A

CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720
TEST- 2 Time : 3 Hrs.

Mock Test for NEET 2025

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Plancks constant has a dimensions of 4. The potential at A will be
(1) Power (2) Torque 10 V
60 V
(3) Force (4) Angular momentum
C
2. Find the percentage error in calculation of length for
C
a simple pendulum if percentage error in time period
A
and acceleration due to gravity is 1% and 2%
respectively
(1) 1.5% (2) 2.5%
(3) 4% (4) 2% C
3. In the given figure, for what maximum value of M the 20 V
system will remain in equilibrium?
(1) 20 V (2) 30 V
(3) 45 V (4) Zero
10 kg 5. Under the influence of the Coulomb field of charge
M + q, a charge – q is moving around it in an elliptical
orbit, then for – q charge
 = 0.5
(1) Linear momentum is conserved
(2) Angular momentum is conserved
53°
(1) 11 kg (2) 13 kg (3) Angular velocity is constant
(3) 6.5 kg (4) 5 kg (4) Speed is constant
(1)
Test-2 (Code A)
6. The situation shown in figure is equivalent to 11. Two unknown resistors of equal resistance R are
connected in a circuit as shown in figure.
16 V 4 
8 12 

P Q
4V 4 36 
32  48 
P 20 V 2
(1) i

12 V 2 A
R 200 V R
(2)
For what value of R, the reading in the ammeter will
12 V 8 be 4 A?
(3)
(1) 15  (2) 16 
6V 2 (3) 17  (4) 20 
(4) 12. Image is formed at infinity when an object is placed
7. A charge particle having charge q 1 accelerated at a distance 20 cm from the combination of two
through a potential difference V enters a lens touching each other and having same focal
perpendicular magnetic field B in which it lengths. If one of the lens is removed then the
experiences a force F. If V is increased to 8 V, the position and nature of image will be
particle will experience a force (1) Real and 40 cm from the lens
(1) 2 F (2) 4 F (2) Virtual and 40 cm from the lens

F (3) Real and 60 cm from the lens

(3) 2 2 F (4) (4) Virtual and 60 cm from the lens
2
8. A straight wire carrying current I is turned into 13. A convex mirror of focal length 30 cm produces a real
circular loop. If the magnitude of magnetic moment and inverted image of magnification 0.5. By how
associated with it is M the length of wire will be much distance the object should be brought closer
to obtain the virtual and erect image of magnification
M M 2?
(1)  (2) (1) 80 cm (2) 82.5 cm
I I
(3) 77.5 cm (4) 75 cm
M 4M 14. Two circular coils of 5 turns each and have radii in
(3) 2 2 (4)
I I ratio 1 : 2. If the current in them is in ratio 1 : 2 in
opposite direction, then the ratio of magnetic fields
9. An electron of charge e moves in a circular orbit of at their centres will be
radius r around the nucleus at a frequency . The
magnetic moment associated with the orbital motion 1
(1) (2) 2
of the electron is 2
(3) 4 (4) 1
r 2
(1) 2er2 (2) 15. What will be the temperature T of junction?
2
80°C
100°C
e L, A
(3) er 2 (4) 2K
r2
10. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a large 3K L, A
plastic plate. The electric field at a point P close to
the centre of the plate is E. If the plastic plate is
T
replaced by a copper plate of same dimensions and
carrying the same charge Q, the electric field at the L, A
point P will become 3K

E 0°C
(1) Zero (2)
2 (1) 328 K (2) 320 K
(3) E (4) 2E (3) 273 K (4) 343 K
(2)
 Test-2 (Code A)
16. Electromagnetic waves do not transport 24. The logic symbol shown in figure represents
(1) Energy (2) Charge
(3) Momentum (4) Information
17. Two periodic coherent waves of intensities I1 and I2
pass through a region at the same time in the same
direction. The sum of the minimum and maximum (1) OR gate (2) AND gate
intensities is
(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate
(1) 2(I1 + I2) (2) I1 + I2
25. If the work done in blowing a bubble of volume V is
   
2 2
(3) I1  I2 (4) I1  I2 W, then work done in blowing a soap bubble of
volume 8V will be
18. In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance
between two slits is halved and the distance (1) 8 W (2) 4 W
between the screen and slit is made three times. (3) 2 W (4) W
Then width of the fringe becomes
(1) Double (2) Four times 26. For the given position time relation t = x2 + x,
where and are constants, the retardation of the
(3) Six times (4) Half particle is
19. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first
(1) 2v 3 (2) 2v 3
Bohr orbit is equal to
(1) Half the circumference of the first orbit (3) 2v 2 (4) 23v 3
(2) Twice the circumference of the first orbit 27. A man can throw a stone upto x distance on ground.
(3) One-fourth the circumference of the first orbit The maximum height to which it will rise is

(4) Circumference of the first orbit x x

(1) (2)
20. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground 2 4
state to fourth state
(3) 2x (4) 4x
(1) Both K.E. and P.E. increase
(2) Both K.E. and P.E. decrease 28. A spring of spring constant 500 N/m is stretched
initially by 5 cm from unstretched position. Then
(3) P.E. increases and K.E. decreases work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is
(4) P.E. decreases and K.E. increases
(1) 1.25 J (2) 2.5 J
21. Which of the following radiation have maximum
penetration power? (3) 1.875 J (4) 6.25 J
(1) -rays (2) X-rays 29. The bob of simple pendulum having length 2 m, is
(3) -rays (4) Cathode rays displaced from position to an angular position  from
vertical. If it is released, then velocity of bob at
1 lowest position will be
22. An alpha nucleus of energy mv 2 bombards on a
2
heavy nuclear target of charge ze. Then the distance (1) 2 g (1  cos ) (2) 2 g (1  cos )
of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be
(3) 2 g cos  (4) 2g (1  cos )
ze 2 2ze 2
(1) (2)
2 0 mv 2  0 mv 2 30. A particle of mass m, strikes on ground with angle
1
ze 2
ze 2 of incidence 45°. If coefficient of restitution e = ,
2
(3) 2 (4) 2
4 0 mv  0 mv the velocity of reflection is
23. A common-emitter amplifier is designed with a 2v v
n-p-n transistor ( = 0.99) the input impedance is (1) (2)
3 3
1 k and load is 10 k. The voltage gain will be
(1) 9900 (2) 990 v 3v
(3) (4)
(3) 99 (4) 9.9 2 2
(3)
Test-2 (Code A)
31. Find the initial angular acceleration of the rod when 37. Two capillary tubes of same length l but radii r1 and
the string A is just cut. r2 are fitted in parallel to the bottom of a vessel.
What should be the radius r of the single tube, that
can replace the two tubes, so that the rate of flow
A is same as before.
L/4 L/2
1 1 1
(1) r4 = r14 + r24 (2)  
r r1 r2

(3) r  r12  r22 (4) r = r1 + r2

4g 3g
(1) (2) 38. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is
3L 4L
stretched by attaching a block of mass 200 kg to
12g 7g the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by
(3) (4) 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is
7L 12L
(1) 0.5 J (2) 1 J
32. If the radius of earth contracts to half of its present
day value, then length of the day will be (3) 5 J (4) 10 J

(1) 6 hrs (2) 12 hrs 39. Two uniform copper rods of length and radii in ratio
1 : 2 and 2 : 1 respectively are heated to same
(3) 24 hrs (4) 48 hrs temperature. The ratio of increase in their volume is
33. A uniform rod of length l, hinged at the lower end is (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
free to rotate in the vertical plane. If the rod is held
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
vertically in the beginning and released, then angular
acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle of 40. Two liquids of equal volume are thoroughly mixed. If
45° with the horizontal is their specific heats are c1, c2 temperatures T1, T2
and densities d 1 and d 2 respectively, the final
2g 3g temperature of the mixture is
(1) (2)
3l 2 2l
d1 c1 T1  d2 c2 T2
(1)
d1 c1  d2 c2
3g 2g
(3) (4)
2l 3l d1 c1 T1  d2 c2 T2
(2)
34. An object of mass 2 kg is fired vertically upward d1 T1  d2 T2
from the surface of earth and reaches upto height
equal to radius of earth. Find the initial speed. d2 c1 T1  d2 c2 d1
(3)
d1 c1  d2 c2
(1) 4 km/s (2) 2 3 km/s
d1 T1  d2 T2
(3) 16 km/s (4) 8 km/s (4) c T  c T
1 1 2 2
35. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the planet,
the ratio of potential energy to kinetic energy is 41. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle
ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas
1 during the cycle
(1) 2 (2)
2
D
2P C
1
(3) (4) 2
2
36. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an P B
isolated capacitor. Two force between the plates will A

(1) Increase V V
3V
(2) Decrease
(1) 3 PV (2) PV
(3) Remain unchanged
PV
(4) Become zero (3) 2 PV (4)
2
(4)
 Test-2 (Code A)
42. A gas mixture contains one mole He gas and one 44. Fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is n. If
mole O2 gas, the ratio of specific heat at constant the length and diameter of the wire are doubled
pressure to that at constant volume of the mixture is keeping the tension same, then the new fundamental
frequency is
(1) 2.5
3
(2) 3 (1) n 2 (2) n
2
(3) 1.5
n
(3) 2 n (4)
(4) 4 4

43. Equation of SHM is given as x = 3 sin 20t + 45. Velocity of sound in a mixture of gases is 320 m/s.
4 cos 20t, where x is in cm and t in seconds. The Pressure of mixture is now made 27 times keeping
amplitude is the temperature same. Velocity of sound in the given
mixture will now be
(1) 5 cm (2) 4 cm
(1) 1280 m/s (2) 2880 m/s
(3) 7 cm (4) 3.5 cm (3) 320 m/s (4) 160 m/s

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following contains the least number of 53. The first half-life period for a first order radioactive
oxygen atoms in 1 gram of it? decay is 5 seconds. The time taken for the
16O completion of hundredth half-life for this decay
(1)
process is
(2) 17O
(1) 5 seconds (2) 20 seconds
(3) 18O
(3) 500 seconds (4) 100 seconds
(4) All contains the same number of atoms
54. In a reaction, which of the following changes in the
47. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to presence of a catalyst?
(1) Isotopes (2) Isobars (1) Velocity constant
(3) Isotones (4) All of these
(2) Threshold energy
48. Which of the following Chalcogen has the most
(3) Mechanism of the reaction
negative electron gain enthalpy?
(1) S (2) Se (4) All of these

(3) Te (4) O 55. The ratio of critical temperature to Boyle’s

temperature for a real gas is
49. Which of the following species is expected to have
the largest value of van der Waals constant ‘a’ in (1) 1 : 1 (2) 8 : 27
their gaseous state? (3) 27 : 8 (4) 2 : 3
(1) C6H6 (2) CO2 56. If pressure increases by 1% then percentage
(3) NH3 (4) Cl2 decrease of volume of an ideal gas at constant
temperature is
50. Which of the following isotope has the least natural
abundance? 100
(1) % (2) 1.11%
(1) 1H (2) 2H 101
(3) 3He (4) 4He
101
(3) % (4) 10.1%
51. Which of the following colloid can be flocculated 100
most efficiently by ions of opposite charge?
57. Which of the following process will decrease the
(1) As2S3 (2) Gelatin freezing point of water in an ice-water equilibrium?
(3) Starch (4) Gum
(1) Increase of pressure
52. Which of the following compound has the least
coagulating value for arsenic sulphide sol? (2) Decrease of pressure
(1) MgCl2 (2) CsCl (3) Increase of temperature
(3) Al2 (SO4)3 (4) SnCl2 (4) Decrease of temperature
(5)
Test-2 (Code A)
58. If K1 and K2 are equilibrium constant for the reaction 65. Which of the following species contains boron atoms
(i) and (ii) respectively in two different hybridisation states?


A  B 
 C  2D..........(i) (1) Diborane (2) Borax
(3) Boric anhydride (4) Orthoboric acid


A  E  C  F..........(ii)
66. Which of the following compounds is used in fire
then equilibrium constant for the reation extinguishers?
(1) Baking Soda (2) Gypsum


E  2D 
 B  F will be
(3) Soda ash (4) Cryolite
K2 67. Which of the following complex exhibits green
(1) K1 × K2 (2) colour?
K12
(1) [Fe (H2O)6]2+ (2) [Zn(CN)4]2–
K2 K1
(3) K (4) (3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) [Cu(H2O)4]+
1 K 22
68. Which of the following is a square planar complex?
59. The potential of hydrogen electrode having pOH = 4
(1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [PtBr4]2–
at 25°C is
(3) [Ni(gly)2] (4) [Au(CN)2]–
(1) Zero volt (2) –0.59 V
69. Which of the following is the strongest oxidising
(3) 0.59 V (4) 59 mV
agent?
60. In NaCl solid, if all the ions are removed along one (1) Cl2O (2) ClO2
of the axes joining the centres of any two diagonally
opposite edges in a unit cell, then the resulting (3) Cl2O6 (4) Cl2O7
stoichiometry of the solid is 70. Milk of lime is a suspension of
(1) NaCl (2) Na5Cl8 (1) Ca(OH)2 (2) CaO
(3) Na3Cl4 (4) Na2Cl3 (3) CaCl2 (4) CaSO4
61. Which of the following consequence is observed in 71. Which of the following interhalogen compound does
every type of defect in an ionic solid? not exist?
(1) Increase in density (1) ClBr3 (2) BrF5
(2) Increase in stability of crystal (3) ICl (4) ClF3
(3) Increase in electrical conductivity 72. The most stable oxidation states of the first two
elements of group 15 is/are
(4) Crystal becomes non-stoichiometric
(1) +3, +5 (2) –3, +5
62. Which of the following solution can form maximum
boiling azeotrope? (3) –3 only (4) +1, +3
73. The most powerful reducing agent is
(1) HCl + H2O (2) CH3OH + H2O
(1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO4
(3) C2H5OH + H2O (4) C6H5Cl + C6H5Br
(3) H4P2O7 (4) H4P2O6
63. Which of the following pair of species has different
hybridisations for the central atom but same shape? 74. A mixed anhydride is

(1) H2O, SO2 (2) BrF5, XeOF4 (1) N2O5 (2) NO2
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O
(3) I3–, ClF3 (4) SiF4, NH4
75. In metallurgy, which of the following metal is
64. In the reaction obtained with blistered appearance?
(1) Fe (2) Cu
OH
P4  PH3  H2PO 2 (3) Zn (4) Pb
How many moles of hypophosphite ion are produced 76. Which of the following d-block element has the
from ten moles of phosphorous? highest enthalpy of atomisation?
(1) 10 (2) 30 (1) W (2) Mo
(3) 1 (4) 5 (3) Cd (4) Ru
(6)
 Test-2 (Code A)
77. Which of the following reagent can be used to 84. Addition of ammonia derivate to a carbonyl
distinguish between formic acid and acetic acid? compound takes place in weakly acidic medium
because
(1) NaHCO3
(1) Ammonia derivatives are weak nucleophiles
(2) Na2CO3
(2) Ammonia derivatives being bases react with the
(3) I2+NaOH
acid to form salt
(4) Ammonical silver nitrate
(3) The reaction takes place at low pH.
78. Consider the following reaction:
(4) The reaction has high activation energy in acidic
HNO3 (Conc.)
C 6H 6 (A) medium
H2SO4 (Conc.)
85. Which of the following gives a dihalide on reaction
The reaction is
with PCI5?
(1) Nucleophilic substitution
(1) Carboxylic acid
(2) Electrophilic substitution
(2) Carbonyl compound
(3) Nucleophilic addition
(3) Ester
(4) Electrophilic addition
(4) Amides
79. In which of the following reaction chromyl chloride is
used as an oxidising agent? 86. Nitrobenzene upon reduction with lithium
aluminiumhydride gives
(1) Stephen reaction
(1) Aniline
(2) Etard reaction
(2) Azobenzene
(3) Bouveault-Blanc reaction
(3) Acetanilide
(4) Mendius reaction
(4) Acetamide
80. Which of the following acid has the lowest pKa?
87. Which of the following polymer may have cis
(1) CH3CH2COOH (2) CH2=CHCOOH configuration?
(3) CH  C  COOH (4) CH 3–CH–COOH (1) Teflon (2) Polyisoprene
CH3
(3) Glyptal (4) PHBV
81. Which of the following species is not aromatic? 88. Which of the following is not an antibiotic?

(1) Penicillin (2) Ofloxacin

(1) (2)
(3) Bithional (4) Amoxycillin

CH2 89. Which of the following biomolecule is not soluble in

water?
(3) (4)
(1) Glycine
82. In aldol condensation reaction, the first step involves (2) Amylopectin
(1) Nucleophilic addition (2) Proton extraction (3) Maltose
(3) Proton addition (4) Electrophilic addition (4) Insulin
83. Addition of Grignard reagent to acetaldehyde followed 90. Which of the following ions in excessive amount in
by hydrolysis and then acidic dehydration of the water causes laxative effect?
resulting product gives
(1) F– (2) SO24
(1) Tertiary alcohol (2) Alkene

(3) Carboxylic acid (4) Secondary alcohol (3) NO3 (4) Pb+2

(7)
Test-2 (Code A)

BOTANY
91. Which of the following is incorrect? 99. If R.Q is less than one, it indicates that
(1) Microfilaments are long thin and branched (1) Substrate is rich in oxygen
structures of dynein protein
(2) Substrate is poor in oxygen
(2) 80S ribosomes are attached to RER through
ribophorines (3) Substrate is glucose
(3) Chloroplasts and mitochondria are semi- (4) Substrate is organic acid
autonomous organelles
100. Oxidative decarboxylation occurs at _______ in
(4) Fungal cell wall is made up of N-acetyl aerobic respiration.
glucosamine polymer
(1) Pyruvic acid (2) Succinic acid
92. Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle and the
complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope can (3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) Acetyl CoA
be observed in 101. Select correct match w.r.t. mineral as activator/
(1) Prophase components of enzymes.
(2) Metaphase (a) Nitrogenase (i) Zn
(3) Prophase and Metaphase respectively (b) Pepco (ii) Fe
(4) Metaphase and metaphase I respectively (c) Alcohol dehydrogenase (iii) Mo
93. In which phase of meiotic cell cycle, traits (d) Catalase (iv) Mg
segregate?
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I (4) Diplotene (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

94. The most important enzyme of peroxisome is (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Cytochrome oxidase (2) Catalase (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Oxygenase (4) Hydrolase 102. The growth rate pattern during development of zygote
95. For flaccid cell into embryo is

(1) p = s (1) Arithmetic only

(2) w = s (2) Geometric only
(3) w = zero (3) First arithmetic then geometric
(4) DPD > OP (4) First geometric then arithmetic
96. Which of the following is incorrect statement? 103. Phloem sap is mainly
(1) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid is most efficient CO2
(1) Sugars and hormones
acceptor in C4 plants
(2) Leaves of C4 plants show kranz anatomy (2) Water and sucrose

(3) In CAM plants acidification (formation of malic (3) Hormones and amino acids
acid) occurs in presence of light (4) Sugars and minerals
(4) Chlorophyll a has methyl group at 3C of II 104. Which of the following PGRs is used to speed up
pyrrole ring the malting process in brewing industry?
97. For synthesis of ATP in photophosphorylation, the
(1) IBA (2) GA
proton gradient develops in
(1) Stroma of chloroplast (2) Membrane of thylakoid (3) ABA (4) CK

(3) Lumen of thylakoid (4) Periplastidal space 105. Aestivation with overlapped margins of sepals and
petals but not in any particular direction is
98. Most of the enzymes of krebs cycle are present in
(1) Valvate
(1) Outer space of mitochondria
(2) Perimitochondrial space (2) Twisted

(3) Matrix of mitochondria (3) Imbricate

(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria (4) More than one option is correct
(8)
 Test-2 (Code A)
106. The given floral formula is represented by 114. Mature parts of root and stem in most of the
flowering plants develop meristems after
K(5)C(5)A5G(2)
(1) Differentiation
(1) Gloriosa, Dracaena & Solanum
(2) Dedifferentiation
(2) Ashwagandha, Chilli & Petunia
(3) Redifferentiation
(3) Brinjal, Tomato & Lupin
(4) Vacuolisation & Obliteration
(4) Sesbania, Muliathi & Aloe
115. Classification of organisms on the basis of gene
107. If a colourblind woman married a man who had
sequencing is
normal colour vision, what would be the possible
phenotypes of their children? (1) Cytotaxonomy (2) Karyotaxonomy
(1) All sons and daughters are colourblind (3) Chemotaxonomy (4) Classical taxonomy
(2) All sons and daughters are normal 116. Which of the following is correct for cellular slime
(3) 100% sons are colourblind moulds?

(4) 25% daughters are colourblind (1) Somatic phase is diploid

108. Which component is not directly involved in (2) Amoeboid cells get aggregated when the food
translation? supply is exhausted
(1) GTP (2) Ribosomes (3) These are also called plasmodial slime moulds
(3) DNA (4) mRNA (4) Sporangium is surrounded by peridium
109. If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making 117. Which of the following belong to class
an essential amino acid and is regulated like trp basidiomycetes of fungi?
operon then
(1) Morels, bracket fungi, truffles
(1) The enzymes produced are called inducible
enzymes (2) Puffballs, smuts, rusts
(2) The repressor is active in the absence of the (3) Puffballs, morels, bracket fungi
amino acid
(4) Rusts, smuts, truffles
(3) The amino acid acts as a corepressor
118. Dicot stem is anatomically characterised by
(4) The amino acid inactivates the repressor
(1) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
110. The flow of information from gene to protein is based
on a (2) Scattered vascular bundles
(1) Triplet codes (2) tRNA (3) Starch sheath as inner most layer of cortex
(3) rRNA (4) Amino acid (4) Absence of phloem parenchyma
111. The DNA sequence where RNA polymerase attaches 119. Classifications based on vegetative characters are
and initiates transcription is known as not acceptable because
(1) Terminator (2) Promoter
(1) These are not affected by environment
(3) AUGGA (4) CCCAAC
(2) These are more easily affected by environment
112. The phage that reproduces only by lytic cycle is a
(3) These are more conservative
(1) Temperate phage (2) Virulent phage
(4) These are not photosynthetic
(3) Any bacteriophage (4) Coliphage
120. Asexual spores in brown algae are
113. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive
events in (1) Nonmotile sporangiospore
(1) Bacteria & Protista (2) Biflagellate zoospores with two equal flagella
(2) Protista & Fungi (3) Quadriflagellate zoospores with thick cell walls
(3) Yeast & Hydra (4) Biflagellate zoospores with two unequal lateral
(4) Higher plants & Animals flagella

(9)
Test-2 (Code A)
121. Which of the following pair of plants reproduce by 128. Find odd one w.r.t. disease resistant variety.
sub-aerial vegetative propagules?
(1) Pusa sadabahar
(1) Freesia & strawberry (2) Pusa gaurav
(2) Pineapple & Water lettuce (3) Pusa swarnim
(3) Adiantum & Agava (4) Pusa shubhra
(4) Lily & Mint 129. The type of pollination which brings genetically
122. The two components of species diversity of a different types of pollen grains to the stigma
community are (1) Self pollination (2) Cleistogamy
(1) Species richness and relative weight of species (3) Xenogamy (4) Geitonogamy
(2) Species richness and relative abundance 130. In water hyacinth and water lily pollination occurs by
(3) Relative abundance and relative size of species (1) Water (2) Birds
(4) Relative weight and size of species (3) Insects (4) Bats
123. The total energy available to the third trophic level 131. In anemophilous flowers the correct statements are
organisms if ecosystem is supported by10 lac J
a. Pollen grains are light and non sticky
energy
b. They possess well exposed stamens
(1) 10 J (2) 100 J
c. They have large coloured flowers
(3) 1000 J (4) 10,000 J
d. They have single ovule in each ovary
124. Natural aging of a lake by biological enrichment of its
water is called e. Flowers produce nectar and scent

(1) Biomagnification (1) a, b, and e (2) a, b and d

(2) Eutrophication (3) b, c and e (4) c, d and e

(3) Algal blooms 132. Which one of the following trait is only expressed in
the presence of identical allele?
(4) Toxification
(1) Yellow seed
125. Catalytic converter of automobiles convert unburnt
(2) Inflated pod
hydrocarbons into
(3) Green pod
(1) NO2 and CO2 (2) H2S and NO2
(4) Green seed
(3) CO2 and H2O (4) H2O and SO2
133. Pathogen-free plants are produced by
126. A very few lower vertebrate and invertebrate species
along with mammals show (1) Somatic hybridisation
(1) Conform (2) Embryo culture
(2) Regulate (3) Meristem culture
(3) Partial regulate (4) Anther culture

(4) Suspend 134. Blood-cholesterol lowering agent is _________ and

produced by____________.
127. Pioneer communities in ecological succession are
(1) Statin, Monascus purpureus
(i) Phytoplanktons
(2) Statin, Trichoderma polysporum
(ii) Zooplanktons
(3) Cyclosporin A, Streptococcus
(iii) Submerged
(4) Clot bluster, Streptococcus
(iv) Lichens
135. The biocontrol agent which is most effective against
(v) Floatings several plant pathogens, is
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (1) Trichoderma
(2) (i), (ii), (iv) (2) Baculoviruses
(3) (i), (iv), (v) (3) NPV
(4) (i), (ii), (v) (4) More than one option is correct

(10)
 Test-2 (Code A)

ZOOLOGY
136. Morphine used as an effective sedative and painkiller, 142. FAD serves as a co-enzyme for many enzyme
is obtained from latex of_____ Plant. catalysed biological process. Which of the following
Select the option which correctly fills the blank. are components of FAD?

(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Datura (A) Adenine (B) Vitamin Riboflavin
(3) Lophophora (4) Cannabis sativa (C) Vitamin Niacin (D) Phosphate
137. Consider the following statements and choose the (E) Pentose sugar
correct option. (1) (A), (B) and (C)
(A) In cockroach, grinding of food is performed by (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
mandibles
(3) (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(B) Hind gut of cockroach is divided into caecum,
colon and rectum. (4) (A), (B), (D) and (E)
(1) Only (A) is correct 143. Total number of pulses per minute are calculated by
(2) Only (B) is correct counting the total number of QRS waves in an ECG
in a minute. ‘QRS’ wave represents
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(1) Depolarization of atria
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2) Depolarization of ventricles
138. Digestion of yellow of the egg begins effectively from
which part of the digestive system? (3) Repolarization of ventricles
(1) In oral cavity by lysozyme (4) Joint diastole
(2) In stomach by pepsin 144. The gland which establishes the biological body
(3) In small intestine by steapsin clock by releasing melatonin hormone is

(4) In colon by enterokinase (1) Anterior lobe of pituitary

139. Select the correct match of the animal with its one (2) Pineal gland
characteristic and the taxon it belongs to (3) Neurohypophysis
Animal Characteristic Taxon (4) Pars intermedia
(1) Buthus Book gills Arachnida
145. Increased levels of TSH in the blood indicate
(2) Nereis Metameric Oligochaeta
(1) Hypothyroidism, resulting in absence of negative
segmentation
feedback to pituitary
(3) Millipede Poisonous claw Diplopoda
(2) Hypothyroidism, providing a positive feedback to
and 2 pairs of
pituitary
limbs on segments
(4) Silver fish Ametabolous Insecta (3) Hyperthyroidism as excess stimulation of thyroid
development gland will occur

140. Role of epiglottis in deglutition is (4) Hyperthyroidism due to continued positive

feedback to thyroid follicles from pituitary
(1) Preventing the food from rising up in
nasopharynx 146. LH level reaches its peak in which phase of
menstrual cycle?
(2) Preventing the food from coming out through
mouth (1) Menstrual phase (2) Follicular phase
(3) Preventing the food from getting swallowed in (3) Luteal phase (4) Diestrus phase
glottis
147. Tertiary stage of syphilis is characterized by
(4) Preventing the food from getting swallowed in
(1) Hard painless chancres on genitals which
gullet
spread the bacteria
141. Select the odd one out w.r.t. lymphoid organs.
(2) Rashes and fever
(1) Lymph nodes and spleen
(3) Absence of symptoms as it is symptomless
(2) MALT and GALT stage
(3) Peyer’s patches and appendix (4) Organ degeneration referred to as neurosyphilis
(4) Bone marrow and thymus and cardiosyphilis
(11)
Test-2 (Code A)
148. Select the correct option w.r.t., various blanks in the 153. Nucleated formed elements have all the functions
table. except
Mode of Disease Causative organism (1) Phagocytosis
transfer and site of infection
(2) Coagulation
(i) (A) Amoebiasis Entamoeba (3) Mediating inflammation
histolytica, enteron
(4) Release of antibodies
(ii) Sharing of (B) Dermatophytes, skin,
combs hair & nails 154. Metameric segmentation, haemocoelomic
and towels schizocoelom and jointed appendages are
characteristic features of
(iii) Droplet Pneumonia (C), Lungs
infection (1) Arthropods (2) Annelids
(1) A – Droplet infection (3) Molluscs (4) Chordates
B – Ring worm 155. Absence of which of the following features in birds
C – Haemophilus influenza differentiate them from bats?
(2) A – Faeco-oral (1) Four chambered heart
B – Coryza (2) Homeothermy
C – Varicella
(3) Endothermal
(3) A – Faeco-oral
(4) Diaphragm for respiration
B – Ring worm
156. Mono amino dicarboxylic amino acid which gets
C – Streptococcus pneumoniae deaminated in the mitochondria of hepatocytes
(4) A – Sharing of needles during urea cycle is
B – Whooping cough (1) Ornithine (2) Citrulline
C – Streptococcus pneumoniae (3) Arginine (4) Glutamic acid
149. The contraceptive method having the dual benefit of
157. Which of the following is normally not a component
protecting against S.T.D. transmission and achieving
of ribonucleic acid?
contraception with a very high success rate is
(1) Intrauterine devices (IUDs) (1) Adenylic acid
(2) Condoms (2) Thymidylic acid
(3) Cervical caps, diaphragms and vaults (3) Uridine mono phosphate
(4) Chemical methods (4) Cytidine mono phosphate
150. In a population of 100 individuals, attached earlobes 158. Malpighian tubules of cockroach, which are lined by
(a recessive character) are present in 9 individuals. glandular and ciliated cells, absorb ______ from its
What is the number of heterozygotes in this haemocoel and release ________ in its hindgut.
population?
(1) Uric acid, uric acid (2) Ammonia, uric acid
(1) 42 (2) 49
(3) 21 (4) 7 (3) Urate salts, uric acid (4) Uric acid, urates
151. Select the incorrect match w.r.t., types of cells and 159. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. type of epithelium
their secretions. and its location in the body.
(1) Parafollicular cells of – Thyrocalcitonin (1) Brush bordered – Thyroid follicles and
thyroid all tubular parts of
(2) Juxta glomerular cells – Erythropoietin nephrons
(3) Zona fasciculata of – Cortisol (2) Simple squamous – Capillary endothelium
adrenal cortex and bowman’s
capsule
(4)  – cells of pancreas – Insulin
152. Which of the following is not produced by (3) Transitional epithelium – Ureters and urinary
neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus? bladder

(1) Somatostatin (2) Vasopressin (4) Stereociliated – Epididymis and vas

(3) Oxytocin (4) Somatotropin columnar deferens
(12)
 Test-2 (Code A)
160. Which of the following digestive process in the 166. Detachment of mature sperms heads from Sertoli
intestine is not catalyzed by brush bordered cells so that they move out of seminiferous tubules
enzymes of the succus entericus? for ejaculation is known as
(1) Maltose  Glucose + Glucose (1) Spermiation (2) Spermiogenesis
(2) Lipid globules  Smaller fat droplets (3) Spermatogenesis (4) Spermatidogenesis
(3) Lactose  Galactose + glucose 167. Hormone released soon after implantation which
(4) Dipeptides  Amino acids prevents involution of contents of corpus luteum,
hence maintaining the proliferated condition of
161. Removal of stomach surgically would not affect the
uterine endometrium, is
digestion of proteins to any considerable extent but
will cause __(A)__ due to lack of absorption of (1) hPL (2) hCG
___(B)___. (3) CRH (4) Chorionic thyrotropin
Select the correct option w.r.t., (A) and (B). 168. Consider the following statements w.r.t., Darwin’s
(1) (A) – Microcytic anaemia, (B) – Ferrous theory of evolution and select the correct option.
(2) (A) – Pernicious anaemia, (B) – Vit. B12 (A) Genetic variability is the raw material for
(3) (A) – Scurvy, (B) – Vitamin C operation of natural selection

(4) Both (1) & (2) (B) ‘Arrival of the fittest’ could not be explained by
Darwin in his theory
162. The resting potential of a relaxed muscle fibre’s
sarcolemma develops due to (1) Only (A) is correct
(1) Lack of activity of ATPase and equal (2) Only (B) is correct
permeability of sarcolemma for all monovalent (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
ions
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2) Activity of ATPase pump and differential
permeability of sarcolemma for Na and K ions 169. Similar phenotypes will develop when unrelated
organisms are subjected to same type of selection
(3) Activity of ATPase pump and higher permeability pressure. This statement explains the occurrence of
of sarcolemma for Na ions
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(4) Lack of activity of ATPase pump and higher
permeability of sarcolemma for K ions (3) Cladogenesis (4) Anagenesis
163. Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural method of birth 170. Death of a part of cardiac muscles due to continued
control which relies on lack of menstruation during lack of blood supply to them is known as
the intense lactation period just after parturition. The (1) Myocardial ischaemia
homone responsible for amenorrhoea is
(2) Myocardial infarction
(1) Prolactin
(3) Heart block
(2) Oxytocin
(4) Heart failure
(3) Progesterone and estrogen
171. Mode of spread of poliomyelitis is
(4) Gonadotropins
164. Type of parthenogenesis in which only females are (1) Direct contact with infected individuals
formed in all generations and no other mode of (2) Contact with body fluids of infected individuals
reproduction exists, is
(3) Faeco oral route
(1) Arrhenotoky
(4) Vector borne
(2) Thelytoky
172. ‘Golden Rice’ is a transgenic variety of rice in which
(3) Amphitoky _________ biosynthesis genes were inserted.
(4) Non-cyclic parthenogenesis (1) -carotene (2) Lactalbumin
165. Non-invasive technique of performing MTP involves (3) Galactosidase (4) -1-antitrypsin
the use of
173. Molecular diagnosis technique which aims to detect
(1) Emergency contraceptive pills taken within 72 even minute quantities of pathogens at very early
hours of coitus stages of infection through antigen-antibody inter
(2) Mifepristone action is
(3) Saheli (1) PCR (2) Southern blot
(4) Mini pills (3) ELISA (4) Gel electrophoresis
(13)
Test-2 (Code A)
174. Lack of proper functioning of ADA gene causes 178. Digenetic life cycle is a feature of all parasitic
helminthes except
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(1) Taenia solium
(2) Auto-immunity
(2) Taenia saginata
(3) Severe combined immune deficiency
(4) Multiple sclerosis (3) Ascaris

175. Inbreeding of domestic animals is a general practice (4) Wuchereria bancrofti

to obtain pure lines but it leads to inbreeding 179. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t., enzyme
depression. Introduction of variations in such inhibition.
populations is achieved commonly by
(1) Non competitive inhibitor binds to non-active site
(1) Interspecific mating (2) Outbreeding of enzyme
(3) Out-crossing (4) Cross-breeding (2) Addition of more quantity of malonate will reverse
176. Which of the following cells are not components of the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase enzyme
specific immunity? (3) Death by cyanide poisoning is an example of
(1) B-lymphocytes non-competitive inhibition

(2) T-lymphocytes (4) Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase cannot be

overcome by increasing the pO2
(3) Antigen presenting cells
180. Select the indirect method of gene transfer from the
(4) PMNLs and NK cells given options.
177. Functional pineal eye and circular suctorial mouth for (1) Biolistics or gene gun
sanguivorous feeding habit are characteristic features
of (2) PEG mediated DNA uptake
(1) Branchiostoma (2) Balanoglossus (3) Electroporation and heat shock treatment
(3) Sphenodon (4) Petromyzon (4) Ti plasmid mediated gene transfer

  

(14)
 Test-2 (Code A)

29/04/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 14 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.
(for AIPMT - 2016 )

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (1)
2. (3) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (1) 146 (2)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (3) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (2) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (1) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (1) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (4) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (3) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (1)
26. (2) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (1) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (1)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (3) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (4)

(15)
 29/04/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 14 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

(for AIPMT - 2016 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) 7. Answer (3)

E = h 1
mv 2 = qv
2
 h = ML2T–2 × T

= [ML2T–1] 2qv
v=
m
Angular momentum L = [ML2T–1]
As F v
2. Answer (3)
 F  v
l 8. Answer (4)
T = 2π
g M = iR2
l = 2R
2
T g 9. Answer (3)
l= 2
4π 10. Answer (3)
11. Answer (3)
l% = 2 T% + g%
Req = 2R + 16
 l% = 4%
As v = IR
3. Answer (1)
200
4. Answer (2) I= =4
2R + 16
 R = 17 
60c + 20c + 10c
v= = 30 V 12. Answer (2)
c+c+c
1 1 1
5. Answer (2) = + ...(for combination of lens)
F f1 f2
As torque about +q is zero, hence L is conserved.
Now f1 = f2 = f (say)
6. Answer (4)
1 1 1
 = +
20 f f
E1 E2
+  f = 40 cm
r1 r2 r r
Eeq = , req = 1 2 When, one lens is removed
1 1 r1 + r2
+
r1 r2 we, get, u = –20 cm, f = 40 cm

(1)
 20. Answer (3)
1 1 1
 By using lens formula = − 21. Answer (1)
f v u
we get, v = – 40 cm 22. Answer (4)

13. Answer (4) 1 1 (2e )( ze)

mv 2 =
As real image is magnification formed so will be 2 4 πε0 d
negative
23. Answer (2)
v
m = –0.5 = 24. Answer (2)
u
25. Answer (2)
 v = –0.5 u
26. Answer (2)
By lens formula,
As t = x2 + x
1 1 1
we get, = − dt
f v u = 2x + 
dx
1 1 1
 = −
30 −0.5 u u 1
v =
2αx + β
 u = –90 cm
When image is virtual, magnification will be positive. dv
 = a = – 2v3
Similarly, u = –15 cm dt
So, the object should be moved by 27. Answer (2)
(90 – 15) = 75 cm 28. Answer (3)
14. Answer (4)
1
v= k ( x22 − x12 )
m0 nI 2
B=
2r
29. Answer (2)
 |BS| = |B| but in opposite direction.
30. Answer (4)
 Bnet = 0
31. Answer (3)
15. Answer (1)
When string is cut
(100 − T )2kA (80 − T )3kA (T − 0)3kA
+ =
L L L L ⎛ ML2 ML2 ⎞
mg = ⎜ + α
200 – 2T + 240 – 3T = 3T 4 ⎝ 12 16 ⎟⎠
440 = 8T 12 g
=
T = 55°C 7L
16. Answer (2)
32. Answer (1)
17. Answer (1)
33. Answer (2)
18. Answer (3)
z = I
Dλ
Use = l ml 2
d  mg = α
19. Answer (4) (2 2) 3

h
= 3g
mv =
2 2l
According to Bohr theory
34. Answer (4)
h
mvr =
2π 1 mgh
Use mv 2 =
2 ⎡ h⎤
h
 = = 2r ⎢⎣1 + R ⎥⎦
mv
(2)
35. Answer (1) 40. Answer (1)
36. Answer (3) 41. Answer (3)
37. Answer (1) 42. Answer (3)
38. Answer (2)
43. Answer (1)
1
Energy stored = F ∆l A=
2 32 + 42 = 5
1 44. Answer (4)
= × 2000 × 10−3
2 45. Answer (3)
39. Answer (2)
v1 = (2r2)l = 4r2l VRT
Vsound = , which is independent of pressure.
v2 = r2(2l) = 2r2l M

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (3) 56. Answer (1)
P1V1 = P2 V2
Because of its highest mass
100
100 × V1 = 101 × V2 ⇒ V2  V1
47. Answer (4) 101

The law is followed by a given compound from any V1  V2

% decrease in volume  V1
 100
source in which all the elements are present in
same isotopic form. ⎛ 100 ⎞
 ⎜1   100
48. Answer (1) ⎝ 101⎟⎠

Fact 100
 %
101
49. Answer (1)
57. Answer (1)
Due to maximum mass and so maximum Because the density of ice is less than that of water.
intermolecular forces. 58. Answer (3)
50. Answer (3) Reversing equation (i) and adding it to (ii), we get
the net reaction
Fact 59. Answer (2)
51. Answer (1) 2H+(aq) + 2e–  H2 (g)

Because it is a lyophobic colloid. 0.059 PH2

E = E0– log
n (H )2
52. Answer (3)
0.059 1
Because it has the maximum valence of cation. E=0– log because pOH=4
2  10 2
(10 )
53. Answer (1)
So pH = 14 – 4 = 10  [H+] = 10–10 mol l–1
Because half life period of a first order reaction is Solving E = –0.59 V
independent of the initial concentration .
60. Answer (2)
54. Answer (4)
1 1
Fact Effective Cl– ions = 8  6  4
8 2
55. Answer (2)
1 5
8a a Effective Na+ ions after removal = 10  
TC  TB  4 2
27Rb Rb
5
TC 8  Formula = Na Cl4
 2
TB 27 = Na5Cl8
(3)
61. Answer (3) 77. Answer (4)
Due to holes in the crystal Formic acid reduces ammonical silver nitrate solution.
62. Answer (1) 78. Answer (2)
Because it can show negative deviation from Raoult’s A is C6H5NO2
law
B is C6H5NH2
63. Answer (1)
C is C6H6 which undergoes electrophilic substitution.
Both have angular or bent shape while H2O is SP3
while SO2 is SP2 hybridised. 79. Answer (2)
64. Answer (2) Fact
The balanced reaction is 80. Answer (3)

P4 + 3OH– PH3 + 3H2PO2 +3H2O Presence of SP carbon makes it the most acidic.

So ten moles of phosphorous gives 30 moles of 81. Answer (2)

hypophosphite ions Because it contains 4 electrons and so does not
65. Answer (2) follow Huckel’s rule.
In borax, boron is sp2 as well as sp3. 82. Answer (2)
66. Answer (1)  – H is acidic and is extracted by a base.
NaHCO 3 reacts with HCl to give CO 2 which 83. Answer (2)
extinguishes fire.
Addition of grignard reagent to acetaldehyde and then
67. Answer (1)
hydrolysis gives a secondary alcohol which gives on
Because it contains unpaired electrons & so shows alkene upon acidic dehydration.
d - d transition of electrons by visible light.
84. Answer (1)
68. Answer (2)
Acidic medium is used to increase the
Pt forms square planar complex even with weak electrophilicity of carboxyl carbon because ammonia
ligands due to large orbital splitting energy. derivatives are weak nucleophiles.
69. Answer (1)
85. Answer (2)
Because it is the least stable
Cl
70. Answer (1) PCl5
C=O C
Fact Cl
71. Answer (1) 86. Answer (2)
In XX´3 type, X´ is more electronegative than X.
LiAlH4
C6H5NO2 C6H5–N = N – C6H5
72. Answer (2)
Azobenzene
Fact
87. Answer (2)
73. Answer (1)
Fact
Because it contains a P - H bond.
88. Answer (3)
74. Answer (2)
Fact
NO2 is a mixed anhydride of HNO2 and HNO3.
75. Answer (2) 89. Answer (2)

Fact Fact

76. Answer (1) 90. Answer (2)

Due to strongest metallic bonding Fact

(4)
 BOTANY
91. Answer (1) 110. Answer (1)
Microfilaments are made up of actin protein. 111. Answer (2)
92. Answer (3) 112. Answer (2)
93. Answer (1) 113. Answer (4)
94. Answer (2) 114. Answer (2)
95. Answer (2) 115. Answer (3)
96. Answer (3) 116. Answer (2)
CAM plants fix atmospheric CO2 into organic acids They form pseudoplasmodium.
during night. 117. Answer (2)
97. Answer (3) 118. Answer (3)
98. Answer (3) 119. Answer (2)
99. Answer (2) Vegetative characters are not conservative.
Substrate is poor in oxygen and requires more O2 120. Answer (4)
for their oxidation.
121. Answer (2)
100. Answer (1)
122. Answer (2)
101. Answer (1)
123. Answer (2)
102. Answer (4)
124. Answer (2)
103. Answer (2)
More nutrients are present.
104. Answer (2)
125. Answer (3)
105. Answer (3)
126. Answer (2)
106. Answer (2)
127. Answer (2)
107. Answer (3)
128. Answer (2)
c c
XX X×Y
129. Answer (3)

X Y It is cross pollination.

X
c c
XX
c
XY 130. Answer (3)
c c c 131. Answer (2)
X XX XY
132. Answer (4)
108. Answer (3) 133. Answer (3)
109. Answer (3) 134. Answer (1)
End product inhibits its own biosynthesis. 135. Answer (1)

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 139. Answer (4)
Papaver somniferum (poppy plant) is the source of 140. Answer (3)
all natural opiates. Epiglottis covers the glottis to prevent the food from
137. Answer (1) entering in trachea.
Hind gut of cockroach is divided into ileum, colon & 141. Answer (4)
rectum. Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid
138. Answer (3) organs.

Yellow of the egg is made of lipids mainly whose 142. Answer (4)
digestion begins in small intestine with the help of Vitamin Niacin is a component of NAD and NADP
pancreatic lipase (steapsin). co-enzymes.
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143. Answer (2) 159. Answer (1)
144. Answer (2) Thyroid follicles lack the brush borders (microvilli).
Pineal gland controls diurnal rhythm, onset of
160. Answer (2)
puberty etc.
145. Answer (1) Lipid globules are converted to smaller fat droplets by
emulsification and further digested by steapsin from
Levels of TSH are regulated by negative feedback of
thyroxine hormone. pancreas.

146 Answer (2) 161. Answer (4)

LH level attains peak at the end of follicular phase 162. Answer (2)
due to positive feedback of estrogen.
Resting potential is maintained by ATPase pump
147. Answer (4)
and higher permeability of resting sarcolemma for K
Organ degeneration, which generally causes death, ions.
is the symptom in tertiary stage of syphilis.
163. Answer (1)
148. Answer (3)
149. Answer (2) 164. Answer (2)
Condoms and femshields prevent transmission of Thelytoky is complete parthenogenesis in which only
STDs by covering the surface of external genitals females are produced across all generations.
completely.
165. Answer (2)
150. Answer (1)
Frequency of recessive alleles = 0.3 (q) 166. Answer (1)

Frequency of dominant alleles = 0.7 (p) 167. Answer (2)

So, frequency of heterozygotes = 2pq = 0.42 hCG prevents degeneration/regression of corpus
151. Answer (4) luteum.
-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon while -cells 168. Answer (3)
secrete insulin.
169. Answer (1)
152. Answer (4)
Somatotropin is produced by anterior lobe of pituitary Appearance of similar characteristics in unrelated
gland. organisms is convergent evolution.
153. Answer (2) 170. Answer (2)
Coagulation is the function of platelets.
Myocardial ischaemia, reduced O2 supply, causes
154. Answer (1) myocardial infarction.
155. Answer (4)
171. Answer (3)
Diaphragm is a mammalian feature.
172. Answer (1)
156. Answer (4)
Acidic amino acid (glutamic acid) is formed in Golden rice in rich in -carotenes.
cytoplasm of hepatocytes and gets deaminated in 173. Answer (3)
the mitochondria.
Enzyme linked immuno – sorbent assay is detection
157. Answer (2)
of antibodies formed against the pathogen.
Thymidylic acid (TMP) is not a component of RNA.
174. Answer (3)
158. Answer (3)
Malpighian tubules absorb Na urate and K+ - urates ADA (adenosine deaminase) gene helps in
from the haemocoel and convert it to uric acid, maturation of lymphocytes by coding for Adenosine
releasing it in hind gut. deaminase enzyme
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175. Answer (3) 177. Answer (4)
Cyclostomes have functional pineal eye.
Outcrossing (mating of animals of same breed but
178. Answer (3)
not having common ancestors) is used to remove
inbreeding depression. 179. Answer (2)
Addition of succinate will reverse the inhibition of
176. Answer (4) SDH enzyme by malonate.
PMNL (polymorphonuclear leucocytes) & NK (natural 180. Answer (4)
killer) cells are parts of non specific defence. Vector mediated gene transfer is indirect method.

  

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