blood cells.
metabolism. • This vitamin plays a vital role in various metabolic
• It also helps in maintaining normal appetite and disorders. Some main sources are green leafy vegetables,
digestion. yeast, banana, pulses, cauliflower, meat, liver, etc.
• Sources are yeast, rice, wheat, grains, beans, soyabean, • Its deficiency causes macrocytic anaemia in man.
liver oil, milk, etc.
Vitamin-B 12 (Cyanocobalamine)
• Its deficiency causes beri-beri (loss of appetite,
• It is a dark coloured cobalt based pigment, also known as
paralysis of legs and head, etc).
cobamide cyanide.
Vitamin-B 2 (Riboflavin) • It helps in RBC formation and proper functioning of
• It was first isolated by Warsung and Christian from nerve tissues.
animal tissue. • The main sources are liver, cheese, milk, meat, fish, eggs,
• These are destroyed on cooking and in strong sunlight. kidney, etc.
It helps in protein and fat metabolism. • Its deficiency can lead to pernicious anaemia.
• It is necessary for normal growth of body. • It is not found in plants, however it has been considered
• The main sources of vitamins are milk, eggs, liver, that alga and Spirulina contain this vitamin.
green leafy vegetables, pulses, cheese, etc.
Vitamin-C (Ascorbic Acid)
• Its deficiency causes inflammation of tongue, cornea,
cracks appear at the corner of the mouth. It is an earliest known vitamin, which is essential for keeping
teeth, gums and body joints healthy.
Vitamin-B 3 • It prevents the formation of stones in gall-bladder.
(Niacin or Nicotinic Acid) • It is quickly and easily destroyed by heat and increases
• It is also known as antipellagra factor. resistance of our body against infections, i.e. viral
• It helps in oxidation of carbohydrates, proteins and infections and common cold.
fats. • The main sources are amla, Citrus fruits (lemon and
• The main sources are cereals, liver, maize, fruits, milk, orange), guava, tomatoes, peppers, etc.
egg, meat, yeast, kidney, etc. • Its deficiency can lead to scurvy (bleeding and loosing of
• Its deficiency causes pellagra, dermatitis, diarrhoea. gums).
708 CDS Pathfinder

• Man and other animals have holozoic nutrition, i.e. solid

Water form of food.
It is an inorganic compound made up of H and O in the
ratio of 2 : 1.
• Human body contains about 65% water.
• It regulates body temperature by sweating and
Mouth
evaporation.
• It helps in digestion, transportation and excreting body Buccal (oral) cavity Pharynx
wastes. Oesophagus
• The main sources are metabolic water, liquid food
and drinking water.
• Abnormal depletion of body fluid leads to
dehydration (loss of water).
Liver
Roughage Duodenum
Diaphragm
It is fibrous material present in plants. Stomach
Colon Pancreas
• It does not take part in growth as we cannot digest
it. Caecum
Rectum
• It adds bulk in food item, to prevent constipation
Appendix
and helps in retaining water in body and aids in Anus
proper working of digestive system.
• The main sources are salads, outer layers of grains Structure of digestive system
cereals vegetables and porridge (dalia).
Dentition
Balanced Diet The oral or buccal cavity of vertebrates contain masticatory
A diet Which contains all the essential nutrients in organs called teeth or dentes. Mammal contains two sets of
required quantity. teeth. The first set is called milk teeth and second set is called
• It is related to state of one's age, health and permanent teeth.
occupation. • There are 32 permanent teeth in man.
• Body requires carbohydrates, proteins and fats in • These are of following four type:
the approximate ratio of 4 : 1 : 1 for good health. (i) Incisors (for cutting) four in numbers.
• Growing child needs more protein than a grown up (ii) Canines (for tearing) two in numbers.
man. Person doing physical work (athlete, (iii) Premolars (for grinding) four in numbers.
carpenter, rickshaw puller, etc.) need more (iv) Molars or wisdom teeth (for grinding) six in numbers.
carbohydrates and fats. • In elephants, the tusks are the incisors of upper jaw.
• A pregnant woman needs more proteins, calcium, • Maximum number of teeth are present in horse and pig.
potassium in her diet. • Hardest part in the body is tooth enamel.
• Person recovering from illness need more proteins, • Main bulk of tooth is formed of dentine.
minerals and vitamins.
Dental Formula of some Common Mammals
• The eating of a particular type of diet due to the
food habit leads to deficiency diseases. Mammal Dental formula Total number of teeth
Man (child) 2102/2102 20
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM Man (adult) 2123/2123 32

Parts of body concerned with digestion, absorption Horse 3143/3143 44

and assimilation of food followed by elimination of Dog 3142/3143 42
undigestible remains is called digestive system. Cow and sheep 0033/3133 32
• Digestion involves splitting of food molecules by Cat 3121/3121 30
hydrolysis into smaller molecules that can be Rabbit 2033/1023 28
absorbed through the epithelium of the
Mouse 1003/1003 16
gastrointestinal tract.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 709

Digestion (iii ) Intestinal Juice Food passes into ileum and mixes
with intestinal juice. It contains following three
The food we intake is in the form of biomacromolecules and types of enzymes:
thus, cannot be utilised by our body. The complex food (a) Maltase Which converts maltose into glucose.
substances are converted into simpler absorbable form in the (b) Lactase Which converts lactose into glucose.
process called digestion.
(c) Sucrase Which converts sucrose into glucose.
Digestion takes place in following five steps: • Food is now called chyle.
(i) Ingestion of food (ii) Digestion of food
(iii) Absorption of digested food Absorption and Assimilation of Digested Food
(iv) Assimilation and egestion of unwanted food Ileum's internal surface has finger-like folds called villi.
There is a dense network of blood capillaries and lymph
Ingestion of Food capillaries in each villus. It helps in absorption of food.
Ingestion takes place in buccal cavity. Food is taken • Absorption occurs by two types of processes, i.e.
through mouth cavity. Salivary glands lubricate the food and passive and active absorption.
bind the food particles together to form bolus. Salivary • Passive absorption occurs down the concentration
glands have starch splitting enzyme called ptyalin. Food is gradient and active absorption is independent of
masticated by teeth and swallowed. concentration gradient.
• Assimilation is followed thereafter, i.e. the absorbed
Digestion of Food food materials are incorporated into tissue cells.
Process of converting complex, insoluble food particles into
simple soluble and absorbable form is called digestion. It
Egestion of Unwanted Food
takes place in various parts of digestive system. • After complete assimilation digested food passes into
large intestine. Large intestine cannot absorb food, but
Digestion in Mouth absorbs much of the water. The remaining semi–solid
Salivary glands secrete mucus to moist the food and to waste is called faeces and is passed into rectum. It is
digest starch. expelled out through anus.
• In mouth, salivary amylase acts on starch. • Sometimes, the acids in stomach increases causing
Ptyalin
Starch  → Maltose indigestion to get rid of the stomach aches milk of
(Complex form) (Simple form) magnesia, a base is taken to neutralise the excess acid
• pH of saliva = 6-7.4 in stomach.

Digestion in Stomach RESPIRATION

The food passes down through the oesophagus into stomach. Respiration is an oxidising and energy liberating process,
Now, food is mixed with gastric juice and hydrochloric acid, during which complex organic compounds are broken
which disinfect the food and create acidic medium. down into simpler substances. It is brought about by
• The pH of gastric juice is 4. 5. respiratory organs.
• Pepsin digests proteins and converts them into peptones Respiratory organs are different in different animals:
and renin converts milk to curd. Digested food now is
(i) Lungs In man, frog, birds, lizards, camel and cattles,
called chyme. etc.
• The opening of stomach into small intestine is called (ii) Skin In frog, earthworm.
pylorus. Alcohol is easily diffusible across the plasma (iii) Gills In fishes, prawn.
membrane. (iv) Trachea In insects.
Digestion in Small Intestine General body surface In Amoeba, Euglena, Spirogyra
and Chlamydomonas.
Now, chyme moves to duodenum. In small intestine, food
receives three alkaline secretions–bile from liver, pancreatic Types of Respiration
juice from pancreas and intestinal juice from intestinal glands. Respiration is of two types based on the presence or
(i ) Bile Food is mixed with bile (liver) to breakdown fats absence of O 2 .
into smaller globules.
(ii ) Pancreatic Juice It contains following three enzymes: 1. Aerobic Respiration
(a) Trypsin Which acts upon proteins and breaks them It is the process, in which respiratory substrates are
into peptides. oxidised into CO 2 , water and energy, in the presence of
(b) Amylase Which converts starch into simple sugar. oxygen. This is common in higher organisms.
(c) Lipase Which converts fats into fatty acids and C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2 O + 2870 kJ
glycerol.
710 CDS Pathfinder

One molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules (ii ) Expiration This is the phenomenon, in which air is
of pyruvic acid, the process is known as glycolysis. It exhaled out.
takes place in cytoplasm of cells. – Relaxation of muscles of the ribs and diaphragm
• Pyruvic acid releases energy + CO2 + H 2 O takes place. Diaphragm again becomes dome-shaped.
(Krebs’ cycle). – Chest cavity is reduced and air is forced outward
• 1 molecule of glucose = 36 ATPs in eukaryotic cell. through nose and trachea.
• 1 molecule of glucose = 38 ATPs in prokaryotic cell. – Normal breathing rate in man is about 18-20 per

2. Anaerobic Respiration min.

It is the process, in which the respiratory substrates are Internal Respiration
incompletely oxidised into CO2 and alcohol. It is a complex process, in which food is broken down to
It occurs in the absence of oxygen. It is also called as release energy.
fermentation. • Biochemical phase takes place inside the cell.
Yeast
C6 H12 O6  
→ 2CO2 + 2C2 H5 OH + 56 kcal • Overall passage of air in human is as follows:
– Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi
It occurs in lower organisms such as bacteria and fungi
→ Bronchioles → Alveoli → Cells → Blood.
and in higher organisms under the condition when O2 is
limiting.
CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) Circulation of body fluids is also referred to as circulatory
The ratio of volume of CO2 evolved to volume of O2 system or internal transport.
consumed in respiration is called RQ.
In higher and multicellular organisms, there is no direct
Volume of CO 2 evolved
RQ = supply of the useful materials and the removal of wastes
Volume of O 2 consumed from the body cells, so they need a transport system called
circulatory system. Circulation of nutrients and hormones
Respiratory substrate RQ
takes place in different directions.
Carbohydrates 1
• It transports nutrients, i.e. glucose, fatty acids, vitamins,
Fats 0.7
etc., from the site of absorption to the different parts of
Organic acids 4
the body.
• It transports nitrogenous wastes, oxygen, hormones,
Respiration in Human water, chemical substances, etc., from different parts of
Respiration in humans takes place in two phases: the body to organ tiussue/cells of direction.
External Respiration (Breathing) Types of Circulatory System
It comprises of inspiration and expiration of air.
Blood circulatory system is of two types:
(i ) Inspiration This is the phenomenon, in which intake
of air takes place. Muscles of the diaphragm contract 1. Open Circulatory System
and diaphragm flattens. The lower ribs are raised Blood may be present in blood vessels for sometime, but
upward and outwards. The chest cavity enlarges, the finally comes out from the blood vessels in open spaces
air pressure in the lungs is decreased, air rushes into called sinuses. It is found in leeches, among the annelids,
the lungs. cockroach, prawns, insects, spiders, starfish, etc.
• Blood flows with very slow velocity and at low pressure.
• In cockroach, blood circulation is completed in
Nasal cavity Pharynx 5-6 minutes.
Larynx • Blood is in direct contact with the tissues.
Bronchioles Trachea • Respiratory pigment if present is dissolved in plasma.
Bronchi
2. Closed Circulatory System
Lung Blood flow in closed vessels. It is found in earthworm,
Nereis, molluscs and all vertebrates. Blood flows with high
speed and at high pressure.
• Exchange of materials occurs through the tissue fluids.
Diaphragm
• Blood does not come in direct contact with tissue cells.
Human respiratory system Respiratory pigment is present in RBCs.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 711

Blood Vascular System Functions of Plasma

• It transports simple food components (glucose, amino
Blood vascular system consists of three components: acids, etc.) from intestine and liver to other body parts.
1. Blood Vessels • It transports metabolic wastes like urea, uric acid, etc.,
These are elastic muscular tubes that carry blood. from body tissues to the kidneys or their excretion.
These are: • It transports hormones from endocrine glands to the
(i ) Arteries These are the thick-walled blood vessels, target organs.
which carry the blood away from the heart to • It helps in keeping a constant pH of blood.
various body parts. • Blood proteins and fibrinogen, present in plasma, help in
They are deep seated in body and have no valves in blood clotting at the injury. It forms the tissue fluid,
them and carry oxygenated blood in them, except the which keeps the tissue moist and helps in exchange of
pulmonary artery, which carries deoxygentated blood material in between the blood and cells.
to the lungs. Blood flows at high pressure and high
speed. (ii) Blood Corpuscles or Blood Cells
(ii ) Veins These are thin-walled blood vessels, which Blood contains certain floating bodies called formed
carry blood from various body parts to the heart. elements. These floating elements include blood corpuscles or
Superficial in position and have valves in them to blood cells. These form 40-45% of blood.
prevent back flow of blood in them, blood flows at • The percentage of blood cells is called haematocrit value
low pressure and lower speed. They carry of packed cell volume.
deoxygenated blood in them, except the pulmonary
• They are of three types:
vein, which carries oxygenated blood to the heart.
(iii ) Capillaries These are the thinnest blood vessels, (i) Red Blood Corpuscles (RBCs) or Erythrocytes
which connect arteries to the veins. Each capillary is (ii) White Blood Corpuscles (WBCs) or Leucocytes
lined by a single layer of flat cells. These help in (iii) Blood platelets
exchange of materials like the nutrients, gases, waste
products, etc., between blood and cells. Red Blood Corpuscles (RBCs)
Shape in all vertebrates except mammals, these are oval,
2. Blood biconvex, nucleated and non-nucleated.
Blood is a red vascular connective tissue. An average adult • In mammals except camel and llama, the mature RBCs
person has about 4-6L of blood. It forms 6-10% of body are circular, biconcave and non-nucleated.
weight and 30-35% of extracellular fluid. Blood have • Number The RBCs are much more in number than
specific gravity of 1.06. It is a viscous fluid due to the WBCs. Normal RBC count is slightly lower in a woman
presence of formed elements. (i.e. 4500000/cu mm) than a man (i.e. 5000000/ cu mm).
It has a saltish taste and is mildly alkaline with a pH • The instrument used to determine RBC count is
= 7 . 4. The alkaline nature of blood contributes to the
haemocytometer.
oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin as in acidic pH
this is decreased. It is bright red when oxygenated and • Thrombocytes, also called spindle cell. These are
purple when deoxygenated. The study of blood is called spindle-shaped and found in blood of vertebrates other
haematology. People at higher altitudes have more blood than mammals. These have oval nucleus and help in
than those at lower altitudes. This extra blood supplies the blood clotting in vertebrates.
additional oxygen to body cells. It is sticky and opaque • Physiological state and high altitudes increase the RBC
fluid with a viscosity of 4.7. count. RBC count decreases due to haemorrhage,
The blood is formed of two parts: haemolysis, etc., and is called anaemia. If RBC increases
(i) Plasma (ii) Blood corpuscles much more than the normal level, it is called
polycythemia.
(i) Plasma
Plasma is faint yellow-coloured non-living fluid present in
• Lifespan Average lifespan of human RBC is 120 days,
blood. It is slightly alkaline and viscous. It constitutes while it is 100 days in frog and 50-70 days in rabbit.
about 55-60% of the blood volume. It is composed of • Haemoglobin (Haem–iron containing pigment, globin –
following components in the table below: protein). One RBC has about 280 haemoglobin molecules.
Components of Plasma • Structure A red blood cell is
bounded by elastic
Water 90-92%
semipermeable membrane. It
Inorganic salt 1-2% does not possess cell organelles. Structure of erythrocytes
Plasma protein in colloidal state 6-7% This feature enables it to hold
Other organic compounds 1-2% more haemoglobin due to availability of space.
712 CDS Pathfinder

• Colour RBC appears yellow when seen singly, but These are subdivided on the basis of shapes of their nuclei
these appear red when in bulk due to the and the staining reactions of their granules.
haemoglobin. (i) Neutrophils
• Formation In the developing foetus, the formation of – These are about 62% of total number of WBCs.
RBC takes place in liver and spleen, while after the – They originate from bone marrow.
birth, RBCs are mainly produced in the bone marrow. – The cytoplasm of these contains fine granules.
• Maturation of RBC is controlled by folic acid and – Their nucleus is 3-5 lobed and lifespan is about 10-12
vitamin-B12 . The excess of RBCs are stored in the hours.
spleen, which acts as a blood bank of the body. – These also help in sex differentation and act as soldiers
Functions of RBCs of body.
• Haemoglobin helps in maintaining a constant pH. (ii) Basophils
• Haemoglobin also transports carbon dioxide from the – These are also called cyanophils. Their nucleus is 2 or

tissues to the lungs and oxygen from the lungs to 3-lobed or S-shaped and lifespan is about 8-12 hours.
body tissues. – These secrete heparin and histamine, thus help in local
anticoagulation.
White Blood Corpuscles (WBCs)
(iii) Acidophils
WBCs are also called leucocytes or leukocytes. These are – These are also called eosinophils.
the cells, which are important part of immune system – Their lifespan is about 14 hours.
and involved in protecting the body against both – These increase in number in allergic diseases.
infectious disease and foreign invaders. – These help in healing of wounds.
• Shape These are rounded or amoeboid (irregular), Agranulocytes Formation of agranulocytes is also called
nucleated, non-pigmented cells. WBCs are larger in agranulopoiesis. These form about 35% of the total WBCs.
size than RBCs. These are divided in two subtypes:
• Number WBCs are much less in number than RBCs (i) Monocytes
(1:6). – These are the largest sized leucocytes and form about
Medium Monocyte 5.3% of all the leucocytes. The nucleus is oval, kidney
or horse shoe-shaped and is excentric.
Small Large – These are formed in the lymph nodes and the spleen.
– These are highly motile and their lifespan is of 3-4 days.
Lymphocytes
(ii) Lymphocytes
us
Granules cle
Nu – These form about 30% of leucocytes.
– Their nucleus is large and rounded, so that cytoplasm
forms a thin peripheral layer. They are formed in bone
marrow.
Basophil Eosinophil Neutrophil – These are formed in the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen,
Structure of WBC tonsils, etc.
• Leukemia (blood cancer) is a pathological increase in – Their lifespan is of 3-4 days.
number of WBCs. Fall in WBC count is termed as – These produce antibodies and opsonin, so play an
leucopenia. important role in immune system.
• Colour WBCs are colourless. Blood Platelets
• Formation WBCs are formed in red bone marrow. • Shape These are oval-shaped and possess discoidal
• Lifespan WBCs survive for 8-96 hours only. cytoplasmic fragments.
WBCs • Number Their number varies from 250000-5000000.
A decrease in the number of platelets in the blood is called
Granulocytes Agranulocytes thrombocytopenia. Increase in number of blood platelets
is called thrombocytosis.
• Structure Platelets are flat, non-nucleated large cells in
Neutrophils Basophils Acidophils
the bone marrow. They are bounded by a membrane and
contain few organelles in cytoplasm. These play an
Monocytes Lymphocytes
important role in blood clotting.
Classification of WBCs
• Colour They are colourless, formed in red bone marrow.
Granulocytes These are about 65% of total leucocytes. • Lifespan about one week.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 713

Blood Groups • Reptilian heart is structurally three-chambered, but is

Landsteiner recognised three kinds of blood groups ‘A’, ‘B’ functionally four-chambered (i.e. incompletely
and ‘O’. Fourth and most rare ‘AB’ blood group was four-chambered) except in crocodile.
discovered by Von Decastello and Sturle (1902). • In crocodile, birds and mammals the heart is divided
into four chambers (two auricles and two ventricles).
Landsteiner (1900) discovered two kinds of antigens called a
and b. Antigens a and b are not proteins, but are • Every person’s heart is of about the same size as that
mucopolysaccharides. of person’s first. The human heart is four-chambered,
two auricles and two ventricles.
Characteristics of Human Blood Groups • A thin, muscular wall called the interatrial septum
Blood Antigens Antibodies Can donate Can receive separates the left and right atria, whereas thick-walled
group in RBCs in plasma to groups from groups interventricular septum separates the right and left
A a Anti-b A, AB O, A ventricles.
B b Anti-a B, AB O, B • The atrium and ventricle of same side are separated
by atrioventricular septum.
AB a and b None AB O, A, B, AB
• Opening between right atrium and right ventricle is
O None Anti-a O, A, B, AB O
Anti-b tricuspid valve, formed of 3 cusps and opening
between left atrium and left ventricle is called
• Persons with ‘O’ blood group are called as universal donors bicuspid or mitral valve.
and AB are universal recepient. • Pulmonary artery and aorta are provided with
Rh-Factor semilunar valves to prevent backflow of blood.
Rh-factor was first of all reported in RBCs of a monkey by • Sino Atrial Node (SAN) is present in right upper
Landsteiner and Wiener in 1940. corner of right atrium. Atrio Ventricular Node
• Rh-factor is actually the Rh antigen present on the surface (AVN) is present in lower left corner of right atrium.
of red blood cells. Cardiac Cycle
• Person having Rh-factor is called Rh + and without Rh
The sequence of events, which occur from the beginning
factor is Rh − . of one heartbeat to the beginning of next is called
• For an example, if person of blood group A has Rh antigen cardiac cycle. Systole refers to contraction and diastole
on surface of RBC, then he is A+ /A positive. refers to relaxation. Single cardiac cycle involves four
• About 85% of world’s people are Rh+ . steps:
• Percentage of Rh+ people in India is 97% of the population.
1. Atrial Systole
• Rh-factor is found in man and rhesus monkey, it has not
• Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from
been reported from other animals.
superior and inferior vena cava.
3. Heart • Left atrium receives oxygenated blood through
It is a muscular organ in both humans and other animals, pulmonary veins.
which help in pumping blood via blood vessels of the • The atria contract due to wave of contraction
circulatory system. stimulated by SA node.
Aorta
Pulmonary arteries 2. Ventricular Systole
• Action potential passes from SA node to AV node.
Vena cava from upper body Pulmonary The blood is then forced into ventricles leading to
veins
contraction of ventricles.
• At this time first heart sound is produced due to
Right atrium Left atrium closure of valves.
• When the contraction is complete blood flows to
Vena cava from pulmonary arteries carrying deoxygenated blood to
lower body lungs.
Right ventricle 3. Ventricular Diastole
• Semilunar valves close to produce second heart sound.
Septum (dividing wall) • The ventricular relax. AV valve opens to allow blood
to pass from atria to ventricles again.
Left ventricle
Left ventricles supply oxygenated blood to aorta, which
Internal Structure of Heart in turn supplies blood to various body parts.
• In amphibians, heart is three-chambered.
714 CDS Pathfinder

Superior vena
Right
Excretory Organs in Different Animals
cava Right ventricle • Plasmalemma Protozoans like Amoeba.
atrium
Inferior vena cava
Pulmonary artery • General body surface Porifera (sponges), coelenterates
(Hydra).
Deoxygenated blood
Lungs • Flame cells Platyhelminthes (Taenia and Fasciola).
Oxygenated blood
Capillaries in Capillaries in • Nephridia Annelida.
Pulmonary veins
head region body organs • Malpighian tubules Arthropods (cockroach).
• Coxal gland Spiders.
Aorta Left ventricle Left atrium
• Kidney Main excretory organ in all vertebrates.
Circulation of blood through the whole body
• Antennal gland or green gland Crustaceans crayfish.
Blood Pressure (BP) Types of Excretion
The pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the
blood vessels due to the repeated pumping of heart is Depending upon the form of nitrogenous waste excreted,
there are three modes of excretion:
called blood pressure. The rate of pulsation increases
during excitement. 1. Ammonotelism
• Blood pressure is recorded as systolic/diastolic. • It is the elimination of nitrogenous end product (waste)
• Blood pressure in a normal adult person = 120/80 mm mainly as ammonia.
Hg. • Ammonotelic excretion is found in aquatic animals like
• If a person has persistent high blood pressure then it is protozoans, e.g. Amoeba, Paramecium, sponges
called hypertension. To avoid hypertension good (e.g. Sycon), coelenterates (e.g. Hydra), aquatic
cholesterol, i.e. high density lipoprotein should be arthropods (e.g. Prawn), most aquatic molluscs (e.g. Pila),
consumed. bony fishes (e.g. Labeo) and frog’s tadpole.
• Those organisms, which secrete ammonia are called
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER ammonotelic animals.
●
Haemoglobin can readily combine with carbon 2. Ureotelism
monoxide. • It is the process, in which main nitrogenous waste is
●
Blood does not coagulate inside the body due urea.
anti-coagulant heparin. • It is a common method of excretion in man, whales,
●
The crew and passanger of aircraft usually suffer seals, camels, kangaroo, toads, frogs, sharks, etc.
from pulmonary problems because of the presence
nitrogen oxide in the atmosphere. 3. Uricotelism
●
Coronary arteries supply blood to the right atrium. • Main nitrogenous waste is crystals of uric acid.
●
Hepatic portal system and renal portal system supply • It is common in birds, land reptiles (snakes and lizards),
and take blood from liver and kidney respectively. insects, snails, etc.

• Hypotension is condition of low blood pressure.

Excretory System of Human
• ECG or Electrocardiogram is a graphic record of the
Excretory system of human consists of the following parts:
electric current produced by the excitation of cardiac (a) Kidneys (two)
muscles. (b) Ureter (two)
• The normal rate of heartbeat at rest is about 72-80 beats (c) Urinary bladder (one)
per minute. (d) Urethra (one)
• In a newly born baby, heartbeat rate is about 140 beats 1. Kidneys
per minute. • It is a bean-shaped, chocolate brown structure lying in
• During heavy exercises, it may be high as 170-200 beats the abdomen, one on each side of the vertebral column
per minute. just below the diaphragm.
• Sphygmomanometer measures BP. • These form the urine and control osmotic pressure within
the organism with respect to its external environment.
EXCRETORY SYSTEM • The left kidney is placed a little higher than the right
kidney (but reverse in rabbit).
The process of removal of wastes from the body is called
• Concavity of kidney called hilum or hilus, is always
excretion. The organs of excretion are called excretory inward directed.
organs.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 715

Inferior Aorta Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

vena cava • It is a highly coiled (convoluted) tubular structure.
Left kidney
Renal artery • It is about 12-24 mm in length.
Renal vein • Almost whole of vitamins, glucose, amino acids, sodium
Right kidney and potassium, etc., is reabsorbed here, mainly by active
transport.
Henle’s Loop
Ureter • It is a U-shaped segment of nephron located in renal
medulla.
• Loop of Henle is long in mammals and birds, which
Urinary secrete hypertonic urine, but short in other vertebrates
bladder like reptiles, etc.
Urethra Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
Structure of human • It is similar to PCT region, i.e. greatly curved twisted.
excretory system • It is connected to the collecting duct.
2. Ureters • Active reabsorption of some Na + takes place here.
• These are a pair of narrow tube arising from the hilum • It is impermeable to H 2 O.
and is called as ureter.
• Renal tubules along with large intestine accounts for
• It is about 30 cm in length.
most of the absorption of water in body.
• They bring the urine downwards and open into urinary
bladder. Urine
3. Urinary Bladder Urine is formed after glomerular filtration, reabsorption
• It is a medium pear-shaped sac situated in the lower or
and secretion. It is pale-yellow coloured transparent fluid
pelvic region of the abdominal cavity within the body due to the presence of urochrome pigment. It is acidic in
wall. nature and is slightly heavier than water.
• Each ureter opens in urinary bladder. • It has a faint aromatic odour due to urinod.
• It temporarily stores urine. • Daily urine output in normal adult is 1.5-1.8 L.
• It is absent in birds. In both reptiles and birds, ureters • Chemical composition of urine, i.e. water is 95-96%,
and rectum open into a common sac called cloaca. urea is 2% and some other substances like uric acid,
creatinine, etc., are 2-3%.
4. Urethra
• It is a muscular and tubular structure, which extends Skeleton System
from neck of bladder to outside.
The human skeleton consists of both fused and individual
• In females, this tube is small and serves as a passage of bones supported and supplemented by ligaments, tendons,
urine only, while in males, it is long and functions as a muscles and cartilage, ligaments and tendons are connective
common passage for urine and spermatic fluids. tissue made up of collagen fibres.
It is divided into two parts:
Nephron
• It is the structural and functional unit of kidney. (i) Axial Skeleton (80 Bones)
• These are also called as renal tubules or uriniferous tubules. • It includes skull, vertebral column and bones of chest.
• It is differentiated into four regions having different • Vertebral column is responsible for the upright position
anatomical features and physiological role. of the human body.
(i) Bowman’s capsule. • Most of the body weight is located in back of the spinal
(ii) Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT). column.
(iii) Henle’s loop U-shaped. • It provides flexibility to the neck and protection to
(iv) Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT). spinal cord.
Bowman’s Capsule • The total number of bones of head is 29.
• It is a double-walled cup and is lined by thin flat cells • The total number of bones in vertebral column is
called podocytes. initially
• It contains group of capillaries called glomerulus. 33 and after development is 26.
• Glomerulus in the kidney acts as a dialysing bag. • The total number of bones of ribs is 24.
716 CDS Pathfinder

(ii) Appendicular Skeleton (126 Bones) Types of Nervous System

• It consists of pelvic and pectoral girdles. Main parts of nervous system are as follow:
• Girdles are the structures, which connect the limb bones Main parts of vertebrate
with the vertebral column. nervous system
• Their functions are to make locomotion possible and to
protect the major organs of locomotion, digestion,
excretion and reproduction. Central Peripheral
nervous system nervous system
• Calcium and phosphorous are two minerals that helps in
Brain
giving strength to bones. Deficiency of these may cause Spinal cord Somatic Autonomic
we opening of bones. nervous system nervous system

NERVOUS SYSTEM Parasympathetic Sympathetic

The nervous system provides the fastest means of nervous system nervous system
communication within the body, so that suitable response to
stimuli can be made at once. Central Nervous System (CNS)
Nervous system is found only in animals and absent in The CNS is the site of information processing and
plants. It is made up of nervous tissue. Nervous system control. It consists of brain and spinal cord.
controls the body by using a series of tissues throughout the • Grey matter is made up of cell bodies of neuron and
body formed by a network of electrically conducting cells white matter has only nerve fibres.
called neurons or nerve cells.
• Brain lies in the cranial cavity of skull. Brain and
Neuron spinal cord are covered by two meninges in frog and
three meninges in mammals.
It is the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
• Cerebrospinal fluid is present in and around brain and
Neurons are of three types:
spinal cord.
(i) Motor Conducts messages from central nervous system
to effector organs. Human Brain
(ii) Sensory Conducts information from sensory organ to Brain is soft, whitish in colour and somewhat a flattened
central nervous system. organ.
(iii) Mixed Works both as sensory and motor neuron. • It is the only thing in the universe, which is attempting
Structure of Neuron to understand itself.
A neuron is a microscopic structure composed of three • It is mainly divided into three main parts:
major parts, i.e. cell body, dendrites and axon. Brain
• Dendrites Cytoplasmic processes from cell body. They
carry impulses towards cell body. Forebrain Midbrain Hindbrain
• Cell body Also called cyton or soma. It contains cytoplasm Cerebrum Corpora Cerebellum
and certain granular bodies called Nissl’s granules. Olfactory lobes quadrigemina Medulla oblongata
• Axon Single long extension of cell body that protected by Thalamus Corpora Pons
(Hypothalamus) diencephalon
membrane neurolemma.
• Synapse It is the junction between the dendrites of one
Forebrain
neuron with axon terminal knobs of other neuron.
It forms the greatest part of brain. It consists of
Classification of Neuron/Nerve Cell following types:
Neurons are of two types: • Cerebrum It is the largest part of the brain covered by
1. Myelinated Axon is composed of Schwann cell coated cerebral hemispheres. The roof of cerebrum is cerebral
by myelin sheath. The gap between adjacent myelin cortex. Cerebrum leads to consciousness, storage of
sheath is called nodes of Ranvier. memory of information.
On the basis of number of axon and dendrites • Olfactory lobes These are pair of small sized structure,
completely covered by cerebrum. These are the centre
Unipolar Bipolar Multipolar
of skull.
(with one axon) (with one axon (with one axon and two or • Thalamus It is for integrity of sensory impulses sent
and one dendrite) more dendrites) from sense organs like eyes, ears and skin. It deals with
2. Non-myelinated Axon is composed of Schwann cells pain, pressure and temperature.
not enclosed by myelin sheath.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 717

• Broca’s area It is present in brain and is related with Peripheral Nervous System
speech, while Wernick’s area of brain is related with
It is composed of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of
understanding speech.
spinal nerves.
• Hypothalamus It deals with water balance in body,
• Cranial nerves emerge from brain, while spinal nerves
behavioural patterns of sex, sleep, stress, emotions, etc.
arise from spinal cord. Different number of cranial
It also regulates pituitary hormones and metabolism of
nerves are present in different organism.
fat, carbohydrate and water.
e.g. 10 pairs of cranial nerves are present in fishes and
Midbrain amphibians.
It is located between hypothalamus and pons of the – Number of cranial nerves found in rabbit is 12 (same
hindbrain. as man) but 37 spinal nerves are present in rabbit.
• It consists of two pairs of rounded swelling lobes called – The first 10 pairs are common for frog and rabbit.
corpora quadrigemina (soild structures).
List of Cranial Nerves
• It deals with visual analysis, auditory, etc.
• Midbrain of rabbit consists of four optic lobes. Cranial Number Function Distribution
Olfactory I Sensory Nose
Hindbrain
It consists of cerebellum, pons varolii and medulla Optic II Sensory Retina of eye
oblongata. Occulomotor III Motor 4 muscles of eyeballs
• Cerebellum It is in the bottom part of the head and Trochlear (smallest) IV Motor Superior oblique muscle
back of it. It controls the coordination of accurate
Trigeminal (largest) V Mixed
movements and balancing. It is considered as small
brain. Opthalmic ... Snout

• Medulla oblongata It is the lowermost part of brain, Maxillary ... Upper jaw
which is connected to spinal cord. It deals with control Mandibular ... Lower jaw
of heartbeats, blood vessels, breathing, salivary secretion
Abducens VI Motor External rectus
and most of reflex and involuntary (uncontrolled)
movements. Facial VII Mixed Neck, pinna, tongue,
Vestibulocochlear lower jaw
• Pons Varolii It is an oral mass that lies above medulla
oblongata. It interconnects two cerebellar hemispheres (auditory) VIII Sensory Internal ear
and also joins the medulla with higher brain centres. Glossopharyngeal IX Mixed Tongue, pharynx

Spinal Cord Vagus X Mixed Larynx, heart, lungs,

stomach, etc.
It is a long cord-like structure present at the back,
Spinal accessory XI Motor Neck
centrally located and well-protected by bony vertebral
column. Hypoglossal XII Motor Neck and tongue
• It gives out 31 pairs of spinal nerves in man.
• It conducts impulses to and from the brain. Autonomous Nervous System
• It is the centre for reflex actions and provides means of It was discovered by Langley. It is entirely motor and
communication between spinal nerves and the brain. operates without conscious control.
Autonomic nervous system consists of two divisions:
Reflex Action
It is unconditional, inborn and unlearned reflex to a (i) Sympathetic nervous system This increases defence
stimulus. system of body against adverse conditions and active
in stress conditions, e.g. pain, fear and anger.
Examples Blinking of the eye when an object comes near
(ii ) Parasympathetic nervous system It provides
to our eyes suddenly, rapid withdrawl of hand, while
relaxation, comfort, pleasure at the time of rest and
burned, sneezing, coughing, yawning, knee-jerk reflex, etc.
helps in the restoration and conservation of energy.
Acquired Reflex Action
It is also called as conditioned reflex and dependent on
past experience, training and learning. These are under
SENSE ORGANS
cerebral control during learning. First demonstrated by The sensory organs (receptors) enable us to detect all types
Ivan Petrovitch Pavlov in hungry dog. of changes in the environment and send appropriate signals
to the CNS, where all the inputs are processed and
e.g. Learning of dancing, cycling, swimming, singing and analysed signals are then sent to different centres of brain.
driving, etc.
718 CDS Pathfinder

The different types of sense organs are as follows: (iii) Internal Ear
Human Ear The inner ear consists of a labyrinth of fluid-filled
Ears are a pair of stato-acoustic organs meant for both chambers within the temporal lobe of the skull.
sensory functions, i.e hearing and maintainance of body Labyrinth consists of two main divisions:
balance. The study of structure, function and disease of ear (a) Bony labyrinth is filled with a fluid called
is called otology. perilymph, while membranous labyrinth contains
Temporal bone Semicircular endolymph.
Ossicles canals Vestibular
Malleus Incus Stapes nerve Facial (b) Membranous labyrinth is concerned with both
nerve balancing and hearing.
• Internal ear is formed of three parts:
Internal (a) Body proper (utricules and sacculus)
auditory
meatus (b) Semicircular canals
(c) Cochlea
• Cochlea is small snail-shaped structure.
1 2
Cochlea Cochlear • It makes 2 turns in rabbit and 2 turns in man.
Tympanic Tympanic nerve 2 4
membrane cavity • Three chambers in cochlea are scala vestibuli, scala
Eustachian tube
Pinna External auditory
(outer ear) meatus
media and scala tympani.
Structure of human ear • Scala media contains the organ of hearing named organ
of Corti (discovered by Alfanso Corti).
• These are located on sides of head.
• Defects of ear are otalgia earache (pain in ear) acute
• Hearing is controlled by auditory area of temporal lobe
infection of middle ear, labyrinthine disease (malfunction
of cerebral cortex. of ear).
• The measuring unit of sound frequency is decibel.
Human ear can listen the sound of 60-80 decibel. Human Eye
• Human ear is sensitive to sound frequency
50-20000 cycles/sec and most sensitive to a frequency of The organ of sight is a pair of eyes in human. Eyes are
1000-3000 cycles/sec. situated in deep bony cavities called orbits or sockets of
• Human ear is divided into three parts as: the skull. These are the sensitive detectors of light. It is
most sensitive to yellow colour.
• External ear (pinna + external auditory meatus), middle
• The study of structure, functions and diseases of eye is
ear (tympanic cavity), internal ear (membranous
labyrinth). called ophthalmology.
• Eyeball is made basically of three concentric layers:
(i) External Ear • Outermost fibrous layer composed of sclera and cornea.
• The external organ consists of pinna and auditory canal. • Cornea is thin transparent front part of sclera, which
• Pinna is designed to collect sound waves. locks blood vessels, but is rich in nerve endings.
• Auditory canal contains few hairs and specialised • Sclera outermost, tough and opaque part. It maintains
sebaceous glands called ceruminous glands. These the shape of eye.
glands secrete cerumen (ear wax), it prevents foreign • Middle layer consists of choroid, ciliary body and iris.
particles from entering the ear. • Choroid chocolate coloured, pigmented (with melanin)
present along innerside of sclera.
(ii) Middle Ear • Iris consists of circular sphincter and radial dilators.
• Tympanic membrane (ear drum) separates middle ear
It adjusts the size of pupil.
from external ear.
• Pupil is the black hole in the centre of the iris, through
• The middle ear consist of three auditory ossicles. These
it light enters the eyeball. It also controls the light
are
entering into the eye.
(a) Malleus Outer and hammer-shaped.
• Conjunctiva Cornea is covered by a thin transparent
(b) Incus Middle and oval-shaped. layer called conjunctiva. It refracts the incident light
(c) Stapes Inner and stirrup-shaped attached on the rays to focus on the retina.
outer surface of fenestra ovalis membrane. • Lens is a biconvex, transparent, circular, solid structure
• The smallest bone in human body is stapes.
and is proteinaceous in nature.
• The passage connecting the middle ear with pharynx is • Aqueous humor is filled between cornea and lens.
Eustachian tube. • Vitreous humor is filled in space between the lens and
• Eustachian tube equalises pressure in both sides the retina.
(external and middle ear) or tympanic membrane.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 719

• Retina is innermost and incomplete layer. It consists of

a nervous tissue layer and a pigmented layer. Image of
Tongue (Gustatory Organ)
object is formed on retina. Organs for gustation are taste buds, which are present
• Retina is composed of two types of cells, which are rod mainly in the mucosa of taste papilae present on upper
cells and cone cells. The image formed on it is real and surface of tongue.
inverted. Taste buds are numerous on the tongue, but also found on
• Rods are longer, slender and filamentous, while cones the soft palate, pharynx and epiglottis. A papila may
are shorter and thicker. These are highly sensitive of dim contain few to many hundreds of taste buds. Taste buds
light, contain a reddish-purple pigment called rhodopsin. are more numerous in children than in adults. Location of
• Cones are sensitive to bright light, hence differentiate taste buds for basic tastes:
the colours (i.e. red, green, blue). • Sweet On the tip of tongue.
• Yellow spot is in the exact centre of the retina also • Salty On upper surface of anterior half.
called macula lutea. The fovea centralis is the area of • Sour Lateral side of tongue.
sharpest vision due to high concentration of cones. • Bitter Near the base of tongue.
• The blind spot (optic disc) has no rods and cones cells,
• Bitter taste is evolved by many organic substances,
hence no image forms in this region.
i.e. quinine, morphine, caffeine and urea.
• Tapetum lucidum increases the sensibility of vision. It
is made up of zinc, cysteine and guanine.
• The eyes of carnivores like, e.g. cat, dog, lion, seal, etc., GLANDS SYSTEM
glow in night due to the tapetum lucidum. In the vertebrate body glands may be classified on the
• Atropine is a chemical used by doctors to dilate the basis of the presence or absence of ducts. Glands are of
pupil. two types:
• Night blindness is caused by deficiency of rhodopsin in
rod cells. (i) Endocrine Glands
• Colour blindness is caused due to deficiency of cones. The word endocrine derives from Greek words, ‘endo’
The visual pigments for colour are: means within and ‘crines’ means to secrete. The endocrine
system is the collection of glands that produce hormones
(a) Erythropsin (sensitive to red)
that regulate metabolism, growth and development, tissue
(b) Chloropsin (sensitive to green) function, sexual function, reproduction, etc.
(c) Cyanopsin (sensitive to blue) • The science dealing with the study of endocrine glands

Diseases of Eyes and their secretion is called endocrinology.

• These glands do not have ducts (tubes) to carry their
Some common diseases of eye are as follows:
secretion to the target organs.
• Myopia (short-sightedness) In this, the image of distant
• These are also called as ductless glands.
object being formed in front of retina. It is corrected by
• Their secretion is called hormone or internal secretion.
using concave lens.
• These glands secrete their secretion into the blood for
• Hypermetropia (long or far-sightedness) Image is
formed behind the retina, corrected by using convex their transportation to the sites of action, e.g. thyroid,
lens. The image of nearer object becomes blurred. pituitary, pancreas, hypothalamus, adrenal, etc.
• Astigmatism Due to irregular cornea or lens, corrected (ii) Exocrine Glands
by using cylindrical lens.
• These glands have ducts.
• Cataract This is an eye disease generally occurs in older • These glands secrete their secretions in ducts to carry
people. Lens becomes opaque and can be corrected by them to sites of action, e.g. sweat and oil glands of skin,
operation and using biconvex glasses. salivary gland, liver, etc.
• Conjunctivitis Inflammation of conjunctiva by bacteria.
Hormones
Nose (Olfactory Organ) • These are the chemical messengers that can regulate
Nose is a sense organ for smell or olfaction. The nose biological processes. They are steroids, proteins, peptides
contains mucus coated olfactory (smell) receptors. of amino acid derivatives.
The nasal cavity is lined by olfactory epithelium lines.
• They can act as coenzymes.
• These are the organic compounds secreted in small
Olfactory epithelium have three principal kinds of cells: amount by endocrine glands of body.
(i) Olfactory bipolar neurons • Hormone was first discovered by Bayless and Ernst
(ii) Columnar epithelial cells H Starling in 1903.
(iii) Bowman’s gland • Secretin was the first hormone to be discovered.
720 CDS Pathfinder

Endocrine Glands of Human Hormones secreted by it are given in the table below:
There are total nine endocrine glands in human beings. Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects
Most of them are common to male and female. Calcitonin (CT) Bones, kidney Fall in blood calcium, excretion
(i) Pituitary (master gland) (ii) Thyroid of Ca 2 + .
(iii) Parathyroid (iv) Thymus Thyroxine Heart, liver, kidney, Tissue metabolism, growth, IQ,
skeletal muscles, differentation of gonads,
(v) Adrenals (supra-adrenals) (vi) Pancreas mast cells. metamorphosis in amphibians.
(vii) Pineal gland (viii) Gonads
(ix) Hypothalamus Parathyroid Glands
• These are four in numbers and are embedded in thyroid
Pineal body glands.
Pituitary
Parathyroid
• These are small glands, which are oval-shaped and yellow
Thyroid coloured and present in the human neck.
Thymus • Parathyroid gland produces parathyroid hormone.
Stomach
Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects
Adrenal
Parathormone Bones, kidney Rise in blood calcium level,
Pancreas (PTH) phosphorus check of calcium
Kidneys secretion.
Intestine

Testes Pancreas
Ovaries • It is a mixed gland with both exocrine and endocrine
function and located within the curve of duodenum.
• Three kinds of cells are found in islets of Langerhans
namely alpha, beta and delta cells.
(i) α-cells Larger and peripheral cells, produce
Human endocrine glands glucagon hormone.
Pituitary Gland (ii) β-cells Central and smaller cells, produce insulin
• It is the smallest gland, which is about the size of a that a peptide hormone.
pea, but plays a major role in endocrine system. (iii) δ-cells Middle cells produce somatostatin hormone.
• It is also called as the master gland. Hormones secreted by the pancreas are given in the table
• It is slightly larger in woman than in man. below:
• It is located in region of forebrain.
Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects
Thyroid Gland Insulin All cells Decreases blood sugar level,
stimulates glycogenesis, increases
• It is the largest endocrine gland.
stored protein in tissue. Hypersecretion
• It is found on ventral and lateral sides of upper part of results into diabetes mellitus.
the trachea in the neck. Glucagon Liver Rise in blood sugar.
• It is brownish-red, shield-shaped, bilobed gland.

Hormones secreted by it are given in the table below:

Parts of pituitary Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects
Anterior pituitary Growth Hormone (GH) All tissues Normal body growth.
Adrenocorticotropin Adrenal cortex Glucocorticoid secretion.
Hormone (ACTH)
Thyrotropin Stimulating Thyroid gland Thyroxine secretion.
Hormone (TSH)
Prolactin Alveolar cells of mammary glands Milk secretion.
Follicle Stimulating Ovarian follicles Growth of ovarian follicle and oestrogen secretion in females and
Hormone (FSH) spermatogenesis in male.
Leuteinising Hormone (LH) Testes or ovaries Development of corpus luteum and progesterone secretion in
females, testosterone secretion in males.
Intermediate pituitary Melanocyte Stimulating Skin Synthesis of melanin in the skin.
Hormone (MSH)
Posterior pituitary Oxytocin (protein) Uterus, mammary glands Milk ejection, uterine contraction, contraction of smooth muscles.
Vasopressin (ADH) Kidneys and arteries Hypertonic urine, absorption of water, arterioler constriction.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 721

Adrenal Glands Gonads

• Our body has paired endocrine glands, located superior • The main function of gonads is to produce gametes.
to kidneys. It is structurally and functionally divided • They also secrete sex hormones.
into adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla. • Sex hormones are mostly steroids.
• It is also called as 4S gland because of its four functions
• The testes in male and ovaries in females are gonads.
including salt retention, sugar metabolism, as a source of
energy and as a sex organ. Hormone secreted by gonads are given below:
Hormones secreted by the adrenal gland are given in table Endocrine
Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects
below: gland

Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects Testes Testosterones Male Male secondary sex
reproductive organs and external
Glucocorticoids Tissues, mast Carbohydrate, fat and protein organ male characters.
cells metabolism.
Mineral corticoids Kidney Sodium and potassium metabolism, Ovaries Oestrogen Female Female secondary sex
water absorption. reproductive organ and external
organ female characters.
Sex corticoids Body cells External sex characters.
Adrenaline and Mast cells Heartbeat, blood pressure rise, Corpus luteum Progesterone Uterus, Pregnancy changes in
noradrenaline contraction and relaxation of muscles. (ovaries) mammary female sex organs.
glands

Pineal Gland Apart from these, hormones are also secreted from heart
• It is a small gland in the brain derived from the
kidney and gastro-intestinal tract.
embryonic ectoderm. It secretes hormones in duct
response to nervous activity. Organ Hormone Role
• In man, it starts to degenerate at about age of 7 years. Heart Atrial natriuretic Dilation of blood vessels
• In adult, it is largely a fibrous tissue. factor
Hormone secreted by pineal gland is given below: Kidney Erythropoietin Erythropoiesis
Hormone Target organ Action/Effect Gastro- Gastrin, Secretin Secretion of HCl
Melatonin Melanophores Dispersion of melanin. intestinal tract Cholecystokinin Action pancreas for the secretion of
water acts on gall bladder and
pancreas for bile juice secretion.
Thymus Gland
• It is a lymphoid gland that plays an important role in
the development of immune system. REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS
• It is situated in front of the heart. The process by which new individuals are produced from
• Thymus is active in young ones, but gradually becomes their parents is called reproduction. Reproduction is of
inconspicuous after sexual maturity. two kinds:
• It arises from the endoderm of the embryo and consists
of peripheral cortex and central medulla. Reproduction
Hormone secreted by thymus gland is given below:
Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
Hormone Target organ Action/Effect Production of offspring by Production of offspring
Thymosin — Immune system of body a single parent without the by two parents,
produces lymphocytes. formation and fusion of gametes. male and female.

Hypothalamus Binary fission Syngamy Conjugation

The complete endocrine system works more or less under It is the division of parent into It involves fusion Temporary pairing
two equal sized daughter cells,
the influence of hypothalamus. of two entire of two points
• It is located in the floor of forebrain. Multiple fission gametes to form e.g. Paramecium.
It is the division of parent a zygote.
• Neurohormones were first discovered by Guillemin and
cells into a number of daughter Endogamy
Schally. cells, e.g. Amoeba. (self-fertilisation)
Hormones secreted by hypothalamus are given below: Budding e.g. tapeworm.
Formation of daughter cell from Exogamy
Hormones Target organs Actions/Effects a small projection called bud, (cross-fertilisation)
Thyrotropin releasing Thyroid, adrenal Thyrotropin secretion, e.g. Hydra, sponges. e.g. frog and man.
hormone gland Corticotropin secretion Fragmentation
Corticotropin Pituitary Secretion of pituitary Breaking up of animal’s body into two
releasing hormone gonadotropin or more pieces, each of which grows
Somatostatin Pituitary Initiation of growth into a new indvidual, e.g. coelenterates.
hormone secretion
722 CDS Pathfinder

Human Male Reproductive System Reproductive Organs, Function and

their Number in Female
Male reproductive system consists of following main parts:
Reproductive
• Testes These are the primary sex organ of males, which Number Function performed
organ of female
perform dual role, i.e. function as endocrine gland and
also act as male sex organs. These are suspended in thin Ovaries 2 To produce ova and hormones.
skin bag called scrotal sacs. Oviducts 2 To move the ovum towards uterus.
• Epididymis It is highly coiled, thin tube formed by Uterus 1 To provide space for developing child.
union of seminiferous tubules. Vagina 1 To receive the sperms.
• Penis It is muscular organ, richly supplied with the
blood. Externally, the penis has a bulge called glans Ovaries Oviduct
Fallopian tubes
penis, which is covered by prepuce (a skin fold).
Fimbriae
• Male can produce spermatozoa (sperm) throughout their
life starting from the age of 13-14 years.
Follicles
• The growth of hairs on body is due male sex hormones,
i.e. androgen (testosterone). Uterus Corpus luteum
Uterine wall
Ureter
Endometrium
Urinary bladder Cervix

Vagina
Seminal vesicle
Prostate gland (behind bladder)
Female reproductive system
Bulbourethral gland Urethra
Erectile tissue • Lactation Child is delivered after its development and
of penis Scrotum
mother produces milk to nourish the child.
Vas deferens
Penis • Placenta It is the connection between developing
Epididymis
embryo and mother. It supplies blood, nutrition, etc., to
Testis the foetus.
Glans penis
• Gestation period The embryo develops for nine months
Prepuce
in uterus. This period is called as gestation period.
Male reproductive system
• Amniocentesis A technique to detect chromosomal
Reproductive Organs, Function and abnormalities, if any in the developing foetus by
their Numbers in Man analysing the cells in the amniotic fluid. This technique
is often misused to know the sex of the foetus.
Reproductive
organs of male
Number Function performed Ultrasound can also be used to ditect sex of foetus.
Testes 2 To produce sperms and testosterone.
Menstrual Cycle
Sperm duct 2 To conduct the sperms from the testes to
urethra. • Reproductive period of a human female extends from
Seminal vesicles 2 To secrete seminal plasma. puberty (9-13 years) to menopause (45-50 years).
Epididymis 2 To temporarily store sperms and provide • Menopause is stopping of ovulation and menses. It
mobility. normally occurs between the ages of 45 and 50. In this
Urethra 1 To conduct urine, sperms. stage, women lose the ability to reproduce. Menopause
Prostate gland 2 To secrete an alkaline fluid to neutralise is characterised by hot flushes.
the acidity of urethra.
• The periodic vaginal bleeding during menstrual cycle is
Cowper’s gland 2 To secrete an alkaline white fluid.
called menstruation.
Penis 1 To pass urine and deposite sperms in
female genital tract. • Menstrual cycle is controlled by FSH, LH, oestrogen
and progesterone.
Human Female Reproductive System • On an average, menstrual cycle is completed in 28 days.
The female reproductive system consists of the following • It is absent during pregnancy, may be suppressed during
parts: lactation and permanently stops at menopause.
• Ovary These are primary sex organs that produces • About 13 mature eggs are released from two ovaries of
females gametes (ovum) and several steroid hormone. female in an year.
• After maturity, the ovary releases an ovum (egg cell)
after every 28 days.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 723

Contraception Methods HUMAN GROWTH

Contraception is the prevention of union of Human population is growing fast and its present rate is about 2%
sperm and ovum. per annum. Malthus (1798) gave the concept of human population.
Some common contraceptive methods are as Study of human population is called demography.
follow: (i) The physiological capacity of organisms is called biotic
(i) Natural contraception Avoid copulation potential.
during ovulation. (ii) The maximum number of individuals, which an environment
(ii) Mechanical contraception Use devices to can support of sustain is called carrying capacity.
avoid union of sperm and ovum, e.g. (iii) Population growth is determined by the number of organisms
condoms, diaphragm, Intra Uterine Devices added to the population (through birth) minus the number of
(IUDs). organisms lost (through death).
(iii) Chemical contraception Fertilisation is (iv) When the number of individuals lost is called zero population.
avoided by the use of drugs, spermicidal Growth curves are of following two types:
creams, tablets, foam, etc.
(iv) Vasectomy It is the surgical removal of • J-shaped curve When there is no environmental resistance, a
sperm ducts (vas deferens) in males. population grows exponentially and a J-shaped curve is obtained.
(v) Tubectomy Cut and tied of Fallopian tubes • S-shaped curve When environment resistance does not allow
in females. population growth to soar towards infinitely.

HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES

HEALTH (ii ) Extrinsic factors The disease causing factors, which come
It is a state of complete physical, mental and social from outside the human body are called extrinsic factors,
well-being. Any deviation from this state results in a e.g. disease caused by microorganism, tobacco, alcohol,
disease. narcotics and inadequate diet.
• According to World Health Organisation (WHO) • The disease causing organisms are called as pathogens.
(1948), ‘health is a state of complete physical, mental • Various microorganisms responsible for infectious diseases
and social well-being and not merely an absence of are bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, worms, etc.
disease’. • The pathogens enter our body by various ways, multiply and
• There are some basic factors, which contribute to
disturb the normal metabolic activities, thus shattering the
our good health. These are balanced diet, personal major organ systems.
hygiene and regular exercise.
Classification of Diseases
• Some other factors having major impact on our
Diseases may be broadly classified into two types:
health are awareness about diseases and their effects
on different functions of body, vaccination against Diseases
infectious diseases, proper disposal of waste,
maintenance of hygienic food and water resources. Acquired diseases Congenital diseases

HUMAN DISEASES Communicable

(spread from one
Non-communicable
(do not spread from one
A disease is an abnormal condition affecting the body person to another person) person to another person)
of an organism or in other words, we can also say that
‘any change from normal state causing discomfort is Contagious Non-contagious
called disease’. It is a specific condition associated with (by direct contact) (by indirect contact)
specific symptoms and signs.
• The factors, which affect human health can be Acquired Diseases
categorised into two groups: These diseases develope after birth and are not transferred from
(i ) Intrinsic factors The disease causing factors, parents to offsprings.
which are within the human body are called
They can be classified into two main types:
intrinsic factors, e.g. malfunctioning of organs
(like heart, kidney, etc.) genetic diseases, (i ) Communicable (ii ) Non-communicable
hormonal imbalance, etc.
724 CDS Pathfinder

Communicable Diseases or Infectious • Conjunctivitis (also called pink eye or madras eye) is
inflammation of the conjunctiva (the outermost layer of
Diseases eye and inner surface of eyelids) caused by adenoviruses.
These diseases are caused by pathogens and can spread It can also be caused by bacterial infection.
from an affected person to a normal person. Depending • Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute encephalitis
upon the pathogen communicable diseases are of following
(inflammation of brain). Roughly 97% of human rabies
types:
cases come from dog bites, but rabid bats are also
(i) Bacterial Diseases capable of causing this disease.
Some of the common bacterial diseases are: • Hepatitis is a medical condition defined by
inflammation of liver. It is caused by hepatitis viruses.
Pneumonia (Streptococcus), cholera (Vibrio cholerae),
tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), tetanus
• Influenza commonly called as flu, is an infectious
(Clostridium tetani), leprosy (Mycobacterium lepreae), food disease caused by RNA viruses of family–
poisoning (Salmonella), plague (Yersinia pestis), etc. Orthomyxoviridae.
• Bacterium Staphylococcus present in the nasal passage
• Measles also known as rubeola or morbilli is an
infection of the respiratory system caused by a virus,
causes food poisoning by producing a heat resistant toxin
in the food. specifically a paramyxovirus of the genus–Morbillivirus.
Symptoms include fever, cough, runny nose, red eyes,
• Bacterium Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium etc.
that causes typhoid fever in human beings. It affects • Mumps is a viral disease of human species caused by
liver, pancreas, nervous system, gastrointestinal tract,
mumps virus. Painful swelling of salivary glands (parotid
kidney, heat, etc.
gland) is the most typical symptom.
• Bacterium Clostridium botulinum causes food poisoning
• AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) It
in canned food. weakens the immunity of body. It spreads through
• Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophillus sexual contact, transfusion of blood infected by AIDS
influenzae are responsible for pneumonia in human virus, through infected needles, child gets diseases from
beings and infect alveoli of lungs. mother’s milk. Best way to avoid it is to adopt safe sex
• Anthrax It is an infectious disease caused by a bacteria and use of sterilised syringes.
called Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax cannot directly spread
from one individual to other, it spread by its spores. Antibiotics
• Diphtheria It is an upper respiratory tract illness caused Antibiotics are the chemical substances produced by
by Cornebacterium diphtheriae, which is characterised by certain microorganisms that kill or inhibit the growth of
sore throat, low fever and an adherent membrane on the other microorganisms. Penicillin was first antibiotic
tonsils, pharynx and nasal cavity. discovered by Alexander Fleming. It inhibits cell wall
formation in bacteria.
• Pertusis (Whooping cough) It is a serious and common
infection of children caused by Gram negative bacteria, • Antibiotic inhibit the metabolic activities of other
Bordetella pertusis. It is an air borne infection with microorganisms. Such as synthesis of cell wall protein
incubation period of 1-3 weeks. synthesis, nuclear membrane synthesis, etc.
• The microorganisms, which produce antibiotics
• DPT is a vaccine used against diphtheria, whooping
cough and tetanus. (anti-microbial substance) is called antibiont.
• The antibiotics can be of bacterial, fungal or
(ii) Viral Diseases Actinomycetes origin.
Some of the common viral diseases are: Some of the antibiotics obtained from different sources are
• Polio myelitis (polio) mumps (paramyxo virus), shown below in the given table:
chickenpox (variola virus), measles (paramyxo virus), Microbial Antibiotics
AIDS (HIV).
• The virus causing dengue fever or break bone fever is an Antibiotics Source
RNA virus of the family– Flaviviridae. Symptoms of Penicillin Penicillium notatum,
dengue include headache, muscle and joint pain. P. chrysogenum

• Dengue causes platelet count in blood to decrease. It Streptomycin Streptomyces griseus

occurs mainly because this virus infects endo thelial cells Neomycin Streptomyces fradiae
of bone marrow that give rise to platelets resulting in
bone marrow suppression. Tetracycline Streptomyces erythraeus
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 725

(iii) Diseases Caused by Protozoans and Worms Diseases of Malfunctioning

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium sp. It is transferred to the Diseases caused by malfunctioning of organs are:
host by means of vectors. Insects that can transmit diseases • Disease caused by improper functioning of
to humans are referred to as vectors, e.g. Anopheles serves heart–Cardiac failure.
as a vector for malaria Culex for filaria, Aedes for dengue • Disease caused by improper functioning of
and sandfly for kala-azar. kidney–Kidney failure.
• Kala-azar or dum-dum fever is caused by protozoan, • Disease caused by improper functioning of
Leishmania donovani, hence it is also called as bones–Osteoporosis.
leishmaniasis. • Disease caused by improper functioning of
• The infection to man is caused by the bite of infected eyes–Myopia, hypermatropia and cataract.
sandflies, Phlebotomus papatasi and P. argentipus.
• Amoebiasis It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica in man. Deficiency Diseases
This protozoan parasitises in large intestine of man, The diseases caused due to defect in the production of
occurring world wide whenever sanitation and hygiene are hormones are deficiency diseases. These are as follows:
poor. • Cretinism In children, occurs due to deficiency of
• Sleeping sickness It is caused by a flagellate protozoan
thyroxine hormone, which makes a child mentally
parasite belonging to the class–Mastigophora and
retarded.
genus–Trypanosoma and hence, it is also called
• Diabetes Due to deficiency of insulin.
trypanosomiasis. It is transmitted by blood sucking
• Dwarfism Due to the sluggish activity of the pituitary
tse-tse fly.
• Ascariasis It is a common helminthic infection (worm)
gland, the person has diminished growth of the bones.
• Gigantism Due to the excessive activity of the pituitary
casued by Ascaris lumbricoides. The diseases is
characterised by internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, gland, the person has excessive growth of the bones.
anaemia and blockage of intestinal passage. • Goitre It is caused by deficiency of iodine in diet. It is
• Filariasis It is caused by filarial nematodes, Wuchereria characterised by swelling of thyroid gland.
bancrofti. • Anaemia It is a decrease in number of RBCs or less
than the normal quantity of haemoglobin in the blood.
(iv) Diseases Caused by Fungi Anaemia leads to hypoxia (lack of oxygen) in organs.
• Ringworm (skin problems)
• Food poisoning (Aspergillus)
Allergic Diseases
• Athlete’s foot The unfavourable response of the body to certain things
like dust, serum, drugs, fabrics and pollen, etc., is called
• Communicable diseases are of two sub-types on the basis
allergy. Sneezing, irritation of throat, itching and skin
of mode of infection
rashes, etc., are the symptoms of allergic diseases,
(a) Contagious Diseases These diseases are transferred e.g. asthma is caused by allergy.
through simple contacts, e.g. smallpox, ringworm,
chickenpox, influenza, measles, leprosy, etc. Cancer
(b) Non-contagious Diseases These diseases are It is an uncontrolled growth of normal cells, which have
transferred through some physical carriers such as air,
lost control on cell division as a result these cells spread in
water, food, etc., e.g. cholera, taeniasis, ascariasis,
the body. Sometimes cells keep dividing and produce more
typhoid, etc. Some of these diseases are transmitted
cells even when they are not required. As a result, mass of
through some disease carrier vectors, e.g. plague,
AIDS, malaria, hepatitis, etc. tissue is formed, which is called as tumour. Tumours can
be benign or malignant.
Non-communicable Diseases or Types of Cancers
Non-Infectious Diseases (a) Carcinomas, e.g. lung cancer, breast cancer, cancer of
These diseases remain confined only to the person who pancreas and stomach.
develops them. They can be of four types: (b) Sarcomas, e.g. bone cancer.
(i) Organic (degenerative) diseases caused due to organ (c) Leukemia, e.g. blood cancer.
malfunctioning.
Breast cancer It is common among women while lungs
(ii ) Deficiency diseases caused due to deficiency of cancer is common among smokers.
mineral, hormones, vitamins and nutrients. • Radiations cause cancer, leukemia and skin injuries
(iii ) Allergic diseases caused due to the hypersensitivity of damage genes or chromosomes, induce unmarked cell
body to foreign particle. division, destroy tissues, cells and blood cells.
(iv ) Cancer caused due to uncontrolled division of certain • Cancer is common in older people bacause over the
cells of body. time their genomes tends to accumulate more mutations.
726 CDS Pathfinder

Diseases Caused by Addictive Substances VACCINATION

Alcohol Reduces alertness of mind and causes liver Louis Pasteur coined the term ‘Vaccine’ and vaccination for
damage. the first time.
Narcotic drugs Narcotic drugs are morphine, cocaine, • The word ‘vaccination’ has been derived from a Latin
heroin, hashish, ganja, opium, marijuana, barbiturates word ‘vacca’ which means cow.
and LAD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide). • A vaccine is either a cell suspension or a byproduct

Diseases Caused due to Pollution excreted by the cell.

• These vaccines, when introduced into the body, stimulate
Chemical pollution Pneumoconiosis is caused by
the production of antibodies.
inhaling coal dust. Silicosis is caused by inhaling stone
• Serum is used for obtaining antibodies.
dust (silica). Asbestosis is caused by inhaling asbestos
dust. Lung diseases and bronchitis are caused by smoke. • This introduction of harmless antigenic material into
healthy person for providing acquired immunity against
the disease is known as immunisation and vaccination.
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
DOTS or directly observed treatment, short-course Diseases of Animals
was launched by WHO as a strategy to control TB
Diseases Animal affected Caused by Organ affected
(Tuberculosis). It ensures a regular, uninterrupted
supply of high quality anti-TB drug. Pox Cattle, sheep, goat Virus Skin
Tuberculosis Cattle, birds Bacteria Lungs, intestine
Rinderpest Cattle, sheep, goat Bacteria Spleen
Congenital Diseases Anthrax Cattle, sheep, goat Bacteria Skin, lungs, intestine
These are anatomical or physiological abnormalities that Foot and mouth Cattle, pigs Virus Pharynx
come from birth. These diseases can be caused by genetic Dermatitis Goat, sheep, cattle Virus Skin
mutations or environmental factors. Diseases by genetic
Mastitis Cattle Bacteria Swollen udders
mutation can be transmitted to next generation, whereas
diseases by environmental factors are non-transmissible. Ringworm Cattle Fungus Body
Trypanosomiasis Cattle Protozoan Body
Some common congenital diseases are phenylketonuria,
alkaptonuria, haemophillia, sickle-cell anaemia, etc. Helminthic Cattle Worms Body
Aspergillosis Poultry birds Fungus Body
Chromosomal Aberrations Cholera Poultry birds Bacteria Body
These are any variation from the 46 chromosome Diarrhoea Poultry birds Bacteria Body
number of humans. These includes Turner’s syndrom,
Ranikhet Poultry birds Virus Body
klinfelter syndrom, etc.

APPLIED BIOLOGY
FERTILISERS (i) Nitrogenous fertilisers These are nitrogen containing
Fertiliser is any material found naturally or formed fertilisers, e.g.
synthetically and is applied to soil or plant tissues, to • Ammonium nitrate [NH 4 NO 3 ]
supply one or more plant nutrients essential to the • Ammonium sulphate [(NH 4 ) 2 SO 2 ]
growth of plants. • Sodium nitrate [NaNO 3 ]
They are of mainly two types: • Urea [NH 2 CONH 2 ] (organic fertiliser)
(ii ) Phosphatic fertilisers These are phosphorus containing
1. Chemical Fertilisers fertilisers, e.g.
• Ammonium phosphate [(NH 4 ) 3 PO 4 ]
These are salt or an organic compound containing the
necessary plant nutrients. They may be organic or • Ammonium hydrogen phosphate [(NH 4 )H 2 PO 4 ]
inorganic, e.g. ammonium sulphate is an inorganic • Superphosphate [Ca 2 (H 2 PO 4 ) 2 ]
fertiliser, while urea is an organic fertiliser. If excess (iii ) Potassium fertilisers These are potassium containing
fertilisers are applied to a plant without water, crop will fertilisers, e.g.
die due to the plasmolysis. • Potassium chloride [KCl]
Chemical fertilisers can be classified into following types: • Potassium nitrate [KNO 3 ]
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 727

• Potassium sulphate [K 2 SO 4 ]
• Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) also
Sources of Biofertilisers
• Natural processes fix about 190 × 10 12 g per year of nitrogen
called as Kisan Khad.
• N, P and K are the macronutrients provided through biological nitrogen-fixation.
by inorganic fertilisers. Such fertilisers are • Biological nitrogen-fixation provides about 1750 million tonnes
also called as complete fertiliser. of nitrogen, free of cost naturally in the form of biofertilisers.
• Biofertilisers contain some organisms, which can bring about
2. Biofertilisers nutrient availability to the crop plants.
The fertilisers, which are biologically originated are The main sources of biofertilisers are:
referred to as biofertilisers. In other words,
biofertilisers are those organisms, which can bring 1. Free-living Nitrogen-fixing Bacteria
about nutrient availability to crop plants. One of the Non-symbiotic (free-living) nitrogen-fixing bacteria are found
important type of biofertiliser is manures. abundantly in rhizosphere (i.e. the region where soil and roots
make contact). They may be aerobic or anaerobic.
Manures (i ) Aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria Aerobic nitrogen-fixing
• They are the semi-decayed substances, which are
bacteria such as Azotobacter are thought to maintain reduced
added to the soil to enhance soil’s fertility. oxygen conditions (microaerobic conditions) through their
• It is decomposed product of organic wastes. high level of respiration. Others such as Gloeothece evolve
• Manures improve the following properties of soil: O 2 photosynthetically during the day and fix nitrogen
–Fertility – Aeration during the night.
–Water holding capacity – Crumb structure (ii ) Anaerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria In anaerobic
• Farmers in our country are traditionally using nitrogen-fixing bacteria, oxygen does not pose a problem,
cow dung as manure. because it is absent in their habitat. They can be either
• They are also of different types based on their
photosynthetic (e.g. Rhodospirillum) or non-photosynthetic
(e.g. Clostridium).
composition.
2. Symbiotic Nitrogen-fixing Bacteria
The three types of manures are as follows:
Many plants form a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing
(a) Farm Yard Manure (FYM) Consist of mixture bacteria that contain an enzyme complex nitrogenase. Nitrogenase
of cattle dung, crop residues, fallen leaves, enzyme can reduce nitrogen into ammonia.
twigs, etc. • The best known example of symbiotic nitrogen-fixation is that
(b) Composite Manure (compost) Consist of of the Rhizobium group of bacteria, which form nodules on
rotten vegetables, garbage, sewage sludge, the roots of leguminous plants.
animal refuse, etc. • Nodules contain an oxygen binding haemoprotein called
(c) Green Manure Quick growing crops cultivated leghaemoglobin.
and ploughed into the soil. These can increase • Leghaemoglobin is present in the cytoplasm of infected nodules
next crop yield by 30-50%. cells at high concentration and gives the nodules pink colour.
• Non-leguminous trees and shrubs such as Alder, Ceanothus
Green Manuring
and Purshia have the nitrogen-fixing Actinomycetes, i.e.
Green manure is a type of cover crop grown Frankia as a symbiont.
primarily to add nutrients and organic matter to soil.
• The technique of utilising green manure is called 3. Free-living Nitrogen- fixing Cyanobacteria
green manuring, e.g. leguminous plants such as Anabaena, Nostoc, Aulosira, Cylindrospermum, Trichodesmium,
Crotalaria juncea, Glycine max, Indigofera etc., are some free-living nitrogen-fixing blue-green algae or
linifolia, etc., are used as green manures. cyanobacteria.
• Anabaena azollae (cyanobacteria) is used as • They add 20-30 kg of nitrogen per hectare of soil and water.
biofertiliser in rice field. • Aulosira is the most active nitrogen fixer in rice field, whereas
• Sunnhemp plants are used for green manuring in Cylindrospermum is active in sugarcane and maize fields.
India.
4. Symbiotic Nitrogen- fixing Cyanobacteria
Advantages of Manuring Anabaena and Nostoc sp. of cyanobacteria are common
• It improves the fertility of soil and enhances the symbionts in lichens, Anthoceros, Azolla and Cycads roots.
soil structure. • The water fern Azolla has Anabaena azollae as the symbiont,
• It improves the soil aeration capacity. which fixes nitrogen within fronds.
• It helps in control of pests, insects, mites and
• They grow thickly in rice paddy water and often inoculated to
growth of weeds. rice fields for nitrogen-fixation.
728 CDS Pathfinder

5. Mycorrhiza – Rotenone is obtained from roots of Derris eliptica and

Mycorrhizae (sing. mycorrhiza) are the mutualistic Lonechocarpus.
association of a fungus and the roots of higher plants. – Fumigation is another method of pest control used
Mycorrhizae are found in most groups of vascular plants. mainly to kill pests attacking stored grains. The
There are two types of mycorrhizae listed as follow: substances used for fumigation are known as
fumigants, e.g. methyl bromide, iodoform.
(i) Ectomycorrhiza The mycorrhizal fungi is present on
the root surface only. The cortical cells are
surrounded by a network of fungal hyphae called ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
Hartig net. It is found in roots of oak, Pinus, peach, Animal husbandry is the science of rearing, caring, feeding,
Eucalyptus, etc. breeding, improvement and utilisation of domesticated
(ii) Endomycorrhiza The mycorrhizal fungus enters the animals. It is an agricultural practice of breeding and raising
roots and spreads in the root cortex. It may be livestock.
intercellular or intracellular. • The animals used for transport, milk, meat and
The type of endomycorrhiza, which produce vesicles and agriculture are collectively called livestock.
arbuscules inside the cortical cells of roots are called VAM • On the basis of utility, the livestock can be categorised
(Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza), e.g. orchids, common into the following categories:
crop plants and grasses. 1. Milk yielding animals Cows, buffaloes and goats
provide us milk, which is used to obtain animal
Weed protein and serves as a perfect natural diet.
Wild plants, which grow along with a cultivated crop are 2. Meat and egg yielding animals Sheeps, goats, pigs,
called weeds. Common weeds found in wheat and rice field chicken, ducks and fowls provide us meat and eggs.
are Phalaris minar (mandusi), Amaranthus (chaulai), 3. Animals utilised as motive power Buffaloes, horses,
Chenopodium (bathua). Exotic weeds are Parthenium donkeys, bullocks, camels and elephants are used in
hysterophorus, Eichhornia, etc. Most troublesome terrestrial transport and ploughing the fields.
weed is congress grass (Parthenium hysterophorus). 4. Wool giving animals Sheeps are reared for obtaining
wool.
Weedicides 5. Miscellaneous uses The hides of cattles are used for
These are the chemical substances that are used to kill making a variety of leather goods.
weeds. Some weedicides are butachloro 2,4-D
(2,4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid), MCPA (2-Methyl Animal Breeding
4-Chloro, 1-Phenoxy Acetic acid). • It is an important aspect of animal husbandry, which
aims to increase the yield of animals and to improve the
Pesticides desirable qualities of produce.
• Breed is a group of animals related by descent and
Pesticides are used to destroy pests (pathogens, insects,
rodents, etc.) by spraying the crop. similar in most characters like general appearance
features, size, configuration, etc.
• Some microbes such as bacteria, fungi, viruses,
• Animal breeding can be classified as:
protozoans, etc., and their products used for pest
control are known as biopesticides. (i) Inbreeding The crossing of closely related animals
• These are inexpensive, cause no pollution, pick no risk
within the same breed for 4-6 generation is called
to human health and have a long term capability to inbreeding.
control pests. (ii ) Outbreeding Breeding between unrelated animals
• Some common pesticides are warfarin sulphur,
either of the same breed but not having common
ancestors for 4-6 generations (called outcrossing) or of
malathion, DDT (Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane), different breeds (cross-breeding) or even different
BHC (Benzene Hexachloride), etc. species (interspecific hybridisation) is called
• Some examples of pesticides are:
outbreeding.
– DDT and 2, 4-D were mainly used during the
Second World War.
– Endosulfan is an organochlorine pesticide and ARTIFICIAL INSEMINATION
acaricide used on plants and insects. It is the process in which the stored semen of a
– Bordeaux mixture a fungicide, composed of superior male animal is introduced into the genital
CuSO 4 , Ca(OH)2 was discovered by Millardet. tract of a selected female animal by using suitable
– Methyl isocyanate gas, which is responsible for
instruments, for carrying out reproduction, to get a
better breed of the animal or to solve the problem of
Bhopal gas tragedy (3rd Dec, 1984), is used for
infertility.
synthesising carbaryl (selvin).
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 729

Beeswax Produced by honeybees is used in industry for

Pisciculture •
the manufacture of cosmetics and polishes.
The breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by • Several species of honeybees are reported in different
artificial means is called pisciculture. It involves raising fish parts of India, but the most common species reared by
commercially in tanks or enclosures usually for food. beekeepers is Apis indica.
Fishes are of two types:
(i) Freshwater fishes Rohu, Catla, carp, tirica, mali, GENETIC ENGINEERING
singhara and calbasu.
Biochemist Paul Berg is the father of genetic engineering.
(ii ) Marine fishes Bombay duck, conger eel, promphert,
Genetic engineering or genetic manipulation involves the
Salmon, Sardine, hilsa.
introduction of foreign DNA or synthetic genes into the
Fishes are the rich source of protein and vitamin (A and D). organism of interest, so as to obtain desired product, e.g.
Golden rice is a variety of Oryza sativa produced through
Poultry genetic engineering to biosynthesise β-carotene, a precursor
The term ‘Poultry’ means rearing of fowls, ducks, geese of provitamin-A in the edible parts of rice. Two β-carotene
turkeys and some varieties of pigeons, but more often is biosynthesis gene were transformed in golden rice.
used for fowl rearing. (i ) ψ (psy) (phytoene synthase) from daffodil.
Fowls are reared for food or for their eggs. (ii ) crt I from soil bacterium Erwinia uredovora.
(i) Poultry birds, reared for meat are called broilers. Later on, other modifications were also developed and
(ii) Layers are the female fowls raised for egg production. golden rice was expected to reach market by the year 2013.
(iii) The fowls may be categorised into two breeds. • Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Discovered by Kary
Mullis (1985). It is a technique of amplification of DNA
• Indigenous breeds The term ‘Desi’ includes all
segment with the help of taq polymerase (isolated from
indigenous fowls exhibiting great variations in their
Thermus aquaticus).
shape, size and colour, e.g. Assel, Ahagus, etc.
• Restriction enzymes These are used to cut DNA at
• Exotic breeds The term ‘Improved’ is applied generally
to the exotic and comparatively modern breeds of specifies sites, also called molecular scissors.
chickens, e.g. white leghorn, Rhode island red, etc. • Bioasphalt It is an asphalt alternative made from
non-petroleum based renewable resources like sugar,
natural tree and gum resins, etc.
SOME HIGH YIELDING BREEDS OF ANIMALS
• Gene therapy It is the insertion of genes into an
●
Cows Karan Swiss, Sunandini, Jersey–Sindhi, Brown individual’s cell or tissues to treat disease(s).
Swiss– Sahiwal, Friesion-Sahiwal, etc.
• Terminator technology It is a technology that is used
●
Buffalo Murrah, Surti, Jaffarabadi, Nili, Nagpuri, etc.
to alter seeds, which fail to germinate after the first
●
Goat Kashmiri, Gaddi, Bengal, etc. generation.
●
Sheep Gaddi, Lohi, Bikaneri, Gurez, Nillore, etc.
• ELISA It is a test for AIDS, which is based on
●
Pig Large white Yorkshire, Middle white Yorkshire, etc.
Ag-Ab reaction.
●
Halstein is the cattle breed that produces highest
amount of milk.
●
Pashmina (fine wool) obtained from mountain
Some Achievements of Genetic
(Kashmiri) goat. Engineering
●
Indigenous Hens Aseel, Basara, Chittagong, Ghagus, • Sweet bug A bacterium that turns coconut water into
Brahma and Cochin. delicious confectionary. The bacterium is Acetobacter
●
Exotic high egg yielding breeds of hens White leghorn, oxylinum.
Rhode island red, Black minorica, Plymoth rock and
• Prof Anand Mohan Chakraborty has developed a new
Light sussex.
strain of oil eating bacteria called ‘Superbug’ by using
●
High yielding breeds of hens developed in India by
cross breeding of indigenous varieties with the foreign species of Pseudomonas.
breeds are ILS-82, HH-260 and B-77. • Organic foods Foods produced by using methods free
of inputs such as synthetic pesticides, chemical fertilisers,
chemical additives, irradiation, etc.
Beekeeping (Apiculture) • Biodegradable plastic films (PSV) made by blending
• It includes the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the polymers with an additive to provide an oxidation or
the production of honey and beeswax. starch. First human insulin Humulin was produced by
• Honey It can be used as a food of high nutritive value. genetic engineering.
A number of ayurvedic medicines contain honey.
730 CDS Pathfinder

DNA Fingerprinting Stem Cell Therapy

It is a technique employed by forensic scientists to assist in The most promising use of stem cells is due to their
the identification of individuals by their respective DNA ability to be modified into different functional adult cell
profiles. This technique is based upon the fact that the DNA types and serve as a potential source of replacement cells
constitution of an individual carries some specific sequences to treat numerous diseases. Stem cell research involves
of nucleotides, which do not carry any information for the use of several different types of cells besides
protein synthesis. These are called VNTR regions, embryonic stem cell, such as adult stem cells from
i.e. Variable Number Tandem Repeats or mini satellites. humans or animals or stem cells from foetuses, umbilical
DNA fingerprinting was invented by Dr Alec Jeffreys. cord or amniotic fluid.

Process Transgenic or GM Crops

• Collection of sample (most preferably buccal swab). A transgenic crop is a crop, which contains and expresses
• RFLP (Restriction Fragments Length Polymorphism)
a transgene (a gene that is transferred into an organism
analysis. by genetic engineering). It involves introduction of new
DNA into a crop to confer a new superior trait. A
• Southern blotting DNA fingerprinting is a quite
popular term for the transgenic crop is genetically
laborious method that requires large amount of
modified crops or GM crops.
undegraded sample so the method was replaced by what is
used today based on STR (Short Tandem Repeats) and Bt Crops Bt crops are produced by inserting the toxic
PCR. genes that code for a toxin directly into the genetic code
of the crop in order to protect the crop from insects
Cloning along with this, section of gene known as a promoter,
which would encourage the crop to produce the toxin
Cloning in biology is the process of producing similar
organism of genetically identical individuals that occur in and a marker, which could be used to track and identify
nature when organisms such as bacteria, insects or plants modified crop are also introduced, e.g. Bt cotton, Bt
reproduce asexually. brinjal, Golden rice, etc.
There are two types of cloning: Bt Cotton It is created by using a bacterium, Bacillus
thuringiensis (Bt is short form). It produces a protein that
(i) Reproductive cloning It is used for the production of
kills certain insects, e.g. beetles, flies, budworm, etc.
offspring. In it a new individual is created from a single
cell by replacing the nucleus in an egg cell with the Golden Rice It is a transgenic rice biosynthesising
nucleus (containing the genetic material) from another β-carotene, vitamin-A, essential for eye sight precursor
cell of the body. The cloned egg cell grows and in the edible parts of rice.
develops into an embryo. The embryo is implanted
inside a surrogate mother’s womb to mature and Advantages of GM Crops
produce a viable foetus. • Provides high nutrient containing varieties,
(ii ) Therapeutic cloning It is used for the development of i.e. enriched in specific nutrients.
embryonic stem cells. The inner cell mass of the • GM crops are more tolerant to cold, insect, drought,
blastocyst is then removed and used for the creation of salinity, etc.
an embryonic stem cell line that has the genetic make • Resistance to pest, herbicides and diseases.
up of the donated nucleus.
Hybridisation
SUCCESSFULLY DEVELOPED CLONED It is a technique, which involves cross breeding of
●
Dolly a sheep, the first mammal clone synthesised by different varieties of crop to get a new crop with desired
Dr Wilmut, UK. characteristics. Such crops/varieties are called High
●
Noori The world’s first cloned Pashmina goat named Yielding Varieties (HYV) or hybrid.
as Noori, an Arabic word referring to light. Funded by • High yielding varieties of wheat are Lerma, Sharbati
World Bank, the clone project was jointly worked by Sonara, Kalyan Sona, Roja 64, Pusa Lerma, Hera-Moti,
SKAUST and Karnal based National Dairy Research Sonara-64, Sonalika and Arjun.
Institute (NDRI).
• High yielding varieties of paddy (rice) are Jaya,
●
The world’s first buffalo calf through the Handguided
Cloning Technique was born on 6 February, 2009 at
Padma, Pusa 205, IR-6, T-141.
NDRI, Karnal. • High yielding varieties of maize are Ganga-101, Ranjit,
●
Garima-II, another cloned buffalo calf through the Daccan hybrid.
new and advanced ‘Handguided Cloning Technique’ • Germ plasm It is the living genetic resource such as
was born at NDRI, Karnal. seed or tissue maintained for the purpose of animal and
plant breeding preservation and other research aspects.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 731

Terms Related with Fermentation

Biotechnology Fermentation is the conversion of carbohydrates to alcohol and
• Genetic screening is an experimental technique carbon dioxide or organic acids using yeasts, bacteria or a
used to identify genes that may produce combination of there, under anaerobic conditions, e.g.
damaging changes in the individuals. Saccharomyces cerevisiae used in baking and alcohol industry.
• It involves collecting sequencing and comparison • Cheese is formed by the process of coagulation of casein by
of DNA genomes. enzyme rennin.
• Yoghurt is produced by fermentation using Lactobacillus and
• Biochips DNA chips single-stranded DNA
chains or repetitive DNA segments fierily struck Streptococcus.
to silica glass chip.
• Bioinformatics An interdisciplinary field, BIOGAS
which addresses biological problems using Biogas is also called Landfill Gas (LFG) or digester gas.
computational techniques and makes the rapid
It is the gas produced by biological breakdown of organic matter
organisation and analysis of biological data
in the absence of O 2 .
possible.
• It is methane rich and produced by anaerobic digestion of
• Blue biotechnology An application of biomass with the help of methanogenic bacteria.
biotechnology in the marine and aquatic, but • It is mainly produced from animal wastes.
rarely used.
• Non-biodegradable waste cannot be broken down by
• Green biotechnology It is an application of microorganism, so cannot used for biogas production.
biotechnology in the agricultural processes.
• Organic wastes such as dead plants or animal material, animal
• Red biotechnology It is an application of dung, and kitchen waste are also called biodegradable waste
biotechnology in the medical processes. can be easily converted into gaseous fuel, i.e. biogas. These
• White biotechnology It is a branch of wastes include cow dung paddy-husk, vegetables /fruits, wastes,
biotechnology applied to industrial processes. etc.
• Biomarkers (Biosignature) are specific proteins • It mainly comprises methane CH 4 -(50-70%) and carbon
used to diagnose disease. dioxide CO 2 (25-50%) and hydrogen sulphide H 2 S (0-3%),
moisture and siloxanes.
Green Revolution (1940-70) Advantages of Biogas
Green revolution refers to a series of research,
• It is cheaper than other fuels and ideal for small scale
development and technology transfer initiatives that
increased agricultural production around the world. application.
• It helps to clean environment because waste materials can be
• Great increase in the production of food grain
used as substrate.
crops due to use of hybrid varieties, fertilisers
• It is a renewable source of energy.
and modern agricultural techniques took place.
• Father of green revolution in India is MS
Swaminathan and in world is NE Borlaug. BIOREMEDIATION
It is the treatment of environmental problems by the use of
Operation Flood (White Revolution) biological methods. It may be defined as treatment, which include
Great increasement in the production of milk due microorganisms or their enzymes to return the environment that
to use of high milk yielding breads of cow and has been to its original condition. It may be employed in order to
buffaloes. attack specific contaminants, such as chlorinated pesticides that are
degraded by bacteria.
• It resulted in making India the largest producer
of milk and milk products and hence called white
revolution. PHYTOREMEDIATION
• Operation flood was rural programme started by This is the treatment of environmental problems through the use
India’s National Dairy Development Board of plants.
(NDDB) in 1970. • The term phytoremediation is a combination of two words, i.e.
phyto means plant and remediation means to remedy.
Silver Revolution • It helps in depolluting contaminated soils, water and air with
Great increasement in the production of eggs due to plants, able to degrade or eliminate metals, pesticides, solvents,
use of exotic breeds. explosives, crude oil and its derivatives.
732 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
Cell : The Unit of Life 11. Which one among the following is 18. Match the following Columns.
known as ‘animal starch’?
Column I Column II
1. Which of the following organism (a) Cellulose (b) Glycogen (Cell organelle) (Common names)
does not obey the ‘cell theory’? (c) Pectin (d) Chitin
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria A. Ribosome 1. Suicidal bags of cell
12. Consider the given cell organelles. B. Lysosome 2. Protein factory of
(c) Fungi (d) Plants
1. Mitochondria 2. Plastids cells
2. The nucleic acid in a cell was 3. Ribosome C. Mitochondria 3. Controller of cells
discovered by Which of the cell organelle(s) D. Nucleus 4. Power house of cell
(a) E Strasburger (b) A Kossel
given above is/are common in both
(c) F Miescher (d) Huxley Codes
plant and animal cells?
3. The ‘cell theory’ for organisms A B C D A B C D
(a) Only 2
was proposed by (b) 1 and 2 (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) Purkinje and Von Mohl (c) 1 and 3 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 4 2 3
(b) Schleiden and Schwann (d) All of the above 19. Which of the following cell
(c) Carolus Linnaeus organelles functions as the
13. Rigidity of cell wall is due to
(d) Felix Dujardin powerhouse of a living cell?
(a) chitin (b) lignin
4. The fact that new cells arise from (c) suberin (d) pectin (a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria
pre-existing cells was proposed by (c) Ribosomes (d) Golgi apparatus
14. The plasma membrane of animal
(a) JE Purkinje (b) F Dujardin 20. Which one of the following
cells is highly elastic. It is mainly
(c) R Virchow (d) E Abbe organelles is the smallest
due to the presence of
5. The scientists who first recognised (a) carbohydrates membrane bound organelle?
and named the nucleus was (b) proteins (a) Ribosome (b) Golgi bodies
(a) Robert Hooke (c) Iipids (c) Lysosome (d) Nucleolus
(b) Robert Brown (d) nucleic acids 21. When our cells are filled with
(c) Theodore Schwann dead or damaged organelles like
15. The secretory product pectin of
(d) Thomas Morgan
cell wall is chemically a mitochondria, ER, etc. The
6. Which of the following is a (a) protein degradation of these organelles is
physical basis of life? (b) carbohydrate mainly performed by
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosome (c) Iipid (a) ribosomes (b) lysosomes
(c) Protoplasm (d) Nucleus (d) nucleic acid (c) peroxisomes (d) glyoxysomes
7. The bacteria were discovered by 16. Chromosomes are 22. Consider the following statements
which of the following person? (a) present only in the nucleus of a 1. Cortical granules originate
(a) H Urey cell from Golgi bodies.
(b) E Haeckel (b) the largest in number in human cells 2. Cortical granules form the
(c) AV Leeuwenhoek (c) made up of DNA as a main fertilisation membrane.
(d) Ivanowski component 3. Cortical granules are found
8. The term ‘Meiosis’ is coined by (d) visible in all cells at every time only in ovum.
(a) Fleming 17. Consider the following statements Which of the statement(s) given
(b) Blackmann 1. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) is above is/are correct?
(c) Liebig called as ‘skeleton of cell’. (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Farmer and Moore 2. ER is divided into three types (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
9. The physical basis of life according to the presence or 23. Consider the following statements
protoplasm was named by the absence of ribosome. 1. Lysosomes have hydrolytic
(a) Purkinje (b) J Huxley 3. Smooth ER is rich in actively enzymes.
(c) Robert brown (d) Sherington protein secreting cells. 2. Lysosomes are autophagic.
10. Which of the following is not Which of the statement(s) given 3. Lysosomes can dissolve
present in prokaryotes? above is/are correct? proteins, lipids and
(a) Ribosomes (a) Only 1 carbohydrates.
(b) Nuclear membrane (b) 1 and 2 4. All lysosomes are same
(c) Cell wall (c) 2 and 3 structurally and functionally.
(d) Plasma membrane (d) Only 3
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 733

Which of the statement(s) given 31. Which of the following phases is Previous Years’ Questions
above is/are correct? the longest phase in the meiotic
40. Which organelle in the cell, other
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 cell division?
than nucleus, contain DNA?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) Anaphase-II
e 2013 (I)
(b) Telophase-I
24. Consider the following statements (a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Prophase-I
1. Chloroplast is known as ‘cell (b) Golgi apparatus
(d) Metaphase-I
within a cell’. (c) Lysosome
2. Chloroplast is the largest cell 32. Which of the following is the (d) Mitochondria
organelle found in plant cells. correct sequence of the different
3. Chloroplasts have single- phases of cell division? 41. Which of the following parts are
stranded extra chromosomal found in both plant and animal
1. Anaphase 2. Telophase
DNA. cells? e 2014 (II)
3. Prophase 4. Metaphase
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Cell membrane, chloroplast, vacuole
Codes
(b) Cell wall, nucleus, vacuole
above is/are correct? (a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) Cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) Cell wall, chloroplast, cytoplasm
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
33. Chromosomes are best seen in
25. Which of the following pairs of cell 42. Which one among the following
(a) telophase (b) anaphase
statement is correct? e 2015 (I)
organelles mainly concerned with (c) metaphase (d) prophase
fatty acid metabolism in both (a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus
34. Which type of division occurs in (b) Cell membrane is present in both
plants and animals? cleavage? plant and animal cells
(a) Ribosomes and nucleus (a) Amitotic (b) Mitotic
(b) Lysosomes and mitochondria (c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are
(c) Meiotic (d) Both (b) and (c) not found in eukaryotic cells
(c) Peroxisomes and mitochondria
(d) Glyoxysomes and peroxisomes 35. In which one of the following (d) Ribosomes are present in
types of cell divisions crossing eukaryotic cells only
26. DNA is mainly found in the
over of chromosomes takes place? 43. The living content of cell is called
following organelles. (a) Mitosis (b) Meiosis protoplasm. It is composed of
1. Mitochondria (c) Amitosis (d) Cytokinesis e 2016 (I)
2. Chloroplasts
36. Which is the correct order of (a) only cytoplasm
3. Peroxisomes (b) cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
4. Nucleus phases in prophase-I? (c) only nucleoplasm
Which of the statements given (a) Leptotene, Diakinesis, Pachytene, (d) cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other
above are correct? Diplotene, Zygotene organelles
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene,
Diplotene, Diakinesis
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these Classification of Plants
(c) Diakinesis, Pachytene, Diplotene,
27. Which of the following cell Zygotene, Leptotene
and Animals
organelles is found in a cell that is (d) Diakinesis, Pachytene, Leptotene, 44. Study of principle and procedures
very active in protein synthesis? Diplotene, Zygotene of classification is called
(a) Mitochondria
37. Which of the following stages is (a) taxonomy (b) systematics
(b) Chloroplast
associated with the formation of (c) nomenclature (d) identification
(c) Lysosome
(d) Ribosome chiasmata during meiotic cell 45. Which of the following does not
division? contain chlorophyll?
28. Consider the following organelles. (a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (a) Fungi (b) Algae
1. Chloroplast (c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene (c) Bryophyta (d) Pteridophyta
2. Mitochondria
38. Which of the following organisms 46. Bryophytes are photosynthetic
3. Peroxisome
have peptidoglycan compound as but do not have vascular tissue
Which of the organelle(s) given an important constituent in cell and true roots. This feature
above is/are concerned with wall? enables them to resemble with
photorespiration? (a) Bacteria and cyanobacteria which of the following?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Fungi (b) Algae
(b) Bacteria and unicellular eukaryote
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (c) Pteridophytes (d) Angiosperms
(c) Archaebacteria and eukaryote
29. Number of chromosomes in (d) All members of Monera and 47. Vascular tissue is found in
Drosophila is Protista (a) Thallophyta (b) Bryophyta
(a) eight (b) ten (c) Pteridophyta (d) Lichens
39. Which of the following term is
(c) twelve (d) fourteen
associated with the failure of 48. The gymnosperms are
30. How many linkage groups are meiosis-II to occur after meiosis-I? (a) seed bearing plants
present in man? (a) Brachymeiosis (b) non-flowering
(a) 46 (b) 23 (b) Dinomitosis (c) thallus bearing
(c) 48 (d) 10 (c) Dimunition (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Karyokinesis
734 CDS Pathfinder

49. When any plane passing through 56. Match the following Columns. 63. Which one among the following
the central axis of the body Column I Column II pairs is not correctly matched?
divides the organism into two e 2014 (II)
A. Gill slits 1. Birds
halves that are approximately B. Scales 2. Osteichthyes (a) Sandal wood — Partial root
mirror images, it is called C. Operculum 3. Chondrichthyes plant parasite
(a) radial symmetry D. Hairs 4. Reptilia (b) Cuscuta — Parasite
(b) bilateral symmetry E. Lungs 5. Mammalia (c) Nepenthes — Carnivorous
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Mushrooms — Autotroph
(d) None of the above Codes
A B C D E A B C D E 64. Match the following Columns.
50. If we sprinkle common salt on an (a) 3 4 2 5 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 5 e 2014 (II)
earthworm, it dies due to (c) 5 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 2 5 4 3
(a) osmotic shock Column-I Column-II
57. Consider the following statements
(b) respiratory failure
1. Warm-blooded animals can A. Acsaris 1. Mammalia
(c) toxic effect of salt
(d) closure of pores of skin remain active in cold B. Malarial parasite 2. Arthropoda
environment in which C. Housefly 3. Nematoda
51. Itching due to insect bite is caused cold-blooded animals can D. Cow 4. Protozoa
by hardly move.
(a) formic acid 2. Cold-blooded animals require Codes
(b) acetic acid much less energy to survive A B C D
(c) lactic acid than warm-blooded animals. (a) 3 4 2 1
(d) maleic acid
Which of the statement(s) given (b) 3 2 4 1
52. Which of the following is the above is/are correct? (c) 1 2 4 3
group with closely related animal (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) 1 4 2 3
types? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Sea star, sea lilly, sea hare 58. Bats can fly in dark because they Genetics, Molecular Biology
(b) Dogfish, silverfish, crayfish (a) have strong wings and Evolution of Life
(c) Leech, louse, snail (b) have sharp eyes
(d) Jellyfish, sea fan, sea anemone (c) produce ultrasonic waves 65. The scientist who is considered as
(d) are nocturnal the father of genetics?
53. Which one of the following animals (a) Lamarck
breathe through the skin? 59. Which one of the following (b) Charles Darwin
(a) Fish (b) Pigeon characteristics is common among (c) Hugo de Vries
(c) Frog (d) Cockroach parrot, Platypus and kangaroo? (d) Gregor Johann Mendel
54. Match the following Columns. (a) Oviparity
66. Dr. Hargobind Khorana is
(b) Toothless jaws
Column I Column II (c) Homeothermy credited for the discovery of
(d) Functional postanal tail (a) synthesis of proteins
A. Himalayan 1. Amphibia
salamander (b) synthesis of genes
(c) synthesis of nitrogenous bases
B. Indian shark 2. Chondrichthyes
Previous Years’ Questions (d) None of the above
C. Sea-horse 3. Osteichthyes
D. Tortoise 4. Reptilia 60. Which one among the following 67. A pair of contrasting characters is
groups of animals maintains called
Codes constant body temperature in (a) phenotype (b) genotype
A B C D A B C D changing environmental (c) allele (d) None of these
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 conditions? e 2013 (I) 68. Which one of the following ratio
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 1 3 4 (a) Birds (b) Amphibians represents a test cross?
55. Consider the following statements (c) Fishes (d) Reptiles (a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 7
1. Heart is three-chambered in 61. Among the following animals, (c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
fishes. choose the one having three pairs 69. Addition of one chromosome to a
2. Heart is four-chambered in birds. of legs. e 2014 (I) diploid set is
3. Most animals of class— (a) Spider (b) Scorpion (a) trisomy (b) monosomy
Amphibia are characterised by (c) Bug (d) Mite (c) nullisomy (d) tetrasomy
two pair of limbs. 62. Which one among the following is 70. A couple with blood types A and B
4. In all reptiles respiration is by the generic name of the causal may have children with blood
lungs only. organism of elephantiasis? group
Which of the above statements are e 2014 (II) (a) A and B
correct? (a) Filaria (b) A, B and AB
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1 and 3 (b) Microfilaria (c) A, B, AB and O
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3, 4 (c) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) Only AB
(d) Culex pipiens
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 735

71. Which one among the following is 82. Which of the following is 92. A haemophilic man marries with
not correct about Down’s represented by X in figure? a normal homozygous woman.
syndrome? DNA C G A T C G C T What is the probability that their
(a) It is a genetic disorder son will be haemophilic?
(b) Affected individual has early ageing mRNA G C X A G C G A (a) 100% (b) 75%
(c) Affected person has mental (a) Adenine (b) Guanine (c) 50% (d) 0%
retardation (c) Uracil (d) Thymine
(d) Affected person has furrowed 93. The nearest relative of man are
tongue with open mouth 83. Genetic code is (a) lemurs
(a) singlet (b) doublet (b) apes
72. What is the most conspicuous (c) triplet (d) None of these (c) new world monkeys
salient feature of people with (d) old world monkeys
‘Progeria’? 84. Which of the following were first
(a) More hairs on body formed? 94. Which is the correct sequence in
(b) Less immunity to opportunistic (a) Genes (b) Cells order of chronology?
infections (c) Eobionts (d) Coacervates 1. Rediscovery of Mendel’s law of
(c) Faster rate of ageing 85. Life originated in inheritance.
(d) Suffer from infertility (a) air (b) land 2. Darwin’s theory of evolution.
(c) water (d) All of these 3. Synthetic theory of evolution
73. The nucleic acid in cell was
discovered by 4. Hugo de Vries theory of
86. Genetic variation arises by
(a) E Strasburger (b) A Kossel
mutation.
(a) recombination (b) mutation
(c) F Miescher (d) Huxley Codes
(c) chromosomal aberrations
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3
74. The sugar in RNA is (d) All of the above
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
(a) ribose (b) deoxyribose 87. The evolution of human species
(c) sucrose (d) lactose 95. Which one of the following is an
took place mainly in
(a) Asia (b) Africa (c) Europe (d) China example of vestigial organ in
75. Which base replaces thymine in man?
RNA? 88. The organs which are morpho- (a) Jaw apparatus (b) Ear muscles
(a) Adenine (c) Guanine logically different but perform the (c) Canine teeth (d) Humerus
(c) Uracil (d) Cytosine same function are called
(a) homologous organs 96. Arrange the following in the order
76. Transfer of genetic information of their evolution.
(b) analogous organs
from one generation to the other
(c) vestigial organs 1. Amphibians 2. Fish
is accomplished by
(d) None of the above 3. Reptiles 4. Birds
(a) DNA (b) messenger RNA
Codes
(c) transfer RNA (d) Both (b) and (c) 89. Vermiform appendix is vestigial
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
77. Chromosomes are in man due to
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2
(a) cellulose digestion
(a) present only in the nucleus of a cell
(b) omnivorous diet 97. Which one of the following
(b) the largest in number in human cells
(c) heterodont condition theories was not proposed by
(c) made up of DNA as a main
(d) cooking habit Charles Darwin?
component
90. Which of the following have not (a) Natural selection
(d) visible in all cells at every time
undergone much of a change (b) Survival of the fittest
78. The heredity unit gene is made up during the process of evolution (c) Struggle for existence
of (d) Inheritance of acquired characters
over millions of years?
(a) RNA
1. Crocodile 2. Cockroach 98. The theory of ‘survival of the
(b) DNA
(c) protein 3. Horse fittest’ was propounded by
Codes (a) Lamarck
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Mendel
79. The correct model of DNA (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (c) Charles Darwin
structure is proposed by (d) Karl Landsteiner
(a) Jacob and Monod 91. Which of the following is the
(b) Watson and Crick correct sequence in which the 99. According to Darwin, variations
(c) Khorana given animal groups appeared on are
(d) Baltimore and Temin the earth during the course of (a) heritable (b) non-heritable
evolution? (c) mutational (d) environmental
80. Enzyme responsible for DNA (a) Porifera — Annelida —
replication is 100. Who proposed the mutation
Coelenterata — Protozoa theory of evolution?
(a) polymerase (b) proteolytic (b) Protozoa — Coelenterata —
(c) dehydrogenase (d) carboxylase (a) Huxley (b) Darwin
Porifera — Annelida
(c) Lamarck (d) Hugo de Vries
81. DNA structure was discovered by (c) Annelida — Porifera — Protozoa —
(a) Weismann Coelenterata 101. Synthetic theory was proposed by
(b) Watson and Crick (d) Protozoa — Porifera — (a) Morgan (b) Muller
(c) Sutton (d) Jacob Coelenterata — Annelida (c) Darwin (d) Dobzohansky
736 CDS Pathfinder

102. Microevolution can be measured by 108. Match the following Columns. 117. Which one of the following is dicot
comparing observed allelic endospermic seed?
Column I Column II
frequencies. These can be predicted (a) Maize (b) Bean
by A. Primary root 1. It is formed due to the (c) Castor (d) Wheat
repeated division of
(a) chance primary root. 118. The apple fruit is called as false
(b) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium fruit because
B. Tap root 2. It is primary root and
(c) differential mortality system its branches. (a) its pericarp is unconspicuous
(d) Mendelian ratio C. Fibrous root 3. Root arises any place (b) its actual fruit is located within
other than the root edible fleshy thalamus
Previous Years’ Questions system. (c) its develops from the inferior ovary
D. Adventitious 4. It is direct prolongation (d) its endocarp is cartilaginous
103. The fossil of Archaeopteryx root of the radicle noticed
represents the evidence of origin nearly in all 119. Wood is the common name for
of e 2013 (I) dicotyledonous plants. (a) vascular bundle
(a) birds from reptiles (b) cambium
Codes
(b) mammals from reptiles (c) secondary xylem
A B C D A B C D
(c) reptiles from amphibians (d) secondary phloem
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(d) mammals from birds 120. The sharp and pointed outgrowths
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
104. Two strands of DNA are held present on the stem of rose are
109. Stem develops from called
together by e 2014 (I)
(a) plumule (b) radicle
(a) hydrogen bonds (a) prickles (b) thorns
(c) pericarp (d) procambium
(b) covalent bonds (c) spines (d) hooks
(c) electrostatic force 110. Which one of the following 121. Cork cambium is
(d) van der Waals’ forces statements regarding potato is (a) primary meristem
correct? (b) ground meristem
105. Match Column I with Column II (a) It is a root
and select the correct answer (c) lateral meristem
(b) It is a normal stem (d) intercalary meristem
using the codes given below (c) It is a modified stem
e 2016 (I) 122. The characteristic odour of garlic
(d) It is a modified root
Column I is due to which one of the
(Geological
Column II 111. A leaf without petiole is known as following?
(Life form) (a) subpetiolate (b) sessile
Time-Scale) (a) Chlorine-containing compounds
(c) zygomorphic (d) heteromerous
A. Pleistocene 1. Mammals (b) Fluorine-containing compounds
B. Palaeocene 2. Human genus 112. The largest flower in the world is (c) Nitrogen-containing compounds
C. Permian 3. Invertebrates (a) lotus (b) Rafflesia (d) Sulphur-containing compounds
D. Cambrian 4. Frogs (c) giant cactus (d) None of these 123. Which one of the following
113. The fruit of coconut is nutrients is not a structural
Codes
(a) drupe (b) hesperidium component of the plant?
A B C D A B C D
(c) composite fruits (d) berry (a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) Phosphorus (d) Potassium
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 114. Which of the following is correctly
matched? 124. Palak leaves are rich in
106. Which of the following cause(s)
(a) Tomato—Pome (b) Banana—Berry (a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-D
variation in the genetic material (c) Mango—Berry (d) Apple—Drupe (c) iron (d) carotene
of progeny? e 2016 (I)
1. Sexual reproduction 115. Match the following Columns. 125. Pulse crops can fix atmospheric
2. Asexual reproduction Column I Column II nitrogen because of
3. Mutations (Plants) (Seed dispersal (a) root nodules (b) deep roots
4. Epigenetic changes mechanism) (c) aerial roots (d) root hair

Select the correct answer using A. Coconut 1. By animals 126. The plant which is parasite in
the codes given below: B. Drumstick 2. Explosive nature is
(a) Only 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 mechanism (a) Cuscuta (b) Utricularia
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 C. Coklebur (Xanthium) 3. By water (c) Rhizopus (d) Green plants
D. Castor 4. By wind 127. Out of the following elements
The Plant Morphology Codes which is required in largest
Physiology A B C D A B C D quantity?
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (a) Phosphorus (b) Nitrogen
107. Root hairs are the extension of (c) Calcium (d) Sulphur
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
(a) epiblema cells
116. In groundnut, the root is 128. Interveinal necrosis in lemon leaf
(b) cortex cells
(c) pericycle cells (a) nodulated (b) napiform is caused by deficiency of
(c) epiphytic (d) photosynthetic (a) boron (b) molybdenum
(d) xylem tracheids
(c) copper (d) zinc
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 737

129. Absorption of water increased by 138. Cause of turgidity in plant cell is 148. Which of the following statements
which mineral? (a) air (b) water is correct?
(a) Magnesium (b) Zinc (c) hormones (d) All of these (a) Maximum transpiration occurs
(c) Calcium (d) Manganese through cuticle
139. If there is no movement of water
130. A limiting factor unique to a field (b) Transpiration takes place when
into a cell from outside medium,
outer atmosphere has per cent of
planted with corn year after year the medium is known as moisture less than that of stomatal
is most likely (a) hypertonic (b) hypotonic cavity
(a) temperature (b) water (c) isotonic (d) transpiration (c) There is increase in transpiration
(c) sunlight (d) soil nutrient
140. The diffusion through a due to waxy coating on plants
131. Which of the following are semipermeable membrane is parts
carnivorous plants? known as (d) None of the above
1. Waterlilly 2. Pitcher plant (a) osmosis (b) imbibition 149. Why do you feel cool under a tree
3. Sundew 4. Begonia (c) guttation (d) transpiration but not so under a tin shed on a
Codes sunny day?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
141. A membrane which permits
selective movement of molecules (a) The greenness of the tree gives
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 the cool feeling
through it, is called
132. Which one of the following plants (a) permeable membrane (b) Photosynthesis absorbs heat
is preferred for mixed cropping in (b) unit membrane (c) The leaves convert water vapours
order to enhance the (c) semipermeable into water which is a heat
bioavailability of nitrogen? absorbing process
(d) impermeable membrane
(a) Wheat (b) Gram (d) The leaves give out water which
(c) Maize (d) Barley 142. Roots can absorb minerals from vapourises absorbing some heat as
the soil when they are in latent heat
133. Which factors affect the rate of (a) solid state (b) liquid state
diffusion? 150. In dry regions, the leaf size of a
(c) ionic state (d) gaseous state
(a) Permeability of membrane tree becomes smaller. It is so to
(b) Temperature 143. Water absorption can be increased (a) reduce metabolism
(c) Pressure by keeping the plants (b) reduce transpiration
(d) All of the above (a) in the shade (c) maintain natural growth
(b) in dim light (d) protect plant from animals
134. Consider the following statements
(c) under the fan
1. Vapour pressure of a solution (d) covered with polythene bag
151. Tips of leaves in grasses and
is always less than the vapour common garden plants show
pressure of the pure solvent. 144. A cell neither shrinks nor swells water drops in early morning
2. Osmotic pressure of a solution when kept in a fluid, then the hours. This water accumulation is
increases if the number of fluid in the cell in relation to obtained from
solute molecules is increased. ambient fluid is called (a) atmosphere (b) stomata
3. The temperature at which the (a) hypertonic (b) hypotonic (c) vascular bundles (d) hydathodes
liquid and solid states of a (c) isotonic (d) hylaluronic
152. Which of the following plants is
substance have the same vapour 145. Transpiration is very low during not capable of manufacturing its
pressure is the freezing point.
storms due to own food?
4. Osmotic pressure of a solution (a) presence of moisture in wind (a) Algae (b) Mushroom
is inversely proportional to the (b) low temperature during storms (c) Carrot (d) Cabbage
elevation in boiling point. (c) high velocity of winds
Which of the above statement(s) 153. Conditions necessary for
(d) None of the above
is/are correct? photosynthesis is/are
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4 146. Which of the following plants open (a) chlorophyll and water
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 their stomata during night and (b) CO 2
close during day time? (c) light and suitable temperature
135. Osmosis takes place across (a) Fleshy xerophytes (d) All of the above
(a) semipermeable membrane (b) Hydrophytes
(b) impermeable membrane 154. Absorption of light in
(c) Night jasmine photosynthesis is done by
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(d) None of the above (a) water (b) air
147. Consider the statements and (c) chlorophyll (d) carbon dioxide
136. When soil is wet and atmosphere
mark the correct one. 155. Which one of the following gases
is humid plants lose water by
(a) photosynthesis (b) osmosis
There is decrease in the rate of is released from rice fields in the
(c) guttation (d) diffusion transpiration due to most prominent quantities?
(a) the presence of thick cuticle (a) Carbon dioxide
137. Cohesion theory of ascent of sap (b) the presence of sunken stomata (b) Methane
was proposed by (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (c) Carbon monoxide
(a) Dixon (b) Bore (d) None of the above (d) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Pristley (d) Atkins
738 CDS Pathfinder

156. Which pigment plays a major role 163. Which one of the following is not 171. Seedless berry is produced in
in seed germination? correctly matched? which of the following plant?
(a) Chloroplast (b) Chlorophyll (a) Adenine derivative – Kinetin (a) Date palm (b) Papaya
(c) Xanthophyll (d) Phytochrome (b) Carotenoid derivative – ABA (c) Tomato (d) Banana
157. Match the following Columns. (c) Terpenes – IAA 172. Which one among the following
(d) Gas – Ethylene plants cannot be multiplied by
Column I Column II
(Physiological 164. The hormone which suppresses cuttings?
(Cell organelles)
phenomena) the growth of a plant? (a) Rose (b) Bryophyllum
(a) Auxins (b) Cytokinins (c) Banana (d) Marigold
A. Mitochondria 1. Photosynthesis (c) Gibberellins (d) ABA 173. Which of the following is a living
B. Chloroplast 2. Transpiration
165. Consider the following statements fossil?
C. Stomata 3. Respiration with reference to human (a) Blue-green algae (b) Fungus
D. Cell membrane 4. Osmosis nutrition. (c) Green algae (d) Ginkgo
1. Banana is richer source of 174. Which one among the following
Codes carbohydrates than apples.
A B C D A B C D
kinds of organisms resides in the
2. Banana contains some amount
roots of pulses to do nitrogen-
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4 of protein also.
3. Spinach has no protein at all. fixation?
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
4. Potatoes are richer source of (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
158. In which of the following cell protein than peas. (c) Protozoa (d) Virus
organelles do photo and Which of the above statements are 175. Cloves, used as a spice, are
thermochemical reactions occur at correct? derived from which of the
different sites? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 following plant parts?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplasts (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these (a) Seeds (b) Fruits
(c) Ribosomes (d) Lysosomes (c) Flower buds (d) Young leaves
166. Eyes of potato are useful for
159. Which one of the following (a) nutrition 176. Which of the following is not a
statements about photosynthesis (b) respiration seed-borne disease?
is correct? (c) photosynthesis (a) Brown leaf spot of rice
(a) Carbohydrates are the source of (d) vegetative propagation (b) Black arm of cotton
electrons in photosynthesis (c) Red rot of sugarcane
(b) CO 2 is the source of electrons in
167. Belladona plant is the source of
(d) Potato mosaic
photosynthesis alkaloid
(c) Water is the source of electrons in (a) auxin (b) atropine 177. Match the following Columns.
photosynthesis (c) cocaine (d) nicotine Column I Column II
(d) NADH is the source of electron in 168. Stem cuttings are commonly used (Plants) (Edible parts)
photosynthesis for regrowing A. Pea 1. Mesocarp
160. CO 2 and O 2 molecules can move (a) cotton (b) banana B. Date palm 2. Cotyledons
freely across a plasma membrane. (c) mango (d) sugarcane C. Papaya 3. Bracts, perianth and
receptacle
What determines the direction of 169. Vivipary is found in
carbon dioxide and oxygen D. Pineapple 4. Fleshy pericarp
(a) mango (b) Brassica
molecules movement? (c) mangrove plants (d) Cycas Codes
(a) Orientation of cholesterol in the A B C D A B C D
plasma membrane 170. Match the following Columns.
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(b) Concentration gradient across the Column I Column II (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2
membrane (Mode of (Plants)
(c) Configuration of phospholipid in the reproduction) 178. The leaves used as wrappers for
plasma membrane A. Vegetative 1. Rubber, mango bidis are obtained from which one
(d) Location of receptors on the propagation by and guava of the following?
surface of the plasma membrane leaves (a) Shikakai (b) Rudraksha
B. Stem cuttings 2. Bryophyllum and (c) Tendu (d) Lemon grass
161. Which one of the following is Begonia
present in chlorophyll which gives 179. Cutting and peeling of onions
C. Grafting 3. Potato bring tears to the eyes because of
a green colour to plant leaves? D. Vegetative 4. Sugarcane, rose
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium propagation by and Bougainvillea
the presence of
(c) Iron (d) Manganese tubers (a) sulphur in the cell
(b) carbon in the cell
162. Wavelengths of which of the Codes (c) fat in the cell
following colour of the visible A B C D (d) amino acid in the cell
spectrum of light are maximally (a) 2 4 1 3
absorbed by green plants? 180. The antimalarial drug quinine is
(b) 1 4 3 2
(a) Green and yellow (b) Red and blue made from a plant. The plant is
(c) 3 2 4 1
(c) Green and red (d) Blue and yellow (a) neem (b) Eucalyptus
(d) 4 2 1 3 (c) cinnamon (d) cinchona
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 739

181. Which one among the following is Previous Years’ Questions 199. Which milk contains more fat?
a major source of sugar? (a) Cow (b) Buffalo
(a) Watermelon (b) Beetroot
189. The ultimate cause of water (c) Camel (d) Reindeer
(c) Sugarcane (d) Date movement in a plant stem against
gravity is e 2013 (I) 200. Protein-calorie malnutrition
182. Golden fibre refers to (a) osmosis (b) transpiration
causes
(a) hemp (b) cotton (a) malaria (b) hepatitis
(c) photosynthesis (d) diffusion
(c) jute (d) nylon (c) typhoid (d) kwashiorkor
190. Vaseline was applied to both the
183. Match the following Columns. 201. Which of the following does not
surfaces of the leaves of a plant.
belong to vitamin-B group?
Column I Column II Which of the following
(Mineral) (Major sources) (a) Riboflavin (b) Tocopherol
process/processes would be (c) Cyanocobalamin (d) Nicotinic acid
A. Iron 1. Banana, date affected? e 2013 (I)
B. Potassium 2. Palak 1. Photosynthesis 202. Match the following Columns.
C. Iodine 3. Iodised common salt 2. Respiration Column I Column II
D. Calcium 4. Milk, egg (Vitamins) (Chemical names)
3. Transpiration
Codes Select the correct answer using A. Vitamin-A 1. Riboflavin
A B C D A B C D the codes given below: B. Vitamin-B 2 2. Niacin
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 C. Vitamin-B 3 3. Retinol
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these D. Vitamin-C 4. Ascorbic acid
184. Quinine is a drug used in the 191. Which one of the following
Codes
treatment of malaria, from which elements is present in green
A B C D A B C D
part of the plant is it obtained? pigment of leaf? e 2014 (I)
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) Roots (b) Stem (c) Bark (d) Leaves (a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorus
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
(c) Iron (d) Calcium
185. The branches of this tree root
203. Consider the following statements
themselves like new trees over a 192. Which of the following structures
regarding human nutrition.
large area. The roots then give of a plant is responsible for
transpiration? e 2014 (I)
1. Spinach is a good source of
rise to more trunks and branches.
(a) Xylem (b) Root
vitamin-A.
Because of this characteristic and
(c) Stomata (d) Bark 2. Excess vitamin-D in diet
its longevity, this tree is promotes hypercalcemia
considered immortal and is an 193. Which of the following does not 3. One of the causes of pain in
integral part of the myths and possess a specialised conducting the joints is due to vitamin-C
legends of India. Which tree is tissue for transport of water and deficiency.
this? other substances in plants? 4. Diarrhoea is one of the
(a) Banyan e 2014 (I) symptoms of pellagra.
(b) Neem (a) Marchantia (b) Marsilea
(c) Tamarind (Imli) Which of the above statements are
(c) Cycas (d) Fern
(d) Peepal correct?
194. Bagasse, a byproduct of sugar (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
186. Which one of the following is manufacturing industry, is used (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
responsible for the stimulating for the production of e 2014 (II) 204. Bleeding and rupturing of blood
effect of tea? (a) glass (b) paper
(a) Tannin vessels is prevented by
(c) rubber (d) cement
(b) Steroid (a) vitamin-E (b) vitamin-C
(c) Alkaloid 195. Which one among the following is (c) vitamin-K (d) vitamin-B 2
(d) Flavonoid a micronutrient present in soil for 205. Which enzyme is present in bile
various crops? e 2015 (I) juice?
187. The genetically engineered ‘golden (a) Calcium (b) Manganese
rice’ is rich in which of the (a) Bilin (b) Bilirubin
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (c) Biliverdin (d) None of these
following?
(a) Vitamin-A and nicotinic acid 206. Digestive gland of prawn is
(b) β-carotene and folic acid Animal Physiology (a) hepatopancreas
(c) β-carotene and iron 196. Vitamin-B complex represents a
(b) liver
(d) Vitamin-A and niacin (c) thyroid
group of how many vitamins? (d) pancreas
188. The plant dye henna imparts (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 11
orange-red colour to skin and 207. Omasum is absent in
197. The richest source of vitamin-D is
hairs due to its reaction with (a) goat (b) cow
(a) cod liver oil (b) spinach
(c) camel (d) buffalo
which of the following? (c) milk (d) cheese
(a) Proteins and amino acids 208. Coagulation of milk is done by
198. Cow milk is a rich source of
(b) Lipids (a) casein (b) rennin
(a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-B
(c) Carbohydrates (c) pepsin (d) trypsin
(c) vitamin-C (d) fatty acids
(d) Nucleic acids
740 CDS Pathfinder

209. Consider the following substances Which of the above statements(s) 224. Match the following Columns.
1. Ascorbic acid is/are correct? Column I Column II
2. Folic acid (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (Vitamin) (Chemical compound)
3. Nicotinic acid (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
A. Vitamin-A 1. Thiamine
4. Pantothenic acid 217. Match the following Columns. B. Vitamin-B1 2. Retinol
Which of the above are vitamins? C. Vitamin-C 3. Ascorbic acid
Column I Column II
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Sources) (Rich in) D. Vitamin-E 4. Tocopherol
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
A. Fish liver oil 1. Vitamin-C Codes
210. Match the following Columns. B. Egg 2. Vitamin-B complex A B C D A B C D
Column I Column II C. Lettuce 3. Vitamin-D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
D. Cow milk 4. Vitamin-A (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
A. Vitamin-C 1. Night blindness
Codes 225. Which one of the following
B. Vitamin-A 2. Scurvy
A B C D A B C D contains vocal cords?
C. Vitamin-D 3. Ricket (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3 (a) Larynx
D. Vitamin-B12 4. Anaemia (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 (b) Pharynx
5. Destruction of muscles (c) Glottis
218. Match the following Columns.
(d) Primary bronchus
Codes Column I Column II
A B C D A B C D (Sugar) (Source)
226. Which one of the following is
(a) 1 2 5 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
considered as the easily digestible
A. Cellulose 1. Honey
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 5
source of protein?
B. Fructose 2. Sugarcane
(a) Egg albumin (b) Soybean
211. Match the following Columns. C. Maltose 3. Cotton wool
(c) Fish flesh (d) Red meat
D. Sucrose 4. Starch
Column I Column II 227. Wisdom teeth are
Codes (a) incisors (b) canines
A. Enzyme 1. Retinol A B C D A B C D (c) premolars (d) molars
B. Vitamin 2. Keratin (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 228. Chemically silk fibres are
C. Protein 3. Maltase
predominantly
D. Hormone 4. Adrenalins 219. The vitamin(s), which is/are (a) protein
generally excreted in urine, is/are (b) carbohydrate
Codes
(a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-E (c) complex lipid
A B C D A B C D (c) vitamin-C (d) vitamin-D and K (d) mixture of polysaccharide and fat
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 3 1 2 4 220. Match the following Columns. 229. Which one of the following
Column I Column II enzyme is present in saliva?
212. Honey has the largest percentage (a) Pepsin (b) Ptyalin
(Mineral) (Major Source)
of (c) Trypsin (d) Chymotrypsin
(a) water (b) starch A. Iron 1. Banana, date
(c) glucose (d) sucrose B. Potassium 2. Palak 230. Which one of the following is true
C. Iodine 3. Iodised common salt stomach?
213. Which fruit can diabetic patients D. Calcium 4. Milk, egg (a) Ruman (b) Reticulum
eat freely? (c) Omasum (d) Abomasum
(a) Banana (b) Guava Codes
(c) Orange (d) Mango A B C D A B C D 231. Dental formula of human baby is
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (a) 2102/2102 (b) 2103/2103
214. Which of the following vitamins (c) 2100/2100 (d) 2123/2123
and deficiency diseases is not (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
correctly matched? 221. Which among the following oils 232. Acidity in stomach involves
(a) Vitamin-A – Night blindness (a) headache
has the maximum protein content?
(b) Vitamin-B 1 – Pellagra (b) stomach aches
(a) Castor oil (b) Sunflower oil
(c) Vitamin-D – Deformities in bones (c) asthma
(c) Soybean oil (d) Safflower oil
(d) Vitamin-K – Haemorrhage (d) hormonal deficiency
222. Anaemia is a common health
215. The protein content of edible problem especially in women. 233. The cells of pancreas that produce
portion of egg is Which one of the following glucagon are
(a) 15% (b) 13.3% deficiencies is most frequently (a) α-cells
(c) 10.3% (d) 5% (b) γ-cells
responsible for anaemia in India?
(c) Both (a) and (b)
216. Consider the following (a) Calcium (b) Iron
(d) β-cells
statements. Keratin is (c) Iodine (d) Zinc
1. a protein 223. Primary source of vitamin-D for 234. Metabolic rate in mammals is
2. a hormone human beings is controlled by
3. present in hair (a) pancreas (b) liver
(a) citrus fruit (b) green vegetables
4. present in nail (c) pituitary (d) thyroid
(c) yeast (d) sun
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 741

235. Which one among the following 245. Respiratory enzymes in bacteria Select the correct answer using the
will be absorbed fastest through are present in code given below:
the wall of digestive system? (a) mitochondria (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Black coffee as a hot beverage (b) Golgi complex (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(b) DDT taken as a poison (c) plasma membrane 255. Second heart sound is
(c) Raw alcohol taken as a drink (d) endoplasmic reticulum (a) lubb at the end of systole
(d) Ice-cream as a dessert (b) lubb at the beginning of systole
246. Which one of the following
236. When we eat something we like, animals breathe through the (c) dupp at the end of diastole
our mouth waters. This is actually skin? (d) dupp at the beginning of diastole
not water, but fluid secreted from (a) Fish (b) Pigeon 256. Open type circulatory system is
(a) nasal glands (b) oval epithelium (c) Frog (d) Cockroach found in
(c) salivary glands (d) tongue (a) insects (b) leeches
247. Life of RBCs in human blood is of
237. Which among the following is the (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) molluscs (d) All of these
correct increasing order of pH (c) 120 days (d) 15 hours 257. The ECG is employed to detect
found in human body? (a) cholesterol (b) blood pressure
(a) Gastric juice, saliva, blood
248. Element that is not found in
(c) cardiac cycle (d) atherosclerosis
(b) Blood, saliva, gastric juice blood is
(c) Saliva, blood, gastric juice (a) iron (b) magnesium 258. Membrane surrounding the heart
(d) Gastric juice, blood, saliva (c) copper (d) chromium is
(a) peritoneum
238. Consider the following statements 249. The blood pressure is the (b) pleura
1. Iodine is necessary for the pressure of blood in (c) pericardium
(a) arteries (b) veins (d) mucous membrane
thyroid gland to make
(c) auricles (d) ventricles
adrenaline. 259. The blood pressure is measured by
2. Iodine deficiency leads to 250. A reptile with a four-chambered (a) haemoglobinometer
goitre in human beings. heart is (b) stethoscope
3. Iodine is secreted by pancreas (a) crocodile (b) turtle (c) sphygmomanometer
and helps in regulating (c) snake (d) lizard (d) pulse rate
cholesterol level. 251. Blood grouping was discovered by 260. Heart with single circulation is
Which of the statement(s) given (a) William Harvey (b) Landsteiner found in
above is/are correct? (c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur (a) mammals
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (b) reptiles
252. How many molecules of O2 can
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (c) fishes and amphibians
associate with a molecule of
(d) only fishes
239. In human beings, the opening of haemoglobin in man?
the stomach into the small (a) One (b) Two 261. Increase in the number of WBC is
intestine is called (c) Three (d) Four referred as
(a) caecum (b) ileum (a) anaemia (b) polythaemia
(c) oesophagus (d) pylorus 253. Between which one of the
(c) leukopenia (d) leukemia
following sets of blood groups, is
240. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the blood transfusion possible? 262. The lifespan of human WBC is
(a) ants (b) earthworms (a) A and O (A donor) about
(c) tapeworms (d) echinoderms (b) B and A (B donor) (a) less than 10 days
241. Oxygen content in inspired air is (c) A and AB (A donor) (b) 24 hours
(a) 4% (b) 20% (c) 16% (d) 25% (d) AB and O (AB donor) (c) 120 days
(d) 100 hours
242. Which is the main form in which 254. Which of the statements given
CO 2 is transported by blood? below are correct? 263. Pacemaker in heart is
(a) Carbonic acid 1. A person having blood group-A (a) AV node (b) SA node
(b) Oxyhaemoglobin can donate blood to persons (c) Purkinje fibres (d) Bundle of His
(c) Bicarbonates having blood group-A and 264. Vein carrying oxygenated blood is
(d) Carboxyhaemoglobin blood group-AB. called
243. The largest quantity of air that 2. A person having blood (a) pulmonary (b) all capillaries
group-AB can donate blood to (c) aorta (d) None of these
can be expired after a maximal
persons having blood groups-A,
inspiration is 265. Which chamber of human heart
B, AB or O.
(a) residual volume pumps fully oxygenated blood to
(b) tidal volume 3. A person with blood group-O aorta and hence to the body?
(c) lung volume can donate blood to persons (a) Right auricle (b) Left auricle
(d) vital capacity of lungs having any blood group. (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
4. A person with blood group-O
244. Which one of the following helps can receive blood from the 266. The abnormal rise in RBC count is
in air conditioning? person of any of the blood called
(a) Nasal chambers (b) Nostrils groups. (a) lukemia (b) leukopenia
(c) Pharynx (d) Alveoli (c) thrombocytosis (d) polycythmia
742 CDS Pathfinder

267. Consider the following respiratory 276. Ammonia is the chief nitrogenous 287. The junction of two neurons is
pigments. waste in called
1. Haemoglobin (a) mosquitoes (a) synapsis (b) synapticula
2. Haemocyanin (b) tadpole of frog (c) synapse (d) synaptic cleft
3. Haemoerythrin (c) cartilaginous fishes
288. There is different parts of brain in
(d) desert mammals
4. Haemocyanoglobin the figure. The darken portion of
Iron is contained in 277. Sweating during exercise the figure represents
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 indicates operation of which one
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4 of the following processes in the
human body?
268. Match the following Columns. (a) Enthalpy (b) Homeostasis
Column I Column II (c) Phagocytosis (d) Osmoregulation
(Protein) (Type)
278. It has been observed that
A. Haemoglobin 1. Structural proteins astronauts lose substantial
B. Collagen 2. Contractile proteins quantity of calcium through urine
C. Albumin and 3. Transport proteins during space flight. This is due to (a) cerebrum
glutamin (a) hypergravity (b) cerebellum
D. Actin and myosin 4. Storage proteins (b) microgravity (c) cerebral hemisphere
(c) intake of dehydrated food tablet (d) spinal cord
Codes
(d) low temperature in cosmos 289. In human body, what is the
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 279. The fibrous sheath that connects number of cervical vertebrae?
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 2 4 3 the bones is called (a) 5 (b) 7
(a) tendon (b) aponeuroses (c) 8 (d) 12
269. Heart is innervated by (c) periosteum (d) ligament
(a) trigeminal (b) vagus 290. Number of spinal nerves in man is
(c) facial (d) glossopharyngeal 280. The white fibres are chemically (a) 10 pairs (b) 12 pairs
formed of (c) 21 pairs (d) 31 pairs
270. Which of the following parts of (a) collagen (b) elastin
blood carry out the function of 291. Outermost covering of brain of
(c) myosin (d) reticulin man is
body defence?
(a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells 281. The longest bone in human (a) duramater (b) piamater
(c) Platelets (d) Haemoglobins body is (c) arachnoid (d) choroid
(a) femur (b) skull bone 292. Which of the following makes skin
271. What does sphygmomanometer (c) patella (d) fibula
measure? layer impervious to water?
(a) Blood pressure 282. The protein present in bone is (a) Collagen (b) Melanin
(b) Velocity of fluids (a) chondrin (b) ossein (c) Keratin (d) Chitin
(c) Temperature (c) actin (d) myosin 293. Sweat glands occur in maximum
(d) Curvature of spherical surfaces 283. A band of white fibres which joins number in the skin of the
272. White blood cells act muscles to bone (a) forehead (b) armpits
(a) as a defence against infection (a) ligament (b) tendon (c) back (d) palm of hands
(b) as source of energy (c) elastin (d) actin 294. Any chemical which causes loss of
(c) for clotting blood 284. Muscle fatigue is due to the sensation is
(d) as a medium for oxygen transport accumulation of (a) sedative (b) analgesic
from lung to tissues (a) pyruvic acid (b) lactic acid (c) anaesthetic (d) stimulant
273. Which one among the following (c) glycogen (d) succinic acid 295. Human body’s main organ of
animal tissues transport 285. Match the following Columns. balance is located in
hormones and heat and maintains (a) inner part of ear
water balance? Column I Column II
(b) middle part of ear
(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Muscular tissue A. Shoulder and 1. Ball and socket (c) front part of brain
(c) Blood (d) Nervous tissue joints joints
(d) top part of vertebral column
B. Ankle, knee and 2. Hinge joints
274. Which one of the following is elbow 296. Convex lenses are used for the
considered normal blood pressure C. Toe bones 3. Ellipsoid joints correction of
in man? D. Bones in palm 4. Gliding joints (a) artigmatism
(a) 120/80 mm water (b) short-sightedness
(b) 120/80 mm blood Codes (c) cataract
(c) 120/80 mm mercury A B C D A B C D (d) long-sightedness
(d) 120/80 mm air (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3 297. The amount of light entering the
275. The yellow colour of urine is due eye is regulated by
to the presence of 286. Nissl’s granules are found in (a) cornea (b) pupil
(a) bile (b) lymph (a) cartilage cells (b) nerve cells (c) iris (d) sclera
(c) cholesterol (d) urochrome (c) muscle cells (d) bone cells
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 743

298. Dim-vision in the evening and 2. A person with hypermetropia 3. They do not influence the
night results from the deficiency cannot see distant objects working of those organs which
of which one of the following? clearly. have secreted them.
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-E 3. A person with presbyopia can 4. They act as coenzymes and
(c) Vitamin-B12 (d) Vitamin-C see nearby objects without help enzymes to perform their
corrective glasses. function.
299. Human ear ossicles are
(a) incus and stapes Which of the statement(s) given Select the correct answer using
(b) stapes above is/are not correct? the code given below:
(c) incus, malleus and stapes (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) incus and malleus (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

300. In neurons, action potential is 309. SA node of mammalian heart is 315. A deficiency of which one of the
produced due to known as following minerals is most likely
(a) autoregulator (b) pacemaker
(a) Ca 2 + (b) K + (c) Mn + (d) Na + to lead to an immunodeficiency?
(c) time controller (d) beat regulator (a) Calcium (b) Zinc
301. Sensitive pigment layar of eye is (c) Lead (d) Copper
(a) sclerotic (b) retina
310. Match the following Columns.
(c) cornea (d) None of these Column I Column II 316. The gestation period of cows is
(Glands) (Body functions (a) 150 day (b) 280 day
302. The largest cell in the human controlled) (c) 300 day (d) 365 day
body is
(a) nerve cell (b) muscle cell
A. Adrenal 1. Growth of bones 317. Which of the following is an egg
B. Pancreas 2. Level of blood laying mammal?
(c) liver cell (d) kidney cell
calcium (a) Bat (b) Penguin
303. Myopia can be corrected by C. Parathyroid 3. Salt and water (c) Whale (d) Spiny anteater
(a) convex lens balance in the body
(b) concave lens D. Pituitary 4. Level of blood sugar 318. In the human body, Cowper’s
(c) cylindrical lens Codes glands form a part of which one of
(d) cornea replacement A B C D A B C D the following?
(a) Digestive system
304. Cones are with a pigment (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(b) Endocrine system
(a) iodopsin (b) rhodopsin (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
(c) Reproductive system
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
311. Which of the following endocrine (d) Nervous system
305. Rods and cones are present in glands is shown in the below
(a) iris (b) cornea
319. Artificial insemination involves
figure.
(c) sclerotic (d) retina the use of
(a) natural semen and natural diluent
306. Match the following Columns. (b) natural semen and artificial diluent
Column I Column II (c) artificial semen and natural diluent
(d) artificial semen and artificial diluent
A. Rods 1. Nervous coat of eye
B. Cones 2. Photoreceptor cells 320. Mother’s milk is preferred to cow’s
C. Pupil 3. Regulate amount of light milk because it contains
entering the eye (a) more fats and more lipids
D. Retina 4. Iodopsin pigment (a) Pituitary gland (b) Thymus gland (b) less fats and less lipids
Codes (c) Adrenal gland (d) Pineal body (c) less fats and more lipids
A B C D A B C D (d) more fats and less lipids
312. Progesterone and relaxin are
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 secreted by 321. Implantation of blastocyst occurs
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 3 1 (a) testes (b) pituitary on
(c) thyroid (d) ovary (a) 5th day (b) 4th day
307. Due to contraction of eyeball, a
(c) 6th day (d) 7th day
long-sighted eye can see only 313. Spermatogenesis in mammalian
(a) farther objects which is corrected testes is controlled by 322. The release of seminal fluid in the
by using convex lens (a) FSH (b) LH vagina of female is called
(b) farther objects which is corrected (c) progesterone (d) ICSH (a) ejaculation (b) insemination
by using concave lens (c) coitious (d) implantation
314. Which of the following statements
(c) nearer objects which is corrected 323. The ovum released from the ovary
correctly describe the properties of
by using convex lens
hormones? is received by
(d) nearer objects which is corrected (a) uterus (b) vagina
by using concave lens 1. They are steroids, proteins,
peptides or amino acids (c) urethra (d) ostium
308. Consider the following statements. derivatives. 324. Sperm entry in the ovum is
1. A person with myopia can see 2. They are not produced by body
distant objects distinctly but
assisted by
organs and are mostly taken (a) hyaluronidase (b) hyaluronic acid
cannot see nearby objects as supplements.
clearly. (c) fertilisin (d) antifertilisin
744 CDS Pathfinder

325. The cavity present in the 333. Which one among the following 340. Match the following Columns.
Graafian follicle is gases readily combines with the e 2014 (I)
(a) amniotic cavity (b) archenteron haemoglobin of the blood? Column I Column II
(c) antrum (d) ostium e 2013 (I) (Gland) (Hormone)
326. Testosterone is secreted by (a) Methane A. Pancreas 1. Cortisol
(a) Leydig’s cells (b) Sertoli cells (b) Nitrogen dioxide
B. Pituitary 2. Vitamin-D
(c) corpus luteum (d) oxyntic cells (c) Carbon monoxide
C. Adrenal 3. Thyroid stimulating
(d) Sulphur dioxide hormone
327. Why are pregnant women
recommended substantial intake 334. What would happen if human D. Kidneys 4. Glucagon
of green leafy vegetables in their blood becomes acidic (low pH)?
Codes
diet, especially in the 1st e 2013 (II)
A B C D A B C D
trimester? (a) Oxygen carrying capacity of
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
(a) They are a rich source of haemoglobin is increased
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
chlorophyll
(b) They are a rich source of lecithin haemoglobin is decreased 341. Deficiency of which of the following
(c) They are a rich source of folic acid (c) RBC count increases elements is responsible for
which is required for DNA synthesis (d) RBC count decreases weakening of bones?
(d) They are a rich source of essential e 2014 (I)
335. The gastrointestinal hormones
fatty acids required for cell
namely secretin and 1. Calcium 2. Phosphorus
anabolism
cholecystokinin secreted by 3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon
Previous Years’ Questions duodenal epithelium activate Select the correct answer using the
respectively which organs to codes given below:
328. Which one among the following discharge their secretions? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
statements is correct? e 2013 (I) e 2013 (II) (c) Only 1 (d) Only 4
(a) All proteins are enzymes (a) Pancreas and gall bladder 342. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) All enzymes are proteins (b) Gall bladder and stomach
is/are correct?
(c) None of the enzymes is protein (c) Pancreas and stomach
(d) None of the proteins is enzyme 1. Amnion contains fluid.
(d) Stomach and small intestine
2. Ultrasound scan can detect the
329. Which one among the following 336. Human blood is a viscous fluid. sex of an embryo. e 2014 (I)
statements about blood This viscosity is due to Select the correct answer using the
transfusion is correct? e 2013 (I) e 2013 (II) codes given below:
Blood group B can give blood to (a) proteins in blood (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) blood group B and receive from (b) platelets in plasma (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
group AB (c) sodium in serum
(b) blood groups B and AB and (d) RBC and WBC in blood
343. Which of the following statement(s)
receive from group B and O is/are correct regarding fats?
337. In humans, which one among e 2014 (I)
(c) blood groups B and AB and
receive from group A and O
the following with reference to 1. Fats are needed for the
(d) blood group O and receive from
breathing is correct? e 2013 (II) formation of cell membrane.
group B (a) During inhalation, diaphragm 2. Fats help the body to absorb
relaxes calcium from food.
330. Which one among the following (b) During exhalation, thorax cavity
vitamins is necessary for blood 3. Fats are required to repair
expands
clotting? e 2013 (I), 16 (I)
damaged tissue.
(c) During inhalation, intra-pleural
4. Body cannot release energy in
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-D pressure becomes more negative
fats as quickly as the energy in
(c) Vitamin-K (d) Vitamin-C (d) Unlike inhalation, normal
carbohydrates.
exhalation is an active process
331. The pH of human blood is Select the correct answer using the
normally around 338. Blood does not coagulate inside codes given below:
e 2013(I), 16 (I) the body due to the presence of (a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 1
(a) 4.5-5.5 (b) 5.5-6.5 e 2013 (II) (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.5-9.0 (a) haemoglobin (b) heparin
(c) fibrin (d) plasma 344. Which of the following statements
332. The crew and passengers of a are correct?
flying aircraft suffer generally 339. A person feeds on rice and 1. Coronary artery supplies blood to
from chronic obstructive vegetable made up of potato heart muscles.
pulmonary disease due to the only. He is likely to suffer from 2. Pulmonary vein supplies blood to
effect of e 2013 (II) deficiency of e 2013 (II) lungs.
(a) solar radiation (a) carbohydrate and vitamins 3. Hepatic artery supplies blood to
(b) ozone concentration (b) proteins kidneys.
(c) nitrogen oxide (c) carbohydrate and proteins 4. Renal vein supplies blood to
(d) particulate pollutant (d) proteins and fats kidneys.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 745

Select the correct answer using 352. Cobalt is associated with Human Health
the codes given below: e 2014 (II) e 2015 (II) and Diseases
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (a) growth hormone
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) vitamin-B12 360. DPT is a vaccine for
(c) haemoglobin (a) diarrhoea, polio and typhoid
345. Which one among the following is (d) intestinal enzymes (b) diphtheria, whooping cough and
the correct pathway for the tetanus
elimination of urine? e 2014 (II) 353. Glucose is a source of energy.
(c) diarrhoea, polio and tetanus
(a) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra Which one of the following types
(d) diphtheria, whooping cough and
(b) Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureters of molecule is glucose? e 2016 (I) typhoid
(c) Urethra, ureters, bladder, kidneys (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
(d) Bladder, ureters, kidneys, urethra (c) Fat (d) Nucleic acid 361. Which of the following cannot be
controlled by vaccination?
346. Assertion (A) During indigestion, 354. Which one of the following (a) Smallpox (b) Diabetes
milk of magnesia is taken to get vitamins has a role in blood (c) Polio (d) Whooping cough
rid of the stomach pain. clotting? e 2016 (I)
362. Which disease cannot be
Reason (R) Milk of magnesia is a (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B
prevented by immunisation?
base and it neutralises the excess (c) Vitamin-D (d) Vitamin-K
(a) Polio (b) Diphtheria
acid in the stomach. e 2014 (II) 355. Which one of the following (c) Angina (d) Tuberculosis
Codes hormones contains peptide chain? 363. Cholera Bacillus was discovered
(a) Both A and R are true and R is e 2016 (I)
the correct explanation of A by
(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotrophic (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Ronald Ross
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is
(c) Insulin (d) Cortisone (c) Robert Koch (d) Joseph Lister
not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false 356. In Artificial Insemination (AI) 364. Match the following Columns.
(d) A is false, but R is true process, which of the following
Column I Column II
347. In human digestive system, the is/are introduced into the uterus
A. Ascariasis 1. Bacteria
process of digestion starts in of the female? e 2016 (I)
B. Giardiasis 2. Nematode
e 2015 (I) (a) Only egg
C. Hepatitis 3. Protozoan
(b) Fertilised egg
(a) oesophagus (b) buccal cavity D. Tetanus 4. Virus
(c) Only sperms
(c) duodenum (d) stomach
(d) Egg and sperm Codes
348. Which one among the following A B C D A B C D
357. Plants contain a variety of sterols
structures or cells is not present (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
in connective tissues? e 2015 (I) like stigmasterol, ergosterol,
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
sitosterol, etc. which very closely
(a) Chondrocytes (b) Axon 365. A pregnant woman is advised to
(c) Collagen fibre (d) Lymphocytes resemble cholesterol. These plant
sterols are referred as e 2016 (I) undergo abortion if she contracts
349. Which one among the following a disease called
(a) phytosterols (b) calciferols
statements is not true for (c) ergocalciferols (d) lumisterols (a) measles (b) smallpox
mammals? e 2015 (I) (c) chickenpox (d) German measles
(a) They possess hairs on the body 358. Which of the following pairs of
366. Which of the following diseases
(b) Some of them lay eggs vitamin and disease is/are
was prevalent among red Indians?
(c) Their heart is three-chambered correctly matched? e 2016 (I)
(a) Fibrosis (b) AIDS
(d) Some are aquatic 1. Vitamin-A – Rickets (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea
350. Neutrophils and lymphocytes 2. Vitamin-B1 – Beri-beri
367. Fever causing substance is called
originate from e 2015 (II) 3. Vitamin-C – Scurvy
(a) pathogen (b) pyrogen
(a) kidney tubule Select the correct answer using (c) interferon (d) antigen
(b) spleen the codes given below:
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 368. Match the following Columns.
(c) bone marrow
(d) lymph node (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Column I Column II
359. Which one of the following is (Diseases) (Causative agents)
351. Absorption of water in the human
body can be found in e 2015 (II) considered as ‘good cholesterol’ A. Syphilis 1. Vibrio
1. renal tubule in kidney. with reference to individuals B. Sore throat 2. Bacilli
2. hepatic cells in liver. facing the risk of cardio-vascular C. Cholera 3. Spirilla
3. large intestine. diseases and hypertension? D. TB (Tuberculosis) 4. Cocci
4. pancreatic duct. e 2016 (I)
Codes
Select the correct answer using (a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
the codes given below: A B C D A B C D
(b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) Triglyceride
(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
(d) Fatty acids
746 CDS Pathfinder

369. Match the following Columns. 375. Insects that can transmit diseases 385. Minamata disease is caused by
Column I Column II
to human are referred to as (a) automobile exhausts containing
(Scientist) (Work) (a) carriers (b) reservoirs lead
(c) vectors (d) incubators (b) air with sulphur
A. FG Banting 1. Vaccination for
smallpox 376. For which one among the (c) industrial wastes having mercury
compounds
B. J Lister 2. Germ theory following diseases no vaccine is
C. Louis Pasteur 3. Use of carbolic acid (d) water from tanneries
yet available?
as an antiseptic (a) Tetanus (b) Malaria 386. Which of the following is a water
D. E Jenner 4. Discovery of insulin (c) Measles (d) Mumps borne disease?
Codes (a) Tuberculosis (b) Cholera
377. Match the following Columns.
A B C D A B C D (c) Influenza (d) Malaria
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3 Column I Column II
(Agent of (Disease
387. BCG is used against
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 (a) tuberculosis (b) typhoid
transmission) transmitted)
370. Which of the following diseases (c) hydrophobia (d) measles
A. Anopheles 1. Kala-azar
are preventable by vaccine? mosquito 388. A girl ate sweets contaminated
1. Tetanus 2. Polio B. Culex mosquito 2. Dengue with flies, due to this she suffered
3. Leprosy 4. Pertussis C. Aedes 3. Malaria from a disease diagnosed as
Select the correct answer using D. Sandfly 4. Filaria (a) kwashiorkor (b) tuberculosis
the codes given below: Codes (c) diphtheria (d) cholera
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 389. Which of the following statements
A B C D A B C D
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 is true with respect to leukemia?
371. Which one of the following causes (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 4 2 1 (a) Number of RBCs increases in
the chikungunya disease? blood
(a) Bacteria (b) Helminthic worm
378. Which of the following diseases is
(b) Number of WBCs increases in
(c) Protozoan (d) Virus caused due to allergic reaction? blood
(a) Leprosy (b) Typhoid
372. Match the following Columns. (c) Number of both RBCs and WBCs
(c) Asthma (d) Tetanus
decreases
Column I Column II 379. Amnesia is related to (d) Deficiency of minerals
(Vaccines) (Diseases) (a) sleeping sickness
390. Myocardial infarction is a serious
A. BCG vaccine 1. Malaria (b) loss of sight
B. BPL vaccine 2. Sore throat (c) loss of hearing disease of
(d) loss of memory (a) heart (b) brain
C. Chloroquine 3. Tuberculosis
(c) lungs (d) kidneys
D. Penicillin 4. Rabies
380. Protein-calorie malnutrition
causes 391. Cancer located in connective
Codes
(a) malaria (b) hepatitis tissues is called
A B C D A B C D (a) carcinoma (b) sarcoma
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) typhoid (d) kwashiorkor
(c) leukaemia (d) metastasis
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2 381. Which of the following is not a
mosquito borne disease? 392. Which of the following diseases
373. Match the following Columns. are transmitted from one person
(a) Dengue fever
Column I Column II (b) Malaria to another?
(Diseases) (Causative agent) (c) Sleeping sickness 1. AIDS 2. Cirrhosis
A. Typhoid 1. Bacteria (d) Filariasis 3. Hepatitis-B 4. Syphilis
B. Malaria 2. Virus
382. Which of the following is the Select the correct answer using
C. AIDS 3. Worms the codes given below:
science dealing with tumour?
D. Ringworm 4. Protozoa (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Carcinology (b) Serology
5. Fungi (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) Oncology (d) Chronology
Codes 393. Mosquito can be a vector for
383. The persons working in textile
A B C D A B C D factories such as carpet weavers following diseases except
(a) 2 3 5 1 (b) 1 4 2 5 (a) yellow fever (b) dengue fever
are exposed to which of the
(c) 3 1 2 5 (d) 1 2 3 4 (c) filaria (d) kala-azar
following occupational diseases?
374. To suspect HIV/AIDS in a young (a) Asbestosis 394. Which one among the following
individual, which one among the (b) Asthma and tuberculosis elements/ions is essential in small
following symptoms is mostly (c) Silicosis quantities for development of
considered? (d) Siderosis healthy teeth but causes mottling
(a) Long standing jaundice and chronic 384. HIV mainly infects of the teeth if consumed in higher
liver disease (a) α-globulin quantities?
(b) Severe anaemia (b) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (a) Iron (b) Chloride
(c) Chronic diarrhoea (c) helper lymphocytes (c) Fluoride (d) Potassium
(d) Severe persistent headache (d) killer lymphocytes
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 747

Previous Years’ Questions 402. Most antibiotics target bacterial Which of the microorganism(s)
parasites interfering with various given above is/are free-living
395. Cancer is more common in older
people because e 2013
factors of growth or metabolism nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
such as e 2016 (I) (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) their immune systems have (c) Only 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
degenerated 1. synthesis of cell wall.
(b) the supply of certain hormones 2. bacterial protein synthesis. 408. Consider the following plants.
declines with age 3. synthesis of nuclear membrane. 1. Lentil 2. Cow pea
(c) their bodies are unable to adjust to 4. mitochondria function. 3. Sunnhemp 4. Wheat
the changing environment Select the correct answer using Which of the plants given above
(d) they have accumulated more the codes given below: is/are used as ‘Green manure in
mutations (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 India’?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
396. Consider the following statements (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
regarding antibiotics. e 2013 (I) 403. Dengue virus is known to cause (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
1. They are used to destroy low platelet count in blood of 409. What are the components of the
disease-causing bacteria. patient by e 2016 (I) fungicide ‘Bordeaux mixture’?
2. They can be applied to the 1. interfering in the process of (a) Magnesium sulphate and sodium
skin, swallowed or injected to platelet production in bone hydroxide
fight microorganisms inside the marrow. (b) Copper sulphate and magnesium
body. 2. infecting endothelial cells. hydroxide
3. They are effective against 3. binding with platelets. (c) Copper sulphate and calcium
disease-causing viruses. 4. accumulating platelets in hydroxide
intestine. (d) Copper sulphate and sodium
4. The first antibiotic to be
Select the correct answer using hydroxide
discovered was tetracycline.
the codes given below: 410. In the rice field, which of the
Which of the statement(s) given (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
above is/are correct? following is used as biofertiliser?
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Rhizobium (b) Pseudomonas
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 1 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Nitrobacter (d) Azolla
Applied Biology
397. Which one of the following 411. From which plant listed below
diseases in humans can spread 404. If excess fertiliser is applied to a maximum amount of ethanol for
through air? e 2015 (I) plant without water, the plant biofuel is obtained?
will (a) Wood (b) Tapioca
(a) Dengue (b) Tuberculosis
(a) be stunted in growth (c) Maize (d) Sugarcane
(c) HIV-AIDS (d) Goitre
(b) develop modifications 412. Plants die when over fertilised,
398. The word ‘vaccination’ has been (c) die due to plasmolysis because the fertiliser
derived from a Latin word which (d) remain unaffected (a) damage the wall of delicate root
relates to e 2015 (I)
hairs
405. The free-living aerobic soil
(a) pig (b) horse (b) blocks absorption of nitrogenous
(c) cow (d) dog bacterium which fixes nitrogen
(a) Azotobacter (b) Nostoc ions
399. Measles is a disease caused by (c) Clostridium (d) Frankia (c) causes dehydration of plant by
e 2016 exosmosis
406. Match the following Columns. (d) increases the soil acidity
(a) bacteria (b) virus
(c) protozoan (d) worm Column I Column II 413. Which one among the following
400. The mandate of the scheme A. Sugarcane 1. Quinine group of items contains only
entitled ‘Directly Observed B. Cinchona 2. Molasses biodegradable items?
C. Hevea 3. Iodine (a) Wood, grass, plastic
Treatment, Short-Course (DOTS)’
D. Sea kelp 4. Rubber
(b) Wood, grass, leather
launched by WHO is to ensure (c) Fruit peels, lime juice, China clay cup
that Codes (d) Lime juice, grass, polystyrene cup
(a) doctors treat patients with medicine
A B C D A B C D 414. Endosulfan, which has been in
for a short duration
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 news these days, is a/an
(b) doctors do not start treatment
without a trial (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 3 4 1 (a) pesticide (b) fertiliser
(c) patients complete their course of 407. Consider the following (c) sulpha drug (d) antibiotic
drug microorganisms. 415. Which one among the following
(d) patients voluntarily take vaccines 1. Azotobacter industries produces the most
401. Penicillin inhibits synthesis of 2. Clostridium non-biodegradable wastes?
bacterial e 2016 (I) 3. Bacillus polymyxa (a) Thermal power plants
(a) cell wall (b) protein 4. VAM (Vascular Arbuscular (b) Food processing units
(c) RNA (d) DNA Mycorrhiza) (c) Textile mills
(d) Paper mills
748 CDS Pathfinder

416. Which among the following 423. Restriction enzymes are those (a) Vitamin-A and nicotinic acid
statements about biofertilisers are enzymes that can (b) β-carotene and folic acid
correct? (a) cut RNA (c) β-carotene and iron
1. Azotobacter is one of the (b) cut single-stranded DNA (d) Vitamin-A and niacin
nitrogen-fixing bacteria used as (c) cut double-stranded DNA 431. Consider the following statements
a biofertiliser. (d) hydrolyse proteins
1. Dolly, the cloned sheep.
2. They have to be applied to the 424. Which one among the following is 2. George and Charlie, the cloned
leaves of the plant only.
the ‘chemical knives (scissors)’ calves.
3. They alter the chemical
used in genetic engineering? 3. Headless frog.
composition of the soil.
(a) Polymerase (b) Ligases Which of the statement(s) given
4. They can be used along with
(c) Endonucleases (d) Plasmid above is/are incorrect?
organic fertilisers.
Select the correct answer using 425. Match the following Columns. (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
the codes given below. Column I Column II
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (Techniques) (Compounds) 432. Match the following Columns.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these A. Northern blotting 1. RNAs Column I Column II
417. Which one of the following is not B. Southern blotting 2. Proteins
A. Maize 1. Arjun
biodegradable? C. Western blotting 3. Lipids
B. Paddy 2. Jaya
(a) Woollen mat (b) Silver foil D. Far-Eastern blotting 4. DNAs
C. Wheat 3. Ranjit
(c) Leather bag (d) Jute basket
Codes
Codes
418. Which one of the following plants A B C D A B C D
A B C A B C
is used for green manuring in (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
India? (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3
(a) Wheat (b) Sunnhemp (c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
(c) Cotton (d) Rice 426. Match the following Columns. 433. Which one of the following is
419. Which among the following are Column I Column II responsible for converting milk
the most important raw materials (Scientists) (Discoveries) into curd?
for manufacturing of soap? A. Banting and Best 1. Hybridoma (a) Fungi (b) Bacteria
(a) Fats and caustic alkali technology (c) Virus (d) None of these
(b) Fats and potash B. Milstein Kohler 2. Isolation of 434. Which of the following is used in
(c) Fats and acid insulin
the production of yoghurt?
(d) Vegetable oil and potash C. Steward Miller 3. In vitro
fertilisation (a) Streptococcus thermophilous
420. Consider the following statements (b) Lactobacillus bulgaris
D. PC Steptoe 4. Coconut milk in
about Vechur cattle breed. tissue culture (c) Streptococcus lactis
1. Vechur is the world’s smallest (d) Both (a) and (b)
cow. Codes
435. A milkman puts banana leaf in
2. It is indigenous breed found in A B C D A B C D
milk jar, because banana leaf
Kerala. (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) gives a fresh flavour to milk
3. Its milk protein has medicinal (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
(b) makes the milk acidic and resistant
value. 427. By using which one of the to yeast
4. Commonly used in farming. following techniques, is DNA (c) makes the milk basic and resistant
Which of the statements given fingerprinting done? to yeast
above are correct? (a) ELISA (b) RIA (d) increases the whiteness of milk
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Northern blotting (d) Southern blotting 436. Match the following Columns.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
428. Which of the following techniques
421. Cattle are capable of digesting Column I Column II
can be used to establish the
cellulose present in the grass paternity of a child? A. Wine 1. Barley
and/or fodder that they eat. This (a) Protein analysis B. Beer 2. Sugarcane juice
ability is attributed to the (b) Chromosome counting C. Whisky 3. Grapes
(a) presence of cellulose degrading (c) Quantitative analysis of DNA D. Rum 4. Molasses
bacteria in the rumen (d) DNA fingerprinting
Codes
(b) production of cellulose by the
429. Which among the following is the A B C D A B C D
cattle rumen
(c) acids present in the rumen
first hormone produced by genetic (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(d) prolonged retention of cellulose in
engineering? (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
the rumen (a) Insulin (b) Corticol
(c) Thyroxine (d) Testosterone 437. Which one of the following is not a
422. ELISA test is prescribed for constituent of biogas?
(a) cancer (b) typhoid 430. The genetically engineered (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) polio (d) AIDS ‘Golden rice’ is rich in which of (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide
the following?
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 749

438. Which of the following gases is 2. Plantation makes the soil more 447. Who among the following is
released from rice fields in the fertile. considered as the ‘father of
most prominent quantities? 3. Wood from Eucalyptus tree is genetic engineering’? e 2016 (I)
(a) Carbon dioxide easily converted into pulp for (a) Philip Drinker
(b) Methane paper industry. (b) Paul Berg
(c) Carbon monoxide Select the correct answer using (c) Thomas Addison
(d) Sulphur dioxide the codes given below: (d) Alpheus S Packard Jr
439. Consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 448. Genetic screening is e 2016 (I)
about bioremediation. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) analysis of DNA to check the
1. It may be defined as any presence of a particular gene in a
process that uses Previous Years’ Questions person
(b) analysis of gene in a population
microorganisms or their 442. The macronutrients provided by (c) pedigree analysis
enzymes to return the
inorganic fertilisers are (d) screening of infertility in parents
environment altered by
e 2012 (II)
contaminants to its original 449. Genetically Modified (GM) crops
condition. (a) carbon, iron and boron contain modified genetic material
2. Bioremediation may be (b) magnesium, manganese and due to the e 2016 (I)
employed in order to attack sulphur
1. introduction of new DNA.
specific contaminants, such as (c) magnesium, zinc and iron
2. removal of existing DNA.
chlorinated pesticides that are (d) Nitrogen phosphorus and
3. introduction of RNA.
degraded by bacteria. potassium
4. introduction of new traits.
Which of the statement(s) given 443. Which one among the following Select the correct answer using
above is/are correct? groups of items contains only the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 biodegradable items? e 2013 (II) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Paper, grass, glass (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
440. Match the following Columns. (b) Wood, flower, iron-scrap 450. Methyl isocyanate gas, which was
(c) Sewage, plastic, leather involved in the disaster in Bhopal
Column I Column II
(d) Cowdung, paddy-husk, vegetable in December, 1984, was used in
(Microorganisms) (Uses)
wastes the Union Carbide factory for
A. Aeromonas 1. Cloning vector production of e 2016 (I)
hydrophila 444. The main constituent of gobar gas
(a) dyes (b) detergens
B. Methanobacteria 2. Microbial fuel or biogas is e 2014 (I)
cells (c) explosives (d) pesticides
(a) ethane (b) methane
C. Agrobacterium 3. Yogurt (c) propane (d) acetylene 451. The germplasm is required for the
tumefaciens preparation propagation of plants and
D. Lactobacillus 4. Biogas synthesis 445. Which one of the following types animals. Germplasm is the
bulgaricus of pesticides is convenient to e 2016 (I)
control stored grain pests? 1. genetic resources.
Codes
(a) Systemic pesticides e 2014 (II)
A B C D A B C D (b) Fumigants 2. seeds or tissues for breeding.
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) Contact poisons 3. egg and sperm repository.
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 (d) Stomach poisons 4. a germ cell’s determining zone.
441. Which among the following are 446. Which one among the following Select the correct answer using
the major reasons behind cattle breed produces highest the codes given below.
preferring Eucalyptus tree in the amount of milk? e 2014 (II) (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
planned forestation process? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) Brown swiss (b) Holstein
1. Plantation grows very fast. (c) Dutch belted (d) Blaarkop
750 CDS Pathfinder

ANSWERS
1 a 2 c 3 b 4 c 5 b 6 c 7 c 8 d 9 a 10 b
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 b 16 c 17 a 18 b 19 b 20 c
21 b 22 d 23 c 24 c 25 c 26 b 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 b
31 c 32 c 33 c 34 b 35 b 36 b 37 c 38 a 39 b 40 d
41 c 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 a 46 b 47 c 48 d 49 a 50 a
51 a 52 d 53 c 54 a 55 d 56 a 57 c 58 c 59 c 60 a
61 c 62 c 63 d 64 a 65 d 66 a 67 c 68 d 69 a 70 c
71 b 72 c 73 c 74 a 75 c 76 a 77 c 78 b 79 b 80 a
81 b 82 c 83 c 84 d 85 c 86 d 87 b 88 b 89 a 90 a
91 d 92 d 93 b 94 b 95 b 96 c 97 d 98 c 99 a 100 d
101 d 102 b 103 a 104 a 105 a 106 d 107 a 108 d 109 a 110 c
111 b 112 b 113 a 114 b 115 c 116 a 117 b 118 b 119 c 120 a
121 c 122 d 123 d 124 c 125 a 126 a 127 b 128 c 129 d 130 d
131 c 132 b 133 d 134 d 135 a 136 c 137 a 138 b 139 c 140 a
141 c 142 c 143 c 144 c 145 c 146 a 147 c 148 b 149 d 150 b
151 d 152 b 153 d 154 c 155 b 156 d 157 b 158 b 159 c 160 b
161 b 162 b 163 c 164 d 165 a 166 d 167 b 168 d 169 c 170 a
171 d 172 c 173 d 174 a 175 c 176 d 177 b 178 c 179 d 180 d
181 c 182 c 183 a 184 c 185 a 186 c 187 c 188 a 189 b 190 d
191 a 192 c 193 a 194 b 195 b 196 c 197 a 198 a 199 a 200 d
201 b 202 c 203 a 204 c 205 d 206 a 207 c 208 b 209 b 210 c
211 d 212 c 213 b 214 b 215 b 216 d 217 c 218 a 219 c 220 a
221 c 222 b 223 d 224 d 225 c 226 a 227 d 228 a 229 b 230 d
231 a 232 b 233 a 234 d 235 c 236 c 237 a 238 a 239 d 240 c
241 b 242 c 243 d 244 a 245 a 246 c 247 c 248 c 249 a 250 a
251 b 252 d 253 c 254 a 255 d 256 d 257 c 258 c 259 c 260 d
261 d 262 a 263 b 264 a 265 d 266 d 267 b 268 c 269 b 270 b
271 a 272 a 273 c 274 c 275 d 276 b 277 b 278 b 279 d 280 a
281 a 282 b 283 b 284 b 285 c 286 b 287 c 288 b 289 b 290 d
291 a 292 c 293 b 294 c 295 a 296 d 297 b 298 a 299 c 300 c
301 b 302 a 303 b 304 a 305 d 306 d 307 b 308 d 309 b 310 c
311 c 312 d 313 a 314 a 315 c 316 b 317 d 318 c 319 c 320 b
321 c 322 b 323 d 324 a 325 c 326 a 327 c 328 b 329 b 330 c
331 c 332 c 333 c 334 b 335 c 336 d 337 c 338 b 339 b 340 a
341 a 342 c 343 a 344 b 345 a 346 a 347 b 348 b 349 c 350 c
351 b 352 b 353 a 354 d 355 c 356 c 357 a 358 b 359 a 360 b
361 b 362 c 363 c 364 a 365 b 366 c 367 b 368 c 369 a 370 c
371 d 372 a 373 b 374 d 375 c 376 b 377 d 378 c 379 d 380 d
381 c 382 c 383 b 384 c 385 c 386 b 387 a 388 d 389 b 390 a
391 b 392 b 393 d 394 c 395 d 396 a 397 b 398 c 399 b 400 c
401 a 402 a 403 d 404 c 405 a 406 a 407 b 408 b 409 c 410 d
411 d 412 c 413 b 414 a 415 a 416 a 417 b 418 b 419 a 420 d
421 a 422 d 423 c 424 c 425 d 426 b 427 d 428 d 429 a 430 c
431 c 432 c 433 b 434 d 435 c 436 c 437 d 438 b 439 c 440 a
441 a 442 d 443 d 444 b 445 b 446 b 447 b 448 a 449 d 450 d
451 b