Arvind Academy

PHYSICS 2025 SP 1
Class 12 - Physics
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.

3. All the sections are compulsory.

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4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B

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contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D

contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of

five marks each.

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5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B, one
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question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to

attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

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6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. The formation of depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to [1]
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a) movement of dopant atoms b) drift of electrons only

c) diffusion of both electrons and holes d) drift of holes only

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2. For a fixed potential difference applied across a conductor, the drift speed of free electrons does not depend [1]
upon

a) length of the conductor b) temperature of the conductor

c) mass of the electrons d) free electron density in the conductor

3. A bird flies down vertically towards a water surface. To a fish inside the water, vertically below the bird, the bird [1]
will appear to

a) move faster than its actual speed b) be at its actual distance

c) move slower than its actual speed d) be closer than its actual distance
4. At a point on the right bisector of a magnetic dipole, the magnetic: [1]

a) field varies as r3 b) potential is zero at all points on the right

bisector

c) field is perpendicular to the axis of dipole d) potential varies as 1

2
r

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 5. A charge Q is kept at the centre of a circle of radius r. A test charge q0 is carried from a point X to the point Y on [1]

this circle such that arc XY subtends an angle of 60o at the centre of the circle. The amount of work done in this
process will be
Qq
a) 1 0
b) Zero
4πε0 2r

c) 1 √3Qq0
d) 1 √3Qq0

4πε0 r 4πε0 2r

6. Magnetic field due to a straight solenoid at any point inside it is B = μ ni. Magnetic field at the end of the
0 [1]
solenoid is

a) B b) B

c) B

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d) 2B
7. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation I = I0 sin [1]

Ωt , where I0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad s-1. The maximum value of emf in the second coil is

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a) 12 π b) 2 π

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c) 5 π d) 6 π
8. The main use of studying a hysteresis curve for a given material is to estimate the [1]

a) voltage loss

c) current loss
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d) power loss
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9. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygens’ construction of wavefront is: [1]
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a) diffraction b) refraction

c) origin of spectra d) reflection

10. Out of the following which one is not a property of field lines: [1]
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a) Field lines are continuous curves without b) Field lines start at positive charges and end
any breaks at negative charges

c) Two field lines cannot cross each other d) They form closed loops
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11. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop at 0.5 V at all currents and a [1]
maximum power rating of 100 milliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series with
diode for obtaining maximum current?

a) 20 Ω b) 6.76 Ω

c) 5 Ω d) 5.6 Ω
12. The refractive index of glass is 1 ⋅ 520 for red light and 1 ⋅ 525 for blue light. δ 1 and δ2 be angles of minimum [1]
deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass, then

a) δ 1 = δ2 b) δ1 < δ2

c) δ can be less than or greater than δ ,

1 2 d) δ1 > δ2

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 depending upon the values of δ 1 and δ2 .
13. Assertion (A): In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons do not have same kinetic energy. [1]
Reason (R): If radiation falling on the photosensitive surface of metal consists of different wavelengths then
energy acquired by electrons absorbing photons of different wavelengths shall be different.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion: At a point in space, the electric field points towards north. In the region surrounding this point the [1]
rate of change of potential will be zero along the east and west.
Reason: Electric field due to a charge is the space around the charge.

a) Assertion and reason both are correct b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation statements but reason is not correct
for assertion. explanation for assertion.

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c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is

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wrong statement. correct statement.
15. Assertion (A): If the phase difference between the light waves emerging from the slits of the Young's [1]
experiment is π radian, the central fringe wil! be dark.
Reason (R): Phase difference is equal to (
2π
)
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times of path difference.
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λ

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): Capacitor serves as a block for dc and offers an easy path to ac. [1]
Reason (R): Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.
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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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Section B

17. Two charges 5 × 10-8 C and -3 × 10-8 C are located 16 cm apart. At what point (s) on the line joining the two [2]
charges is the electrical potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.
18. The following figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation versus the applied magnetic field [2]
intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B:

i. Identify the materials A and B.

ii. Draw the variation of susceptibility with temperature for B.

19. Mobilities of electrons and holes in a sample of intrinsic germanium at room temperature are 0.54 m2 V-1 s-1 [2]

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 and 0.18m2 V-1 s-1 respectively. If the electron and hole densities are equal to 3.6 × 1019 m-3, calculate the
germanium conductivity.
20. According to the classical electromagnetic theory, calculate the initial frequency of the light emitted by the [2]
electron revolving around a proton in hydrogen atom.
21. A student records the following data for the magnitudes (B) of the magnetic field at axial points at different [2]
distances x from the centre of a circular coil of radius a carrying a current I. Verify (for any two) that these
observations are in good agreement with the expected theoretical variation of B with x.

x→ x=0 x-a x=2a x = 3a

– – −−
y→ B0 0.25√2B0 0.039√5B0 0.010√10 B0

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OR

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A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west direction. What is the magnitude and
direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the line?

22.
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Section C
Two cells of emf 2E and E and internal resistances 2r and r respectively, are connected in parallel. Obtain the [3]
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expressions for the equivalent emf and the internal resistance of the combination.
23. a. Why is an intrinsic semiconductor deliberately converted into an extrinsic semiconductor by adding impurity [3]
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atoms?
b. Explain briefly the two processes that occur in p-n junction region to create a potential barrier.
24. The data given below gives the photon energy (in eV) for a number of waves whose wavelength values (in nm) [3]
are also given.
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Wavelength (in nm) → 200 400 600 800 1000 1200

Photon energy (in eV) → 6.216 3.108 2.072 1.554 1.243 1.036
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(Without doing any calculation/taking any reading), explain how one can use this data to draw an appropriate
graph to infer
a. photon energy corresponding to a wavelength of 100 nm.
b. the wavelength value (in nm) corresponding to a photon energy of 1 eV.
c. velocity of light, assuming that the value of Planck's constant is known.

25. a. Differentiate between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. [3]

b. Deuterium undergoes fusion as per the reaction:
2
1
H + H ⟶ He + n + 3.27M eV
2
1
3
2
1
0

Find the duration for which an electric bulb of 500 W can be kept glowing by the fusion of 100 g of
deuterium.
26. Using Bohr’s postulates derive the expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when electron in hydrogen [3]
atom undergoes transition from higher energy state (quantum number ni) to the lower state, (nf). When electron

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 in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state ni = 4 to nf = 3, 2, 1, identify the spectral series to which the emission

lines belong.
27. The angular width of a central maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit is measured. The slit is [3]
∘

illuminated by the light of wavelength 6000 A. When the slit is illuminated by the light of another wavelength,
the angular width decreases by 30%. Calculate the wavelength of this light. The same decrease in the angular-
width of the central maximum is obtained when the original apparatus is immersed in a liquid. Find the
refractive index of the liquid.
28. The current flowing in the two coils of self-inductance L1 = 16 mH and L2 = 12 mH are increasing at the same [3]

rate. If the power supplied to the two coils are equal, then find the ratio of
i. induced voltages
ii. the currents and
iii. the energies stored in the two coils at a given instant.
OR

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Consider a metallic pipe with an inner radius of 1 cm. If a cylindrical bar magnet of radius 0.8cm is dropped through

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the pipe, it takes more time to come down than it takes for a similar unmagnetized cylindrical iron bar dropped
through the metallic pipe. Explain.

29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: de

Section D

LASER: Electromagnetic radiation is a natural phenomenon found in almost all areas of daily life, from radio
[4]
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waves to sunlight to x-rays. Laser radiation - like all light - is also a form of electromagnetic radiation.
Electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength between 380 nm and 780 nm is visible to the human eye and is
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commonly referred to as light. At wavelengths longer than 780 nm, optical radiation is termed infrared (IR) and
is invisible to the eye. At wavelengths shorter than 380 nm, optical radiation is termed ultraviolet (UV) and is
also invisible to the eye. The term laser light refers to a much broader range of the electromagnetic spectrum
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that just the visible spectrum, anything between 150 nm up to 11000 nm (i.e., from the UV up to the far IR). The
term laser is an acronym which stands for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. Einstein
explained the stimulated emission. In an atom, electron may move to higher energy level by absorbing a photon.
When the electron comes back to the lower energy level it releases the same photon. This is called spontaneous
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emission. This may also so happen that the excited electron absorbs another photon, releases two photons and
returns to the lower energy state. This is known as stimulated emission.
Laser emission is therefore a light emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy, for targeting and ablating the
stone inside human body organ.
Apart from medical usage, laser is used for optical disk drive, printer, barcode reader etc.
(a) What is the full form of LASER?

a) light amplification by simultaneous b) light amplified by synchronous

emission of radiation emission of radiation

c) light amplified by stimulated emission d) light amplification by stimulated

of radiation emission of radiation
(b) The stimulated emission is the process of

a) absorption of two photon when electron b) release of two photons by absorbing

moves from lower to higher energy one photon when electron comes back

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 level from higher to lower energy level

c) release of a photon when electron d) absorption of a photon when electron

comes back from higher to lower energy moves from lower to higher energy
level level
(c) What is the range of amplitude of LASER?

a) 150 nm - 400 nm b) 700 nm - 11000 nm

c) Both 150 nm - 400 nm and 700 nm - d) 800 nm - 12000 nm

11000 nm
OR
LASER is used in

a) Ionization b) Transmitting Satellite signal

c) Optical disk drive d) Radio communication

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(d) Lithotripsy is

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a) Laboratory application b) An industrial application

c) A medical application d) Process control application

30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
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The triboelectric series is a list that ranks materials according to their tendency to gain or lose electrons. The
[4]
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process of electron transfer as a result of two objects coming into contact with one another and then separating is
called triboelectric charging. During such an interaction, one of the two objects will always gain electrons
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(becoming negatively charged) and the other object will lose electrons (becoming positively charged). The
relative position of the two objects on the triboelectric series will define which object gains electrons and which
object loses electrons.
In triboelectric series, materials are ranked from high to low in terms of the tendency for the material to lose
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electron. If an object high up on this list (Glass, for example) is rubbed with an object low down on the list
(Teflon, for example), the glass will lose electrons to the teflon. The glass will, in this case, become positively
charged and the teflon will become negatively charged. Materials in the middle of the list (steel and wood, for
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 example) are items those do not have a strong tendency to give up or accept electrons.

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(a) Materials in the upper position have ________ tendency to become positively charged.

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a) no b) medium

(b)
c) high
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Name two materials which do not have a strong tendency to give up or accept electrons.
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a) Steel, wood b) Plastic wrap, Teflon

c) Ebonite, Nylon d) Nylon, cat fur

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(c) If human hair is rubbed with amber, how those will be charged?

a) Hair will be negatively charged, Amber b) Both positive

will be positively charged.
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c) Hair will be positively charged, Amber d) Both negative

will be negatively charged.
(d) Triboelectric charging is the process of electron transfer between two objects
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a) By contact b) Without contact

c) By anyone of these d) By none of these

OR
The object which loses electron becomes ________ charged and the object gains electron becomes
________ charged.

a) positively, positively b) negatively, positively

c) negatively, negatively d) positively, negatively

Section E
31. Determine the 'effective focal length' of the combination of the two lenses having focal lengths 30 cm and -20cm [5]
if they are placed 8.0 cm apart with their principal axes coincident. Does the answer depend on which side of the
combination a beam of parallel light is incident? Is the notion of effective focal length of this system useful at
all?

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 OR
a. Figure shows the geometry of path differences for diffraction by a single slit of width a. Give appropriate
'reasoning' to explain why the intensity of light is

i. maximum at the central point C on the screen.

ii. (nearly) zero for point P on the screen when θ ≈
λ

Hence write an expression for the total linear width of the central maximum on a screen kept at a distance D
from the plane of the slit.
b. Diffraction defines the limit of the ray optics. Give a brief explanation of this statement.

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[5]

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32. a. Describe briefly the process of transferring the charge between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor
when connected to a battery. Derive an expression for the energy stored in a capacitor.

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b. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential difference V. It is disconnected from the
battery and then connected to another uncharged capacitor of the same capacitance. Calculate the ratio of the
energy stored in the combination to the initial energy on the single capacitor.
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OR
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d, as shown in fig.
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a. Find the work required to put together this arrangement.

b. A charge q0 is brought to the center E of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much

extra work is needed to do this?

33. i. Derive an expression for the average power consumed in a series L-C-R circuit connected to AC source for [5]
which the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is ϕ .
ii. Define the quality factor in an AC circuit. Why should the quality factor have high value in receiving
circuits? Name the factors on which it depends.
OR
i. The figure shows the variation of resistance and reactance versus angular frequency. Identify the curve which
corresponds to inductive reactance and resistance.

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ii. Show that series LCR circuit at resonance behaves as a purely resistive circuit. Compare the phase relation
between current and voltage in series LCR circuit for (i) XL > XC, (ii) XL = XC using phasor diagrams.
iii. What is an acceptor circuit and where it is used?

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 Arvind Academy

PHYSICS 2025 SP 2
Class 12 - Physics
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.

3. All the sections are compulsory.

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4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B

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contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D

contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of

five marks each.

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5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B, one
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question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to

attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

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6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. The valence electron in an alkali metal is a [1]
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a) s-electron b) p-electron

c) d-electron d) f-electron
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2. Which of the following relation is called as current density? [1]

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a) I

A
b) I

2
A

c) I
d) A

A I

3. There are certain material developed in laboratories which have a negative refractive index Figure. A ray [1]
incident from air (medium 1) into such a medium (medium 2) shall follow a path given by

a) b)

c) d)

4. The susceptibility of ferromagnetic material is: [1]

a) inversely proportional to square of b) inversely proportional to temperature

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 temperature

c) independent of temperature d) directly proportional to temperature

5. Which of the following is not the property of equipotential surfaces? [1]

a) They are concentric spheres for uniform b) They can be imaginary spheres.
electric fields.

c) They do not cross each other. d) Rate of change of potential with distance on
them is zero.
6. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohm and a range of V volt. The value of resistance used in series to convert it [1]
into a voltmeter of range nV volt is

a) (n-1)G b) nG

c) n−1
G
d) G

7. In a discharge tube at 0.02 mm, there is formation of [1]

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a) Faraday's dark space b) Crooke's dark space and Faraday's dark

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space

c) none of these d) Crooke's dark space

8. The μ is also known as :
0

a) magnetic dipole
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b) Absolute Permittivity
[1]
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c) Magnetic dipole moment d) Magnetic flux
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9. Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 104 A. The image seen through the slit shall [1]

a) only be a diffused slit white in colour b) a bright slit white at the center diffusing to
regions of different colours
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c) a bright slit white at the center diffusing to d) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the
zero intensities at the edges center
10. The number of electrons for one coulomb of charge is [1]
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a) 6.25 × 1019 b) 6.25 × 1023

c) 6.25 × 1021 d) 6.25 × 1018

11. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is [1]

a) zero b) 0.5 A

c) 0.75 A d) 0.25 A
12. A telescope, when in normal adjustment, has a magnifying power of 6 and the objective and the eye-piece are 14 [1]
cm apart The focal lengths of the eye-piece and the objective respectively are

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 a) 2 cm and 14 cm b) 3 cm and 12 cm

c) 2 cm and 12 cm d) 3 cm and 14 cm
13. Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle nature of light. [1]
Reason (R): Photoelectric current is proportional to intensity of incident radiation for frequencies more than the
threshold frequency.

a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
true and Reason (R) is the correct but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A). explanation of the Assertion (A).

c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also
false. false.
14. Assertion (A): Positive charge always moves from a higher potential point to a lower potential point. [1]
Reason (R): Electric potential is a vector quantity.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

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explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
15.

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Assertion (A): All bright interference bands have the same intensity.
Reason (R): In interference all bands receive same light from two sources.
[1]
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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): It is advantageous to transmit electric power at high voltage. [1]
Reason (R): High voltage implies high current.
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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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Section B
17. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor but has a [2]
thickness ( )d, where d is the separation of the plates. How is the capacitance changed when the slab is inserted
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between the plates?

18. Distinguish between diamagnetic and ferromagnetic materials in terms of [2]
i. susceptibility and
ii. their behaviour in a non-uniform magnetic field

19. a. In n-type semiconductor, explain how the crystal is electrically neutral although electrons are the majority [2]
carriers in it.
b. Write the conditions under which two light sources are said to be coherent.

20. In Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom, the nucleus (radius about 10–15 m) is analogous to the sun about [2]

which the electron move in orbit (radius ≈ 10–10 m) like the earth orbits around the sun. If the dimensions of the
solar system had the same proportions as those of the atom, would the earth be closer to or farther away from the

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 sun than actually, it is? The radius of the earth’s orbit is about 1.5 × 1011 m. The radius of the sun is taken as 7

× 108 m.
21. A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2.0 cm as shown in the given [2]
figure (a). What is the direction and magnitude of B at the centre of the arc? Would your answer change if the
wire were bent into a semicircular arc of the same radius but in the opposite way as shown in given figure (b).

OR

What is the radius of the path of an electron (mass 9 × 10-31 kg and charge 1.6 × 10–19 C) moving at a speed of 3 ×

107 m/s in a magnetic field of 6 × 10–4 T perpendicular to it? What is its frequency? Calculate its energy in keV. ( 1
eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J).
Section C

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22. Calculate the steady current through the 2Ω resistor in the circuit shown in the figure. [3]

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23. Draw a circuit diagram of a full-wave rectifier. Explain its working principle. Draw the input/output, wave-forms [3]
indicating clearly the functions of the two diodes used.
24. a. State two important features of Einstein's photoelectric equation. [3]
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b. Radiation of frequency 1015 Hz is incident on two photosensitive surfaces P and Q. There is no

photoemission from surface P. Photoemission occurs from surface Q but photoelectrons have zero kinetic
energy. Explain these observations and find the value of work function for surface Q.
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25. i. In a typical nuclear reaction, e.g.​ [3]

2 2 3
H + H ⟶ He + n + 3.27
1 1 2

Although number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain.

ii. Show that nuclear density in a given nucleus is independent of mass number A.
26. Use Bohr’s postulates to derive the expressions for the potential and kinetic energy of the electron moving in the [3]

nth orbit of the hydrogen atom. How is the total energy of the electron expressed in terms of its kinetic and
potential energies?
∘

27. A slit of width 'a' is illuminated by red light of wavelength 6500 A. For what value of 'a' will [3]

1. the first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30oand

2. the first maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o?

28. Define the term self-inductance. Write its SI unit. Give two factors on which self inductance of an air-core coil [3]
depends.
OR

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 A rectangular loop of wire ABCD is kept close to an infinitely long wire carrying a current I(t) = lo (1 - t

T
) for

0 ≤ t ≤ T and I(0) = 0 for t > T (Figure). Find the total charge passing through a given point in the loop, in time T.
The resistance of the loop is R.

Section D
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
All the known radiations from a big family of electromagnetic waves which stretch over a large range of
wavelengths. Electromagnetic wave include radio waves, microwaves, visible light waves, infrared rays, UV
rays, X-rays and gamma rays. The orderly distribution of the electromagnetic waves in accordance with their

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wavelength or frequency into distinct groups having widely differing properties is electromagnetic spectrum.

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(a) Which wavelength of the Sun is used finally as electric energy?
radio waves, infrared waves, visible light, microwaves

a) microwaves

c) radio waves
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d) infrared waves
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(b) Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the longest wavelength?
X-rays, γ -rays, microwaves, radiowaves
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a) γ -rays b) microwaves

c) radiowaves d) X-rays
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(c) Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?

X-rays, gamma rays, cathode rays, infrared rays

a) gamma rays b) infrared rays

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c) X-rays d) cathode rays

OR
The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is

a) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, b) microwave, gamma rays, infrared,

microwave ultraviolet

c) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet,

gamma rays gamma rays.
(d) Which of the following has minimum wavelength?
X-rays, ultraviolet rays, γ -rays, cosmic rays

a) X-rays b) cosmic rays

c) ultraviolet rays d) γ -rays

30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]

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 When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field, its two charges experience equal and opposite forces,
which cancel each other and hence net force on electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero. However these
forces are not collinear, so they give rise to some torque on the dipole. Since net force on electric dipole in
uniform electric field is zero. so no work is done in moving the electric dipole in uniform electric field. However
some work is done in rotating the dipole against the torque acting on it.

(a) The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field E⃗ is P ⃗. Then the torque τ ⃗ acting on the dipole
is

a) τ ⃗ = ⃗ ⃗
2( P + E ) b) ⃗
τ⃗ = P ⋅E
⃗

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c) τ ⃗ = ⃗ ⃗
(P + E ) d) ⃗
τ⃗ = P × E
⃗

(b) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of magnitude 1.0 μ C separated by a distance of

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2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of 105 NC-1. The maximum torque on the dipole is

a) 4 × 10-3 Nm

c) 1 × 10-3 Nm
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d) 0.2 × 10-3 Nm
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(c) Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to
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a) 0o b) 90o

c) 180o d) Both 0o and 180o

(d) When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net force F and torque τ on the
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dipole are

a) F = 0, τ = 0 b) F ≠ 0, τ ≠ 0

c) F ≠ 0, τ = 0 d) F = 0, τ ≠ 0
Ar

OR
An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position
such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of the field. Assuming that the
potential energy of the dipole to be zero when θ = 90o, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole
will respectively be

a) pE sin θ , - pE cos θ b) pE cos θ , -pE sin θ

c) pE sin θ , 2pE cos θ d) pE sin θ , -2pE cos θ

Section E
31. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of focal length [5]
6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to
obtain the final image at
a. the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm), and
b. at infinity?

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 What is the magnifying power of the microscope in each case?
OR
i. Define a wavefront. How is it different from a ray?
ii. Depict the shape of a wavefront in each of the following cases.
a. Light diverging from point source.
b. Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus.
c. Using Huygen's construction of secondary wavelets, draw a diagram showing the passage of a plane
wavefront from a denser into a rarer medium.

32. i. Explain using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behaviour of a [5]

a. conductor and
b. dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarisation of a dielectric and write
its relation with susceptibility.
ii. A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A point charge Q/2 is placed at

y
its centre C and another charge + 2Q is placed outside the shell at a distance x from the centre as shown in

m
the figure. Find

de
ca
a. the force on the charge at the centre of shell and at the point A,
b. the electric flux through the shell.
dA

OR
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d, as shown in fig.
vin
Ar

a. Find the work required to put together this arrangement.

b. A charge q0 is brought to the center E of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much
extra work is needed to do this?

33. a. Draw graphs showing the variations of inductive reactance and capacitive reactance with the frequency of [5]
the applied ac source.
b. Draw the phasor diagram for a series RC circuit connected to an ac source.
c. An alternating voltage of 220 V is applied across a device X, a current of 0.25 A flows, which lag behind the
applied voltage in phase by radian. If the same voltage is applied across another device Y, the same current
π

flows but now it is in phase with the applied voltage.

i. Name the devices X and Y.
ii. Calculate the current flowing in the circuit when the same voltage is applied across the series
combination of X and Y.

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 OR
a. Show that an ideal inductor does not dissipate power in an ac circuit.
b. The variation of inductive reactance (XL) of an inductor with the frequency (f) of the ac source of 100 V and
variable frequency is shown in the fig.

i. Calculate the self-inductance of the inductor.

ii. When this inductor is used in series with a capacitor of unknown value and a resistor of 10Ω at 300 s-1,

y
maximum power dissipation occurs in the circuit. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor.

m
de
ca
dA
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Ar

8/8
 Arvind Academy

PHYSICS 2025 SP 4
Class 12 - Physics
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.

3. All the sections are compulsory.

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4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B

m
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D

contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of

five marks each.

de
5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B, one
ca
question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to

attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

dA

6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. Energy gap between valence band and conduction band of a semiconductor is [1]
vin

a) infinite b) zero

c) 10 eV d) 1 eV
Ar

2. The current in a device varies with time t as I = 6t, where I is in mA and t is in s. The amount of charge that [1]
passes through the device during t = 0 s to t = 3s is

a) 27 mC b) 10 mC

c) 54 mC d) 18 mC
3. Which of the following principle is used in optical fibre? [1]

a) Total internal reflection b) Scattering

c) Interference d) Diffraction
4. Points A and B are situated perpendicular to the axis of a 2 cm long bar magnet at large distances x and 3x from [1]
its centre on opposite sides. The ratio of the magnetic fields at A and B will be approximately equal to

a) 2 : 9 b) 1 : 9

c) 9 : 1 d) 27 : 1
5. An electric dipole consisting of charges +q and -q separated by a distance r, is kept symmetrically at the centre [1]

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 of an imaginary sphere of radius R (> r). Another point charge Q is also kept at the centre of the sphere. The net
electric flux coming out of the sphere will be
−Q
a) b)
−(2q+Q)

4πε0 ε0

2q+Q Q
c) ε0
d) ε0

6. If number of turns, area and current through a coil is given by n, A and i respectively, then its magnetic moment [1]
will be

a) n2iA b) ni A
−
−
c) niA2 d) ni√A

7. The self inductance L of a solenoid of length l and area of crosssection A, with a fixed number of turns N [1]
increases as

a) l increases and A decreases b) l decreases and A increases

y
c) Both l and A decrease d) l and A increase
8. A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2. 5 × 10 −4
carries a current of 3.0 A. It is [1]

m
2
m

free to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.25 T is applied. Magnitude

a) 0.075 J de
of torque on the solenoid when its axis makes an angle of 30° with the direction of applied field is

b) 0.09 J
ca
c) 0.065 J d) 0.06 J
9. According to Huygens principle, the amplitude of secondary wavelets is [1]
dA

a) equal in both the forward and the backward b) large in the forward direction and small in
directions. the backward direction.

c) maximum in the forward direction and zero d) small in the forward direction and large in
vin

in the backward direction. the backward direction.

10. Quantization of charge implies: [1]

a) there is a minimum permissible charge on a b) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is

Ar

particle not possible

c) charge cannot be destroyed d) charge exists on particles

11. In the circuit shown in the given Fig., if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3 V, the voltage difference between [1]
A and B is

a) 1.3 V b) 2.3 V

c) 0 d) 0.5 V
12. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is: [1]

a) Virtual, inverted and magnified b) Real, erect and magnified

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 c) Virtual, erect and magnified d) Real, inverted and magnified
13. Assertion (A): In his study of photoelectric emission, Hallwachs connected a negatively charged zinc plate to an [1]
electroscope. He found that negatively charged particles were emitted from the zinc plate under the action of
visible light.
Reason (R): An uncharged zinc plate becomes positively charged when it is irradiated by visible light.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Circuits containing high capacity capacitors, charged to high voltage should be handled with [1]
caution, even when the current in the circuit is switched off.
Reason (R): When an isolated capacitor is touched by hand or any other part of the human body, there is an easy
path to the ground available for the discharge of the capacitor.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

y
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): Light added to light can produce darkness. [1]

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

de
Reason (R): The destructive interference of two coherent light sources may give dark fringe.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

ca
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
dA

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): In alternating current, the direction of motion of free electrons changes periodically. [1]
Reason (R): Alternating current changes its direction after a certain is always constant.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
vin

explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Ar

Section B
17. Two charges 5 × 10-8 C and -3 × 10-8 C are located 16 cm apart. At what point (s) on the line joining the two [2]

charges is the electrical potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.

18. If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at a place where the angle of dip is 60° is 0.4 × 10-4 T, [2]

calculate the vertical component and the resultant magnetic field at that place.
19. a. Explain the formation of energy bands in crystalline solids. [2]
b. Draw the energy band diagrams of (i) a metal and (ii) a semiconductor.
20. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. What series of wavelengths [2]
will be emitted?
21. a. Write any two important points of similarities and differences each between Coulomb's law for the [2]
electrostatic field and Biot-Savart's law for the magnetic field.
b. Use Biot-Savart's law to find the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular loop of radius 'r' carrying
current 'I', at its centre.
OR

3/8
 An element Δl ⃗ = ^
Δx i is placed at the origin and carries a large current I = 10 A (Fig.). What is the magnetic field
on the y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m? Δx = 1 cm.

Section C
22. Draw a plot showing the variation of resistivity of a (i) conductor and (ii) semiconductor, with the increase in [3]
temperature. How does one explain this behaviour in terms of number density of charge carriers and the
relaxation time?
23. a. Explain how a potential barrier is developed in a p-n junction diode. [3]
b. Draw the circuit arrangement for studying the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode in reverse bias. Plot

y
the V-I characteristics in this case.

m
24. Write Einstein's photoelectric equation in terms of the stopping potential and the threshold frequency for a given [3]
photosensitive material. Draw a plot showing the variation of stopping potential vs. the frequency of incident

25.
radiation.
de
i. The density of the nuclear matter is tremendously larger than the physical density of the material. Explain. [3]
ca
ii. The nuclear forces are not coulomb forces between nucleons. Explain.
iii. Draw a plot of the potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of distance between them inside
dA

a nucleus.
26. The photon emitted during the de-excitation from the first excited level to the ground state of hydrogen atom is [3]
used to irradiate a photocathode of a photocell, in which stopping potential of 5 V is used. Calculate the work
function of the cathode used.
vin

27. In Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is [3]
k units. Find the intensity at a point where the path difference is
i. π
Ar

ii.
π

iii.
π

28. A current is induced in coil C1 due to the motion of current carrying coil C2. [3]

i. Write any two ways by which a large deflection can be obtained in the galvanometer G.
ii. Suggest an alternative device to demonstrate the induced current in place of a galvanometer.
OR
Consider a metal ring kept (supported by a cardboard) on top of a fixed solenoid carrying a current I (see Figure).
The centre of the ring coincides with the axis of the solenoid. If the current in the solenoid is switched off, what will

4/8
 happen to the ring?

Section D
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Maxwell showed that the speed of an electromagnetic wave depends on the permeability and permittivity of the

y
medium through which it travels. The speed of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by c = μ ε
1
. The
√ 0 0

m
fact led Maxwell to predict that light is an electromagnetic wave. The emergence of the speed of light from
purely electromagnetic considerations is the crowning achievement of Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory. The

de
speed of an electromagnetic wave in any medium of permeability μ and permittivity ε will be

the dielectric constant of the medium and μ is the relative permeability.

r
c

√Kμr
where K is
ca
(a) The dimensions of 1

2
ε0 E
2
(ε : permittivity of free space; E = electric field) is
0

a) MLT-1 b) ML-1T-2
dA

c) ML2T-2 d) ML2T-1

(b) Let [ε0

] denote the dimensional formula of the permittivity of the vacuum. If M = mass, L = length, T =
time and A = electric current, then
vin

a) [ε 0
] = ML2T-1 b) [ε0 ] = MLT-2A-2

c) [ε 0
] = M-1L-3T4A2 d) [ε0 ] = M-1L-3T2A
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(c) An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with
permittivity ε = 4. Then

a) wavelength is halved and the frequency b) wavelength and frequency both remain
remains unchanged. unchanged

c) wavelength is doubled and the d) wavelength is doubled and the

frequency remains unchanged frequency becomes half
OR
The electromagnetic waves travel with

a) the speed of light c = 3 × 108 m s-1 in b) the speed of light c = 3 × 10 m s-1 in

fluid medium. solid medium

c) the speed of light c = 3 × 108 m s-1 in d) the same speed in all media
free space
(d) Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

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 cosmic rays, γ -rays, β-rays, X-rays

a) β-rays b) X-rays

c) γ -rays d) cosmic rays

30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
dq
Surface charge density is defined as charge per unit surface area of surface charge distribution. i.e., σ = dS
.
Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the plates have surface

charge densities of opposite signs having magnitude of 17.0 × 10-22 Cm-2 as shown. The intensity of electric
field at a point is E = , where ε = permittivity of free space.
σ
0
ε0

(a) E in the outer region of the first plate is

m y
a) 1.5 × 10-25 N/C b) 1.9 × 10-10 N/C

c) 17 × 10-22 N/C d) zero

(b) E in the outer region of the second plate is

a) zero
de b) 1.9 × 10-10 N/C
ca
c) 17 × 10-22 N/C d) 1.5 × 10-15 N/C
dA

(c) E between the plates is

a) 1.9 × 10-10 N/C b) 1.5 × 10-15 N/C

c) zero d) 17 × 10-22 N/C

vin

(d) The ratio of E from right side of B at distances 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively is
–
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : √2
Ar

c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1
OR
In order to estimate the electric field due to a thin finite plane metal plate, the Gaussian surface considered
is

a) cylindrical b) Cone

c) spherical d) straight line

Section E
31. i. Figure shows a cross-section of a light pipe made of a glass fibre of refractive index 1.68. The outer covering [5]
of the pipe is made of a material of refractive index 1.44. What is the range of the angles of the incident rays

6/8
 with the axis of the pipe for which total reflections inside the pipe take place as shown in the figure.

ii. What is the answer, if there is no outer covering of the pipe?

OR
When a parallel beam of a monochromatic source of light of wavelength λ is incident on a single slit of width a,
show how the diffraction pattern is formed at the screen by the interference of the wavelets from the slit. Show that,
besides the central maxima at θ = 0, secondary maxima are observed at θ = and the minima at θ = .
1 λ nλ
(n + )
2 a a

Why do secondary maxima get weaker in intensity with increasing n?

32. a. Two-point charges q1 and q2 are kept r distance apart in a uniform external electric field E⃗. Find the amount [5]

of work done in assembling this system of charges.

y
b. A cube of side 20 cm is kept in a region as shown in the figure. An electric field E⃗ exists in the region such

m
that the potential at a point is given by V = 10x + 5, where V is in volt and x is in m.

de
ca
dA

Find the
i. electric field E⃗, and
ii. total electric flux through the cube.
vin

OR
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d, as shown in fig.
Ar

a. Find the work required to put together this arrangement.

b. A charge q0 is brought to the center E of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much
extra work is needed to do this?

33. i. Write the function of a transformer. State its principle of working with the help of a diagram. Mention [5]
various energy losses in this device.
ii. The primary coil of an ideal step-up transformer has 100 turns and transformation ratio is also 100. The input
voltage and power are respectively 220 V and 1100 W. Calculate
a. number of turns in secondary
b. current in primary

7/8
 c. voltage across secondary
d. current in secondary
e. power in secondary
OR
i. A series L-C-R circuit is connected to an AC source of variable frequency. Draw a suitable phasor diagram to
deduce the expressions for the amplitude of the current and phase angle.
ii. Obtain the condition at resonance. Draw a plot showing the variation of current with the frequency of AC source
for two resistances R1 and R2 (R1 > R2). Hence, define the quality factor Q and write its role in the tuning of the
circuit.

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dA
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8/8
 Arvind Academy

PHYSICS 2025 SP 3
Class 12 - Physics
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.

3. All the sections are compulsory.

y
4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B

m
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D

contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of

five marks each.

de
5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B, one
ca
question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to

attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

dA

6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. The energy gap between the valence and conduction bands of a substance is 6 eV. The substance is a: [1]
vin

a) semiconductor b) superconductor

c) insulator d) conductor
Ar

2. Drift is the random motion of the charged particles within a conductor, [1]

a) along with a very slow net motion in the b) along with accelerated motion in the
opposite direction of the field direction of the field

c) along with a decelerated motion in the d) along with zero motion in the direction of
direction of the field the field
3. A plano-convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5.The focal length ƒ of the lens and radius of [1]
curvature R of its curved face are related as

a) f =
R

2
b) ƒ = R

c) ƒ = 2R d) f =
3

2R

4. A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves parallel to its magnetic axis. The physical quantity that remains [1]
unchanged is:

a) moment of inertia b) pole strength

1/8
 c) magnetic moment d) magnitude of magnetisation
5. A variable capacitor is connected to a 200 V battery. If its capacitance is changed from 2μF to XμF, the [1]
decrease in energy of the capacitor is

a) 1μF b) 3μF

c) 4μF d) 2μF

6. A region has a uniform magnetic field in it. A proton enters into the region with velocity making an angle of 45o [1]
with the direction of the magnetic field. In this region the proton will move on a path having the shape of a

a) helix b) straight line

c) spiral d) circle
7. An emf of 100 mV is induced in a coil when current in another near by coil becomes 10 A from 0 in 0.1 s. The [1]
coefficient of mutual induction between the two coils will be:

a) 100 mH b) 1 mH

y
c) 1000 mH d) 10 mH

m
8. The intensity of magnetic field is H and the moment of a magnet is M Maximum potential energy is: [1]

a) 4 MH

c) MH de
b) 3 MH

d) 2 MH
ca
9. A ray of light of wavelength 600 nm propagates from air into a medium. If its wavelength in the medium [1]
becomes 400 nm, the refractive index of the medium is
dA

a) 1.4 b) 1.6

c) 1.5 d) 1.8
10. If there were only one type of charge in the universe, then: [1]
vin

q
a) ∮ EdS = 0 if the charge is outside the b) ∮ E. dS = ε0
if charges of magnitude q is
surface. inside the surface.

c) ∮ E. dS ≠ 0 on any surface. d) Both ∮ E. dS = 0 if the charge is outside

Ar

q
the surface and ∮ E. dS = ε0
if charges of
magnitude q is inside the surface
11. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is [1]

a) 10-2 A b) 0 A

c) 10-1 A d) 10-3 A

12. Which of the following is used in optical fibers? [1]

a) Scattering b) Refraction

c) Diffraction d) Total internal reflection

13. Assertion (A): A photocell is called an electric eye. [1]
Reason (R): When light is incident on some semiconductor, its electrical resistance is reduced.

2/8
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Two parallel metal plates having charge +Q and -Q are facing at a distance between them. The [1]
plates are now immersed in kerosene oil and the electric potential between the plates decreases.
Reason (R): Dielectric constant of kerosene oil is less than 1.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

15. Assertion (A): It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two violins. [1]
Reason (R): For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must remain constant.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

y
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

m
16. Assertion (A): At resonance, LCR series circuit has a minimum current. [1]

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct de

Reason (R): At resonance, in LCR series circuit, the current and emf are not in phase with each other.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

ca
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

dA

Section B
17. Two charges 2μC and −2μC are placed at points A and B, 6 cm apart. [2]
a. Identify an equipotential surface of the system.
b. What is the direction of electric field at every point on this surface?
vin

18. Three identical specimens of magnetic materials Nickel, Antimony, Aluminium are kept in a uniform magnetic [2]
field. Draw the modification in the field lines in each case. Justify your answer.
19. A certain n-p-n transistor has the common emitter output characteristics as shown in the figure. [2]
Ar

a. Find the emitter current at VCE = 12.5 V and Ib = 60 μ A, and

b. Current gain β at this point.
20. In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterizes the earth’s revolution around [2]
the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 × 1011 m with orbital speed 3 × 104 m/s. (Mass of earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg.)
21. A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 12 A and is lying on the table. Another wire CD carrying 5 A is held [2]

3/8
 directly above AB at a height of 1 mm. Find the mass per unit length of the wire CD so that it remains
suspended at its position when left free. Give the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in
AB.
OR
If the magnetic field is parallel to the positive y-axis and the charged particle is moving along the positive x-axis
(Fig.), which way would the Lorentz force be for
a. an electron (negative charge),
b. a proton (positive charge).

m y
22. de
Section C
i. You are required to select a carbon resistor of resistance 47kΩ ± 10% from a large collection. What should [3]
ca
be the sequence of colour bands used to code it?
ii. Write the characteristics of manganin which make it suitable for making standard resistance.
[3]
dA

23. a. Explain the formation of a p-n junction.

b. Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and physically join it to another n-type semiconductor to get a
p-n junction? Explain.

24. a. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of the two has [3]
vin

i. greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it, and

ii. lesser momentum?
Justify your answer in each case.
Ar

b. How is the momentum of a particle related with its de-Broglie wavelength? Show the variation on a graph.

25. a. Depict the variation of the potential energy of a pair of nucleons with the separation between them. [3]
b. Imagine the fission of a 56
26
Fe into two equal fragments of 28
13
Al nucleus. Is the fission energetically possible?
Justify your answer by working out Q value of the process.
Given: m( Fe ) = 55.93494 u, m ( Al ) = 27.98191 u.
56
26
28
13

26. A narrow beam of protons, each having 4.1 MeV energy is approaching a sheet of lead (Z = 82). Calculate: [3]
a. the speed of a proton in the beam, and
b. the distance of its closest approach
27. In a double-slit experiment, the distance between the slits is 3 mm and the slits are 2 m away from the screen. [3]
Two interference patterns can be seen on the screen one due to light with wavelength 480 nm, and the other due
to light with wavelength 600 nm. What is the separation on the screen between the fifth-order bright fringes of
the two interference patterns?
28. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when: [3]

4/8
 i. the distance between the coils is increased?
ii. the number of turns in each coil is decreased?
iii. a thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils, other factors remaining the same?
Justify your answer in each case.
OR
A magnetic field B is confined to a region r ≤ a and points out of the paper (the z-axis), r = 0 being the centre of the
circular region. A charged ring (charge = Q) of radius b, b > a and mass m lies in the x-y plane with its centre at the
origin. The ring is free to rotate and is at rest. The magnetic field is brought to zero in time Δt. Find the angular
velocity ω of the ring after the field vanishes.
Section D
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Electrons oscillating in a circuit give rise to radiowaves. A transmitting antenna radiates most effectively the
radiowaves of wavelength equal to the size of the antenna. The infrared waves incident on a substance set into
oscillation all its electrons, atoms and molecules. This increases the internal energy and hence the temperature of

y
the substance.

m
(a) If vg, vX and vm are the speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then

a) v

c) v
g

g
> vX > vm

> vX > vm de b)

d)
vg < vX < vm

vg = vX = vm
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(b) Which of the following will deflect in electric field?

a) ultraviolet rays b) γ -rays

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c) X-rays d) cathode rays

(c) γ -rays are detected by

a) point contact diodes b) ionization chamber

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c) thermopiles d) photocells
OR
We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is true?
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i. The radiation emitted is in the infrared region.

ii. The radiation is emitted only during the day.
iii. The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters.
iv. The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence it is not visible.

a) Option (iv) b) Option (ii)

c) Option (iii) d) Option (i)

(d) The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a particle of radius 3 × 10-4 cm is
the order of

a) 1014 Hz b) 1012 Hz

c) 1013 Hz d) 1015 Hz

30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]

5/8
Electric field strength is proportional to the density of lines of force i.e., electric field strength at a point is
proportional to the number of lines of force cutting a unit area element placed normal to the field at that point.
As illustrated in the given figure, the electric field at P is stronger that at Q.

(a) Electric lines of force are curved

a) in the field of a single positive or b) in the field of two like charges

negative charge

c) both in the field of two equal and d) in the field of two equal and opposite
opposite charges and in the field of two charges

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like charges

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(b) The figure below shows the electric field lines due to two positive charges. The magnitudes EA, EB and EC
of the electric fields at points A, B and C respectively are related as

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ca
dA

a) EA = EB > EC b) EA > EB = EC

c) EA > EB > EC d) EB > EA > EC

(c) Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are

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a) parallel straight lines b) circular clockwise

c) radially outwards d) radially inwards

(d) Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?
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a) They are parallel and equally spaced in b) They are always perpendicular to the
a region of uniform electric field. surface of a charged conductor.

c) They always form closed loops. d) They always start from positive charges
and terminate on negative charges.
OR
Which one of the following pattern of electric line of force in not possible in filed due to stationary
charges?

a) b)

c) d)

6/8
 Section E
31. An angular magnification of 30X is desired using an objective of focal length 1.25 cm and an eyepiece of focal [5]
length 5 cm. How will you set up the compound microscope?
OR
i. a. Two independent monochromatic sources of light cannot produce a sustained interference pattern. Give
reason.
b. Light waves each of amplitude a and frequency ω, emanating from two coherent light sources superimpose at
a point If the displacements due to these waves are given by y1 = a cos ωt and y2 = cos (ωt + ϕ ), where ϕ is
the phase difference between the two, obtain the expression for the resultant intensity at the point
ii. In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ , the intensity of light at a point on

y
the screen where path difference is λ , is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a point, where path difference is

m
.
λ

32. i. Define the capacitance of a capacitor. Obtain the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor [5]

de
in vacuum in terms of plate area A and separation d between the plates.
ii. A slab of material of dielectric constant k has the same area as the plates of a parallel plate
3d

4
capacitor but
ca
has a thickness -. Find the ratio of the capacitance with dielectric inside it to its capacitance without the
dielectric.
dA

OR
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d, as shown in fig.
vin
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a. Find the work required to put together this arrangement.

b. A charge q0 is brought to the center E of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much
extra work is needed to do this?
33. A series LCR circuit is connected to an a.c. source having voltage V = Vm sin ωt. Derive the expression for the [5]
instantaneous current I and its phase relationship to the applied voltage. Obtain the condition for resonance to
occur. Define power factor. State the conditions under which it is
i. maximum and
ii. minimum.
OR
i. An ac source of voltage V = V0sin ωt is connected to a series combination of L, C, and R. Use the phasor
diagram to obtain expressions for impedance of the circuit and phase angle between voltage and current. Find the
condition when the current will be in phase with the voltage. What is the circuit in this condition called?

7/8
ii. In a series, LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1. When capacitor with capacitance C such that
P1
XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P2. Calculate .
P2

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de
ca
dA
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8/8
 Arvind Academy

PHYSICS 2025 SP 6
Class 12 - Physics
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.

3. All the sections are compulsory.

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4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B

m
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D

contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of

five marks each.

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5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B, one
ca
question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to

attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

dA

6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. The conductivity of a metal decreases with the increase in temperature on account of [1]
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a) decrease in relaxation time b) decrease in resistivity

c) increase in mean free path d) decrease in number density of electrons

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2. Eels are able to generate current with biological cells called electroplates. The electroplates in an eel are [1]
arranged in 100 rows, each row stretching horizontally along the body of the fish containing 5000
electroplaques. The arrangement is suggestively shown below. Each electroplaques has an emf of 0.15 V and
internal resistance of 0.25 Ω .

The water surrounding the Eel completes a circuit between the head and its tail. If the water surrounding it has a
resistance of 500 Q, the current an Eel can produce in water is about

a) 1.5 A b) 3.0 A

c) 30 A d) 15 A

1/8
 3. An astronomical telescope of ten fold angular magnification has a length of 44 cm. The focal length of the [1]
objective is

a) 44 cm b) 440 cm

c) 4 cm d) 40 cm
4. The magnetic moment of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with principal quantum number n as [1]

a) μ ∝ n b) μ ∝
1
2
n

c) μ ∝ 2
n d) μ ∝
1

5. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 × 10-8 m. The electric field which can give on an average 2 eV [1]
energy to an electron in the metal will be in units of V/m:

a) 8 × 107 b) 5 × 1011

c) 5 × 107 d) 8 × 10-11

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6. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of the magnitude of the magnetic field outside a [1]
straight infinite current carrying wire of radius a, as a function of distance r from the centre of the wire?

m
a) b)

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ca
c) d)
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7. Whenever a magnet is moved either towards or away from a conducting coil, an e.m.f is induced, the magnitude [1]
of which is independent of

a) the number of turns in the coil b) the resistance of the coil

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c) the speed with which, the magnet is moved d) the strength of the magnetic field
8. A magnet of magnetic moment M is suspended in a uniform magnetic field B. The maximum value of torque [1]
acting on the magnet is

a) zero b) MB

c) 2MB d) 1

2
MB

9. In an interference experiment monochromatic light is replaced by white light; we will see: [1]

a) uniform illumination on the screen b) equally spaced white and dark bands

c) a few coloured bands and then uniform d) uniform darkness on the screen
illumination
10. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between [1]
the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be ε being the charge of an electron)
0

2 2

a) 4πε0 F d

2
b) 4πε0 F d

2
e q

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 −−−−−− −−−−−−
c) √ 4πε0 F e
2
d) √
4πε0 F d
2

2
2
d e

11. If the current in a diode is five times that in R1 and breakdown voltage of the diode is 6 volt, find the value of R. [1]

a) 1000

3
Ω b) 2000

3
Ω

c) 1000 Ω d) 2000 Ω
12. An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed 5 m/s and stops at the [1]
focus. The image

a) moves away from the lens with a uniform b) moves away from the lens with a uniform
acceleration speed 5 m/s

c) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform d) moves away from the lens with a non-

y
acceleration uniform acceleration

m
13. Assertion (A): In the process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons have the same kinetic energy. [1]
Reason (R): According to Einstein's equation Ek = hv - ϕ . 0

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.
deb) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
ca
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): A capacitor can be given only a limited amount of charge. [1]
dA

Reason (R): After a limited value of charge, the dielectric strength of dielectric between the capacitor plates
breaks down.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
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explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

15. Assertion (A): The maximum intensity in the interference pattern is four times the intensity due to each slit. [1]
Ar

Reason (R): Intensity is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): 220 V, 50 Hz appliance implies that emf across the appliance should be 220 V. [1]
Reason (R): Every appliance is specified with its peak Tolerable voltage.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
17. Briefly explain, how does an accelerating charge act as a source of an electromagnetic wave? [2]
18. Define neutral point. Draw magnetic lines of force when two identical magnets are placed a finite distance apart [2]

3/8
 with their N-poles facing each other. Locate the neutral point.
19. Why do semiconductors obey Ohm's law for only low fields? [2]
20. Draw a schematic arrangement of Geiger-Marsden experiment. Briefly explain the conclusions drawn from the [2]
observations about the structure of an atom. Define distance of closest approach in this case.
21. A loosely wound helix made of stiff wire is mounted vertically with its lower end just touching a dish of [2]
mercury, as shown in Fig. When a current from a battery is started in the coil through the mercury, the wire
executes oscillatory motion with the lower end jumping out of and into the mercury. Give reason.

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OR

m
Voltmeter V of resistance 400 Ω is used to measure the potential difference across a 100 Ω resistor in the circuit
shown in Fig.
i. What will be the reading on the voltmeter?
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ii. Calculate the potential difference across 100Ω resistor before the voltmeter is connected.
ca
dA

Section C
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22. i. Differentiate between the random velocity and the drift velocity of electrons in an electrical conductor. Give [3]
their order of magnitudes.
ii. A conductor of uniform cross-sectional area is connected across a dc source of variable voltage. Draw a
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graph showing variation of drift velocity of electrons (vd) as a function of current density (J) in it.

23. A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists in a p-n junction, [3]

i. If the depletion region is 5.0 × 10-7 m thick, what is the electric field in this region?

ii. If an electron approaches the p-n junction from the n-side with a speed of 5 × 10-7 ms-1, with what speed
will it enter the p-side?

24. a. Calculate the energy and momentum of a photon in a monochromatic beam of wavelength 331.5 nm. [3]
b. How fast should a hydrogen atom travel in order to have the same momentum as that of the photon in part
(a)?

25. i. Why is the binding energy per nucleon found to be constant for nuclei in the range of mass number (A) lying [3]
between 30 and 170?
ii. When a heavy nucleus with mass number A = 240 breaks into two nuclei, A = 120, energy is released in the
process.
iii. In β-decay, the experimental detection of neutrinos (or antineutrinos) is found to be extremely difficult.

4/8
26. i. State Bohr's quantization condition for defining stationary orbits. How does de-Broglie hypothesis explain [3]
the stationary orbits?
ii. Find the relation between the three wavelengths λ 1, λ2 and λ from the energy level diagram shown below:
3

27. In a Young's double-slit experiment, red light of wavelength 6000 A is used and the nth bright fringe is obtained [3]
∘

at a point P on the screen. Keeping the same setting, the source is replaced by the green light of 5000 A and now
(n + 1)th bright fringe is obtained at the point P. Calculate the value of n.
28. i. Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area A and [3]
length l of the solenoid.
ii. How does this magnetic energy compare with the electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor?

y
OR

m
a. Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. unit.
b. A square loop of side a carrying a current I2 is kept at distance x from an infinitely long straight wire carrying a

de
current I1 as shown in the figure. Obtain the expression for the resultant force acting on the loop.
ca
dA

Section D
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
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Microwave oven: The spectrum of electromagnetic radiation contains a part known as microwaves. These
waves have frequency and energy smaller than visible light and wavelength larger than it. What is the principle
of a microwave oven and how does it work? Our objective is to cook food or warm it up. All food items such as
Ar

fruit, vegetables, meat, cereals, etc., contain water as a constituent. Now, what does it mean when we say that a
certain object has become warmer? When the temperature of a body rises, the energy of the random motion of
atoms and molecules increases and the molecules travel or vibrate or rotate with higher energies. The frequency
of rotation of water molecules is about 2.45 gigahertz (GHz). If water receives microwaves of this frequency, its
molecules absorb this radiation, which is equivalent to heating up water. These molecules share this energy with
neighbouring food molecules, heating up the food. One should use porcelain vessels and non-metal containers in
a microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges. Metals may also
melt from heating. The porcelain container remains unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and
rotate with much smaller frequencies, and thus cannot absorb microwaves. Hence, they do not get eaten up.
Thus, the basic principle of a microwave oven is to generate microwave radiation of appropriate frequency in the
working space of the oven where we keep food. This way energy is not wasted in heating up the vessel. In the
conventional heating method, the vessel on the burner gets heated first and then the food inside gets heated
because of transfer of energy from the vessel. In the microwave oven, on the other hand, energy is directly
delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.

5/8
 (a) As compared to visible light microwave has frequency and energy

a) Frequency is less but energy is more b) less than visible light

c) more than visible light d) equal to visible light

(b) When the temperature of a body rises

a) the energy of the random motion of b) the energy of the random motion of
atoms and molecules decreases. atoms and molecules remains same.

c) the energy of the random motion of d) the random motion of atoms and
atoms and molecules increases molecules becomes streamlined.
(c) The frequency of rotation of water molecules is about

a) 2.45 THz b) 2.45 kHz

c) 2.45 MHz d) 2.45 GHz

OR

y
In the microwave oven

m
a) Energy is directly delivered to the food b) The vessel gets heated first and then
grains. the water molecules collect heat from

c) Energy is directly delivered to water

de the body of the vessel

d) The vessel gets heated first, and then

ca
molecules which is shared by the the food grains inside
entire food
dA

(d) Why should one use porcelain vessels and non-metal containers in a microwave oven?

a) Because it will prevent the food items to b) Because it will get too much hot
vin

become hot

c) Because of the danger of getting a d) Because it may crack due to high

shock from accumulated electric frequency
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charges
30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Electric field lines as a path, straight or curved in an electric field such that tangent to it at any point gives the
direction of electric field intensity at the point. Electric field lines are continuous curves they start from a
positive charged body and end at the negatively charged body. (Refer image)

(a) Electric field due to a single charge is:

6/8
 a) cylindrically symmetric b) symmetric

c) asymmetric d) spherically symmetric

(b) The SI unit of electric field intensity is:

a) N/C b) N

c) C/m2 d) N/m2

(c) Pick the wrong statement.

a) Electric field lines are continuous b) Electric field lines can intersect each
curves. other.

c) Electric field lines are always normal to d) The electrostatic field does not form a
the surface of a conductor. closed loop.
(d) A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field as shown in the figure. Which path is followed by
electric field lines?

m y
de
ca
a) path 'd' b) path 'c'

c) path 'a' d) path 'b'

dA

OR
Pick the true statements about electric field lines.

a) Electric field lines provide information b) Electric field lines provide

about the field strength. information about the type of charge.
vin

c) All of these. d) Electric field lines

provide information about the
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direction of the electric field.

Section E
31. i. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope showing image formation at least distance of [5]
distinct vision. Derive an expression for its magnifying power.
ii. A telescope consists of two lenses of focal length 100 cm and 5 cm. Find the magnifying power when the
final image is formed at infinity.
OR
A parallel beam of monochromatic light falls normally on a narrow slit and the light, coming out of the slit, is
obtained on a screen, kept behind, parallel to the slit plane.
What kind of pattern do we observe on the screen and why? How does the
i. angular width
ii. linear width of the principal maximum, in this pattern change when the screen is moved, parallel to itself, away
from the slit plane?

7/8
 State two points of difference between this pattern and the interference pattern observed in the Young's double slit
experiment.
32. Calculate potential on the axis of a disc of radius R due to a charge Q uniformly distributed on its surface. [5]
OR
Derive an expression for equivalent capacitance of three capacitors when connected
i. in series and
ii. in parallel.

33. i. A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series to an ac source v = vm sin ωt . Derive an expression for the [5]
impedance of the circuit.
ii. When does an inductor act as a conductor in a circuit? Give reason for it.
iii. An electric lamp is designed to operate at 110 V dc and 11 A current. If the lamp is operated on 220 V, 50 Hz
ac source with a coil in series, then find the inductance of the coil.
OR

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i. Prove that an ideal capacitor in an ac circuit does not dissipate power.
ii. An inductor of 200 mH, a capacitor of 400 μ f, and a resistor of 10 Ω are connected in series to ac source of 50 V

m
of variable frequency. Calculate the

of the effective current and

b. value of Q-factor in the circuit.
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a. the angular frequency at which maximum power dissipation occurs in the circuit and the corresponding value
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8/8
 Arvind Academy

PHYSICS 2025 SP 5
Class 12 - Physics
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.

3. All the sections are compulsory.

y
4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B

m
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D

contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of

five marks each.

de
5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B, one
ca
question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to

attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

dA

6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between: [1]
vin

a) 10-3 to 106 Ω cm b) 1010 to 1012 Ω cm

c) 10-2 to 10-5 Ω cm d) 106 to 108 Ω cm

Ar

2. A 5oC rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. If the current is doubled, the rise in [1]
temperature of the conductor will be nearly

a) 25oC b) 40oC

c) 10o C d) 20oC

3. A ray of light travels a distance of 12.0 m in a transparent sheet in 60 ns. The refractive index of the sheet is [1]

a) 1.33 b) 1.75

c) 1.50 d) 1.65
4. The magnetic field lines near a substance are as shown in the figure. The substance is: [1]

1/8
 a) Iron b) Aluminium

c) Copper d) Sodium
5. A 500 μF capacitor is charged at a steady rate of 100 μC per second. A potential difference of 10 V will be [1]
developed between the capacitor plates after

a) 5 s b) 10 s

c) 50 s d) 20 s
6. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field B such that [1]

a) B ⊥ v b) B ∥ v

c) it obeys inverse cube law d) it is along the line joining the electron and
point of observation
7. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 50mT with its plane perpendicular to the [1]
−1
magnetic field. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s . At the instant the radius

y
of the loop is 4 cm , the induced emf in the loop is:

m
a) 8πμ V b) 2πμ V

c) 4πμ V d)

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πμV

8. A small bar, when placed near a magnet is repelled by it. This is because the bar is made of: [1]

a) Copper b) Iron
ca
c) Aluminium d) Nickel
dA

9. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The [1]
sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is:
−
− −
−
a) (√I 1
− √I2 )
2
b) 2(I1 + I2)
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−
− −
−
c) I1 + I2 d) ( √I1 + √I2 )
2

10. The electric flux depends on: [1]

a) The intensity of the electric field b) Angle between the surface and the electric
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field

c) Area of the surface d) Each one of these

11. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied as shown, [1]

then the output across RL will be

a) b)

c) d)

2/8
12. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque [1]
screen, then

a) no image will be formed b) complete image will be formed

c) intensity of the image will increase d) half the image will disappear
13. Assertion (A): An electron microscope is based on de Broglie hypothesis. [1]
Reason (R): A beam of electrons behaves as a wave that can be converted by electric and magnetic lenses.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): An applied electric field will polarize the polar dielectric material. [1]
Reason (R): In polar dielectrics, each molecule has a permanent dipole moment but these are randomly oriented
in the absence of an externally applied electric field.

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

m
explanation of A correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

15.
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Assertion (A): Coloured spectrum is seen when we look through a muslin cloth.
Reason (R): Coloured spectrum is due to diffraction of white light passing through fine slits made by fine
[1]
ca
threads in the muslin cloth.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
dA

explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): The quantity L/R possesses the dimension of time. [1]
vin

Reason (R): In order to reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid, we should increase the time
constant.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
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explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
17. Two charges 2μC and −2μC are placed at points A and B, 6 cm apart. [2]
a. Identify an equipotential surface of the system.
b. What is the direction of electric field at every point on this surface?

18. A compass needle whose magnetic moment is 60 Am2 pointing geographical north at a certain place where the [2]

horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is 40 μ Wb/m2 experiences a torque of 1.2 × 10-3 Nm. What is
the declination of the place?
19. Write two points of difference between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. [2]
20. Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the alpha particle scattering experiment using a thin sheet of solid [2]
hydrogen in place of the gold foil. (Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures below 14 K). What results do you
expect?

3/8
21. Two infinitely long parallel conductors A and B, separated by 2 cm, carry 6 A and 2 A currents in opposite [2]
directions respectively. Find:
a. the net magnetic field at a point midway between A and B.
b. the force acting per unit length on B.
OR
In the circuit (Fig.) the current is to be measured. What is the value of the current if the ammeter shown

a. is a galvanometer with a resistance RG = 60.00 Ω ;

b. is a galvanometer described in (a) but converted to an ammeter by a shunt resistance rs = 0.02 Ω ;

y
c. is an ideal ammeter with zero resistance?

m
Section C
22. Calculate the value of the resistance R in the circuit shown in the figure so that the current in the circuit is 0.2 A. [3]

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What would be the potential difference between points B and E?
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dA

[3]
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23. i. Draw Energy bands, diagrams for

a. pure semiconductor,
b. insulator.
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ii. How does the energy band, for pure semiconductor get affected when this semiconductor is doped with
a. acceptor impurity
b. donor impurity?
iii. Hence discuss why the holes, and the electrons respectively, become the 'majority charge carriers in these
two cases?

24. a. How does one explain the emission of electrons from a photosensitive surface with the help of Einstein’s [3]
photoelectric equation?
b. Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons each of energy 2.5 eV are incident on its surface, will
the emission of electrons take place? Justify your answer.
c. The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy
of the photoelectrons emitted? Calculate in Joules.
25. How the size of a nucleus is experimentally determined? Write the relation between the radius and mass number [3]
of the nucleus. Show that the density of the nucleus is independent of its mass number.
26. What do you mean by wave nature of an electron? How was quantisation of angular momentum of the orbiting [3]

4/8
 electron in Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom explained by de Broglie hypothesis?
27. i. Explain two features to distinguish between the interference pattern in Young's double slit experiment with [3]
the diffraction pattern obtained due to a single slit.
ii. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a single slit of width 0.2 mm to
produce a diffraction pattern. Find the angular width of the central maximum obtained on the screen.
Estimate the number of fringes obtained in Young's double slit experiment with fringe width 0.5 mm, which
can be accommodated within the region of total angular spread of the central maximum due to the single slit.
28. A rectangular coil P is moved from a point A to another point B with uniform velocity 'v' through a region of a [3]
uniform magnetic field acting normally inwards as shown in the figure. Show graphically (i) the variation of
magnetic flux associated with the coil with time, (ii) the variation of induced emf across points X and Y of the
coil with time.

m y
Explain the nature of variation in magnetic flux as represented by the graph in the first case.
OR

de
Find the current in the sliding rod AB (resistance = R) for the arrangement shown in Figure. B is constant and is out
of the paper. Parallel wires have no resistance. v is constant. Switch S is closed at time t = 0.
ca
dA

Section D
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
vin

Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting wires. Microwaves are produced
by special vacuum tubes. Infrared waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules also known as heat waves.
UV rays are produced by special lamps and very hot bodies like Sun.
Ar

(a) Solar radiation is

i. transverse electromagnetic wave
ii. longitudinal electromagnetic waves
iii. both longitudinal and transverse electromagnetic waves
iv. none of these.

a) Option (i) b) Option (iv)

5/8
 c) Option (iii) d) Option (ii)
(b) What is the cause of greenhouse effect?

a) Ultraviolet rays b) X-rays

c) Infrared rays d) Radiowaves

(c) Biological importance of ozone layer is

a) it stops ultraviolet rays b) none of these.

c) it reflects radiowaves d) It layer reduces greenhouse effect

OR
Earth's atmosphere is richest in

a) ultraviolet b) infrared

c) X-rays d) microwaves
(d) Ozone is found in

y
a) troposphere b) mesosphere

m
c) ionosphere d) stratosphere
30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
de
Net electric flux through a cube is the sum of fluxes through its six faces. Consider a cube as shown in figure,
[4]
ca
having sides of length L = 10.0 cm. The electric field is uniform, has a magnitude E = 4.00 × 103NC-1 and is
parallel to the xy plane at an angle of 37o measured from the +x -axis towards the +y -axis.
dA
vin

(a) Electric flux passing through surface S6 is

Ar

a) -24 Nm2 C-1 b) 32 Nm2 C-1

c) -32 Nm2 C-1 d) 24 Nm2 C-1

(b) Electric flux passing through surface S1 is

a) -32 Nm2 C-1 b) -24 Nm2 C-1

c) 32 Nm2 C-1 d) 24 Nm2 C-1

(c) The surfaces that have zero flux are

a) S2 and S4 b) S3 and S6

c) S1 and S2 d) S1 and S3

(d) The total net electric flux through all faces of the cube is

a) 24 Nm2 C-1 b) 8 Nm2 C-1

6/8
 c) -8 Nm2 C-1 d) zero

OR
The dimensional formula of surface integral ∮ E⃗ ⋅ dS ⃗ of an electric field is

a) [M-1 L3 T-3 A] b) [M L2 T-2 A-1]

c) [M L3 T-3 A-1] d) [M L-3 T-3 A-1]

Section E
31. Use the mirror equation to deduce that: [5]
a. an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2f.
b. a convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of the object.
c. the virtual image produced by a convex mirror is always diminished in size and is located between the focus
and the pole.
d. an object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror produces a virtual and enlarged image.

y
[Note: This exercise helps you deduce algebraically properties of images that one obtains from explicit ray
diagrams.]

m
OR

de
i. State Huygens principle. A plane wave is incident at an angle i on a reflecting surface. Construct the
corresponding reflected wavefront. Using this diagram, prove that the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of
incidence.
ca
ii. What are the coherent sources of light? Can two independent sodium lamps act like coherent sources? Explain.
iii. A beam of light consisting of a known wavelength 520 nm and an unknown wavelength λ , used in Young's
dA

double slit experiment produces two interference patterns such that the fourth bright fringe of unknown
wavelength coincides with the fifth bright fringe of known wavelength. Find the value of λ .
32. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After some time the battery is disconnected and a dielectric [5]
vin

slab with its thickness equal to the plate separation is inserted between the plates. What change, in any will take
place in
i. charge on the plates
Ar

ii. electric field intensity between the plates

iii. the capacitance of the capacitor,
iv. a potential difference between the plates and
v. the energy stored in the capacitor? Justify your answer in each case.
OR
Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d, as shown in fig.

a. Find the work required to put together this arrangement.

7/8
 b. A charge q0 is brought to the center E of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much
extra work is needed to do this?

33. i. Draw an arrangement for winding of primary and secondary coils in a transformer with two coils on a [5]
separate limb of the core. State the underlying principle of a transformer. Deduce the expression for the ratio
of secondary voltage to the primary voltage in terms of the ratio of the number of turns of primary and
secondary winding. For an ideal transformer, obtain the ratio of primary and secondary currents in terms of
the ratio of the voltages in the secondary and primary voltages.
ii. Write any two reasons for the energy losses which occur in actual transformers.
iii. A step-up transformer converts a low input voltage into a high output voltage. Does it violate law of
conservation of energy? Explain.
OR
A resistor of 400 Ω , an inductor of 5

π
H and a capacitor of 50

π
μF are connected in series across a source of alternating
voltage of 140 sin 100πt V . Find the voltage (rms) across the resistor, the inductor and the capacitor. Is the algebraic

y
sum of these voltages more than the source voltage? If yes, resolve the paradox.
–
(Given, √2 =

m
1.414).

de
ca
dA
vin
Ar

8/8
 Arvind Academy

CHEMISTRY SP 1
Class 12 - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

y
3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

m
4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.

de
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
ca
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
dA

1. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is: [1]

vin
Ar

a) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene b) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene

c) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene d) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
2. β -pleated sheet structure in proteins refers to [1]

a) tertiary structure b) primary structure

c) quaternary structure d) secondary structure

3. Which of the following alkenes on acid catalysed hydration gives a tertiary alcohol? [1]

a) 1-Butene b) 2-Methylpropene

c) 2-Butene d) Propene
4. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is [1]

a) Acetophenone b) Benzoic acid

c) Benzophenone d) Benzyl alcohol

1/6
 5. The unit of rate constant for the reaction 2A + 2B → A2B2 which has rate = k [A]2[B] is: [1]

a) s-1 b) mol L-1

c) mol L-1 s-1 d) mol-2 L2 s-1

6. Match the items of column I with appropriate entries of column II. [1]

Column I Column II

(a) Non ideal solution with positive deviation (i) H2O (57%) + HI (43%)

(b) Maximum boiling azeotrope (ii) CHCl3 + (CH3)2CO

(c) Non ideal solution with negative deviation (iii) C2H5OH (95.4%) + H2O (4.6%)

(d) Minimum boiling azeotrope (iv) CCl4 + C6H5CH3

a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

y
c) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

m
7. Inversion of configuration occurs in [1]

a) SN1 as well as SN2 reaction

c) Neither SN2 nor SN1 reaction de

b) SN1 reaction

d) SN2 reaction
ca
8. There are 14 elements in the actinoid series. Which of the following elements does not belong to this series? [1]

a) U b) Tm
dA

c) Np d) Fm
9. Consider the Arrhenius equation given below and mark the correct option. [1]
K = Ae-Ea/RT
vin

a) Rate constant increases exponentially with b) Rate constant increases exponentially with
decreasing activation energy and decreasing decreasing activation energy and increasing
temperature. temperature.
Ar

c) Rate constant increases exponentially with d) Rate constant decreases exponentially with
increasing activation energy and decreasing increasing activation energy and decreasing
temperature. temperature.

10. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in an acidic medium and in the presence of Hg2+ ions as a catalyst. Which [1]

of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under these conditions?

a) O

||
b) O

||

C H3 − C H2 − C H2 − C − H C H3 − C H2 − C − C H3

c) O

||
d) O

||
O

||

C H3 − C H2 − C − OH + C O2 C H3 − C − OH + H − C − H

11. An organic compound X is oxidized by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with Phenyl [1]

hydrazine but does not answer the silver mirror test. The possible structure of X is:

a) (CH3)2CHOH b) (CH4)2CH3OH

2/6
 c) CH3CHO d) CH3CH2OH

12. Which of the following is least basic? [1]

a) (CH3)3N b) NH3

c) (CH3)2NH d)

13. Assertion (A): Alpha (α)-amino acids exist as internal salt in solution as they have amino and carboxylic acid [1]
groups in near vicinity.
Reason (R): H+ ion given by carboxylic group (-COOH) is captured by amino group (-NH2) having lone pair of

electrons.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent. [1]

y
Reason (R): Compounds containing -CHO group reduce Tollen’s reagent.

m
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. de correct explanation of A.

d) A is false but R is true.

ca
15. Assertion (A): Exposure of ultraviolet rays to human causes the skin cancer, disorder and disrupt the immune [1]
system.
dA

Reason (R): Carbon tetrachloride is released into air it rises to atmosphere and deplets the ozone layer.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

vin

16. Assertion (A): The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle. [1]
Reason (R): In alcohols, the oxygen of –OH group is attached to sp3 hybridized carbon atom.
Ar

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
17. Explain the following: [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)]2+ are of different colours in dilute solutions. [2]

18. Give reasons: [2]

a. Eo value for Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is much more positive than that for Fe3+/Fe2+.
b. Iron has higher enthalpy of atomization than that of copper.

c. Sc3+ is colourless in aqueous solution whereas Ti3+ is coloured.

19. Answer the following: [2]
(a) What is molecularity? [1]
(b) Decomposition of a substance with initial concentration 'a' follows zero order kinetics with the rate [1]
constant 'k' mol L−1 −1
s . How much time it will take for completion of the reaction?

3/6
20. A solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol-1) in water has a boiling point of 100.20oC. Calculate the [2]

freezing point of the same solution. Molal constants for water Kf and Kb are 1.86 K kg mol-1and 0.512 K kg

mol1 respectively.
OR
What are Hypertonic and Hypotonic solutions?
21. Write structrures of compounds A, B, and C in each of the following reactions: [2]
Mg/dry ether C O2 (g) P C l5

i. C 6 H5 Br −−−−−−−−→ A −−−−→ B −−−→ C

+
H3 O
SnC l2 /H C l dil.NaOH Δ

ii. CH5CN −−−−−−→ A −−−−−−→ B −

→C
+
H3 O

Section C
22. Write the Nernst equation and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K: [3]

Zn | Zn2+ (0·1 M) || Cd2+ (0·01) | Cd

Given : E ⊖
= -0·76 V

y
2+
Zn /Zn

E
⊖
= -0·40 V

m
2+
Cd /Cd

(log 10 = 1)
23. The decomposition of phosphine, PH3 proceeds according to the following equation: [3]
4PH3(g) ⟶ P4(g) + 6H2(g)

It is found that the reaction follows the following rate equation

de
ca
Rate = k [PH3]

The half-life of PH3 is 37.9 s at 120oC.

dA

i. How much time is required for 3/4th of PH3 to decompose?

ii. What fraction of the original sample of PH3 remains behind after 1 min?
vin

24. Explain why is ortho nitrophenol more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol? [3]
OR
Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal?
Ar

i. C H 3 − C H − C H2 OH
|

C H3

ii.

25. Write the equation involved in the following reactions: [3]

i. Rosenmund reduction
ii. Etard reaction
iii. Stephen reaction
26. Explain why electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl gives H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode. Write overall [3]
reaction.
0 0
E +
= −2.71V ; E = −0.83V
Na /Na H2 O/H2
( )
0 0
E −
= +1.36V ; E +
= 1.23V
C l2 /2C l H +O2 /H2 O

27. Discuss the mechanism of SN1 reaction of haloalkanes. [3]

4/6
28. When a steady current of 2A was passed through two electrolytic cells A and B containing electrolytes ZnSO4 [3]

and CuSO4 connected in series, 2g of Cu were deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current

flow? What mass of Zn was deposited at cathode of cell A?

[Atomic mass: Cu = 63.5 g mol-1, Zn = 65 g mol-1; 1F = 96500 C mol-1]
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The d-block of the periodic table contains the elements of the groups 3 to 12 and are known as transition

elements. In general, the electronic configuration of these elements is (n - 1)d1-10 ns1-2. The d-orbitals of the
penultimate energy level in their atoms receive electrons giving rise to the three rows of the transition metals i.e.
3d, 4d and 5d series. However, Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition elements. Transition elements
exhibit certain characteristic properties like variable oxidation stables, complex formation, formation of coloured
ions, alloys, catalytic activity etc. Transition metals are hard (except Zn, Cd and Hg) and have a high melting
point.

y
i. Why are Zn, Cd and Hg non-transition elements? (1)

m
ii. Which transition metal of 3d series does not show variable oxidation state? (1)
iii. Why do transition metals and their compounds show catalytic activity? (2)

30.
OR

de
Why are melting points of transition metals high? (2)
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
ca
Aariv Sharma is very fond of a special drink made by his grandmother using different fruits available in their
hometown. It has an outstanding taste and also provide great health benefits of natural fruits. He thought of
dA

utilizing his grandmother recipe to create a new product in the beverage market that provide health benefits and
also contain fizziness of various soft drinks available in the market.
i. How he can add fizz to the special drink made by his grandmother? (1)
vin

ii. What is the law stated in the chapter that can help Aariv to make his drink fizzy? (1)
iii. What precautions he should take while bottling so that his product does not lose fizz during storage and
handling across long distances? (2)
Ar

OR

The mole fraction of helium in a saturated solution at 20oC is 1.2 × 10-6. Find the pressure of helium above
the solution. Given Henry’s constant at 20oC is 144.97 kbar. (2)
Section E
31. Attempt any five of the following: [5]
(a) Differentiate between: [1]
i. Peptide linkage and Glycosidic linkage
ii. Nucleoside and Nucleotide
(b) Name the disaccharide which on hydrolysis gives glucose and galactose. [1]
(c) Define the following terms: [1]
a. Peptide linkage
b. Essential amino acids
(d) Give the reaction of glucose with hydrogen cyanide. Presence of which group is confirmed by this [1]
reaction?

5/6
 (e) What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following? Give equations to support your answer. [1]
a. HI
b. HNO3

(f) What type of bonds hold a DNA double helix together? [1]
(g) What is peptide linkage? [1]
32. Give the oxidation state, d-orbital occupation and coordination number of the central metal ion in the following [5]
complexes:
i. K 3
[C o( C2 O4 ) ]
3

ii. cis− [C r(en) 2

C l2 ] C l

iii. (N H 4
)
2
[C oF4 ]

iv. [M n(H 2
O) ] S O4
6

OR
Draw the structures of optical isomers of:

y
i. [Cr(C2O4)3]3-

m
ii. [PtCl2(en)2]2+

iii. [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+

33. a. Give reasons for the following : de [5]

ca
i. Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect.
ii. CH3NH2 is more basic than C6H5NH2.
dA

iii. Although -NH2 is o/p-directing group, yet aniline on nitration gives a significant amount of m-
nitroaniline.
b. Explain the following reactions:
i. Coupling reaction
vin

ii. Gabriel phthalimide reaction

OR
Write the main products of the following reactions:
Ar

H3 P O2 + H2 O

i. C 6
H5 N
+

2
CI
−
−−−−−−−−→

ii.

Br2 + NaOH

iii. C H 3 − C − N H2 −−−−−−−→
||

6/6
 Arvind Academy

CHEMISTRY SP 2
Class 12 - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

y
3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

m
4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.

de
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
ca
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
dA

1. Which of the following is a Wurtz-Fitting reaction? [1]

a) b)
vin

c) d)
Ar

2. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of [1]

a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin B

c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin A
3. on heating with CHCl3 and alcoholic KOH gives foul smell of [1]

a) b)

c) d)

4. Which of the following reagents would one choose to transform CH3COCl into acetone? [1]

a) CH3MgBr b) (CH3)2Cd

c) (CH3O)2Mg d) CH3Cl

5. When a catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction, then the rate constant (k): [1]

1/6
 a) may increase or decrease depending on the b) remains constant
order of the reaction

c) decreases d) increases
6. Match the item given in Column I with expression given in Column II. [1]

Column I Column II

(a) Osmotic Pressure (i) p = KH . χ

B

(b) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (ii) △P

o
= χ
B
P A

(c) Henry Law (iii) △T b

= Kb . m

(d) Elevation in boiling point (iv) p = iCRT

a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i). b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).

c) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv). d) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii).

y
7. Which of the following has the highest melting point? [1]

m
a) All have the same melting point b) p-Dichlorobenzene

c) m-Dichlorobenzene d) o-Dichlorobenzene
8.
de
Silver ornaments turn black by the presence of which gas in the atmosphere? [1]
ca
a) H2S b) O2

c) Cl2 d) N2
dA

9. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 1.26 × 1014 s. How much time would it take for 100% completion? [1]

a) infinite b) 1.26 × 1015 s

c) 2.52 × 1028 s d) 2.52 × 1014 s

vin

10. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following conversion? [1]
O O

|| ||

C H3 − C H = C H − C H2 − C − C H3 ⟶ C H3 − C H = C H − C H2 − C − OH
Ar

a) I2 and NaOH solution b) Tollen’s reagent

c) Sn and NaOH solution d) Benzoyl peroxide

11. Reaction of 1-phenyl-2-chloropropane with alcoholic KOH gives mainly: [1]

a) 3-phenylpropene b) 1-phenylpropene

c) 1-phenylypropan-2-ol d) 1-phenylpropan-3-ol
12. Which of the following compound will not undergo azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride. [1]

a) Aniline b) Nitrobenzene

c) Anisole d) Phenol
13. Assertion: Fructose can reduce Tollen’s reagent. [1]
Reason: Fructose is a ketone.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

2/6
 explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Reactivity of ketones is more than aldehydes. [1]
Reason (R): The carbonyl carbon of ketones is less electrophilic as compared to aldehydes.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

15. Assertion (A): n-Butyl bromide has a higher boiling point than isobutyl bromide. [1]
Reason (A): The branching of the chain makes the molecule more compact and therefore decreases the surface
area.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

y
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

m
16. Assertion (A): Alcohols possess higher boiling point than expected from their molecular formula. [1]
Reason (R): Intramolecular H-bonding decrease boiling point.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A. deb) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
ca
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
dA

17. a. Write the formula of the following coordination compound: Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II) [2]
b. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(NH3)5CI]SO4?

c. Write the hybridization and number of unpaired electrons in the complex [CoF6]3-. (Atomic No. of Co = 27)
vin

18. Account for the following: The second and third series members in each group of the transition elements have [2]
very similar atomic radii.
19. Answer the following: [2]
Ar

(a) Calculate the overall order of a reaction which has the rate expression. [1]
1 3

a. Rate = k [A] [B]

2 2

b. Rate = k [A] [B]-1

3

(b) Identify the order of reaction from the following rate constant: [1]
−5 −1 −1
k = 2.3 × 10 L mol s

20. State how the vapour pressure of a solvent is affected when a non-volatile solute is dissolved in it. [2]
OR
Define molal elevation constant or ebullioscopic constant.
21. Write the reaction involved in the following: [2]
a. Wolff-Kishner reduction
b. Decarboxylation reaction
c. Cannizzaro reaction
Section C

3/6
22. Write the Nernst equation and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K: [3]

Zn | Zn2+ (0·001 M) || H+ (0·01 M) | H2 (g) (1 bar) | Pt (s)

Given : E ⊖

Zn
2+
/Zn
= -0·76 V
= 0·00 V
⊖
E +
H /H2

[log 10 = 1]
23. A reaction is second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of [3]
the reactant is:
a. doubled
b. reduced to half
24. Give the structures of final products expected from the following reactions: [3]
i. Hydroboration of propene followed by oxidation with H2O2 in alkaline medium.

ii. Dehydration of (CH3)3C–OH by heating it with 20% H3PO4 at 358 K.

y
iii. Heating of with HI.

m
OR
Classify the following as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols:

i. C H 3 −
C H3

C
|
|

− C H2 OH de
ca
C H3

ii. H2C = CH - CH2OH

iii. CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - OH

dA

iv.
vin

v.
Ar

vi.

25. An organic compound A (C7H6Cl2)on treatment with NaOH solution gives another compound B(C7H6O). B on [3]

oxidation gives an acid C (C7H6O2) which on treatment with a mixture of cone. HNO3 and H2SO4 gives a
compound D (C7H5NO4). B on treatment with cone. NaOH gives a compound E (C7H8O) and C6H5COONa.

Deduce the structures of A, B, C, D and E.

26. The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L-1 NaOH solution of diameter 1 cm and length 50 cm is 5.55 [3]

× 103 Ω . Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.

27. An organic compound A on heating with NH3 and cuprous oxide at high pressure gives compound B. The [3]
compound B on treatment with ice-cold solution of NaNO2 and HCl gives C, which on heating with copper

turning and HCl gives A again. Identify A, B & C. compound.

28. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C. [3]

4/6
 Ag (s) | Ag+(10-3 M) || Cu2+(10-1 M) | Cu (s)

[Given,E o
cell = +0.46 V and log 10n = n]
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 are most important chemicals which are used as oxidising agents and disinfectants.
K2MnO4 is prepared by fusing MnO2 with KOH in presence of O2. K2MnO4 is electrolysed to get purple

coloured KMnO4. Na2CrO4 is prepared by heating chromite ore with Na2CO3 in presence of O2. Na2CrO4 is

converted into Na2Cr2O7 by reacting with concentrated H2SO4. Na2Cr2O7 is reacted with KCl to get K2Cr2O7,
orange coloured solid, soluble in water, changes to yellow coloured CrO 2−
4
in basic medium, KMnO4 acts as

oxidising agent in acidic, neutral as well basic medium. In acidic medium, it converts Fe2+ to Fe3+, Sn2+ to

Sn4+, COO- to CO2. In basic medium it converts I- to IO3-. K2Cr2O7 acts as oxidising agent only in acidic

medium, converts H2S to S, SO2 to SO42-, I- to I2. Lanthanoids and actinoids belong to f-block elements with

y
general electronic configuration (n - 2) f1 to 14 (n - 1) d0 – 2 ns2. All actinoids are radioactive. Both show

m
contraction in atomic and ionic radii but actinoid contraction is more than lanthanoid contraction. Lanthanoid
show +3 oxidation state, few elements show +2 and +4 oxidation states also. Actinoids show +3, +4, +5, +6, +7
oxidation states.
de
i. Which lanthanoid shows +4 oxidation state and why? (1)
ca
ii. Give two similarities between lanthanoids and actinoids. (1)
iii. Complete the equation and balance: (2)
dA

+ Fe2+ + H+ → ?
2−
Cr2 O
7

OR
Convert sodium chromate to sodium dichromate. Give chemical equation. (2)
2Na2CrO4 + H2SO4 (conc.) → ?
vin

30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The boiling point elevation and the freezing point depression of solutions have a number of practical
applications. Ethylene glycol (CH2OH⋅ CH2OH) is used in automobile radiators as an antifreeze because it
Ar

lowers the freezing point of the coolant. The same substance also helps to prevent the radiator coolant from
boiling away by elevating the boiling point. Ethylene glycol has a low vapour pressure. We can also use glycerol
as an antifreeze. In order for boiling point elevation to occur, the solute must be non-volatile, but no such
restriction applies to freezing point depression. For example, methanol (CH3OH), a fairly volatile liquid that

boils only at 65oC is sometimes used as antifreeze in automobile radiators.

i. Out of the CH3OH and C6H12O6, which is a better reagent for depression in freezing point but not for
elevation in boiling point? (1)
ii. Will the depression in freezing point be same or different, if 0.1 moles of sugar or 0.1 moles of glucose is
dissolved in 1 L of water? (1)
iii. 124 g each of the two reagents glycerol and glycol are added in 5 kg water of the radiators in the two cars.
Which one is better for a car? Justify your answer. (2)
OR

5/6
 If the cost of glycerol, glycol and methanol are the same, then what would be the sequence of the economy to
use these compounds as antifreeze? (2)
Section E
31. Attempt any five of the following: [5]
(a) Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour. Why? [1]
(b) Name the deficiency disease resulting from lack of vitamin A and E in the diet. [1]
(c) Write the products obtained after hydrolysis of lactose. [1]
(d) Write the reactions showing the presence of following in the open structure of glucose: [1]
i. a carbonyl group
ii. chain with six carbon atoms
(e) What are polypeptides? [1]
(f) Define the following terms: [1]
a. Polysaccharides
b. Nucleotides

y
(g) Write the name of linkage joining two monosaccharides. [1]

m
32. Discuss the nature of bonding in the following coordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory. [5]

a. [Fe(CN)6]4-

b. [FeF6]3- de
ca
c. [Co(C2O4)3]3-

d. [CoF6]3-
dA

OR
Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)4]2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and the

[NiCl4]2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic.

vin

33. Arrange the following compounds in a decreasing order of basic strength in their aqueous solutions. [5]
NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N
Ar

OR
Account for the following:
i. Aniline is a weaker base compared to ethanamine.
ii. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
iii. Only aliphatic primary amines can be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis.

6/6
 Arvind Academy

CHEMISTRY SP 4
Class 12 - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

y
3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

m
4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.

de
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
ca
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
dA

1. Which one of the following compounds is more reactive towards SN1 reaction? [1]

a) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br b) CH2 = CHCH2Br

vin

c) C6H5CH(CH3)Br d) C6H5CH2Br

2. The two hormones which together regulate the glucose level in the blood [1]

a) Insulin and thyroxine b) Insulin and epinepherine

Ar

c) Insulin and glucagon d) Insulin and adrenaline

3. Alcoholic compounds react: [1]

a) only as nucleophiles. b) both as nucleophiles and electrophiles.

c) only as electrophiles. d) None of these

4. Which of the following does not give aldol condensation reaction? [1]

a) CH3COCH3 b)

c) CH3 - CHO d)

5. If the initial concentration is reduced to 1 th in a zero order reaction, then the time taken for half the reaction to [1]
4

complete:

a) remains the same b) doubles

1/6
 c) increases four times d) reduces to one-fourth
6. Match the items given in column I with that in column II: [1]

Column I Column II

(a) Urea (i) i < 1

(b) FeCl3 (ii) i = 1

(c) Benzoic acid in Benzene (iii) i = 2

(d) MgSO4 (iv) i = 4

a) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
7. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is ________. [1]
A. CH3CH2 —CH2—OH

y
B. C H 3 C H2 − CH − OH

m
|

C H3

C H3

de
|

C. C H 3 C H2 − C − OH
|

C H3
ca
a) (A) > (C) > (B) b) (C) > (B) > (A)

c) (B) > (A) > (C) d) (A) > (B) > (C)
dA

8. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic [1]
configuration of gadolinium?

a) [Xe] 4f 65d26s2 b) [Xe] 4f75d1 6s2

vin

c) [Xe] 4f86d2 d) [Xe] 4f95s1

9. The rate constant of a reaction is 0.0693 min-1. Starting with 10 mol L-1, the rate of reaction after 10 min will [1]
Ar

be:

a) 0.1733 mol L–1min–1 b) 0.3465 mol L-1min-1

c) 0.0693 mol L–1min–1 d) 0.693 mol L–1min–1

10. Oximes are formed by the reaction of aldehydes and ketones with: [1]

a) NH2NH2 b) NH2OH

c) NH3 d) NH2NHC6H5

11. One mole of an organic compound 'A' with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form [1]
X and Y. When 'Y' is boiled with aqueous alkali forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The compound 'A' is
______.

a) methoxyethane b) ethoxyethane

c) Propan – 2 – o1 d) Propan – 1 – o1
12. Phenol on reaction with aqueous bromine at room temperature gives: [1]

2/6
 a) 2,4,6-tribromophenol b) 3-bromophenol

c) 2-bromophenol d) 4-bromophenol
13. Assertion (A): Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. [1]
Reason (R): Sucrose has glycosidic linkage.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Benzaldehyde undergoes aldol condensation. [1]
Reason (R): Aldehydes that do not have α-hydrogen undergo aldol condensation.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) Both A and R are false.

y
15. Assertion (A): Isopropyl chloride is less reactive than CH3Br in SN2 reactions. [1]

m
Reason (R): SN2 reactions are always accompanied by inversion of configuration.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

de correct explanation of A.

d) A is false but R is true.

ca
16. Assertion (A): Methyl alcohol is prepared by the action of Grignard reagent on aldehydes and ketones. [1]
Reason (R): Pyroligneous acid contains methyl alcohol.
dA

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

vin

Section B
17. Write the hybridization, shape and magnetic character of [Fe(CN)6]4-. [2]
Ar

18. Give reasons for the following: [2]

a. Transition metals show variable oxidation states.

b. Eo value for (Zn2+/Zn) is negative while that of (Cu2+/Cu) is positive.

c. Higher oxidation state of Mn with fluorine is +4 whereas with oxygen is +7.
19. Answer the following: [2]
(a) What happens to the rate constant k and activation energy Ea as the temperature of a chemical [1]
reaction is increased? Justify.
(b) A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.25 × 10-3 s-1. How long will 5 g of this reactant take to [1]

reduce to 2.5 g?
[log 2 = 0.301, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021]
20. a. Find the value of van't Hoff factor for acetic acid in benzene as per the given equation: [2]
2CH3COOH ⇋ (CH3COOH)2, assuming its complete association.

3/6
 b. Osmotic pressure of a solution containing 3.5 g of dissolved protein in 0.05 L of a solution is 0.035 atm at

310 K. Calculate the molar mass of the protein. (R = 0·0821 L atm K-1 mol-1)
OR
Why is it advised to add ethylene glycol to water in a car radiator while driving in a hill station?
21. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated: [2]
a. Ethanal, Propanone, Propanal, Butanone (reactivity towards nucleophilic addition)
b. 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, benzoic acid, 3,4-Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxy benzoic acid (Acid strength)
Section C
22. State Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions. Why does the conductivity of a solution decreases with [3]
dilution?
23. The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of production of N2 [3]

and H2 if k = 2.5 × 10-4 mol-1 L s-1?

24. i. Write the mechanism of the following SN1 reaction: [3]

y
Aq. NaOH

(CH3)3C - Br −−−−−−→ (CH3)3 C - OH + NaBr

m
ii. Write the equation for the preparation of 2-methyl-2-methoxypropane by Williamson synthesis.

de OR
Why is the reactivity of all the three classes of alcohols with conc. HCl and ZnCl2 (Lucas reagent) different?
ca
25. Complete the following: [3]
1.AlH(i−Bu) H2 N−OH
2

i. CH 3 CN −−−−−−−−→ 'A' −−−−−→ 'B'

dA

+
2⋅H2 O H

ii. Write IUPAC name of the following compound:

vin

iii. Write chemical test to distinguish between the following compounds: Phenol and Benzoic acid

26. i. The conductivity of 0.001 mol L-1 solution of CH3COOH is 3.905 × 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate its molar [3]
Ar

conductivity and degree of dissociation (α). Given, λ ∘

(H
+ 2
) = 349.6Scm mol
−1
and
∘ − 2 −1
λ (CH3 COO ) = 40.9Scm mol

ii. Define electrochemical cell. What happens if external potential applied becomes greater than E ∘
cell
of
electrochemical cell?
[3]
27. a. Out of and , which one is more reactive towards SN2 reaction and

why?

b. Out of and , which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic

substitution reaction and why?

c. Out of and , which one is optically active and why?

28. What are fuel cells? Explain the electrode reactions involved in the working of H2 - O2 fuel cell. [3]

4/6
 Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The unique behaviour of Cu, having a positive E° accounts for its inability to liberate H2 from acids. Only

oxidising acids (nitric and hot concentrated sulphuric) react with Cu, the acids being reduced. The stability of the

half-filled d sub-shell in Mn2+ and the completely filled d10 configuration in Zn2+ are related to their E° values,
whereas E° for Ni is related to the highest negative Δ hyd H°. An examination of the E o
3+ 2+
values the low
(M /M )

value for Sc reflects the stability of Sc3+ which has a noble gas configuration. The comparatively high value for

Mn shows that Mn2+(d5) is particularly stable, whereas a comparatively low value for Fe shows the extra

stability of Fe3+ (d5). The comparatively low value for V is related to the stability of V2+ (half-filled t2g level).

m y
de
i. Why Zn has high value for M3+/M2+ Standard Electrode Potentials? (1)
ca
ii. Transition metals, despite high E° oxidation, are poor reducing agents. Justify. (1)

iii. Why is Cr2+ reducing and Mn3+ oxidising when both Cr and Mn have d4 configuration? (2)
dA

OR
Why Cu2+ is more stable than Cu+? (2)
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
vin

A raw mango placed in concentrated salt solution loses water via osmosis and shrivel into pickle. Wilted flowers
revive when placed in fresh water. A carrot that has become limp because of water loss into the atmosphere can
be placed into the water making it firm once again. Water will move into its cells through osmosis. When placed
Ar

in water containing less than 0.9% (mass/volume) salt, blood cells swell due to flow of water in them by
osmosis.
i. People taking a lot of salt or salty food suffer from puffiness or edema. What is the reason behind this?
ii. The preservation of meat by salting and of fruits by adding sugar protects against bacterial action. How?
iii. Why the direction of osmosis gets reversed if a pressure larger than the osmotic pressure is applied to the
solution side? Write its one application.
OR
What care is generally taken during intravenous injections and why?
Section E
31. Attempt any five of the following: [5]
(a) Which of the two components of starch is water soluble? [1]
(b) Give one example each for water-soluble vitamins and fat-soluble vitamins. [1]
(c) Differentiate between [1]
a. Nucleotide and Nucleoside

5/6
 b. Amylose and Amylopectin
(d) Define the following terms: [1]
a. Denaturation of protein
b. Invert sugar
(e) i. Why do amino acids show amphoteric behaviour? [1]
ii. What happens when D-Glucose is treated with hydroxylamine?
(f) What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents? [1]
a. Br2 water

b. HCN
(g) Of the two bases named below, which one is present in RNA and which one is present in DNA? [1]
i. Thymine
ii. Uracil

32. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic. Explain why? [5]

y
OR

m
Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:
a. [Pt (NH3)2 Cl(NO2]

b. K3 [Cr (C2O4)3] de
ca
c. [CoCl2 (en)2]Cl
d. [Co(NH3)5 (CO3)]Cl
dA

e. Hg [Co (SCN)4]

33. i. Write the structure of main products when aniline reacts with the following reagents : [5]

a. Br2 water
vin

b. HCl
c. (CH3CO)2O/pyridine

ii. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point: C2H5NH2, C2H5OH, (CH3)3N
Ar

iii. Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pair of compounds : (CH3)2NH and

(CH3)3N.

OR
a. Arrange the following compounds
i. In increasing order of basic strength: C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH and CH3NH2.
ii. In decreasing order of pKb values: C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2.

iii. In increasing order of basic strength in water: C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, C2H5NH2.

6/6
 Arvind Academy

CHEMISTRY SP 3
Class 12 - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

y
3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

m
4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.

de
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
ca
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
dA

1. Which of the following isomer of pentane (C5H12) will give three isomeric monochlorides on photochemical [1]
chlorination?

a) CH3
b) CH3 − C H − CH2 − CH3
vin

|
|

CH3 − C CH3
|

CH3

c) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 d) CH3
Ar

CH3 − C − CH3
|

CH3

2. Zwitter ion is represented as: [1]

a) O

||
b) O

||
⊕

H3 N − CH − C − OH H2 N − CH − C − OH
| |

R R2

c) O

||
d) O

||
⊕ ⊝
⊝ ¨
H2 N − CH − C − O H3 N − CH − C − O :
| |

R R

3. The major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 1-methylcyclohexanol is: [1]

a) 1-methylenecyclohexane b) 1-methylcyclohexene

c) 1-methylcyclohexane d) 1-cyclohexylmethanol
4. The base hydrolysis of an ester is called______. [1]

1/7
 a) saponification b) esterification

c) hydrolysis d) neutralization
5. Which of the following relations is incorrect? [1]

a) G = k(
a
) b) G = k(
l

a
)
l

c) ∧ d)
k 1 l
m = R = ( )
c a
k

6. Match the column and choose correct option [1]

Vant'Hoff factor Behaviour of compound

(a) i = 1 (i) Impossible

(b) i > 1 (ii) Association is the solution

(c) i < 1 (iii) Dissociation in the solution

(d) i = 0 (iv) No dissociation or association

y
a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

m
c) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) d) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
7.
de
In which of the following molecules carbon atom marked with an asterisk (*) is asymmetric? [1]
ca
a.
dA

b.
vin

c.
Ar

d.

a) (b), (c), (d) b) (a), (b), (c)

c) (a), (b), (c), (d) d) (a), (c), (d)

8. Oxides of which of the lanthanides are used for making gas mantles? [1]

a) Bk b) Lr

c) Dy d) Ce
9. When 10 g of radioactive isotope is reduced to 1.25 g in 12 years, the half life period of the isotope is [1]

a) 4 years b) 24 years

c) 16 years d) 8 years
[1]
10.

2/7
 The structure of A and type of isomerism in the above reaction are respectively.

a) Prop-2-en-2-ol, geometrical isomerism b) Prop–1–en–2–ol, metamerism

c) Prop-1-en-2-ol, tautomerism d) Prop-1-en-1-ol, tautomerism

11. Which of the following is most acidic ? [1]

a) b)

c) d)

12. Which one of the following cannot be obtained by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis? [1]

a) CH3NH2 b) CH4CH3NH5

y
c) CH3CH2NH2 d) Aromatic primary amines

m
13. Assertion: Glycine must be taken through diet. [1]
Reason: It is an essential amino acid.

a) Assertion and reason both are correct

statements and reason explain the assertion.
de
b) Both assertion and reason are wrong
statements.
ca
c) The assertion is the correct statement and d) The assertion is the wrong statement and
reason is the wrong statement. reason is the correct statement.
dA

||
[1]
14. Assertion (A): RMgX on reaction with CO2 gives R − C − OH

Reason (R): RMgX on reaction with carbonyl compounds give alcohols.

vin

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Ar

15. Assertion (A): Tertiary haloalkanes are more reactive than primary haloalkanes towards elimination reactions. [1]
Reason (R): The +I-effect of the alkyl groups weakens the C-X bond.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): can be differentiated by iodoform reaction. [1]

OH

Reason (R): Alcohols having − C H − CH group give haloform reaction.

3

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
17. Using valence bond theory, predict the hybridization and magnetic character of the following: [2]

3/7
 a. [Co(NH3)6]3+

b. [Ni(CO)4]

[At. no. : Co = 27, Ni = 28]

18. Explain the following observation: [2]

i. Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals (4d10) inits ground state, yet it is regarded as a transition
element.
ii. Eo value for
3+ 3+
Mn

2+
couple is much more positive than cr

2+
.
Mn cr

19. Answer the following: [2]

(a) The decomposition of dimethyl ether leads to the formation of CH4, H2 and CO, and the reaction rate [1]

is given by, Rate = k [CH3COCH3]3/2. If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then
what are the units of rate and rate constants?
(b) Define molecularity of the reaction. State any one condition in which a bimolecular reaction may be [1]

y
kinetically of first order.

m
20. Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (Vitamin C, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75 g of acetic acid to lower its [2]

melting point by 1.5oC. Kf = 3.9 K kg mol-1.

de OR
a. Find the van't Hoff factor for aqueous KCl, assuming complete dissociation.
ca
b. A solution of an organic compound is prepared by dissolving 68.4 g in 1000 g of water. Calculate the molar mass

of the compound when elevation in boiling point is 0.104 K and Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol-1.
dA

21. Write the structures of the main products in the following reactions: [2]
vin
Ar

Section C
22. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given figure: [3]

4/7
 a. Define the process depicted in the above figure.
b. Can this process be used in the coagulation of the lyophobic sols?
c. What is coagulation?

23. i. Define the following terms. [3]

y
a. Activation energy

m
b. Rate constant
ii. A first order reaction takes 10 min for 25% decomposition. Calculate t1/2 for the reaction.

24. i. Write the mechanism of the following reaction:

de
(Given, log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)
[3]
ca
+
H

2CH3CH2OH −−−→ CH3CH2OCH2CH3 + H2O

413K

ii. Write the preparation of phenol from cumene.

dA

OR
How the following conversions can be carried out?
i. Ethanol to propanenitrile
vin

ii. Aniline to chlorobenzene

iii. 2-Chlorobutane to 3, 4-dimethylhexane
25. Write the products formed when (CH3)3 C – CHO reacts with the following reagents : [3]
Ar

i. CH3COCH3 in the presence of dilute NaOH

ii. HCN
iii. Conc. NaOH
26. Zinc rod is dipped in 0.1 M solution of ZnSO4 [3]

The salt is 95% dissociated at is dilution at 298 K . Calculate the electrode potential. Given:
E0(Zn2+/Zn) = -0.76

27. Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction with OH-? [3]

i. CH3Br or CH3I

ii. (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl

28. A voltaic cell is set-up at 250 C with following half cells Al|Al3+(0.001 M) and Ni|Ni2+(0.50 M) [3]

Write an equation for the reaction that occurs when the cell generates an electric current and determine the cell

5/7
 potential.
[Given, E Θ

Ni
2+
/Ni
= −0.25 V , and E
Θ

Al
3+
/Al
= −1.66 V log(8 × 10
−6
) = - 5.09690]
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The transition metals when exposed to oxygen at low and intermediate temperatures form thin, protective oxide
films of up to some thousands of Angstroms in thickness. Transition metal oxides lie between the extremes of
ionic and covalent binary compounds formed by elements from the left or right side of the periodic table. They
range from metallic to semiconducting and deviate by both large and small degrees from stoichiometry. Since d-
electron bonding levels are involved, the cations-exist in various valence states and hence give rise to a large
number of oxides. The crystal structures are often classified by considering a cubic or hexagonal close-packed
lattice of one set of ions with the other set of ions filling the octahedral or tetrahedral interstices. The actual
oxide structures, however, generally show departures from such regular arrays due in part to distortions caused
by packing of ions of different size and to ligand field effects. These distortions depend not only on the number
of d-electrons but also on the valence and the position of the transition metal in a period or group.

y
i. Why does copper, which is in first series of transition metal exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently? (1)

m
ii. The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic. Why? (1)
iii. The variability in oxidation states of d-block different from that of the p-block elements. Explain. (2)
OR
de
Crystal structure of oxides of transition metals often show defects. Given reason. (2)
ca
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The colligative properties of electrolytes require a slightly different approach than the one used for the
dA

colligative properties of non-electrolytes. The electrolytes dissociate into ions in solution. It is the number of
solute particles that determines the colligative properties of a solution. The electron solutions, therefore, show
abnormal colligative properties. To account for this effect we define a quantity called the van't Hoft factor, given
by
vin

Actual number of particles in solution after dissociation

i=
Number of formula units initially dissolved in solution

i = 1 (for non-electrolytes);
i > 1 (for electrolytes, undergoing dissociation)
Ar

i < 1 (for solutes, undergoing association).

i. 0.1M K4[Fe(CN)6] is 60% ionized. What will be its van't Hoff factor? (1)

ii. When a solution of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene such that it undergoes in molecular association and its
molar mass approaches 244. In which form Benzoic molecules will exist? (1)
iii. How does van't Hoff factor i and degree of association a are related if benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in
benzene solution? (i = 1 −α

2
or i = 1 + α) (2)
OR
What do you mean by colligative properties of solutions? (2)
Section E
31. Attempt any five of the following: [5]
(a) What are nucleic acids? Why two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary? [1]
(b) a. How can you explain the absence of an aldehyde group in the pentaacetate of D-glucose? [1]
b. Name the bases present in RNA. Which one of these is not present in DNA?

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 (c) Define the following terms: [1]
i. Glycosidic linkage
ii. Native protein
(d) What type of protein is present in keratin? [1]
(e) Write the full forms of DNA and RNA. [1]
(f) Give reaction of glucose with the following: [1]
a. HCN
b. Conc. HNO3

(g) What is the basic structural difference between glucose and fructose? [1]
32. CoSO4Cl.5NH3 exists in two isomeric forms ‘A’ and ‘B’. Isomer ‘A’ reacts with AgNO3 to give white [5]
precipitate but does not react with BaCl2. Isomer ‘B’ gives a white precipitate with BaCl2 but does not react
with AgNO3. Answer the following questions.

i. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write their structural formulas.

y
ii. Name the type of isomerism involved.

m
iii. Give the IUPAC name of ‘A’ and ‘B’.
OR

33.
de
[NICl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why?

An aromatic compound 'A' of molecular formula C7H6O2 undergoes a series of reactions as shown below. Write [5]
ca
the structures of A, B, C, D and E in the following reactions.
dA
vin

OR
i. Give reasons:
Ar

a. Although – NH2 group is o/p directing in electrophilic substitution reactions, yet aniline, on nitration gives
good yield of m-nitroaniline.
b. (CH3)2 NH is more basic than (CH3)3 N in an aqueous solution.
c. Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure primary amines.
ii. Distinguish between the following:
a. CH3CH2NH2 and (CH3CH2)2 NH

b. Aniline and CH3NH2

7/7
 Arvind Academy

CHEMISTRY SP 5
Class 12 - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

y
3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

m
4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.

de
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
ca
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
dA

1. Which of the following belongs to the class of alkyl halides? [1]

a) CH ≡ C - CH2 - Cl b) CH2 = CH - Cl

c) CH2 = CH - CH2 - CH2 - Cl d)

vin

CH2 = CH − CH − CH3
|

Cl

2. The action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives mainly: [1]

Ar

a) ethyl alcohol b) ethyl nitrite

c) nitroethane d) ethane
3. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below. [1]
C H3 − C H − C H2 − C H2 − C H − C H3
| |

Cl OH

a) 2 – Chloro – 5 – hydroxyhexane b) 5 – Chlorohexan – 2 – ol

c) 2 – Hydroxy – 5 – chlorohexane d) 2 – Chlorohexan – 5 – ol

4. The common name for pentanedioic acid is: [1]

a) Succinic acid b) Pimelic acid

c) Oxalic acid d) Glutaric acid

5. Name the order of reaction which proceeds with a uniform rate throughout. [1]

a) Third order b) Second order

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 c) First order d) Zero order
6. Match the items given in column I with that in column II: [1]

Column I Column II

(a) Osmotic Pressure. (i) Cottrell's method.

(b) Relative lowering of vapour pressure. (ii) Rast's method.

(c) Elevation in boiling point. (iii) Ostwald and Walker's method.

(d) Depression in freezing point. (iv) Berkeley and Hartley's method.

a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii). b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv). d) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii).

7. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH– ion? [1]

a. C H 3 − CH − Br

y
|

C2 H5

m
Br

b. C H 3 − CH − C Br
|

c. C H 3
C2 H5

− CH
|

C2 H5
− C H2 Br
de
ca
a) (b), (c) b) (a), (c)

c) (a), (b), (c) d) (a)

dA

8. Which of the following is called chromic acid? [1]

a) CrO b) H2CrO4
vin

c) Cr3O4 d) Cr2O3

9. Rate of ionic reactions are generally [1]

a) Very fast b) Slow

Ar

c) Moderate d) Very slow

10. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions? [1]

a) O

||
b) O

||

C H3 − C − H C H3 − C − C H3

c) d)

11. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature? [1]

a) 1 b) 4

c) 3 d) 2
12. Among the following amines, the strongest Brönsted base is ________. [1]

a) b)

2/6
 c) d) NH3

13. Assertion (A): D(-)-Ribose on consecutive treatment with

Br2
,
H2 O2
gives D(-)-erythrose. [1]
H2 O F e2 (SO4 )
3

Br2 H2 O2
Reason (R): H2 O
,
Fe
2+
is used in Ruff degradation method and D(-)-ribose and D(-)-erythrose differ only in
one carbon atom.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

y
14. Assertion (A): Benzaldehyde gives a positive test with Benedict's and Fehling solution. [1]

m
Reason (R): Benzaldehyde forms black precipitate or silver mirror with Tollen's reagent.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A. de b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
ca
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles. [1]
dA

Reason (R): CHCl3 is oxidised in dark.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
vin

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): The acidity of alcohols follows the order 1 ∘
> 2
∘
> 3
∘
. [1]
Reason (R): The +I effect of alkyl groups (3 ∘ ∘
> 2
∘
> 1 ) favours the dissociation of -OH group.
Ar

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

17. a. On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration for d4 with a strong field ligand for [2]

which Δ 0 > P .
b. A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green but a solution of [Ni(CO)4] is colourless. Explain.

[Atomic number : Ni = 28]

18. Write the balanced ionic equations showing the oxidising action of acidified dichromate (C r 2
2−
O
7
) solution with [2]
i. Iron (II) Ion and
ii. tin (II) ion.
19. Answer the following: [2]
(a) a. The conversion of molecule A to B followed second order kinetics. If concentration of A [1]

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 increased to three times, how will it affect the rate of formation of B?
b. Define Pseudo first order reaction with an example.
(b) The rate of reaction decreases with the progress of reaction. Why? [1]
20. A solution is prepared by dissolving 5 g of a non-volatile solute in 200 g of water. It has a vapour pressure of [2]
31.84 mm Hg at 300 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. (Vapour pressure of pure water at 300 K = 32
mm Hg)
OR
Give an example of compound in which hydrogen bonding results in the formation of a dimer.
21. Draw the structure of 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one. [2]
Section C
22. Mention the reactions occurring at [3]
i. anode
ii. cathode, during working of a mercury cell.
Why does the voltage of a mercury cell remain constant during its operation?

y
23. The variation in the concentration (R) vs. time (t) plot is given below. Answer the following questions on the [3]

m
basis of the given figure:

de
ca
dA

i. Predict the order of the reaction.

ii. What is the slope of the curve indicate?
iii. What are the units of the rate constant k?
vin

24. Name the reagents which are used in the following conversions: [3]
i. A primary alcohol to an aldehyde
ii. Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol
Ar

iii. Phenol to 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

OR
o- nitrophenol has lower boiling point (is more volatile) than p - nitrophenol.
25. Write the main product in the following reactions: [3]
i. 2CH 3
COCl + ( CH3 ) Cd →
2

Zn(Hg)/Conc HCl

ii. CH 3 CH2 CHO −−−−−−−−−−→

iii.

26. For the cell, [3]

2+ 2+
Zn(s) ∣
∣Zn (2M)∥Cu (0.5M) ∣
∣ Cu(s)

i. Write the equation for each half reaction.

ii. Calculate the cell potential at 25°C.
[Given, E ∘
2+
= -0.76 V , E ∘
2+
= + 0.34 V]
Zn /Zn Cu /Cu

27. Arrange the compounds of each set in order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement: [3]

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 i. 2-bromo-2-methyl butane,1-bromopentane, 2-bromopentane.
ii. 1-bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-bromo-2-methylbutane, 3-bromo-2-methylbutane.
iii. 1-bromobutane, 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane, 1-bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-bromo-3-methylbutane.
28. A copper-silver cell is set-up. The copper ion concentration is 0.10 M. The concentration of silver ion is not [3]
known. The cell potential when measured was 0.422 V. Determine the concentration of silver ions in the cell.
Θ Θ
[Given, E +
= +0.80 V , E 2+
= −0.34 V ]
Ag /Ag Cu /C u

Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Observe the graph of transition metal and their melting points

m y
i. Why does W (tungsten) has highest melting point? (1) de
ca
ii. Which element in 3d series has lowest enthalpy of atomisation and why? (1)
iii. Why is mercury liquid? (2)
OR
dA

Why are transition metals less electropositive than ‘s’-block elements? (2)
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Raoult's law states that for a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure of each component of the
vin

solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction present in solution. Dalton's law of partial pressure states
that the total pressure (Ptotal) over the solution phase in the container will be the sum of the partial pressures of

the components of the solution and is given as: Ptotal = P1 + P2

Ar

i. Is the above-mentioned Raoult's law applicable for non-volatile liquids? (1)

ii. What type of deviation from Raoult's law does the above graph represent? (1)
iii. Give an example of such system. (2)
OR

5/6
 A solution of two liquids boils at a temperature more than the boiling point of either of them. What type of
deviation will be shown by the solution formed in terms of Raoult's law? (2)
Section E
31. Attempt any five of the following: [5]
(a) Name the bases present in RNA. Which one of these is not present in DNA? [1]
(b) Write the name of the component of starch which is water-soluble. [1]
(c) Define the following terms: [1]
a. Essential amino acids
b. Nucleotide
(d) Write a reaction which shows that all the carbon atoms in glucose are linked in a straight chain. [1]
(e) a. What is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide? [1]
b. What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed?
(f) What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose ? [1]

y
(g) What are biocatalysts? Give an example. [1]
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3+ is weakly paramagnetic. Explain. [5]

m
32.

OR

33.
coordination entity?
Complete the following reaction:
de
What is crystal field splitting energy? How does the magnitude ofΔ decide the actual configuration of d-orbitals in a
0

[5]
ca
i. CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + alc. KOH ⟶
dA

H2 O

ii. C 6 H5 N2
+ −
Cl −−−−−−−−−−−−−→

(At room temperature)

iii.
vin

OR
i. Write one chemical reaction for each
Ar

a. Carbylamine reaction
b. Acetylation reaction
ii. Write structure of N,N-ethylmethylethanamide

6/6
 Arvind Academy

BIOLOGY SP 1
Class 12 - Biology
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7

y
questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions

m
of 5 marks each.

4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to

de
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
ca
Section A
1. Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary production? [1]
dA

a) Tropical rain forests b) Estuaries

c) Oceans d) Deserts
2. Female hired to develop the in-vitro fertilized egg of another female to maturity is called: [1]
vin

a) Step-mother b) Biological mother

c) Feeding mother d) Surrogate mother

Ar

3. If a species experiences a 90 percent decline over 10 years (or three generations), would be classified as: [1]

a) Vulnerable b) Endangered

c) Critically endangered d) Data deficient

4. ________ involve the transfer of embryo at an 8-celled stage in the fallopian tube of the female. [1]

a) POST b) GIFT

c) IVF d) ZIFT
5. The thermostable enzymes Taq and pfu isolated from thermophilic bacteria are: [1]

a) DNA ligases b) Restriction endonucleases

c) RNA polymerase d) DNA polymerases

6. Agriculture by using only biofertilizers is called: [1]

a) Manuring b) Composting

c) Inorganic farming d) Organic farming

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 7. Given below is a highly simplified representation of human sex chromosomes from a karyotype. The genes a [1]
and b could be of:

a) Colour blindness and body height b) Attached ear lobe and Rh blood group

c) Phenylketonuria and haemophilia. d) Haemophilia and red green colour blindness

8. What was the resultant found in the place marked E? [1]

m y
a) Glucose, fatty acids and lipids

c) Some amino acids as glycine and alanine de b) Some fatty acids and organic acids

d) Organic esters only

ca
9. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the world's oceans is that of: [1]

a) Benthic brown alga, coastal red algae and b) Sea grasses and slime moulds.
dA

daphnids.

c) Free floating micro-algae, cyanobacteria and d) Benthic diatoms and marine viruses.
nanoplanktons.
vin

10. What does the chart give below represent? [1]

Ar

a) XX - XO type of sex determination b) XX - XY type of sex determination

c) XO - XX type of sex determination d) xy - xx type of sex determination

11. Which one is used as biofertilizer? [1]

a) Nostoc b) Rhizopus

c) Funaria d) Volvox
12. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not required? [1]

a) Deoxyribonuclease b) Ribonuclease

c) Lysozyme d) Protease
13. Assertion (A): Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR have to lead to a staggering rise in population. [1]

2/6
 Reason (R): Such an alarming growth rate has lead to an absolute scarcity of even the most basic requirements,
i.e. food and shelter.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Large holes in Swiss cheese are due to the production of a large amount of carbon dioxide by [1]
specific microbe.
Reason (R): The specificity of characteristic texture, flavour and taste of Swiss cheese is due to the use of
bacterium Propionibacterium shermanii.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
Reason is the correct explanation of the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.

c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

y
15. Assertion (A): Land occupying 30 percent of the earth's surface and its productivity is more than three times as [1]

m
compared to oceans.
Reason (R): Oceans, despite occupying about 70 percent of the surface but their productivity are only 55 billion
tons.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

de b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
ca
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

dA

16. Assertion (A): Stanley Miller could work on experimental evidence of origin of life because of Harold Urey. [1]
Reason (R): H. Urey was geochemist, cosmochemist and teacher of S. miller.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
vin

explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
Ar

17. The release of municipal wastewater and industrial waste into our natural water bodies is causing disastrous [2]
effect to the aquatic life. Explain the biological treatment that should be given to it before releasing into the
natural water bodies.
18. Observe the diagram of Genetic code and answer the following questions: [2]

i. How many codons codes for amino acids and how many do not?
ii. Explain the following giving one example of each.

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 a. Unambiguous and specific codon
b. Degeneration codon
c. Universal codon
d. Initiator codon
19. How does a bisexual flowering plant ensures cross pollination? Explain. [2]
20. Identify A, B, C and D with reference to gametogenesis in humans, in the flow chart given below. [2]

21. BOD of two samples of water A and B were 120 mg/L and 400 mg/L respectively. Which sample is more [2]
polluted?

y
OR

m
Effluent from the primary treatment of the sewage is passed through large aeration tanks for biological treatment.
Explain the complete process that follows till the water is ready to be released into the natural water bodies.

22. Study the figure given and answer the questions. de

Section C
[3]
ca
dA
vin

i. How does the repressor molecule get inactivated?

ii. When does the transcription of lac mRNA stop?
iii. Name the enzyme transcribed by the gene z.
Ar

23. Why is the frequency of red-green color blindness is many times higher in males than that in females? [3]
24. Egrets are often seen along with grazing cattle. How do you refer to this interaction? Give reason. [3]
25. The below image shows is the headquarter of Eli Lilly company. Eli lily is one of the first pharmaceutical [3]
companies to produce human insulin using RDT technology by cell-based fermentation method.

i. How did Eli Lilly synthesize human insulin?

ii. Mention one difference between this insulin and the one produce by the human pancreas.
26. Explain the concept of co-extinction by taking two examples. [3]
OR

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 Analyse the effects of Alien species invasion on the biodiversity of a given area. Provide two examples.
27. What is divergent evolution? Explain by taking examples of plants. [3]
28. Mention the chemical nature of an antibody and name the type of cells they are produced by. Write the [3]
difference between active and passive immune responses on the basis of antibodies.
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Study the given table

Hormone Source Function

A Oxytocin W Ejection of milk

B X Anterior lobe of pituitary Stimulates secretion of ABP from Sertoli cells

C Y Placenta Maintains corpus luteum to secrete progesterone

D Relaxin Ovary Z

y
i. Identify the hormones X and Y respectively. (1)

m
ii. Label W and Z. (1)
iii. Name the hormones produced only during pregnancy in human female. Mention their source organs. (2)
OR
de
Name any two hormones which are secreted by placenta and are also present in a non-pregnant woman. (2)
ca
30. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: [4]
"Mosquitoes are drastically affecting the human health in almost all the developing tropical countries. Different
species of mosquitoes cause very fatal diseases so much so that many humans loose their life and if they survive,
dA

are unable to put in productive hours to sustain their life. With the result the health index of the country goes
down."
a. Name the form in which Plasmodium gains entry into (i) human body (ii) the female Anopheles body. (1)
vin

b. Why do the symptoms of malaria not appear in a person immediately after being bitten by an infected female
Anopheles? Give one reason. Explain when and how do the symptoms of the disease would appear. (2)
OR
Ar

Explain the events which occur within a female Anopheles mosquito after it has sucked blood from a malaria
patient. (2)
c. Name a species of mosquito other than female Anopheles and the disease, for which it carries the pathogen.
(1)
Section E
31. With a neat, labeled diagram, describe the parts of a mature angiosperm embryo sac. Mention the role of [5]
synergids.
OR
a. Explain the process of double fertilization in angiosperms.
b. Why does the development of endosperm preceeds that of embryo?
c. List the parts of a typical dicot embryo.

32. a. State the reasons for which Hershey and Chase carried out their experiments. [5]
b. Answer the following questions based on the experiments of Hershey and Chase:
i. Name the different radioactive isotopes they used, and explain how they used them.

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 ii. Why did they need to agitate and spin their culture?
iii. Write their observations and the conclusions they arrived at.
OR
A group of genes are regulated and expressed together as a unit in lac operon.
i. Explain the mechanism of switching on of the structural genes of lac operon.
ii. Regulation of lac operon is referred to be negatively regulated. Justify giving a reason.
33. Bioreactors are the containment vehicles of any biotechnology-based production process. For large scale [5]
production and for economic reasons the final success of biotechnological process depends on the efficiency of
the bioreactor.
Answer the following questions w.r.t. the given paragraph:
i. List the operational guidelines that must be adhered to so as to achieve optimisation of the bioreactor system.
Enlist any four.
ii. Mention the phase of the growth we refer to in the statement Optimisation of growth and metabolic
activity of the cells.

y
iii. Is the biological product formed in the bioreactor suitable for the intended use immediate? Give reason in

m
support of your answer.
OR

de
Write any four ways used to introduce a desired DNA segment into a bacterial cell in recombinant technology
experiments.
ca
dA
vin
Ar

6/6
 Arvind Academy

BIOLOGY SP 2
Class 12 - Biology
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7

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questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions

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of 5 marks each.

4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to

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attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
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Section A
1. The detritus food chain begins with: [1]
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a) Primary consumers b) Primary producers

c) Dead organic matter d) Secondary consumers

2. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons: [1]
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a) These are effective barriers for b) They do not interfere with the coital act.
insemination.
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c) All of these d) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.

3. List of endangered species was released by: [1]

a) BBC b) IUCN

c) WCC d) UN
4. The formula for exponential population growth is: [1]

a) dt

dN
= rN b) dN

rN
= dt

c) = dt d) = rN
rN dN

dN dt

5. The source organism of Taq polymerase is: [1]

a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Escherichia coli

c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Thermus aquaticus

6. Which among the following is not included under cyanobacteria? [1]

a) Oscillatoria b) Anabaena

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 c) Rhizobium d) Nostoc
7. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn [1]
for the character

a) The trait under study could not be colour b) The female parent is heterozygous
blindness

c) The male parent is homozygous dominant d) The parent could not have had a normal
daughter for this character
8. The diagram represents the Miller experiment. Choose the correct combination of labelling. [1]

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a) A – electrodes, B – NH3 + H2O, C – hot
water, D – tap, E – U trap
de b) A – electrodes, B – NH3 + H2 + H2O +
CH4, C – steam, D – Vacuum, E – U trap
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c) A – electrodes, B – (NH3 + H2 + H2O + d) A – electrodes, B – NH4 + H2 + CO2 +
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CH4), C – cold water, D – Vacuum, E – U CH3, C – hot water, D – Vacuum, E – U

Trap. Trap.
9. In a food chain, the total amount of living material is depicted by : [1]
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a) Trophic levels b) Pyramid of number

c) Pyramid of energy d) Pyramid of biomass

10. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of trait in humans. Which one of the following [1]
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conditions could be an example of this pattern?

a) Thalassemia b) Haemophilia

c) Sickle Cell anemia d) Phenyl ketonuria

11. Which of the following is produced by genetically-engineered bacteria? [1]

a) Glucagon b) ADH

c) Insulin d) Thyroxine
12. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of: [1]

a) qualified bacterial cells b) Transformed bacterial cells

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 c) Recombinant bacterial cells d) Competent bacterial cells
13. Assertion (A): In India, IUDs like copper-T is one of the most widely accepted method of contraception. [1]
Reason (R): It can be self-inserted by the user.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Lichen is important for chemical industries. [1]
Reason (R): Litmus and Orcein are formed from lichens.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

15. Assertion (A): Tree and its dependents form upright pyramid of number. [1]

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Reason (R): Pond ecosystem show upright pyramid of number.

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

16.
c) A is true but R is false.
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Assertion (A): Evolution is a continuous process that takes millions of years for speciation. [1]
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Reason (R): During evolution, small variation accumulates guided by natural selection that leads to speciation.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
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explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
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17. Describe the contributions of Alexander Fleming, Ernest Chain and Howard Florey in the field of microbiology. [2]
18. Study the given portion of double-stranded polynucleotide chain carefully. Identify a, b, c and the 5' end of the [2]
chain.
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19. Draw a well labelled diagram of sectional view of male gametophyte/microspore of an angiosperm and write the [2]
functions of any two parts labelled. (Any four labels).
20. Study the sectional view of human testis showing seminiferous tubules given below. [2]

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 i. Identify A, B and C.
ii. Write the function of A and D.
21. Micro-organisms play an important role for the biological treatment of sewage. Justify. [2]
OR
a. Differentiate between humoral and cell mediated immune response.
b. Why is a patient who has undergone organ transplant put on immunosuppressants? Explain.

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Section C

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22. Study the mRNA segment given below, which is complete and to be translated into a polypeptide chain and [3]
answer the following questions:

i. Write codons 'A' and 'B'.

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ii. What do they code for?
iii. How is the peptide bond formed between two amino acids in the ribosome?
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23. Differentiate between multiple allelism and pleiotropy with the help of an example each. [3]
24. a. What does the equation dN
= rN express in terms of population growth? [3]
dt

b. Write the significance of r in a population survey.

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25. The image below describes the process of Gene Therapy. [3]
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i. What is gene therapy?

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 ii. Name the first clinical case in which it was used.

26. a. Enlist two criteria that are used to identify a region for maximum protection as Biodiversity hotspots. [3]
b. Name any two hotspot regions in our country.
OR
Given below is an equation describing the Species-Area relationship between species richness and area for a wide
variety of taxa as angiosperm plants, birds, bats etc.

S = CAz
a. Give a graphical representation of the given equation showing
Species-Area relationship.
b. What does S represent in the given equation?
c. What is the value of Z (regression coefficient) for frugivorous
birds and mammals in the tropical forests of different continents?
27. How would the gene flow or genetic drift affect the population? Do the population in which gene flow and [3]

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genetic drift are operated obey Hardy Weinberg principle?

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28. a. Write the scientific names of the causative agent and vector of malaria, and write its symptoms. [3]
b. Name any two diseases spread by Aedes sp.

29. de
Section D
In a human female, the reproductive phase starts on the onset of puberty and ceases around middle age of the [4]
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female. Study the graph given below regarding menstrual cycle and answer the questions that follow:
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a. Name the hormones and their source organ, which are responsible for menstrual cycle at puberty. (1)
b. For successful pregnancy, at what phase of the menstrual cycle an early embryo (upto 3 blastomeres) should
be Implanted in the Uterus (IUT) of a human female who has opted for Assisted Reproductive Technology
(ART)? Support your answer with a reason. (1)
c. Name the hormone and its source organ responsible for the events occurring during proliferative phase of
menstrual cycle. Explain the event. (2)
OR
In a normal human female, why does menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised?
Explain. (2)

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30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Cancer refers to any one of a large number of diseases characterized by the development of abnormal cells that
divide uncontrollably and have the ability to infiltrate and destroy normal body tissue. Cancer often has the
ability to spread throughout your body. Cancer is the second-leading cause of death in the world.

i. How does a cancerous cell differ from a normal cell? (1)

ii. Benign tumor is less dangerous than malignant tumor. Why? (1)
iii. Describe causes of cancer. (2)
OR
Mention two methods of treatment of the disease. (2)
Section E

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31. Describe the process of megasporogenesis in angiosperms until 8 nucleate stage. [5]

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OR
a. Where is microsporangium located in an angiosperm? State the functions of tapetum and the other three layers of
microsporangium.
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b. Describe the structure of the male gametophyte produced as a result of microsporogenesis.
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c. State the functions of each part of the male gametophyte.
32. Study the figure given below and answer the following questions: [5]
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i. Name the molecule 'X' synthesized by 'i' gene. How does this molecule gets inactivated?
ii. Which one of the structural genes codes for β -galactosidase?
iii. When will the transcription of this gene stop?
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OR
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:

i. Name the molecule M that binds with the operator.

ii. Mention the consequences of such binding.
iii. What will prevent the binding of the molecule M with the operator gene? Mention the event that follows.
33. A gene was identified in a fungus by a research worker in a lab which was considered to be of a great [5]
importance in the field of agriculture. As a student of biotechnology, write the steps you would suggest to (i)
Isolate this gene of interest from the fungus and (ii) amplify this gene for further experimentation and research.
OR

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A vector is a way to take a sequence of DNA, usually, and introduce it into another place. So what vectors do is allow
you to propagate the DNA you're interested in, in the organism you've chosen to propagate it in. So the simplest one
is the origins of recombinant DNA technology: They made copies of RNAs, and they were able to insert these into
what is known as plasmids.

Unless the vector and source DNA are cut, fragments separated and joined, the desired recombinant vector molecule
cannot be created.
i. How are the desirable DNA sequences cut?
ii. Explain the technique used to separate the cut fragments.
iii. How are the resultant fragments joined to the vector DNA molecule?

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 Arvind Academy

BIOLOGY SP 3
Class 12 - Biology
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7

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questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions

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of 5 marks each.

4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to

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attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
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Section A
1. The second trophic level in a lake is [1]
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a) Phytoplankton b) Zooplankton

c) Benthos d) Fishes
2. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of: [1]
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a) Population b) Ecosystem

c) Biotic community d) Landscape

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3. Gene flow i.e. movement of genes will: [1]

a) Increase impact of natural selection b) Homogenized population

c) Disturbs and decreases genetic variation d) Population degradation

4. Sterilization in males is performed surgically by: [1]

a) Vasectomy b) Tubectomy

c) Hysterectomy d) Laparotomy
5. Which one of the following bacteria were used by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer to accomplish the [1]
construction of the first rDNA?

a) Mycobacterium sp. b) E. coli

c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Salmonella typhimurium

6. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd and improve its nutritional quality by increasing: [1]

a) Vitamin-A b) Vitamin-C and A

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 c) Vitamin-B1 d) Vitamin- B12

7. Inthe given pedigree the shaded figures denote individuals expressing a specific trait: [1]

Which of the following is the most probable mode of inheritance of this trait?

a) X-linked recessive transmission b) Simple Mendelian Recessive

c) Codominant relationship of a single pair of d) X-linked dominant transmission

alleles
8. What was the mixture of gases used in chamber marked A? [1]

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a) Oxygen O2, ammonia (NH3), hydrogen H2, b) Methane(CH4) v, ammonia(NH3), hydrogen

and water H2O H2 and water H2O

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c) Oxygen O2, ozone O3, hydrogen H2, and d) Oxygen O2, ozone O3, hydrogen H2

water H2O

9. Which of the following is primary producer? [1]

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a) Grasshopper b) Zooplanktons

c) Phytoplanktons d) Fishes
10. Which one of the following symbols and its representation used in the human pedigree analysis is correct? [1]
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a) unaffected female b) unaffected male

c) affected male d) Mating between relatives

11. Baculoviruses are pathogens that: [1]

a) Attacks birds and snail b) Attack insects and other arthropods

c) Promote insects and arthropods d) Kills useful insects in the field

12. The enzyme ligase is used to: [1]

a) Cut goi from the source DNA b) Breakdown of lipids to fatty acids and
glycerol

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 c) Cut the vector DNA d) Join vector and goi (gene of interest)
13. Assertion (A): Periodic abstinence is a natural method of birth control. [1]
Reason (R): In this male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid
insemination.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion (A): Acetic acid production involves both aerobic and anaerobic processes. [1]
Reason (R): Production of alcohol from glucose is an aerobic process and production of acetic acid from
alcohol is an anaerobic process.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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15. Assertion (A): In open water zone up to the depth to which light can penetrate, called photic zone. [1]
Reason (R): The photic zone is categorized into the euphotic and disphotic zone.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A. de
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion (A): Geographic isolation brings about sympatric speciation. [1]
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Reason (R): Reproductive isolation brings about allopatric speciation.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
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c) A is true but R is false. d) Both A and R are false.

Section B
17. Name the group of bacteria involved in setting milk into curd. Explain the process they carry in doing so. Write [2]
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another beneficial role of such bacteria.

18. [2]

i. Look at the above sequence and mention the event A, B and C.

ii. What does central dogma state in molecular biology? How does it differ in some viruses?
19. Draw a labelled diagram of a mature male gametophyte of an angiosperm. [2]
20. In the given figure, give the name and functions of parts labelled A and B. [2]

21. Treatment of wastewater is done in a sewage treatment plant to make it less polluting. Explain the following [2]
with reference to this treatment process:

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 a. Primary sludge
b. Activated sludge
c. Anaerobic sludge digesters
OR
State the medicinal value and the bioactive molecules produced by Penicillium notatum, Monascus perpureus and
Trichoderma polysporum.
Section C
22. i. Construct a complete transcription unit with promotor and terminator on the basis of the hypothetical [3]
template strand given below.

ii. Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with its polarity.
23. F1 progeny of pea plant bearing violet flowers and snapdragon plant bearing red flowers were selfed to produce [3]
their respective F2 progeny. Compare the phenotypes, the genotypes and the pattern of inheritance of their

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respective F2 progeny.

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24. i. List any three ways of measuring population density of a habitat. [3]

25. de
ii. Mention the essential information that can be obtained by studying the population density of an organism.
This image highlights the process of Gene Therapy of ADA-SCID. [3]
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dA
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i. Mention the cause of ADA deficiency in humans.

ii. How has genetic engineering helped patients suffering from it?
26. Forests provide intangible benefits to us. Explain by taking three different areas, how. [3]
OR
Alien species invasion has been a threat to biodiversity. Justify with the help of a suitable example. List any other
three causes responsible for such a loss.
27. How does industrial melanism in Biston betularia illustrate the action of natural selection? Explain briefly. [3]
28. a. Development of recombinant DNA technology has made the expression of protective protein antigens (to be [3]
used as vaccines) in heterologous systems/bacteria or any other organism. Give an example of a vaccine
developed by such a technology and the host used.
b. Explain how a humoral immunity system gets into action when a foreign antigen enters the human body.
Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote and forms blastula. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are

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 called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as blastocyst and has blastocoel cavity. Blastocyst
gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to pregnancy.
i. Why the cells of the inner cell mass of blastocyst are called stem cells? (1)
ii. At which stage of embryonic development trophoectoderm develops? (1)
iii. What is the site of implantation? (2)
OR
What is the correct sequence of various structures formed during embryonic development? (2)
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
When a microorganism invades a host, a definite sequence of events usually occur leading to infection and
disease, causing suffering to the host. This process is called pathogenesis. Once a microorganism overcomes the
defense system of the host, development of the disease follows a certain sequence of events as shown in the
graph. Study the graph given below for the sequence of events leading to appearance of a disease and answer the
questions that follow:

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:

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i. In which period, according to the graph there are maximum chances of a person transmitting a
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disease/infection and why? (1)

ii. Study the graph and write what is an incubation period. Name a sexually transmitted disease that can be
easily transmitted during this period. Name the specific type of lymphocytes that are attacked by the
pathogen of this disease. (1)
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iii. Draw a schematic labelled diagram of an antibody. (2)

OR
In which period, the number of immune cells forming antibodies will be the highest in a person suffering
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from pneumonia?
Name the immune cells that produce antibodies. (2)
Section E
31. Trace the development of microspore mother cell in the anther to a mature pollen grain. [5]
OR
i. Explain the process of double fertilization in an angiosperm starting from the germination of pollen grains on the
stigma, mentioning the ploidy of the end products formed at the end. State the role of synergids during the course
of the process.
ii. Why does the development of endosperm precede that of the embryo?

32. i. Construct a transcription unit with a coding strand given below with proper labelling: [5]

ii. When does a coding strand become a template strand?

iii. Why does a double-helix DNA molecule transcribe into a single-stranded RNA molecule?

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 OR
a. Describe the process of amino acylation.
b. Process of transcription and translation are coupled in prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes. Explain.
33. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a laboratory technique used to amplify DNA sequences. The method [5]
involves using short DNA sequences called primers to select the portion of the genome to be amplified. The
temperature of the sample is repeatedly raised and lowered to help a DNA replication enzyme copy the target
DNA sequence. The technique can produce a billion copies of the target sequence in just a few hours.

i. List the three steps involved in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

ii. Name the source organism of Taq polymerase.

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iii. Explain the specific role of this enzyme in PCR.

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OR
If a desired gene is identified in an organism for some experiments, explain the process of the following:
i. Cutting this desired gene at specific location.
ii. Synthesis of multiple copies of this desired gene. de
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 Arvind Academy

ENGLISH SP 2
Class 12 - English Core
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

2. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. This question paper contains three sections - Section A : Reading Skills, Section B : Creative Writing Skills and

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Section C : Literature.

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4. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number and part

thereof in your answer sheet.

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5. Separate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
6. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
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SECTION A – READING SKILLS
1. Read the passage given below: [12]
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1. Every time a child takes a soft drink, he's laying the groundwork for dangerous bone disease. No, fizzy and
sugary drinks don't cause osteoporosis. But, because they are often a substitute for a glass of milk, kids are
not getting the calcium and vitamin D they need to build a strong skeleton. Many of them also lead a
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sedentary lifestyle, so they aren't getting the bone-building benefits for vigorous exercise either. These
children aren't just in jeopardy for brittle bones and fractures decades down the road. They could be at risk
of osteoporosis at a younger age than ever before.
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2. The Indian Society for Bone and Mineral Research, a body of osteoporosis experts is trying to spread
awareness about this bone-crippling disease. Osteoporosis starts in childhood but has consequences later in
life. The condition causes bones to become riddled with holes, like the framework of a house that's been
attacked by termites. That can lead to broken bones, which in turn can cause deformity, chronic pain, or
disability. Osteoporosis can be fatal; up to 25 percent of older people who suffer a broken hip die within a
year, Osteoporosis isn't just your grandmother's health threat. Although it strikes over 50 million women in
India, it also menaces over 12 million men; Osteoporosis causes loss of height, pain in joints and back,
fractures, and fear of fractures, and can be very depressing, so we must adopt preventive measures, to save
millions of people.
3. There is a new medical understanding of the best ways to protect ourselves and our children, "Simple
lifestyle changes and nutrition will help save your bones," says Dr, Mittal, To get us moving in the right
direction, he says, "It's never too late to adopt bone-friendly habits - exercise, get enough sunlight, and have
adequate calcium, This way, we can keep our bones healthy and prevent osteoporosis."
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

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 i. Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate option. (1)
When a child drink’s soft drinks ________.
i. He becomes fat
ii. He becomes lazy and inactive
iii. He’s becoming prone to bone diseases
iv. He’s preparing for an energetic day ahead
ii. Comment on the consequences a child is likely to face due to his/her sedentary lifestyle. (1)
iii. List the two substances whose deficiency in a child's body weakens their bones. (2)
(Clue: Think about the nutrients of milk)
iv. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘insufficient’, from words used in the passage. (1)
i. understanding
ii. lifestyle
iii. direction
iv. adequate

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v. What could be the consequences of having osteoporosis? (1)

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i. Increase in Height
ii. Pain in Joints and Back
iii. Depression
iv. Broken Hip bone
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vi. Osteoporosis starts in childhood but has consequences later in life. Based on your understanding of
paragraph three, list one preventive measure to protect children from osteoporosis. (2)
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vii. Why is it fair to say that Osteoporosis can be fatal for older people? (1)
viii. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following: (1)
________ the major cause of osteoporosis.
ix. How can the solutions, suggested in paragraph three, best be described? (1)
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i. Practical
ii. Presentable
iii. Popular
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iv. Prejudiced
x. How can soft drinks contribute to the risk of bone disease in children? (1)
2. Read the following passage carefully : [10]
I. Over the last five years, more companies have been actively looking for intern profiles, according to a 2018-
19 survey by an online internship and training platform. This survey reveals that India had 80% more
internship applications — with 2.2 million applications received in 2018 compared to 1.27 million in the year
before. The trend was partly due to more industries looking to have fresh minds and ideas on existing projects
for better productivity. What was originally seen as a western concept, getting an internship before plunging
into the job market, is fast gaining momentum at Indian workplaces.
II. According to the survey data, India’s National Capital Region has been the top provider of internships, with
a total of 35% internship opportunities, followed by Mumbai and Bengaluru at 20% and 15%, respectively.
This includes opportunities in startups, MNCs and even government entities. The survey also revealed popular
fields to find internships in (Fig 1). There has been growing awareness among the students about the intern

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profiles sought by hiring companies that often look for people with real-time experience in management than
B- school masters.

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III. The stipend has been an important factor influencing the choice of internships. The survey data reveals that

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the average stipend offered to interns was recorded as Rs. 7000 while the maximum stipend went up to Rs.
85,000. According to statistics, a greater number of people considered virtual internships than in-office

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internships. Virtual internships got three times more applications than in-office, since a large chunk of students
were the ones already enrolled in various courses, or preferred working from home.
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IV. Internship portals have sprung up in the last three to four years and many of them already report healthy
traffic per month. Reports suggest that on an average, an internship portal company has around 200,000-plus
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students and some 8,000 companies registered on it. It gets around two lakh visits online every month. The
Managing Director of a leading executive search firm says that though these web platforms are working as an
effective bridge between the industry and students. Since there is a high likelihood that interns will leave the
company, most reputable companies are still apprehensive about hiring too many interns.
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Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph III? (1)
The survey statistics mention the average stipend, indicating that most interns were offered the highest
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stipend of Rs.85,000.
Select from the following:
True - if the statement agrees with the information
False - if the statement contradicts the information
Not Given - if there is no information on this
ii. Do you think that there were lesser companies searching for intern profiles earlier, as compared to those in
the recent five years? (2)
iii. Choose the main idea of the paragraph that is likely to come before paragraph I. (1)
a. Process of registering for internships
b. Dos and Don’ts for an internship interview
c. Knowing more about internships
d. Startups and internships
iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement. (1)
Virtual internships attracted three times more applications than in-office. We can say this

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 because__________________________.
v. Based on your reading of paragraphs II-III, select the appropriate counter-argument to the given argument.
(1)
ARGUMENT: I don’t think you’ll be considered for an internship just because you’ve been the student
editor and Head of the Student Council.
a. I know that my stipend might be on the lower side but I think that it’s a good ‘earn while you learn'
opportunity.
b. I think I have a fair chance because I’m applying for a virtual position than an in-office one.
c. Lot of metro-cities have a good percentage of positions open and I think I should definitely take a
chance.
d. I have real-time experience in managing a team and many companies consider it more meritorious than
a degree in Management.
vi. The majority of established companies are still hesitant to hire too many interns. Give reasons why the
established companies are reluctant. (2)

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vii. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option with reference to Fig 1. (1)

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Management internships’ ________ is more than twice that of Media.
A. importance
B. application
C. popularity
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D. privacy
viii. Complete the sentence appropriately with one word (1)
dA

The choice of internships has been significantly influenced by the ______.

SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS
3. You are Secretary of Highrise Society, Vayu Nagar. Write a notice to the homeowners inviting them to attend the [4]
forthcoming meeting to discuss the election of the new committee and the changes to be made in the regulations.
vin

Include necessary details about the time and duration of the meeting.
OR
You are Aman/Archana, President of the Drama Club of Oxford Public School, Bengaluru. On the occasion of
Ar

Children's Day, your club is planning to visit and old-age home. Draft a notice in about 50 words informing the
members of the visit and asking them to bring some food items to share with the residents. Mention the day, date,
time and venue.
4. You are invited by a friend of yours to spend some days at his/her village near Manali during the summer [4]
vacation. Respond to his/her invitation. (50 words) Mention day, date, time and venue.
OR
Draft an invitation card inviting friends to an exhibition-cum-sale of hand painted wooden trays and bowls. Include
necessary details regarding the event. You are Anita/Anil.
5. There is a flood of advertisements on television channels these days. Useless commodities and even [5]
superstitious beliefs are promoted through glamorous and exaggerated presentations. Write a letter to the editor,
‘New Indian Express’ about the negative influence that such advertisements have on the minds of the people.
You are Radha/Ramesh of Mayur Vihar, Lucknow.

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 OR
Apollo International School, Karnal requires sports coaches and some other teachers. Each should be a degree holder
in physical education as well as an SAI-certified coach in athletics. You have seen their advertisement and you know
that you have these qualifications. Write an application in 120-150 words along with your resume. You are
Praveen/Praveena, M-114, Najafgarh, Delhi.

m y
de
ca
dA

6. Children up to the age of 12 years have been participating in TV programmes, bearing a lot of stress and [5]
neglecting their studies at such a prime time of their life. Write an article in 150-200 words on ‘How far is it
justified for children to participate in TV programmes?’ You are Sukra/Sukanya.
vin

OR
An NGO, Health for All organized a health check-up camp in a slum at Amritsar. You are Ruchika/Raunak, and you
visited the camp. Write a report in 150 - 200 words covering arrangements such as registration, check-up, tests
carried out, etc.
Ar

SECTION C - LITERATURE
7. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [6]
Aunt Jennifer's fingers fluttering through her wool
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.
The massive weight of Uncle's wedding band
sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer's hand
when Aunt is dead, her terrified hands will lie
still ringed with ordeals she was mastered by,
The Tigers in the panel that she made
will go on prancing, proud and unafraid.
(Aunt Jennifer's Tigers)
i. 'Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer's hand.' Through the above expression the poet indicates: (1)
A. Aunt Jennifer is happily married.

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 B. Aunt Jennifer loves the tigers in the panel.
C. Aunt Jennifer's unhappy married life.
D. Aunt Jennifer's rich and luxurious life.
ii. Select the option that has the same literary device as used in Still ringed with ordeals. (1)
A. Leopards cannot hide in the jungle as they are spotted.
B. Sun smiled happily on us.
C. Her lovely voice was music to his ears.
D. Life is like a box of chocolates.
iii. Complete the following sentences with reference to the extract. (1)
The Tigers in the panel symbolize ________.
iv. State whether the statement given below is True or False: (1)
"Find even the ivory needle hard to pull."
The above expression suggests that Aunt Jennifer is dying.
v. Based on the rhyme scheme, evident in lines 1-2, which word would rhyme with line 1? (1)

y
full sand bye

m
vi. The use of the word fluttering fingers in the extract suggest that the fingers of Aunt Jennifer are trembling.
This creates an image of ________. (1)

de
OR
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
ca
“Such the Sun, the Moon,
Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon
dA

For simple sheep; and such are daffodils

With the green world they live in; and clear rills
That for themselves a cooling covert make
‘Gainst the hot season.”
vin

i. Which of these provides joy and respite in the hot season?

a. Shades of trees in forests
b. Daffodils
Ar

c. Clear water streams

d. Both Shades of trees in forests and Clear water streams
ii. What does the word brake imply?
a. Undergrowth of ferns or bush
b. Burning of forest
c. Stubble fire
d. Large areas of grasslands
iii. Describe the role of clear rills.
a. Cool and clear streams
b. Cooling shelter
c. Flowing in green surroundings
d. Getting away from our thirst

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 iv. State whether the given statement is True or False with reference to the extract.
The sun, The Moon, and the Young trees provide us joy.
v. What are the things of beauty mentioned in the poem?
vi. According to the poet, all of the beauties of nature are like a ________.
8. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: [4]
941 Willard Street
Galesburg, Illinois
July 18, 1894
Charley
I got to wishing that you were right. Then I got to believing you were right. And, Charley, it's true; I found the
third level! I've been here two weeks, and right now, down the street at the Daly's, someone is playing a piano,
and they're all out on the front porch singing 'Seeing Nelly Home'. And I'm invited over for lemonade. Come on
back, Charley and Louisa. Keep looking till you find the third level! It's worth it, believe me!
The note is signed Sam.

y
i. What was the feeling of Sam as conveyed in the letter? Choose the appropriate option in the context of the

m
extract.
a. surprise
b. doubt
c. excitement
de
ca
d. anger
ii. What was Sam Weiner's reaction when Charley told him about the third level?
dA

a. dismissal
b. acceptance
c. wonderstruck
d. puzzled
vin

iii. The phrase 'Charley, it's true' in the context of the extract implies which of the given options?
I. Sam is relaxed
II. Charley had migrated with Louisa
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III. The existence of the third level

IV. Sam had met Charley's grandfather
Choose the most appropriate option:
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I and III
d. IV only
iv. Sam wrote the letter to Charley in order to ________.
OR
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
Derry : Not in a fire, I got acid all down that side of my face and it burned it all away. It ate my face up. It ate me up.
And now its like this and it won't ever be any different.
Mr. Lamb : No

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 Derry : Aren't you interested?
Mr. Lamb : You're a boy who came into the garden. Plenty do. I'm interested in anybody. Anything. There's nothing
God made that doesn't interest me. Look over there... over beside the far wall. What can you see?
i. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract.
Derry refers to acid eating him up because ________.
ii. Derry tells Mr. Lamb, Aren't you interested?
What are the things that interest Mr. Lamb as per the extract?
iii. Select the option that best describes Derry and Mr. Lamb in the extract.
a. Derry : bitter ; Mr. Lamb : positive
b. Derry : friendly ; Mr. Lamb : talkative
c. Derry : scared ; Mr. Lamb : authoritative
d. Derry : mature ; Mr. Lamb : calm
iv. Which of the following is an apt title for the extract?
a. Acid and Fire

y
b. Boy who came to the garden

m
c. God and his Presence
d. Different Interests
9.
de
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
Then all effort ceased. I relaxed. Even my legs felt limp; and a blackness swept over my brain. It wiped out fear;
[6]
ca
it wiped out terror. There was no more panic. It was quiet and peaceful. Nothing to be afraid of. This is nice... to
be drowsy... to go to sleep... no need to jump... too tired to jump... it’s nice to be carried gently... to float along in
dA

space... tender arms around me... tender arms like Mother’s... now I must go to sleep...
I crossed to oblivion, and the curtain of life fell.
i. With reference to the given extract, according to the narrator death was:
vin

a. Brutal
b. Peaceful
c. Merciless
d. Frightening
Ar

ii. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) The author stopped making efforts to save himself.
(2) The author was very anxious in water.
a. (1) Can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.
b. (1) cannot be inferred from the extract but (2) can.
c. (1) is true but (2) is false.
d. (2) is the reason for (1).
iii. Rewrite the sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with its inference.
At one moment the author thought that the curtain of (his) life fell.
iv. List the author's purpose of using ellipses (…) in this extract.
v. Select the phrase that matches the given inference appropriately.
Which phrase indicates that the poet lost consciousness?
a. ‘It was quiet and peaceful.’

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 b. ‘I crossed to oblivion.’
c. ‘Tender arms like Mother’s.’
d. ‘It wiped out fear.’
vi. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
He was not afraid of drowning anymore because ________.
OR
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
Presently, the landlords learned that Germany had developed synthetic indigo. They thereupon, obtained agreements
from the sharecroppers to pay them compensation for being released from the 15 per cent arrangement.
The sharecropping arrangement was irksome to the peasants, and many signed willingly. Those who resisted,
engaged lawyers; the landlords hired thugs. Meanwhile, the information about synthetic indigo reached the illiterate
peasants who had signed, and they wanted their money back.
i. Who came to know that Germany had developed synthetic indigo?
a. The peasants

y
b. The British officials

m
c. The landlords
d. Gandhiji

de
ii. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
The landlords obtain the agreements from the sharecroppers to ________.
ca
iii. What happened when the information about synthetic indigo reach the uneducated peasants?
a. They wanted partnership
dA

b. They wanted compensation

c. They wanted their land back
d. They wanted their money back
vin

iv. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) The British landlords found a cheaper alternative to German indigo.
(2) Chemical indigo was being prepared in Germany.
Ar

a. (1) Can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

b. (1) cannot be inferred from the extract but (2) can.
c. (1) is true but (2) is false.
d. (2) is the reason for (1).
v. Replace the underlined word with its antonym from the extract.
The sharecropping system was very helpful.
vi. Those who resisted engaged lawyers; the landlords hired thugs - Give one word for thugs that is implied in
the given context.
10. Answer any five of the following questions in 40-50 words each: [10]
(a) How did the peddler show his gratitude to Edla? [2]
(b) How was the poet's mother affected by her daughter's departure? Answer in reference to the poem My [2]
Mother at Sixty-Six.
(c) Why are the poor people angry with the city men when they ask for gas? Answer in reference to the [2]
poem A Roadside Stand.

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 (d) Why did Sophie lie to her brother about Danny Casey? [2]
(e) Who was Subbu's enemy?(Poets and Pancakes) [2]
(f) What do you understand by the expression Thumbprints on his windpipes? [2]
11. Answer any two of the following questions in 40-50 words each: [4]
(a) Take care of the small things and the big things will take care of themselves. What is the [2]
relevance of this statement in the context of the Antarctic environment?
(b) In what condition did Dr. Sadao find the American soldier at the seashore? [2]
(c) What are the indications for the future of humankind? (Journey to the End of the Earth) [2]
12. 'The cry of not having money to do anything except carry on the business of making bangles, not even enough to [5]
eat, rings in every home.' (The Lost Spring)
'...far from the city we make our roadside stand and ask for some city money to feel in hand'. (A Roadside Stand)
Create a conversation between a bangle maker and the owner of a roadside stand with reference to the above
extracts.
You may begin the conversation like this: Owner of a roadside stand: Your bangles are pretty. Tell me about your

y
experience in this business.

m
OR
Your English teacher has divided the classroom into two groups and wants them to have a constructive debate based

de
on their understanding of their lessons. She writes on the board:
The world has enough for everyone's need, but not enough for everyone's greed - M.K. Gandhi
ca
Pen down your arguments referring to the lesson Indigo and Neruda’s poem Keeping Quiet.
You may begin this way:
The purpose of life should be Greater Goodness which demands us to cut across our personal interests and have a
dA

wider version of the Global Family…

13. The boy drank the milk of an English cow, was brought up by an [5]
English nanny, tutored in English ...... (The Tiger King)
vin

You realise that western influence on Indian culture is deep rooted since the days of Tiger King.
Write an article using material from the text, on the pros and cons of western influence on Indian society.
You may begin like this ......
Ar

Indian’s exposure to English language and western influence ......

OR
It may take a long time for oppression to be resisted, but the seeds of rebellion are sowed early in life.
As Bama’s brother, express your concern about the impact of prejudices like discrimination and oppression on the
children’s minds in a diary entry.
You may begin like this:
Injustice in any form cannot escape being noticed even by children…

10 / 10
 Arvind Academy

ENGLISH SP 1
Class 12 - English Core
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

2. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. This question paper contains three sections - Section A : Reading Skills, Section B : Creative Writing Skills and

y
Section C : Literature.

m
4. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number and part

thereof in your answer sheet.

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5. Separate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
6. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
ca
SECTION A – READING SKILLS
1. Read the passage given below: [12]
dA

1. When we think of the game of cricket, we come to the conclusion that it is primarily a game that depends
on outstanding physical activities, good hand-eye coordination, speed, skill and strength. It provides
entertainment and generates strong feelings of excitement. A good match of cricket or of any other game
vin

neither adds to the existing stock of human knowledge nor reveals any secret of existence. It does not carry
any deep meaning but most people, particularly the lover of sports attach deep emotions and numerous
meanings to it. Games are thought of as a metaphor for life. They are supposed to teach many lessons. In
Ar

fact, more is said and written about a cricket match than about scientific findings or great philosophy.
2. This is because games, like morality play, in which settings and rules are made by us, can easily make
people test their fair and foul conduct, principles of reward and punishment, and emotions of joy and
disappointment. They can make us experience the thrill of war without exposing us to its dangers. A man
watching a cricket match on T.V. and munching popcorn is like a surrogate warrior. In fact, games provide
us with a safe outlet for our aggressiveness. If games become aggressive, they lose the very purpose of
providing entertainment and purging us of our aggressiveness. They can calm our impatience without
creating any conflict.
3. Commentators, journalists, politicians and analysts can do a great favour to the competing teams by keeping
the excitement within limits. The teams should play without being dominated by feelings of national honour
and shame. The excellent performance of the players of both teams should be enjoyed and appreciated.
Winning or losing in a game should not be taken seriously. A game is fun if it is played with a true spirit of
sportsmanship.
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

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 i. Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate option: (1)
Most people conclude that cricket is primarily a game because ________.
a. it is played as a match
b. it requires two teams
c. it includes physical activity
d. it depends only on skill and strength
ii. Comment on the writer’s reference to that cricket does not reveal any secret of existence. (1)
iii. List two responses to which watching a game of cricket gives rise to. (2)
iv. Select the option that conveys the opposite of destroy from words used in the passage. (1)
a. reveals
b. experience
c. generate
d. purging
v. The writer would not agree with the given statements based on paragraph 2, EXCEPT (1)

y
a. Rules of any game are made by people.

m
b. Watching a cricket match makes the viewer believe that he is fighting a battle.
c. It is necessary for a game to be aggressive in order to build excitement.

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d. A game can test people’s sense of fair judgment.
vi. With reference to the passage, a spectator is compared to a surrogate warrior. (1)
ca
Choose the option that best describes this phrase:
a. a spectator who is paid to watch.
dA

b. a spectator who is in pain while watching the match.

c. a spectator who enjoys the match as an armchair soldier.
d. a spectator who makes judgments about reward and punishment.
vin

vii. Why does the writer compare games to a morality play? (1)
viii. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference with respect to the following: (1)
The writer says that games can calm our impatience without creating any conflict by ________.
Ar

ix. Why does the writer advise the players that games should not become aggressive? (1)
x. What are some reasons people attach deep emotions and meanings to the game of cricket, despite it lacking
deep philosophical or scientific significance? (2)
2. Read the following passage carefully: [10]
1. Without specialised equipment, humans would be lost in these deep-sea habitats, so how do fish make it
seem so easy? Much of this is due to a biological phenomenon known as electroreception - the ability to
perceive and act upon electrical stimuli as part of the overall senses. This ability is only found in aquatic
and amphibious species because water is an efficient conductor of electricity.
2. One fascinating use of electroreception has been observed between the weakly electric fish. When two such
electric fish meet in the ocean using the same frequency, each fish will then shift the frequency of its
discharge so that they are transmitting on different frequencies. Doing so prevents their electroreception
faculties from becoming jammed.
3. Electroreception can also play an important role in animal defences. Rays are one such example. Young ray
embryos develop inside egg cases that are attached to the sea bed. The embryos keep their tails in constant

2 / 10
 motion to pump water and allow them to breathe through the egg's casing. If the embryo's electroreceptors
detect the presence of a predatory fish in the vicinity, however, the embryo stops moving (and in doing so,
ceases transmitting electric currents) until the predator has moved on.
4. Many people fear swimming in the ocean because of sharks. Sharks hunt with extraordinary precision. They
initially lock on to their prey through a keen sense of smell. As the shark reaches in proximity of its prey, it
tunes into electrical signals that ensure a precise strike on its target; this sense is so strong that the shark
even attacks blind by letting its eyes recede for protection. In areas where shark attacks on humans are
likely to occur, scientists are exploring ways to create artificial electroreceptors. These would disorient the
sharks and repel them from swimming beaches.
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage:
i. Infer the advantage that aquatic or amphibious species have over human beings. Answer in about 40 words.
(2)
ii. A possible use for electroreception that will benefit humans is to: (1)
A. use water as it is an efficient conductor of electricity.

y
B. act on electrical stimuli.

m
C. change electrical frequency to prevent it from being jammed.
D. jam electrical frequencies.

de
iii. Explain in about 40 words the use of electroreception between the weakly electric fish. (2)
iv. Identify a young ray embryo from the following: (1)
ca
A. It fears electric signals.
B. It keeps its tail in constant motion.
dA

C. It stations itself on land.

D. It disorients sharks.
v. Complete the sentence appropriately. (1)
A shark hunts with accuracy because ________.
vin

vi. Why does a shark recede its eyes when it attacks? (1)
vii. In areas where shark attacks on humans are likely to occur, scientists: (1)
A. suggest putting barriers.
Ar

B. are exploring ways to create artificial electroreceptors.

C. suggest blinding them.
D. are exploring ways to warn swimmers.
viii. State True or False. (1)
The title - Understanding Electroreception and its Uses is Significant for Human Beings' is appropriate for
this passage.
SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS
3. You are Bala/Bandhini, school counsellor of Bala Vidyagram School, Dharti Bagh. Your school is organising a [4]
Career Counselling Fair. Write a notice encouraging students to attend the fair. Mention the benefits and include
necessary details.
OR
Water supply will be suspended for eight hours (10 am to 6 pm) on 6th of March for cleaning of the water tank. Write
a notice in about 50 words advising the residents to store water for a day. You are Karan Kumar/Karuna Bajaj,

3 / 10
 Secretary, Janata Group Housing Society, Palam Vihar, Kurnool.
4. You were invited by your friend Shahid to the marriage of his sister, but due to some unavoidable circumstances, [4]
you cannot leave station. Write an informal letter of reply in 50 words expressing your inability to attend the
function. You are Hamid/Henna of Aliganj, Nashik. Mention day, date, time and venue.
OR
You are Prof. R.K. Chadha, eminent environmentalist. You have been invited to chair a panel discussion on ‘Solar
Power - The Alternate Lifestyle’. Write a formal letter accepting the invitation in about 50 words. Mention day, date,
time and venue.
5. You are Ashutosh/Ashita Sarin, residing at 28, H-Block, Ashok Vihar, Delhi. You love Delhi and its beautiful [5]
architecture. Recently you visited the Red Fort and were disturbed to see the poor maintenance of the monument
by the authorities concerned as well as by the careless and negligent attitude of the visitors who spoil the
buildings by writing names, messages on the walls, domes, etc. Write a letter to the Editor, The Statesman,
expressing concern over this state and the need for awakening a sense of pride and love for such monuments
among the common people.

m y
de
ca
OR
dA

JB Academy, Ayodhya urgently requires a post-graduate teacher to teach Political Science for which they placed an
advertisement in 'The Bhilai Express'. You are Sanjay/Sanjana Sharma from 21, Vasant Marg, Bhilai. Draft a letter
including a CV, applying for the advertised post (120-150 words)
vin
Ar

6. A spurt of violence previously unknown in Indian schools makes it incumbent on the educationists to introduce [5]
value education effectively in schools. Write an article in 150-200 words expressing your views on the need of
value education. You are Anu/Arun.
OR
Your school, Kanpur Secondary School, Kanpur celebrated ‘No Tobacco Day’ on 4th September. Write a report in
100-125 words on the activities performed for your school newsletter. You are Shobita/Sameer, Cultural Secretary of
your school. Invent the necessary details.
SECTION C - LITERATURE
7. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [6]
Aunt Jennifer's fingers fluttering through her wool
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.

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The massive weight of wedding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer's hand.
(Aunt Jennifer's Tigers)
i. Which of the following themes is best represented in the given extract? (1)
A. The maturity of adulthood
B. The glory of feminity
C. Victim of male domination
D. The superficial beauty
ii. State whether the following statement is True or False, with reference to the extract. (1)
Aunt Jennifer is nervous and traumatized because of the constraints of her marriage.
iii. Complete the following sentence appropriately: (1)
The fingers fluttering through her wool symbolize ________.
iv. The use of the words massive weight creates a powerful image of ________. (1)
v. Based on the rhyme scheme in lines 3 and 4, which word would rhyme with band and hand? (1)

y
A. stand

m
B. wind
C. bent
D. tent
vi. The heavy wedding ring is a source of: (1)
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ca
A. joy
B. freedom
dA

C. dignity
D. burden
OR
vin

Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the earth,
Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth
Ar

Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,

Of all the unhealthy and o'er darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes, in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.
i. In which of the following options can the underlined words be replaced with despondence?
a. The man paced about the room showing restlessness.
b. A chat with a close friend can take away our blues.
c. I was in jitters, seeing the boy trapped in the trench.
d. Being dogged is what led him to negotiate the challenges.
ii. Pick the option that is NOT an example of unhealthy and o'er darkened ways.
a. A person who is egoistic and looks down upon others.
b. A person who seeks God's help for all his problems.

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 c. A person who uses evil ways to deceive others.
d. A person who is corrupt and manipulative.
iii. What is the message conveyed through the poem A Thing of Beauty?
a. Nature is the best healer
b. We should keep our surroundings clean and green
c. Dark and gloomy shades of life
d. We should love animals around us
iv. Answer in one word:
The poet says that we wreath a flowery band that binds us to Earth.
He means to state that nature's beauty fills man with a spirit of ________.
v. State whether the given statement is True or False with reference to the extract.
The poem suggests that beauty cannot alleviate the darkness in our spirits.
vi. What is the ultimate effect of beauty on our spirits as mentioned in the extract?
8. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow: [4]

y
I got to wishing that you were right. Then I got to believe you were right. And, Charley, it’s true; I found the

m
third level! I’ve been here two weeks, and right now, down the street at the Daly’s, someone is playing the piano,
and they’re all out on the front porch singing ‘Seeing Nelly Home.’

de
(i) What did the narrator initially wish for in the passage?
(a) That Charley was unhappy
ca
(b) That Charley was right
(c) To play the piano
dA

(d) To go back home

(ii) How long has the narrator been at the third level?
(a) One week
(b) Two days
vin

(c) Two weeks

(d) A month
(iii) The narrator mentions that someone is playing the piano at the __________.
Ar

(iv) What song is being sung on the front porch according to the narrator?
OR
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
DERRY: I hate it here.
MOTHER: You can’t help the things you say. I forgive you. It’s bound to make you feel bad things….and say them.
I don’t blame you.
DERRY: It’s got nothing to do with my face and what I look like. I don’t care about that and it isn’t important. It’s
what I think and feel and what I want to see and find out and hear. And I’m going back there. Only to help him with
the crab apples. Only to look at things and listen. But I’m going.
MOTHER: You’ll stop here.
DERRY: Oh no, oh no. Because if I don’t go back there, I’ll never go anywhere in this world again.
And I want the world....I want it....I want it....
i. What does Derry not care about now? What was Mr. Lamb’s contribution to this change?
ii. Which of the following characteristics of Derry’s mother reflects in this extract?

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 a. She is very understanding
b. She treats him with a sense of pity
c. She treats her son with a sense of dignity
d. She contributes to her son’s isolation
a. a and c
b. c and d
c. b and c
d. b and d
iii. Which of the following is the correct reason for Derry’s mother stopping him to stay with Mr. Lamb?
a. She feared that Mr. Lamb would scold him
b. Because Mr. Lamb was not well and she didn’t want Derry to bother him
c. She thought Mr. Lamb would influence her son negatively
d. She was overprotective and didn’t want him to stay with a stranger
a. Option (a)

y
b. Option (b)

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c. Option (c)
d. Option (d)

9.
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iv. And I want the world, to which world Derry wanted to go and why
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: [6]
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The next I remember I was lying on my stomach beside the pool, vomiting. The chap that threw me in was
saying, "But I was only fooling." Someone said, "The kid nearly died. Be all right now. Let's carry him to the
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locker room."
Several hours later, I walked home. I was weak and trembling. I shook and cried when I lay on my bed. I
couldn't eat that night. For days a haunting fear was in my heart. The slightest exertion upset me, making me
wobbly in the knees and sick to my stomach.
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I never went back to the pool. I feared water. I avoided it whenever I could.
i. With reference to the extract, Douglas was vomiting because
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a. he had got severe food poisoning.

b. he had just been rescued from nearly drowning in the pool.
c. he was frightened when he saw the big man.
d. he had gone for a swim on an empty stomach.
ii. Rewrite the sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with its inference.
For days a haunting fear was in my heart.
iii. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below:
I. The boy did not know how to swim.
II. The boy took a long time to recover from his fear.
a. I can be inferred from the extract but II cannot.
b. I cannot be inferred from the extract but II can.
c. I is true but II is false.
d. Both I and II are true.

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 iv. Identify the textual clue that allows the reader to infer that the chap threw the boy into the pool just for fun
(clue : a phrase)
v. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation as per the extract.
The slightest exertion upset the boy because ________.
vi. Replace the underlined word with its synonym from the extract.
The boy felt unsteady in the knees.
OR
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
Gandhi never contented himself with large political or economic solutions. He saw the cultural and social
backwardness in the Champaran villages and wanted to do something about it immediately.
He appealed for teachers. Mahadev Desai and Narhari Parikh, two young men who had just joined Gandhi as
disciples, and their wives, volunteered for the work. Several more came from Bombay, Poona and other distant parts
of the land. Devadas, Gandhi’s youngest son, arrived from the ashram and so did Mrs. Gandhi. Primary schools were
opened in six villages. Kasturbai taught the ashram rules on personal cleanliness and community sanitation.

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i. Which of the following never pleased Gandhiji?

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a. Large political or economic solutions
b. The British orders
c. The landlords' agreements
d. The peasants\ aggression
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ii. Identify the textual clue that allows the reader to infer that the people agreed to help Gandhiji. (Clue: a phrase)
iii. Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy:
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Appealed: Requested :: ________ : Satisfied

iv. What did Kasturbai teach in primary schools?
i. Basics of Sanskrit and Spiritual knowledge
ii. Basics of English Language
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iii. Community sanitation

iv. Ashram rules on cleanliness
a. (i) and (ii)
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b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (iii) and (iv)
d. (i) and (iv)
v. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) Gandhiji sought to remove the cultural and social backwardness of the village.
(2) Gandhiji's typical method dealt with the observation of the English people's behaviour.
a. (1) Can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.
b. (1) cannot be inferred from the extract but (2) can.
c. (1) is true but (2) is false.
d. (2) is the reason for (1).
vi. Complete the sentence with an appropriate information, as per the extract.
Followers of Gandhiji like ________ and ________ joined with their wives to teach the villagers.
10. Answer any five of the following questions in 40-50 words each: [10]

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 (a) Why did the iron master compare Edla to a parson? [2]
(b) Why has the mother been compared to the late winter’s moon? (My Mother at Sixty-Six) [2]
(c) State the reasons for which the cars from the city halt at the roadside stand. [2]
(d) Sophie flits from one dream to another. What trait of her character is brought out by this action? [2]
(e) Why was the office boy frustrated? Who did he show his anger on? [2]
(f) What according to Umberto Eco is the belief that most journalists and publishers have? (The [2]
Interview)
11. Answer any two of the following questions in 40-50 words each: [4]
(a) How can you say Students on Ice Programme was a step towards the future? (Journey to the End of [2]
the Earth)
(b) Why did Dr Sadao treat the American soldier even though, it was an unpatriotic act on his part? [2]
(c) Why did Geoff Green include young students in his programme? [2]
12. Imagine Saheb-e-Alam from Lost Spring as a young man who gets a job in Mumbai, the city of dreams. He [5]
works as an office boy in Gemini Studio (Poets and Pancakes) and is perplexed to find the way things are done

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there. His friend, Ahmed is influenced by him, and he too wants to go to Mumbai and work there.

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As Saheb, write a letter to Ahmed in 120-150 words discussing your personal experience at Gemini and telling
him how strange you find it to see the different ways in which people work together despite having a dislike for

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each other. Also, discuss how the reel life differed from real life.
OR
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Neruda in Keeping Quiet writes, we work endlessly so that we can achieve everything quickly because we are
continuously threatening ourselves with death. While the lesson Deep Water, deals with the subject of conquering
fear.
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You are Pablo Neruda. Write a letter to Douglas and appreciate him for his attempts to get over the fear.
You may begin this way:
Dear William
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I recently read your autobiographical book “Of Men and Mountains” and...
You may end this way:
People fear death in vain as it is destined for one and all. They fail to identify the real fear. I hope your story will
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inspire people who are rushing against the timeline.

Warmly,
Pablo Neruda
13. In the story, The Tiger King the protagonist is obsessed with finding the hundredth tiger and goes on mindless [5]
tiger hunting.
In an attempt to lash out at the king for his obsession as an overall harmful one, as a resident of Pratibandapuram
express your thoughts in a diary entry.
Support your response with reference to the story.
You may begin this way:
The king has now doubled the land tax this week. We are under a constant state of terror fearing what crazy step
would he take now…
OR
Sights of various things were so entertaining for little Bama that it prevented her from going further.
A grown-up Bama recounts her stroll in the marketplace on her way back home from school.
As a grown-up Bama, create a diary entry, describing the sights she enjoyed.

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You may begin like this:
I still cherish the stroll from school to home that I enjoyed during my childhood…

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 Arvind Academy

ENGLISH SP 3
Class 12 - English Core
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

2. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.

3. This question paper contains three sections - Section A : Reading Skills, Section B : Creative Writing Skills and

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Section C : Literature.

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4. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number and part

thereof in your answer sheet.

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5. Separate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
6. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
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SECTION A – READING SKILLS
1. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [12]
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1. As a young adult, life can be stressful and overwhelming at times. Juggling among school, work, social life,
and other responsibilities, it can be easy to feel alone and disconnected from the world around us. Dogs are
the ultimate companions for anyone looking to alleviate stress and loneliness. We'll explore many reasons
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why dogs make the best companions for young adults.

2. Unconditional love: Dogs are known for their loyalty and love for their owners, no matter what. They don't
judge us, criticize us, or hold grudges against us. No matter how flawed or imperfect we may be, our dogs
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will always love us unconditionally. This kind of unwavering support and affection can be incredibly
comforting for young adults struggling to find their place in the world.
3. Social connection: Dogs are great ice-breakers and conversation starters. Whether you're walking them in
the park, taking them to the dog beach, or simply hanging out at home, dogs have a way of bringing people
together. For young adults who may feel isolated or disconnected from their peers, having a dog by their
side can be a great way to connect with others and form new friendships.
4. Increase physical activity: Dogs require regular exercise in order to stay healthy and happy. This means that
young adults who own dogs are more likely to engage in physical activity themselves. Whether its going for
a run, playing frisbee, or simply taking a leisurely stroll, getting out with your dog can be a great way to
boost your mood and energy levels.
5. Emotional support : Dogs are also great emotional support animals for those struggling with mental health
issues such as anxiety and depression. Their presence alone can provide a sense of calm and comfort, and
their ability to sense their owner's emotions can be incredibly comforting. For young adults dealing with
mental health challenges, having a dog as a companion can be a life-changing experience.

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 6. Improve responsibility and self-care : Owning a dog also comes with a great deal of responsibility and self-
care. Dogs require regular feeding, grooming, exercise, and attention, which can be a great way for young
adults to develop a sense of responsibility and self-discipline. Additionally, having a dog as a companion
can encourage young adults to take better care of themselves, such as making sure they get enough sleep,
eat healthy, and engage in regular exercise.
7. For all these reasons and more, dogs make fantastic companions for young adults. Whether you're looking
for emotional support, social connection, increased physical activity , or simply someone to love and be
loved by, a dog can provide all these things and more. So the next time you're feeling stressed or
overwhelmed, consider finding a furry friend to take on the world with you.
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage:
i. What is the significance of owning a dog for a young adult who is striving for acceptance in society? (1)
A. It means increased physical activity.
B. It builds a sense of responsibility.
C. It helps young adults get more sleep.

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D. It is a source of unconditional love.

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ii. A dog can encourage its owner to lead a healthier life by ________.
Complete the above sentence appropriately, with a characteristic or description. (1)

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iii. Share evidence from the text, in approximately 40 words, to support the view that dogs provide a sense of
calm and comfort to those struggling with mental health issues. (2)
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iv. Explain in about 40 words the statement that dogs are great ice-breakers. (2)
v. Which of the following activities help(s) young adults, owning a dog, build their sense of responsibility and
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self-discipline? (1)
A. walking the dog daily
B. feeding it regularly
C. engaging the services of a dog trainer
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D. Both (A) and (B)

vi. What does this article aim to do? (1)
A. Explain the benefits of owning a dog.
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B. Provide advice on how to get a dog.

C. Discuss how to take proper care of a dog.
D. Describe the experiences of dog owners.
vii. Select the option that is similar in meaning to the phrase take on the world. (1)
A. travel the world
B. accept a responsibility
C. to be pessimistic
D. have a global outlook
viii. What does the underlined part in the sentence consider finding a furry friend to take on the world with
you refer to? (1)
ix. What is the tone of the article? (1)
A. critical but supportive
B. indifferent and bored

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 C. positive and informative
D. humorous and casual
x. How do dogs exemplify unconditional love for their owners? (1)
2. Read the following passage carefully : [10]
1. Manav Singh had been farming his land for the past 20 years . His father had also been farming in the same
land. But now he is unable to irrigate the agricultural land as the ground water level has gone down and the
monsoon rains are also irregular. He has an option to connect the canal irrigation that the Government has
initiated but is finding it difficult to implement the process. He knows that farmers world wide will need to
increase crop production, either by increasing the amount of agricultural land to grow crops or by
enhancing productivity on existing agricultural lands to meet the global demand.
2. However, the ecological and social trade -off of clearing more land for agriculture are often high,
particularly in the tropics. And right now, crop yields the amount of crops harvested per unit of land
cultivated are growing too slowly to meet the predicted demand for food. Even if some regions increase
their output and traders reduce the mismatch between supply and demand, doubling food production by

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2050 will undeniably be a major challenge.

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3. Thus the last resort for farmers, Manav Singh thinks would be to grow more on the land they currently
operate through what is called “sustainable intensification”. This means using precision farming tools, such

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as GPS fertiliser dispenser, advanced irrigation systems, and environmentally optimized crop rotations.
These methods can help produce more crop, especially in parts of Africa, Latin America and Eastern
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Europe with large yield gaps. They can also reduce the negative environmental impacts from over stressing
resources -preventing groundwater depletion and the destruction of fertile lands through over-use of
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fertiliser.
4. Net irrigated area (%) of India has increased from nearly 18 to 48% in recent times due to government
interventions at various levels (Fig. 1). Although the government has given much emphasis on improving
canal system in various five year plans but it has declined over years (Fig. 1). People have identified
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groundwater irrigation as much reliable and independent source of irrigation. Groundwater irrigation has
taken quantum jump since 1965.
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5. Fig. 1. Percent net irrigated to net sown area and per cent canal irrigated & per cent groundwater irrigated to
net irrigated area (Source: based on data from DES, 2017-18); NIA %: Net Irrigated area to net sown area,
GW %: Groundwater share in net irrigated area, SW %: Surface water share in net irrigated area October-
December 2019]
6. In order to attract more investments in agriculture, the risks need to be reduced by governments. Regulators
need to overhaul policies that is affecting the inclusion of small, rural farmers into the financial system.
More supportive policies, laws and public spending on infrastructure would help create a favourable
investment climate for agriculture.
Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

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 i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1? (1)
Manav Singh is aware that in order to meet the demand for food on a global scale, farmers must reduce crop
production either by reducing the amount of land used for farming or by decreasing the productivity of the
land already used for farming.
Select from the following:
True - if the statement agrees with the information
False - if the statement contradicts the information
Not Given - if there is no information on this
ii. Do you think using precision farming tools and methods can intensify the negative environmental effects of
overstressing resources? Support your answer with reference to the text. (2)
iii. Which of the following is /are true according to the passage? (1)
i. Paragraph 2 only highlights how food demand can easily be met in the near future.
ii. Rising food demand is likely to affect developed countries more severely than developing countries.
iii. Increasing land under agriculture can impact the ecology negatively.

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A. Only i & ii

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B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. Both i & iii
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iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement. (1)
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Recent years have seen an increase in India's net irrigated area from about 18% to 48%. This improvement
is a result of _____________________
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v. The graph indicates that the irrigation of agricultural land in India using a canal system has _______ (1)
A. Increased through the years
B. Decreased through the years
C. Equal all these years
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D. None of the above

vi. Doubling food production by 2050 will undeniably be a major challenge. What last option do farmers have
according to Manav Singh? (2)
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vii. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. (1)
Governments must reduce risks in order to __________ more agricultural investments.
A. discourage
B. attract
C. repulse
D. buy
viii. Complete the sentence appropriately with one/ two words. (1)
Doubling food production by 2050 will undoubtedly be a difficult task, even if some regions increase their
output and traders reduce the gap between ____________.
SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS
3. You are the President, Literary Society of Hans Public School, Railpura. Draft a formal invite to the renowned [4]
author Ms. Savita Patil, requesting her to conduct a workshop on Creative Writing in your school. Invent
necessary details. You are Anita/Amit.
OR

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 You are Smitha / Sunil, Secretary AVM Housing Society. You are going to organise a Yoga Camp. Write a notice in
not more than 50 words urging the members of your society to come in large numbers to attend the camp. Invent all
the necessary details.
4. You are a renowned doctor and have been invited by your school alumni as Chief Guest to the Annual [4]

Graduation Ceremony of Green School on Sunday, March 24th, 2024. Write a letter to the President of the
Alumni Association expressing your inability to attend due to a prior commitment. Also convey your
congratulations to the graduating students.
OR
You have received an invite on the wedding of your friend, Akshat. As Radhika/Rakesh, write a letter expressing
your extreme happiness at the news and explaining your inability to attend the function. Convey your best wishes for
the future to the couple.
5. After passing the secondary school examination, a candidate has to make a very difficult choice from a number [5]
of streams available to him at the senior school level for further studies. There is not a valid mechanism to assess
the suitability of a candidate for a particular stream. Write a letter to the Editor of a national daily emphasising

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the need for educational counsellors for guidance in this matter in each school. You are Vinita/Vinay, 48, Agra

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Fort, Agra.

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OR
Draft an application for the post of accountant in Pioneers (Pvt.) Ltd. Co., Qatar, in response to their advertisement
that appeared in The Times of India dated 1st April, 2022. Prepare a biodata to be enclosed. Your are Nipun/Aparna.

6. Midday meal scheme in the schools introduced by the government serves several purposes. Millions of children [5]
from the deprived sections of society get nutritious food leading to good health, are attracted to the schools, kept
from going astray and developed into good citizens. The scheme may have some drawbacks too. Write an article
in 150-200 words on all aspects of the scheme. You are Navtej/Navita.

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 OR
A local tour is organised in your school recently. Write a report in 120-150 words based upon your experience, for the
school magazine of your school. You are Namit/Namita of Class XI-A.
SECTION C - LITERATURE
7. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: [6]
Aunt Jennifer's finger fluttering through her wool
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.
The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer s hand.
i. How would you describe Aunt Jennifer based on the above extract?
a. oppressed
b. malnourished
c. aging
d. diseased

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ii. Highlight the connotation of the image ‘massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band’.

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iii. Which of the following is an example of an alliteration?
a. Finger fluttering through the wool
b. Upon Aunt Jennifer's hand
c. Ivory needle hard to pull
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d. Massive weight of Uncle's wedding band
iv. Which object in the given extract reflects a contrasting image?
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v. Fill the blank with an appropriate word, with reference to the extract.
Martial subjugation is symbolised by ________.
vi. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to (1) and (2) given below.
(1) Aunt Jennifer is a victim of a matriarchal society.
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(2) She pursues her hobby in her free time but probably, she is still afraid of her husband.
a. (1) is true but (2) is false.
b. (2) is true but (1) is false.
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c. (2) is the reason for (1).

d. Both (1) and (2) cannot be inferred from the extract.
OR
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness; but will keep
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep
Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing. (A Thing of Beauty)
i. Which of the following themes is best represented in the given extract? (1)
A. Beauty provides security and peace.
B. Beauty lies in possession of expensive things.
C. Beauty is synonymous with power and riches.

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 D. Beauty lies in our rich heritage and palaces and temples.
ii. Complete the following sentence appropriately. (1)
A thing of beauty never passes into nothingness because it is ________.
iii. Quiet bower means a pleasant, shady, quiet place under trees or in the woods. This creates a sense of ________.
(1)
iv. State whether the given statement is True or False with reference to the extract. (1)
The quality of a thing ensures that its beauty lasts forever.
v. Based on the rhyme scheme in lines 3 and 4 of the given extract, which word will rhyme with them? (1)
A. please
B. sweep
C. help
D. self
vi. The use of the word health in the extract suggests that beautiful things will give us a happier and more
wholesome life. It creates a powerful image of ________. (1)

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A. rejuvenation

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B. attachment
C. long life

8.
D. eternity
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Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
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Anyway, here's what happened at Grand Central. One night last summer I worked late at the office. I was in a
hurry to get uptown to my apartment so I decided to take the subway from Grand Central because it's faster than
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the bus.
Now, I don't know why this should have happened to me. I'm just an ordinary guy named Charley, thirty-one
years old, and I was wearing a tan gabardine suit and a straw hat with a fancy band; I passed a dozen men who
looked just like me. (The Third Level)
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i. List any two details about how Charley was dressed up. (1)
ii. Charley decided to use the subway because it was: (1)
A. quicker.
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B. cheaper.
C. more fashionable.
D. safer.
iii. Complete the following sentence appropriately. (1)
Landing at the third level was due to Charley's flight of ________.
iv. Which time frame is represented through the kind of outfit mentioned in the extract? (1)
A. pre world war era
B. the present times
C. the eighteenth century
D. in the future
OR
Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

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 DERRY: I hate it here.
MOTHER: You can’t help the things you say. I forgive you. It’s bound to make you feel bad things….and say them.
I don’t blame you.
DERRY: It’s got nothing to do with my face and what I look like. I don’t care about that and it isn’t important. It’s
what I think and feel and what I want to see and find out and hear. And I’m going back there. Only to help him with
the crab apples. Only to look at things and listen. But I’m going.
MOTHER: You’ll stop here.
DERRY: Oh no, oh no. Because if I don’t go back there, I’ll never go anywhere in this world again.
And I want the world....I want it....I want it....
i. What does Derry not care about now? What was Mr. Lamb’s contribution to this change?
ii. Which of the following characteristics of Derry’s mother reflects in this extract?
a. She is very understanding
b. She treats him with a sense of pity
c. She treats her son with a sense of dignity

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d. She contributes to her son’s isolation

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a. a and c
b. c and d
c. b and c
d. b and d
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iii. Which of the following is the correct reason for Derry’s mother stopping him to stay with Mr. Lamb?
a. She feared that Mr. Lamb would scold him
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b. Because Mr. Lamb was not well and she didn’t want Derry to bother him
c. She thought Mr. Lamb would influence her son negatively
d. She was overprotective and didn’t want him to stay with a stranger
a. Option (a)
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b. Option (b)
c. Option (c)
d. Option (d)
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iv. And I want the world, to which world Derry wanted to go and why?
9. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [6]
My introduction to the Y.M.C.A. swimming pool revived unpleasant memories and stirred childish fears. But in
a little while I gathered confidence. I paddled with my new water wings, watching the other boys and trying to
learn by aping them. I did this two or three times on different days. (Deep Water)
i. Identify the phrase from the given extract that bears evidence to the fact that the narrator's association with
childish fears was not a recent one. (1)
ii. How does the writer try to learn it? Mention any two ways. (1)
iii. What did the Y.M.C.A. pool bring back to Douglas? (1)
A. Unpleasant memories
B. Memory of a boat
C. Meeting a bruiser of a boy
D. Memory of his visit to the Yakima River

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 iv. The two emotions of Douglas mentioned in the given extract are ________ and ________. (1)
v. Why did Douglas ape the other boys? (1)
vi. The writing style of the extract is autobiographical because ________. (1)
OR
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
They thought he would demand repayment in full of the money which they had illegally and deceitfully extorted
from the sharecroppers. He asked only 50 per cent. “There he seemed adamant,” writes Reverend J. Z. Hodge, a
British missionary in Champaran who observed the entire episode at close range. “Thinking probably that he would
not give way, the representative of the planters offered to refund to the extent of 25 per cent, and to his amazement
Mr. Gandhi took him at his word, thus breaking the deadlock.” This settlement was adopted unanimously by the
commission.
i. Gandhi knew that he would not get an agreement on the demand for 50% repayment because
a. he had anticipated the negotiating tactics of the planter's representative.
b. he had been informed about the depleting funds of the planters.

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c. he had taken the advice of the Reverend on board.

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d. he had evaluated the commission's attitude towards Indians.
ii. Given below are four real-life situations. Choose the option that perfectly describes a deadlock.

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Situation 1 Tariq is unable to manage the front-end and the backend forums at his company without any support.
Situation 2 Sunita cannot get a job because she has no experience and she can't have any experience because she
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has no job.
Situation 3 The bank employees started protesting against their receding annual salary and other incentives.
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Situation 4 Harpreet was stuck between deciding whether to go to the USA or the UK for higher studies.
a. Situation 1
b. Situation 2
c. Situation 3
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d. Situation 4
iii. Rewrite the sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with its inference.
The money which they had illegally and deceitfully extorted from the sharecroppers.
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iv. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
The deadlock ended with Gandhiji ________.
v. Based on the above extract, choose the statement that is TRUE about the repayment of the peasants' money.
a. The moneylenders had thought that Gandhi would ask for the full payment.
b. But Gandhiji asked for only eighty percent of the amount.
c. The planters offered to pay only 75 percent.
d. For Gandhiji peasants bowing down was more important than money.
vi. Replace the underlined word with its antonym from the extract.
The commission arrived at a discordant decision.
10. Answer any five of the following questions in 40-50 words each: [10]
(a) Pick out two instances from the story 'The Rattrap' to show that the peddler realized that he himself [2]
had been trapped.
(b) Why has the poet mentioned merry children spilling out of their homes in the poem? (My Mother at [2]

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 Sixty-six)
(c) Who does this pitiful kin refer to? Why will they be mercifully gathered in? [2]
(d) What inference can you draw about Sophie's relationship with her father from the story Going [2]
Places?
(e) Why is the Englishman’s visit referred to as unexplained mystery? Answer in reference to the chapter [2]
Poets and Pancakes.
(f) Why did Umberto Eco start writing novels and when? [2]
11. Answer any two of the following questions in 40-50 words each: [4]
(a) What are oft-repeated questions about the environment raised in our time? What is their significance? [2]
(b) How did Hana help Dr Sadao? (The Enemy) [2]
(c) How is Antarctica a crucial element in the debate on climate change? (Journey to the End of the [2]
Earth)
12. The different portrayals of grit in the character of Rajkumar Shukla (Indigo), William Douglas (Deep Waters), [5]
and Mukesh (Lost Spring) emerge due to their circumstances that render them strong.

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You have been asked to address your peers and share-

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the ways these portrayals highlight firm grit and determination.
the importance of understanding each individual man's challenges and experiences which impel them to take
steps that eventually build their characters.
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Compose this draft, with reference to the prescribed texts listed above.
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You may begin this way:
Good morning, everyone.
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As I analysed the allotted texts...

You may end this way.
To conclude, I’d like to say that ...
OR
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In the age of the web world, our existence is now judged by how active we are on social networking sites.
Create a conversation between two friends (Rashmi and Rehaan) having different perspectives and trying to establish
a relationship between Neruda’s reference to total inactivity and Kamala Das’s reference to her mother’s face like
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that of a corpse.
Support your response with reference poems Keeping Quiet and My Mother at Sixty Six.
You may begin the conversation like this:
Rashmi: How can one compare a mother’s face to a corpse? And do you really think Rehaan, that in today’s world of
Instagram story updates one can ever be in a state of total inactivity as urged by Neruda in his poem Keeping Quiet?
13. In the story, ‘The Tiger Kingl’ by Kalki, King Jung Bahadur is obsessed with finding the hundredth tiger. [5]
In an attempt to save his job and himself from the king's ire, the dewan helps the king to find the hundredth tiger.
As the Dewan's wife, write a diary entry accounting for how your husband manages to arrange the hundredth
tiger for the Maharaja.
You may begin this way:
One day my husband, the dewan, came home convinced that if the Maharaja did not find the tiger soon, the
results could be catastrophic...
OR
In the story, Memories of Childhood two autobiographical accounts are presented based on two distant cultures. But

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there runs a commonality of theme in both of them.
As a reader, express your observation of this commonality in a diary entry commenting on the culture of oppression
that it brings forth.
You may begin this way:
The Memories of Childhood presents autobiographical accounts of two women from socially marginalized sections
in two distant cultures of the world…

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dA
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