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BMNT TEST SERIES

PART TEST – 1
WEDNESDAY, 15th JAN, 2025

TIME: 3 HRS 20 MINS MAXIMUM MARKS: 720

Name of the Candidate (In capitals):__________________________

Registration Number : __________________________
Centre of Examination (In Capitals):__________________________
Candidate’s Signature :___________________________
Invigilator’s Signature :___________________________

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Duration: 200 Minutes MARKS: 720

Important Instructions:
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are
directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the Particulars on OFFICE Copy carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet
contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology(Botany and
Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A
and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each
subject (Question Nos 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All
questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each
subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of
15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of
Section B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten
questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the
candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will
be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in
the Test Booklet only.

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SYLLABUS
SYLLABUS

PHYSICS: Basics Maths, Motion in 1D, Motion in 2D

CHEMISTRY: Mole Concept, Atomic structure

BIOLOGY: Reproduction is Flowering plants,

Human reproduction, Reproductive Health,
Eco system

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PHYSICS: Section-A 2) Momentum

3) Angular momentum
𝟏+𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟒𝒕
(1). ∫ 𝒅𝒕 4) Power
𝟐

1) +
𝑡 Sin 4𝑡 (5). Thickness of a pencil
2 8 measured by using a screw
sin 4𝑡
2) 𝑡 + +𝐶 gauge (least count .001 cm)
8
𝑡 Sin 4𝑡 comes out to be 0.802 cm. The
3) + +𝐶
2 8
sin 4𝑡 percentage error in the
4) 𝑡 + +𝐶 measurement is
4
1)0.125%
(2). If 𝒚 = 𝟓 𝐜𝐨𝐬 −𝟒 𝒙. Then find
𝒅𝒚
2) 2.43%
𝒅𝒙 3) 4.12%
1) 20 sin 𝑥 cos −5 𝑥 4) 2.14%
2) −20 sin 𝑥 cos−5 𝑥
(6). Two vectors, each of
3) 10 sin x cos−5 x
magnitude A have a resultant
4) −10 sin 𝑥 cos−5 𝑥
of same magnitude 𝑨. The
(3). The velocity 𝒗 of a particle angle between the two vectors
at time 𝒕 is given by 𝒗 = 𝒂𝒕 + is
𝒃
, where 𝒂, 𝒃 and 𝒄 are 1) 30∘
𝒕+𝒄
2) 60∘
constants. The dimensions of
3) 120∘
𝒂, 𝒃 and 𝒄 are
4) 150∘
1) L, LT and LT-2
2) LT-2, L and T (7). A force 𝑭 is applied on a
3) L2, T and LT 2 square area of side L. If the
4) LT2, LT and L percentage error in the
(4). The dimensions of Planck's measurement of 𝑳 is 𝟐% and
that in 𝑭 is 𝟒%, what is the
constant equals to that of
maximumpercentage error in
1) Energy

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pressure?

1) 2%
2) 4%
3) 6%
4) 8% 1. 𝐴 − 5, 𝑏 − 𝑐, 𝑐 − 𝑞, 𝑑 − 𝑝
(8). Match the physical 2. A − q, b − p, c − c, d − s
quantities given in column-I 3. A − c, b − q, c − p, d − q
with dimensions in column-II
4. A-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(10). Find the thickness of the
cubical object using the
defective vernier caliper. The
main scale has mm marks and
10 divisions of vernier scale
coincide with 9 divisions of
1. A − t, b − p, c − q, d − u, e −
main scale.
s
2. A − q, b − r, c − p, d − t, e −
s
3. 𝑎 − 𝑞, 𝑏 − 𝑝, 𝑐 − 𝑡, 𝑑 − 𝑐, 𝑒 −
1. 13.8 mm
𝑠
2. 13.5 mm
4. A-t, b-s, c-q, d-p, e-r
3. 14.1 mm
(9). Match column-I with
column-II and choose the 4. 13.0 mm
correct Combination from the (11). A body travels uniformly
options given. a distance of (𝟏𝟑. 𝟖 ± 𝟎. 𝟐)𝐦 in
a time (𝟒. 𝟎 ± 𝟎. 𝟑) 𝐬. The

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velocity of the body within need not be zero at that instant.

errur limits is Reason: In motion under
gravity, the velocity of body is
1. (3.45 ± 0.2)ms −1
zero at the top-most point.
2. (3.45 ± 0.3)ms −1 1) If both Assertion and reason
3. (3.45 ± 0.4)ms −1 and true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the
4. (3.45 ± 0.5)ms −1
Assertion
(12). The pitch of a screw
gauge is 1 mm and there are 50 2) If both Assertion and reason
divisions on its cap. When are true but the reason is not the
nothing is put in between the correct explanation of the
studs, 𝟒𝟒
th
division of the Assertion
circular scale coincides with 3) If Assertion is true but Reason
the reference line, and zero of is false.
the main scale is not visible. 4) If both Assertion and Reason
When a glass plate is placed are false.
between the studs, the main (14) Find the sum of given
scale reads three divisions and arithmetic progression 𝟒 + 𝟖 +
the circular scale reads 26 𝟏𝟐 + ⋯ + 𝟔𝟒.
divisions. Calculate the 1) 964
thickness of the plate. 2) 540
1. 3.64 mm 3) 544
4) 646
2. 2.64 mm
(15). The amount of heat
3. 2.64 cm energy 𝑸, used to heat up a
4. 3.64 cm substance depends on its mass
(13). Assertion: when the 𝒎, its specific heat capacity (s)
velocity of an object is wero at and the change in temperature
an instant, the acceleration T of the substance. Using
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dimensional method, find the 24

3) sin−1
25
expression for 𝒔 is (Given that −1 25
4) sin
[s] = [L 2 T -2 K -1] is 24

1) Q m ∆ T (17). Statement-1: All Reliable

2) Q / m  T digits plus first uncertain digit,
𝑄m together are called significant
3)
∆𝑇 figures or digits.
𝑚
4) Statement -2: Trailing zero (s)
Q∆t
in a number with decimal point
(16). Width of a river is 60 m. are never significant.
A Swimmer wants to cross the
river such that he reaches from 1. Both statement-1 and
𝑨 to B directly, point B is 45 m statement -2 are true.
ahead of line AC 2. Both statement-1 and
(perpendicular to river). statement-2 are false.
Assume speed of river and
3. Statement-1 is true but
speed of swimmer as equal.
statement-2 is false.
Swimmer must try to swim at
angle  with line AC. Find the 4. Statement-1 is false but
statement-2 is true.
value of 𝜽 in degree.
(18). In a vernier calipers, the
smallest division of main scale
is 1 mm. Vernier scale has 20
divisions which coincide with
19 divisions of main scale.
24 When fixed jaw touches a
1)cos−1
25 movable jaw, zero of vernier
25
2) cos−1 scale lies on right of zero of the
24
main scale and 12th division of
vernier scale coincides with any
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division of main scale. Type of (d) Young's modulus

zero error and its value is (e) Magnetic field

1. +ve, 0.60 mm 1) (a) and (e)

2. −ve, 0.60mm 2) (b) and (d)
3) (c) and (e)
3. +ve, 0.6mm
4) (a) and (d)
4. −𝑣𝑒, 0.6mm
(21). Match the columns.
(19). A ball is projected from
the ground with velocity 𝒗 such
that its range is maximum.

1. A-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

2. A-iii, b-ii, ci, d-iv
3. A-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
4. A-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(20). Which two of the 1) 𝑎 − 𝑝, 𝑏 − 𝑞, 𝑐 − 𝑟, 𝑑 − 𝑠
following five physical
2) 𝑎 − 𝑟, 𝑏 − 𝑝, 𝑐 − 𝑞, 𝑑 − 𝑠
parameters have the same
dimensions? 3) 𝑎 − 𝑠, 𝑏 − 𝑟, 𝑐 − 𝑝, 𝑑 − 𝑞
(a) Energy density 4) 𝑎 − 𝑞, 𝑏 − 𝑠, 𝑐 − 𝑝, 𝑑 − 𝑟
(b) Refractive index
(22). Which one of the
(c) Dielectric constant
following statements is not true

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about the motion of a straight line is shown in figure.

projectile? The total distance travelled by
1) The time of flight of a it in time 𝒕 = 𝟎 to 𝒕 = 𝟏𝟎𝐬 is
projectile is proportional to the
speed with which it is projected
at a given angle of projection
2) The horizontal range of a
projectile is proportional to the
square root of the speed with 1) zero
which it is projected 2) 10 m
3) For a gives speed of 3) 20 m
projection, the angle of 4) 80 m
projection for maximum range is
45∘ (25). A ball is thrown upward
4) At maximum height, the with speed 10 m/s from the top
acceleration due to gravity is of the tower reaches the
perpendicular to the velocity of ground with a speed 20 m/s.
the projectile The height of the tower is
𝟏𝟎𝐦
(23). If v is the velocity of a [Take 𝐠 = ]
𝐬𝟐
body moving along x-axis, then 1) 10 m
acceleration of body is 2) 15 m
𝑑𝑣 3) 20 m
1)
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑣 4) 25 m
2) 𝑣
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑢 (26). A body travels uniformly
3) 𝑥
𝑑𝑥 a distance of (𝟏𝟑. 𝟖 ± 𝟎. 𝟐) m
𝑑𝑥
4) 𝑣
𝑑𝑣
in a time (𝟒. 𝟎 ± 𝟎. 𝟑)𝐬. The
velocity of the body within
(24). The position-time graph error limits is
for a particle moving along a
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1. (3.45 ± 0.2)ms −1 speed

𝟑√𝟑𝐦
from south to
𝐬
2. (3.45 ± 0.3)ms −1 north. In order to protect
3. (3.45 ± 0.4)ms −1 himself from rain, a man
standing on the ground should
4. (3.45 ± 0.5)ms −1
hold his umbrella at an angle
(27). Assertion: Magnitude of
average velocity is equal to 1. 𝜃 = 30∘ with vertical towards
average speed if velocity is south
uniform. 2. θ = 30∘ with vertical towards
Reason: If velocity is uniform, north
then there is no change in the 3. θ = 60∘ with vertical towards
direction of motion. south
1. If both assertion and reason 4. 𝜃 = 60∘ with vertial towards
are true and the reason is the north
correct explanation of the
(29) A particle is thrown with
assertion.
any velocity vertically upward,
2. If both assertion and reason
are true, but reason is not the the distance travelled by the
correct explanation of the particle in first second of its
assertion.
decent is
3. If assertion is true, but reason
1) g
is false.
𝑔
4. If assertion is false, but reason 2)
2
is true. 𝑔
3)
4
(28). Rain is falling vertically
𝟗𝐦 4) cannot be calculated
downward with a speed of .
𝐬
After sometime, wind starts (30). A particle is at position
blowing horizontally with 𝒙 = 𝟓𝐦 at 𝒕 = 𝟎 𝐬. If he

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reaches 𝒙 = 𝟐𝟓𝐦 at 𝐭 = 𝟓 𝐬, (32). A bird flying with a speed

then the average speed of the 𝟏𝟎𝐦
of along a vector (−𝟑𝒊 +
𝐬
particle in those 5 seconds
𝟒𝒋). If initial position of bird is
1.
4m (𝟏𝟐𝐦, 𝟏𝟎𝐦, 𝟓𝐦), then find the
s
𝒙-coordinate (in m) after the 2
5m
2. s.
s
6m
3. 1. 1
s

4. Cannot be answered without 2. 0

the knowledge of the path 3. 2
31.which of the following graph 4. None of these
does not represent retardation? (33). A river is flowing from
𝟓𝐦
[𝝊: velocity, 𝒕: time, 𝒙: west to East at a speed of .A
𝐦𝐢𝐧
position] man on the south bank of the
river, capable of swimming at
𝟏𝟎𝐦
in still water, wants to
𝐦𝐢𝐧
1) swim across the river in the
shortest time. He should swim
in a direction
1) Due North
2) 2) 30∘ East of North
3) 30∘ West of North
4) 60∘ East of North
3)
(34) The paths of three
projectiles are shown in the
4) none of these figure. Which projectile spends
the most time in air?

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𝑹𝟐
horizontal level. Then, + 𝟐𝒉
𝟖𝒉
represents

1. The maximum horizontal

range
1. Projectile 𝐴 2. The maximum vertical range
2. Projectile B 3. time of flight
3. Projectile C 4. Velocity of projectile at the
4. All three projectiles spend the highest point
same amount of time in the air (37). Which of the following
(35) speed-time (v-t) graphs is
physically not possible?
1)

2)

PHYSICS: Section-B

(36). If 𝑹 and h if represent the

3)
horizontal range and
maximum height, respectively,
of an oblique projection, whose
starting point i.e. Point of
projection) and the end point
of projection lie in the same 4) All of these

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(38). A ball is thrown upwards. according to the equation 𝒙 =

It returns to ground describing 𝟖 − 𝟒𝒕 + 𝟔𝒕𝟐 . The distance
a parabolic path. Which of the covered by particle between
following remains constant? 𝟐
𝒕 = 𝟎 to 𝒕 = 𝐬𝐞𝐜 is
𝟑
1) Speed of the ball
2) Kinetic energy of the ball 1) Zero
3) Vertical component of 8
2) m
3
velocity
4) Horizontal component of 3) 8 m
velocity. 4
4) m
3
(39). Statement-1: All reliable
(41). In an experiment four
digits plus first uncertain digit,
quantities 𝒂, 𝒃, 𝒄 and
together are called significant
d are measured with
figures or digits.
percentage error 𝟏%,
Statement-2; Trailing zero (s)
𝟐%, 𝟑% and 𝟒%
in a number with decimal point
respectively. Quantity p is
are never significant.
calculated as follows: 𝑷 =
1. Both statement-1 and 𝒂𝟑 𝒃𝟐
% error in 𝑷 is
𝒄𝒅
statement-2 are true.
1) 10%
2. Both statement-1 and 2) 7%
statement-2 are false. 3) 4%
3. Statement-1 is true but 4) 14%
statement-2 is false. (42). The velocity of a projectile
4. Statement-1 is false but at the initial point 𝑨 is (𝟐𝐢̇ˆ +
statement-2 is true. 𝟑𝐣̇ˆ)𝐦/𝐬. Its velocity
(40). A particle moves along 𝒙- (in 𝐦/𝐬 ) at point 𝑩 is
axis in such a way that its 𝒙-
coordinate varies with time
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1) 2i̇ˆ + 3j̇ˆ 3) Horizontal velocity

4) None of these
2) −2i̇ˆ − 3j̇ˆ
(45). The velocity of a body
3) −2i̇ˆ + 3j̇ˆ
depends on time according to
4) 2i̇ˆ − 3j̇ˆ 𝒕𝟐
the equation 𝒗 = + 𝟐𝟎. The
𝟏𝟎
(43). A train moves in north body is undergoing
direction with a speed of 1) Uniform acceleration
𝟓𝟒𝐤𝐦/𝐡. A monkey is running 2) Uniform retardation
on the roof of the train, against 3) Non-uniform acceleration
its motion with a velocity of 4) Zero acceleration
𝟏𝟖𝐤𝐦/𝐡 with respect to train.
(46). A Body is thrown
The velocity of monkey as
vertically upwards with an
observed by a man standing on
initial velocity 𝟐𝟎𝐦/𝐬. When it
the ground is:
reaches the highest point of the
1) 5m/s due south
trajectory, another body is
2) 25m/s due south
thrown up from the same
3) 10m/s due south
initial point with the same
4) 10m/s due north
initial velocity.
(44). In the graph shown in 1) Height at which they will
figure, which quantity meet is 10 m
associated with projectile 2) Speed of first body just before
motion is plotted along 𝐲-axis collision is 20m/s
3) Speed of second body just
before collision is 10m/s
4) Relative acceleration of
bodies before they collide is not
zero.
1) Kinetic energy (47). A balloon is descending
2) Momentum with constant speed of 𝟐𝟎𝐦/𝐬.
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A stone (in free fall) moving Reason :Time of flight does not
upward with speed 𝟐𝟎𝐦/𝐬 depend on velocity of
crosses balloon at 𝒕 = 𝟎. Find projection.
time ' 𝒕 ' (in sec) after which 1) If both assertion and reason
stone again passes by balloon. are true and the reason is the
(𝐠 = 𝟏𝟎𝐦/𝐬𝟐 ) correct explanation of the
1) 4 assertion.
2) 5
2) If both assertion and reason
3) 7
are true, but reason is not the
4) 8
correct explanation of the
(48) The slope of graph as assertion.
shown in the figure at point 1,2
3) If assertion is true, but reason
and 3 is 𝒎𝟏 , 𝒎𝟐 and
is false.
𝒎𝟑 respectively then
4) If assertion is false, but reason
is true.
(50). Displacement-time graph
of an object moving along 𝒙-
axis is given. Select the correct
statement regarding it.
1) 𝑚1 > 𝑚2 > 𝑚3
2) 𝑚1 < 𝑚2 < 𝑚3
3) 𝑚1 = 𝑚2 = 𝑚3
4) 𝑚1 = 𝑚3 > 𝑚2
(i) In𝑂𝐴 region, both 𝑣 and 𝑎
(49). Assertion: when the are positive.
velocity of projection of a body
(ii) In 𝐴𝐵 region, both 𝑣 and 𝑎
is made 𝒏 times, its time of
are zero.
flight becomes 𝒏 times.
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(iii) In region 𝐵𝐶𝐷, both 𝑣 and (52). Atomic number and mass
𝑎 are negative. number of an element 𝑴 are 25
(iv) In region 𝐷𝐸, v is negative and 52 respectively. The
and acceleration is positive. number of electrons, protons
and neutrons in 𝐌𝟐+ ion are
1) (I) And (III)
respectively
2) (I) And (IV) 1) 25,25 and 27
3) (III) And (IV) 2) 25,27 and 25
3) 27, 25 and 27
4) (I) And (II)
4) 23, 25 and 27
CHEMISTRY: Section-A
(53). Isoelectronic species are
(51). Assertion (A): One atomic
(1)
mass unit is defined as one
twelfth of the mass of one (2)
carbon- 12 atom.
Reason (R): Carbon-12 isotope (3)
is the most abundant isotope of
carbon and has been chosen as (4)
standard. (54). Match the following.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is not the correct explanation
of(A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

4) Both (A) and (R) are false. 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

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4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 2) Total mass of reactants =

(55). What is the mass percent total mass of product; therefore,
of carbon in carbon dioxide? law of multiple proportions is
followed
1) 0.034%
3) Amount of Fe2 O3 can be
2) 27.27%
increased by taking any one of
3) 3.4% the reactants (iron or oxygen) in
4) 28.7% excess
(56). The empirical formula 4) Amount of fe2 O3 produced
and molecular mass of will decrease if the amount of
compound are 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐎 and 180 g any one of the reactants (iron or
respectively. What will be the oxygen) is taken in excess
molecular formula of the (58). Which statement is
compound? incorrect regarding Dalton's
1) C9H18O9 atomic Theory?
2) CH20 1) Matter consists of indivisible
atoms
3) C6H12O6
2) All atoms of a given element
4) C2H4O2
have identical properties
(57). Which of the following
3) Compounds are formed when
statements is correct about the
atoms of different elements
reaction given below?
combine in a fixed ratio
𝟒𝐅𝐞(𝐬) + 𝟑𝐎𝟐(𝐠) → 𝟐𝐅𝐞𝟐 𝐎𝟑(𝐬)
4) Atoms are either created or
1) Total mass of iron and
destroyed in a chemical reaction
oxygen in reactants = total mass
of iron and oxygen in product (59) Fr the following reaction,
therefore it follows law of pick out the incorrect
conservation of mass interpretations ?
𝟐𝐀(𝐠) + 𝐁(𝐠) ⟶ 𝟒𝐂(𝐠) + 𝐃(𝐠)
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1) 2 moles of 𝐴 and 1 mole of 𝐵 (61). The number of electrons

reacts to form 4 moles of 𝐶 and 1 present in 9.5 g of 𝐩𝐨𝟒 𝟑− is
mole of 𝐷 1) 6
2) 2 gm of 𝐴 and 1 gm of 𝐵 2) 5NA
reacts to give 4 gm of 𝐶 and 1
3) 0.1 NA
gm of 𝐷
4) 4.7 NA
3) 2 molecules of 𝐴 and 1
molecule of 𝐵 reacts to give 4 (62) When 22.4 litres of 𝐇𝟐 (𝐠)
molecules of 𝐶 and 1 molecule of is mixed with 𝟏𝟏. 𝟐 litres of
𝐷 𝐂𝐥𝟐 (𝐠), each at S.T.P., the
moles of 𝐇𝐂𝐥(𝐠) formed is
4) 2 vol. Of 𝐴 and 1 vol. Of 𝐵
equal to:
reacts to give 4 vol. Of C and 1
vol. Of D (at STP) 1) 1 mole of HCl(g)
2) 2 moles of HCl (g)
(60). Assertion (A) :
3) 0.5 moles of HCl(g)
combustion of 16 g of methane
4) 1.5 moles of HCl(g)
gives 18 g of water.
Reason (R) : in the combustion (63). The amount of sugar
of methane, water is one of the (𝐜𝟏𝟐 𝐇𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝟏𝟏 ) required to
products. prepare 𝟐 𝐋 of its 0.1 M
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and aqueous solution is
(R) is the correct explanation of 1) 17.1 g
(A) 2) 68.4 g
3) 136.8 g
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and 4) 34.2 g
(R) is not the correct explanation (64). 𝐒𝐨𝟐 𝐂𝐥𝟐 on reaction with
of (A) excess of water results into
3) (A) is true but (R) is false acidic mixture
4) Both (A) and (R) are false. 𝐒𝐎𝟐 𝐂𝐥𝟐 + 𝟐𝐇𝟐 𝐨 → 𝐇𝟐 𝐒𝐨𝟒 +
𝟐𝐇𝐂𝐥
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16 moles of NaOHis required the correct explanation of

for the complete neutralisation statement I
of the resultant acidic mixture. 3) Statement I is correct;
The number of moles of 𝐒𝐨𝟐 𝐂𝐥𝟐 statement II is incorrect
used is 4) Statement I is incorrect;
1) 16 statement II is correct
2) 8
3) 4 (67). The maximum number of
4) 2 molecules is present in
(65). The empirical formula of 1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
an oxide of iron which has 2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
𝟔𝟗. 𝟗% iron and 𝟑𝟎. 𝟏% 3) 0.5 g of H2 gas
oxygen by mass is 4) 10 g of O2 gas

1) Fe2 O3
(68). Which of the following
2) FeO
orbital is with the four lobes
3) Fe3 O4
present on the axis?
4) Fe3 O2
1) 𝑑𝑧 2
2) dxy
(66). Statement I: The first
3) 𝑑𝑦𝑧
Ionisation energy of Be is
greater than that of B. 4) 𝑑𝑥 2 −𝑦2
Statement II : 2p-orbital is (69). Suppose the elements 𝑿
lower in energy than 2s. and 𝒀 combine to form two
1) Both statement I and compounds 𝑿𝒀𝟐 and 𝑿𝟑 𝒀𝟐 .
statement II are correct; When 0.1 mole of 𝑿𝒀𝟐 weighs
statement II is the correct 10 g and 0.05 mole of 𝑿𝟑 𝒀𝟐
explanation of statement I weighs 9 𝒈, the atomic weights
2) Both statement I and statement of 𝑿 and 𝒀 are
II are correct; statement II is not 1) 40,30
2) 60,40
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3) 20,30 cannot be less than a finite

4) 30,20 limit.
(70). 20.0 g of a magnesium 1) Assertion is correct, reason is
carbonate sample decomposes correct; reason is a correct
on heating to give carbon explanation for assertion.
dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium
2) Assertion is correct, reason is
oxide. What will be the
correct, reason is not a correct
percentage purity of
explanation for assertion
magnesium carbonate in the
sample? (At. Wt. :Mg=24) 3) Assertion is correct, reason is
1) 60 incorrect
2) 84 4) Assertion is incorrect, reason
3) 75 is correct.
4) 96
(73). Match the atoms/ions with
(71). Among the following, the
the characteristics of the
energy of 2s orbital lowest in :
electron they contain.
1) 𝐾
2) H
3) Li
4) Na
(72). Assertion: The position of
an electron can be determined
exactly with the help of an
electron microscope. 1) A-r, B-q, C-p,t, D-s
Reason: The product of 2) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-t
uncertainty in the 3) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-s
measurement of itsmomentum
4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
and the uncertainty in the
measurement of the position
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(74). Consider the reaction 4) All the quantum numbers (

𝟒𝐇𝐍𝐎𝟑 (𝐥) + 𝟑𝐊𝐂𝐥(𝐬) → n, 𝑙, m, s ) are required to
𝐂𝐥𝟐 (𝐠) + 𝐍𝐎𝐂𝐥(𝐠) describe an electron of an atom
𝟐𝐇𝟐 𝐎(𝐠) + 𝟑𝐊𝐍𝐎𝟑 (𝐬)the completely
amount of 𝐡𝐧𝐨𝟑 required to (76). Match the orbitals the
produce 110.0 g of 𝐤𝐧𝐨𝟑 is: number of nodes/ quantum
(given: atomic masses of numbers present in them.
𝑯, 𝐎, 𝐍 and k are 1, 16, 14 and
39, respectively.)
1) 32.2 g
2) 69.4 g
3) 91.5 g
1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-r, s
4) 162. g
2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r
(75). Identify the correct
statement. 3) A-r,t, B-p, C-s, D-q
1) Quantum number ( n, l, m, s ) 4) A-p, B-p, C-q,r,s, D-p
are obtained arbitrarily (77). Match the series of
2) All the quantum numbers ( hydrogen spectrum with their
n, 𝑙, m, s ) for any pair of characteristics
electrons in an atom can be
identical under special
circumstance
3) All the quantum numbers (
n, 𝑙, m, s ) may not be required to
describe an electron of an atom 1) A-p, B-s,t, C-q, D-r
completely 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r
3) A-r, t, B-p, C-q,s, D-q
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4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s 3) (b) and (c)

(78). Consider the reaction 4) (a) and (b)
𝟒𝐇𝐍𝐎𝟑 (𝐥) + 𝟑𝐊𝐂𝐥(𝐬) → (80). Which of the following
𝑪𝒍𝟐 (𝐠) + 𝐍𝐎𝐂𝐥(𝐠) statement concerning
𝟐𝐇𝟐 𝐨(𝐠) + 𝟑𝐤𝐧𝐨𝟑 (𝐬) the probability density (𝛙𝟐 ) and
amount of 𝐇𝐍𝐎𝟑 required to radial distribution function
produce 110.0 g of 𝐤𝐧𝐨𝟑 is: ( 𝟒𝝅𝐫 𝟐 𝚿 𝟐 ) for an s-orbital of
(given : atomic masses of h, o, n H -like species is correct?
and k are 1, 16, 14 and 39 ,
1) ψ2 is minimum at nucleus
respectively.)
but 4𝜋𝑟 2 Ψ2 is maximum at
1) 32.2 g
nucleus
2) 69.4 g
2) ψ2 is maximum at nucleus but
3) 91.5 g 4𝜋𝑟 2 Ψ2 is minimum at nucleus
4) 162. g 3) Both ψ2 and 4𝜋𝑟 2 Ψ2 are
(79). In a multi-electron atom, maximum at nucleus.
which of the following orbitals
4) Both ψ2 and 4𝜋𝑟 2 Ψ2 are
described by the three
minimum at nucleus.
quantum members will have
the same energy in the absence (81). For which of the
of magnetic and electric fields? following sets of four quantum
A) 𝐧 = 𝟏, 𝒍 = 𝟎, 𝐦 = 𝟎 numbers, an electron will have
the highest energy?
b) 𝐧 = 𝟐, 𝒍 = 𝟎, 𝐦 = 𝟎
𝐧 𝒍 𝐦 𝐬
c) 𝐧 = 𝟐, 𝒍 = 𝟏, 𝐦 = 𝟏
1) 3 2 1 +𝟏/𝟐
d) 𝐧 = 𝟑, 𝒍 = 𝟐, 𝐦 = 𝟏 2) 4 2 -1 +𝟏/𝟐
e) 𝐧 = 𝟑, 𝒍 = 𝟐, 𝐦 = 𝟎 3) 4 1 0 −𝟏/𝟐
1) (d) and (e) 4) 5 0 0 −𝟏/𝟐

2) (c) and (d)

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(82). 10 g carbon reacts with 3) If assertion is true but reason

𝟏𝟎𝟎𝐠 𝐂𝐥𝟐 to form 𝐂𝐂𝐥𝟒 . The is false.
correct statement is 4) If the assertion and reason
a. Carbon is the limiting both are false.
reagent
(84). Maximum number of
b. 𝐂𝐥𝟐 is the limiting reagent
electrons in a subshell of an
c. 𝟏𝟎𝟕. 𝟖𝐠𝐂𝐂𝐥𝟒 is formed
atom is determined by the
d. 0.833 moles of 𝐂𝐂𝐥𝟒 is
following
formed
1) 2𝑙 + 1
1) a and b 2) 4𝑙 − 2
2) b and c 3) 2n2
3) c and d 4) 4𝑙 + 2
85. Based on equation 𝑬 =
4) a and d 𝒁𝟐
(83). Assertion : Two electrons −𝟐. 𝟏𝟕𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟖 𝐣 ( 𝟐 ) certain
𝐧
in an atom can have the same conclusions are written. Which
values of four quantum of them is not correct?
numbers. 1) Larger the value of 𝑛, the
Reason : Two electrons in an larger is the orbit radius
atom can be present in the 2) Equation can be used to
same shell, sub-shell and calculate the change in energy
orbital and have the same spin when the electron changes orbit
1) If both assertion and reason 3) For n = 1, the electron has a
are true and the reason is the more negative energy than it
correct explanation of the does for n = 6 which means that
assertion. the electron is more loosely
2) If both assertion and reason bound in the smallest allowed
are true but reason is not the orbit
correct explanation of the 4) The negative sign in equation
assertion. simply means that the energy of
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electron bound to the nucleus is 1) Statement - I is true,

lower than it would be if the statement - II is true; statement 2
electrons were at the infinite is a correct explanation for
distance from the nucleus statement - I
CHEMISTR: Section-B 2) Statement - I is true,
statement - II is Ture;statement ii
(86) If Avogadro number ( 𝑵𝑨 ) is not a correct explanation for
is changed from 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐𝟐 × statement I
𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 𝐌𝐨𝐥−𝟏 to 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐𝟐 ×
3) Statement - I true, statement -
𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟎 𝐌𝐨𝐥−𝟏 , this would be
II is false
change :
4) Statement - I is false,
1) The mass of one mole of
statement - II is true
carbon
(88). Calculate volume of 𝐨𝟐
2) The ratio of chemical species
formed at stp when 2 moles of
to each other in a balanced
𝐦𝐧𝐨𝟐 react with 2 moles of
equation
𝐡𝟐 𝐎𝟐 in excess of 𝐡𝟐 𝐒𝐨𝟒 as per
3) The ratio of elements to each following reaction. 𝐌𝐧𝐨𝟐 +
other in compound 𝐇𝟐 𝐎𝟐 + 𝐇𝟐 𝐒𝐨𝟒 → 𝐌𝐧𝐬𝐨𝟒 +
4) The definition of mass in 𝟐𝐡𝟐 𝐨 + 𝐨𝟐
units of gram 1) 5.6 L
(87). Statement - I : the 2) 22.4 L
maximum number of electrons
3) 44.8 L
in subshell p is 6 .
Statement - II : the maximum 4) 108 L
number of electrons in a (89). Assertion : the cation
subshell is given by ( 𝟒𝟏 + 𝟐 ), energy of an electron is largely
where 𝒊 is the azimuthal determined by its principal
quantum number and for 𝒑 quantum number.
subshell 𝟏 = 𝟏. Reason : the principal
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quantum number is a measure of propagation.

of the most probable distance Iv) the oscillating electric field
of finding the electron around and magnetic field are
the nucleus. perpendicular to each other,
1) If both assertion and reason and also to the direction of
are true and the reason is the propagation.
correct explanation of the 1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
assertion.
2) (ii) and (iii)
2) If both assertion and reason
are true but reason is not the 3) (i) and (iii)
correct explanation of the 4) (i) and (iv)
assertion.
(91). The orbital diagram in
3) If assertion is true but reason
which Aufbau principle is
is false.
violated is
4) If the assertion and reason
1)
both are false.
2)
(90). Which of the following
statements are not correct 3)
about electromagnetic 4)
radiation ?
I) electromagnetic waves
require medium to travel. (92). Consider the following
II) different electromagnetic reaction sequence:
radiations travel at same speed 𝐒𝟖 (𝐬) + 𝟖𝐨𝟐 (𝐠) → 𝟖𝐬𝐨𝟐 (𝐠)
in vacuum.
𝟐𝐬𝐨𝟐 (𝐠) + 𝐨𝟐 (𝐠) → 𝟐𝐬𝐨𝟑 (𝐠)
Iii) the oscillating electric and
magnetic fields produced by How many grams of 𝐬𝐨𝟑 are
oscillating charged particles produced from 1 mole 𝐬𝟖 ?
are perpendicular to each 1) 1280 g
other, but not to the direction 2) 960 g
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3) 640 g Statement II: molecular weight

4) 320 g of 𝐨𝟐 is 32 g.

(93). The representation of the 1) Statement I is true, statement

ground state electronic II is true, statement II is a correct
configuration of he by box- explanation for statement I.
diagram as ↑↑ is wrong because 2) Statement I is true, statement
it violates is true, statement II is not a
1) Heisenberg's uncertainty correct explanation for statement
principle I.

2) Bohr's quantization theory of 3) Statement I is true, statement

angular momenta II is false

3) Pauli's exclusion principle 4) Statement I is false,

statement II is true
4) Hund’s rule
(96). The outermost electronic
(94). 1 mol of 𝐤𝐜𝐥𝐨𝟑 is
configuration of the most
thermally decomposed and
electronegative element is
excess of aluminium is burnt in
the gaseous product. How 1) 𝑛𝑠 2 𝑛𝑝3
many moles of 𝐚𝐥𝟐 𝐎𝟑 are 2) 𝑛𝑠 2 𝑛𝑝4
formed? 3) 𝑛𝑠 2 𝑛𝑝5
1) 1
4) 𝑛𝑠 2 𝑛𝑝6
2) 2
(97). According to Bohr's
3) 1.5
theory,
4) 3 𝐄𝐧 = total energy
(95). Statement I: in 32 g of 𝐨𝟐 , 𝐤 𝐧 = kinetic energy
two gram atom of oxygen atom
𝐕𝐧 = potential energy
are present.

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𝐫 𝐧 =radius of nth orbit match 2) 𝑛, 𝛼, 𝑝, 𝑒

the following: 3) 𝑛, 𝑝, 𝑒, 𝛼
Column I column II
4) n, p, 𝛼, e
A. 𝑽𝒏 /𝑲𝒏 = ? P. 0 (100). The Heisenberg
B. If radius of nth orbit uncertainty principle will be
∝ 𝐄𝐧𝐱 , 𝐱 = ? Q. -1 most significant for which of
the following object?
C. Angular momentum in
Lowest orbital R. -2 1) Object A of mass9.11 ×
10−30 kg
𝟏
D. ∝ 𝐙𝒚 , 𝐲 = ? S. 1
2) Object B of mass 9.11 ×
𝐫𝐧
−28
1) A-R; B-Q; C-P; D-S 10 g

2) A-Q; B-S; C-R; D-P 3) Object C of mass 9.11 ×

10−24 mg
3) A-P; B-Q; C-S; D-R
4) Object D of mass 9.11 ×
4) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R
10−28 kg
(98). Volume of 𝐂𝐎𝟐 obtained
at stp by the complete
BOTANY : SECTION-A
decomposition of
𝟗. 𝟖𝟓𝐠 𝐍𝐚𝟐 𝐂𝐨𝟑 is (101). Choose incorrect
1) 2.24 litre statement:
2) Zero 1) Inside the ovary is the
3) 0.85 litre ovarian cavity, also known as
4) 0.56 litre lodicule
(99). Increasing order (lowest 2) Megasporangia are
first) for the value of 𝐞/𝐦 for commonly called ovules
electron (e), proton (p),
3) The placenta is located
neutron (n) and 𝜶-particles is
outside ovarian cavity
1) e, 𝑝, 𝑛, 𝛼
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4) 1&3 both 3) Assertion is true but reason is

(102). A plant with the false.
genotype Tt is cross-pollinated 4) Both assertion and reason are
by a plant with the genotype tt. false.
What will be the genotype of (104). The endosperm is
endosperm and embryo completely consumed by the
respectively? developing embryo in the seeds
1) TTT, TT of:
2) TTt, Tt 1) Maize and rice
3) Either (1) or (2) 2) Rice and castor
4) ttt, Tt 3) Castor and maize
(103). Assertion: nuclear 4) Pea and beans
endosperm is formed by (105). A Hexaploid (6n) wheat
subsequent nuclear divisions plant pollinates an octaploid
without wall formation (8n) wheat plant. As a result of
initially. double fertilization, what will
Reason: coconut is an example be the ploidy of embryo and
of such endosperm, where the endosperm respectively ?
endosperm remains nuclear
1) 7n, 7n
throughout the development of
the fruit. 2) 7n, 11n
1) Both assertion and reason are 3) 11𝑛, 7𝑛
true but the reason is not the 4) 7𝑛, 10𝑛
correct explanation of the
(106). How many gametes are
assertion.
involved in triple fusion?
2) Both assertion and reason are
1) One
true and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. 2) Two
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3) Three amount for accomplishment of

4) Four process q .

(107). Refer to the given (108). Choose the incorrect

diagram and select the correct statement w.r.t. Artificial
option regarding processes 𝑷, 𝑸 hybridisation.
and r. 1) If female parent bears
bisexual flowers, removal of
anther from bud before anther
dehisces is necessary
2) Emasculated flowers are
1)
covered with a bag
3 ) If female parent bears
unisexual
Processes 𝑃, 𝑄 and 𝑅 introduce flowers,emasculationshould be
genetic variability in the done immediately
offspring of sexually reproducing 4) Anthropophily (Man Made
plants x and y. pollination) is performed
2) Wind serves as agent for
process 𝑄 if plants 𝑋 and 𝑌 (109). A dicotyledonous plant
belong to genus salvia. bears flowers but never
3) Flowers of plants 𝑋 and 𝑌 produces fruits and seeds. The
need to produce odour and nectar most probable cause for the
for completion of processes 𝑃 above situation is:
and 𝑄 if they are entomophilous. 1) Plant is dioecious and bears
only pistillate flowers
4) If plants 𝑋 and 𝑌 belong to
genus cannabis, then their 2) Plant is dioecious and bears
flowers need to produce sticky both pistillate and staminate
and heavy pollens in very small flowers

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3) Plant is monoecious generative cell

4) Plant is dioecious and bears iii) pollen grains in some plants
only staminate flower. remain viable for months
iv) intine is made up of
(110). From the statements
cellulose and pectin.
given below choose the option
V) sporopollenin in exine of
that are true for a typical
pollen is degraded by the
female gametophyte of a
enzyme sporopollinase secreted
flowering plant.
by stigma to induce pollen tube
I) it is 8-nucleate and 7-celled
formation.
at maturity
Which of the above statements
ii) it is free-nuclear during the
is/are not incorrect?
development
iii) it is situated inside the 1) ii only
integument but outside 2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
nucellus 3) (i), (ii) and (v)
iv) it has an egg apparatus
4) (i) and (v)
situated at the chalazal end
(112). The body of the ovule is
1) (i) and (iv)
fused within the funicle at:
2) (ii) and (iii) 1) Micropyle
3) (i) and (ii) 2) Nucellus
4) (ii) and (iv) 3) Chalaza
(111). Which one of the 4) Hilum
following statements are
(113). Read the following
wrong?
statements:
I) when pollen is shed at two-
i. Microspore tetrads possess
celled stage, double fertilization
tetraploid nucleus
does not take place
ii. Sporogenous tissue occupies
ii) vegetative cell is larger than
the centre of each
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microsporangium diagram
iii. Cells of sporogenous tissue
undergo meiosis
iv. Each cell of the sporogenous
tissue is a potential microspore
mother cell or pollen mother
cell
v. The process of formation of
male gamete in angiosperms is
called microsporogenesis
which of the above statements
are correct?
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 1) 𝑎 − 𝑣, 𝑏 − 𝑖𝑣, 𝑐 − 𝑖, 𝑑 − 𝑖𝑖𝑖
2) (iv) and (v) 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
3) (i) and (v) 3) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-ii
4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v
(114). The dithecous anther (116). How many male gametes
consist of microsporangia can be produced by pollen
located at the corners, in each mother cells?
lobe. 1) 8
1) Two, one 2) 16
2) Two, two 3) 32
3) Four, two 4) 64
4) Both 1 & 3 (117). Read the following
(115). Match the following statements:
column with reference to below i. The yucca plant and the
moth pronubayuccasella
cannot complete their life
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cycles without each other (119). Which of the following is

ii. In some insect species, the not a water pollinated plant?
floral reward for pollination is 1) Zostera
the safe place to lay eggs in the 2) Hydrilla
flower
3) Vallisneria
iii. Insect robbers consume
pollens or nectar without 4) Cannabis
bringing about pollination (120). Refer to the given
iv. Majority of the flowering characteristics of some flowers.
plants produce monoecious I. Light and non-sticky pollen
unisexual flowers grains
v. Continued cross-pollination ii. Exserted stigmas and
results in inbreeding anthers
depression iii. Large, often feathery
which of the above statements stigmas
are correct? iv. Colourless, odourless and
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) nectarless
v) common in grasses
2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Above features are the
3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
characteristics of
4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
1) Anemophilous flower
(118). Which plant prevent
2) Hydrophilous flower
autogamy and geitonogamy?
1) Castor 3) Entomophilous flower
2) Papaya 4) Zoophilous flower
3) Maize (121). Which of the following is
related to outbreeding devices?
4) Oxalis
1) Pollen release and stigma
receptivity are not synchronised
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2) Self-incompatibility menopause?
3) Production of unisexual 1) Cyclic menstruation
flowers 2) Gestation
4) More than one option is 3) Ovulation
correct 4) Implantation
(122). The function of fimbriae (125). During implantation, the
is. blastocyst gets embedded in
1) To collect ovum after which layer of the uterus?
ovulation 1) Trophoblast

2) To maintain the shape of 2) Endometrium

ovary 3) Myometrium

3) To provide the path to sperm 4) Perimetrium

during fertilization (126). The mitotic division
4) None of the above called cleavage starts as the
zygote moves through the of
(123). Which of the hormones
the oviduct towards the uterus.
is essential for maintenance of
1) Ampulla
the endometrium?
1) FSH 2) Isthmus

2) LH 3) Fimbriae

3) Progesterone 4) Infundibulum

4) Testosterone (127). During fertilization, a

sperm comes in contact with
(124). Which of the following is
which layer of the ovum?
an indicator of normal
1) Jelly coat
reproductive phase and
extends between menarche and 2) Zona pellucida
3) Vitelline membrane
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4) Perivitelline space 1) Placenta only

(128). Function of placenta is 2) Fully developed foetus only
to: 3) Both placenta as well as fully
1) Supply o2 to embryo developed foetus
2) Remove co2 produced by the 4) Oxytocin released from
embryo maternal pituitary
3) Produce several hormones (132). Which gland of female
4) More than one option is human undergoes
correct differentiation during
pregnancy?
(129). The first sign of growing
1) Adrenal gland
foetus may be noticed by:-
1) Listening to the heart sound 2) Mammary gland
carefully with the help of 3) Pituitary gland
stethoscope 4) Thymus gland
2) Appearance of hair (133). Which of the following is
3) Appearance of head correct for colostrum?
4) Appearance of eye lids 1) It contains antibodies

(130). The average duration of 2) It is produced during the last

human pregnancy is about nine few days of lactation
months which is known as :- 3) It is a steroid hormone
1) Gestation period 4) It is white in colour
2) Parturition (134). Which hormone acts on
3) Lactation uterine myometrium during
4) Implantation parturition?

131. signals for parturition 1) Oxytocin

originate from :- 2) LH
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3) Estrogen 2) Epidermis, endothecium,

4) Relaxin middle layer, tapetum

(135). What does happen if 3) Epidermis, middle layer,

vasa deferentia are cut in a tapetum, endothecium
man? 4) Endothecium, epidermis,
1) Sperms become non tapetum, microspore mother cell,
nucleated middle layer

2) Spermatogenesis does not (137). Choose incorrect

statement among following:
occur
1) In over 60% of angiosperm,
3) Semen is ejaculated without
pollen grains are shed at 3 - cell
sperms stage
4) Sperms have no motility 2) In over 60% of angiosperm,
BOTANY: Section-B pollen grains are shed at 2 - cell
stage
(136). Arrange
3) In 40% species, the
microsporangial wall in
generative cell divides
sequence of A, B, C, D, E given
mitotically to give rise to thetwo
infigure
male gametes before pollen
grains are shed (3celled stage).
4) 2 and 3
138. Choose correct about
pollen grain wall
I) It has two layered prominent
wall
1) Epidermis, middle layer, ii) Hard outer exine
endothecium, tapetum iii) exine is composed of
sporopollenin
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iv) sporopollenin form correct explanation of the

continuous exine assertion
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2 ) both assertion and reason are
true and the reason is the correct
2) i , ii, iii
explanation of assertion
3) i, iii
3) Assertion is true but reason is
4) I & iv false
(139). Geitonogamyinvolves: 4) both assertion and reason are
1) Fertilization of a flower by the false
pollen from a flower of another (141). The plant parts which
plant belonging to a distant consist of gametophytic
population generation within the
2) Fertilization of a flower by the sporophytic generation:
pollen from another flower of the i) pollen grains inside the
same plant anther
ii) germinated pollen grain
3) Fertilization of a flower by the
with two male gametes
pollen from the same flower4)
iii) seed inside the fruit
fertilization of aflower by
iv) embryo sac inside the ovule
thepollen from a flower of
another plant in the same 1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
population 2) (iii) and (iv)
(140). Assertion: : apomixis is 3) (i) and (iv)
the formation of seed without
4) (i) only
involving meiosis and
fertilization. (142). The embryo sac in an
Reason: it is common in ovule:
poaceae and asteraceae family 1) is diploid from the beginning
1) both assertion and reason are 2) Degenerates just after double
true but the reason is not the fertilization3) is a meiocyte
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4) I formed from a megaspore (144). Read the following

(143). Read the following statements:
statements: i) stigma serves as a landing
i. Majority of the plants use flatform for pollen grains
abiotic agents for pollination, ii) placenta is located inside the
only a small number of plants ovarian cavity
use biotic agents iii) megasporangium is
ii. The number of ovules represented by the ovary in
produced by a plant in general angiosperms
is more than the number of iv) embryo sac is located in the
pollens. nucellus
Iii. Among biotic agents, flies v) cells of nucellus possess
and beetles are the most scanty food matter
dominant pollinating agents Which of the above statements
iv. Animal such as some are not correct?
primates (lemur) or even 1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
reptiles (garden lizard) have
2) (iii), (v)
also been reported as
pollinators in some species. 3) (i), (ii) and (v)
V. Pollen grains coming in 4) Only (iii)
contact with the stigma is a
(145). Which of the following
chance factor in both wind and
statements is wrong?
water pollination
which of the above statements 1) Mammary lobes contain
are correct? clusters called as alveoli

1) (ii), (iii) and (v) 2) Uterus is also called as womb

2) (iv) and (v) 3) The last part of the oviduct is

called as ampulla
3) (iii) and (iv)
4) (i), (iii) and (v)
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4) Stroma of ovary is divided follicle is transformed into

into two zones corpus luteum?
(146). When do both LH&FSH 1) Luteal phase
attain a peak level in a 2) Proliferative phase
menstrual cycle?
3) Follicular phase
1) I last week of the cycle
4) Growth phase
2) In mid of the cycle
(150). Which of the following
3) During initial days of cycle statements is not correct?
4) On 4th day of cycle 1) In the absence of
(147). Secretion of which of the fertilization, the corpus luteum is
following hormones induces degenerated.
spermatogenesis? 2) Dring pregnancy, all events
1) GnRH of menstrual cycle are stopped.

2) progesterone 3) The secretion of lh and fsh

decreases gradually during the
3) Oxytocin
follicular phase.
4) Relaxin
4) The menstrual flow results
(148). For normal fertility, how due to breakdown of endometrial
much percentage of total lining.
sperms must have normal
ZOOLOGY : Section-A
shape and size?
1) 50% (151). Assertion : the rate of
decomposition is controlled by
2) 25%
chemical composition of
3) 40% detritus.
4) 60% Reason : in a particular
(149). In which phase of climatic condition,
menstrual cycle graafian decomposition rate is slower if
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detritus is rich in lignin and herbivores and the

chitin, and quicker, if detritus decomposers is called
is rich in nitrogen and water 1) Net primary productivity
soluble substances like sugar. 2) Secondary productivity
1) Assertion and reason both are 3) Standing crop
true and the reason is correct 4) Gross primary productivity
explanation of assertion (155). The process of
2) Assertion and reason both are mineralisation by
true but reason is not correct microorganisms heips in the
explanation of assertion release of
3) Assertion is true but reason is 1) Inorganic nutrients from
wrong humus
4) Assertion and reason both are 2) Both organic and inorganic
wrong nutrients from detritus
(152). The rate of formation of 3) Organic nutrientsfrom humus
new organic matter by rabbit 4) Inorganic nutrients from
in a grassland, is called detritus and formation of humus
1) Net productivity
2) Secondary productivity
(156). Which of the following is
3) Net primary productivity
a primary consumer in maize
4) Gross primary productivity
field ecosystem?
(153). Mass of living matter at
1)Grasshopper
a trophic level in an area at any
2)Wolf
time is called
3)Phytoplankton
1)Standingcrop
4) Lion
2)Detritus
3)Humus (157). When man eats fish
4)Standingstate which feeds on zooplanktons
(154). The biomass available which have eaten small plants,
for consumption by the
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the producer in this chain is inhibit decomposition resulting

1) Small plants in build up of organic
2) Fish materials.
1) Assertion and reason both are
3) Man
true and the reason is correct
4) Zooplankton explanation of assertion
(158). Statement i : death of 2) Assertion and reason both are
organism is the beginning of true but reason is not correct
the grazing food chain/web. explanation of assertion
Statement ii : herbivores are 3) Assertion is true but reason is
secondary consumers and some wrong
common herbivores are insects, 4) Assertion and reason both are
birds and mammals in wrong
terrestrial ecosystem. (160). Identify the possible link
1) both statements are correct " 𝑨 " in the following food
2) statement i is correct & ii is chain.
incorrect Plant → insect → frog → "a" →
3) statement i is incorrect & ii is eagle
correct 1) Rabbit
4) both statements are incorrect
2) Wolf
(159). Assertion: temperature,
soil and moisture are the most 3) cobra
important climatic factors that 4) Parrot
regulate decomposition (161). The enzymatic process
through their effects on the by which degraded detritus is
activities of soil microbes. converted into simpler
Reason: warm and moist inorganic substances is called
environment favour 1) Catabolism
decomposition whereas low 2) Leaching
temperature and anaerobiosis
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3) Leaching represents the producers or the

4) Fragmentation first trophic level while the
apex represents tertiary or top
(162). In an ecosystem, in
level consumer.
which an organism occupies a
(ii) an organism may occupy
specific place in a food chain
more than one trophic level
1) Branching lines simultaneously.
2) Progressive straight line (iii) a species occupy only one
trophic level in the same
3) Trophic level
ecosystem at the same time.
4) Standing crop (iv) trophic level represents a
(163). Match the following and functional level, not a species as
choose the correct option given such.
below. (v) energy at a lower trophic
level is always more than at a
higher level.
(vi) ecological pyramids does
not take into account the same
species belonging to two or
more trophic levels.
(vii) ecological pyramids does
not accommodate a food web.
(viii)saprophytes are not given
1) a iii; b - iv; c - i; d - ii any place in ecological
2) a- iii; b - iv; c - ii; d - i pyramids.
3) a- i; b - iii; c - ii; d - iv 1) only (iii)
4) a- iv; b - iii; c - ii; d - i 2) (ii) and (iii)
(164). Which of the following 3) (iii) and (iv)
statement are incorrect? 4) all are correct
(i) the base of each pyramid (164). Which of the following
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cells undergoes spermiogenesis 2) Implantation

? 3) Impreganation
1) Spematids
4)Placentation
2) Spermatogonia (169). Assertion: surgical
3) Primary spermatocytes method is terminal method to
4) Secondary spermatocytes prevent any more pregnancy.
Reason: surgical methods
(166). During second meiotic
blocks lumen of uterus thereby
division of oogenesis, the small
prevent implantation.
structure separated from egg is
1) If both assertion and reason
known as:-
is true and reason is the correct
1) Second polar body
explanation of assertion
2) Secondary oocyte
2) I both assertion and reason is
3) First polar body true but reason is not the correct
4) Primary oocyte explanation of assertion
(167). In humans, at the end of 3) If assertion is true but reason
the first meiotic divison, the is false
male germ cells differentiate 4) I both assertion and reason is
into the:- false
1) Spermatids
(170). Which one of the
2) Spermatozonia following is the most widely
3) Primary spermatocytes accepted method of
contraception in India, as at
4) Secondary spermatocytes
present ?
(168). Attachment of the 1) Cervical caps
blastocyst in the wall of the
2) Tubectomy
uterus is known as :-
3) Diaphragms
1) Fertilization
4) Ids' (intra uterine devices)
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(171) which of the following 1) Vasa deferentia is cut and

contraceptive method make tied
uterus unsuitable for 2) Irreversible sterility
implantation?
3) No sperm occurs in seminal
1) Diaphragm
fluid
2) Id
4) No sperm occurs in
3) Condom epididymis
4) Natural method (175). The diaphragm is a
(172). The function of copper dome shaped structure, made
ions in copper releasing IUD'S up of rubber are stops the
is sperms from entering into
1) They inhibit game to genesis 1) Vestibule

2) They make uterus unsuitable 2) Vulva

for implantation 3) Cervix
3) They inhabit ovulation 4) Both 1) & 2)
4) They suppress sperm motility (176). The 'test-tube baby'
and fertilising capacity of sperms method:
(173). Which of the following is 1) Involves in-vivo fertilisation
hormone releasing IUD? 2) Involves in-vitro fertilization
1) Lippes loop 3)Donor of sperm is always
2) Cu7 husband and no other male
3) LNG-20 4) Donor of ova is always wife
4) Multiload 375 and no other female

(174). Which of the following is (177). Given below are four

incorrect regarding methods (a-d) and their modes
vasectomy? of action (a -d) in achieving
contraception. Select their
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correct matching from the four 2) IUDs

options that follow: 3) Oral pills
4) Vasectomy
(180). How many of the
following features are related
to Nirodh, a popular brand of
condoms?
A. Prevention of STDs
1) A-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii b. Physiological changes in
2) A-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv cervical mucus
c. Phagocytosis of sperms
3) A-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
d. Male contraceptive device
4) A-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii e. Act as chemical barrier
(178). After in vitro 1) 1
fertilization:
2) 2
1) Embryo with more than 8
cells are implanted in uterus 3) 3

2) Embryo with more than 16 4) 4

cells are not implanted in uterus (181). Which contraceptive
3) Embryo with 8 cells are method is based on the fact
implanted in uterus that ovulation and menstrual
cycle do not occur after
4) Embryo with cells more than
parturition during the period
2 is implanted in uterus
of intense lactation
(179). Spermicidal creams and 1) Periodic abstinence
jellies are usually applied with
2) Coitusinterruptus
to enhance the contraceptive
efficiency 3) IUDs
1) Physical barriers 4) Lactationamenorrhoea
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(182). Following statements are 3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v

given regarding MTP. Choose 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-v, e-iv
the correct options given
(184). Statement I : in a
below:
terrestrial ecosystem, major
i. MTPs are generally advised
producers are herbaceous and
during first trimester
woody plants.
ii. MTPs are used as a
Statement II : primary
contraceptive method
producers in an aquatic
iii. MTPs are always surgical
ecosystem are various species
iv. MTPs require the assistance
like phytoplankton, algae and
of qualified medical personnel
higher plants.
1) i and iii 1) Both statements are correct
2) ii and iii 2) Statement i is correct & ii is
3) i and iv incorrect
4) i and ii 3) Statement i is incorrect & ii
(183). Match column-i with is correct
column-ii and select the correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
answer from the codes given
(185). Assertion : land
below
occupying 30 per cent of earth
surface and it's productivity is
more than three time as
compare to oceans.
Reason: oceans, despite
occupying about 70 per cent of
the surface but their
productivity are only 55 billion
1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v tons.
1) Assertion and reason both are
2) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii, e-iii
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true and the reason is correct 2) Growth phase

explanation of assertion. 3)Multiplicationphase
2) Assertion and reason both are 4) Maturation phase
true but reason is not correct
(188). If for some reason, the
explanation of assertion.
vasa efferentia in the human
3) Assertion is true but reason is
reproductive system get
wrong.
blocked, the gametes will not
4) Assertion and reason both are
be transported from:-
wrong.
1) Testes to epididymis
ZOOLOGY: Section-B
2) Epididymis to vas deferens
(186). Match the column-a with 3) Ovary to uterus
column-b.
4) Vagina to uterus
(189). At the time of ovulation,
the human egg is covered by a
non-cellular membrane called
as:-
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 1) Chorion
2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 2) Zona pellucid
3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 3) Corona radiata
4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 4) Both (2) & (3)
(187). At which stage of (190). The blastomeres in the
spermatogenesis, sperms blastocyst are arranged into an
acquire their whole structural outer layer called a , and group
maturity and now these of cells attached to trophoblast
contain a haploid nucleus & called the b _.
other organelles? What are ' 𝑨 ' and ' 𝑩 '
1) Spermiogenesis respectively?
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1) Trophoblast, inner cell mass (193). Correct sequence of

2) Inner cell mass, trophoblast embryonic development is :-
1) Fertilization → zygote
3) Corion, amnion
→cleavage → morula → blastula
4) Amnion, chorion → gastrula
(191). Which one of the 2) Fertilization → zygote →
following statements about blastula → morula → cleavage
human sperm is correct? → gastrula
1) Acrosome serves no 3) Fertilization → cleavage →
particular function morula → zygote → blastula →
2) Acrosome has a conical gastrula
pointed structure used for 4) Cleavage → zygote →
piercing and penetrating the egg, fertilization → morula →
resulting in fertilisation blastula → gastrula
3) The sperm lysins in the (194). Artificial insemination
acrosome dissolve the egg means
envelope facilitating fertilization
1) Transfer of sperms of
4) Acrosome serves as a husband to a test tube containing
sensory structure leading the ova
sperm towards the ovum
2) Artificial introduction of
(192). Among the following sperms of a healthy donor into
methods which one has the the vagina
highest failure rate?
3) Introduction of sperms of
1) Diaphragm with spermicide healthy donor directly into the
2) Condom ovary
3) Intrauterine device 4) Transfer of sperms of a
4) Rhythm method healthy donor to a test tube
containing ova
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(195). Medical termination of (197). The cellular layer that

pregnancy is : disintegrates and regenerates
1) Essential in certain cases again and again in human is :-
where continuation of the 1) Endometrium of uterus
pregnancy could be harmful or 2) Cornea of eye
even fatal either to the mother or 3) Dermis of skin
to the foetus or both
4) Edothelium of blood vessels
2) Unsafe during the first
(198). Read the given
trimester, (i.e.) upto 12 weeks of
statements and select the
pregnancy
correct option.
3) Quite safe even if performed Statement I: MTP is
by quacks as it involves no considered relatively safe
expertise during the first trimester of
4) Illegally practiced in India to pregnancy.
discard the male foetus Statement II: fetus becomes
(196). Match the columns intimately associated with the
maternal tissues after the first
trimester.
1) Both statements i and ii are
correct.
2) Statement i is incorrect but
statement ii is correct.
3) Satementi is correct but
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
statement ii is incorrect.
2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
4) Both statements i and ii are
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv incorrect.
4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

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(199). Supporting cells found in

the germinal epithelium of
testis are called as:-
1) Interstitial cells of leydig
2) Sertoli cells
3) Granular cells
4) Phagocytes
(200). A childless couple can be
assisted to have a child through
a technique called gift, the full
form of this technique is
1) Germ cell internal fallopian
transfer
2) Gamete inseminated fallopian
transfer
3) Gamete intra fallopian
transfer
4) Gamete internal fertilization
and transfer

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