21-07-2024

9610ZMD801236240005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A man is raising himself and the crate on which he stands with an acceleration of 5 m/s2 by a
massless rope-and-pulley arrangement. Mass of the man is 100 kg and that of the crate is 50kg. If g
= 10 m/s2, then the tension in the rope is :-

(1) 2250 N
(2) 1125 N
(3) 750 N
(4) 375 N

2) In figure, tension in the string that connects the masses A and B is T1 and that in the string

connecting B and C is T2, then T1/T2 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 0.5
(3) 4
(4) 0.25

3) A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly turns westward with the same speed to avoid
an opponent. The force that acts on the player is :-

(1) frictional force along westward

(2) muscle force along southward
(3) frictional force along south-west
(4) muscle force along south-west
4) A rod of length 1m and mass 0.5 kg hinged at one end, is initially hanging vertical. The other end
is now raised slowly until it makes an angle 60º with the vertical. The required work is :(use g = 10
m/s2)

(1)
J

(2)
J

(3)
J

(4)
J

5) One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man of mass M initially at rest on the
ground starts climbing the rope hand over hand upto a height ℓ. From the time he starts at rest on
the ground to the time he is hanging at rest at a height ℓ, how much work was done on the man by

the rope?

(1) 0
(2) Mgℓ
(3) – Mgℓ
(4) It depends on how fast the man goes up

6) A body of mass 10 kg is released from a tower of height 20 m and body acquires a velocity of 10
ms–1 after falling through the distance 20 m. The work done by the push of the air on the body is:-
(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1500 J
(2) 1800 J
(3) –1500 J
(4) –1800 J

7) If K.E. of body is increased by 100%. Then % change in 'P' is -

(1) 50%
(2) 41.4%
(3) 10%
(4) 20%

8) A body of mass m is projected with speed u at an angle θ from the ground. If horizontal range of
the body is R, then work done by force of gravity on the body for its complete motion is :-
(1) mg R
(2) –mg R
(3) zero

(4)
mu2 sin2θ

9) For power to be constant, the force has to vary with speed as :

(1)
F∝

(2)
F∝
(3) F ∝ v
(4) F ∝ v2

10) The variation of force acting on a particle along the x-axis is shown in the figure. Find the work

done by force during displacement x = 0 to x = 25 m.

(1) 100 J
(2) 115 J
(3) 95 J
(4) 80 J

11) A force of N acts on a body for 4 seconds and produces a displacement of

m. The power used is :

(1) 9.5 W
(2) 7.5 W
(3) 6.5 W
(4) 4.5 W

12) A box is pushed horizontally with 100 N across a 5 m floor. If the frictional force between the
box and floor is 40 N, then the kinetic energy gained by the box is :-

(1) 200 J
(2) 240 J
(3) 250 J
(4) 300 J

13) If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4m/s, at what height does its kinetic energy reduce
to half of the initial value ? (Take g = 10 m s–2)

(1) 4m
(2) 2m
(3) 1m
(4) 0.4m

14) A man is standing in a lift which goes up and comes down with the same constant acceleration. If
the ratio of the apparent weights in the two cases is 2 : 1, then the acceleration of the lift is

(1) 3.33 ms–2

(2) 2.50 ms–2
(3) 2.00 ms–2
(4) 1.67 ms–2

15) For the equilibrium of a body on an inclined plane of inclination 45°. The coefficient of static
friction will be :

(1) greater than one

(2) less than one
(3) zero
(4) less than zero

16) A Force of 5N gives a mass m1, an acceleration of 8 m/sec2 and 5N force produce an acceleration
in mass m2 of 24 m/sec2. What acceleration would it give if both the masses tied together :-

(1) 4 m/sec2
(2) 6 m/sec2
(3) 8 m/sec2
(4) 12 m/sec2

17) When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually
perpendicular then the particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is now removed then the
acceleration of the particle is :-

(1) F1/m
(2) F2 F3/mF1
(3) (F2 – F3)/m
(4) F2/m

18) The coefficient of static friction between the block and train floor is 0.2. The maximum
acceleration of the train in which the box is lying on its floor will remain stationary is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

19) If block is sliding down on a smooth fixed inclined plane as shown in the figure then net force
acting on the wedge due to block is :-

(1)

(2) mg
(3) mgcosθ
(4) None of these

20) In the arrangement shown in figure, pulley is smooth and massles and all the strings are light let
F1 be the force exerted on the pulley in case (i) and F2 the force in case (ii). Then

(1) F1 > F2
(2) F1 < F2
(3) F1 = F2
(4) F1 =2F2

21) The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :-

(1) 24 Ns
(2) 20 Ns
(3) 12 Ns
(4) 6 Ns

22) Find the acceleration of 2 kg block :-

(1) 100 m/sec2

(2) 10 m/sec2
(3) 20 m/sec2
(4) None

23) Find the value of 'M' in the given figure, if system remains in equilibrium :-

(1) 6 kg
(2) 12 kg
(3) 24 kg
(4) 4 kg

24) Two bodies of mass 4kg and 6kg are attached to the ends of a string passing over a pulley. The 4
kg mass is attached to the table top by another string. The tension in this string T1 is equal to ; Take
g = 10 m/s2 ?

(1) 20 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 10.6 N
(4) 10 N

25) Which of the following is a unit of energy

(1) Unit
(2) Watt
(3) Horse Power
(4) None

26) The area of the acceleration-displacement curve of a body gives

(1) Impulse
(2) Change in momentum per unit mass
(3) Change in KE per unit mass
(4) Total change in energy

27) A particle moves from a point to when a force of is applied. How

much work has been done by the force

(1) 2 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 11 J
(4) 5 J

28) A body of mass 3 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it is given by (in m).
Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 24 J

29) When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 100 J of energy. If it is stretched further by 2 cm,
the stored energy will be increased by

(1) 100 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 300 J
(4) 400 J

30) The potential energy of a body is given by, (Where x is the displacement). The
magnitude of force acting on the particle is

(1) Constant
(2) Proportional to x
(3) Proportional to x2
(4) Inversely proportional to x
31) A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a

distance d. The net work done in the process is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body slides down the track from
point A which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the

loop is

(1) 5 cm

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 cm

33) A man does a given amount of work in 10 sec. Another man does the same amount of work in 20
sec. The ratio of the output power of first man to the second man is

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/1
(4) None of these

34) From an automatic gun a man fires 360 bullet per minute with a speed of 360 km/hour. If each
weighs 20 g, the power of the gun is

(1) 600W
(2) 300W
(3) 150W
(4) 75W

35) Assertion : A spring has potential energy, both when it is compressed or stretched.
Reason : In compressing or stretching, work is done on the spring against the restoring force.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

SECTION-B

1) A trolley of mass 8 kg is standing on a frictionless surface inside which an object of mass 2 kg is

suspended. A constant force F starts acting on the trolley as a result of which the string stood at an

angle of 37° from the vertical. Then choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) acceleration of the trolley is 7.5 m/sec2.

(2) force applied in 60 N
(3) force applied is 75 N
(4) tension in the string is 25 N

2) Water jet whose cross – sectional diameter is cm/s hits a vertical wall horizontally and then
does not rebound. If speed of water jet is 2 m/s then find the force applied by jet on the wall.

(1) 4 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 0.5 N

3) In the arrangement shown in figure coefficient of friction between 5kg block and incline plane is µ

= 0.5. Friction force acting on the 5kg block is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 15 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 5N

4) A mass M is lowered down with the help of a string by a distance h at a constant acceleration g/2.
The work done by the string will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A man displaces a block by 5 m on a rough surface (µ = 1/2) by applying a force 50 N acting at

37° to the horizontal. The work done by the applied force is :-

(1) 200 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 150 J
(4) 50 J

6) A man of mass 50 kg is standing in an elevator. If elevator is moving up with an acceleration

then work done by normal reaction of elevator floor on man when elevator moves by a distance 12
m is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 2000 J
(2) 4000 J
(3) 6000 J
(4) 8000 J

7) A deliveryman moves 10 cartons from the sidewalk, along a 10 meter ramp to a loading dock,
which is 1.5 meters above the sidewalk. If each carton has a mass of 25 kg, what is the total work
done by the deliveryman on the cartons to move them to the loading dock ?

(1) 2500 J
(2) 3750 J
(3) 10000 J
(4) 25000 J

8) In the track shown in figure section AB is a quadrant of a circle of 1 metre radius in vertical
plane. A block is released at A and slides without friction until it reaches at B. After B it moves on a
rough horizontal floor and comes to rest at D, 3 metres from B. The coefficient of friction between
floor and the body will be :

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 1/4
(4) 3/8

9) A force of 5 N, making an angle with the horizontal, acting on an object displaces it by 0.4m
along the horizontal direction. If the object gains kinetic energy of 1J, the horizontal component of
the force is :-

(1) 1.5 N
(2) 2.5 N
(3) 3.5 N
(4) 4.5 N

0
10) A particle moves on a rough horizontal surface with some initial velocity v . If of its K.E. is
lost against friction in time t0 then co-efficient of friction between the particle and the surface is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In the given diagram find normal reaction between 9 kg & 6 kg ?

(1) 27 N
(2) 18 N
(3) 36 N
(4) 45 N

12) A rocket of mass 1000 kg is ejecting gases with respect to rocket at a speed of 500 m/s. What
should be the rate of fuel consumption so that acceleration of rocket will be 5 m/s2 ?

(1) 50 kg/s
(2) 100 kg/s
(3) 10 kg/s
(4) 30 kg/s

13) A motor of power p0 is used to deliver water at a certain rate through a given horizontal pipe. To
increase the rate of flow of water through the same pipe n times, the power of the motor is increased
to p1. The ratio of p1 to p0 is

(1) n : 1
(2) n2 : 1
(3) n3 : 1
(4) n4 : 1

14) A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of 600 r.p.m. Assuming 40% efficiency the work
done by the motor in one rotation will be

(1) 7.46 J
(2) 7400 J
(3) 7.46 ergs
(4) 74.6 J

15) Assertion : Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane is positive.
Reason : Work done is greater than zero, if angle between force and displacement is acute or
both are in same direction.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Incorrect statement for the given configuration :- [Xe]4f75d16s2

(1) It placed in d-block, IIIB group, 6th period

(2) It is a natural element
(3) It have maximum unpaired e– in lanthanide
(4) It is Gd

2) Which orbital fills completely immediately before the 4f

(1) 6s
(2) 5p
(3) 5d
(4) 4d

3) An element has the electronic configuration of ns2 np5 to which group this element belong ?

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Alkaline earth metals
(3) Chalcogens
(4) Halogens

4) If ionisation energy of an element is as follows :

X → X+ + 1e– ; 1E1 = x kJ/mol
X+ → X2+ + 1e– ; 1E2 = 1.5 x kJ/mol
X2+ → X3+ + 1e– ; IE3 = 15x kJ/mol
This element may have the electronic configuration :-

(1) ns1
(2) ns2
(3) ns2 np4
(4) ns2 np3

5) In which of the following pairs both the species have nearly same size :-

(1) Li+, Mg2+

(2) Mo, W
(3) Co, Ni
(4) All of these

6) Which cation has highest I.P. :-

(1) Na+
(2) Mg+2
(3) Ca+2
(4) Al+3

7) Which of the following oxide is neutral :-

(1) CO
(2) SnO2
(3) SiO2
(4) Na2O

8)

Column-I Column-II
(Type of elements) (Outer electronic confi.)
 Inert gas
(A) (P) ns1–2np0–5
elements

Representative
(B) (Q) 1s2 and ns2 np6
elements

(C) d-Block element (R) (n–2)f1–14 (n–1)d0–1 ns2

Inner transition
(D) (S) (n–1)d1–10ns0–2
elements
Correct match is :-
(1) (A) → (P); (B) → (Q); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(2) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (R); (D) → (S)
(3) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (S); (D) → (R)
(4) (A) → (Q); (B) → (S); (C) → (Q); (D) → (R)

9) The longest group of the periodic table is : –

(1) I A
(2) II A
(3) VI B
(4) III B

10) In the following alkali metal group Elements, Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs
The incorrect option regarding Li → Cs is :-

Metallic Character
(1)

(2) Atomic size

(3) Ionisation Energy ↓
(4) Zeff regularly

11) Ionic radii of F–, O–2 and N–3 are respectively :-

(1) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36

(2) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71
(3) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

12) Which order is correct :-

(1) N⊝ < O < N < O⊕ I.P. order

(2) F < Cl < Cl < F
⊝ ⊝
I.P. order
(3) E.A. order
(4) All are correct

13) The third line of Balmer series in the emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom is due to the
transition from the :
(1) Fourth bohr orbit to the first bohr orbit
(2) Fifth bohr orbit to the second bohr orbit
(3) Sixth bohr orbit to the third bohr orbit
(4) Seventh bohr orbit to the third bohr orbit

14) An isotone of 32Ge76 is:-

(i) 32Ge77 (ii) 33As77
(iii) 34Se77 (iv) 34Se78

(1) (ii) & (iii)

(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) & (iii) & (iv)

15) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the 19th electron in chromium ? (Z
= 24 for Cr)

(1)
4, 0, 0, +
4, 1, –1, –
(2)

(3)
3, 2, 2,
3, 2, –2,
(4)

16) The total value of m for the electrons in n = 3 is:-

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 16
(4) 32

17) The ratio of minimum wavelengths of Lyman and Balmer series will be:-

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 5
(4) 10

18) What is the separation energy for Be+3 in the first excited state?

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 54.4 eV

19) 14 g nitrogen reacts with 6 g of hydrogen the amount of ammonia formed will be :-

(1) 34 g
(2) 17 g
(3) 1.7 g
(4) 3.4 g

20) To prepare 0.1 M KMnO4 solution in 250 mL flask, the mass of KMnO4 required is :-
(Mw of KMnO4 = 158 g)

(1) 4.80 g
(2) 3.95 g
(3) 39.5 g
(4) 0.48 g

21) Empirical formula of CH3COOH :-

(1) C3H6
(2) C2H4O2
(3) CH2O
(4) CHO

22) The vapour of a compound A2B is 40 times denser than H2 gas and the atomic mass of B is 40
amu then atomic mass of A is :-

(1) 20 amu
(2) 10 amu
(3) 40 amu
(4) 50 amu

23) 4g NaOH is mixed with 396g water to prepare a solution, then determine mole fraction of NaOH
:-

(1)

(2) 221
(3) 0.1
(4) 22

24) Which of the following is correct :-

(1) 1 g atom = 1 mole of atoms

(2) 1 mole of gas = 22.4 litre of a gas at STP
(3) 1 g molecule = 1 mole of molecules
(4) All of these

25) Which of the following is hypovalent species ?

(1) AlF3
(2) SiCl4
(3) AlCl3
(4) SF4

26) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) PH3 is more basic than NH3

(2) PH3 is less basic than NH3
(3) PH3 is equally basic as NH3
(4) PH3 is amphoteric while NH3 is basic

27) Which of the following overlap gives a σ-bond along x-axis as internuclear axis ?

(1) pz and pz
(2) s and pz
(3) s and py

(4)

28)

Which is the following pairs of species have identical shapes ?

(1)
(2) PCl5 and BrF5
(3) XeF4 and
(4) TeCl4 and XeO4

29) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Most ionic compounds have cations from metallic elements and anion from non-
metallic elements.
Statement-II : The ammonium ion NH4+ (made up off two non-metallic elements) is not an
exception.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.
30) In terms of polar character, which of the following order is correct ?

(1) NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S

(2) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF
(3) H2O > NH3 < H2S < HF
(4) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S

31) Statement-1 : N2 and NO+ both are diamagnetic substances.

Statement-2: NO+ is isoelectronic with N2.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

32) Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120º. The percentage of p character in the hybrid
orbital is nearly:-

(1) 25%
(2) 33%
(3) 50%
(4) 66%

33) The boiling points at atmospheric pressure of HF, H2S, NH3 can be arranged in the following
order.

(1) HF > NH3 > H2S

(2) HF > H2S > NH3
(3) NH3 > HF > H2S
(4) HF < NH3 < H2S

34) On heating which of the following releases CO2 most easily ?

(1) BeCO3
(2) BaCO3
(3) K2CO3
(4) Na2CO3

35) Which of the following has lowest Bond energy :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) F—F

SECTION-B

1) Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?

(1) H+
(2) Li+
(3) Na+
(4) Mg2+

2) Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B:
Column-A Column-B
(i) Na2O (a) Neutral
(ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic
(iii) N2O (c) Acidic
(iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric
Which of the following options has all correct pairs?

(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)

(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

3) Statement I :
Acid strength increases in the order given as
HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II :
As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr
and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

4) Which of the following electronic configuration does not belongs to same block as others :-

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2

(2) [Kr] 4d10 5s2
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6 7s1
(4) [Ar] 3d6 4s2

5) What would be the nature of bond formed between two atoms A and B, if the electronegativity is
1.2 and 3.0 respectively ?
(1) Metallic
(2) Covalent
(3) Ionic
(4) Coordinate

6) Evaluate the following ratio for the energy of the electron in a particular orbit :

[Kinetic : Potential] and [Total : Kinetic]

(1) [1 : –2] and [–1 : 1]

(2) [1 : 2] and [1 : 1]

(3) [1 : 1] and [1 : 2]

(4) [1 : 2] and [1 : 2]
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h =

6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 4.42 × 10–15

(2) 4.42 × 10–18
(3) 6.67 × 1015
(4) 6.67 × 1011

8) If avogadro number (NA) is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would
change :-

(1) the mass of one mole of carbon

(2) the ratio of chemical species to each other of a balanced equation
(3) the ratio of elements to each other in compound
(4) the definition of mass in units of gram

9) A glass contains 100 mL water, find number of water molecules present in it :-

(1) 100 NA
(2) 100
(3) 55.5 NA
(4) 5.5 NA

10) 0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at NTP is :-
2CHI3 + 6Ag → C2H2(g) + 6Ag I(s)

(1) 224 mL
(2) 112 mL
(3) 336 mL
(4) None of these

11) The lattice energies of KF, KCl, KBr, and KI follow the order:

(1) KF > KCl > KBr > KI

(2) KI > KBr > KCl > KF
(3) KF > KCl > KI > KBr
(4) KI > KBr > KF > KCl

12) BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is
because:

(1) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom

(2) N ––F bond is more polar than B––F bond
(3) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(4) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not

13) The bond angle of and are in the order :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) In which of the following transformations, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behavior has changed ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Statement-1 : The covalency of carbon is four in excited state.

Statement-2: The four half-filled pure orbitals of carbon form same kind of bond with an atom as
those are with hybridized orbitals.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

BIOLOGY-I
 SECTION-A

1)

Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :-

(1) Prokaryotes
(2) Thallophyta
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Spermatophyta

2) The four sketches (A,B,C and D) given below represent four different types of organism. Which
one of these is correctly identified in the options given along with its correct stored food and shape

of chloroplast :-

Stored Shape of
Organism
food chloroplast
Ribbon
(1) D Chlamydomonas Starch
shaped
Cup
(2) C Fucus Algin
shaped
Floridean Plate
(3) B Porphyra
starch like
(4) A Chara Starch Discoid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Select incorrect statement?

(1) Truffle is an example of fungi.

According to five kingdom system of R.H. Whittaker, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed
(2)
in Kingdom protista.
(3) In Pinus stems is branched.
(4) In Pinus, both male cone and female cone are developed on different trees.

4) Gemmae are present in:

(1) Mosses
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Some Gymnosperms
(4) Some Liverworts

5) In a plant, the body is differentiated into root, stem and leaf, embryo is formed, vascular tissues
are present and haploid endosperm is formed. What is a very important character that this plant is a
member of gymnosperm ?

(1) Meroblastic type development of embryo

(2) Formation of pollen tube for fertilization
(3) Ovules are naked
(4) Pollination by wind

6) Identify the following diagram (A, B, C & D) and select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Laminaria Funaria Salvinia

(2) Dictyota Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Fucus Chara Salvinia

(4) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Assertion : Plant form different bodies - haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte.
Reason : In plants both haploid and diploid cell can be divided by mitosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) Assertion :- Bryophyta are amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) The marine forms that form massive plant bodies are:-

(1) Fungi
(2) Kelps
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Slime moulds

10) Which of the following algae contain chlorophyll 'C' :-

(1) Kelps, Diatoms, Dinoflagellates

(2) Brown algae, Euglenoids, Diatoms
(3) Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, BGA
(4) Green Algae, Red algae, Euglenoids

11) Anisogamy is :-

(1) Fusion of two gametes similar in size.

(2) Fusion of large static female and small motile male gamete.
(3) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size.
(4) None of the above

12) Chara and papaya are respectively :

(1) Monoecious, Monoecious

(2) Monoecious, Dioecious
(3) Dioecious, Dioecious
(4) Dioecious, Monoecious

13) Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
mosses?

(1) Members of kingdom plantae

(2) Mode of Nutrition
(3) Multiplication by fragmentation
(4) Diplontic life cycle

14) Ferns are grouped under :-

(1) Algae
(2) Fungi
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Pteridophyta

15) Choose the incorrect statement from followings :-

(1) The sporophyte of liverwort is more elaborate than that in moss.

(2) In Selaginella female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte for variable period.
(3) Marchantia is a Bryophyte.
(4) In gymnosperm, gametophyte do not have an independent free-living existence

16) Which is dominant phase in Bryophytes :-

(1) Green, diploid, thalloid gametophyte

(2) Green, haploid, differentiated sporophyte
(3) Green, haploid, thalloid gametophyte
(4) Green, diploid, thalloid sporophyte

17) In the five kingdom classification, Ulothrix and Spirogyra are included in :-

(1) Plantae
(2) Algae
(3) Protista
(4) Monera

18) In gymnosperms. the mycorrhizal association are found in :-

(1) Cycas
(2) Pinus
(3) Cedrus
(4) All of these

19) First terrestrial plants with vascullar tissues are :

(1) Thallophytes
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

20) (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plant.

(ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.
(iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched.
(iv) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many statement/s is/are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

21) The fusion product of polar nuclei is :

(1) Primary Endosperm nucleus

(2) Secondary nucleus
(3) Zygote
(4) Nucellus

22) Embryo sac of angiosperm is :

(1) 7-celled & 7-nucleated

(2) 7-celled & 8-nucleated
(3) 8-celled & 8-nucleated
(4) 8- celled & 7-nucleated

23) In bryophytes first cell of sporophytic generation is _________.

(1) Capsule
(2) Foot
(3) Embryo
(4) Zygote

24) Select incorrect statement for bryophytes-

(1) They have little economic importance and little ecological importance.
(2) Main plant body is gametophyte & independent.
(3) Sporophytic generation completely or partially depends upon gametophytic generation.
(4) They have jacketed sex organs.

25) Select correct statement with respect to rhodophyceae.

(1) Majority of the red algae are found in freshwater.

(2) They are present mainly in colder area.
(3) They are present only at great depths in oceans.
(4) Floridean starch is very similar to glycogen and amylopectin in structure.

26) Find out correct sequence pattern of sexual reproduction in higher fungi.

(1) Meiosis → Plasmogamy → Karyogamy

(2) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis
(3) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Meiosis
(4) Karyogamy → Meiosis → Plasmogamy
27) Chlorella are placed according to Whittaker classification, in :

(1) Pyrophyta
(2) Protozoans
(3) Protista
(4) Both in Protista and algae

28) Correctly identify the figures given below: (a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (a)-Paramoecium, (b)-Slime mould, (c)-Euglena, (d)-Dinoflagellate

(2) (a)-Dinoflagellate, (b)-Euglena, (c)-Slime mould, (d)-Paramoecium
(3) (a)-Sime mould, (b)-Euglena, (c)-Dinoflagellate, (d)-Paramoecium
(4) (a)-Euglena, (b)-Paramoecium, (c)-Slime Mould, (d)-Dinoflagellate

29) Which of the following kingdom includes multicellular eukaryotes & unicellular prokaryotes
respectively ?

(1) Monera & Protista

(2) Monera & Fungi
(3) Plantae & Protista
(4) Plantae & Monera

30) Kingdom Protista has brought together Chlamydomonas, Chlorella with Paramoecium and
Amoeba as they all –

(1) Are heterotrophic

(2) Have cell wall
(3) Lack cell wall
(4) Are unicellular and eukaryotic

31) Five kingdom classification given by

(1) A.P. de. Candolle
(2) R.H. Whittaker
(3) Carolus Linnaeus
(4) Aristotle

32) Two kingdom classification system used for a long time was inadequate, so a need was felt for
including besides gross morphology, other characteristics also. What were these characters which
resulted in formation of five kingdom classification system
(a) Cell structure
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Reproduction
(d) Evolutionary relationships
Option:

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (a), (c) & (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

33) From the following how many statements are correct ?

(A) Hundreds of bacteria are present in a handful of soil.
(B) On the basis of shape bacteria are categorised in four groups.
(C) Bacteria as a group show most extensive metabolic diversity.
(D) Bacteria which synthesize their food from inorganic substrates are autotrophs.
Option :-

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

34) Given figure is of a filamentous blue-green algae. Identify the algae and choose the option that is
correct for A, B and C in the figure.

(1) A-Gelidium, B-Vegetative cell, C-Heterocyst

(2) A-Volvox, B-Somatic cell, C-Mucilaginous sheath
(3) A-Chara, B-Mucilaginous sheath, C-Heterocyst
(4) A-Nostoc, B-Heterocyst, C-Mucilaginous sheath

35) Find the incorrect match -

(1) Monera - Xanthomonas, Nostoc

(2) Protista - Chlorella, Chlamydomonas
(3) Fungi - Mucor, Rhizopus
(4) Animalia - Amoeba, Paramoecium

SECTION-B

1) Match column I and II and select correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Green algae (i) Laminarin

(b) Red algae (ii) Starch

(c) Brown algae (iii) Floridean starch

(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii),(c) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii),(c) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii),(c) - (i)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i),(c) - (iii)

2) Select incorrect statement with respect to given diagram :

(1) Gametophyte - n
(2) Rhizoids - 2n
(3) Capsule - 2n
(4) Leaves - n

3) Well developed vascular tissues are present in :-

(1) Bryophyta and pteridophyta

(2) Pteridophyta, gymnosperm and angiosperm
(3) Only pteridophyta
(4) Only spermatophyta

4) Double fertilization occurs in -

(1) female gametophyte of gymnosperms

(2) male gametophyte of gymnosperms
(3) female gametophyte of angiosperms
(4) all gametophytes

5) The reserve food of red algae is.................which is very similar to.........and...........in structure :-

(1) Starch, cellulose, chitin

(2) Protein, amide, amino acids
(3) Lipid, steroids, fatty acids
(4) Floridean starch, amylopectin, glycogen

6) Read the following statements w.r.t. brown algae :-

(I) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous
(II) The gametes are always without flagella
(III) Gracilaria belong to brown algae
(IV) Common forms are Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and Fucus
(V) The gametes are pyriform (pear-shaped) and bear two laterally attached flagella
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Five

7) Choose the correct match.

(1) Fucus - Anisogamy.

(2) Porphyra and Laminaria - Used as food.
First stage of moss gametophyte develops from the lateral bud of protonema which
(3)
bears spirally arranged leaves.
(4) Gelidium - It is a green algae.

8) Sexual reproduction by non-motile gametes occurs only in :-

(1) Red algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Green algae
(4) Blue green algae

9) Plant group in which archegonia are absent -

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm

10)

Which of the following life cycle is correctly matched with organisms ?

(1) Diplontic Algae

(2) Diplontic Gymnosperm

(3) Haplontic Kelp

(4) Haplodiplontic Angiosperm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium is found in

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

12) Cyanobacteria are also referred to as-

(1) Red algae

(2) Green algae
(3) Brown algae
(4) Blue green algae

13)

Match the column and choose wrongly matched.

Column I Column II

(1) Slime moulds Saprophytic

(2) Euglenoids Marine water

(3) Diatoms Photosynthetic

(4) Desmids Golden algae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Select the correct statement for plasmodium which is form in slime moulds.

(1) Form under unsuitable condition.

(2) It spreads over several feet.
(3) It is an aggregation under suitable condition.
(4) Both (2) and (3).

15) The mode of nutrition of fungi is -

(1) Parasitic
(2) Saprophytic
(3) Holozoic
(4) Both (1) and (2)

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A
1) Silica embedded in the structure of ?

(1) Cell wall of diatoms

(2) Cell membrane of euglenoid
(3) Cell wall euglenoid
(4) Cell membrane of diatoms

2) Being photosynthetic, which organism in absence of sunlight behave like heterotrophs?

(1) Slime moulds

(2) Euglenoids
(3) Sporozoans
(4) Ciliated protozoans

3) The body of fungi may be -

(1) Cellular
(2) Mycelial
(3) Non-mycelial
(4) All are correct

4) Archaebacteria found in marshy areas are:

(1) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Halophiles
(3) Methanogens
(4) Blue green algae

5) Which of the following are responsible for evolution of oxygenic life on earth -

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Archaebacteria
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Actinomycetes

6) Taxonomy of fungi is mainly based on :-

(1) Sexual reproduction

(2) Nutrition
(3) Shape of fruiting body
(4) Cell wall

7) In a taxonomic hierarchy, genus is interpolated between :-

(1) Kingdom and class

(2) Phylum and order
(3) Order and species
(4) Family and species

8) Binomial nomenclature was given by :-

(1) C. Linnaeus
(2) Candolle
(3) Aristotle
(4) Bentham and Hooker

9) Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/classification is :-

(1) Species
(2) Kingdom
(3) Family
(4) Variety

10) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a disease caused by prions in :

(1) Cow
(2) Sheep
(3) Potato
(4) Man

11) Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?

(1) They cause disease in plants

(2) They completely lack a cell wall
(3) They are smallest living cells
(4) They are largest living cells

12) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

(Kingdom) (Cell wall) (Body organisation)

1 Monera a Present in some i Tissue/ organ

2 Protista b Chitin ii Loose tissue

3 Fungi c Present (Cellulose) iii Cellular

4 Plantae d Peptidoglycan iv Cellular

(1) 2–a–iii, 1–d–iv, 3–b–ii, 4–c–i
(2) 1–d–iv, 2–b–i, 3–a–ii, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–d–iv, 2–c–ii, 3–a–i, 4–b–iii
(4) 2–b–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–d–ii, 4–c–i
13) How many of the following kingdoms possess members with cell wall?
(A) Kingdom Monera
(B) Kingdom Fungi
(C) Kingdom Plantae
(D) Kingdom Animalia.

(1) Only One

(2) Only two
(3) Only three
(4) All four

14) Trypanosoma is a example of :-

(1) Ciliated protozoans

(2) Flagellated protozoans
(3) Sporozoans
(4) Amoeboid protozoans

15) Kingdom protista includes organisms like :-

(1) Amoeba, Euglena and Diatoms

(2) Amoeba, Euglena and penicillium
(3) Amoeba, Spirogyra and penicillium
(4) Euglena, spirogyra and Albugo

16) A housefly belong to which genus, family and order?

(1) Domestica, Diptera, Muscidae

(2) Muscidae, Diptera, Musca
(3) Muscidae, Diptera, Domestica
(4) Musca, Muscidae and Diptera

17) Who among the following called the extract of infected plant as “contagium vivum fluidum” :-

(1) Ivanowsky
(2) Posteur
(3) Beijerinek
(4) Stanley

18) Choose the incorrect match :-

(A) Phycomycetes – Rhizopus, Mucor
(B) Ascomycetes – Aspergillus, Claviceps
(C) Basidiomycetes – Agaricus, Ustilago
(D) Deuteromycetes – Neurospora, Penicillium

(1) A, B, C
(2) B,C
(3) Only D
(4) A,B,C,D

19) Which of the following is multicellular eukaryote.

(1) Desmids
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Fungi
(4) Slime moulds

20) Which of the following options gives the correct categorisation :-

A B C D

(1) Cocci Spirilla Bacilli Vibrio

(2) Cocci Bacilli Spirilla Vibrio

(3) Cocci Vibrio Spirilla Bacilli

(4) Bacilli Cocci Vibrio Spirilla

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) In the given figure of Euglena identify the structure A and their composition :-

(1) A-Pellicle : Proteinaceous

(2) A-Mucilaginous sheath : Protection from water
(3) A-Pellicle : Silica
(4) A-Mucilaginous sheath : Polysaccharide
22)
This diagram represents which of the following organism?

(1) Slime mould

(2) Euglena
(3) Dividing fungi
(4) Dividing bacterium

23) Find out the incorrect statement regarding kingdom "Fungi" :-

(1) Fungi constitute unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms

(2) Fungi show a great diversity in morphology and habitat.
(3) Most fungi are cosmopolitan
(4) Fungi are filamentous autotrophic organisms.

24) In fungi male sex organ is _______ while female sex organ is _______.

(1) Stamen, Carpel

(2) Nucule, Globule
(3) Antheridium, Oogonium
(4) Archegonium, Antheridium

25) Assertion : Boundaries of kingdom protista are not well defined.

Reason : Kingdom protista includes all single celled eukaryotes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion : Deuteromycetes are commonly known as imperfect fungi.

Reason : Only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known (Sexual reproduction not
known).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Assertion : The cell walls of Diatoms are indestructible.

Reason : In diatoms, cell walls are embedded with silica.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Which of the following statements is correct ?

I – Mycoplasma has no cell wall.
II – Mycoplasma can not survive without O2 .

III – Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals & plants.

IV – They are sensitive to antibiotic like Penicillin.

(1) I, II & IV
(2) II & III
(3) I & III
(4) II, III & IV

29) Membrane bound cell organelles are absent in-

(1) Protista
(2) Fungi
(3) Prokaryotes
(4) Animals

30) Neurospora, has been used as a biological tool in genetics. It belongs to which class of Fungi?

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Ascomycetes

31) The cell wall of fungi are composed of :-

(1) Chitin and cellulose

(2) Cellulose and polysaccharides
(3) Chitin and polysaccharides
(4) Chitin, polysaccharides and Glycogen

32) All of the following are multicellular fungi, except.

(1) Yeast
(2) Penicillium
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Puccinia

33) Which is not a correct matching?

(1) Rhizopus – Bread Mould

(2) Yeast Bread and beer fermentation
(3) Diatoms Diatomaceous earth
(4) Penicillium Parasitic fungi on mustard

34) Diatomaceous earth is used for all except :-

(1) Polishing
(2) Filteration of oils and syrups
(3) Making sound proof rooms
(4) Biogas production

35) The cell wall is composed of two thin overlapping shells which fit together like a soap box in
_______.

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Euglenoids

SECTION-B

1) Earlier classficiation system include bacteria, blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns,
gymnosperms and angiosperms together in 'Plant' because they all have :-

(1) Eukaryotic cells

(2) Nucleus
(3) Cell wall
(4) Photosynthetic ability

2) Bacterial structure and behaviour are respectively :-

(1) Simple, Simple

(2) Complex, Simple
(3) Simple, Complex
(4) Complex, Complex

3) In the names Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum and Panthera leo, the words indica,
tuberosum and leo represent :-

(1) Generic name

(2) Order
(3) Family
(4) Specific epithet

4) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (A, B, C, D)
correctly identified.

A B C D

(1) Head Collar Sheath Tail fibres

(2) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

(3) Tail fibres Sheath Collar Head

(4) Sheath Head Tail fibres Collar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Which is not true for the nucleus of prokaryotes :-

(1) The nucleus is indistinct and called as "nucleoid".

(2) Nuclear membrane is not present in it.
(3) Histone proteins are present in it.
(4) It is also called as incipient nucleus or fibrillar nucleus.

6) Consider the following statements about bacteria:-

I. Cell wall made up of peptidoglycan
II. Lucosin is stored as food
III. Mesosomes help in respiration
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and III

7) Choose the incorrect match from following :-

(1) Diatom - chief producer in ocean
(2) Dinoflagellates - Red tide
(3) Euglenoids - Pigments identical to higher plants
(4) Slime moulds - Diatomite

8) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1. Monera a. Autotrophes i. Chitinous cell wall

2. Protista b. Unicellular Prokaryotes ii. Cellulosic cell wall

3. Mycota c. Heterotrophs iii. Peptidoglycan cell wall

4. Plantae d. Unicellular Eukaryotes iv. Cellulosic cell wall

(1) 2-c-iii, 4-b-ii, 3-d-iv, 1-a-i

(2) 3-a-i, 4-c-iv, 1-b-ii, 2-d-iii
(3) 4-a-i, 3-c-iv, 2-b-ii, 1-d-iii
(4) 1-b-iii, 2-d-ii, 3-c-i, 4-a-iv

9) Lichens are :-

(1) Made up of phycobiont and mycobiont

(2) Found in polluted areas
(3) Placed in kingdom-plantae according the R.H. Whittaker
(4) All of these

10) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Viruses cause diseases and replicate when they are in the host cell.
Reason (R): Viruses do not replicate outside the host, but they survive in environment.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

11) Members of phycomycetes are found in

i. Aquatic habitats
ii. On decaying wood
iii. Moist and damp places
iv. As obligate parasite on plants
Choose from the following options

(1) i and iii

(2) i and iv
(3) ii and iii
(4) All of the above

12) How many of the following statements are correct:-

(A) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually and have flagella or cilia.
(B) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(C) The cell wall of dinoflagellates has stiff silicated plates on outer surface.
(D) Diatoms float passively with water currents
(E) The pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in higher plants.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

13) Which option is related to Basidiomycets ?

(1) Puff ball, Mushroom, Morchella

(2) Neurospora, Rust, Smut
(3) Puff ball, Mushroom, Smut
(4) Pezzia, Mushroom, Rust

14) Identify the following figure :-

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Mucor
(3) Neurospora
(4) Agaricus

15) Statement-I : Fungi are the sole members of monera.

Statement-II : Protista shows most extensive metabolic diversity.

(1) Both statement-I & statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 1 4 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 1 1 4 3 1 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 1 4 2 4 4 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 1 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 4 3 3 1 4 1 1 1 4 1 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 4 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 1 2 4 2 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

If man raise himself and crate forces on it are tension T and normal reaction by crate up ward and
gravitation downward.
Forces on crate are tension T upward and normal reaction by man and gravitation downward.
For combination of system of man and crate
2T upward and total weight downward
So 2T – (100 + 50)g = (100 + 50) (5)
OR 2T = 150 × 15 (g = 10 m/s2)
OR T = 1125 N

2) Acceleration a =

For motion of 'A', T1 – mg = ma ⇒ T1 = mg,

For motion of 'C', mg – T2 = ma ⇒ T2 = mg

Therefore,

3)

In figure, = = initial momentum of player northward.

= = final momentum of player westward.According to triangle law of vectors,

change in momentum
The change in momentum of player is along south west.
As motion is due to frictional force of reaction of the ground, therefore, force that acts on the player
is frictional force along south west.

4)

Wext + Wc = ΔK = 0,

Wext – mg =0
Wext = = (0.5) (10) = J.

5)

WD by string is zero because contact breaks with rope while moving upward.

6) According to work energy theorem

Wgravity + Wair = ΔKE ⇒ mgh + Wair

= mv2 – 0
⇒ 10[10] [20] + Wair = 500

⇒ Work done by air on object

Wair = –1500 J

7)

p∝

as K2 = 2K1
⇒ p2 = 1.41 p1
So momentum will increase by 41.4%

8) Displacement in verticle direction = 0

Work done by force of gravity = 0

9) Power : P = Fv

For power to be constant ;

10)

The area of force-displacement graph gives work.

Work from x = 0 to x = 25 m
W = area (1) + area (2) + area (3) + area (4)

= 10 + 20 + 35 + 50 = 115 J

11)

12)
Δk = 300 J

13)

Initial kinetic energy of the body

=
Let at height h, the kinetic energy reduces to half, i.e., it becomes 4m. It is also equal to potential
energy. Hence,

mgh = 4m or h = = 0.4 m

14)

= ⇒ a = 3.33 m/s2

15)

tan45° =

For equilibrium
(fS < fℓ)

16)

a1 = , a2 = ,a=

= = = 6 m/sec2

17)

For equilibrium of system,

In the absence of force F1, Acceleration =

18)

a = μg = 0.2 × 10 = 2 m/s2

19)

Only normal reaction will acts so net force = mg cosθ

20)
Tension in string directly connected to pulley in both cases are same so force applied on pulley are
same.

21)

Change in momentum,

Δp =
= Area of F-t graph

= ( × 2 × 6) – (3 × 2) + (4 × 3)
= 12 N-s

22)

a= = 10 m/sec2

23)

6g = Mg sin θ (in equilibrium)

θ = 30°

24)

T – 6g = 0 T = 6g

T = 4g + T1
T1 = T – 4g
= 6g – 4g
= 2g = 20

25)

Watt and Horsepower are the unit of power

26)

Area of acceleration-displacement curve gives change in KE per unit mass

27)

and
 28)

Now work done by the force

29)

(given)

30)

31)

Gravitational potential energy of ball gets converted into elastic potential energy of the spring.

Net work done =

32)

Condition for vertical looping

33)

If W is constant then

i.e.

34)
Power of gun

35)

The work done on the spring against the restoring force is stored as potential energy in both
conditions when it is compressed or stretched.

36) ⇒a=
acceleration of trolley a = 7.5 m/s2
Tension in string is T then

T sin 37° = ma ⇒
T = 25 N
Force applied is F = (2 + 8)a
F = 10 × 7.5 = 75 N

37)

Force by water jet on wall

= ρav2

= (103) (2)2
= 1 Newton

38) fmax = μmgcosθ = (0.5) (50) = 20 N

for 5kg block, ⇒ f = 10 N.

39)

T = m (g – a) = m (g – g/2) = mg/2
W = (T) (h) cos 180° = – mgh/2

40)
 Work done by the applied force is

(50 cos 37°) (5) = (5) = 200 J

41)

For the motion of person

N – Mg = Ma

⇒N=
work done by normal reaction
= N × displacement

=
= 8000 J

Hence option (4)

42) Wext = ΔKE + ΔPE

= 0 + mgh
=10(25)(10)(1.5)
= 3750 J

43)

Kinetic energy at B = Potential energy at A

KB = mg(1)

mv2 = mg
v2 = 20
v= m/s
By conservation of energy,

mv2 – µ mgx = 0

(20) – µ(10)(3) = 0

µ=

44)

Let Fx is the horizontal component of the force.

WF = ΔK
(Fx)(X) = ΔK
(Fx)(0.4) = 1

45)

Remaining K.E. is one forth means find velocity will be half

46)

= 2 m/sec2

N – 9 = ma

⇒ N = 9 × 2 + 9 = 27 N

47) – Mg = Ma

500 – 10000 = 1000 × 5

= 30kg/sec.

48)

The rate of flow of water is given as

where a is area of cross-section of the pipe

The power of the motor is given by

So
.

49)
Motor makes 600 revolution per minute

∴ Time required for one revolution = sec

Energy required for one revolution = power × time

But work done = 40% of input

50)

When a body slides down on inclined plane, work done by friction is negative because it opposes the
motion (θ = 180° between force and displacement)
If θ < 90° then W = positive because W = F.s.cosθ

CHEMISTRY

51) It is a f-block elements

52) 6th period

6s 4f 5d 6p

53)

Elements with configuration ns2np5 belongs to the halogen family of group XVII.

54)

A jump in I.P is seen after 2nd I.P so

valence e– = 2
hence configuration would be ns2

55) Li+ ≃ Mg2+ (Diagonal relation)

Co ≃ Ni (3d-series)
Mo ≃ W (Lanthanide contraction)

56) IP ∝ Zeff ⇒ Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3 (I.P.) (for isoelectronic species)

57)

CO is a neutral oxide.

58)

(A) Inert gas → (Q) 1s2 & ns2np6

(B) Representative elements → (P)ns1–2 np0–5
(C) Transition elements → (S) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2
(D) Inner transition elements → (R)(n–2) f1–14
(n–1)d0–1ns2

59)

III B group contains total no. of 32 elements.

60) Zeff

61)

Order of size in F– < O–2 < N–3 (for isoelectronic species, Size ∝ –ve charge)

62)

63)

n2 = n1 + Line number
For balmer series n1 = 2, n2 = 5

64) A – Z must be same (As no. of neutrons are same)

65) 24Cr – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

19th e– enters 4s1
so, n = 4
l=0
m=0

s= or

66) Number of orbital = n2

(for vaule of m)

67) Minimum λ correspond to last line of series

⇒
 68) SE = –13.6

= 13.6 × × 42 = 54.4 eV

69) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

moles = 3 mole ?
= 0.5

1 mole N2 ≡ 2 mole NH3

0.5 mole ≡ 1 mole NH3
= 1 × 17 = 17g

70) M =

0.1 =
n = 0.025 3.95 g

71) E.F. represents simplest whole number ratio of atoms combined.

72) = 2 × V.D = 2 × 40 = 80

2A + B = 80 ⇒ A =

73) xNaOH = =

75)

AlF3 is not hypovalent because it is ionic, Al having 10 electron in Al3+. SiCl4 is not hypovalent
because it is covalent. SF4 is not hypovalent. AlCl3 is hypovalent having 6 electron and it is covalent
compound.

76)

PH3 is less basic than NH3 as localized lone pair on nitrogen in NH3 and delocalised lone pair on
phosphorus in PH3.

77)
 78)

79)

S–I Metals form cation and non-metals form anion and the force between them is electrostatic
force of attraction or Ionic bond.
S–II Cation is generally formed by metal atom so (ammonium ion) is an exception because it is
made up of 2 non-metal atoms.

80)

As electronegativity difference of bond increases, polar character also increases.

ΔEN ∝ Polarity.

81)

N 2 and NO + both are diamagnetic substances as both have zero unpaired electron. NO + is
isoelectronic with N2.

82)

Bond angle = 120°

Hybridisation ⇒ Sp2

So, % p character ⇒

83)

B.P. ∝ Attracting force or Vander Waal force

84) Thermal Stability

order of (ϕ) = Be2+ > Ba2+

85)

Due to L.P. – L.P. repulsion in F2 molecule

86)
 In Be+2 → Total electrons = 2
In Li+ → Total electrons = 2

87)

Na2O → Basic (metal oxide)

Al2O3 → Amphoteric
N2O → Neutral
Cl2O7 → Acidic (non-metal)

88)

89)

1, 2 & 4 all belong to d-block.

90)

If ΔEN is greater them 1.7, the bond will be ionic in nature.

91) KE = ; PE = – ; T.E = –

92) E = =

93) As value of 1 Mole particle is changed. So the mass of 1 mole carbon will also change.

94) = 1gm/ml = w/v ⇒ w = 100 g

n= ; number of molecules = × NA = 5.5 NA

95) 2 mole CHI3 ≡ 1 mole C2H2

0.01 mole CHI3 forms × 0.01 mole C2H2

= 0.005 mole
V = 0.005 × 22.4
= 112 × 10–3 L
 96)

Lattice Energy ∝
Order of lattice energy
KF > KCl > KBr > KI

97)

98)

When hybridization of central atom and surrounding atom are same but number of lone pairs are
different, bond angle decreases with increase in number of lone pair.

99)

100)
Covalency of carbon is four in excited state.
The four half-filled pure orbitals of carbon do not form same kind of bonds with an atom as those are
with hybridized orbitals.

BIOLOGY-I

102)

XI NCERT Page No. 31

107)

NCERT Pg. # 40

108) NCERT XI Pg. # 35

109) NCERT XI Pg. # 30

111)

NCERT, Pg. # 30

112)

NCERT Page No. # 32

115)

NCERT XI. # 38,39

120)

NCERT XI Page No.# 38

126) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 17

127)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 12

128) NCERT Page No. 15

129)

NCERT XI Pg. # 11

131) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 11

132) NCERT Page no. 11

 133)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 12,13

134) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 13

135) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 12

146) NCERT Page no. 17

147)

NCERT Pg. # 13

148) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 15

149)

NCERT - Pg. # 16

150) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

152) NCERT Page no. 15

153) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16

154)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 13

155) NCERT - Pg. # 13

156) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 17

157) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 08

158) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 4

159) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 6

 160) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 21

161) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

162)

NCERT XI Pg. # 11

163)

Ncert Page 11.

164) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16

165) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14, 15, 16

166) NCERT Pg. # 08

168) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 18

169) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 11

170)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 12

172) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

173)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16

175)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

176)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 18

177)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

178) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

180) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 18

 181) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16

182) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16,17,18

183) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 16, 17

184)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

185)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

186) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 10

187) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 12

188) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 4, 5

189)

NCERT Pg. # 20, Fig-2.6(b)

190) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 12

191) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 12, 90, 91

192)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 14, 15

193) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 11

194) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 21

196) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 17

197) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14, 15

Statements A, B, D and E are correct.

198)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 18

 199) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 17

200)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 12, 14