PRE SECONDARY SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION (Std.

8th), FEBRUARY 2025

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Time : 11:00 to 12:30 Medium : English

Total Marks : 150 First Language and Mathematics Pages : 16

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions.
(1) This question paper contains two sections. In Section I there are 1 to 25 questions of First
Language and in Section II there are 26 to 75 questions of Mathematics. All QR 75 questions
: 511A are
Medium: ENGLISH
compulsory. Paper Code: 511
(2) All questions carry 2 marks each. Set Code: A
(3) Time limit to solve the question paper is 90 minutes.
(4) Separate answer sheet is given to record the answers. Each question has been given four
alternatives. Read them carefully. Select and darken the correct answer in the answer sheet.
For Example :- If the correct alternative for Q. No. 6 is 2, then record your answer as follows :
Question No. 6 - 1 1 3 4
(5) Maximum 20% questions are having two correct alternatives. Candidate has to darken both
the circles with correct answers. These questions will have the instruction ‘Select two correct
alternatives’.
For Example :- If the correct alternative for Q. No. 8 is 2 & 3, then record your answer as follows :
Question No. 8  -   1 1 3 4
(6) Answer recorded in any other form will not be considered. Such answer will be credited with
‘Zero’ mark.  1 2 4
(7) Use blue or black ball pen to darken the circle. Circles darkened by pencil will not be credited.
(8) Answer once recorded can not be changed.
(9) The rough work is to be done in the space given under each page or on the last page of the
question paper.
(10) The exam has limited time, in case you are not able to solve a question, kindly solve the next
question. In the end if time permits you can try to solve the unsolved questions.
(11) If incomplete or wrong question found in a question paper, you are not permitted to ask the
same to Supervisor or Centre Incharge.
(12) School or parents should not send written application to Block Education Officer or Education
Officer for any error, mistake or objection issues. These error / mistake / objection issues
should be registered online through respective school login only.
(13) The error / mistake / objection issues should be registered online within 10  -  days from the
publication of Interim answer key on MSCE website.
(14) Suggestion and decision of expert committee will be applicable on printing or any other
mistake in question paper.

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 SECTION - I

ENGLISH
01. Choose the correct alternatives for the following.
Aniket and Ketki had their breakfast and lunch at the same time at 11.00 am. So
we can say that they had their __________ that day.
(1) food (2) lunch (3) dinner (4) brunch

02. Choose the correct option for the underlined word.

Our Sanskrit teacher told us to write an extract on ‘the usefulness of Mahisha’
What is the meaning of an underlined word.
(1) Manisha (2) buffalo (3) month (4) wish

03. Choose a correct option.

Society elected Sakshi a fellow at the age of 25, which is very remarkable thing.
(1) a scholarship given by the royal society.
(2) the money given the society.
(3) a certificate given by society.
(4) an award, title and honour given by the royal society.

04. Find out 2 correct antonyms for the given word.

‘Light’
(1) many (2) stable (3) heavy (4) dark

05. Choose two correct alternatives of correct auxiliaries showing permission in the
following.
You __________ go now.
(1) would (2) can (3) may (4) should

06. Choose the correct sentence by changing it into negative form.

I was doubtful whether it was you.
(1) I was not sure that it was you. (2) I was sure that it was you.
(3) He was sure not that he was I. (4) He was not sure that it was him.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 07. Identify the types of sentences by choosing the correct option.
As it was begining to rain, we waited there for a while.
(1) simple (2) interrogative (3) complex (4) compound

08. Find compound conjunctions form of the given sentence.

I will forgive you on condition that you do not repeat the offense.
(1) do not repeat (2) on condition that
(3) will forgive you (4) that you do

09. Find out the error and choose the correct alternative for the following example of
indirect speech.
Ramesh said that he wants to be the soldier.
(1) wants (2) said (3) that (4) to be

Instructions for Q. 10 and Q. 11

Read the following news and answer the questions.
UNESCO adds two sites of India to the World Heritage List
Report by Prashasti Kulkarni
This month, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation or
UNESCO, added the Hoysala temples of Karnataka and Santiniketan, West Bengal to their
list of World Heritage Sites.
These sites mark India’s 41st and 42nd contribution to the list, the first being the
Ajanta Caves of Maharashtra, added in 1983.
UNESCO uses a specific criteria to decide which place, monument or area to add to
the list every year, which includes points ranging from the architectural beauty of a place to
its cultural significance.
UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites of September 2023, India.
As mentioned before, UNESCO added the Hoysala Temples of Belur, Karnataka and
Santiniketan, West Bengal to the World Heritage list in September 2023.

10. Which another word is used in the above news for United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organisation.
(1) Culture (2) UNESCO
(3) World Heritage (4) United Nations

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 11. Match the pairs and choose the correct alternatives
A B
1. Ajanta Caves a. West Bengal
2. Hoysala Temple b. Maharashtra
3. Santiniketan c. Karnataka

(1) 1 – b; 2 – a; 3 – c (2) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – c
(3) 1 – b; 2 – c; 3 – b (4) 1 – c; 2 – a; 3 – b

12. Which ‘wh-word’ is used to form the following sentence a question to get an underlined
part as an answer.
The fox, the vulture and the Leopard took an oath of loyalty.
(1) How (2) Where
(3) Who (4) What

13. Identify the underlined word and choose the correct option.
Cocks crow in the morning.
(1) conjunction (2) noun
(3) verb (4) preposition

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 Instructions for Q. 14, Q. 15 and Q. 16
Read the poem and answer the questions.
“I never can do it”, the little Kite said,
As he looked at the others high over his head;
“I know I should fall if I tried to fly.”
“Try”, said the big Kite, “Only try!
Or I fear you never will learn at all.”
But the little Kite said, “I’m afraid I’ll fall”.

The big Kite nodded: “Ah, well, good-bye;

I’m off;” and he rose towards the tranquil sky.
Then the little Kite’s paper stirred at the sight,
And trembling he shook himself free for flight.

14. Why was the little Kite afraid?

(1) that he would be tired soon.
(2) to look down the earth.
(3) that he would Fall.
(4) that he would be caught by the birds.

15. Which encouraging words the Kite said to the little Kite?
(1) try, only try (2) Fly, just fly
(3) rise, look high (4) move, move around

16. Who rose towards the sky?

(1) little kite (2) big kite
(3) birds (4) clouds

17. Choose the correct option of word-ladder of

Warm to Cold
(1) d, l, o, c (2) c, o, l, d
(3) l, o, c, d (4) d, c, o, l

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 18. Find out the odd man out from the given sentences regarding the parts of speech.
(1) Life is not a bed of red roses.
(2) Speech is silver, but silence is golden.
(3) We must love good and hate ill.
(4) To err is human, to forgive is divine.

19. Choose the correct alternative for the underlined word.

Rutu was ill. So she sent a message to her class-teacher. The class teacher replied,
‘take care’ - Which short form she might used for the underlined word.
(1) TK (2) TKE CRE
(3) TK CR (4) TC

20. Choose the correct option to complete the slogan.

__________ today, __________ tomorrow.
(1) leaders, learners (2) fact, dream
(3) learners, leaders (4) elders, young

Instructions for Q. 21, Q. 22 and Q. 23

Read the following extract and answer the questions.
The sound which is soothing to ears come in the form of a melody. The song can be irritating
when it comes with a very high pitch and severity. It is strange but true that noise too can cause
pollution. It has been found that noise pollution can weaken our hearing. Noise pollution is extremely
harmful to the patients and no wonder we find display boards near hospitals zones on which it is
written. No horn, noise mainly occurs in cities due to constant blowing of horns of the vehicles and
the use of loud speakers in public places. In commercial areas the noise level during day time is
regularly over 100 decibels which is more than the permissible limits of 65 decibels.

21. What happens when song comes with a very high pitch and severity?
(1) It can be pleasant.
(2) It can be irritating.
(3) It can be melodious.
(4) It can be soothing to ears.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 22. Choose the correct alternative to complete the web.
noise mainly Constant
? occurs in blowing of
cities due to - horns
(1) chirping of birds (2) displaying of boards
(3) use of loud speakers (4) lot of wind

23. What is the noise level in commercial areas during the day time?
(1) below 100 (2) regular (3) below 65 (4) over 100

Instructions for Q. 24 and Q. 25

Read the following write-up and choose the correct alternatives.
The G-20 summit is an annual gathering of leaders from nineteen of the world’s largest
economics and European Union.
The Group of Twenty (G-20) was established in 1999, For the global economic co-operation
and geopolitical stability.
During the summit, the leaders discuss various issues, including economic-growth, trade,
climate change. They can have a significant impact on global economic and political
developments.

24. Who discuss on various issues in G-20 summit?

(1) leaders (2) professionals (3) farmers (4) experts

25. Why was the G-20 established? Choose 2 correct options.

(1) For the global economic co-operation.
(2) For entertainment.
(3) For the political issues.
(4) For the geopolitical stability.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 SECTION - II

MATHEMATICS
26. Find the difference between the compound interest and simple interest for 2 years on
Rs. 10,000 at the rate 12 p.c.p.a.
(1) 124 (2) 120 (3) 144 (4) 240

27. 1
Find the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 at the rate 10 p.c.p.a. for 3 2 years.
(1) Rs. 3975.50 (2) Rs. 3875.50 (3) Rs. 3795.50 (4) Rs. 3857.50

28. If 400 litre milk containing 11% fat is mixed with 600 litre milk containing 8% fat.
What will be the percentage of fat in the mixture? (Select two correct alternatives)
(1) 8.4 (2) 9.2 (3)
46 (4)
42
5 5
29. If a2 + b2 = 325 and a + b = 23 and ab = 102. Find (a – b).
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) 11

30. A shopkeeper purchased 100 articles for Rs. 50 each. Two of them were damaged.
He sold the remaining articles at Rs. 60 each. What was the percentage of profit or
loss in the transaction.
(1) 16.6% profit (2) 17.6% profit
(3) 15.6% loss (4) 12.6% loss

31. Selling an article for Rs. 216 certain loss is incurred. But if it is sold for
Rs. 300, the gain is 2½ times the incurred loss. What is the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 400 (2) Rs. 250 (3) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. 240

32. A farmer got dripping equipment set from Agricultural Department for
Rs. 3,25,000 at 35% discount. What was the marked price of the equipment?
(1) Rs. 5,00,000 (2) Rs. 4,50,000
(3) Rs. 5,50,000 (4) Rs. 4,80,000

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 33. In the adjoining figure radius of each circle
is 3.5 cm. Find the area of the shaded
portion.
(1) 38.5 sq.cm.
(2) 10.5 sq.cm.
(3) 18.5 sq.cm.
(4) 18.2 sq.cm.

34. The mean of 25, 18, x, 20, 17, 20, 21, 25 is 21. Find the value of x.
(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 23 (4) 22

35. Which term should be added to 49x2 +

1 to make the expression a complete
49x 2
square. (Choose two correct alternatives.)
(1) –2 (2) –14x (3) 2 (4) 14x

Direction - Q. 36 and Q. 37.

The following pie diagram represents number

of fruit plants planted by a farmer. Observe the
Lemon figure and select the correct alternative to answer
15% Mango the questions.
280 30%
Coconut
Tree 20%
Chickoo

Orange

36. Find the total number of trees planted by the farmer.

(1) 1120 (2) 1020 (3) 1220 (4) 1040

37. Find the number of trees bearing multi-seed fruits.

(1) 896 (2) 504 (3) 208 (4) 616

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 38. Solve → (2x2 + 5x – 8) + (7x2 – 9x + 3) – (9x2 – 4x – 6)
(1) 0 (2) x – 1 (3) x + 1 (4) 1

39. Find the value of

x2 – 4 ×
x 2 + 2x – 15
x 2 + 3x – 10 x2 – x – 6
(1) (x – 2) (2) x + 5 (3) 1 (4) 2

40. Write the degree of the product of the polynomials (16x4 + 81), (16x4 – 81)
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 8

41. There are some birds in a sanctuary. One half of them are flying in the sky. One third
1
are sitting on the tree and 8 th birds are pecking grains on the floor. The remaining
45 birds are swimming in the lake. Find the total number of birds.
(1) 1248 (2) 1040
(3) 1024 (4) 1080

42. The area of an equilateral triangle is 100 3 sq.cm. Find the perimeter of that
equilateral triangle.
(1) 60 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 48 cm (4) 81 cm

43. Find the quotient and the remainder when the polynomial (x3 + 2x2 – x – 2) is
divided by (x + 2). Choose the correct alternative.
(1) Quotient = (x2 + 1) R = 1
(2) Quotient = (x2 – 1) R = 2
2
(3) Quotient = (x – 1) R = 0
(4) Quotient = (x2 + x – 1) R = 0

44. The ratio of the ages of Anil and Sunil 4 years before was 4:5. Four years hence,
the ratio of their ages will be 6:7. Find present age of Anil.
(1) 16 years (2) 20 years
(3) 24 years (4) 22 years

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 45. 1
Find the value of 7 2 hours + 8 hours 45 minutes + 5.25 hours.
(1) 21 hours 00 minutes (2) 21 hours 20 minutes
(3) 20 hours 30 minutes (4) 21 hours 30 minutes

46. 60 m
P Q In the adjoining figure  PQRS is
a parallelogram. One of its side is
60 m. and other side is 25 m. If
l(SM) = 7 m. Find area of PQRS.
25 m (1) 1440 sq.m.
(2) 1500 sq.m.
S M R (3) 1560 sq.m.
7m
(4) 1660 sq.m.

47. Find the capacity of a cubical tank having each side 1.5 m. (Select two correct
alternative.)
(1) 3375 lit (2) 4375 lit
(3) 3.375 cubic m (4) 4.375 cubic m

48. A shopkeeper sold two articles for Rs. 1200 each. After selling he earned 20% profit
on one article and suffered 20% loss on the other article. Find percent profit or loss
in this transaction.
(1) 4% profit (2) 6% profit (3) 4% loss (4) 6% loss

(225) 2 – 1
49. Find the value of
(15) 2 + 1
(1) 224 (2) 226 (3) 326 (4) 225

50. Solve → 4  decam 5  m 7  decim + 5  decam 8  m 9  decim. + 2  decam 8  m 4  decim
(1) 2.35 km. (2) 235 metre (3) 133 meter (4) 1.33 km.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 51. The difference between half circumference of a circle and its diameter is
4 cm. Find the area of the circle.
(1) 154 sq.cm. (2) 77 sq.cm. (3) 19.25 sq.cm. (4) 38.50 sq.cm.
52. The difference between the smallest natural number and the greatest negative integer
is the square root of one of the following numbers given in the alternatives. Find
the number.
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 9
53. Find the capacity of a cylindrical cement tank of water, if the diameter of the tank
is 7m and height is 2 m. (Select two correct alternatives.)
(1) 88 cubic m (2) 77 cubic m
(3) 88000 litres (4) 77000 litres

54. Find the additive inverse of the product of multiplicative inverse of 57 and
65
76
multiplicative inverse of 91 .

(1) + 21 (2) – 21 (3) + 20 (4) – 20

20 20 21 21
55. Find the value of
0.545454 + 0.5454 + 0.54
(1) 1.630854 (2) 1.531854 (3) 1.631854 (4) 1.631845

56. Which of the following number given in the alternatives divides exactly all the numbers
161, 371, 301, 637, 553, ?
(1) 9 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 11
57. A triangular plot has sides 50 m, 30 m and 40 m. Find the area of the triangular plot.
(Select two correct alternatives)
(1) 1500 sq.m. (2) 600 sq.m. (3) 6 Are (4) 15 Are

58. Find the value of x, if 3x + 3x+1 = 108

(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

59. L.C.M. of two consecutive odd numbers is 8463. Find the bigger odd number out
of the two numbers.
(1) 91 (2) 93 (3) 95 (4) 97

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 60. Find the value of
31 # 32 # 30 # 33 + 1
(1) 990 (2) 923 (3) 1021 (4) 991

61. Find the average of the cubes of first five odd natural numbers.
(1) 235 (2) 255 (3) 245 (4) 285

62. p In the adjoining figure line l | | line m and

line p is the transversal. Observe the figure
3x and find the value of ∠w.
x
l (1) 45º
(2) 135º
(3) 130º
m (4) 90º
w

63. Area of a circle is in direct variation with the square of the radius of the circle. If
the area of a circle is 616 sq.cm., then the radius is 14 cm. Find the area of the
circle whose radius is 42 cm.
(1) 5544 sq.cm. (2) 3850 sq.cm.
(3) 2464 sq.cm. (4) 4455 sq.cm.

64. How many more segments are formed by joining six collinear points to each other
than by joining five non-collinear points to each other?
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 5

65. The radius of a semi-circular garden is 420 m. It is to be fenced with five rounds of
wire. If the wire costs Rs. 60 per metre. What will be the cost of the wire needed
for fencing?
(1) ` 64,800 (2) ` 6,48,000 (3) ` 3,24,000 (4) ` 32,400

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 66. P In the adjoining ∆PQR, ray PA and
ray QB are the bisectors of ∠P and
x x
∠Q respectively. If ∠R = 70º. Find
B
m ∠PMQ.
M
(1) 120º
(2) 130º
70°

y
(3) 125º

y
R A Q
(4) 135º

67. I n the adjoining ∆ P Q R, ∠ AQP = P

130º, ∠BRP = 140º, l(PQ) = 16 cm,
l(PR) = 12 cm. Find l(QR) 16 cm 12 cm

(1) 17 cm (2) 25 cm
° 14
(3) 18 cm (4) 20 cm 130 0°
A Q R B

68. A shopkeeper sold a fan having marked price Rs. 2300 at discounted price
Rs. 2001. Find the percent discount given by the shopkeeper.
(1) 23% (2) 17% (3) 13% (4) 15%

69. Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are (3x + 10)º and (4x + 30)º. Find the
measures of these angles.
(1) 70º, 110º (2) 115º, 65º (3) 120º, 60º (4) 112º, 68º

70. P In the adjoining ∆PQR, ∠PQR = 90º

and QM ⊥ PR, PQ = 12 cm,
M QR = 16 cm. Find l(QM)
12 cm (1) 2.4 cm
(2) 19.2 cm
(3) 4.8 cm
Q 16 cm R (4) 9.6 cm

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 71. P A Q In the adjoining figure PQRS is a square
having side 28 cm. Points A, B, C and D
are the midpoints of side PQ, side QR, side
RS, side SP respectively. Find the area of
D B square ABCD.
(1) 784 sq.cm.
(2) 392 sq.cm.
S C R (3) 196 sq.cm.
28 cm (4) 616 sq.cm.

72. A train of length 1000 m. is running at a speed of 72 km/hr. How much time will
it take to pass a tunnel of length 800 m? (Choose two correct alternatives.)
(1) 90 seconds (2)
1
1 2 minutes (3) 2 minutes (4) 120 seconds

73. The amount of certain principal at certain rate of interest after 5 years is
Rs. 10800 with simple interest and the amount for the same principal and at the same
rate of interest after 3 years is Rs. 9680 with simple interest. Find the principal and
the rate of interest.
(1) P = ` 7000 R = 8% (2) P = ` 8000 R = 9%
(3) P = ` 9000 R = 7% (4) P = ` 8000 R = 7%

74. Due to increase in the prices of fruits by 20%, the sale was decreased by 10%. Find
the percent increase or decrease in the income of the fruitseller.
(1) 10% increase (2) 8% increase (3) 8% decrease (4) 10% decrease

75. The radius of the base of a cone is 21 cm and its height is 20 cm. Find its volume.
(1) 9204 cubic cm (2) 9042 cubic cm
(3) 9240 cubic cm (4) 9273 cubic cm

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