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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170

PHYSICS – Class 12 – Book back 1 mark

Unit- 1 ELECTROSTATICS
1. Two identical point charges of magnitude -q are
fixed as shown in the figure below. A third charge +q
is placed midway between the two charges at the
point P. Suppose this charge +q is displaced a small
distance from the point P in the directions indicated
by the arrows, in which direction(s) will +q be stable with respect to the displacement?
(a) A1 and A2 (b) B1 and B2 (c) both directions (d) No stable
2. Which charge configuration produces a uniform electric field?
(a) point charge (b) uniformly charged infinite line

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(c) uniformly charged infinite plane (d) uniformly charged spherical shell
𝒒
3. What is the ratio of the charges | 𝟏 | for the following
𝒒𝟐

i.N
electric field line pattern?
(a) 1/5 (b) 25/11
(c) 5 (d) 11/25
4. An electric dipole is placed at an alignment angle of 30° with an electric field of 2 x 10 5 N C-1.

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It experiences a torque equal to 8 N m. The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 1 cm is
(a) 4 mC (b) 8 mC (c) 5 mC (d) 7 mC
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5. Four Gaussian surfaces are given below with charges inside each
Gaussian surface. Rank the electric flux through each Gaussian surface in
increasing order-
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(a) D < C < B < A (b) A < B = C < D

(c) C < A = B < D (d) D > C > B > A
6. The total electric flux for the following closed surface which is kept inside water-
80𝑞 𝑞
(a) ∈ (b) 40∈
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0 0
𝑞 𝑞
(c) 80∈ (d) 160∈
0 0

7. Two identical conducting balls having positive charges q1 and q2 are separated
w.

by a center to center distance r. If they are made to touch each other and then
separated to the same distance, the force between them will be-
(a) less than before (b) same as before
(c) more than before (d) zero
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8. Rank the electrostatic potential energies for

the given system of charges in increasing order
(a) 1 = 4 < 2 < 3 (b) 2 = 4 < 3 < 1
(c) 2 = 3 < 1 < 4 (d) 3 < 1 < 2 < 4
9. An electric field ⃗𝑬
⃗ = 10x î exists in a certain region of space. Then the potential difference V
= V0 – VA , Where V0 is the potential at the origin and VA is the potential at x = 2 m is -
(a) 10 V (b) -20 V (c) + 20 V (d) – 10 V
10. A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has a charge Q
which is uniformly distributed on its surface. The correct plot
for electrostatic potential due to this spherical shell is-

-1-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
11. Two points A and B are maintained at a potential of 7 V and -4 V respectively. The work done
in moving 50 electrons from A to B is-
(a) 8.80 x 10-17 J (b) -8.80 x 10-17 J (c) 4.40 x 10-17 J (d) 5.80 x 10-17 J
12. If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V, choose the correct conclusion.
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled (b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled (d) Both Q and C remain same
13. A parallel plate capacitor stores a charge Q at a voltage V. Suppose the area of the parallel
plate capacitor and the distance between the plates are each doubled then which is the
quantity that will change?
(a) Capacitance (b) Charge (c) Voltage (d) Energy density
14. Three capacitors are connected in a triangle as shown in the figure.
The equivalent capacitance between points A and C is

et
(a) 1 μF
(b) 2 μF
(c) 3 μF

i.N
(d) 1/4 μF
15. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of - 1 x 10-2 C and 5 x 10-2 C
respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger

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sphere is
(a) 3 x 10-2 C (b) 4 x 10-2 C (c) 1 x 10-2 C (d) 2 x 10-2 C
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Unit- 2 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. The following graph shows current versus voltage values of some
unknown conductor. What is the resistance of this conductor?
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(a) 2 ohm (b) 4 ohm

(c) 8 ohm (d) 1 ohm
2. A wire of resistance 2 ohms per meter is bent to form a circle of
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radius 1 m. The equivalent resistance between its two diametrically

opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure is-
(a) π Ω (b) π/2 Ω (c) 2π Ω (d) π/4 Ω
3. A toaster operating at 240 V has a resistance of 120 Ω. Its power is
w.

(a) 400 W (b) 2 W (c) 480 W (d) 240 W

4. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k Ω to be marked with rings of different colours for its
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identification. The colour code sequence will be

(a) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold (b) Yellow – Violet - Orange - Silver
(c) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver (d) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
5. What is the value of resistance of the following resistor?
(a) 100 k Ω (b) 10 k Ω
(c) 1 k Ω (d) 1000 k Ω
6. Two wires of A and B with circular cross section made up of the same material with equal
lengths. Suppose RA=3 RB, then what is the ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?
(a) 3 (b) √3 (c) 1/√3 (d) 1/3
7. A wire connected to a power supply of 230 V has power dissipation P 1 Suppose the wire is cut
into two equal pieces and connected parallel to the same power supply. In this case power
dissipation is P2. The ratio P2/ P1 is.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
8. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the
resistance of a 60W bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of a 60W bulb for use in USA will be
(a) R (b) 2R (c) R/4 (d) R/2
9. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of
1kW are connected. The voltage of electric mains is 220 V. The maximum capacity of the main
fuse of the building will be (IIT-JEE 2014)
(a) 14 A (b) 8 A (c) 10 A (d) 12 A
10. There is a current of 1.0 A in the circuit shown below.
What is the resistance of P ?
(a) 1.5 Ω (b) 2.5 Ω
(c) 3.5 Ω (d) 4.5 Ω
11. What is the current drawn out from the battery?

et
(а) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 3 A (d) 4 A

i.N
12. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per °C. At 200C, its resistance is
1 Ω. The resistance of the wire will be 2 Ω. at
(a) 8000C (b) 7000C (c) 8500C (d) 8200C

la
13. The internal resistance of a 2.1V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10Ω is
(a) 0.2 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω (c) 0.8 Ω (d) 1.0 Ω
14. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
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resistance of
(a) each of them increases (b) each of them decreases
(c) copper increases & germanium decreases (d)copper decreases & germanium increases
da

2
15. In Joule’s heating law, when R and t are constant, if the H is taken along the y axis and I along
the x axis, the graph is
(a) straight line (b) parabola (c) circle (d) ellipse
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Unit - 3 MAGNETISM AND MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. The magnetic field at the center O of the following current
loop is
w.
ww

2. An electron moves in a straight line inside a charged parallel plate capacitor of uniform charge
density σ The time taken by the electron to cross the parallel plate capacitor undeflected when
the plates of the capacitor are kept under constant magnetic field of induction 𝑩⃗⃗ is

3. A particle having mass m and charge q accelerated through a potential difference V. Find the
force experienced when it is kept under perpendicular magnetic field ⃗𝑩
⃗.

-3-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
4. A circular coil of radius 5 cm and 50 turns carries a current of 3 ampere. The magnetic dipole
moment of the coil is nearly
(a) 1.0 A m2 (b) 1.2 A m2 (c) 0.5 A m2 (d) 0.8 A m2
5. A thin insulated wire forms a plane spiral of N = 100 tight turns carrying a current I= 8 m A
(milli ampere). The radii of inside and outside turns are a= 50 mm and b= 100 mm respectively.
The magnetic induction at the center of the spiral is
(a) 5 μT (b) 7 μT (c) 8 μT (d) 10 μT
6. Three wires of equal lengths are bent in the form of loops. One of the loops is circle, another is
a semi-circle and the third one is a square. They are placed in a uniform magnetic field and
same electric current is passed through them. Which of the following loop configuration will
experience greater torque ?
(a) circle (b) semi-circle (c) square (d) all of them

et
7. Two identical coils, each with N turns and radius R are placed coaxially at a distance R as
shown in the figure. If I is the current passing through the loops in the same direction, then the
magnetic field at a point P at a distance of R/2 from the centre of each coil is

i.N
8.
la
A wire of length l carrying a current I along the Y direction is kept in a magnetic field given
sa
⃗⃗ =
by 𝑩 The magnitude of Lorentz force acting on the wire is-
da

9. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic moment pm is bent in the form

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of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be

(a) pm (b) 3/π pm
(c) 2/π pm (d) 1/2 pm
10. A non-conducting charged ring carrying a charge of q, mass m and radius r is rotated about its
w.

axis with constant angular speed ω. Find the ratio of its magnetic moment with angular
momentum is
(a) q/m (b) 2q/m (c) q/2m (d) q/4m
ww

11. The BH curve for a ferromagnetic material is shown in the figure.

The material is placed inside a long solenoid which contains 1000
turns/ cm. The current that should be passed in the solenoid to
demagnetize the ferromagnet completely is-
(a) 1.00 m A (b) 1.25 mA
(c) 1.50 mA (d) 1.75 mA
12. Two short bar magnets have magnetic moments 1.20 Am2 and 1.00 Am2 respectively. They are
kept on a horizontal table parallel to each other with their north poles pointing towards the
south. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0 cm. The
value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point O of the line joining their
centers is (Horizontal components of Earth’s magnetic induction is 3.6 x 10 -5 Wb m-2)
(a) 3.60 x 10-5 Wb m-2 (b) 3.5 x 10-5 Wb m-2
(c) 2.56 x 10-4 Wb m-2 (d) 2.2 x 10-4 Wb m-2

-4-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
13. The vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field at a place is equal to the horizontal
component. What is the value of angle of dip at this place?
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
14. A flat dielectric disc of radius R carries an excess charge on its surface. The surface charge
density is σ. The disc rotates about an axis perpendicular to its plane passing through the
centre with angular velocity ω. Find the magnitude of the torque on the disc if it is placed in a
uniform magnetic field whose strength is B which is directed perpendicular to the axis of
rotation
(a) 1/4 σωπ BR (b) 1/2 σωπ BR2 (c) 1/4 σωπ BR3 (d) 1/4 σωπ BR4
15. The potential energy of magnetic dipole whose dipole moment is kept
in uniform magnetic field ⃗⃗ = 𝟎. 𝟐 î 𝐓
𝐁
(a) - 0.1 J (b) - 0.8 J (c) 0.1 J (d) 0.8 J

et
Unit-4 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
1. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown in the figure.

i.N
The coil abed is adjacent to the path of the electron. What will be the
direction of current, if any, induced in the coil? (NEET-2015)
(а) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(b) No current will be induced (c) abcd (d) adcb

la
2. A thin semi-circular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with
its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in the
sa
figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its
speed v, is-(NEET 2014)
(a) Zero (b) Bvπr2/2 and P is at higher potential
da

(c) πrBv and R is at higher potential (d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
3. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by ΦB = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at
t = 3s is-
(a) -190 V (b) -10 V (c) 10 V (d) 190 V
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4. When the current changes from +2A to -2A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The co-
efficient of self-induction of the coil is-
(a) 0.2 H (b) 0.4 H (c) 0.8 H (d) 0.1 H
w.

5. The current i flowing in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced
emf with time would be- (NEET-2011)
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6. A circular coil with a cross-sectional area of 4 cm2 has 10 turns. It is placed at the centre of a
long solenoid that has 15 turns/cm and a cross-sectional area of 10 cm2. The axis of the coil
coincides with the axis of the solenoid. What is their mutual inductance?
(a) 7.54 μH (b) 8.54 μH (c) 9.54 μH (d) 10.54 μH
7. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary and the secondary are 410 and 1230,
respectively. If the current in primary is 6A, then that in the secondary coil is-
(a) 2 A (b) 18 A (c) 12 A (d) 1 A

-5-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
8. A step-down transformer reduces the supply voltage from 220 V to 11 V and increase the
current from 6 A to 100 A. Then its efficiency is-
(a) 1.2 (b) 0.83 (c) 0.12 (d) 0.9
9. In an electrical circuit, R, L, C and AC voltage source are all connected in series. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and current in the circuit
is π/3. Instead, if C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3. The power
factor of the circuit is- (NEET 2012)
(a) ½ (b) 1/√2 (c) 1 (d) √3/2
10. In a series RL circuit, the resistance and inductive reactance are the same. Then the phase
difference between the voltage and current in the circuit is-
(a) π/4 (b) π/2 (c) π/6 (d) zero
11. In a series resonant RLC circuit, the voltage across 100 Ω resistor is 40 V. The resonant

et
frequency ω is 250 rad/s. If the value of C is 4 μF, then the voltage across L is-
(a) 600 V (b) 4000 V (c) 400 V (d) 1 V

i.N
12. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source
of emf v = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in AC circuit is-
(a) 0.76 W (b) 0.89 W (c) 0.46 W (d) 0.67 W
𝟏
13. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltage in a circuit are i = sin(100πt) A

la
√𝟐
𝟏 𝝅
and v = sin (100πt+ 𝟑 ) V. The average power in watts consumed in the circuit is- (IIT Main 2012)
√𝟐
sa
(a) 1/4 (b) √3/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/8
14. In an oscillating LC circuit, the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the
capacitor when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields is -
da

(a) Q/2 (b) Q/√3 (c) Q/√2 (d) Q

2
15. 20/π H inductor is connected to a capacitor of capacitance C. The value of C in order to impart
maximum power at 50 Hz is -
(a) 50 μF (b) 0.5 μF (c) 500 μF (d) 5 μF
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Unit- 5 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

𝟏
1. The dimension of 𝝁 is
0 𝛆0
(a) [L T−1] (b) [L2 T−2] (c) [L−1 T] (d) [L−2 T2]
w.

2. If the amplitude of the magnetic field is 3 × 10−6 T, then amplitude of the electric field for a
electromagnetic waves is
(a) 100 V m−1 (b) 300 V m−1 (c) 600 V m−1 (d) 900 V m−1
ww

3. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations is used for viewing objects through fog
(a) microwave (b) gamma rays (c) X- rays (d) infrared
4. Which of the following is false for electromagnetic waves
(a) transverse (b) non-mechanical waves
(c) longitudinal (d) produced by accelerating charges
5. Consider an oscillator which has a charged particle oscillating about its mean position with a
frequency of 300 MHz. The wavelength of electromagnetic waves produced by this oscillator is
(a) 1 m (b) 10 m (c) 100 m (d) 1000 m
6. The electric and the magnetic fields, associated with an electromagnetic wave, propagating along
negative X axis can be represented by

-6-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
7. In an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space the rms value of the electric field is 3 V m −1.
The peak value of the magnetic field is
(a) 1.414 × 10−8 T (b) 1.0 × 10−8 T (c) 2.828 × 10−8 T (d) 2.0 × 10−8 T
8. An e.m. wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity 𝒗 ⃗ = 𝑣 î . The instantaneous
oscillating electric field of this e.m. wave is along +y-axis, then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the e.m. wave will be along:
(a) –y direction (b) –x direction (c) +z direction (d) –z direction
9. If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be modified?

et
i.N
10. Fraunhofer lines are an example of _______ spectrum.
(a) line emission (b) line absorption (c) band emission (d) band absorption
11. Which of the following is an electromagnetic wave?

la
(a) α - rays (b) β – rays (c) γ - rays (d) all of them
12. Which one of them is used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
(a) an accelerating charge (b) a charge moving with constant velocity
sa
(c) a stationary charge (d) an uncharged particle
6
13. If E = E0 sin[10 x -ωt] be the electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave, the value of ω is
(a) 0.3 × 10−14 rad s−1 (b) 3 × 10−14 rad s−1
da

(c) 0.3 × 1014 rad s−1 (d) 3 × 1014 rad s−1

14. Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?
(a) it transports energy (b) it transports momentum
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(c) it transports angular momentum

(d) in vacuum, it travels with different speeds which depend on their frequency
15. The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are
(a) in phase and perpendicular to each other
w.

(b) out of phase and not perpendicular to each other

(c) in phase and not perpendicular to each other
(d) out of phase and perpendicular to each other
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Unit- 6 RAY OPTICS

1. The speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on,
(a) its intensity (b) its wavelength
(c) the nature of propagation (d) the motion of the source w.r.t medium
2. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in
such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the
image is,
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 5cm (c) 10 cm (d) 15cm
3. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of focal length of f and the maximum and
minimum distance of an object from the mirror such that the image formed is real and
magnified.
(a) 2f and c (b) c and ∞ (c) f and O (d) None of these

-7-

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4. For light incident from air on a slab of refractive index 2, the maximum possible angle of
refraction is,
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900
5. If the velocity and wavelength of light in air is Va and λa and that in water is Vw and λw then the
refractive index of water is,
(a) Vw / Va (b) Va / Vw (c) λw / λa (d) Va λa / Vm λw
6. Stars twinkle due to,
(a) reflection (b) total internal reflection (c) refraction (d) polarisation
7. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a
plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index,
(a) less than one (b) less than that of glass
(c) greater than that of glass (d) equal to that of glass

et
8. The radius of curvature of curved surface at a thin planoconvex lens is 10 cm and the refractive
index is 1.5. If the plane surface is silvered, then the focal length will be,

i.N
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm
9. An air bubble in glass slab of refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when
viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness of
the slab is,
(a) 8 cm

la(b) 10 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 16 cm

10. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index n falls, on a surface
sa
separating the medium from air at an angle of incidents of 45 0. The ray can undergo total
internal reflection for the following n,
(a) n = 1.25 (b) n = 1.33 (c) n = 1.4 (d) n = 1.5
da

Unit- 7 WAVE OPTICS

1. A plane glass is placed over a various coloured letters (violet, green, yellow, red). The letter
which appears to be raised more is,
(a) red (b) yellow (c) green (d) violet
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2. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil
diameter 3 mm approximately. The maximum distance at which these dots can be resolved by
the eye is, [take wavelength of light, λ = 500 nm]
w.

(a) 1 m (b) 5 m (c) 3 m (d) 6m

3. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain the same
fringe spacing on the screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to,
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(a) 2D (b) D/2 (c) √2 D (d) D/ √2

4. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The
maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are
(a) 5I and I (b) 5I and 3I (c) 9I and I (d) 9I and 3I
-5
5. When light is incident on a soap film of thickness 5×10 cm, the wavelength of light reflected
maximum in the visible region is 5320 Å. Refractive index of the film will be,
(a) 1.22 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.51 (d) 1.83.
6. First diffraction minimum due to a single slit of width 1.0×10 cm is at 30o. Then wavelength
–5

of light used is,

(a) 400 A0 (b) 500 A0 (c) 600 A0 (d) 700 A0
0
7. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60 . If the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is,
3 3
(a) √3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) 2

-8-

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8. One of the of Young’s double slits is covered with a glass plate as
shown in figure. The position of central maximum will,
(a) get shifted downwards (b) get shifted upwards
(c) will remain the same (d) data insufficient to conclude
9. Light transmitted by Nicol prism is,
(a) partially polarised (b) unpolarised (c) plane polarised (d) elliptically polarized
10. The transverse nature of light is shown in,
(a) interference (b) diffraction (c) scattering (d) polarization
Unit- 8 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
1. The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by
1
a) λp  λe b) λp  √𝜆𝑒 c) λp  d) λp  𝜆2𝑒
√𝜆 𝑒

et
2. In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage is
changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
a) increase by 2 times b) decrease by 2 times

i.N
c) decrease by 4 times d) increase by 4 times
3. The wave associated with a moving particle of mass 3 × 10-6 g has the same wavelength as an
electron moving with a velocity 6x 106 m s-1. The velocity of the particle is
a) 1.82x 10-18 m s-1 b) 9x 10-2 m s-1 c) 3 x 10-31 m s-1 d) 1.82x 10-15 m s-1
4.
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When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ , the stopping potential
is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ , the stopping potential
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is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
a) 4λ b) 5λ c) 5/2 λ d) 3λ
5. If a light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on a metal with work function 3.55 eV, the electrons
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are emitted. Then the wavelength of the wave associated with the emitted electron is
(Take h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js)
a) < 2.75x10-9m b)  2.75x10-9m c)  2.75x10-12m d) < 2.75x10-10m
6. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ
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and λ/2. If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3
times that in the first case, the work function of the material is
a) hc/ λ b) 2hc/ λ c) hc /3 λ d) hc/ 2λ
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7. In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose frequency is 4 times threshold frequency of a

certain metal is incident on the metal. Then the maximum possible velocity of the emitted
electron will be
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ℎ𝑣 6ℎ𝑣0 ℎ𝑣 ℎ𝑣
a) √ 𝑚0 b) √ c) 2 √ 𝑚0 d) √ 2𝑚0
𝑚
8. Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV and 3.3 eV respectively are falling on a metallic
surface successively. If the work function of the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons in the two cases will be
a) 1:4 b) 1:3 c) 1:1 d) 1:9
15
9. A light source of wavelength 520 nm emits 1.04 × 10 photons per second while the second
source of 460 nm produces 1.38 × 1015 photons per second. Then the ratio of power of second
source to that of first source is
a)1.00 b) 1.02 c) 1.5 d) 0.98
10. If the mean wavelength of light from sun is taken as 550 nm and its mean power as 3.8×1026W,
then the number of photons emitted per second from the sun is of the order of
a) 1045 b) 1042 c) 1054 d) 1051

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
11. The threshold wavelength for a metal surface whose photoelectric work function is 3.313 eV is
a) 4125 Å b) 3750 Å c) 6000 Å d) 2062.5 Å
12. A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a sensitive metal plate of photoelectric work
function 1.235 eV. The kinetic energy of the photo electrons emitted is (Take h= 6.6×10-34 Js)
a) 0.58 eV b) 2.48 eV c) 1.24 eV d) 1.16 eV
13. Photons of wavelength λ are incident on a metal. The most energetic electrons ejected from
the metal are bent into a circular arc of radius R by a perpendicular magnetic field having
magnitude B. The work function of the metal is
ℎ𝑐 𝑒 2 𝐵 2 𝑅2 ℎ𝑐 𝑒𝐵𝑅
a) − 𝑚𝑒 + b) + 2𝑚𝑒 + [ 2 𝑚 ]2
λ 2 𝑚𝑒 λ 𝑒
ℎ𝑐 2 𝑒 2 𝐵2 𝑅2 ℎ𝑐 𝑒𝐵𝑅
c) − 𝑚𝑒 𝑐 − d) − 2𝑚𝑒 [ 2 𝑚 ]2
λ 2 𝑚𝑒 λ 𝑒
14. The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV respectively. The

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metal/metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100Å is/are
a) A only b) both A and B c) all these metals d) none
15. Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is called………emission.

i.N
a) photoelectric b) field c) thermionic d) secondary
Unit- 9 ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS
1. Suppose an alpha particle accelerated by a potential of V volt is allowed to collide with a

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nucleus whose atomic number Z, then the distance of closest approach of alpha particle to the
nucleus is
𝑍 𝑉 𝑍 𝑉
(a) 14.4 𝑉 Å (b) 14.4 𝑍 Å (c) 1.44 𝑉 Å (d) 1.44 𝑍 Å
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2. In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolving in the fourth orbit, has angular momentum equal to
(a) h (b) h/π (c) 4h/π (d) 2h/π
3. Atomic number of H-like atom with ionization potential 122.4 V for n = 1 is
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(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

4. The ratio between the radius of first three orbits of hydrogen atom is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 4 : 6 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
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5. The charge of cathode rays particle is

(a) positive (b) negative (c) neutral (d) not defined
6. In J.J. Thomson e/m experiment, electrons are accelerated through 2.6 kV enter the region of
crossed electric field and magnetic field of strength 3.0x10 4 Vm-1 and 1.0x10-3 T, respectively,
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and pass through it and undeflected, then the specific charge is

(a) 1.6x1010 Ckg-1 (b) 1.7x1011 Ckg-1 (c) 1.5x1011 Ckg-1 (d) 1.8x1011 Ckg-1
7. The ratio of the wavelengths radiation emitted for the transition from n =2 to n = 1 in Li++,
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He+ and H is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 : 9 (c) 3 : 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 9 : 36
𝒓
8. The electric potential of an electron is given by V = V0 In (𝒓 ), where r0 is a constant. If Bohr atom
𝟎
model is valid, then variation of radius of nth orbit rn with the principal quantum number n is
(a) rn ∝ 1/n (b) rn ∝ n (c) rn ∝ 1/n2 (d) rn ∝ n2
9. If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 4.8 (d) 3.6
10. The nucleus is approximately spherical in shape. Then the surface area of nucleus having mass
number A varies as
(a) A2/3 (b) A4/3 (c) A1/3 (d) A5/3
11. The mass of a 𝟕𝟑𝑳𝒊 nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The
average binding energy per nucleon of 𝟕𝟑𝑳𝒊 nucleus is nearly
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV (c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV
-10-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
12. Mp denotes the mass of the proton and Mn denotes mass of a neutron. A given nucleus of
binding energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M (N, Z) of the nucleus is given
by (where c is the speed of light)
(a) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 (b) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
2
(c) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B / c (d) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B / c2
13. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z) emits two α particles and 2
positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of proton in the final nucleus will be
A−Z−4 A−Z−2 A−Z−4 A−Z−12
(a) Z−2 (b) Z−6 (c) Z−6 (d) Z−4
14. The half-life period of a radioactive element A is same as the mean life time of another
radioactive element B. Initially both have the same number of atoms. Then
(a) A and B have the same decay rate initially (b) A and B decay at the same rate always
(c) B will decay at faster rate than A (d) A will decay at faster rate than B.

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15. A radioactive element of N0 number of nuclei at t = 0. The number of nuclei remaining after half
𝟏
of a half-life (that is, at time t = 𝑻𝟏 )
𝟐 𝟐

i.N
(a) N0/2 (b) N0/√2 (c) N0/4 (d) N0/8
Unit- 10 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION
1. The barrier potential of a silicon diode is approximately,
a) 0.7 V b) 0.3V c) 2.0 V d) 2.2V

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2. If a small amount of antimony (Sb) is added to germanium crystal,
a) it becomes a p-type semiconductor b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
sa
c) there will be more free electrons than hole in the semiconductor
d) its resistance is increased
3. In an unbiased p-n junction, the majority charge carriers (that is, holes) in the p-region diffuse
da

into n-region because of

a) the potential difference across the p-n junction
b) the higher hole concentration in p-region than that in n-region
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c) the attraction of free electrons of n-region d) All of the above

4. If a positive half –wave rectified voltage is fed to a load resistor, for which part of a cycle there
will be current flow through the load?
a) 00–900 b) 900–1800 c) 00–1800 d) 00–3600
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5. The zener diode is primarily used as

a) Rectifier b) Amplifier c) Oscillator d) Voltage regulator
6. The principle based on which a solar cell operates is
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a) Diffusion b) Recombination c) Photovoltaic action d) Carrier flow

7. The light emitted in an LED is due to
a) Recombination of charge carriers b) Reflection of light due to lens action
c) Amplification of light falling at the junction d) Large current capacity.
8. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
i) type of semiconductor material ii) amount of doping iii) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) only c) (ii) and (iii) only d) (i) (ii) and (iii)
9. To obtain sustained oscillation in an oscillator,
a) Feedback should be positive b) Feedback factor must be unity
c) Phase shift must be 0 or 2π d) All the above
10. If the input to the NOT gate is A = 1011, its output is
a) 0100 b) 1000 c) 1100 d) 0011

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170
11. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

12. The given electrical network is equivalent to

a) AND gate b) OR gate
c) NOR gate d) NOT gate

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13. The output of the following circuit is 1 when the input ABC is
a) 101 b) 100
c) 110 d) 010

i.N
14. The variation of frequency of carrier wave with respect to the amplitude of the modulating
signal is called
a) Amplitude modulation b) Frequency modulation

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c) Phase modulation d) Pulse width modulation
15. The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is used for
a) Ground wave propagation b) Space wave propagation
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c) Sky wave propagation d) Satellite communication
Unit- 11 RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN PHYSICS
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1. The particle size of ZnO material is 30 nm. Based on the dimension it is classified as
a) Bulk material b) Nanomaterial c) Soft material d) Magnetic material
2. Which one of the following is the natural nanomaterial.
a) Peacock feather b) Peacock beak c) Grain of sand d) Skin of the Whale
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3. The blue print for making ultra durable synthetic material is mimicked from
a) Lotus leaf b) Morpho butterfly c) Parrot fish d) Peacock feather
4. The method of making nanomaterial by assembling the atoms is called
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a) Top down approach b) Bottom up approach

c) Cross down approach d) Diagonal approach
5. “Ski wax” is an application of nano product in the field of
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a) Medicine b) Textile c) Sports d) Automotive industry

6. The materials used in Robotics are
a) Aluminium and silver b) Silver and gold c) Copper and gold d) Steel and aluminum
7. The alloys used for muscle wires in Robots are
a) Shape memory alloys b) Gold copper alloys
c) Gold silver alloys d)Two dimensional alloys
8. The technology used for stopping the brain from processing pain is
a) Precision medicine b) Wireless brain sensor c) Virtual reality d) Radiology
9. The particle which gives mass to protons and neutrons are
a) Higgs particle b) Einstein particle c) Nanoparticle d) Bulk particle
10. The gravitational waves were theoretically proposed by
a) Conrad Rontgen b) Marie Curie c) Albert Einstein d) Edward Purcell

-12-

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VASAN INSTITUTE West Mambalam, Chennai-600 033 Cell : 9710621952 / 8825971170

ANSWERS

Unit- 1 ELECTROSTATICS Unit- 7 WAVE OPTICS

Unit- 8
Unit- 2 CURRENT ELECTRICITY DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

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i.N
Unit - 3 MAGNETISM AND MAGNETIC Unit- 9 ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS
EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

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sa
da

Unit - 4 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND Unit- 10

ALTERNATING CURRENT ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION
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w.

Unit- 5 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES Unit- 11

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN PHYSICS
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Unit- 6 RAY OPTICS

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