Selfstudys Com File (7)
Selfstudys Com File (7)
àíZ-nÌ H$moS>
Q.P. Code 30/1/3
amob Z§. narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
Roll No. _wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
NOTE
(I) (I) Please check that this question paper
11 contains 11 printed pages.
J{UV (_mZH$)
MATHEMATICS (STANDARD)
:2 : 40
Time allowed : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 40
.30/1/3 1 P.T.O.
:
:
(i) 14
(ii)
(iii) 6 1 6 2
(iv) 4 7 10 3
(v) 4 11 14 4
(vi)
IÊS> H$
1 6 2
AWdm
(I) {ZåZ {ÛKmV g_rH$aU H$mo, x Ho$ {bE hb H$s{OE : 2
3 x2 + 10x + 7 3 = 0
2. aohmZ H$s 5 df© nyd© Am`w (dfm] _|) VWm A~ go 7 df© CnamÝV CgH$s Am`w H$m JwUZ\$b
CgH$s dV©_mZ Am`w Ho$ Xmo JwZo go EH$ A{YH$ h¡ & CgH$s dV©_mZ Am`w kmV H$s{OE & 2
3. (H$) g§»`m 6 Ho$ Xmo A§H$m| dmbo àW_ 12 JwUOm| H$m `moJ\$b kmV H$s{OE & 2
AWdm
(I) _| `{X a2 = 26 VWm a15 = 26 h¡, Vmo g_m§V {b{IE & 2
.30/1/3 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 14 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into three sections Sections A, B and C.
SECTION A
2.
from now, is one more than twice his present age. Find his present age. 2
3. (a) Find the sum of the first twelve 2-digit numbers which are
multiples of 6. 2
OR
(b) In an AP, if a2 = 26 and a15 = 26, then write the AP. 2
.30/1/3 3 P.T.O.
4. 10·5 go_r {ÌÁ`m dmbo YmVw Ho$ EH$ R>mog Jmobo H$mo {nKbmH$a, 3·5 go_r {ÌÁ`m Am¡a 3 go_r
D±$MmB© Ho$ Hw$N> N>moQ>o-N>moQ>o e§Hw$ ~ZmE OmVo h¢ & Bg àH$ma ~ZmE JE e§Hw$Am| H$s g§»`m kmV
H$s{OE & 2
10 20 20 30 30 40 40 50 50 60
15 10 12 17 4
IÊS> I
7 10 3
7. (H$) EH$ _rZma Ho$ nmX-q~Xþ go EH$ ^dZ Ho$ {eIa H$m CÞ`Z H$moU 30 h¡ Am¡a ^dZ Ho$
nmX-q~Xþ go _rZma Ho$ {eIa H$m CÞ`Z H$moU 60 h¡ & `{X _rZma 50 _r. D±$Mr h¡,
Vmo ^dZ H$s D±$MmB© kmV H$s{OE & 3
AWdm
(I)
30 Am¡a 45 h¢ & `{X nwb {H$Zmam| go 3 ©
kmV H$s{OE & 3
8. 7 go_r b§~mB© H$m aoImIÊS>> AB It{ME & Bgo 3 : 2 Ho$ AZwnmV _| {d^m{OV H$s{OE & 3
.30/1/3 4
4. A solid metallic sphere of radius 10·5 cm is melted and recast into a
number of smaller cones, each of radius 3·5 cm and height 3 cm. Find the
number of cones so formed. 2
5. Two concentric circles are of radii 4 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the
chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle. 2
Class 10 20 20 30 30 40 40 50 50 60
Frequency 15 10 12 17 4
SECTION B
7. (a) The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the
tower is 30 and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from
the foot of the building is 60 . If the tower is 50 m high, then find
the height of the building. 3
OR
.30/1/3 5 P.T.O.
9. x Ho$ {H$g _mZ Ho$ {bE {ZåZ{b{IV ~ma§~maVm ~§Q>Z H$m _mÜ`H$ 34·5 h¡ ? 3
0 10 3
10 20 5
20 30 11
30 40 10
40 50 x
50 60 3
60 70 2
10. {ZåZ{b{IV gmaUr {H$gr Jm±d Ho$ IoVm| _| hþAm Johÿ± H$m CËnmXZ Xem©Vr h¡ :
(kg/ha) 50 60 60 70 70 80 80 90 90 100
7 12 11 8 2
H$pënV _mÜ` {d{Y H$m à`moJ H$aVo hþE _mÜ` CËnmXZ kmV H$s{OE & 3
IÊS> J
11 14 4
11. AmH¥${V 1 _|, {Ì^wO ABC Xem©`m J`m h¡ {Og_| B = 90 h¡ & AB H$mo ì`mg boVo hþE
EH$ d¥Îm ItMm J`m h¡, Omo AC H$mo q~Xþ P na à{VÀN>Xo H$aVm h¡ & {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ q~Xþ P
na ItMr JB© ñne© aoIm BC H$mo g_{Û^m{OV H$aVr h¡ & 4
.30/1/3 6
9. For what value of x, is the median of the following frequency distribution
34·5 ? 3
Class Frequency
0 10 3
10 20 5
20 30 11
30 40 10
40 50 x
50 60 3
60 70 2
10. The following table gives the production yield of wheat of farms of a
village :
Production Yield
50 60 60 70 70 80 80 90 90 100
(in kg/ha)
Number of Farms 7 12 11 8 2
SECTION C
Question numbers 11 to 14 carry 4 marks each.
11. In Figure 1, a triangle ABC with B = 90 is shown. Taking AB as
diameter, a circle has been drawn intersecting AC at point P. Prove that
the tangent drawn at point P bisects BC. 4
Figure 1
.30/1/3 7 P.T.O.
12. (H$) AmH¥${V 2 _|, 7 go_r ^wOm dmbo EH$ R>mog KZ _| go D±$MmB© 7 go_r VWm {ÌÁ`m
2·1 go_r dmbm EH$ ~obZ {ZH$mb {b`m OmVm h¡ & eof R>mog H$m Hw$b n¥ð>r` joÌ \$b
kmV H$s{OE & 4
AWdm
(I) 5 _r. ì`mg H$m EH$ Hw$Am±, 24 _r. JhamB© VH$ ImoXm OmVm h¡ & Bggo {ZH$br hþB©
{_Å>r H$mo Hw$E± Ho$ Mmam| Amoa 3 _r.
go \¡$bmH$a EH$ àH$ma H$m ~m±Y ~Zm`m OmVm h¡ & ~m±Y H$s D±$MmB© kmV H$s{OE & 4
àH$aU AÜ``Z 1
13. J{UV _| g§~§Ym| H$mo H$B© àH$ma go ì`º$ {H$`m Om gH$Vm h¡ & _m{Mg H$s Vr{b`m| go ~ZmE
JE n¡Q>Z© aoIr` g§~§Ym| na AmYm[aV h¢ & AbJ-AbJ AmH¥${V`m| _| à`wº$ _m{Mg H$s
Vr{b`m| H$s g§»`m kmV H$aZo Ho$ {bE {^Þ `w{º$`m± à`wº$ H$s Om gH$Vr h¢ &
EH$ Eogm hr n¡Q>Z© ZrMo Xem©`m J`m h¡ & n¡Q>Z© H$mo Ü H$m
Cn`moJ H$aVo hþE {ZåZ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :
1 2 3
(H$) AmH¥${V`m| _| à`wº$ {Ì^wOm| H$s g§»`m H$mo Xem©Zo dmbr {b{IE &
Bg g_m§Va H$m ndm± nX ^r {b{IE & 2
Figure 2
OR
(b) A well of diameter 5 m is dug 24 m deep. The earth taken out of it
has been spread evenly all around it in the shape of a circular ring
of width 3 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the
embankment. 4
Case Study 1
(a) Write the AP for the number of triangles used in the figures. Also,
write the nth term of this AP. 2
(b) Which figure has 61 matchsticks ? 2
.30/1/3 9 P.T.O.
àH$aU AÜ``Z 2
14. J ga Prb amOñWmZ Ho$ O¡gb_oa {Obo _| pñWV h¡ & BgH$mo O¡gb_oa Ho$ amOm Zo ~Zdm`m
Wm VWm 14 Xþ~mam ~Zdm`m & Bg Prb _| ~hþV-gr N>V[a`m±
~Zr hþB© h¢ & CZ_| go EH$ N>Var H$mo ZrMo Xem©`m J`m h¡ :
{MÌ H$mo Ü`mZnyd©H$ Xo{IE & nmZr H$s gVh go h _r. D±$MmB© na pñWV q~Xþ A go N>Var Ho$
erf© (q~Xþ B) H$m CÞ`Z H$moU 45 h¡ VWm Bgr q~Xþ go nmZr _| N>Var Ho$ à{V{~å~
(q~Xþ C) H$m AdZ_Z H$moU 60 h¡ & nmZr H$s gVh Ho$ D$na N>Var H$s D±$MmB© `{X 10 _r.
hmo, Vmo
(H$) Cn`w©º$ gyMZm Ho$ AmYma na AÀN>r àH$ma go A§{H$V EH$ AmH¥${V It{ME & 2
(I) nmZr H$s gVh go q~Xþ A H$s D±$MmB© (h) kmV H$s{OE &
( 3 = 1·73 H$m à`moJ H$s{OE) 2
.30/1/3 10
Case Study 2
Observe the picture. From a point A h m above from water level, the
angle of elevation of top of Chhatri (point B) is 45 and angle of
depression of its reflection in water (point C) is 60 . If the height of
Chhatri above water level is (approximately) 10 m, then
(b) find the height (h) of the point A above water level.
(Use 3 = 1·73) 2
.30/1/3 11 P.T.O.
Strictly Confidential : (For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination
Term–II, 2022
General Instructions :
1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of the
candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of
the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before
starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instruction provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest
information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness
otherwise and marks be awarded to them. In Class-X, while evaluating two competency based
questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme
but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, marks should be awarded.
4. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the first
day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme.
The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
5. Evaluators will mark () wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer ‘’ be marked. Evaluators will
not put right kind of mark while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct and no
marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
6. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
7. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
10. A full scale of marks _____ (example 0–100 marks as given in Question Paper) has to be used. Please
do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
11. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours, i.e., 8 hours everyday and
evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects
(Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
12. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in the
past :
• Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book
• Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it
• Wrong totalling of marks awarded on a reply
• Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page
• Wrong questionwise totalling on the title page
• Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page
• Wrong grand total
• Marks in words and figures not tallying
• Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list
• Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the for incorrect answer).
• Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
13. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked as
() and awarded zero (0) Mark.
14. Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling error detected by the
candidates shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the
Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions
be followed meticulously and judiciously.
15. The examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the guidelines for spot
evaluation before starting the actual evaluation.
16. Every examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title page,
correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
17. The Board permits candidates to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request in an RTI application
and also separately as a part of the re-evaluation process on payment of the processing charges.
b.
Sol. 3x2 + 10 x + 7 3 = 0
1
𝑜𝑟 √3𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 7𝑥 + 7√3 = 0
or ( 3x + 7) ( x + 3) = 0
7 7 1
⇒ 𝑥=− , −√3 or − 3 √3, −√3
√3
1
Sol. Here a = 12, d = 6, n = 12
12 ½
S12 = [24 + 11 6]
2 ½
= 540
Or
(b)
½
Sol. a + d = 26 ... (i)
4.
1 4 1
Sol. n . .(3.5)2 (3) = (10.5)3
3 3 1
n = 126
5.
C Hence AC = 2 7 cm ½
SECTION—B
7.(a)
Y AB 50
tan 30 = and tan 60 =
AX AX
B
Tower (50 m)
Building 1 50
AB = AX and AX = m ½+½
60° 30° 3 3
A X
1 50 50
AB = = m 1
3 3 3
OR
b.
9.
Sol. ½
Median class is 30–40
Class Frequency c.f.
0–10 3 3
10–20 5 8
20–30 11 19
30–40 10 29
40–50 x 29 + x
50–60 3 32 + x
60–70 2 34 + x
Correct table 1
10 34 + x 1
34·5 = 30 + − 19
10 2
½
x = 13
10.
70–80 75 11 0 0
80–90 85 8 10 80
90–100 95 2 20 40
40 –140
Correct table 2
140
x = 75 − = 71·5 1
40
Mean production yield is 71.5 kg/ha
SECTION—C
11.
Sol.
12.(a)
22
Sol. Total surface area of cube = 6 (7)2 − 2 2·1 2·1
7
= 266·28 cm2 2
22
Curved surface area of cylinder = 2 2·1 7
7
= 92·4 cm2 1
Therefore surface area of remaining solid
= 266·28 + 92·4
= 358·68 cm2 1
Or
(b)
Sol. r = 2·5 m
Sol. (1) B
10 – h
45°
A D
60° x
h h
10 m
Correct Figure 2
C
10 − h
(2) tan 45 = 1 =
x
x = 10 − h ... (i)
10 + h ½
tan 60 = 3 =
x