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in

REVISION TEST SERIES

Test No. : 02 Date : 04/02/2025 Duration : 3 hrs. M.M. : 720 Batch : TT-1-5

TOPICS COVERED
Physics : Magnetic Effects of Current, Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, E.M. Waves
Chemistry : Electrochemistry, p-Block Elements (XII), The d- and f-Block Elements
Botany : Biotechnology
Zoology : Origin of Life and Evolution

PHYSICS
Choose the correct () answer:
1. A conductor is bent in the form of concentric  2  4
semicircles as shown in t he figure. The (3)  9  R (4)  3  R
magnetic field at the point O is    
I 3. Three infinitely long wire 1, 2 and 3 carry equal
I currents in the directions shown in the figure.
I They are placed on the vertices of an equilateral
triangle. Let F be the magnitude of force
I between any two wires.
upto  1
O a 2a 4a 8a

0 I
(1) Zero (2)
6a
2× ×3
0 I 0 I F1 is the magnitude of force on wire 1 and F2
(3) (4)
a 4a the magnitude of force on wire 2. Then
2. An electron having kinetic energy K is moving (1) F1 : F2  1 :1 (2) F1 : F2  1 : 3
in a circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to
a uniform magnetic induction B. If the kinetic (3) F1 : F2  3 :1 (4) F1 : F2  2 :1
energy is doubled and magnetic induction
tripled, the radius will become 4. The electric current in a circuit is given by
I = 3t
3  3
Here, t is in second and I in ampere. The rms
(1)   R (2)  2  R
2   current for the period t = 0 to t = 1 sec is

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(1) 3 A (2) 9A 9. An alternating current of 1.5 mA with angular

frequency 100 rad/s flows through a 10 k
(3) 3A (4) 3 3 A resistor and a 0.50 F capacitor in series. The
5. A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a rms potential drop across the capacitor is
potential difference of 12 V. It is then connected (1) 4.8 V (2) 30 V
across an inductor of inductance 0.6 mH. What
(3) 15 V (4) 190 V
is the current in the circuit at a time when the
potential difference across the capacitor is 10. In a series LCR circuit, voltage applied is
6.0 V?  
V  3 sin  314t   and cur rent from the
(1) 0.6 A (2) 1.2 A  6 
(3) 2.2 A (4) 3.2 A
 
6. When a dc voltage of 200 V is applied to a coil of supply is I  2sin  314t   . Which of the
 3 
2 3
self inductance    H, a current of 1 A flows following is incorrect?
  (1) Impedance of circuit is 1.5
through it. But by replacing dc source with ac
source of 200 V, the current in the coil is 4
reduced to 0.5 A. Then the frequency of ac (2) Reactance of circuit is 
3
supply is
(1) 100 Hz (2) 75 Hz 3 3
(3) Resistance of circuit is 
(3) 60 Hz (4) 50 Hz 4
7. If plane of coil and uniform magnetic field B(8T) 1
is same then torque on the current carrying (4) Wattless component of current is
2
coil is
11. In the circuit shown in figure, if both the bulbs
B1 and B2 are identical then
C = 600F B1
R

L = 12 mH B2
I
60°

2 8 3
(1) I (R 2 )8 (2) I (R )
2
~
(1) Both bulbs have equal brightness
2 8
(3) I R (4) Zero (2) B2 will be brighter than B1
2
(3) As the frequency is increased, brightness of
8. L R B1 will increase and that of B2 will decrease

5 mH 10 (4) As t he frequency is decreased the

brightness of B1 will increase and that of B2
E will decrease
12. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave
10V
y
What is the rate of change of current, at the is E  75 sin   t   . The energy contained
 c
instance the current through R is 0.5 A?
(approximately) in a cylinder of length 1 m and
(1) 103 A/s (2) 105 A/s area of cross-section 1 m2 placed along the x-
(3) 102 A/s (4) 104 A/s axis is
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(1) 25 nanojoule (2) 50 nanojoule (1) 30% (2) 50%

(3) 75 nanojoule (4) Zero (3) 90% (4) 10%
13. Which of the following is mismatched? 17. The diagram shows a capacitor C and a resistor
R connected in series to an AC source. V1 and
(1) Magnetic induction vector  [M A 1T 2 ] V2 are voltmeters and A is an ammeter
(2) Magnetising field intensity  [M 0 A L1 ] V1

(3) Magnetic moment  [M 0 L2 A ]

(4) Ratio of magnetic moment to angular C
momentum  [ AT 2M 1 ] ~ R V2

14. The coercivity of a small magnet where the A

ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 × 10 3
Am–1. The current required to be passed in a Now, consider the following statements
solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns I. Readings in A and V2 are always in phase
100, so that magnet gets demagnetised when
inside the solenoid is II. Reading in V 1 is ahead in phase with
reading in V2
(1) 20 mA (2) 60 mA
III. Readings in A and V1 are always in phase
(3) 3 A (4) 6 A
Which of these statements are/is correct?
15. Two short bar magnets each of magnetic
moment M are placed as shown in figure. The (1) I only
magnetic field at the point P will be (2) II only
(3) I and II only
N
S (4) II and III only
120°
60° 18. An alternating current through a resistor of
P resistance 5 is i  7 sin t  15 cos t . The
S peak value of voltage across the resistor is
N
(1) 40 V (2) 8/2 V
d
(3) 35 V (4) 5 15 V
0 2 2M
(1) towards right 19. The mutual inductance between a primary and
4 d 3
secondary circuits is 0.5 H. The resistances of
the primary and the secondary circuits are 20
0 2 2M ohms and 5 ohms respectively. To generate a
(2) towards left
4 d 3 current of 0.4 A in the secondary, current in the
primary must be changed at the rate of
0 2M (1) 4.0 A/s (2) 16.0 A/s
(3) towards right
4 d 3
(3) 1.6 A/s (4) 8.0 A/s
0 2M 20. The magnetic field B and the magnetic
(4) towards left intensity H in a material are found to be 1.6T
4 d 3
and 1000 Am –1 respectively. Find the
16. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 susceptibility  of the material
V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the mains (1) 1.3 × 103 (2) 2 × 103
cur rent is 0.5 A, the eff iciency of the
transformer is approximately (3) 0.5 × 103 (4) 3 × 103

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21. A resistance R draws power P when connected smaller than P. If the current I1 flowing in loop
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed P is decreasing with time, then the current I2
in series with the resistance, such that the in the loop Q
impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power P
drawn will be I1

2
R  R  Q
(1) P   (2) P  
Z  Z 
(1) Flows in the same direction as that of P
1/2 1/2 (2) Flows in the opposite direction as that of Q
R  Z 
(3) P   (4) P  
Z  R  (3) Is zero
(4) None of these
22. Thr ee same sized magnets of magnetic
moments M, 2M and 3M are placed in such a 26. In the AC network shown in figure, the rms
way that they form an equilateral triangle as current flowing through the inductor and
shown capacitor are 0.6A and 0.8A respectively. Then
the current coming out of the source is
S N (1) 1.0 A
C
(2) 1.4 A
(3) 0.2 A L
(4) None of these ~
N S 27. Two ions having masses in the ratio 1 : 1 and
charges 1 : 2 are projected into uniform
S N magnetic field perpendicular to the field with
The resultant magnetic moment of the system speeds in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radii
is of circular paths along which the two particles
move is
(1) M (2) 2 M (1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 3M (4) 2 M (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
23. What is the mutual inductance of a pair of coils, 28. The magnetic moment produced in a substance
if a current change of 5A in coil causes the flux of 1 gm is 6 × 10 Am2. If the density is 5
–7

change in the second coil of 1000 turns to gm/cm3, then the intensity of magnetisation in
–4
change flux 5 × 10 Weber per turn? A/m will be
(1) 0.1 H (2) 0.4 H (1) 8.3 × 106 (2) 3.0
(3) 0.01 H (4) 0.04 H (3) 1.2 × 10–1 (4) 3 × 10–6
24. In the given branch AB of a circuit a current 29. In a closed loop, which has some inductance but
I = (10t + 5)A is flowing, where t is time in negligible resistance, uniform but time varying
second. At t = 0, the potential difference magnetic field is applied into the plane of the
between points A and B (VA – VB) is loop. Variation of field with time is shown.
Initially, the current in the loop was zero.
L = 1H R = 3 Consider the following statements
B 10V I A
B
(1) 15 V (2) –5 V
(3) –15 V (4) 5 V
25. Two circular loops P and Q are concentric and
coplanar as shown in figure. The loop Q is 0 2 4 t (sec)

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(I) emf induced in the loop is zero at t = 2 sec 33. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected
(II) current in the loop will be maximum at into a region having a perpendicular magnetic
t = 2 sec field B. The charge will come out of the
magnetic field from the other side if
(III)direction of emf in the loop will change at
t = 2 sec × × ×
B
Then
× × ×
(1) only I is correct
q v
(2) I and II are correct × × ×
m
(3) I and III are correct d
(4) I, II and III are correct 2mv mv
30. Figure shows the top view of a rod that can slide (1) d  qB (2) d  qB
without friction. The resistance is 6.0 ohm and
a 2.5 T magnetic field is directed perpendicular 4mv 1.5 mv
downward into the paper . Let l = 1.20 m. (3) d  qB (4) d  qB
A
34. A particle is projected in a plane perpendicular
B to a uniform magnetic field. The area bounded
l R = 6 v by the path described by the part icle is
2.5T
proportional to

B (1) The velocity

What power is required to keep the rod moving (2) The momentum
with velocity v = 2.0 m/s (3) The kinetic energy
(1) 6 W (2) 1 W (4) None of these
(3) 12 W (4) 10 W 35. A uniform magnetic field is established along
31. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and positive z-direction. A rectangular loop of sides
magnetic field amplitudes are 100 Vm–1 and l and b (< l) carrying current I can be placed in
0.265 Am–1. The maximum energy flow is various positions as shown.
(1) 26.5 Wm–2 (2) 2.1 × 107 Wm–2
z z
(3) 46.7 Wm–2 (4) 1.05 × 107 Wm–2
32. A circuit contains resistance R and inductance
B B
L in series. An alternating voltage V = V0sint
is applied across it. The current in R and L y (B) y
respectively will be (A)

R L x x

z z

~ B B
(1) I = I0cost; I = I0cost
(C) y (D) y
(2) I = –I0sint; I = I0cost
(3) I = I0sin (t-), I = I0sin (t-) x x
(4) I = I0cost; I = –I0sint
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In which placement, the loop is in stable 39. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic
equilibrium ? 
field B  (2iˆ  3 ˆj )T . Which of the following
(1) A (2) B statements is incorrect?
(3) C (4) D
(1) If the velocity of the particle is 6kˆ m/s
36. An -particle is moving along a circle of radius particle moves in a circle
R with constant angular velocity . Point A lies
in the same plane at a distance 2R from the (2) If the velocity of the particle is (4iˆ  6 ˆj )
centre. Point A records magnetic field produced
m/s particle moves in a straight line
by -particle. If the minimum time interval
between two successive times at which A (3) If the velocity of the particle is (iˆ  2 ˆj ) m/s
records zero magnetic field is t, then the
particle moves in a helical path
angular speed , in terms of t, is
(4) In case of (2) and (3), the speed of the
2 2 particle does not remain same
(1) (2)
t 3t 40. The average value of saw-tooth voltage
 2t  T
  V  V0 1   . over 0 to ; (T = time period)
(3) (4)  T  2
3t 2t
is given by
37. A square metal wire loop PQRS of side 10 cm and
resistance 1  is moved with a constant velocity V0 2V0
v in a uniform magnetic field of B = 2 Wb m–2, (1) (2)
2 
as shown in the figure. The magnetic field lines
are perpendicular to the plane of the loop V0
(directed into the paper). The loop is connected (3) (4) V0
2
to network ABCD of resistors each of value 3.
The resistance of the lead wire SB and RD are 41. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 2Am2 is free
negligible. The speed of the loop so as to have a to rotate about a vertical axis passing through
steady current of 1 mA in the loop is its centre. If magnet is released from rest in
east west position, then kinetic energy of
B
× × × magnet as it takes north-south position is
P S 3 3 (horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
× × ×
3 is 25 T)
× × × v A C
(1) 125 J (2) 200 J
× × ×
R 3 3 (3) 25 J (4) 50 J
× ×Q ×
D 42. An AC source of angular frequency  is fed
(1) 2 ms –1 –2
(2) 2 × 10 ms –1 across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series.
The current registered is I. If now the frequency
(3) 20 ms–1 (4) 200 ms–1 of source is changed to /3 (but maintaining
38. At a frequency 0 the reactance of a certain the same voltage), the current in that circuit
capacitor equals that of certain inductor. If the is found to be halved. Calculate the ratio of
frequency is changed to 20, what is the ratio reactance to r esistance at the original
of the reactance of the inductor to that of the frequency to
capacitor?
2 3
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 :1 (1) (2)
5 5

(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 2 1 4
(3) (4)
5 3
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43. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of µ0 I

length l = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform (1)
r Y
magnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane
of loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2. Two 2µ0 I
(2)
resistances of 6 and 3 are connected as r P
shown in figure. The external force required to
keep the connector moving with a constant µ0 I r
(3) ( 2  1)
velocity v = 2 m/s is 4r 45°
O X
B µ0 I
(4) ( 2  1)
2r
6 l v 3
45. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B
at the centre of the circle. The radius of the
(1) 6 N (2) 4 N circle is proportional to

(3) 2 N (4) 1 N B v
(1) (2)
44. Current I flows through a long conducting wire v B
bent at right angles as shown in the figure. The
magnetic field at a point P on the right bisector v B
of the angle XOY at a distance r from O is (3) (4)
B v

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following oxides of metal is/are (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
acidic in nature? incorrect
(1) Mn 2O7 (2) CrO3 (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Fe2O3 (4) Both (1) and (2) correct
47. The higher oxidation states of transition (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
elements are found to be in the combination correct
with A and B, which are
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) F, O (2) O, N
incorrect
(3) O, Cl (4) F, Cl
51. Statement-A: The molecular weight of acetic
48. The order of stability of +6 oxidation state for
acid determined by depression in freezing point
group VI follows the order
method in benzene and water is found to be
(1) Cr > Mo > W (2) Cr < Mo < W different.
(3) Mo > Cr > W (4) W < Cr < Mo Statement-B: Water is polar, and benzene is
49. Which of the following transition elements does non-polar.
not exhibit variable oxidation states?
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Mn (2) Ni most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) T i (4) Sc below:
50. Statement-I: All lanthanoids are radioactive. (1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
3+ 2+
Statement-II: E° for Mn /Mn is more positive (2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
than Cr3+/Cr2+.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Both Statement A and B are correct
most appropriate answer from the options given (4) Both Statement A and B are incorrect
below:
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52. Of the following outer electronic configurations 58. In the electrochemical reaction,
of the atoms, the highest oxidation state is 2Fe3+ + Zn Zn2+ + 2Fe2+
exhibited by which one of them?
increasing the concentration of Fe2+
(1) (n – 1) d8ns2 (2) (n – 1) d5ns1
(1) Increases the cell emf
(3) (n – 1) d3ns2 (4) (n – 1) d5ns2
(2) Decreseses the reaction quotient
53. In context with the transition elements, which
of the following statements is incorrect? (3) Decreases the cell emf
(1) In the highest oxidat ion st ates, the (4) No effect of emf
transition metals show basic character and 59. What is the sign of G° and the value of K for
form cationic complexes
an electrochemical cell for which Ecell = 0.80 V?
(2) In the highest oxidation states of the first
five transition elements (Sc to Mn) all the G° K
4s and 3d electrons are used up for bonding (1) – >1
(3) Once the d5 configuration is exceeded, the (2) + >1
tendency to involve all the (n-1)d electrons
in binding decreases (3) + <1

(4) In addition to the normal oxidation states, (4) – <1

the zero oxidation state is also shown by 60. Statements :
these elements in complexes A. Unit of specific conductivity is ohm–1 cm–1.
54. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At. No. B. Specific conductivity of strong electrolytes
64) is decreases on dilution.
(1) 4f7 5d1 6s2 (2) 4f3 5d5 6s2 C. Specific conductivity of weak electrolytes
8
(3) 4f 5d 6s 0 2 4
(4) 4f 5d 6s 4 2 increases on dilution.

55. Common oxidation states shown by Ce are D. The unit of electrochemical equivalent is
g/coulomb.
(1) +2, +4 (2) +3, +4
(1) All are correct
(3) +3, +5 (4) +2, +3
(2) All are wrong
56. The standard reduction potentials at 25°C for (3) Only A, B and D are correct
the following half reactions are given against
each; (4) Only B, C and D are correct
61. The standard electrode potential of Ag+/Ag is
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Zn(s); –0.762
+0.80 V and of Cu2+/Cu is + 0.34 V. These
Cr3+(aq) + 3e– Cr(s); –0.740 electrodes are connected through a salt bridge.
The correct statement is
2H+ + 2e– H2(g); 0.00
(1) Copper electrode acts as cathode and Ecell
3+ – 2+
Fe + e Fe ; 0.77
is +0.46 volt
Which is the strongest reducing agent?
(2) Silver electrode acts as anode and Ecell is
(1) Zn (2) Cr
–0.34 volt
(3) H2(g) (4) Fe2+(aq)
(3) Copper electrode acts as anode and Ecell is
57. The electrode potential of a hydrogen electrode
at pH = 1 is +0.46 volt

(1) 0.059 volt (2) 0 volt (4) Silver electrode acts as cathode and Ecell is
(3) –0.059 volt (4) 0.59 volt –0.34 volt

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62. Transition elements form alloys easily because 67. The cell react ion for the given cell is
they have spontaneous if
(1) Same atomic number Pt, Cl2(P1) | Cl– (1M) || Cl– (1M) | Pt, Cl2(P2)
(2) Same electronic configuration (1) P1 > P2 (2) P1 < P2
(3) Nearly same atomic size (3) P1 = P2 (4) P2 = 1 atm
(4) Highly reactive nature of metals hence they 
combine easily 68. The EM3 /M2 values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are
63. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited –0.41, +1.57, +0.77 and +1.97 V respectively. For
by the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, which one of these metals the change in
the main reason being oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest
(1) 4f-orbitals more diffused than the 5f-orbitals (1) Co (2) Mn
(2) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d (3) Fe (4) Cr
than between 4f and 5d-orbitals 69. For a cell reaction involving a two electron
(3) More energy difference between 5f and 6d change, the standard e.m.f., of the cell is found
than between 4f and 5d-orbitals to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant
(4) More reactive nature of the actinoids than of the reaction at 25°C will be
the lanthanoids (1) 1 × 10–10 (2) 29.5 × 10–2
64. In context with the transition elements, which (3) 10 (4) 1 × 1010
of the following statements is incorrect? 70. The cell, Zn|Zn2+ (1M) || Cu2+ (1M)|Cu
(1) In addition to the normal oxidation states,
the zero oxdiation state is also shown by
these elements in complexes
 
Ecell  1.10V , was allowed to be completely
discharged at 298 K. The ratio of concentration
(2) In the highest oxidation states the of Zn2+ to Cu2+ is
transition metals show basic character and
form cationic complexes (1) 1024.08 (2) 37.3
37.3
(3) In the highest oxidation states of the first (3) 10 (4) 9.65 × 104
five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the  
4s and 3d-electrons are used for bonding 71. Given, EFe3 /Fe   0.036 V , EFe2 /Fe  0.439V .
(4) Once of d5 configuration is exceeded, the The value of standard electrode potential for the
tendency to involve all the 3d-electrons in change
bonding decreases Fe3+(aq) + e–  Fe2+(aq) will be
65. A gas x at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution (1) –0.072 V (2) 0.385 V
containing a mixture of 1 M y– and 1 M z– at
25°C. If the reduction potential of z > y > x, then (3) 0.770 V (4) –0.270 V72. **

(1) x will oxidise both y– and z– 72. Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln)
is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of
(2) y– will reduce x the following statements is incorrect?
(3) x will reduce both y– and z– (1) Because of the large size of the Ln(III) ions
(4) No reaction will occur the bonding in its compounds is
predominantly ionic in character
66. Correct order of equivalent conductance is
(2) The ionic size of Ln(III) decrease in general
(1) Na2SO4 > HCl > NaCl > KCl
with increasing atomic number
(2) HCl > Na2SO4 > KCl > NaCl
(3) Ln(III) compounds are generally colourless
(3) HCl > Na2SO4 > NaCl > KCl
(4) Ln(III) hydroxides are mainly basic in
(4) Na2SO4 > KCl > NaCl > HCl character
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77. Assertion : From As to Bi only a small increase

73. MnO4 reacts with Br– in alkaline pH to give
in covalent radius is observed.
(1) BrO3 , MnO2 (2) Br2 ,MnO24  Reason : Due to poor shielding of d and f
electrons in lower elements Zeff is increased.
(3) Br2 ,MnO2 (4) BrO ,MnO24  (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
74. The equivalent conductances of two strong assertion
electrolytes at infinite dilution in H2O at 25°C
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but
are given below
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
CH3COONa  91.0 S cm2/equiv
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false
2
HCl  426.2 S cm /equiv (4) If both assertion and reason are false
What additional information/quantity one needs 78. Which is correct for 15th group elements?
to calculate ° of an aqueous solution of acetic (1) Diff erence in electr onegativity is less
acid? amongst lower elements of group
(1) ° of NaCl (2) All the elements are polyatomic
(2) ° of CH3COOK (3) Boiling points are increased down the group
(3) The limiting equivalent conductance of (4) All of these
79. Statement-A : Hevier elements of p-Block do not
H
H  
from p–p bonds.
(4) ° of chloroacetic acid (ClCH2COOH) Statement-B : Atomic or bitals of hevier
elements are large and diffuse.
75. Assertion : Metaallic character increases from
oxygen to polonium. (1) Both statement A and B are true
Reason : Electronegativity decreases from (2) Both statement A and B are false
oxygen to polonium (3) Statement A is true but B is false
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (4) Statement A is false but B is true
the reason is the correct explanation of the
80. Which one of the following statements
assertion
regarding to NH3 and PH3 is correct?
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but
(1) Both have sp3 hybridization
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion (2) PH3 is stronger base than NH3
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false (3) Boiling point of PH3 > NH3

(4) If both assertion and reason are false (4) All are correct
81. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
76. Assertion : Melting point of sulphur is very high
than oxygen. (1) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
Reason : S8 is non polar molecule. (2) High oxidation state of phosphorus
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (3) Presence of two –OH groups and one P—H
the reason is the correct explanation of the bond
assertion (4) Presence of one –OH group and two P—H
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but bonds
reason is not the correct explanation of the 82. The true statement for the acids of phosphorus,
assertion H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false (1) The order of their acidity is H3PO4 > H3PO3
(4) If both assertion and reason are false > H3PO2

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(2) All of them are reducing in nature (2) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N–
(3) All of them are tribasic acids (3) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
(4) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral (4) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
in all the three acids
87. The correct representation of pseudohalide,
83. Which one of the following orders is correct for polyhalide and interhalogen is respectively
the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules? (1) BrI2 , OCN , IF5 (2) IF5 , BrI2 , OCN
(1) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
(3) OCN , IF5 , BrI2 (4) OCN , BrI2 , IF5
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(3) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 88. Structure of XeF5 ion is
(4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal
84. The variation of the boiling points of the
hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr (2) Square pyramidal
> HCl. (3) Octahedral
What explains the higher boiling point of (4) Pentagonal
hydrogen fluoride? 89. Which of the following is product of partial
(1) There is strong hydrogen bonding between hydrolysis (with 2 moles H2O) of XeF6?
HF molecules (1) Xe and HF
(2) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater
(2) XeOF4 and HF
than in other hydrogen halides
(3) XeO2F2 and HF
(3) The effect of nuclear shielding is much
reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF (4) XeO3 and HF
molecule 90. If K 1 and K 2 are the respective equilibrium
(4) The electronegativity of fluorine is much constants for the two reactions,
higher than for other elements in the group
85. In which of the following arrangements the XeF6(g)  H2O(g) XeOF4(g)  2HF(g)
given sequence is not strictly according to the
property indicated against it? XeO4(g)  XeF6(g) XeOF4(g)  XeO3F2(g)
(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : acidic strength
The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : pKa values
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 : bond angle XeO4(g)  2HF(g) XeO3F2(g)  H2O(g) is
(4) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : oxidising power
86. Which of the statements, is incorrect? (1) K1K2 (2) K1 / K 22
(1) O3 molecule is bent (3) K2/K1 (4) K1/K2

BOTANY
91. Which of t he following is a method of (1) In PCR taq polymerase has been used
introducing alien DNA into host cell? (2) Protein obtain by recombinant technology
(1) Disarmed pathogen vector are called recombinant protein
(2) Micro injection (3) Separation and purification of foreign gene
(3) Biolistics or gene gun product is known as downstr eam
processing
(4) All of these
(4) Bioreactor (stirring type) is not suitable for
92. Which of the following statement is wrong? obtaining large scale foreign gene products
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93. Choose the correct statements for insertional 100. When was extra DNA fragment inoculated first
inactivation of -galactosidase enzyme time by plasmid into E. coli?
(1) Blue colour colonies in presence of insert (1) 1966 (2) 1970
and it is recombinant colonies (3) 1972 (4) 1976
(2) Colourless colonies in presence of insert 101. Introduction of foreign genes for improving
and it is non-recombinant colonies genotype is called
(3) Blue colour colonies in presence of insert (1) Cloning (2) Tissue culture
and it is non-recombinant colonies
(3) Vernalization (4) Genetic engineering
(4) Colourless colonies in presence of insert
and it is recombinant colonies 102. On the basis of locations, which of the following
is known as bio-scissors
94. Which statement is incorrect for restriction
endonuclease enzyme? (1) Endonucleases (2) Hydrolases
(1) It cuts DNA a little away from the centre (3) Esterases (4) DNA polymerases
of the palindromic site 103. DNA probes are used in humans for
(2) It cuts between the same two bases of the (1) Disease diagnosis
opposite strands of palindromic site
(2) Disease control
(3) It makes sticky ends on each strands of
(3) Disease resistance
DNA at palindromic site
(4) Disease tolerance
(4) It has no specific site for cut
104. Nucleic acid segment which is used to find the
95. Tools of recombinant DNA technology is
position of a gene and it forms a hybrid with this
(1) Cloning vector (2) Restriction enzyme gene would be
(3) Competent host (4) All of these (1) Retrovirus (2) Probe
96. First recombinant organism was (3) Vector (4) Clone
(1) E. coli containing antibiotic production gene 105. Agrobacterium tumifaciens used in genetic
(2) Salmonella containing antibiotic production engineering for
gene (1) DNA mapping (2) DNA modification
(3) E. coli containing antibiotic resistant gene
(3) Vector (4) DNA finger printing
(4) Salmonella containing antibiotic resistant
106. The tumour inducing capacity of Agrobacterium
gene
tumif aciens is located in lar ge extra
97. Principles of biotechnology is/are chromosomal plasmid and called
(1) Changing phenotype of organism (1) Ti-plasmid (2) Ri-plasmid
(2) Large scale production of biotechnological (3) Lambda phage (4) Plasmid pBR322
product
107. Which of the following is used as a best genetic
(3) Maintenance of sterile condition vector for animals?
(4) All of these (1) Pox virus
98. First restriction endonuclease is (2) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(1) Hind-I (2) Hind-II (3) Retrovirus
(3) E. coli-I (4) Bam-HI
(4) All of these
99. Use of living organisms or their substances in
108. Which of the following should be chosen for best
industrial processes is called
yield if one were to produce a recombinant
(1) Microbiology protein in large amounts?
(2) Biotechnology (1) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(3) Industrial engineering (2) A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets
(4) Genetic engineering and out-lets
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(3) A continuous culture system (4) Functional ADA cDNA introduces in cell of
(4) Any of the above early embryo and it infuse in patient
114. Proinsulin is inactive due to presence of
109. Assertion (A) : Bacteria made ‘competent’ to
take up DNA by treating them with a specific (1) A-Chain (2) B-Chain
concentration of a divalent cation, such as (3) C-Peptide (4) All are incorrect
calcium.
115. Transgenic animal has
Reason (R) : Calcium increases the efficiency
(1) Foreign DNA in all its cells
with which DNA enters the bacterium through
pores in its cell wall. (2) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (3) Foreign DNA in some of the cells
Reason is the corr ect explanation of (4) Both (2) and (3)
Assertion 116. Cry-I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but thuringiensis are effective against
Reason is not the correct explanation of (1) Flies (2) Nematodes
Assertion
(3) Bollworms (4) Mosquitose
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
117. Tissue culture is benefical for
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false (1) Micro propagation
110. Assertion (A) : Plasmids are single stranded (2) Production of disease free plants
extra chromosomal DNA.
(3) Androgenic haploid
Reason (R) : Plasmid are usually present in
(4) All of these
eukaryotic cells
118. In order to obtain virus-free plants through
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
tissue culture the best method is
Reason is the corr ect explanation of
Assertion (1) Protoplast culture
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are false (2) Embryo rescue
(3) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (3) Anther culture
Reason is not the correct explanation of (4) Meristem culture
Assertion 119. Match the column and select correct option
(4) If Assertion is true but Reason is false Column-I Column-II
111. Which of the following restriction enzymes (A) In 1997 (I) Eli Lilly company
produces blunt ends? prepared human
(1) Xho I (2) Hind III insulin
(3) Sal I (4) Eco RV (B) The first transgenic (II) In 1997
cow, Rosie, produced
112. Chimeric DNA is
(C) The first clinical (III) Restriction
(1) Gene close (2) Recombinant DNA gene therapy was endonuclease
(3) Transposon (4) Vector shuttle given to a 4-year old discovered
113. Most effective treatment for ADA deficiency girl with adenosine
patient is deaminase (ADA)
deficiency
(1) Bone marrow transplanation
(D) In 1983 (IV) In 1990
(2) Functional ADA injected in patient
(E) In 1963 (V) An Americal
(3) Functional ADA cDNA introduces into company got
lymphocyte from blood and infuses to blood patent rights on
of patient Basmati rice

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(1) A(I) B(II), C(III), D(IV), E(V) Reason (R) : Transgenic animals are made that
(2) A(II) B(I), C(IV), D(V), E(II) carry genes which make them more sensitive
to toxic substances than non-transgenic
(3) A(V) B(II), C(IV), D(I), E(III) animals.
(4) A(III) B(II), C(I), D(V), E(IV) (1) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
120. The first clinical gene therapy was done for the (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
treatment of Reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) AIDS Assertion
(2) Cancer (3) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the corr ect explanation of
(3) Cystic fibrosis
Assertion
(4) SCI D (Ser vere Combined Immuno
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
Deficiency) resulting form deficiency of
ADA 124. The process of RNA interference has been used
in the development of plants resistant to
121. Assertion (A) : For effective treatment of a
disease, early diagnosis and understanding of (1) Insects (2) Nematodes
its pathophysiology is very important. (3) Fungi (4) Viruses
Reason (R) : Early detection is possible by using 125. Which of the following is not an application of
conventional methods of diagnosis through PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
serum and urine analysis (1) Detection of gene mutation
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) Molecular diagnosis
Reason is the corr ect explanation of
Assertion (3) Gene amplification

(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (4) Purification of isolated protein
Reason is not the correct explanation of 126. Process involve in PCR is
Assertion (1) Denaturation (2) Annealing
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false (3) Extantion (4) All of these
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 127. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering
122. Assertion (A) : Human protein (-1-antitrypsin) became possible due to the discovery of
used to treat emphysema and other bioactive (1) Primase
substance are being made for treatment of
(2) Transcriptase
phenylketonuria (PKU) and cystic fibrosis
produced by transgenic animals. (3) DNA helicase
Reason (R) : Transgenic animals created by the (4) Restriction endonuclease
introduction of the portion of DNA (or genes) 128. The organism which is used for gene transfer
which codes for a particular product. in higher organism is
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
Reason is the corr ect explanation of
(2) E. coli
Assertion
(3) Acetobacter
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Assertion 129. The transfer of genetic material from one
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false bacterium to another through the mediation of
a vector like virus is termed as
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Transduction (2) Conjugation
123. Assertion (A) : Transgenic animals are use for
chemical safety testing. (3) Transformation (4) Translation

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130. Which of the following steps are catalysed by (3) DNA finger printing
Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction? (4) Disarming pathogen vectors
(1) Denaturation of template DNA 133. Maximum ut ilization techniques of
(2) Annealing of primers to template DNA biotechnology has been made in the field of
(3) Extension of primer end on the template (1) Agriculture (2) Medicines
DNA (3) Industries (4) Biogas production
(4) All of these 134. Genetically engineered bacteria have been
131. Which of the following statements does not hold used in commercial production
true for restriction enzyme? (1) Thyroxine
(1) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide (2) Testosterone
sequence
(3) Human insulin
(2) It is an endonuclease
(4) Melatonium
(3) It is isolated from viruses
135. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used
(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in for designing novel
different DNA molecules
(1) Bio-metallurgical techniques
132. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(2) Bio-insecticidal plants
(1) Transformation of plant cells
(3) Bio-mineralization processes
(2) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining
with vectors (4) Bio-fertilizers

ZOOLOGY
136. Life from other planets in the form of spore/ 140. Which of the following statement/s are correct?
seed is A. Australopithecus probably lived in east
(1) Theory of panspermia african grass lands
(2) Catastrophic theory B. Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of
(3) Theory of abiogenesis Homo sapiens

(4) Special theory of creation C. Homo erectus had large brain around 900
cc
137. The concept that ‘Population tends to increases
geometrically while food supply increases D. Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been found in
arithmetically’ was put forward by Ethiopia

(1) Thomas Malthus (2) Charles Darwin (1) A only (2) A and C

(3) Weisman (4) Pasteur (3) B and C (4) A, B, C and D

138. The homologous organs are those that show 141. Assertion (A) : Evolution is not a directed
similarity in process in the sense of determinism.

(1) Appearance (2) Function Reason (R) : It is a stochastic process based on

chance events in nature and chance mutation
(3) Origin (4) Size in the organisms.
139. Which of the following is the direct ancestor of (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Homo sapiens? Reason is the corr ect explanation of
(1) Australopithecus Assertion
(2) H. sapiens neanderthalis (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) Homo erectus
Assertion
(4) Ramapithecus
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(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false Reason is the corr ect explanation of
Assertion
142. Genetic drift operates only in
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(1) Larger populations Reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) Mendelian populations Assertion
(3) Island populations (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Smaller populations (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
143. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ 151. At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is
demonstrates 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the
(1) Geographical isolation frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating
(2) Reproductive isolation population at equilibrium?

(3) Natural selection (1) 0.36 (2) 0.16

(4) Induced mutation (3) 0.24 (4) 0.48
144. Which of the following is closest relative of 152. Evolutationary history of an organism is known
man? as
(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (1) Ontogeny (2) Phylogeny
(3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon (3) Ancestry (4) Palaeontology
145. Some bacteria are able to grow in streptomycin 153. When two species of different geneology come
containing medium due to to r esemble each other as a result of
(1) Natural selection adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
(2) Induced mutation (1) Microevolution
(3) Reproductive isolation (2) Co-evolution
(4) Genetic drift (3) convergent evolution
146. Fastest way of evolution could be (4) Divergent evolution
(1) Mutation (2) Isolation 154. ______ were existing about 15 mya
(3) Polyploidy (4) Sexual reproduction (1) Homo erectus
147. Reptiles were dominaning during (2) Ramapithecus
(1) Coenozoic era (2) Mesozoic era (3) Homo habilis
(3) Palaeozoic era (4) Archaeozoic era (4) Homo neanderthalensis
148. ______ are considered ancestors of amphibians 155. ‘Balancing selection’ promotes
(1) Lung fish (2) Lobefins (1) Homozygotes (2) Heterozygotes
(3) Exocoetus (4) Icthyophis (3) Polyploids (4) recessive traits
149. According to Oparin, which one of the following
156. Oparin belongs to
was not present in the primitive atmosphere
of the earth? (1) England (2) Russia
(1) Methane (2) Oxygen (3) USA (4) China
(3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour 157. Which of the following pair is homologous?
150. Assertion (A) : The rate of appearance of new (1) Wings of birds  Arm of man
forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span. (2) Wings of insects Wings of birds
Reason (R) : Microbes that divide fast have the (3) Patagium of Draco  Wings of kiwi
ability to multiply and become millions of
individuals within hours. (4) Tusk of an elephant  Rhinoceros horn
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158. If Wolf : Tasmanian wolf then Lemur : __?__ (2) Physiological evidence
(1) Flying phalanger (2) Tasmanian tiger cat (3) Embryological evidence
(3) Spotted cuscus (4) Numbat (4) Anatomical evidence
159. Mark the correct match 165. Using imprints from a plate with complete
medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you
(1) Mendel – Theory of pangenesis
can select streptomycin resistant mutants and
(2) Weismann – Theory of continuity of prove that such mutations do not originate as
germplasm adaptation. These imprints need to be used.
(3) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired (1) On plates with minimal medium
characters
(2) Only on plates with streptomycin
(4) Hugo de Vries – Natural selection
(3) Only on plates without streptomycin
160. Darwin’s Finches are an excellent example of
(4) On plates with and without streptomycin
(1) Connecting links
166. The spread of genes fr om one breeding
(2) Adaptive radiation population to another by migration which may
(3) Seasonal migration result in change in gene frequency is

(4) Brood parasitism (1) Gene flow (2) Genetic drift

161. Statement-A : Sum total of all the allelic (3) Mutation (4) Natural selection
frequencies in a population is 1. 167. Replica plating experiment was conducted by
Statement-B : Variation due to genetic drift (1) Joshua Lederberg
results in changed frequency of genes and (2) R.A. Fischer
alleles.
(3) de Vries
(1) Both Statement A and B are true
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Statement A is false, statement B is true
168. Survival of the fittest is the basic principle of
(3) Statement A is true, statement B is false a competition. Its importance in organic
(4) Both statement A and B are false evolution was explained by

162. Set which includes only analogous organ is (1) Darwin (2) Mendel

(1) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat (3) Lamarck (4) Hugo de Vries

(2) Hindlimbs of horse, grasshopper and bat 169. Which of the following defines Hardy-Weinberg’s
law?
(3) Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and
honeybee (1) p2 + 3pq + q2 = 1 (2) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

(4) Wings of butterfly, wings of bat and birds (3) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 0 (4) q2 + p2 + 2pq = 0
170. Theory of pangenesis was proposed by
163. An evolutionary process, giving rise to new
species adapting to new habitats and ways of (1) Darwin (2) Hugo de Vries
life is called (3) Lamarck (4) Weismann
(1) Adaptation 171. Match the columns I and II.
(2) Micro evolution Column-I Column-II
(3) Adaptive radiation (A) Ice age (I) Between
(4) Convergent evolution 1,00,000–40,000
164. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is narrated (B) Origin of Agriculture (II) 75.000–10,000
in which of the evidences for organic evolution? (C) Neanderthal man (III) 18000
(1) Paleontological evidence (D) Pre-historic cave art (IV) 10,000
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(1) A(II), B(IV), C(I), D(III) 177. Pick the odd one
(2) A(I), B(II), C(III), D(IV) (1) Paleozoic (2) Mesozoic
(3) A(II), B(III), C(I), D(IV) (3) Devonian (4) Coenzoic
(4) A(III), B(IV), C(I), D(II) 178. Statement-A : All the existing life forms share
172. According to the theory of mutation by Hugo de similarities and share common ancestors.
Vries Statement-B : These ancestors were present at
(1) Only small mutation takes part in variation different periods in the history of earth (epochs,
periods and ears).
(2) Only large mutation takes part in variation
(1) Both Statement A and B are true
(3) Both small and large mutations cause
variation in species (2) Statement A is false, statement B is true
(4) Gradual changes causes variations (3) Statement A is true, statement B is false
173. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (4) Both statement A and B are false
(1) de Vries : Mutation theory 179. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose
(2) Darwin : Natural selection the correct option.
(3) J.B.S Haldane : Law of continuity of Column-I Column-II
germplasm (A) Jawless fish evolved (I) 320 mya
(4) Louis Pasteur : Germ theory of disease (B) Invertebrates were (II) 350 mya
and immunology formed
174. The process by which organisms with different (C) Sea weeds existed (III)65 mya
evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
adaptations in response to a common (D) Dinosaurs disappeared (IV) 500 mya
environmental challenge, is called (1) A(IV), B(III), C(I), D(II)
(1) Natural selection (2) A(III), B(II), C(I), D(IV)
(2) Convergent evolution (3) A(I), B(IV), C(II), D(III)
(3) Non-random evolution (4) A(II), B(IV), C(I), D(III)
(4) Adaptive radiation 180. Following are the two statements regarding the
175. Which one of the following statements is origin of life :
correct? A. The earliest organisms that appeared on
(1) Homo erectus is the anacestor of man the earth were non-green and presumably
anaerobes.
(2) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of
modern man B. The first autotrophic organisms were the
chemoautotrophs that never released
(3) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of
oxygen.
Homo sapiens
Of the above statements, which one of the
(4) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in
following options is correct.
Ethopia
(1) Both Statements A and B are correct
176. The extinct human ancestor, who ate only
fruits and hunted with stone weapons was (2) Both Statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Ramapithecus (2) Australopithecus (3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Dryopithecus (4) Homo erectus (4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct


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ANSWERS
Test No. 02, 04-02-2025 TT-1-5

1. (2) 24. (1) 47. (1) 70. (3) 93. (4) 116. (3) 139. (3) 162. (4)

2. (3) 25. (1) 48. (2) 71. (3) 94. (4) 117. (4) 140. (2) 163. (3)

3. (3) 26. (3) 49. (4) 72. (3) 95. (4) 118. (4) 141. (1) 164. (3)

4. (3) 27. (1) 50. (2) 73. (1) 96. (3) 119. (3) 142. (4) 165. (4)

5. (1) 28. (2) 51. (3) 74. (1) 97. (4) 120. (4) 143. (3) 166. (1)

6. (4) 29. (3) 52. (4) 75. (1) 98. (2) 121. (3) 144. (1) 167. (1)

7. (1) 30. (1) 53. (1) 76. (2) 99. (2) 122. (1) 145. (1) 168. (1)

8. (1) 31. (1) 54. (1) 77. (1) 100. (3) 123. (3) 146. (1) 169. (2)

9. (2) 32. (3) 55. (2) 78. (4) 101. (4) 124. (2) 147. (2) 170. (1)

10. (2) 33. (2) 56. (1) 79. (1) 102. (1) 125. (4) 148. (2) 171. (1)

11. (3) 34. (3) 57. (3) 80. (1) 103. (1) 126. (4) 149. (2) 172. (2)

12. (1) 35. (3) 58. (3) 81. (4) 104. (2) 127. (4) 150. (2) 173. (3)

13. (4) 36. (2) 59. (1) 82. (4) 105. (3) 128. (1) 151. (4) 174. (2)

14. (3) 37. (2) 60. (3) 83. (4) 106. (1) 129. (1) 152. (2) 175. (1)

15. (4) 38. (1) 61. (3) 84. (1) 107. (3) 130. (3) 153. (3) 176. (2)

16. (3) 39. (4) 62. (3) 85. (2) 108. (3) 131. (3) 154. (2) 177. (3)

17. (1) 40. (3) 63. (2) 86. (3) 109. (1) 132. (1) 155. (2) 178. (1)

18. (1) 41. (4) 64. (2) 87. (4) 110. (2) 133. (2) 156. (2) 179. (4)

19. (1) 42. (2) 65. (4) 88. (2) 111. (4) 134. (3) 157. (1) 180. (1)

20. (1) 43. (3) 66. (2) 89. (3) 112. (2) 135. (2) 158. (3)

21. (1) 44. (4) 67. (2) 90. (3) 113. (4) 136. (1) 159. (2)

22. (3) 45. (2) 68. (4) 91. (4) 114. (3) 137. (1) 160. (2)

23. (1) 46. (4) 69. (4) 92. (4) 115. (1) 138. (3) 161. (1)