CCNA 1 – Introduction to Networks (Version 7.

00) – ITNv7
Course Final Exam Answers Full
CCNA: Introduction to Networks Course Final Exam
1. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol
(RTP)? (Choose two.)
 video
 web
 file transfer
 voice
 peer to peer
2. Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate
requirements making it popular in home automation
applications?
 ZigBee
 LoRaWAN
 5G
 Wi-Fi
Explanation: ZigBee is an IEEE 802.15.4 wireless standard designed for
creating personal-area networks. Low energy, power, and data rate requirements
make Zigbee a popular protocol for connecting home automation devices.
3. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward
messages through an internetwork?
 application
 network access
 internet
 transport
Explain:
The OSI model network layer corresponds directly to the internet layer of the
TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route
messages through an internetwork.
4. Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS,
AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?
 DNS
 email
 file
 web
Explain:
A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host
names. Some DNS record types include the following:
A – an end device IPv4 address
NS – an authoritative name server
AAAA – an end device IPv6 address
MX – a mail exchange record
5. What are proprietary protocols?
 protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor
hardware
 protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
 protocols developed by organizations who have control
over their definition and operation
 a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite
Explain:
Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one
company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with
permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a
proprietary protocol.
6. What service is provided by DNS?
 Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP
addresses.
 A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and
other multimedia files on the web.
 Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
 Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and
video on the web.
7. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 110. What service is the client
requesting?
 DNS
 DHCP
 SMTP
 POP3
8. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP
configuration of that computer?
 show ip interface brief
 ping
 show interfaces
 ipconfig
9. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That
printer has been shared so that other computers on the home
network can also use the printer. What networking model is in
use?
 client-based
 master-slave
 point-to-point
 peer-to-peer (P2P)
Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices
that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated
server.
10. What characteristic describes a virus?
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
 an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
 malicious software or code running on an end device
11. Three bank employees are using the corporate network.
The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web
page in order to read some announcements. The second
employee accesses the corporate database to perform some
financial transactions. The third employee participates in an
important live audio conference with other corporate
managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this
network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of
the different data types?
 financial transactions, web page, audio conference
 audio conference, financial transactions, web page
 financial transactions, audio conference, web page
 audio conference, web page, financial transactions
Explanation: QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue
management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of
application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over
transaction data, which has priority over web data.
12. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component.
(Not all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order:

global
This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider. routing

This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets. subnet ID

This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4
address. interface ID
13. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the
server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

 only application and Internet layers

 only Internet and network access layers
 only application, Internet, and network access layers
 application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
 only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
 application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet,
and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer
protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the layers
of the model and across the network to the file server.
14. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all
options are used.)
 Cut-through Store-and-forward

low latency always stores the entire frame

may forward runt frames checks the CRC before forwarding

begins forwarding when the destination address is checks the frame length before
received forwarding
Explanation: A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before
forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through switch can
forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus presenting
less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be
forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or
runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast
frames.
15. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device
interface should be used as the default gateway setting of
host H1?

 R1: S0/0/0
 R2: S0/0/1
 R1: G0/0
 R2: S0/0/0
Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the router interface that is
attached to the LAN that H1 is a member of. In this case, that is the G0/0
interface of R1. H1 should be configured with the IP address of that interface in
its addressing settings. R1 will provide routing services to packets from H1 that
need to be forwarded to remote networks.
16. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote
users.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
 Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
 Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP
address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing
requirements for each network.
Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128 /25, which yields 128
host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4 host addresses.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for
building the table that is shown?

 DHCP
 ARP
 DNS
 ICMP
Explanation: The table that is shown corresponds to the output of the arp -a
command, a command that is used on a Windows PC to display the ARP table.
19. A network administrator notices that some newly installed
Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals.
The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to
fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors
may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal
distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
 crosstalk
 extended length of cabling
 RFI
 EMI
 signal attenuation
20. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote
LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP
cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
(A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but
there are currently no mappings in the ARP cache. How will the device obtain a
destination MAC address?)
 It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
 It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
 It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
 It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
 It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the
default gateway.
22. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 53. What service is the client
requesting?
 DNS
 NetBIOS (NetBT)
 POP3
 IMAP
23. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch
office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What
is the smallest network mask that the network administrator
can use for the new network?
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
24. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?
 malicious software or code running on an end device
 an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
25. What service is provided by HTTPS?
 Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
 Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
 Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic
images, sound, and video on the web.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
26. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while
connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of
the data flow between multiple application sessions and have
each application receive the correct packet flows?
 The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the
technician PC.
  The data flow is being tracked based on the source port
number that is used by each application.
 The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used
by the PC of the technician.
 The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is
used by the PC of the technician.
Explanation:
The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to
individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each
application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous
communication from multiple applications through the Internet.
27. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch
office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What
is the smallest network mask that the network administrator
can use for the new network?
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.128
28. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP
address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing
requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)
 ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam
Explanation:
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.
29. What characteristic describes a DoS attack?
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
  a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
 software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the
user
 an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
30. Match the application protocols to the correct transport
protocols.

31. What service is provided by SMTP?

 Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the
servers to send email to other servers.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
 Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
32. Which scenario describes a function provided by the
transport layer?
 A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique
identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact
another network device on the same network.
  A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and
sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
 A student has two web browser windows open in order to
access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the
correct web page is delivered to the correct browser
window.
 A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate
network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears
properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
Explain:
The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct
application and window within that application.
33.Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a
packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer
3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted
from host B to the router?

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab

Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200
34. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data
communication?
 strengthening of a signal by a networking device
 leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
 time for a signal to reach its destination
 loss of signal strength as distance increases
Explanation: Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A
detector in the network interface of a destination device must receive a signal
that can be successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However, the farther
the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. This is referred to as signal
attenuation.
35. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure
the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in
the exhibit. What is the problem?

 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode
before issuing the command.
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global
configuration mode.
36. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP
protocol suite? (Choose two.)
 TCP
 IP
 UDP
 POP
 DNS
 Ethernet
37. A company has a file server that shares a folder named
Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public
folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into
the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the
network admin group. Which component is addressed in the
AAA network service framework?
 automation
  accounting
 authentication
 authorization
After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the
authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can
access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.
38. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used
in network communcations to allow message transmission
across a network? (Choose three.)
 message size
 message encoding
 connector specifications
 media selection
 delivery options
 end-device installation
39. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
 does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
 operates independently of the network media
 retransmits packets if errors occur
 re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
 guarantees delivery of packets
Explain:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means
that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of
packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of
the network media carrying the packets.
40. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the
company using the appropriate username and password. The
employee is attending an important video conference with a
customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video
quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is
unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the
company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however,
activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by
the employee or other employees.
What three network characteristics are described in this
scenario? (Choose three.)
 security
 quality of service
 scalability
 powerline networking
  integrity
 fault tolerance
Explanation: Usernames and passwords relate to network security. Good
quality video, to support video conferencing, relates to prioritizing the video traffic
with quality of service (QoS). The fact that a connection to an ISP failed and was
then restored but went unnoticed by employees relates to the fault tolerant
design of the network.
41. What are two common causes of signal degradation when
using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
 improper termination
 low-quality shielding in cable
 installing cables in conduit
 low-quality cable or connectors
 loss of light over long distances
Explanation: When terminated improperly, each cable is a potential source of
physical layer performance degradation.
42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a
usable host address?
 192.168.1.64/26
 192.168.1.32/27
 192.168.1.32/28
 192.168.1.64/29
Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host
addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets
are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of
host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other
subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
43. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two
statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose
two.)

 This host does not have a default gateway configured.

 There are 4 hops between this device and the device at
192.168.100.1.
  There is connectivity between this device and the device at
192.168.100.1.
 The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
 The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
Explain:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer
and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them
and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does
not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.
44. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow
patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer?
(Choose two.)
 Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
 Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good
representation of the different traffic types.
 Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic
such as the data center.
 Perform the capture on different network segments.
 Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the
largest amount of traffic on a network.
Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization
times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture
should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic
will be local to a particular segment.
45. What is the consequence of configuring a router with
the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
 All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
 The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6
Router Advertisement messages.
 Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.
 It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.
46. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application
layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
 application
 network
 data link
 session
 presentation
 transport
Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport,
internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers:
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical.
The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session
map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
47. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and
routing has been configured between the two routers, what
will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

 nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network

 open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out
S0/0/0
 open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
 remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2
header before sending it out S0/0/0
Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one
of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet
network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC
address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1.
When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and
creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial
link).
48. What will happen if the default gateway address is
incorrectly configured on a host?
 The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
 The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
 A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
 The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default
gateway.
 The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
49. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
 When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC
address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
 An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the
IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
 If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination
device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of
the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
 If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will
broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
 If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination
IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.
50. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch
office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What
is the smallest network mask that the network administrator
can use for the new network?
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.224
51. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in
ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)
 Neighbor Solicitation
 Destination Unreachable
 Host Confirmation
 Time Exceeded
 Router Advertisement
 Route Redirection
52. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 80. What service is the client
requesting?
 DHCP
 SMTP
 DNS
 HTTP
53. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting
IMAP instead of POP?
 POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while
IMAP allows distributed storage.
 Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are
manually deleted from the email client.
 When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept
in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
  IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email
messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user
connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to
the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until
the user manually deletes those messages.
54. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a
remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address
of the same web server. Which software utility can the
technician use to diagnose the problem?
 tracert
 ipconfig
 netstat
 nslookup
Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully
reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important
verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display
the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to
identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked
host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name
servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to
troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name
servers.
55. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of
the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?
(Choose two.)
 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1
Gigabit Ethernet over copper
 implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies
which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the
frame
Other case:
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
 handles communication between upper layer networking
software and Ethernet NIC hardware
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
  implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
Other case:
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1
Gigabit Ethernet over copper
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies
which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the
frame
 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
Other case:
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
 responsible for the internal structure of Ethernet frame
 implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
Other case:
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1
Gigabit Ethernet over copper
 handles communication between upper layer networking
software and Ethernet NIC hardware
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers:
+ Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software processes
that provide services to the network layer protocols. It places information in the
frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame.
This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to
utilize the same network interface and media.
+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media access
processes performed by the hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and
delimiting of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium
and the type of data link layer protocol in use.
56. The global configuration command ip default-gateway
172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this
command?
 The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
 The switch can be remotely managed from a host on
another network.
 The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the
gateway 172.16.100.1.
  The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices
to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is
achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.
57. What happens when the transport input ssh command is
entered on the switch vty lines?
 The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
 The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
 Communication between the switch and remote users is
encrypted.
 The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.
Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the
switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet
connections.
58. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options
are used.)
 voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts), unconditioned
electrical threats power (noise), and total power loss

physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and

hardware threats workstations

environmental temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes (too
threats wet or too dry)

maintenance poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic discharge),

threats lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor labeling
59. A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless
networking tools to determine information about the
enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using
this information to hack the wireless network. What type of
attack is this?
 DoS
 access
 reconnaissance
 Trojan horse
Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is the unauthorized discovery and
documentation of various computing networks, network systems, resources,
applications, services, or vulnerabilities.
60. What service is provided by HTTP?
 Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and
video on the web.
 Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
 A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images,
sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
61. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 67. What service is the client
requesting?
 FTP
 DHCP
 Telnet
 SSH
62. What are two problems that can be caused by a large
number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
 Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from
the attached subnets.
 The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the
entire subnet.
 The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a
very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that
they contain.
 A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the
switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC
table.
 All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes
on the local network.
Explanation: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:
(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be processed by software,
interrupting the CPU.
(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all ports.
A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP request or reply
messages. The switch populates the MAC table using the source MAC address
of all frames. The ARP payload is very small and does not overload the switch.
63. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added
to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a
technician finds that these PCs can access local network
resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the
problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP
address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify
connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI
commands and utilities will provide the necessary information?
(Choose three.)
 netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
 arp -a
 tracert
 ping
 ipconfig
 nslookup
 telnet
64. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the
router do immediately after matching the destination IP
address to a network on a directly connected routing table
entry?
 analyze the destination IP address
 switch the packet to the directly connected interface
 look up the next-hop address for the packet
 discard the traffic after consulting the route table
Explanation: A router receives a packet on an interface and looks at the
destination IP address. It consults its routing table and matches the destination
IP address to a routing table entry. The router then discovers that it has to send
the packet to the next-hop address or out to a directly connected interface. When
the destination address is on a directly connected interface, the packet is
switched over to that interface.
65. What characteristic describes antispyware?
 applications that protect end devices from becoming
infected with malicious software
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
 software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
 a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
66. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID,
password, and session contents private when establishing
remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which
access method should be chosen?
 Telnet
 AUX
 SSH
 Console
67. What are the two most effective ways to defend against
malware? (Choose two.)
 Implement a VPN.
 Implement network firewalls.
 Implement RAID.
 Implement strong passwords.
 Update the operating system and other application
software.
 Install and update antivirus software.
Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies
and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from
threats and vulnerabilities.
68. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a
spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?
 brute-force attack
 Trojan horse
 DoS
 buffer overflow
Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is
hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in
interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A
brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer
overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory
location than it can hold.
69. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by
a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal
has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?
 User Datagram Protocol field
 transport layer error check field
 flow control field
 frame check sequence field
 error correction process field
70. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch
office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is
the smallest network mask that the network administrator can
use for the new network?
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.192
71. What service is provided by POP3?
 Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email
to the local mail application of the client.
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
 Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
72. What two security solutions are most likely to be used only
in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)
 antispyware
 virtual private networks
 intrusion prevention systems
 strong passwords
 antivirus software
73. What characteristic describes antivirus software?
 applications that protect end devices from becoming
infected with malicious software
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
 a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
 software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
74. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received
IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?
 It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and
sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
 It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and
sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
 It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the
result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time
Exceeded message to the source host.
 It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it
discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source
host.
75. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 69. What service is the client
requesting?
 DNS
 DHCP
 SMTP
 TFTP
76. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret
password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three
additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only
encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)
 Configure DNS on the router.
 Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
 Configure the IP domain name on the router.
 Generate the SSH keys.
 Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
 Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.
77. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of
the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?
(Choose two.)
 handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
 implements trailer with frame check sequence for error
detection
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer
protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
 implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2
frame
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
Case 2:
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer
protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 implements trailer with frame check sequence for error
detection
Case 3:
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over
fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
  handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
Case 4:
 applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize
communication between nodes
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer
protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 implements trailer with frame check sequence for error
detection
 handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
Case 5:
 applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize
communication between nodes
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet
frame
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer
protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
 handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
78. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the
destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this
packet?
 all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link
 all IPv6 DHCP servers
 all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
 all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
Explanation: FF02::2 identifies all IPv6 routers that exist on the link or
network. FF02::1 is the target for all IPv6 enabled devices on the link or network.
79. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address?
(Choose three.)
 subnet ID
 subnet mask
 broadcast address
 global routing prefix
 interface ID
Explanation: The general format for IPv6 global unicast addresses includes a
global routing prefix, a subnet ID, and an interface ID. The global routing prefix is
the network portion of the address. A typical global routing prefix is /48 assigned
by the Internet provider. The subnet ID portion can be used by an organization to
create multiple subnetwork numbers. The interface ID is similar to the host
portion of an IPv4 address.
80. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new
wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be
accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose
three.)
 extensive cabling
 mobility options
 packet collision
 interference
 security
 coverage area
Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the
size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network
security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless
network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts.
Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless
networks.
81. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a
banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a
network administrator could test whether the banner is
properly configured?
 Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
 Exit global configuration mode.
 Power cycle the device.
 Reboot the device.
 Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .
82. What method is used to manage contention-based access
on a wireless network?
 token passing
 CSMA/CA
 priority ordering
 CSMA/CD
83. What is a function of the data link layer?
 provides the formatting of data
 provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
 provides delivery of data between two applications
 provides for the exchange of frames over a common local
media
84. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
 to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
 to end communication when data transmission is complete
 to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
 to request that a source decrease the rate at which it
transmits data
Explanation: The TCP sliding window allows a destination device to inform a
source to slow down the rate of transmission. To do this, the destination device
reduces the value contained in the window field of the segment. It is
acknowledgment numbers that are used to specify retransmission from a specific
point forward. It is sequence numbers that are used to ensure segments arrive in
order. Finally, it is a FIN control bit that is used to end a communication session.
85. What characteristic describes spyware?
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
 software that is installed on a user device and collects
information about the user
 an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
86. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS
check?
 store-and-forward switching
 borderless switching
 ingress port buffering
 cut-through switching
87. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an
IPv6-enabled interface?
 FEC0::/10
 FDEE::/7
 FE80::/10
 FF00::/8
Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original
IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range
FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique
local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of
FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.
88. What service is provided by FTP?
 A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and
other multimedia files on the web.
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
 Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
  Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and
video on the web.
89. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/
without success. Which two configuration values must be set
on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
 DNS server
 source port number
 HTTP server
 source MAC address
 default gateway
90. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or
a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network?
(Choose two.)
 NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.
 NAT introduces problems for some applications that require
end-to-end connectivity.
 NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
 NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address
depletion.
 NAT improves packet handling.
 NAT causes routing tables to include more information.
Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technology that is
implemented within IPv4 networks. One application of NAT is to use private IP
addresses inside a network and use NAT to share a few public IP addresses for
many internal hosts. In this way it provides a solution to slow down the IPv4
address depletion. However, since NAT hides the actual IP addresses that are
used by end devices, it may cause problems for some applications that require
end-to-end connectivity.
91. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled
interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the
interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?
 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
 C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
Explanation: To derive the EUI-64 interface ID by using the MAC address 1C-
6F-65-C2-BD-F8, three steps are taken.
 Change the seventh bit of the MAC address from a binary 0 to a binary 1
which changes the hex C, into a hex E.
 Insert hex digits FFFE into the middle of the address.
 Rewrite the address in IPv6 format.
The three steps, when complete, give the interface ID
of 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8.
92. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it
needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will
happen next?

 SW1 will send an ARP reply with the SW1 Fa0/1 MAC address.
 SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
 PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with the RT1 Fa0/0 MAC address.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.
Explain: When a network device wants to communicate with another device on
the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request
will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP
reply with its MAC address.
93. What service is provided by BOOTP?
 Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and
video on the web.
 Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
 Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to
discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the
network.
 A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and
other multimedia files on the web.
94. What characteristic describes adware?
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
 software that is installed on a user device and collects
information about the user
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
 an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
95. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error
threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will
the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?
 cut-through
 store-and-forward
 fast-forward
 fragment-free
96. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all
options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam

Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required
Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices
can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis.
Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best
used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and
background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.
97. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC
sublayer? (Choose two.)
 error detection
 frame delimiting
 accessing the media
 data encapsulation
 logical addressing
98. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined
from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief
command? (Choose three.)

 Two physical interfaces have been configured.

 The switch can be remotely managed.
 One device is attached to a physical interface.
  Passwords have been configured on the switch.
 Two devices are attached to the switch.
 The default SVI has been configured.
Explain:
Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be
configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a
device is connected.
99. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all
options are used.)

addressing This field helps to direct the frame toward its destination.
 error detection This field checks if the frame has been damaged during the transfer.

type This field is used by the LLC to identify the Layer 3 protocol.

frame start This field identifies the beginning of a frame.

100. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address
2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?
 2001:DA48::/64
 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64
 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
 2001::/64
101. Match the firewall function to the type of threat
protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are
used.)

prevents access by port number application filtering

 prevents access based on IP or MAC address packet filtering

prevents unsolicited incoming sessions stateful packet inspection

prevents access to websites URL filtering

Explain:Firewall products come packaged in various forms. These products
use different techniques for determining what will be permitted or denied access
to a network. They include the following:
+ Packet filtering – Prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses
+ Application filtering – Prevents or allows access by specific application types
based on port numbers
+ URL filtering – Prevents or allows access to websites based on specific URLs
or keywords
+ Stateful packet inspection (SPI) – Incoming packets must be legitimate
responses to requests from internal hosts. Unsolicited packets are blocked
unless permitted specifically. SPI can also include the capability to recognize and
filter out specific types of attacks, such as denial of service (DoS)
102. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in
accessing network resources during certain time periods of the
week. What kind of information should network engineers
check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network
behavior?
 syslog records and messages
 the network performance baseline
 debug output and packet captures
 network configuration files
103. How does the service password-encryption command
enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?
 It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a
router or switch with Telnet.
 It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch
configuration files.
 It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a
router or switch.
 It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.
Explain: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext
passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized
users.
104. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4
and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
 The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
  The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
 The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
 The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
 The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the
Hop Limit field in IPv6.
Explanation: The IPv6 packet header fields are as follows: Version, Traffic
Class, Flow Label, Payload Length, Next Header, Hop Limit, Source Address,
and Destination Address. The IPv4 packet header fields include the following:
Version, Differentiated Services, Time-to-Live, Protocol, Source IP Address, and
Destination IP Address. Both versions have a 4-bit Version field. Both versions
have a Source (IP) Address field. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits; IPv6 addresses are
128 bits. The Time-to-Live or TTL field in IPv4 is now called Hop Limit in IPv6,
but this field serves the same purpose in both versions. The value in this 8-bit
field decrements each time a packet passes through any router. When this value
is 0, the packet is discarded and is not forwarded to any other router.
105. A network administrator wants to have the same network
mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has
the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed
The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network
used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of
the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.252
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.224
106. What characteristic describes identity theft?
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
 software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
 software that identifies fast-spreading threats
 a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
107. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch
office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What
is the smallest network mask that the network administrator
can use for the new network?
  255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.224
108. What are three commonly followed standards for
constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
 cost per meter (foot)
 cable lengths
 connector color
 pinouts
 connector types
 tensile strength of plastic insulator
109. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed
termination?

 The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

 The wrong type of connector is being used.
 The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
 The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is
important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible
plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires.
None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.
110. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options
are used.)

IP address MAC address

contained in the Layer 3 header contained in the Layer 2 header

separated into a network portion and a unique separated into OUI and a unique
identifier identifier

32 or 128 bits 48 bits

111. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 143. What service is the client
requesting?
 IMAP
 FTP
 SSH
 Telnet
112. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP?
(Choose two.)
 default window size
 connectionless communication
 port numbering
 3-way handshake
 ability to to carry digitized voice
 use of checksum
Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish
different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right
applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by
using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is
received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish
an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent
before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best
protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.
113. Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be
assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers
should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that
are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range
of addresses. (Choose two.)

 10.18.10.200/28
 10.18.10.208/28
 10.18.10.240/27
 10.18.10.200/27
 10.18.10.224/27
 10.18.10.224/28
Explanation: Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the
leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center network.
Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is
needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be
used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.
114. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 21. What service is the client
requesting?
 FTP
 LDAP
 SLP
 SNMP
115. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link
layer of the OSI model?
 attached Ethernet cable
 IP address
 MAC address
 RJ-45 port
 TCP/IP protocol stack
116. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch
office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What
is the smallest network mask that the network administrator
can use for the new network?
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
117. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect
against signal interference from crosstalk?
 wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
 twisting the wires together into pairs
 terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
 encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are
twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields
of each wire to cancel each other out.
118. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has
assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0.
This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In
order to accommodate a new building, the technician has
decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new
network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies,
the router interface is always assigned the first usable host
address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host
address. Which configuration should be entered into the
properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the
Internet?

 IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway:

192.168.10.76
 IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway:
192.168.10.33
 IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248,
default gateway: 192.168.10.33
 IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway:
192.168.10.46
 IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway:
192.168.10.1
Explain:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)
119. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default
configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but
host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway.
Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host
A?

 only host D
 only router R1
 only hosts A, B, and C
 only hosts A, B, C, and D
 only hosts B and C
 only hosts B, C, and router R1
Explain:
Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP
table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to
every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive the
broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.
120. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all
options are used.)
 ITN (Version 7.00) – ITNv7 Final Exam
Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required
Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices
can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis.
Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best
used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and
background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.
121. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given
the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown.
How many total host addresses are unused across all four
subnets?

 88
 200
 72
 224
 158
122. Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an
Ethernet LAN?

LC conector

SC conector
 BNC

RJ 11
True Answer:

RJ 45 (true answer)
123. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a
destination port number of 22. What service is the client
requesting?
 SSH
 SMB/CIFS
 HTTPS
 SLP
124. What characteristic describes an IPS?
 a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the
network of an organization
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into
a network
 software that identifies fast-spreading threats
  software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
Explanation: IPS – An intrusion prevention system (IPS) monitors incoming
and outgoing traffic looking for malware, network attack signatures, and more. If
it recognizes a threat, it can immediately stop it.
125. What service is provided by DHCP?
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
 Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary
devices.
 Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and
servers.
126. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the
OSI model. (Not all options are used.)
 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4

802.2 header source IP address destination port number

FCS (frame check sequence) TTL Acknowledgement number

destination MAC address

127. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default
configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but
host A does not have the MAC address for the default gateway.
Which network devices will receive the ARP request sent by
host A?

i360201v3n1_275353.png
 only host D
 only hosts A, B, C, and D
 only hosts B and C
 only hosts B, C, and router R1
 only hosts A, B, and C
 only router R1
Explanation: Because host A does not have the MAC address of the default
gateway in the ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast
would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1
would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.
128. Which wireless technology has low-power and low-data
rate requirements making it popular in IoT environments?
 Bluetooth
 Zigbee
 WiMAX
 Wi-Fi
Explanation: Zigbee is a specification used for low-data rate, low-power
communications. It is intended for applications that require short-range, low data-
rates and long battery life. Zigbee is typically used for industrial and Internet of
Things (IoT) environments such as wireless light switches and medical device
data collection.
129. What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted
through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3
addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
 neighbor solicitations
 echo requests
 neighbor advertisements
 echo replies
 router solicitations
 router advertisements
130. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its
interface. After an address has been generated and applied to
the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to
use this IPv6 address?
 It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the
address of the DNS server.
 It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to
request permission to use this address.
 It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what
default gateway it should use.
 It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to
ensure that the address is not already in use on the
network.
131. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network.
The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default
gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued
to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was
successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?
 The default gateway is not operational.
 The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
 Security rules are applied to the default gateway device,
preventing it from processing ping requests.
 The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.
132. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of
2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created
without using bits in the interface ID space?
 256
 512
  1024
 4096
133. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40
devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be
wasted?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.224
Explanation: In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6 host bits are needed.
With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number
and one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be
assigned to network devices. The mask associated with leaving 6 host bits for
addressing is 255.255.255.192.
134. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host
B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it
leaves host A?

 DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
 172.168.10.99
 CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
 172.168.10.65
 BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
 AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
Explain:
When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header
will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be
the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface
that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to
host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address
is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
135. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
 Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to
interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
 Network capabilities are extended without requiring
investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
 End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and
communicate across a business network.
 Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the
network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing
data cables.
Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring
investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new
software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to
any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function.
BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use personal tools to access
information and communicate across a business or campus network. Smart
home technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to
interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that uses existing electrical
wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet,
saving the cost of installing data cables.
136. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP
addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved?
(Choose two.)
 Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain
constant along the entire path to a target host.
 Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across
seven routers.
 Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a
new destination IP address is needed.
 Destination and source MAC addresses have local
significance and change every time a frame goes from one
LAN to another.
 A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP
address four times.
137. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
  It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the
media.
 It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
 It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the
physical medium to be used in the communication.
 It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the
packet to a remote network.
138. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process?
(Choose three.)
 The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a
collision.
 A device listens and waits until the media is not busy
before transmitting.
 After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume
transmission after a random time delay has expired.
 All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the
network medium.
 A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not
busy.
 Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
Explanation: The Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection
(CSMA/CD) process is a contention-based media access control mechanism
used on shared media access networks, such as Ethernet. When a device needs
to transmit data, it listens and waits until the media is available (quiet), then it will
send data. If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision will occur. Both
devices will detect the collision on the network. When a device detects a
collision, it will stop the data transmission process, wait for a random amount of
time, then try again.
139. Which information does the show startup-config command
display?
 the IOS image copied into RAM
 the bootstrap program in the ROM
 the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
 the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
Explain:
The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in
NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the
currently running configuration file located in RAM.
140. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to
display the routing table? (Choose two.)
 netstat -s
  route print
 show ip route
 netstat -r
 tracert
Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to
display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a
router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The
netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert
command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.
141. What are two functions that are provided by the network
layer? (Choose two.)
 directing data packets to destination hosts on other
networks
 placing data on the network medium
 carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination
hosts
 providing dedicated end-to-end connections
 providing end devices with a unique network identifier
Explanation: The network layer is primarily concerned with passing data from
a source to a destination on another network. IP addresses supply unique
identifiers for the source and destination. The network layer provides
connectionless, best-effort delivery. Devices rely on higher layers to supply
services to processes.
142. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4
routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
 Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing
table: C and S .
 If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route
associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
 The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.
 The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
 It stores information about routes derived from the active
router interfaces.
 If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry
will be included in the routing table with source code S .
Other case:
 The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.
 The routing table stores information about routes derived
from the active router interfaces.
 The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
  Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing
table: C and S .
 If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry
will be included in the routing table with source code S
Explanation: The show ip route command is used to display the routing
table of the router. In IPv4, directly connected interfaces will have one source
code:C. The routing table stores information about directly connected routes and
remote routes. An entry in the routing table with a source code of S is included if
a default static route is configured on the router.
143. What characteristic describes a VPN?
 software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
 software that identifies fast-spreading threats
 a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure
access into the network of an organization
 a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
144. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
 to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
 to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
 to enable the switch to be managed remotely
 to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to
transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed
remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address
must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers,
not switches, function as default gateways.
145. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all
options are used.)
 message the process of placing one message format inside another
encapsulation message format

the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces

message sizing before being sent over the network

the process of converting information from one format into another

message encoding acceptable for transmission
146. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a
remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what
information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate
the destination?
 the network domain of the destination host
 the IP address of the default gateway
 the MAC address of the destination host
 the MAC address of the default gateway
Explanation: A frame is encapsulated with source and destination MAC
addresses. The source device will not know the MAC address of the remote host.
An ARP request will be sent by the source and will be responded to by the router.
The router will respond with the MAC address of its interface, the one which is
connected to the same network as the source.
147. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined
by an open standard?
 A company can monopolize the market.
 The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
 An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards
organizations.
 It encourages competition and promotes choices.
Explain:
A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a
protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed
equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open
standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.
148. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination
server. Which three statements correctly describe the function
of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
 The source port field identifies the running application or
service that will handle data returning to the PC.
 The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port
when establishing a session with the server.
 UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for
transport across the network.
 The UDP destination port number identifies the application
or service on the server which will handle the data.
 TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network
overhead.
 The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which
will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and
will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned.
Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used
when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port
number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are
specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.
149. Match each description with the corresponding TCP
mechanism. (Not all options are used.)

number of bytes a destination device can accept and process at one

time window size

sequence
used to identify missing segments of data numbers

method of managing segments of data loss retransmission

received by a sender before transmitting more segments in a

session acknowledgment
150. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of
128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would
provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while
providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the
exhibit?
  255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.224
Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the
subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8
hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum
number of subnets.
151. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet
mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the
following networks and numbers of devices:

Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses

Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses

Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the

three subnetworks?
  255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.252
Explain:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be
examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed.
The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these
networks.
152. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which
it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

physical topology diagram logical topology diagram

location of a desktop PC in a classroom IP address of a server

path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets

153. What two pieces of information are displayed in the
output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
 IP addresses
 interface descriptions
 MAC addresses
 next-hop addresses
 Layer 1 statuses
 speed and duplex settings
Explanation: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of
each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1
and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex
settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses
are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC
address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.
154. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking
longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load
on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with
administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in
the network?
 ping
 nslookup
 tracert
 ipconfig /displaydns
Explanation: The Command Prompt command tracert will map the path from
the PC to the web server and measure transit delays of packets across the
network.
155. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is
decremented by each router that receives a packet?
 Header Length
 Differentiated Services
 Time-to-Live
 Fragment Offset
Explanation: When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the
Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving router
will discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message to the
sender.
156. A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic
cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should
be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose
two.)
 Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and
splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
 Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
 Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
 Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
 Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more
expensive than copper cabling.
157. Match each description with an appropriate IP address.
(Not all options are used.)
 an experimental address 240.2.6.255

a link-local address 169.254.1.5

a public address 198.133.219.2

a loopback address 127.0.0.1

158. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what
point would a router, which is in the path to the destination
device, stop forwarding the packet?
 when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
 when the RTT value reaches zero
 when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
 when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
 when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach
zero
Explain:
When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is
decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router
will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message
back to the source.
159. Users report that the network access is slow. After
questioning the employees, the network administrator learned
that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program
for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that
causes slow performance of the network?
 virus
 worm
 phishing
 spam