Revision Notes CM1
Revision Notes CM1
Subject CM1
Revision Notes
For the 2019 exams
Covering
CONTENTS
Contents Page
Copyright agreement
Legal action will be taken if these terms are infringed. In addition, we may
seek to take disciplinary action through the profession or through your
employer.
These conditions remain in force after you have finished using the course.
These chapter numbers refer to the 2019 edition of the ActEd course notes.
The numbering of the syllabus items is the same as that used by the Institute
and Faculty of Actuaries.
1. Describe why and how models are used including, in general terms,
the use of models for pricing, reserving and capital modelling.
4. Describe the characteristics of, and explain the use of, scenario-
based and proxy models.
OVERVIEW
This booklet covers Syllabus objectives 1.1.1 to 1.1.4 and 1.2.1 to 1.2.7,
which relate to data analysis and the principles of actuarial modelling.
Breakdown of topics
The first chapter provides a brief introduction to data analysis, including the
various forms in which data can arise, the ways that it can be manipulated
and processed, and the steps that should be taken to collect and analyse
data. It also introduces the concept of a reproducible data analysis.
Exam questions
The general ideas of modelling and the properties of models are sometimes
examined as part of longer questions about a specific model rather than as
stand-alone questions.
CORE READING
All of the Core Reading for the topics covered in this booklet is contained in
this section.
____________
Introduction
1 Data analysis is the process by which data is gathered in its raw state
and analysed or processed into information which can be used for
specific purposes. This section will describe some of the different
forms of data analysis, the steps involved in the process and consider
some of the practical problems encountered in data analytics.
1. descriptive
2. inferential
3. predictive.
____________
Descriptive analysis
2 Data presented in its raw state can be difficult to manage and draw
meaningful conclusions from, particularly where there is a large
volume of data to work with. A descriptive analysis solves this problem
by presenting the data in a simpler format, more easily understood and
interpreted by the user.
Inferential analysis
Predictive analysis
6 While the process to analyse data does not follow a set pattern of
steps, it is helpful to consider the key stages which might be used by
actuaries when collecting and analysing data.
____________
8 Throughout the process, the modelling team needs to ensure that any
relevant professional guidance has been complied with. For example,
the Financial Reporting Council has issued a Technical Actuarial
Standard (TAS) on the principles for Technical Actuarial Work (TAS100)
which includes principles for the use of data in technical actuarial
work. Knowledge of the detail of this TAS is not required for CM1.
Further, the modelling team should also remain aware of any legal
requirement to be complied with. Such legal requirement may include
aspects around consumer/customer data protection and gender
discrimination.
____________
Data sources
2. stratified sampling
Big data
14 The term big data is not well defined but has come to be used to
describe data with characteristics that make it impossible to apply
traditional methods of analysis (for example, those which rely on a
single, well-structured data set which can be manipulated and analysed
on a single computer). Typically, this means automatically collected
data with characteristics that have to be inferred from the data itself
rather than known in advance from the design of an experiment.
____________
15 Given the description above, the properties that can lead data to be
classified as ‘big’ include:
1. size, not only does big data include a very large number of
individual cases, but each might include very many variables, a
high proportion of which might have empty (or null) values –
leading to sparse data
Although the four points above have been presented in the context of
big data, they are characteristics that should be considered for any
data source. For example, an actuary may need to decide if it is
advisable to increase the volume of data available for a given
investigation by combining an internal data set with data available
externally. In this case, the extra processing complexity required to
handle a variety of data, plus any issues of reliability of the external
data, will need to be considered.
____________
Another point to be aware of is that just because data has been made
available on the internet, doesn’t mean that that others are free to use it
as they wish. This is a very complex area and laws vary between
jurisdictions.
____________
Reproducible research
An example reference for this section is in Peng (2016). For the full
reference, see the end of this section.
Example
> sessionInfo()
References
Parameters
Data
Objectives
2. Plan the modelling process and how the model will be validated.
6. Involve experts on the real world system you are trying to imitate
so as to get feedback on the validity of the conceptual model.
13. Ensure that any relevant professional guidance has been complied
with. For example the Board for Actuarial Standards has issued
Technical Actuarial Standards on data, modelling and reporting:
TAS D, TAS M and TAS R. (A knowledge of the detail of these
TASs is not required for CT4.)
Advantages of models
Disadvantages
31 However, models are not the simple solution to all actuarial problems
they have drawbacks that must be understood when interpreting the
output from a model and communicating the results to clients.
In a stochastic model, for any given set of inputs each run gives
only estimates of a model’s outputs. So to study the outputs for
any given set of inputs, several independent runs of the model are
needed.
____________
32 As a general rule, models are more useful for comparing the results of
input variations than for optimising outputs.
____________
34 Models rely heavily on the data input. If the data quality is poor
or lacks credibility then the output from the model is likely to be
flawed.
It is important that the users of the model understand the model and
the uses to which it can be safely put. There is a danger of using a
model as a ‘black box’ from which it is assumed that all results are
valid without considering the appropriateness of using that model for
the particular data input and the output expected.
____________
45 The state of a model is the set of variables that describe the system at
a particular point in time taking into account the goals of the study. It
is possible to represent any future scenarios as states, as will be
developed in the later chapters.
____________
46 Discrete states are where the variables exhibit step function changes in
time. For example from a state of alive to dead, or an increase in the
number of policies for an insurer.
____________
This can be done with whatever precision one likes, but the higher the
precision the longer the time taken to process any particular model.
This may or may not be a limitation in practice. And it should be
remembered that some results for continuous time, continuous space
models cannot be obtained by discrete simulation at all.
____________
For example, a Monte Carlo simulation evaluating the total claims paid
each year of a car insurer may depend on the number of cars insured
and written premium (this is too simplistic for a real-life example). A
Monte-Carlo simulation would provide a range of results, including the
mean for different input scenarios.
Suitability of a model
(2) The validity of the model for the purpose to which it is to be put.
(5) The possible errors associated with the model or parameters used
not being a perfect representation of the real world situation being
modelled.
(8) The current relevance of models written and used in the past.
(12) The ease with which the model and its results can be
communicated.
The actuary must exercise great care and judgement at this stage of
the modelling process as the observations in the process are
correlated with each other and the distributions of the successive
observations change over time. The useless and fatally attractive
temptation of assuming that the observations are independent and
identically distributed is to be avoided.
____________
This section contains all the Subject CT4 exam questions from 2008 to 2017
that are related to the topics covered in this booklet.
Solutions are given after the questions. These give enough information for
you to check your answer, including working, and also show you what an
adequate examination answer should look like. Further information may be
available in the Examiners’ Report, ASET or Course Notes. (ASET can be
ordered from ActEd.)
We have not provided a cross-reference grid for this booklet as the material
in Chapter 1 is new and so has no past paper questions relating to it. All the
past paper questions that follow relate to the material in Chapter 2, which
was previously in Subject CT4.
You work for a consultancy which has created an actuarial model and is now
preparing documentation for the client.
List the key items you would include in the documentation on the model. [4]
(i) List the key steps in constructing a new actuarial model. [4]
You work for an actuarial consultancy which is taking over responsibility for a
modelling process which has previously been conducted in house by a
client.
(ii) Discuss the extent to which the steps required for this task differ from
those listed in your answer to (i). [2]
[Total 6]
When the revised results are produced, they are significantly different from
the original results.
Describe the process that would be followed to carry out the analysis. [6]
Describe the ways in which the design of a model used to project over only a
short time frame may differ from one used to project over fifty years. [4]
(i) List the factors which should be considered in assessing the suitability
of a model for a particular exercise. [3]
Current national fertility and mortality rates by age are used to estimate
births and deaths.
The births and deaths are applied to the initial population distribution to
generate a projected distribution of the town’s population by age for
each future year, and hence the number of school age children.
Describe two benefits and two limitations of using models in actuarial work.
[4]
A city has care homes for the elderly. When an elderly person in the city is
no longer able to cope alone at home they can move into a care home
where they will be looked after until they die.
The city council runs some of the care homes and is reviewing the number of
rooms it needs in all the council-run care homes. The following model has
been proposed.
The age distribution of the city population over the age of 60 is taken from
the latest census. Statistics from the national health service on the average
age of entry into a care home and the proportion of elderly who go into
council-run care homes are applied to the current population to give the rate
at which people enter care homes. A recent national mortality table is then
applied to give the rate at which care home residents die.
(i) List eight factors which should be considered when assessing whether a
model is suitable for a particular application. [4]
(i) List the stages you would go through in creating a model. [4]
(ii) Discuss, for three of these stages, the specific issues that could arise
when creating a model to price a new sickness benefit product. [3]
[Total 7]
List the advantages and disadvantages of using models in actuarial work. [4]
(i) List EIGHT factors which should be considered when deciding whether
a model is suitable for a particular purpose. [4]
Start with the number of children in the education system over the last
twenty years (as provided by the country’s central statistical office).
Project these forward using a straight line approach.
Use the number of immigrants predicted to arrive in each of the next five
years as given in the newspaper article. Apply to this an estimate of
‘number and age of children for each immigrant’ also provided by the
newspaper. Project this forward also using a straight line approach.
Add the two together to get the total number of children in the education
system for the next 40 years.
(ii) Assess whether this model is suitable with regards to SIX of the factors
which you listed in your answer to part (i). [6]
[Total 10]
(i) List the key steps involved in developing an actuarial model. [4]
The solutions presented here are just outline solutions for you to use to
check your answers. See ASET for full solutions to some questions.
13. Ensure that any relevant professional guidance has been complied with,
eg the Board for Actuarial Standards has issued Technical Actuarial
Standards on data, modelling and reporting (TAS D, TAS M and
TAS R).
14. Communicate and document the results of the model to the client.
The list of steps in (i) would still be relevant, though they may be applied in a
different order. So, the consultancy may start off by looking at the output of
the model to decide if it is reasonable, before considering the detail of how
the model works.
Some of the steps may involve reviewing the appropriateness of the existing
model. For example:
the input data will already be established, but they should be reviewed
to check that they are still up-to-date and appropriate
the form of the model and the language in which it is written would be
reviewed to establish if it is still suitable.
The amount of work required will depend on whether the existing model is to
be used as it is, adapted, or completely rewritten. Any changes will need to
be agreed with the company, and it would be necessary to understand the
effect on the model’s output of any such changes and communicate these
clearly.
This method has the advantage that it uses a fairly simple model. However,
it is a deterministic model that doesn’t allow for any possible (random)
variation in the future.
It is good that the approach focuses on the underlying factors, ie age, and it
is probably true that consumption of sweets is highly age-specific. But it may
depend on other factors too, eg changes in eating habits, health campaigns,
the state of the economy.
The model should produce reliable results if the underlying variables exhibit
clear trends that can be extrapolated in an obvious way. However, the rapid
increase cannot continue indefinitely and the model needs to take account of
this.
Unless birth rates (or migration rates) have been changing a lot recently,
taking into account ages may constitute spurious accuracy. A sufficiently
accurate alternative may just be to project the total sales directly without
worrying about age, eg by fitting a time series model. Factors such as
advertising campaigns for the product or the pricing strategy are likely to
have far more impact than changes in the age profile.
In order to fit the model it will be necessary to obtain data on the age of the
consumers. This will be difficult, especially since sweets for children,
particularly very young children, are often bought by older family members,
not by the children themselves.
In contrast, the inputs to a deterministic model are all fixed quantities. So,
for a deterministic model, the output is determined once the fixed set of
inputs and the relationships between them have been specified. In other
words, repeated runs of a deterministic model with the same set of inputs will
give exactly the same output. The output of a deterministic model is only a
snap-shot or an estimate of the characteristics of the model for a given set of
inputs.
We could check that the model is a good fit to the actual mortality
experience of the island over subsets of the last 50 years.
For 4 marks, you would only need to come up with 4 of the ideas or
examples.
The short-term model may need to produce more accurate results than the
50-year model. For example, the short-term model may be required for
budgeting purposes, whereas the 50-year model may only be needed to
gauge the possible effects of general trends.
Different variables may be used in the short-term and long-term models. For
example, in the short-term model it may be acceptable to ignore inflation,
mortality, company defaults and general trends. It may also be possible to
ignore interactions between variables in the short-term model for simplicity.
The same variables may be modelled differently in the short term, eg using
different statistical distributions or using different approximations. For
example, exponential growth is approximately linear over short time scales.
The short-term model may need to incorporate realistic current values for
parameters such as interest rates and mortality rates, whereas it might be
sufficient to assume average long-term values for these parameters in the
50-year model.
Similarly, more detailed data might be required for the short-term model, eg
current asset values or individuals’ salaries, current state of health and
marital status.
Sensitivity testing and stress testing may be less important for the short-term
model, as there is less time for the results to diverge because of stochastic
effects.
the possible errors associated with the model or parameters used not
being a perfect representation of the real world situation being modelled
the impact of correlations between the random variables that ‘drive’ the
model
the extent of correlations between the various results produced from the
model
the current relevance of models written and used in the past
the ease with which the model and its results can be communicated.
Advantages
Models allow you to vary the input parameters to see what effect this will
have.
Models allow you to study the stochastic nature of the results, eg using
Monte Carlo simulation.
Disadvantages
Models can give an impression of greater accuracy and reliability than they
actually have, and so may create a sense of false security.
Users of the model may not understand fully how it works and its limitations.
The results from models are dependent on the data used, which may be
inaccurate or unreliable.
The results will probably be accurate over the short term (ie for the next few
years), but may become less reliable if applied over longer periods.
See Core Reading paragraphs 30 and 31. Core Reading paragraphs 32, 33,
34 and 35 are also possible answers.
The nature of the existing sickness data the company possesses since the
model can only be as complex as the data will allow it to be.
Whether the company has made any previous attempts to model sickness
rates among its employees, and how successful they were.
General trends in sickness at the national level may need to be built in.
The budget and resources available for the construction of the model.
The capability of its staff and whether outside consultants are required.
Who the model will be used by and whether they are capable of
understanding and using it.
Consider if the model needs to interface with models of other aspects of the
company’s business (eg taking data from other systems).
A stochastic model is one that recognises the random nature of the variables
in the model. A deterministic model is one that does not include a random
component.
With a deterministic model, once the input values have been set, the output
values can be determined. A stochastic model uses random numbers to do
the calculations and the outputs will be random in nature.
A deterministic model will give a single set of results (based on a given set of
input parameters), whereas a stochastic model will produce a distribution of
possible results.
The model should be able to meet the objective of determining the number
of rooms required.
the rooms may not always be fully occupied, eg while a room is being
reallocated to a new resident
different types of rooms may be needed for different types of occupants
(eg severely disabled people)
Other similar models used previously by other town councils may be able to
be adapted and used here.
The results of the model should be quite easy to present and explain.
A stochastic model is one that recognises the random nature of the variables
in the model. A deterministic model is one that does not include a random
component.
With a deterministic model, once the input values have been set, the output
values can be determined. A stochastic model uses random numbers to do
the calculations and the outputs will be random in nature.
A deterministic model will give a single set of results (based on a given set of
input parameters), whereas a stochastic model will produce a distribution of
possible results.
It is important that your friend will be able to understand the model and can
present it clearly to the business loans manager at the bank.
Birthday cakes
The cost is relatively small and staff will come and go. So there’s no point
trying to be too precise about the cost.
Step 3 – Data
We will need past data for sickness and recovery rates. If we do not have
these from other similar policies, we may need to use industry data or
national statistics.
A jump process may be suitable with transition rates depending on age and
duration. It will be important to specify precise definitions of sickness and
recovery.
Step 10 – Reasonableness
One of the outputs of the model would be the premium rates for different
ages. We should compare these with the rates for any similar policies
available in the market to ensure that they are not uncompetitive and don’t
appear to be too low.
Could Solvency II have an impact on the cost of capital, making the product
uncompetitive or uneconomic?
Stochastic models allow us to see the range of possible outcomes that might
arise.
It is usually cheaper and quicker to use a model than to try things out in real
life.
Models avoid the risks involved with trying things out in real life.
Models allow us to study the impact of changes before they have happened.
The model will produce overall estimates for the number of schools required,
but will not give an accurate geographical breakdown of where they are
required, which would be essential information.
This is too simplistic an approach for a model that might be used for
planning the number of schools required. Incorrect estimates could prove
very expensive.
The historical data from the central statistical office should be reliable, but
the predictions in the newspaper relating to immigrants may not be
trustworthy.
Possible errors associated with the model or parameters used not being a
perfect representation of the real world situation being modelled
The model does not allow for people leaving the country. Nor does it take
into account the geographical distribution of the immigrants (eg more may
come to big cities such as London). The straight line approach does not
allow for ‘baby booms’ or sudden influxes of immigrants at particular times
(eg due to economic conditions).
The results of this model are unlikely to be reliable – especially over a 40-
year period, which would span two generations of children.
This model would be relatively easy to explain – but also easy to criticise!
This model would be very cheap to set up and maintain, as it requires very
little data and does not need any special software. However, the
government probably has much better models set up already.
There will be very little past data here, although it may be possible to use
data from other similar diseases.
the average time that people are contagious (which might be indefinite)
FACTSHEET
While there is no rigid pattern for the construction and use of a model,
14 key steps can be considered:
1. Develop a well-defined set of objectives that need to be met by the
modelling process.
2. Plan the modelling process and how the model will be validated.
3. Collect and analyse the necessary data for the model.
4. Define the parameters for the model and consider appropriate
parameter values.
5. Define the model firstly by capturing the essence of the real-world
system. Refining the level of detail in the model can come at a later
stage.
6. Involve the experts on the real-world system you are trying to model in
order to get feedback on the validity of the conceptual model.
7. Decide on whether a simulation package or general-purpose language
is appropriate for the implementation of the model. If necessary, choose
a statistically reliable random number generator that will perform
adequately in the context and complexity of the model.
8. Write the computer program for the model.
9. Debug the program to make sure it performs the intended operations in
the model definition.
10. Test the reasonableness of the output from the model.
11. Review and carefully consider the appropriateness of the model in the
light of small changes to the input parameters.
12. Analyse the output from the model.
13. Ensure that any relevant professional guidance has been complied with.
For example the Board for Actuarial Standards has issued Technical
Actuarial Standards on data, modelling and reporting
To validate the model, the output needs to be examined. This can be done
using a Turing test – can an expert tell the difference between a set of
simulated outputs and actual occurrences?
FINAL COMMENTS
The examiners can ask a question on any part of the Core Reading. So
there is always a chance that some ‘new’ area – ie one that has not been
examined before – might come up.
Beware though that you don’t just write down what you can remember from
the Core Reading without considering carefully the specific situation given in
the question. The examiners are keen to see that you can apply your
knowledge to the question in front of you.
Bear in mind that Chapter 1 of the CM1 course is new, and there will be no
past paper questions on this material.
We hope that you have found this booklet to be a useful revision aid. If you
have any comments that might help us to improve this set of booklets then
please email your ideas to [email protected].
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
Subject CM1
Revision Notes
For the 2019 exams
Booklet 2
covering
CONTENTS
Contents Page
Links to the Course Notes and Syllabus 2
Overview 4
Core Reading 5
Past Exam Questions 49
Solutions to Past Exam Questions 70
Factsheet 117
Copyright agreement
All of this material is copyright. The copyright belongs to Institute and Faculty
Education Ltd, a subsidiary of the Institute and Faculty of Actuaries. The
material is sold to you for your own exclusive use. You may not hire out, lend,
give, sell, transmit electronically, store electronically or photocopy any part of
it. You must take care of your material to ensure it is not used or copied by
anyone at any time.
Legal action will be taken if these terms are infringed. In addition, we may
seek to take disciplinary action through the profession or through your
employer.
These conditions remain in force after you have finished using the course.
These chapter numbers refer to the 2019 edition of the ActEd course notes.
1. State the inflows and outflows in each future time period and discuss
whether the amount or the timing (or both) is fixed or uncertain for a
given cashflow process.
2.1 Show how interest rates may be expressed in different time periods.
2.3 Describe how to take into account the time value of money using the
concepts of compound interest and discounting.
2.4 Calculate the present value and accumulated value for a given stream of
cashflows under the following individual or combination of scenarios:
5. Rate of interest or discount varies with time which may or may not be
a continuous function of time.
2.5 Define and derive the following compound interest functions (where
payments can be in advance or in arrears) in terms of i , v , n , d , d ,
i ( p) and d ( p ) :
2. m an , m a( p ) , m a
,
n m a( p ) and m an
n n
OVERVIEW
This booklet covers Syllabus objectives 2.1, 2.3, 2.4 and 2.5, which relate to
the time value of money and annuities.
Breakdown of topics
Exam questions
There are lots of past exam questions on finding the present value or
accumulated value of a continuous payment stream using a force of interest
that depends upon time.
However, the rest of these chapters tend to be examined in the context of the
work covered in the later chapters.
CORE READING
All of the Core Reading for the topics covered in this booklet is contained in
this section.
9 Since equities do not have a fixed redemption date, but can be held in
perpetuity, we may assume that dividends continue indefinitely (unless
the investor sells the shares or the company buys them back), but it is
important to bear in mind the risk that the company will fail, in which
case the dividend income will cease and the shareholders would only be
entitled to any assets which remain after creditors are paid. The future
positive cashflows for the investor are therefore uncertain in amount
and may even be lower, in total, than the initial negative cashflow.
____________
11 In the simplest of cases, the cashflows are the reverse of those for a
fixed-interest security. The provider of the loan effectively buys a fixed-
interest security from the borrower.
In practice, however, the interest rate need not be fixed in advance. The
regular cashflows may therefore be of unknown amounts.
It may also be possible for the loan to be repaid early. The number of
cashflows and the timing of the final cashflows may therefore be
uncertain.
____________
In its simplest form, the interest rate will be fixed and the payments will
be of fixed equal amounts, paid at regular known times.
The theory can be extended to deal with annuities where the payment
term is uncertain, that is, for which payments are made only so long as
the annuity policyholder survives.
____________
Insurance contracts
16 The cashflows for the examples covered in this section differ than the
previous in that the frequency, severity, and/or timing of the cashflow
may be unkown. For example, a typical cover of a life cover may have a
specified date on which a pre-agreed amount is paid on survival – but
the benefit payment may not be paid if the individual does not survive.
On the other hand, a non-life (general) insurance cover tends to not have
known severities. For example, the cost of a car accident may range
from a few pounds in the case of a small collision to millions in case of
a major accident that caused death.
____________
21 A typical car insurance contract lasts for one year. In return for a
premium which can be paid as a single lump sum or at monthly intervals,
the insurer will provide cover to pay for damage to the insured vehicle
or fire or theft of the vehicle, known as ‘property cover’. In many
countries, such as the UK, the contract also provides cover for
compensation payable to third parties for death, injury or damage to
their property, known as ‘liability cover’.
Depending on the terms of the policy, the insurance company may settle
claims directly with the policyholder or with another party. For example,
in the case of theft or total loss, the insurance company may pay a lump
sum to the policyholder in lieu of that loss. In the case of damage to the
insured vehicle the insurance company may settle the claim directly with
the party undertaking the repairs without involving the policyholder. In
the case of third party liability claims the insurance company may settle
the claims directly with the third party.
The timing of the cashflows will depend on how long the claim takes to
be reported and settled. Typically property claims take less time to settle
than liability claims. Where liability claims involve disputes, for example
necessitating court judgements, they can take years to settle and the
amounts are less certain.
Cashflows tend to be short term and are payable within the year.
____________
22 A typical health insurance contract lasts for one year. In return for a
premium, the policyholder is entitled to benefits which may include
hospital treatment either paid for in full or in part, and/or cash benefits
in lieu of treatment, such as a fixed sum per day spent in hospital as an
in-patient.
Cashflows tend to be short term and are payable within the year.
____________
When the capital and interest are expressed in monetary terms, capital
is also referred to as principal. The total received by the lender after a
period of time is called the accumulated value. The difference between
the principal and the accumulated value is called the interest. Note that
we are assuming here that no other payments are made or incurred (eg
charges, expenses).
____________
25 Another factor that may influence the rate of interest on any transaction
is an allowance for the possible depreciation or appreciation in the value
of the currency in which the transaction is carried out. This factor is
very important in times of high inflation.
____________
Interest
C (1 + ni ) (1.1)
____________
____________
C (1 + i )n (1.2)
____________
CA(t1 , t 2 ) (1.3)
____________
Present values
C (1 + i )n (2.1)
This is called the discounted present value (or, more briefly, the present
value) of C due at time n ≥ 0 .
____________
v = 1/(1 + i ) (2.2)
____________
Cv n (2.3)
____________
Discount rates
As has been seen with simple interest, the interest earned is not itself
subject to further interest. The same is true of simple discount, which
is defined below.
C (1 - nd ) (3.1)
____________
40 As has been seen with compound interest, the interest earned is subject
to further interest. The same is true of compound discount, which is
defined below.
C (1 - d )n (3.2)
____________
41 In the same way that the accumulation factor A(n ) gives the
accumulation at time n of an investment of 1 at time 0, we define v (n )
to be the present value of a payment of 1 due at time n . Hence:
1
v (n ) = (3.3)
A(n )
____________
42 Effective rates are compound rates that have interest paid once per unit
time either at the end of the period (effective interest) or at the beginning
of the period (effective discount). This distinguishes them from nominal
rates where interest is paid more frequently than once per unit time.
A(n ) - A(n - 1)
in = (4.1)
A(n - 1)
____________
(1 + i )n - (1 + i )n - 1
in = = (1 + i ) - 1 = i (4.2)
(1 + i )n - 1
We can also show that the effective rate of discount is identical to the
compound rate of discount we met earlier.
____________
Equivalent rates
v = 1- d (5.1)
d = iv (5.2)
i
and: d= (5.3)
1+ i
48 Recall from earlier that ‘effective’ rates of interest and discount have
interest paid once per measurement period, either at the end of the
period or at the beginning of the period.
‘Nominal’ is used where interest is paid more (or less) frequently than
once per measurement period.
____________
p
Ê i ( p) ˆ
1 + i = Á1 + ˜ (6.1)
Ë p ¯
____________
p
Ê d ( p) ˆ
1 - d = Á1 - ˜ (6.2)
Ë p ¯
____________
lim i ( p ) = d
p Æ•
____________
n
Ê xˆ
lim Á 1 + ˜ = e x
n Æ• Ë n¯
p
Ê i ( p) ˆ (•)
lim Á 1 + ˜ = ei
p Æ• Ë p ¯
Hence:
1 + i = ed (7.1)
____________
v = e -d (7.2)
____________
v t = (e -d )t = e -d t
v (n) = e -d n
____________
lim d ( p ) = d
p Æ•
63 Hence, we have:
d < d (2) < d (3) < < d < < i (3) < i (2) < i
____________
Hence:
i ( p) = p È(1 + i )1 p - 1˘
Î ˚
____________
Hence:
d ( p ) = p È1 - (1 - d )1 p ˘
Î ˚
____________
1
1- t
Ú d (1 + i ) dt
0
1
t
Ú d (1 + i ) dt = i
0
Hence:
d = ln(1 + i ) or ed = 1 + i
1 2 3 p -1
0 ... 1 time
p p p p
(1) d
d ( p) d ( p) d ( p) d ( p) d ( p)
(2) ...
p p p p p
i ( p) i ( p) i ( p) i (p) i (p)
(3) ...
p p p p p equivalent
(4) i payments
(5) d
Vt¢
d (t ) =
Vt
where Vt is the value of the fund at time t and Vt¢ is the derivative of
Vt with respect to t .
Hence:
d
d (t ) = ln Vt
dt
t2 Ê Vt ˆ
t
Ú d (t )dt = ÈÎln Vt ˘˚t2 = ln Vt2 - ln Vt1 = ln Á 2 ˜
t1
1
Ë Vt1 ¯
Vt2 t2
exp (t ) dt
Vt1 t
1
____________
70 Hence:
t2
A(t1, t2 ) exp (t ) dt
t
1
____________
71 For the case when the force of interest is constant, d , between time 0
and time n , we have:
n
Úd dt
A(0, n ) = e 0 = ed n
Hence:
(1 + i )n = ed n
Therefore:
(1 + i ) = ed
as before.
____________
It still remains a useful conceptual and analytical tool and can be used
as an approximation to interest paid very frequently, eg daily.
____________
74 The present value of the sums ct1 , ct2 , ..., ctn due at times t1, t 2 , ..., t n
(where 0 £ t1 < t 2 < < t n ) is:
n
ct1v (t1) + ct2 v (t2 ) + + ctn v (t n ) = Â ct j v (t j )
j =1
•
 ct j v (t j )
j =1
75 Suppose that T > 0 and that between times 0 and T an investor will be
paid money continuously, the rate of payment at time t being £ r (t ) per
unit time. What is the present value of this cashflow?
b b
M ( b ) - M (a ) = Ú M ¢(t )dt = Ú r (t )dt (8.1)
a a
Thus the rate of payment at any time is simply the derivative of the total
amount paid up to that time, and the total amount paid between any two
times is the integral of the rate of payments over the appropriate time
interval.
____________
T
Ú v (t ) r (t )dt
0
____________
•
Ú v (t ) r (t )dt
0
____________
•
 ct v (t ) + Ú v (t ) r (t )dt (8.2)
0
for the present value of a general cashflow (the summation being over
those values of t for which ct , the discrete cashflow at time t, is
non-zero).
____________
C exp ÈÍ - Ú 2 d (t )dt ˘˙
t
(9.1)
Î t1 ˚
t2 t1
(Note the convention that, if t1 > t 2 , Út1 d (t )dt = - Út2 d (t )dt .)
Since:
t2 t2 t
Út1 d (t )dt = Ú0 d (t )dt - Ú 1 d (t )dt
0
v (t2 )
C (9.2)
v (t1)
____________
v (t ) • v (t )
 ct v (t )
+ Ú r (t )
-• v (t1)
dt (9.3)
1
82 We note that in the special case when t1 = 0 (the present time), the value
of the cashflow is:
•
 ct v (t ) + Ú -• r (t ) v (t )dt
83 It follows from formula (9.2) that the value at any time t 1 of a cashflow
may be obtained from its value at another time t2 by applying the factor
v (t 2 ) / v (t1) , ie:
Each side of Equation (9.4) is the value of the cashflow at the present
time (time 0).
These results are useful in many practical examples. The time 0 and the
unit of time may be chosen so as to simplify the calculations.
____________
Interest income
T
I (T ) = Ú0 Cd (t ) dt
____________
87 If the investor withdraws the capital at time T , the present values of the
income and capital at time 0 are:
T
C Ú d (t )v (t )dt and Cv (T )
0
respectively.
Since:
( )
T
T T È t ˘ È t ˘
Ú0 d (t )v (t )dt = Ú0 d (t ) exp ÎÍ - Ú0 d (s )ds ˚˙ dt = ÍÎ - exp - Ú0 d (s )ds ˙˚
0
= 1 - v (T )
we obtain:
T
C = C Ú d (t )v (t )dt + Cv (T )
0
Present values
1 1 1 ... 1 1 Payment
t t +1 t +2 t +3 ... t +n -1 t +n Time
The value of this series of payments one unit of time before the first
payment is made is denoted by an | .
____________
an | = v + v 2 + v 3 + + v n
v (1 - v n ) 1 - v n 1- v n
= = -1 = (10.1)
1- v v -1 i
90 Thus an| is the value at the start of any period of length n of a series
of n payments, each of amount 1, to be made in arrears at unit time
intervals over the period. It is common to refer to such a series of
payments, made in arrear, as an immediate annuity-certain and to call
an | the present value of the immediate annuity-certain. When there is
no possibility of confusion with a life annuity (ie a series of payments
dependent on the survival of one or more human lives), the term annuity
may be used as an alternative to annuity-certain.
____________
91 The value of this series of payments at the time the first payment is made
is denoted by an| .If i = 0 , then a
| = n ; otherwise:
n
1- v n 1- v n
an| = 1 + v + v 2 + + v n -1 = = (10.2)
1- v d
Thus an| is the value at the start of any given period of length n of a
series of n payments, each of amount 1, to be made in advance at unit
time intervals over the period. It is common to refer to such a series of
payments, made in advance, as an annuity-due and to call an| the
present value of the annuity-due.
____________
an| = (1 + i )an|
an| = 1 + an -1|
____________
Accumulations
93 The value of the series of payments at the time the last payment is made
is denoted by s n | . The value one unit of time after the last payment is
| .
made is denoted by s n
____________
| = n ; otherwise
94 If i = 0 then sn| = s n
sn| = (1 + i )n -1 + (1 + i )n - 2 + (1 + i )n - 3 + + 1 = (1 + i )n an|
(1 + i )n - 1
= (11.1)
i
and:
sn| = (1 + i )n + (1 + i )n -1 + (1 + i )n - 2 + + (1 + i ) = (1 + i )n an|
(1 + i )n - 1
= (11.2)
d
____________
sn| = (1 + i )sn|
and that:
99 Clearly:
n -d t 1 - e -d n 1- v n
an| = Ú0 e dt =
d
=
d
(if d π 0) (12.1)
i Ê 1- v n ˆ
an| = Á ˜
d Ë i ¯
i
an| = an| (if d π 0 )
d
____________
102 The accumulated amount of such an annuity at the time the payments
cease is denoted by sn| .
By definition, therefore:
n
sn| = Ú ed (n -t )dt
0
Hence:
sn| = (1 + i )n an|
____________
(1 + i )n - 1 i
sn| = = sn|
d d
____________
104 If p and n are positive integers, the notation a ( p| ) is used to denote the
n
value at time 0 of a level annuity payable pthly in arrear at the rate of 1
per unit time over the time interval [0, n ] . For this annuity the payments
are made at times 1 p ,2 p , 3 p , , n and the amount of each payment is
1p.
Consider now that annuity for which the present value is a ( p| ) . The
n
remarks in the preceding paragraph show that the p payments after time
r - 1 and not later than time r have the same value as a single payment
of amount i i ( p ) at time r. This is true for r = 1, 2, , n , so the annuity
has the same value as a series of n payments, each of amount i i ( p ) , at
times 1, 2, , n .
____________
i
a ( p| ) = an | (13.1)
n i ( p)
____________
np
1 t / p 1 v 1/ p (1 - v n ) 1- v n 1- v n
a ( p| ) = Â v =
p 1 - v 1/ p
= = (13.2)
n
t =1 p p È(1 + i )1/ p - 1˘ i ( p)
Î ˚
payable p thly at the rate of 1 per unit time over the time interval [0, n ] .
(The annuity payments, each of amount 1 p , are made at times
0, 1 p , 2 p , , n - (1 p ) .)
i
a( p| ) = an | (13.3)
n d (p)
np
1 1- v n
a( p| ) = Â p v (t -1) / p = (13.4)
n
t =1 d ( p)
a( p| ) = v 1/ p a( p| ) (13.5)
n n
(1 - v n )
each expression being equal to .
i ( p)
____________
lim i ( p ) = lim d ( p ) = d
p Æ• p Æ•
i
s ( p| ) = (1 + i )n a ( p| ) = (1 + i )n an| (by (13.1))
n n i ( p)
i
= (p)
sn|
i
Also:
i
s( p| ) = (1 + i )n a( p| ) = (1 + i )n ( p)
an| (by (13.3))
n n d
i
= sn|
d ( p)
n
a= Â xt v t (13.6)
t =1
Consider now a second annuity, also payable for n years with the
payment in the tth year, again of amount x t , being made in p equal
i
a( p ) = a
i ( p)
112 Earlier the symbol a ( p| ) was introduced. Intuitively, with this notation
n
one considers p to be an integer greater than 1 and assumes that the
product n . p is also an integer. (This, of course, will be true when n
itself is an integer, but one might for example, have p = 4 and n = 5.75
so that np = 23 .) Then a ( p| ) denotes the value at time 0 of n . p
n
payments, each of amount 1 p , at times 1 p , 2 p , ... , (np ) p .
1 - v 28
(0.25). È (1 + i )4 - 1˘
Î ˚
È ˘
Í 4 ˙ 1 - v 28 4
Í ˙. = .a28|
4
Í (1 + i ) - 1 ˙ i s 4|
Í ˙
Î i ˚
____________
Non-integer values of n
113 Let p be a positive integer. Until now the symbol a ( p| ) has been defined
n
only when n is a positive integer. For certain non-integral values of n
the symbol a ( p| ) has an intuitively obvious interpretation.
n
____________
114 For example, it is not clear what meaning, if any, may be given to a23.5| ,
1 1/ p
a ( p| ) = (v + v2/ p + v3/ p + + vr / p)
n p
1 1/ p Ê 1 - v r / p ˆ 1 È 1- v r / p ˘
= v Á 1/ p ˜ = Í ˙
p Ë 1- v ¯ p ÍÎ (1 + i )1/ p - 1˙˚
Thus:
Ï1- v n
Ô if i π 0
a ( p| ) = Ì i ( p ) (14.1)
n
Ôn if i = 0
Ó
____________
116 Note that, by working in terms of a new time unit equal to 1 p times the
original time unit and with the equivalent effective interest rate of i ( p ) / p
per new time unit, we see that:
a ( p| ) (at rate i ) = 1
p
anp| (at rate i ( p ) / p )
n
a ( p|) + fv n
n1
(1 - v n ) ¸
a( p| ) = (1 + i )1/ p a ( p| ) = Ô
n n d ( p) Ô
(1 + i )n - 1ÔÔ
s ( p| ) = (1 + i )n a ( p| ) = ˝ (14.2)
n n i ( p) Ô
(1 + i ) n
- 1 Ô
( p ) n ( p )
s | = (1 + i ) a | = ( p )
Ô
n n d Ô˛
a(1)| , a(1)| , s (1)| and s(1)| respectively, thus extending the definition of an|
n n n n
etc, to all non-negative values of n . It is a trivial consequence of our
definitions that the formulae:
i ¸
a ( p| ) = an| Ô
( p)
n i Ô
i Ô
a( p| ) = ( p ) an| Ô
n d Ô
˝ (14.3)
i
s ( p| ) = ( p ) sn | Ô
n i Ô
Ô
i
s( p| ) = ( p ) sn | Ô
n d Ô˛
Perpetuities
For example, consider an equity that pays a dividend of £10 at the end
of each year. An investor who purchases the equity pays an amount
equal to the present value of the dividends.
____________
10v 10
10v + 10v 2 + 10v 3 + = =
1- v i
Recall the formula for the present value of an annuity of £10 pa that
continues for n years:
10(1 - v n )
10an =
i
In general:
121 The present value of payments of 1 pa payable at the end of each year
1 1
forever is . This present value is written as a• , ie a• = .
i i
____________
122 The present value of payments of 1 pa payable at the start of each year
1 1
forever is . This present value is written as a• , ie a• = .
d d
____________
1
123 The present value of payments of 1 pa payable in instalments of p
at
the end of each pthly time period forever is:
1
a(p) =
• i (p)
1
124 The present value of payments of 1 pa payable in instalments of p
at
the start of each pthly time period forever is:
1
a( p ) =
• d (p)
____________
Deferred annuities
1 1 ... 1 payment
0 1 m m +1 m +2 … m+n time
m | an| = v m +1 + v m + 2 + v m + 3 + + v m + n
= (v + v 2 + v 3 + + v m + n ) - (v + v 2 + v 3 + + v m )
= v m (v + v 2 + v 3 + + v n )
____________
m | an | = am + n| - am | (15.1)
= v m an| (15.2)
____________
127 Either of these two equations may be used to determine the value of a
deferred immediate annuity. Together they imply that:
am + n| = am| + v m an|
____________
= v m a |
m | an| n
____________
m +n n m +n m
m| an| =Ú e -d t dt = e -d m Ú e -d sds = Ú e -d t dt - Ú e -d t dt
m 0 0 0
Hence:
( p)
m| an| = v m a( p| ) and ( p )
m| an| = v m a( p| ) (15.3)
n n
respectively.
( p) ( p)
We may also extend the definitions of m| an| and m| an| to all values of
n by the formulae:
( p)
m| an| = v m a( p| ) ( p )
m| an| = v m a( p| ) (15.4)
n n
and so:
( p)
m| an| = a( p) - a( p|) ( p )
m| an| = a( p) - a( p|) (15.5)
n + m| m n + m| m
____________
Varying annuities
131 For an annuity in which the payments are not all of an equal amount it is
a simple matter to find the present (or accumulated) value from first
principles. Thus, for example, the present value of such an annuity may
always be evaluated as:
n
 X i v ti
i =1
132 Thus:
(Ia )n| = v + 2v 2 + 3v 3 + + nv n
Hence:
By subtraction, we obtain:
So:
an| - nv n
(Ia)n| =
i
____________
133 The present value of any annuity payable in arrear for n time units for
which the amounts of successive payments form an arithmetic
progression can be expressed in terms of an| and (Ia )n| . If the first
Alternatively, the present value of the annuity can be derived from first
principles.
____________
____________
135 For increasing annuities which are payable continuously it is important
to distinguish between an annuity which has a constant rate of payment
r (per unit time) throughout the r th period and an annuity which has a
rate of payment t at time t . For the former the rate of payment is a step
function taking the discrete values 1, 2, . For the latter the rate of
payment itself increases continuously. If the annuities are payable for
n time units, their present values are denoted by (Ia )n| and (Ia )n|
respectively.
n r
Clearly (Ia )n| = Â ( Úr -1 rv t dt ) , and:
r =1
n
(Ia)n| = Ú tv t dt
0
an| - nv n
(Ia )n| =
d
and:
an| - nv n
(Ia)n| =
d
____________
136 The present values of deferred increasing annuities are defined in the
obvious manner, for example:
m| (Ia)n = v m (Ia)n
____________
Solutions are given later in this booklet. These give enough information for
you to check your answer, including working, and also show you what an
adequate examination answer should look like. Further information may be
available in the Examiners’ Report, ASET or Course Notes. (ASET can be
ordered from ActEd.)
We first provide you with a cross reference grid that indicates the main
subject areas of each exam question. You can use this, if you wish, to select
the questions that relate just to those aspects of the topic that you may be
particularly interested in reviewing.
Alternatively you can choose to ignore the grid, and instead attempt each
question without having any clues as to its content.
Variable
Basic interest force of Annuities
interest
Payment streams
General A(t) / v(t)
Cashflow models
interest/discount
Level annuties
Accumulation/
Accumulation/
Treasury bill
expression
Converting
Increasing
Tick when
attempted
annuities
discount
discount
Nominal
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20 ()
21 ()
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
Accumulation/
discount
Converting
Treasury bill
Basic interest
Nominal
Batch 4
interest/discount
Accumulation/
discount
General A(t) / v(t)
expression
interest
force of
Variable
Payment streams
Level annuties
Increasing
Annuities
annuities
Ï0.06 0£t £4
Ô
d (t ) = Ì0.10 - 0.01t 4<t £7
Ô0.01t - 0.04 7<t
Ó
(i) Calculate the value at time t = 5 of £1,000 due for payment at time
t = 10 . [5]
(ii) Calculate the constant rate of interest per annum convertible monthly
which leads to the same result as in (i) being obtained. [2]
(i) Calculate the present value of £1,000 due at the end of 12 years. [5]
(ii) Calculate the annual effective rate of discount implied by the transaction
in (i). [2]
[Total 7]
A 182-day government bill, redeemable at £100, was purchased for £96 at the
time of issue and was later sold to another investor for £97.89. The rate of
return received by the initial purchaser was 5% per annum effective.
(a) Calculate the length of time in days for which the initial purchaser held
the bill.
(b) Calculate the annual simple rate of return achieved by the second
investor. [4]
(ii) Calculate the constant rate of interest per annum convertible monthly that
would give rise to the same accumulation from time t = 0 to time t = 5 .
[2]
(iii) Calculate the constant force of interest that would give rise to the same
accumulation from time t = 5 to time t = 10 . [2]
[Total 10]
(ii) (a) Calculate the present value of £1,000 due at the end of 17 years.
(b) Calculate the rate of interest per annum convertible monthly implied
by the transaction in part (ii)(a). [4]
Ï0.05 + 0.001t 0 £ t £ 20
d (t ) = Ì
Ó0.05 t > 20
(ii) (a) Calculate the present value of £100 due at the end of 25 years.
(iii) A continuous payment stream is received at rate 30e -0.015t units per
annum between t = 20 and t = 25 . Calculate the accumulated value of
the payment stream at time t = 25 . [4]
[Total 13]
(ii) Calculate the constant rate of discount per annum, convertible monthly,
which would lead to the same accumulation as that in (i) being obtained.
[3]
[Total 7]
An individual intends to retire on his 65th birthday in exactly four years’ time.
The government will pay a pension to the individual from age 68 of £5,000 per
annum monthly in advance. The individual would like to purchase an annuity
certain so that his income, including the government pension, is £8,000 per
annum paid monthly in advance from age 65 until his 78th birthday. He is to
purchase the annuity by a series of payments made over four years quarterly
in advance starting immediately.
Calculate the quarterly payments the individual has to make if the present
value of these payments is equal to the present value of the annuity he wishes
to purchase at a rate of interest of 5% per annum effective. Mortality should
be ignored. [6]
(ii) Calculate the constant force of interest per annum that would give rise to
the same accumulation from time t = 0 to time t = 10 . [2]
[Total 7]
(ii) Calculate the constant rate of discount per annum convertible quarterly,
which would lead to the same present value as that in part (i) being
obtained. [2]
Calculate the annual simple rate of discount from the treasury bill if both
investments are to provide the same effective rate of return. [3]
(ii) Calculate the equivalent effective rate of interest per annum. [1]
(iii) Calculate the equivalent nominal rate of discount per annum convertible
monthly. [2]
[Total 4]
(ii) (a) Calculate the present value of £5,000 due at the end of 15 years.
A continuous payment stream is received at rate 100e -0.02t units per annum
between t = 11 and t = 15 .
(i) Calculate:
(a) the annual effective rate of discount.
(b) the nominal rate of discount per annum convertible monthly.
(c) the nominal rate of interest per annum convertible quarterly.
(d) the effective rate of interest over a five year period. [5]
(ii) Explain why your answer to part (i)(b) is higher than your answer to part
(i)(a). [2]
[Total 7]
d (t ) = 0.05 + 0.002t
(i) the nominal rate of interest per annum convertible half-yearly [2]
(ii) the nominal rate of discount per annum convertible quarterly [2]
(i) Calculate the amount the individual would need to invest at time t = 0 in
order to receive a continuous payment stream of $3,000 per annum from
time t = 4 to t = 10 . [6]
(ii) Calculate the equivalent constant annual effective rate of interest earned
by the individual in part (i). [3]
[Total 9]
(i) Calculate the annual effective rate of interest from the bill. [3]
(v) the present value of an annuity that is paid annually in advance for 10
years with a payment of 12 in the first year, 11 in the second year and
thereafter reducing by 1 each year. [2]
[Total 6]
(i) Calculate the present value of a unit sum of money due at time t = 28 .
[7]
A continuous payment stream is paid at the rate of e -0.04t per unit time
between t = 3 and t = 7 .
A 182-day treasury bill, redeemable at $100, was purchased for $96.50 at the
time of issue and later sold to another investor for $98 who held the bill to
maturity. The rate of return received by the initial purchaser was 4% per
annum effective.
(i) Calculate the length of time in days for which the initial purchaser held
the bill. [2]
(ii) Calculate the annual simple rate of return achieved by the second
investor. [2]
(iii) Calculate the annual effective rate of return achieved by the second
investor. [2]
[Total 6]
An investor pays £120 per annum into a savings account for 12 years. In the
first four years, the payments are made annually in advance. In the second
four years, the payments are made quarterly in advance. In the final four
years, the payments are made monthly in advance.
Ï0.08 for 0 £ t £ 4
Ô
d (t ) = Ì0.12 - 0.01t for 4 < t £ 9
Ô0.05 for t > 9
Ó
(i) Determine the discount factor, v (t ) , that applies at time t for all t ≥ 0 .
[5]
(iii) Calculate the present value of an annuity of £1,000 paid at the end of
each year for the first three years. [3]
[Total 12]
Calculate:
(a) the price that the investor must pay per £100 nominal.
(b) the annual simple rate of discount from the treasury bill. [3]
(ii) Explain why the nominal rate of interest per annum convertible monthly
calculated in part (i)(c) is less than the equivalent annual effective rate of
interest calculated in part (i)(b). [1]
Ï0.03 + 0.005t 0 £ t £ 3
d (t ) = Ì
Ó 0.005 t >3
(i) Determine the amount the individual would need to invest at time t = 0
in order to receive a continuous payment stream of £5,000 per annum
from time t = 3 to time t = 6 . [5]
(ii) Determine the equivalent constant annual effective rate of interest earned
by the individual in part (i). [3]
Ï 0.06 0£t £4
Ô
d (t ) = Ì 0.10 - 0.01t 4<t £7
Ô 0.01t - 0.04 7<t
Ó
(i) Calculate, showing all working, the value at time t = 5 of £10,000 due for
payment at time t = 10 . [5]
(ii) Calculate the constant rate of discount per annum convertible monthly
which leads to the same result as in part (i). [2]
[Total 7]
(iii) the equivalent nominal rate of discount per annum convertible monthly.
[2]
[Total 4]
Calculate the present value of a payment stream paid at a rate of €100 per
annum, monthly in advance for 12 years. [4]
(i) Calculate the annual simple rate of return which the initial purchaser
would have received if they had held the bill to maturity. [2]
(ii) Calculate the length of time in days for which the initial purchaser held
the bill. [2]
(iii) Calculate the annual effective rate of return achieved by the second
investor. [2]
[Total 6]
0.03 for 0 t 10
t a t for 10 t 20
b t for t 20
(iii) Calculate the equivalent annual effective rate of discount from time 0 to
time 28. [2]
(iv) (a) Calculate, showing all workings, the present value of the payment
stream.
(b) Determine the level continuous payment stream per annum from
time t = 3 to time t = 7 that would provide the same present value
as the answer in part (iv)(a) above. [8]
[Total 19]
Calculate the nominal rate of discount per annum convertible monthly which
is equivalent to:
(i) Calculate the time in days for £6,000 to accumulate to £7,600 at:
(ii) Calculate the effective rate of interest per half-year which is equivalent to
a force of interest of 3% per annum. [1]
[Total 7]
Calculate the annual simple rate of discount from the government bill if both
investments are to provide the same effective rate of return. [3]
In plan B, the company charges for expenses by deducting $15 from each of
the first year’s monthly contributions before they are invested. In addition it
deducts 0.3% from the annual effective rate of return.
Ï0.09 - 0.003t 0 £ t £ 10
d (t ) = Ì
Ó0.06 t > 10
(i) Calculate the corresponding constant effective annual rate of interest for
the period from t = 0 to t = 10. [4]
(ii) Express the rate of interest in part (i) as a nominal rate of discount per
annum convertible half-yearly. [1]
(iv) Calculate the corresponding constant effective annual rate of discount for
the period t = 5 to t = 15. [1]
Ê 7 ˆ Ê 10 ˆ
V5 = 1,000 exp Á - Ú (0.1 - 0.01t ) dt ˜ exp Á - Ú (0.01t - 0.04) dt ˜
Ë 5 ¯ Ë 7 ¯
Ê 7ˆ Ê 10 ˆ
= 1,000 exp Á - È0.1t - 0.005t 2 ˘ ˜ exp Á - È0.005t 2 - 0.04t ˘ ˜
Ë Î ˚5 ¯ Ë Î ˚7 ¯
60
Ê i (12) ˆ
806.54 Á1 + ˜ = 1,000 fi i (12) = 4.3077%
Ë 12 ¯
( )
4 Ê4 ˆ 4
4
V4 = Ú 100e0.02t exp Á Ú 0.06ds ˜ dt = Ú 100e0.02t exp ÈÎ0.06s ˘˚t dt
0 Ë t ¯ 0
4
= Ú 100e0.02t e0.24 - 0.06t dt
0
4
0.24
4
-0.04t 0.24
È e -0.04t ˘
= 100e Úe dt = 100e Í- ˙
0 ÎÍ 0.04 ˙˚0
=
100e0.24
0.04
( )
1 - e -0.04 ¥ 4 = 469.9052
5 12
1,000 exp 0.05 0.02t dt exp 0.15 dt
0 5
Now:
5 5
exp 0.05 0.02t dt exp 0.05t 0.01t 2
0
0
and:
12 12
exp 0.15 dt exp 0.15t 5
5
exp 0.15 12 0.15 5 exp( 1.05)
Hence:
1
d 1 e 1.55
12
12.12%
If the interest rate is fixed, the amount of each interest cashflow is known in
advance. If the interest rate is variable, the interest payments will be unknown
at outset.
If the interest rate is fixed over the term of the loan, the repayments will all be
for fixed amounts. If the interest rate varies, so will the repayment amounts.
(a) Length of time for which the initial purchaser held the bill
If the first investor sells the bill at time t years, his equation of value is:
Ê 97.89 ˆ
96 ¥ 1.05t = 97.89 fi t ln1.05 = ln Á
Ë 96 ¯˜
fi t = 0.400 years = 146 days
Let i be the annual simple rate of return earned by the second investor:
Ê 36 ˆ
97.89 Á1 + i = 100 fi i = 21.85%
Ë 365 ˜¯
Since d (t ) = a + bt 2 , we have:
n n
2
Ú d (t ) dt Ú (a + bt ) dt Èat + 1 bt 3 ˘
n
an + 31 bn 3
A(0, n ) = e 0 =e 0 = eÎ 3 ˚0 =e
Hence:
5a + 125
3
b = ln1.3 (1)
1,000
10a + 3
b = ln 2 (2)
(1) fi a= 1
5 (ln1.3 - 125
3 )
b = 0.04686
( ) ( )
60
i (12)
A(0,5) = 1.3 = 1 + 12
fi i (12) = 12 1.31/ 60 - 1 = 5.259%
A(5,10) =
A(0,10)
A(0,5)
fi e 5d = 2
1.3
fi d = 1
5
2
( ) = 8.616%
ln 1.3
È t ˘ Ï t ¸
v (t ) = exp Í - Ú 0.04 + 0.02s ds ˙ = exp Ì - È0.04s + 0.01s 2 ˘ ˝
Î ˚
ÎÍ 0 ˙˚ Ó ˛
0
{
= exp - È0.04t + 0.01t 2 ˘
Î ˚ }
If t ≥ 5 , the PV is:
ÏÔ 5 ¸Ô ÏÔ t ¸Ô
v (t ) = exp Ì - Ú 0.04 + 0.02s ds ˝ exp Ì - Ú 0.05 ds ˝
ÓÔ 0 Ô˛ ÓÔ 5 ˛Ô
{
= v (5) exp - ÎÈ0.05s ˚˘5
t
}
From the expression for 0 £ t < 5 , we have v (5) = exp {-0.45} . Hence:
1,000v (17) = 1,000 exp {-0.2 - 0.05 ¥ 17} = 1,000e -1.05 = £349.94
ÔÏ Ô¸
10 t 10
V6 = Ú 10e
0.01t
exp Ì - Ú 0.05 ds ˝ dt = Ú 10e0.01t exp {-0.05(t - 6)} dt
6 ÔÓ 6 Ô˛ 6
10
-0.04t 0.3
= Ú 10e e dt
6
10
È e -0.04t ˘
= 10e0.3 Í - ˙
ÎÍ 0.04 ˙˚ 6
=
10e0.3
0.04
(
-e -0.4 + e -0.24 )
= 39.24978
Using the second expression from part (i) with t = 6 , the PV at time 0 is:
0 20 Time
For 0 £ t £ 20 , we have:
t
- Ú 0.05 + 0.001s ds
v (t ) = e 0
2 t
= e -[0.05s + 0.0005s ]0
2
= e -0.05t - 0.0005t (1)
For t > 20
20 t
- Ú 0.05 + 0.001s ds - Ú 0.05 ds
v (t ) = e 0 e 20 (2)
The first integral is v (20) and so we can use equation (1) with t = 20 :
t
- Ú 0.05 ds
-0.05(20) - 0.0005(20)2
v (t ) = e e 20
-[0.05s ]t20
= e -1.2 e
= e -1.2 e -0.05t +1
= e -0.05t - 0.2
We have:
4 ¥ 25
Ê d (4) ˆ
100 Á1 - ˜ = 23.457
Ë 4 ¯
100
Ê d (4) ˆ
fi Á1 - ˜ = 0.23457 fi d (4) = 4 È1 - 0.234750.01 ˘ = 5.758% pa
Ë 4 ¯ Î ˚
We have:
– 0.015t
30e Payment stream
0.05 Force of interest
20 25 Time
25
25 Ú 0.05 ds
AV25 = Ú 30e -0.015t e t dt
20
25 25
= Ú 30e -0.015t e[0.05s ]t dt
20
25
= Ú 30e -0.015t e1.25 - 0.05t dt
20
25
= Ú 30e1.25 - 0.065t dt
20
25
È 30 ˘
=Í e1.25 - 0.065t ˙
Î -0.065 ˚20
30 È -0.375
=- e - e -0.05 ˘ = 121.819 , ie £121.82
0.065 Î ˚
5 2
A(3,5) = e Ú3
0.04 + 0.003t dt [0.04t + 0.003 t 3 ]53
=e 3 = e[0.325 - 0.147] = e0.178
A(5,7) = e Ú5
0.01+ 0.03tdt [0.01t + 0.03 t 2 ]75
=e 2 = e[0.805 - 0.425] = e0.380
Therefore:
( )
(12) 48
1,747.17 1 - d = 1,000
12
Rearranging:
1
È 48 ˘
1
(1 - )d (12)
12
Ê 1,000 ˆ 48
=Á
Ë 1,747.17 ¯˜
fi d (12)
= 12 Í1 - Ê 1,000 ˆ ˙ = 0.138692
Í ÁË 1,747.17 ˜¯ ˙
Î ˚
The discount factor for a 91-day period using a simple rate of discount of 8%
is:
91
1 - nd = 1 - 365 ¥ 0.08 = 0.980055
The discount factor for the same period using an effective rate of interest is:
- 365
91
(1 + i )
- 365
91
(1 + i ) = 0.980055 fi i = 8.42% pa
8,000 pa 3,000 pa
Q per quarter payable monthly payable monthly
61 65 68 78
The PV (at age 61) of the quarterly payments made to purchase the annuity
is:
4Qa(4)
4
Equating these:
5
Ú (a + bt ) dt
45 e0 = 55
5
Èat + 1 bt 2 ˘
45 eÎ 2 ˚0 = 55
55 Ê 55 ˆ
fi e5a +12.5b = fi 5a + 12.5b = ln Á ˜ (1)
45 Ë 45 ¯
We also know that £55 at time 5 accumulates to £120 by time 10, so:
10
Ú (a + bt ) dt
55 e 5 = 120
10
Èat + 1 bt 2 ˘
55 eÎ 2 ˚5 = 120
120 Ê 120 ˆ
fi e(10a + 50b ) -(5a +12.5b ) = fi 5a + 37.5b = ln Á (2)
55 Ë 55 ˜¯
Ê 120 ˆ Ê 55 ˆ
25b = ln Á - ln Á ˜ fi b = 0.0231795
Ë 55 ˜¯ Ë 45 ¯
1 Ê Ê 55 ˆ ˆ
a= ln - 12.5b˜ fi a = -0.0178146
5 ÁË ÁË 45 ˜¯ ¯
1 Ê 120 ˆ
45e10d = 120 fi d = ln = 9.808%
10 ÁË 45 ˜¯
5 2 8 10
PV = £1,000e Ú0
- 0.04 + 0.003t dt - Ú5 0.01+ 0.03tdt - Ú8 0.02dt
e e
-[0.04t + 0.003 t 3 ]05 -[0.01t + 0.03 t 2 ]58 -[0.02t ]10
= £1,000e 3 e 2 e 8
( )
40
1,000 1 - d ( 4) = 375.31 fi d (4) = 9.681%
4
t
18 0.01t - Ú10 0.02ds
Value at time 10 = Ú10 100e e dt
18 t
0.01t -ÈÎ0.02s ˚˘ 10
= Ú10 100e e dt
18 0.01t -(0.02t - 0.2)
= Ú10 100e e dt
18 0.2 - 0.01t
= Ú10 100e dt
18
= 100e0.2 Ú e -0.01t dt
10
18
È e -0.01t ˘
= 100e0.2 Í ˙
ÎÍ -0.01 ˚˙10
= 849.6958
PV = 849.6958 ¥ v (10)
= 849.6958 ¥ e -0.98
= 318.900
(1 - )
91
91 - 365
365
¥ d = 1.04 fi d = 3.903% pa
4 -4
Ê d (4) ˆ -1 Ê 0.08 ˆ
Á1 - ˜ = 1 - d = v = (1 + i ) fi i = Á1 - - 1 = 8.4166%
Ë 4 ¯ Ë 4 ˜¯
i = 8.417%
If 0 £ t £ 9 :
Ê t ˆ Ê È 0.01 2 ˘ ˆ
t
v (t ) = exp Á - Ú 0.03 + 0.01u du ˜ = exp Á - Í0.03u + u ˙ ˜
Ë 0 ¯ ËÁ Î 2 ˚0 ¯˜
If t > 9 :
Ê t ˆ
v (t ) = exp( -0.03 ¥ 9 - 0.005 ¥ 92 ) exp Á - Ú 0.06 du ˜
Ë 9 ¯
(
= exp( -0.27 - 0.405) exp - ÈÎ0.06u ˘˚9
t
)
= exp( -0.675) exp( -0.06t + 0.54)
= exp( -0.06t - 0.135)
We can use the expression from part (i) to answer this question:
( )
15 15
-0.02t t -0.02t -0.06t + 0.66
PV11 = Ú 100e exp - ÎÈ0.06u ˚˘11 dt = Ú 100e e dt
11 11
15
15
-0.08t
È e -0.08t ˘
= 100e0.66 Úe dt = 100e0.66 Í ˙
11 ÍÎ -0.08 ˙˚11
=
-0.08
e (
100e0.66 -1.2
)
- e -0.88 = 274.713
However, we require the present value at time 0, so we again need to use the
expression from part (i) of the question:
Ê 10 ˆ
50 exp Á Ú 0.07 dt ˜ = 50e0.21 = 61.6839
Ë7 ¯
Ê6 10 ˆ
100 exp Á Ú 0.1 - 0.005t dt + Ú 0.07 dt ˜
Ë0 6 ¯
Ê 6 10 ˆ
= 100 exp Á È 0.1t - 0.0025t 2 ˘ + ÈÎ0.07t ˘˚ 6 ˜ = 100 e0.79 = 220.3396
Ë Î ˚ 0 ¯
15
0.05t
Ê t ˆ
PV12 = Ú 50 e exp Á - Ú 0.07 ds ˜ dt
12 Ë 12 ¯
( )
15
0.05t t
= Ú 50 e exp -[0.07s ]12 dt
12
15
0.05t -0.07t + 0.84
= Ú 50 e e dt
12
15
È e0.84 - 0.02t ˘
( )
15
0.84 - 0.02t 0.6 0.54
= 50 Ú e dt = 50 Í ˙ = 2,500 e - e
12 ÎÍ -0.02 ˙˚12
Ê 12 ˆ
(
PV6 = PV12 ¥ exp Á - Ú 0.07 dt ˜ = 2,500 e0.6 - e0.54 ¥ e -0.07 ¥ 6
Ë 6 ¯
)
(
= 2,500 e0.18 - e0.12 )
Hence the value at t = 0 is:
Ê 6 ˆ
PV0 = PV6 ¥ exp Á - Ú 0.1 - 0.005t dt ˜
Ë 0 ¯
( Ê
)
6ˆ
= 2,500 e0.18 - e0.12 ¥ exp Á - È0.1t - 0.0025t 2 ˘ ˜
Ë Î ˚ 0¯
= 2,500 (e 0.18
- e0.12 )¥e -0.51
= 2,500 (e -0.33
- e -0.39)
= £104.67
i 0.045
d= = = 4.306%
1 + i 1.045
1 1
- 12 - 12
d (12) = 12(1 - (1 + i ) ) = 12(1 - 1.045 ) = 4.394%
1 1
i (4) = 4((1 + i ) 4 - 1) = 4(1.045 4 - 1) = 4.426%
1
(1 + i ) 5 = 1.045 fi i = 1.0455 - 1 = 24.62%
Ê t2 ˆ
A(t1, t2 ) = exp Á Ú 0.05 + 0.002t dt ˜
ÁË t ˜¯
1
t2
= exp È0.05t + 0.001t 2 ˘
Î ˚t1
(
= exp 0.05(t2 - t1 ) + 0.001(t22 - t12 ) )
(a) From time 0 to time 7
( )
A(0,7) = exp 0.05(7 - 0) + 0.001(72 - 0) = e0.399 = 1.4903
( )
A(0,6) = exp 0.05(6 - 0) + 0.001(62 - 0) = e0.336 = 1.3993
A(0,7) e 0.399
A(6,7) = = = e0.063 = 1.0650
A(0,6) e 0.336
10
-0.01t + 0.001t 2
Ê t ˆ
PV3 = Ú 30e exp Á - Ú 0.05 + 0.002u du ˜ dt
3 Ë 3 ¯
10
-0.01t + 0.001t 2 Ê t ˆ
PV3 = Ú 30e exp Á - È0.05u + 0.001u 2 ˘ ˜ dt
3
Ë Î ˚3 ¯
10
( 2
-0.01t + 0.001t 2 - 0.05( t - 3) + 0.001( t - 9) ) dt
= Ú 30e e
3
10
-0.06t
= 30e0.159 Úe dt
3
10
0.159
È e -0.06t ˘
= 30e Í ˙
ÎÍ -0.06 ˙˚3
= 167.913
Ê 3 ˆ
PV0 = 167.913 exp Á - Ú 0.05 + 0.002t dt ˜
Ë 0 ¯
Ê 3ˆ
= 167.913 exp Á - È0.05t + 0.001t 2 ˘ ˜
Ë Î ˚ 0¯
= 167.913e -0.159
= 143.229
900 (1 + i )
1/ 3
= 925 fi i = 0.085670
d (4) = 4 È1 - (1 + i )
-¼ ˘
= 4 È1 - (1.085670)
-¼ ˘
= 8.14% pa (3 SF)
ÎÍ ˚˙ ÎÍ ˚˙
Ê 1 ˆ
900 Á1 + i ˜ = 925 fi i = 8.33% pa (3 SF)
Ë 3 ¯
1 - e -2d 1 - e -4d
a d = 7% = = 1.866311 a d = 9% = = 3.359152
2 d 4 d
We now need to discount this back to time zero. The discount factor from time
four to time zero will be:
4
- Ú 0.03 + 0.01s ds - È0.03s + 0.005s 2 ˘
4
- ÈÎ0.12 + 0.08˘˚
v (4) = e 0 =e Î ˚0 =e = e -0.2
We now need to solve the equation of value for the equivalent constant rate:
1- v6
ie: v4 ¥ = 3.918951
d
4.0107 - 3.918951
0.06 + ¥ (0.07 - 0.06) = 0.063692
4.0107 - 3.7622
365
Ê 100 ˆ
98.83 (1 + i )
91/365 91
= 100 fi 1+ i = Á fi i = 4.834% pa
Ë 98.83 ˜¯
Ê 91i ˆ
98.83 Á1 + = 100 fi i = 4.748% pa
Ë 365 ˜¯
1- v5 1 - 1.05 -5 1 - 1.05 -5
(i) a(12) = = = = 4.42782
5 i (12) 12 È(1.05 )
1/12
- 1˘ 0.0488895
ÎÍ ˚˙
1 - 1.05-15
(ii) 4| a15 = v 4 ¥ a15 = 1.05-4 ¥ = 8.53937 .
0.05
1 - 1.05 -10
a10 - 10v 10 -1
- 10 ¥ 1.05 -10
-
(iii) (Ia )10 =
d
= 1 1.05
ln1.05
= 40.35012
1 - 1.05 -10
a10 - 10v 10 - 10 ¥ 1.05 -10
(iv) (Ia) 10
=
d
= ln1.05
ln1.05
= 36.36135
PV = 12 + 11v + 10v 2 + + 3v 9
( ) (
= 13 1 + + v 9 - 1 + 2v + 3v 2 + + 10v 9 )
= 13a10 - (Ia)10
1 - 1.05 -10
-10 - 10 ¥ 1.05 -10
1 - 1.05 -1
= 13 ¥ - 1 - 1.05
1 - 1.05 -1 1 - 1.05 -1
= 13 ¥ 8.10782 - 41.34247
= 64.05921
10 20 28
- Ú 0.03 dt - Ú 0.003t dt - Ú 0.0001t 2 dt
PV = e 0 ¥e 10 ¥e 20
10
10
Ú 0.03 dt = ÈÎ0.03t ˘˚0 = 0.3
0
( )
20 20
Ú 0.003t dt = È0.0015t 2 ˘ = 0.0015 202 - 102 = 0.45
Î ˚10
10
and:
28
È t3 ˘
( )
28
2 0.0001 3 3
Ú 0.0001t dt = Í0.0001 3 ˙ = 3 28 - 20 = 0.46507
20 Í
Î ˙
˚20
e -28d = 0.29669
ln 0.29669
Solving this equation, we find that d = = 0.04340 , or 4.34% pa.
-28
We have:
d = 1 - v = 1 - e -d = 1 - e -0.04340 = 0.04247
7 7
PV = Ú e -0.04t e -0.03t dt = Ú e -0.07t dt
3 3
7
È e -0.07t ˘ e -0.49 - e -0.21
=Í ˙ = = 2.82797
ÎÍ -0.07 ˙˚3 -0.07
We have:
96.5 ¥ 1.04t = 98
Since the original investor held the bill for 144 days, the bill was held by the
second investor for 182 - 144 = 38 days. So the simple rate of return
experienced by the second investor is the solution of the equation:
Ê 38 ˆ
98 Á1 + ¥ i = 100
Ë 365 ˜¯
Ê 100 ˆ 365
i =Á - 1˜ ¥ = 0.19603
Ë 98 ¯ 38
98 (1 + i )
38/365
= 100
38
log 98 + log (1 + i ) = log100
365
log100 - log 98
log (1 + i ) = = 0.19405
38 / 365
This gives:
i = e0.19405 - 1 = 0.21416
1.032 - 1 = 6.09%
Evaluating the various factors using an effective interest rate of 6.09% pa, we
obtain:
s4 =
(1 + i )4 - 1 = 1.06094 - 1
= 4.647231
d 0.0609 / 1.0609
s(4) =
(1 + i )4 - 1 = 1.06094 - 1 = 4.545960
4 d (4) 0.058683
and:
s(12) =
(1 + i )4 - 1 = 1.06094 - 1 = 4.523657
4 d (12) 0.058972
or about £2,128.77.
È t ˘ È t ˘
v (t ) = exp Í - Ú d (s ) ds ˙ = exp Í - Ú 0.08 ds ˙ = e -0.08t
ÎÍ 0 ˙˚ ÎÍ 0 ˙˚
È Ê4 t ˆ˘
v (t ) = exp Í - Á Ú 0.08 ds + Ú 0.12 - 0.01s ds ˜ ˙
Í Ë0 ¯ ˙˚
Î 4
È Êt ˆ˘
= v (4) exp Í - Á Ú 0.12 - 0.01s ds ˜ ˙
Í Ë4 ¯ ˙˚
Î
È Êt ˆ˘
v (t ) = exp ÎÈ -0.32 ˚˘ exp Í - Á Ú 0.12 - 0.01s ds ˜ ˙
Í Ë4 ¯ ˙˚
Î
È t ˘
= exp ÎÈ -0.32 ˚˘ exp Í - È0.12s - 0.005s 2 ˘ ˙
Î Î ˚ 4˚
È Ê4 9 t ˆ˘
v (t ) = exp Í - Á Ú 0.08 ds + Ú 0.12 - 0.01s ds + Ú 0.05 ds ˜ ˙
Í Ë0 ¯ ˙˚
Î 4 9
È t ˘
= v (9) exp Í - Ú 0.05 ds ˙
ÍÎ 9 ˙˚
= e -0.145 - 0.05t
Ïe -0.08t 0£t £4
Ô
Ô 2
v (t ) = Ìe0.08 - 0.12t +0.005t 4<t £9
Ô -0.145 -0.05t
ÔÓe t >9
12 12
Ú 100e
0.03t
v (t ) dt = Ú 100e
0.03t
e -0.145 - 0.05t dt
10 10
12
= 100e -0.145 Ú e -0.02t dt
10
12
È e -0.02t ˘
= 100e -0.145 Í ˙
ÍÎ -0.02 ˙˚10
= 5, 000e -0.145 (e -0.2 - e -0.24 )
= 138.85
(iii) Annuity
1, 000 ÈÎv (1) + v (2) + v (3)˘˚ = 1, 000 Èe -0.08 + e -0.16 + e -0.24 ˘ = £2, 561.89
Î ˚
(a) Price
P = 100v 91 365
= 100 ¥ 1.03 - 91 365
= £99.27
91
1.03 - 91 365 = 1 - d
365
d=
365
91
( )
1 - 1.03 - 91 365 = 2.945%
0.055 = 12 È1 - (1 + i )-1 12 ˘
Î ˚
-12
Ê 0.055 ˆ
(1 + i ) = Á1 - fi i = 0.0566742 = 5.667% pa
Ë 12 ˜¯
d = ln1.0566742 = 5.513% pa
(ii) Explain
Since interest is earned on the payments received earlier in the year this
means that a smaller rate is required to accumulate them to the same amount,
i , at the end of the year.
159(1 - d )8 = 100
Rearranging gives:
18
Ê 100 ˆ
d = 1- Á = 5.632% pa
Ë 159 ˜¯
(1 + i )2 = 1.121
fi i = 1.12½ - 1 = 5.830% pa
t
6 - Ú 0.005 ds
PV3 = Ú 5,000e 3 dt
3
6 t
= Ú 5,000e -[0.005s ]3 dt
3
6
= Ú 5,000e -0.005t + 0.015 dt
3
6
È 5,000 -0.005t + 0.015 ˘
=Í e ˙
Î -0.005 ˚3
= -1,000,000 Èe -0.015 - e0 ˘
Î ˚
= £14,888
3
- Ú 0.03 + 0.005t dt
PV0 = 14,888e 0
3
- È0.03t + 0.0025t 2 ˘
Î ˚0
= 14,888e
= 14,888e -0.1125
= £13,304
i = 2% fi LHS = 13,723
i = 3% fi LHS = 13,136
13,304 - 13,723
i = 2% + (3% - 2%) = 2.71% pa
13,136 - 13,723
(iii) Accumulation
AV = 300 A(0,3)A(3,50)
3 50
Ú 0.03 + 0.005t dt Ú 0.005 dt
= 300e 0 e3
3
È0.03t + 0.0025t 2 ˘ È0.005t ˘50
= 300e Î ˚0 Î
e ˚3
0.1125 0.235
= 300e e
= £424.66
We need to discount back from time 10 to time 7 using the force function
d (t ) = 0.01t - 0.04 , and then back from time 7 to time 5 using the force
function d (t ) = 0.10 - 0.01t :
È 10 ˘ È 7 ˘
PV = 10,000exp Í - Ú 0.01t - 0.04 dt ˙ ¥ exp Í - Ú 0.10 - 0.01t dt ˙
ÎÍ 7 ˚˙ ÎÍ 5 ˙˚
10 10
Ú 0.01t - 0.04 dt = ÈÎ0.005t - 0.04t ˘
2
˚7
7
= (0.5 - 0.4 ) - (0.245 - 0.28 ) = 0.135
7 7
Ú 0.10 - 0.01t dt = ÈÎ0.10t - 0.005t
2˘
˚5
5
= (0.7 - 0.245) - (0.5 - 0.125) = 0.08
10,000v 5 = 8,065.41
v = 0.957911
12
È d (12) ˘
Using Í1 - ˙ = 1 - d = v = 0.957911 and rearranging, we find that:
ÎÍ 12 ˚˙
ed /4 = 1.0125
d = 4log1.0125 = 0.04969
We have:
4
Ê 0.05 ˆ
1 + i = Á1 + = 1.05095
Ë 4 ˜¯
We have:
d ( p ) = p È1 - (1 - d )
1/ p ˘
= p È1 - (1 + i )
-1/ p ˘
ÍÎ ˙˚ ÍÎ ˙˚
So:
d (12) = 12 È1 - (1.05095)
-1/12 ˘
= 0.04959
ÍÎ ˙˚
PV = 100 a(12)
12
4 4
Ê i (4) ˆ Ê 0.02 ˆ
i = Á1 + ˜ - 1 = ÁË1 + ˜ - 1 = 1.02015 - 1 = 0.02015
Ë 4 ¯ 4 ¯
1
From this, v = = 0.98025 . So:
1.02015
d (12) = 12 È1 - (1 - d )
1/12 ˘
= 12 È1 - 0.980251/12 ˘ = 0.01993
ÎÍ ˚˙ Î ˚
1 - v 12 1 - 1.02015 -12
PV = 100 a(12) = 100 ¥ (12)
= 100 ¥ = 1,068.0543
12 d 0.01993
A fixed amount is borrowed at the start of the term; repayments are made
regularly (often monthly) over the period of the loan.
The repayments are usually level but could vary (eg increase or decrease
in a specified way).
Repayments are made up partly of interest and partly of capital
repayment.
Over time, the interest component of each payment will decrease, and
the capital repayment component will increase.
The interest rate may be fixed for the term (or part of the term), but is
more usually variable.
A repayment mortgage will be secured on the value of the relevant
property (ie if the borrower defaults, the lender will be able to take and
sell the property to repay the loan).
The interest rate will be based on the general level of interest rates,
although the creditworthiness of the borrower may also be taken into
account.
The loan may be allowed to be repaid early.
Using a simple rate of interest, and using a denominator of 365 for the number
of days in 2015, we have:
Writing down an equation of value for the actual holding period, n , using the
simple rate of interest of 3.5% pa and working in years, we have:
Converting this into days (again using 365 days in a year), we have a time
period of 162.946 days, or say 163 days.
If the initial purchaser held the bond for 163 days, the second investor held it
for 182 - 163 = 19 days. So the equation of value for the second investor is
(using an effective rate of interest):
97.50 (1 + i )
19/365
= 100
365/19
Ê 100 ˆ
i =Á - 1 = 0.62640
Ë 97.50 ˜¯
(i) Calculate a
20
-0.03 ¥10
- Ú at dt
50 = 100 e ¥e 10
20
È1 ˘
- Í at 2 ˙
Î2 ˚ 10
= 100 e -0.3 ¥ e
= 100 e - (0.3 +150a )
Taking logs:
- ln0.5 - 0.3
a= = 0.00262
150
(ii) Calculate b
Discounting again:
28
- Ú bt dt
40 = 100e -0.3e -150ae 20
28
È1 ˘
- Í bt 2 ˙
-(0.3 +150 ¥ 0.00262) Î 2 ˚20
= 100e e
-0.69315 -192b
= 100e
- ln0.4 - 0.69315
b= = 0.00116
192
7 7
-0.03t
Úe ¥ e -0.04t dt = Ú e -0.07t dt
3 3
7
È e -0.07t ˘
=Í ˙
ÎÍ -0.07 ˙˚3
e -0.49 - e -0.21
=
-0.07
= 2.82797
7
7
-0.03t
È e -0.03t ˘ e -0.21 - e -0.09
Úk e dt = k Í ˙ = k = 3.44490k
3 ÎÍ -0.03 ˙˚3 -0.03
2.82797
k= = 0.82092
3.44490
So the equivalent level payment stream should be made at a rate of 0.821 pa.
i 1.014 1 4.0604%
So:
d (12) 12 1 1.0406041 12 3.974%
i e 1 e0.05 1 5.1271%
So:
d (12) 12 1 1.0512711 12 4.990%
4
d (4) 4
i 1 1 1 0.01 1 4.1020%
4
So:
d (12) 12 1 1.0410201 12 4.013%
Assuming a time period t (in years) for the investment, the equation of value
is:
6,000 (1 + ti ) = 7,600
Ê 7,600 ˆ
ÁË 6,000 ˜¯ - 1
t= = 8.88889
0.03
We now have:
Taking logs:
7,600
t log1.03 =
6,000
So:
We now have:
6,000e0.03t = 7,600
1 Ê 7,600 ˆ
t= ln = 7.87963
0.03 ÁË 6,000 ˜¯
Converting to days:
The effective rate of interest per half-year is the value of i which is the solution
of the equation:
(1 + i )2 = e0.03
Solving this equation to find i :
i = e0.03/2 - 1 = 0.01511
Using a simple rate of discount of d , the discounting factor over 91 days for
the government bill is:
91
1- d
365
v 91/365 = 1.03-91/365 .
91
1- d = 1.03 -91/365
365
Rearranging:
365 È
d= 1 - 1.03 -91/365 ˘ = 0.02945
91 Î ˚
Consider first Plan A. The accumulated value at the end of 15 years for the
cashflows under Plan A (using a reduced interest rate of 3% pa effective) is:
Now consider the cashflows under Plan B. The net cashflows after expenses
in the first year are $85 per month, or $1,020 for the whole year. So the
accumulated value of the first year’s cashflows at the end of the first year is:
1,020 s(12)
1
Ê (1 + i ) - 1ˆ
1,020 s(12) ¥ 1.03714 = 1,020 ¥ Á ˜ ¥ 1.037
14
1
Ë d (12) ¯
0.037
= 1,020 ¥ ¥ 1.03714 = 1,730.108
0.03628
Hence the accumulated value for Plan B is greater by $982.94, and the
percentage by which Plan B is bigger is:
982.94
= 4.334%
22,679.74
or about 4.33%.
Accumulating from time zero to time 10 using the variable force, we get:
È10 ˘ È 10 ˘
A(0,10) = exp Í Ú 0.09 - 0.003t dt ˙ = exp Í È0.09t - 0.0015t 2 ˘ ˙
ÍÎ 0 ˙˚ Î Î ˚ 0 ˚
(1 + i )10 = e0.75
Solving this equation, we find that:
-2
Ê d (2) ˆ
1 + i = Á1 - ˜ = 1.07788
Ë 2 ¯
Rearranging this:
The accumulation factor from time 5 to time 10, using the variable force, is
given by:
È10 ˘ È 10 ˘
exp Í Ú 0.09 - 0.003t dt ˙ = exp Í È0.09t - 0.0015t 2 ˘ ˙
ÍÎ 5 ˙˚ Î Î ˚ 5 ˚
or about £2,837.62.
We know that:
Rearranging this:
1/10
Ê 1,500 ˆ
d = 1- Á = 0.06176
Ë 2,837.618 ˜¯
The force of interest for a period from time 11 to time t , where t is between
11 and 15, is just 0.06. So the discount factor v (t ) is just v (t ) = e -0.06(t -11) .
15 15
PV11 = Ú 10 e
0.01t
¥ e -0.06(t -11) dt = 10 e0.66 Úe
-0.05t
dt
11 11
15
È e -0.05t ˘ È Ê e -0.75 ˆ Ê e -0.55 ˆ ˘
= 10 e0.66 Í ˙ = 10 e0.66 Í Á ˜ -Á ˜ ˙ = 40.46938
ÎÍ -0.05 ˙˚11 ÍÎ Ë -0.05 ¯ Ë -0.05 ¯ ˙˚
FACTSHEET
This factsheet summarises the main methods, formulae and information
required for tackling questions on the topics in this booklet.
1
The discount factor, v , is .
1+ i
The discount factor for a period of n years using a simple rate of discount d
is 1 - nd .
2 Interest rates
A(t , t + h ) - 1
The definition of the force of interest d (t ) is lim .
h Æ0 + h
È t2 ˘
The accumulation factor from time t1 to time t 2 is A(t1, t 2 ) = exp Í Ú d (t ) dt ˙ .
Ít ˙
Î1 ˚
Correspondingly, the discount factor from time t 2 to time t1 is
È t2 ˘
exp Í - Ú d (t ) dt ˙ .
Í t ˙
Î 1 ˚
b È t ˘
Ú r (t ) exp Í - Ú d (s ) ds ˙ dt
ÍÎ ˙˚
a a
b Èb ˘
Ú r (t ) exp ÍÍ Ú d (s ) ds ˙˙ dt
a Ît ˚
i = ed - 1 , d = ln(1 + i ) , v = e -d and 1 - d = e -d .
p
Ê i ( p) ˆ Ê 1
ˆ
1 + i = Á1 + ˜ i ( p ) = p Á (1 + i ) p - 1˜
Ë p ¯ Ë ¯
p
Ê d ( p) ˆ Ê 1
ˆ
1 - d = Á1 - ˜ d ( p ) = p Á1 - (1 - d ) p ˜
Ë p ¯ Ë ¯
3 Annuities
1- v n
an =
i
1- v n
an =
d
The connections between these values are an = (1 + i )an and an = 1 + an -1 .
(1 + i )n - 1
sn = = (1 + i )n an
i
(1 + i )n - 1
sn = = (1 + i )n an
d
The connections between these values are sn = (1 + i )sn , and sn + 1 = sn +1 .
1- v n
an =
d
(1 + i )n - 1
sn = = (1 + i )n an
d
for a( p ) is:
n
1- v n i
a( p ) = = an
n i (p) i ( p)
1- v n i
a( p ) = ( p ) = ( p ) an
n d d
1
The connection between these values is a( p ) = v p a( p ) .
n n
(1 + i )n - 1 i (1 + i )n - 1 i
s( p ) = = (1 + i )n an , s( p ) = = (1 + i )n ( p ) an
n i ( p) i ( p) n d (p)
d
m| an = am +n - am = v man
m| an
= a
m +n
- am = v man m|an = am + n - am = v man
( p)
m| an = a( p ) - a( p ) = v ma( p ) ( p )
m|an = a( p ) - a( p ) = v ma( p )
m +n m n m +n m n
an - nv n
(Ia )n =
i
an - nv n
(Ia)n =
d
an - nv n
(Ia )n =
d
an - nv n
( I a )n =
d
(Is )n = (1 + i )n (Ia)n
m|(Ia)n = v m (Ia)n
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
Subject CM1
Revision Notes
For the 2019 exams
covering
CONTENTS
Contents Page
Links to the Course Notes and Syllabus 2
Overview 3
Core Reading 5
Past Exam Questions 17
Solutions to Past Exam Questions 29
Factsheet 54
Copyright agreement
Legal action will be taken if these terms are infringed. In addition, we may
seek to take disciplinary action through the profession or through your
employer.
These conditions remain in force after you have finished using the course.
These chapter numbers refer to the 2019 edition of the ActEd course notes.
The numbering of the syllabus items is the same as that used by the Institute
and Faculty of Actuaries.
OVERVIEW
This booklet covers Syllabus objectives 3.1.1 to 3.1.3 and 3.2.1, which relate
to equations of value and loan schedules.
Breakdown of topics
The chapter on equations of value forms the foundation for the later chapters
of this course. For any investment, the equation of value is:
PV income = PV outgo
the amount of each repayment, given the initial loan amount and the
interest rate
the amount borrowed, given the amount of the repayments and the
interest rate
the amount outstanding just after a repayment has been made
the interest component of each instalment
the capital component of each instalment
the total capital and interest repaid over a series of instalments
the APR of a loan.
We have to be able to do all of the above when the repayments are level,
increasing or decreasing, and when the repayments are annual or more
frequent than annual. The procedure is similar in each case – you just have
to be careful with the details. When dealing with simple increasing or
decreasing repayments, you work with increasing or decreasing annuities.
When dealing with compound increasing or decreasing repayments, you
adjust the rate of interest and use a level annuity approach, or rely on
geometric progressions to sum the series from first principles.
Exam questions
There are no exam questions simply on equations of value, since this is just
foundation work for other chapters.
However, most exam papers contain a question on loans. You are likely to
be asked to calculate several of the items listed above.
CORE READING
All of the Core Reading for the topics covered in this booklet is contained in
this section.
____________
1 At force of interest d the two series are of equal value if and only if:
n n
 atr e -d tr =  btr e -d tr
r =1 r =1
n
 ctr e -d tr =0 (1.1)
r =1
where ctr = btr - atr is the amount of the net cashflow at time t r . (We
adopt the convention that a negative cashflow corresponds to a
payment by the investor and a positive cashflow represents a payment
to the investor.)
____________
n
 ctr (1 + i )-tr =0 (1.2)
r =1
The latter form is known as the equation of value for the rate of interest
or the ‘yield equation’. Alternatively, the equation may be written as:
n
 ctr v tr =0
r =1
____________
•
Ú0 r (t )e -d t dt = 0
____________
n •
 ctr e -d tr + Ú0 r (t )e -d t dt = 0 (1.3)
r =1
n •
 ctr (1 + i )-tr + Ú0 r (t )(1 + i )-t dt = 0 (1.4)
r =1
____________
6 For any given transaction, Equation (1.3) may have no roots, a unique
root, or several roots.
7 Alternative terms for the yield are the ‘internal rate of return’ and the
‘money-weighted rate of return’ for the transaction.
____________
8 Thus the yield is defined if and only if Equation (1.4) has precisely one
root greater than 1 and, when such a root exists, it is the yield.
n
 ctr (1 + i )t0 -tr =0
r =1
This slightly more general form may be called the equation of value at
time t0 . It is of course directly equivalent to the original equation
(which is now seen to be the equation of value at time 0). In certain
problems a particular choice of t0 may simplify the solution.
____________
n •
 pt ctr (1 + i )-tr + Ú0 p(t ) r (t )(1 + i )-t dt = 0 (2.1)
r =1
Where the force of interest is constant, and we can say that the
probability is itself in the form of a discounting function, then Equation
(1.3) can be generalised as:
n •
 ctr e -d tr e - mtr + Ú0 r (t )e -d t e - m t dt = 0 (2.2)
r =1
n •
 ctr e -d ¢tr + Ú0 r (t )e -d ¢t dt = 0
r =1
15 At time 1 the interest due on the loan of £1,000 is £70. The total
payment made is £381.05. This leaves £311.05 that is available to
repay some of the capital. The capital outstanding after this is then
£(1, 000 - 311.05) = £688.95 .
One important point is that each repayment must pay first for interest
due on the outstanding capital. The balance is then used to repay
some of the capital outstanding. Each payment therefore comprises
both interest and capital repayment. It may be necessary to identify
the separate elements of the payments – for example if the tax
treatment of interest and capital differs. Notice also that, where
repayments are level, the interest component of the repayment
instalments will decrease as capital is repaid, with the consequence
that the capital payment will increase.
L0 = X 1v + X 2v 2 + + X nv n (2.1)
____________
bn = iLn -1 ; fn = Ln -1
so that:
X n = iLn -1 + Ln -1 = (1 + i )Ln -1 fi Ln -1 = X nv
____________
Lt = (Lt +1 + X t +1)v
= ((Lt + 2 + X t + 2 )v + X t +1)v = X t +1v + X t + 2v 2 + Lt + 2v 2
= X t +1v + X t + 2v 2 + X t + 3v 3 + Lt + 3v 3
=
= X t +1v + X t + 2v 2 + X t + 3v 3 + + X nv n -t
Note the condition for this method – the present value must be
calculated at a repayment date.
____________
L1 = L0 - ( X 1 - iL0 ) = L0 (1 + i ) - X 1
____________
Lt = Lt -1(1 + i ) - X t
Lt = Lt -1(1 + i ) - X t
= (Lt - 2 (1 + i ) - X t -1)(1 + i ) - X t = Lt - 2 (1 + i )2 - X t -1(1 + i ) - X t
=
= Lo (1 + i )t - ( X 1(1 + i )t -1 + X 2 (1 + i )t - 2 + + X t -1(1 + i ) + X t )
Given the outstanding capital at any time we can calculate the interest
and capital element of any instalment.
22 The interest due on capital of Lt -1 for one unit of time at effective rate i
per time unit is iLt -1 , and this is the interest paid at t.
____________
t +5
 bk = ( X t +1 + X t + 2 + + X t + 5 ) - (Lt - Lt + 5 )
k = t +1
____________
Year Capital
Loan Instalment Int due Loan
r Æ r +1 repaid at
o/s at r at r + 1 at r + 1 o/s at r + 1
r +1
L1
0Æ1 L0 X1 iL0 X 1 - iL0 = L0 - ( X 1 - iL0 )
Lt +1
t Æ t +1 Lt X t +1 iLt X t +1 - iLt = Lt - ( X t +1 - iLt )
n - 1Æ n Ln -1 Xn iLn -1 X n - iLn -1 0
If the rate of interest used is effective over the same time unit as the
frequency of the repayment instalments, then the calculations proceed
exactly as above, with the time unit redefined appropriately.
26 L0 = X 1/ pv 1/ p + X 2 / pv 2 / p + X 3 / pv 3 / p + + X nv n
It is easy to show that the two basic principles for calculating the loan
outstanding hold when repayments are more frequent than annual.
That is, the loan outstanding at any repayment date, immediately after
an instalment has been paid, may still be calculated as the present
value of the remaining repayment instalments, or as the accumulated
value of the original loan less the repayments made to date.
____________
27 Prospectively:
Lt = X t +1/ pv 1/ p + X t + 2 / pv 2 / p + + X nv n -t
____________
28 Retrospectively:
Lt = L0 (1 + i )t - ( X 1/ p (1 + i )t -1/ p + X 2 / p (1 + i )t - 2 / p
+ X 3 / p (1 + i )t - 3 / p + + X t -1/ p (1 + i )1/ p + X t )
____________
1
30 The interest due at t + p
, given capital outstanding of Lt at some
i ( p)
ft +1/ p = X t +1/ p - ((1 + i )1/ p - 1)Lt = X t +1/ p - Lt
p
____________
This affects the interest rate being advertised for a loan. Moreover,
loans may have additional costs, such as opening costs or display
simpler rates (for example, 1% daily for a pay-day loan). Since such an
advertised rate ignores the effects of compounding or other costs, it
will be considerably lower than the true effective rate of interest
charged on the loan.
Solutions are given later in this booklet. These give enough information for
you to check your answer, including working, and also show you what an
adequate examination answer should look like. Further information may be
available in the Examiners’ Report, ASET or Course Notes. (ASET can be
ordered from ActEd.)
We first provide you with a cross reference grid that indicates the main
subject areas of each exam question. You can use this, if you wish, to
select the questions that relate just to those aspects of the topic that you
may be particularly interested in reviewing.
Alternatively you can choose to ignore the grid, and instead attempt each
question without having any clues as to its content.
Loan outstanding
Original loan size
Loan schedule
Interest/capital
circumstances
Repayments
Increasing/
decreasing
Change in
Tick when
attempted
elements
Flat rate
Other
Level
APR
Question
1 ()
2
3
4
5 ()
6
7
8 ()
9 ()
10 ()
11 ()
12
13
14
15
16 ()
A mortgage company offers the following two deals to customers for twenty-
five year mortgages.
Product A
Product B
Compare the annual effective rates of return paid by customers on the two
products. [8]
A bank offers two repayment alternatives for a loan that is to be repaid over
ten years. The first requires the borrower to pay £1,200 per annum quarterly
in advance and the second requires the borrower to make payments at an
annual rate of £1,260 every second year in arrears.
Determine which terms would provide the best deal for the borrower at a rate
of interest of 4% per annum effective. [5]
The individual agrees to pay only the interest payments, monthly in arrear,
for the first 15 years whereupon he repays half of the capital as a lump sum.
He then pays only the interest for the remaining 10 years, quarterly in arrear,
and repays the other half of the capital as a lump sum at the end of the term.
(i) Calculate the total amount of interest paid by the individual, assuming
an effective rate of interest of 8½% pa. [5]
(ii) The individual believes that he can earn a nominal rate of interest
convertible half-yearly of 9% pa from a separate savings account.
(iii) The individual made the monthly contributions calculated in (ii) to the
savings account. However, over the first 15 years, the effective rate of
return earned on the savings account was 10% per annum.
The individual used the proceeds at that time to repay as much of the
loan as possible and then decided to repay the remainder of the loan by
level instalments of interest and capital. After the first 15 years, the
effective rate of interest changed to 7% per annum.
Calculate:
(ii) The capital outstanding immediately after the 5th payment has been
made. [2]
(iii) The capital and interest components of the final payment. [2]
[Total 7]
Option 1 – level instalments of capital and interest are paid annually in arrear
over a period of 20 years.
Option 2 – over the 20-year term the customer pays only interest on the
loan, annually in arrear at a rate of 5.5% per annum with the whole of the
capital amount payable at the end of the term. The customer will take out a
separate savings policy which involves making monthly payments in
advance such that the proceeds will be sufficient to repay the loan at the end
of its term. The payments into the savings policy accumulate at a rate of
interest of 4% per annum effective.
(i) Determine the effective rate of interest per annum that would be paid by
the customer on the loan under Option 1, given that the level annual
instalment on this loan is £4,012.13. [3]
(ii) Determine the annual effective rate of interest paid by a customer under
Option 2. [7]
[Total 10]
(iv) the total interest paid over the whole 20 years. [2]
[Total 11]
(ii) Calculate the amount of capital repaid that was included in the payment
made on 1 January 1999. [3]
(i) Calculate:
(b) the total amount of interest which will be paid over the ten-year
term. [3]
At the beginning of the eighth year, immediately after the seventh instalment
has been made, the company asks for the loan to be rescheduled over a
further four years from that date. The bank agrees to do this on condition
that the rate of interest is increased to an effective rate of 12% per annum
for the term of the rescheduled instalments and that repayments are made
quarterly in arrear.
(iii) Immediately after the seventh repayment, the borrower asks to have the
original term of the loan extended to fifteen years and wishes to repay
the outstanding loan using level annual repayments. The lender agrees
but changes the interest rate at the time of the alteration to 8% per
annum effective.
The effective rate of interest over the period of the loan is 4% per annum.
After the 12th instalment is paid, the borrower and lender agree to a
restructuring of the debt.
The £200 reduction per year will no longer continue. Instead, future
instalments will remain at the level of the 12th instalment and the remaining
term of the debt will be shortened. The final payment will then be a reduced
amount which will clear the debt.
(c) Calculate the total interest paid during the term of the loan. [8]
[Total 14]
(ii) Calculate the capital and interest components of the first payment. [2]
At the beginning of the ninth year, the borrower can no longer make the
scheduled repayments. The bank agrees to reduce the capital by 50 per
cent of the loan outstanding after the eighth repayment. The bank requires
that the remaining capital is repaid by a 10-year annuity paid annually in
arrear, increasing by £2 per annum. The bank changes the rate of interest
to 8% per annum effective.
(iii) Calculate the first repayment under the revised loan. [5]
[Total 10]
(ii) Calculate the capital outstanding after the first three payments have
been made. [2]
(iv) Calculate the total amount of interest paid over the term of the loan. [3]
[Total 10]
On 1 January 2016, a student plans to take out a five-year bank loan for
£30,000 that will be repayable by instalments at the end of each month.
Under this repayment schedule, the instalment at the end of January 2016
will be X , the instalment at the end of February 2016 will be 2X and so on,
until the final instalment at the end of December 2020 will be 60 X . The
bank charges a rate of interest of 15% per annum convertible monthly.
an - nv n
(i) Prove that (Ia )n = . [3]
i
The student is concerned that she will not be able to afford the later
repayments and so she suggests a revised repayment schedule. The
student would borrow £30,000 on 1 January 2016 as before. She would
now repay the loan by 60 level monthly instalments of 36X = £958.32 but the
first repayment would not be made until the end of January 2019 and hence
the final instalment is paid at the end of December 2023.
(iii) Calculate the APR on the revised loan schedule and hence determine
whether you believe the bank should accept the student’s suggestion. [5]
(iv) Explain the difference in the total repayments made under the two
arrangements. [2]
[Total 14]
Determine:
(ii) the capital outstanding immediately after the 9th instalment has been
made. [2]
(iii) the capital and interest components of the final instalment. [2]
[Total 7]
A bank offers two repayment alternatives for a loan that is to be repaid over
sixteen years:
Determine which option would provide the better deal for the borrower at a
rate of interest of 5% per annum effective. [5]
(ii) Calculate:
(a) the interest component of the sixth instalment.
(b) the capital component of the sixth instalment. [4]
Immediately after the sixth instalment, the borrower asks to repay the
remaining loan using level annual instalments. The lender agrees, but
changes the interest rate at the time of the alteration to 6% per annum
effective.
The solutions presented here are just outline solutions for you to use to
check your answers. See ASET for full solutions.
Product A
i = 5% fi a25 = 14.0939
100,000 = 12Ma(12)
25 4%
1 - 1.04 -25
= 12M ¥ fi M = £522.19
(
12 1 - 1.04 -1 12 )
The equation of value for product B is:
i = 5% fi RHS = £92,167.20
i = 4.5% fi RHS = £96,831.00
Interpolating gives the annual effective rate of interest for Product B to be:
Ê 96,831.00 - 94,000.00 ˆ
i = 4.5 + 0.5 Á = 4.80% pa
Ë 96,831.00 - 92,167.20 ¯˜
Alternative 1
1 1.0410
1,200a(4) 1,200
10
4 1 (1.04)
0.25
1,200 8.31267
£9,975.21
Alternative 2
Working in a time period of two years, the present value of repayments is:
2 1,260a5
1.042 1 8.16%
1 1.08165
2,520 2,520 3.97593
0.0816
£10,019.34
Since the present value of repayments under Alternative 1 is lower than that
under Alternative 2, Alternative 1 would provide the better deal for the
borrower, at a rate of interest of 4% pa effective.
For the first 15 years, the individual pays interest monthly on the whole loan
1
outstanding of £300,000. The monthly interest rate is 1.085 12 1 . This
means the monthly interest payment for the first 15 years is:
300,000 1.085
1
12
1 £2,046.45
The total interest paid in the first 15 years of the loan is then:
2,046.45 12 15 £368,360.64
For the final 10 years, the individual pays interest quarterly on the remaining
1
loan outstanding of £150,000. The quarterly interest rate is 1.085 4 1 .
This means the quarterly interest payment for the final 10 years is:
150,000 1.085
1
4
1 £3,090.66
The total interest paid in the final 10 years of the loan is then:
3,090.66 4 10 £123,626.38
So the total interest paid over the full term of the loan is:
12Ms(12) 150,000
15
2
0.09
i (2) 9% i 1 1 9.2025%
2
and
d (12) 12 1 1.092025
1
12
8.77116%
Using these to evaluate the accumulation, gives:
15
1.092025 1
s(12) 31.29936
15 0.0877116
The accumulated value of the monthly savings for the first 15 years is:
12 399.37 s(12)
15
i 10% d (12) 12 1 1.1
1
12
9.49326%
1.115 1
s(12) 33.46843
15 0.0949326
This amount is used to repay as much of the loan as possible, so the loan
outstanding at time 15 is:
This remaining amount outstanding is repaid monthly in arrear over the final
10 years.
12 Xa(12) 139,604.53
10
evaluated at 7% pa.
Now:
i (12) 12 1.07
1
12
1 6.78497%
1 1.0710
a(12) 7.24617
10 0.0678497
The original loan amount, L0 , is equal to the present value of the repayments
made over the term of the loan:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 .... 20 time
Since there is only one remaining payment of £870 to be made at time 20,
the capital component of the final repayment is £813.08.
Hence:
From the Tables, we see that this corresponds to an interest rate of exactly
5%.
Letting X denote the total amount paid into the savings account each year,
we have:
Xa(12) = 50,000v 20 @ 4%
20
22,819.35
fi X = 13.8830
= £1, 643.69
i = 6% fi RHS = £51,003
i = 7% fi RHS = £47, 200
i = 6.5% fi RHS = £49,043
Ê 50,000 - 51,003 ˆ
6% + Á ¥ (6.5% - 6%) = 6.26%
Ë 49,043 - 51,003 ˜¯
Since the amount of the tenth repayment is £6,000, the capital repaid in the
tenth instalment is:
since there is only one remaining payment of £7,500 to be made at time 20.
20
S20 = 2
(4, 650 + 7,500) = £121,500
So, the total interest paid over the 20 years is the difference between the
payments made and the original loan:
-60,000 cashflows
Q per qtr
60,000 = Qa80 + 100v 16a64 + 100v 32a48 + 100v 48a32 + 100v 64a16 @ 2%
60,000 - 5,533.755449
fi Q= = 1,370.41
39.7445
The loan of £60,000 is granted on 1 July 1998. The loan schedule for the
first two quarters is as follows:
The capital outstanding on 1 July 2011 is the present value of the future
payments, which are:
1 2 3 10
6 7 10
L6 = 700a4 + 100(Ia )4
-4
1 - 1.06 -4
1-1.06
0.06 1.06
- 4(1.06 -4 )
= 700 + 100
0.06 0.06
= 700 ¥ 3.46511 + 100 ¥ 8.41062
= £3,266.64
Under the new terms, there will be 8 years left, so if the revised annual
payment is X then:
2,662.64 = Xa8 @ 8%
1 - 1.08 -8
=X
0.08
= 5.7466 X fi X = £463.34
The interest payment at the end of the 12th year will be:
Since the repayment at time 12 is £2,800 the capital repaid in the 12th
instalment is:
This is equal to the present value of the new future level repayments of
2,800. So if there are n years left then our equation of value is:
2,800a5 + Rv 6 = 13,069.02
The total interest paid will be the total amount of all the repayments less the
amount of the original loan:
n 12
S12 =
2
(2a + (n - 1)d ) = 2 (10,000 + 11 ¥ ( -200)) = 46,800
0 1 2 3 ... 15
1 - 1.04 -15
1-1.04
0.04 1.04
- 15(1.04 -15 )
= 420 - 20
0.04 0.04
= 420 ¥ 11.118387 - 20 ¥ 80.853885 = £3,052.65
8 9 10 ... 15
260a7 - 20(Ia )7
-7
1 - 1.04 -7
1-1.04
0.04 1.04
- 7(1.04 -7 )
= 260 - 20
0.04 0.04
= 260 ¥ 6.00205 - 20 ¥ 23.06780 = £1,099.18
The bank reduces the capital outstanding by 50%, so the new loan is based
on a capital value of:
X X+2 ... X + 18
8 9 10 ... 18
PV = ( X - 2) ¥ 6.71008 + 2 ¥ 32.686913
= 6.71008 X + 51.953663
0 1 2 3 ... 25
This gives:
L3 X + 150 X + 200
= 1, 612.31 = 1, 662.31 ...
3 4 5 ... 25
This gives:
(iii) Explanation
The loan outstanding at time 3 is greater than the amount of the original
loan.
The interest in the first year is 8% of £20,000, or £1,600. But the first loan
repayment is less than this, at about £1,462. So, since the initial payment is
not sufficient to pay the interest for the year, the capital outstanding actually
increases during the first year.
We can use the formula for the sum of 25 terms of an arithmetic progression
to work out the total amount of all the repayments:
25 25
S25 = È 2a + 24 ¥ d ˚˘ = È 2 ¥ 1, 462.31 + 24 ¥ 50 ˚˘ = 51,557.66
2 Î 2 Î
(i) Proof
We have:
(Ia) n = v + 2v 2 + 3v 3 + + nv n
(1 + i )(Ia) n = 1 + 2v + 3v 2 + + nv n -1
( ) ( )
i (Ia ) n = (1 - 0) + (2v - v ) + 3v 2 - 2v 2 + nv n -1 - (n - 1)v n -1 - nv n
= 1 + v + v 2 + + v n -1 - nv n = an - nv n
an - nv n
(Ia) n =
i
So, working with a time unit of one month, we can equate the amount of the
loan to the present value of the repayments at this rate of interest to obtain:
a60 - 60v 60
(Ia) 60 =
i
60
1- v
- 60v 60
= d
i
42.560024 - 28.474056
=
0.0125
= 1,126.8774
( ) ( )
30, 000 = 36 X v 37 + + v 96 = 36 X v 36 v + + v 60 = 36 X v 36a60
30, 000
v 36a60 = = 31.304783
36 X
At i = 1.1% :
1 - 1.011-60
v 36a60 = 1.011-36 ¥ = 29.509784
0.011
At i = 1% :
1 - 1.01-60
v 36a60 = 1.01-36 ¥ = 31.420198
0.01
31.304783 - 31.420198
i 1% + ¥ (1.1% - 1%) = 0.0100604
29.509784 - 31.420198
1.010060412 - 1 = 0.127634
Rounding this to the nearest 0.1% to obtain the APR, we have an APR of
12.8%.
The bank obtains a lower monthly rate of interest under the second
arrangement (1% instead of 1.25%). So the bank achieves a higher rate of
return under the first arrangement, and is perhaps unlikely to accept the
student’s suggestion.
1 + 60
¥ 26.62 = 811.91
2
So the total amount of the repayments under the first arrangement will be:
Although the total repayment is higher under the second arrangement, the
APR is lower. The APR is a function of the timings of the repayments, as
well as the amounts. A lower APR can still lead to a greater total repayment
if instalments are made later in time. This is the case with the second
arrangement here.
The amount of the loan is the total present value at the start of all the
repayments at 6% pa:
1 - v 15 1 - 1.06 -15
a15 = = = 9.712249
i 0.06
This gives:
1 - v 6 1 - 1.06 -6
a6 = = = 4.917324
i 0.06
The capital outstanding immediately after the ninth instalment has been
made is £19,829.61.
The balance outstanding one year before the end of the loan will therefore
be:
4,700
4,700v = = 4,433.9623
1.06
The interest on this balance during the final year will be:
Option 1
The present value of the repayments under this option, using i 5% , is:
16
1 1.05
7,800a(4) 7,800
16
14
4 1.05 1
7,800 11.0389
£86,103.52
Option 2
Working in a time period of two years, the present value of the repayments
under this option is:
2 8,200a8
1.052 1 10.25%
1 1.1025 8
16,400 16,400 5.2867
0.1025
£86,702.16
The present value of the repayments under Option 1 is lower than that under
Option 2. Given that both options are available to repay the same loan
amount, this means that Option 1 would provide the better deal for the
borrower, at a rate of interest of 5% pa effective.
( ) (
= 50 v + v 2 + + v 10 + 50 v + 2v 2 + + 10v 10 )
= 50 a10 + 50 (Ia )10
1 - v 10 a - 10v 10
= 50 ¥ + 50 ¥ 10
i i
1 - 1.05 -10
-10 - 10 ¥ 1.05 -10
1 - 1.05 -1
= 50 ¥ + 50 ¥ 1 - 1.05
0.05 0.05
-10
1 - 1.05 8.10782 - 10 ¥ 1.05 -10
= 50 ¥ + 50 ¥
0.05 0.05
= 50 ¥ 7.72173 + 50 ¥ 39.37378
= 2,354.776
The outstanding balance of the loan at time 5 is the present value at that
time of all the payments yet to be made:
( ) (
= 300 v + v 2 + + v 5 + 50 v + 2v 2 + + 5v 5 )
= 300a5 + 50 (Ia )5
1 - 1.05 -5
a5 = = 4.54595
0.05 1.05
we have:
or £96.36 …
1 - 1.06 -4
1,673.52 = Xa4 = X ¥ = 3.4651X
0.06
FACTSHEET
1 Equations of value
An equation of value equates the present value of the money received to the
present value of the money paid out:
PV income = PV outgo
The general form of the equation of value, when there are both discrete and
continuous cashflows present, is:
n •
 ctt e -d tr + Ú0 r (t ) e -d t dt = 0 (*)
r =1
For example, suppose that Bond B has a price of P and provides a series of
interest payments of c payable at the end of each of the next n years and
a final redemption payment of R at the end of the n years. The equation of
value for this investment is:
3 Yield
For any given transaction, the equation of value (*) may have no roots, a
unique root, or several roots. If there is a unique root, d 0 say, then this is
said to be the force of interest implied by the transaction.
n •
 ctt (1 + i )
- tr
+ Ú r (t ) (1 + i )
-t
dt = 0
0
r =1
has exactly one root greater than –1. When such a root exists, it is defined
to be the yield.
More simply, the yield on an investment is the unique interest rate that
solves the equation of value. The yield is also sometimes called the internal
rate of return or the money-weighted rate of return.
The yield often has to be found using trial and error. Once you have found
two values, at most 1% apart and one on either side of the yield, you can
approximate the yield using linear interpolation.
For Bond B described above, the yield can be found algebraically when
P =R.
5 Linear interpolation
Suppose you want to work out the interest rate i that gives a price of P . If
i1 gives a price of P1 and i 2 gives a price of P2 , and i1 and i 2 satisfy the
conditions in the paragraph above, then:
P - P1
i ª i1 +
P2 - P1
(i2 - i1)
6 Uncertain payments
7 Loans
Each repayment must first pay the interest due on the outstanding balance.
The remainder of the repayment goes towards reducing the capital
outstanding.
We can calculate the capital repaid over a period of time by working out the
amount outstanding at the beginning of the period and at the end of the
period and taking the difference between these two figures.
The flat rate ignores the repayment of capital over the term of the loan, so
flat rates are only useful for comparing loans of the same term. Two loans of
different terms calculated using the same effective rate of interest will have
different flat rates.
14 APR
The APR usually has to be calculated using trial and error. It is a little bit
less than twice the flat rate.
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
Subject CM1
Revision Notes
For the 2019 exams
Project appraisal
Booklet 4
covering
CONTENTS
Contents Page
Links to the Course Notes and Syllabus 2
Overview 3
Core Reading 4
Past Exam Questions 13
Solutions to Past Exam Questions 30
Factsheet 69
Copyright agreement
Legal action will be taken if these terms are infringed. In addition, we may
seek to take disciplinary action through the profession or through your
employer.
These conditions remain in force after you have finished using the course.
These chapter numbers refer to the 2019 edition of the ActEd course notes.
The numbering of the syllabus items is the same as that used by the Institute
and Faculty of Actuaries.
3.3 Show how discounted cashflow and equation of value techniques can
be used in project appraisals.
OVERVIEW
This booklet covers Syllabus objectives 3.3.1 and 3.3.2, which relate to
appraisal of business projects.
Exam questions
The most common type of exam question requires you to calculate values
such as the net present value or discounted payback period.
CORE READING
All of the Core Reading for the topics covered in this booklet is contained in
this section.
____________
r (t ) = r1(t ) - r2 (t )
where r1(t ) and r2 (t ) denote the rates of inflow and outflow at time t
respectively.
____________
Assume for the moment that the investor may borrow or lend money at
a fixed rate of interest i per unit time. The investor could accumulate
the net cashflows connected with the project in a separate account in
which interest is payable or credited at this fixed rate. By the time the
project ends (at time T , say), the balance in this account will be:
T
 ct (1 + i )T -t + Ú0 r (t )(1 + i )T -t dt (1.1)
T
A(T ) = Â ct (1 + i )T -t + Ú r (t )(1 + i )T -t dt
0
____________
7 The present value at rate of interest i of the net cashflows is called the
‘net present value’ at rate of interest i of the investment or business
project, and is usually denoted by NPV (i ) . Hence:
____________
T
8 NPV (i ) = Â ct (1 + i )-t + Ú r (t )(1 + i )-t dt (1.2)
0
NPV (i ) = Â ct v t
where v = (1 + i )-1 .
____________
NPV (i ) = 0
is the equation of value for the project at the present time, the yield i0
on the transaction is the solution of this equation, provided that a
unique solution exists.
12 Also, if the project ends at time T , then the profit (or, if negative, loss)
at that time is (by Expression (1.1)):
Let us now assume that, as is usually the case in practice, the yield i0
exists and NPV (i ) changes from positive to negative when i = i0 .
____________
i1 < i0
ie the yield exceeds that rate of interest at which the investor may lend
or borrow money.
____________
Let NPVA (i ) and NPVB (i ) denote the respective net present value
functions and let i A and iB denote the yields (which we shall assume
to exist).
____________
15 It might be thought that the investor should always select the project
with the higher yield, but this is not invariably the best policy. A better
criterion to use is the profit at time T (the date when the later of the
two projects ends) or, equivalently, the net present value, calculated at
the rate of interest i1 at which the investor may lend or borrow money.
This is because A is the more profitable venture if:
16 The fact that i A > iB may not imply that NPVA (i1) > NPVB (i1) is
illustrated in the following diagram. Although i A is larger than iB , the
NPV (i ) functions ‘cross-over’ at i¢ . It follows that
NPVB (i1) > NPVA (i1) for any i1 < i ¢ , where i ¢ is the cross-over rate.
There may even be more than one cross-over point, in which case the
range of interest rates for which project A is more profitable than
project B is more complicated.
____________
Example
The investor may lend or borrow money at 4% per annum. Would you
advise the investor to invest in either loan, and, if so, which would be
the more profitable?
Solution
The rate of interest at which the investor may lend or borrow money is
4% per annum, which is less than both i X and iY , so we compare
NPVX (0.04) and NPVY (0.04) .
Now NPV X (0.04) = £1,284 and NPVY (0.04) = £2,089 , so it follows that,
although the yield on loan Y is less than on loan X, the investor will
make a larger profit from loan Y. We should, therefore, advise him that
an investment in either loan would be profitable, but that, if only one of
them is to be chosen, then loan Y will give the higher profit.
The above example illustrates the fact that the choice of investment
depends very much on the rate of interest i1 at which the investor may
lend or borrow money. If this rate of interest were 5¾%, say, then loan
Y would produce a loss to the investor, while loan X would give a
profit.
____________
18 We have assumed so far that the investor may borrow or lend money at
the same rate of interest i1 . In practice, however, the investor will
probably have to pay a higher rate of interest ( j1 , say) on borrowings
than the rate ( j2 , say) he receives on investments.
19 The concepts of net present value and yield are in general no longer
meaningful in these circumstances. We must calculate the
accumulation of net cashflows from first principles, the rate of interest
depending on whether or not the investor’s account is in credit. In
many practical problems the balance in the investor’s account (ie the
accumulation of net cashflows) will be negative until a certain time t1
and positive afterwards, except perhaps when the project ends.
20 In many practical problems the net cashflow changes sign only once,
this change being from negative to positive. In these circumstances
the balance in the investor’s account will change from negative to
positive at a unique time t1 , or it will always be negative, in which case
the project is not viable. If this time t1 exists, it is referred to as the
‘discounted payback period’ (DPP). It is the smallest value of t such
that A(t ) ≥ 0 , where:
t
A(t ) = Â cs (1 + j1)t - s + Ú0 r (s )(1 + j1)t - s ds (2.1)
s £t
____________
21 Note that t1 does not depend on j2 but only on j1 , the rate of interest
applicable to the investor’s borrowings.
____________
22 Suppose that the project ends at time T . If A(T ) < 0 (or, equivalently,
if NPV ( j1) < 0 ) the project has no discounted payback period and is
not profitable.
T
P = A(t1)(1 + j2 )T -t1 + Â ct (1 + j2 )T -t + Út1 r (t )(1 + j2 )T -t dt
t > t1
This follows since the net cashflow is accumulated at rate j2 after the
discounted payback period has elapsed.
____________
However, its use instead of the discounted payback period often leads
to erroneous results and is therefore not to be recommended.
Rat | ≥ C at rate j1
____________
This section contains all the Subject CT1 exam questions from the period
2008 to 2017 that are related to the topics covered in this booklet.
Solutions are given later in this booklet. These give enough information for
you to check your answer, including working, and also show you what an
adequate examination answer should look like. Further information may be
available in the Examiners’ Report, ASET or Course Notes. (ASET can be
ordered from ActEd.)
We first provide you with a cross reference grid that indicates the main
subject areas of each exam question. You can use this, if you wish, to
select the questions that relate just to those aspects of the topic that you
may be particularly interested in reviewing.
Alternatively you can choose to ignore the grid, and instead attempt each
question without having any clues as to its content.
accum. profit
Tick when
attempted
NPV
DPP
IRR
PP
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
(i) Calculate the net present value of the project at a rate of interest of 11%
per annum effective. [9]
(ii) Without doing any further calculations, explain how the net present
value would alter if the interest rate had been greater than 11% per
annum effective. [3]
[Total 12]
Please note that the final part of the following question relates to discounted
mean term, which is covered in a later booklet.
(i) Determine which of the options has the higher net present value at a
rate of interest of 7% per annum effective. [9]
(ii) Without doing any further calculations, determine which option has the
higher discounted mean term at a rate of interest of 7% per annum
effective. [2]
[Total 11]
d (t ) = 0.05 + 0.002t 0 £ t £ 5
d (t ) = 0.06 5<t
The income received from the project is a payment stream paid continuously
from t = 8 to t = 12 under which the annual rate of payment at time t is
£100,000e0.001t .
A pension fund purchased an office block nine months ago for £5 million.
A company has agreed to occupy the office block six months from now. The
lease agreement states that the company will rent the office block for fifteen
years and will then purchase the property at the end of the fifteen year rental
period for £6 million.
It is further agreed that rents will be paid quarterly in advance and will be
increased every three years at the rate of 4% per annum compound. The
initial rent has been set at £800,000 per annum with the first rental payment
due immediately on the date of occupation.
Calculate, as at the date of purchase of the office block, the net present
value of the project to the pension fund assuming an effective rate of interest
of 8% per annum. [8]
The experts do not agree about the appropriate rate of interest at which to
evaluate the options available. One group believes that the net present
value of using the carbon storage technology should be evaluated at a real
rate of return of 4% per annum effective. A second group believe that it
should be evaluated at a real rate of return of 1% per annum effective.
(ii) Explain why the project must have a discounted payback period when
the interest rate is 1.5% and the internal rate of return is higher than
1.5%. [2]
(iii) Calculate the net present value of the carbon storing technology at a
real rate of interest of 1% per annum effective. [5]
(iv) Calculate the net present value of the carbon storing technology at a
real rate of interest of 4% per annum effective. [5]
It is expected that the investment will provide income over a 15 year period
starting from the beginning of the third year. Net income from the project will
be received continuously at a rate of £1.7m per annum. At the end of this 15
year period there will be no further income from the investment.
A bank has offered to loan the funds required to the company at an effective
rate of interest of 10% per annum. Funds will be drawn from the bank when
required and the loan can be repaid at any time. Once the loan is paid off,
the company can earn interest on funds from the venture at an effective rate
of interest of 7% per annum.
(iii) Calculate the accumulated profit at the end of the 17 years. [4]
[Total 11]
(i) Calculate the net present value on 1 January 2001 of the government’s
investment in the bank at a rate of interest of 8% per annum effective. [5]
(i) Show that the net present value of the project at a rate of interest of 8%
per annum effective is £4,000 (to the nearest £1,000). [7]
(ii) Calculate the discounted payback period for the project, assuming a
rate of interest of 8% per annum effective. [5]
[Total 12]
One stadium will be built each year for ten years. The first stadium will
be built in 2016 and is expected to cost £200m; the stadium built in 2017
is expected to cost £210m; and so on, with the cost of each stadium
rising by 5% each year. The costs of building each stadium are
assumed to be incurred halfway through the relevant year.
Administration costs at a rate of £100m per annum will be incurred,
payable monthly in advance from 1 January 2025 until 31 December
2026.
Revenues from television, ticket receipts, advertising and so on are
expected to be £3,300m and are assumed to be received continuously
throughout 2026.
(i) Explain why the payback period is not a good indicator of whether this
project is worthwhile. [3]
The football association decides to judge whether to go ahead with the bid
by calculating the net present value of the costs and revenues from a
successful bid on 1 January 2012 at a rate of interest of 4% per annum
effective.
(ii) Determine whether the association should make the bid. [13]
The football association is discussing how it might factor into its calculations
the fact that it is not certain to win the right to host the World Cup because
other countries are also bidding.
(iii) Explain how you might adjust the above calculations if the probability of
winning the right to host the World Cup is 0.1 and whether this
adjustment would make it more likely or less likely that the bid will go
ahead. [3]
[Total 19]
(i) Show that the internal rate of return for Project A is 9% per annum
effective. [5]
(ii) Calculate the annual effective internal rate of return for Project B. Show
your working. [4]
(iii) Discuss the extent to which the answers to parts (i) and (ii) above will
influence the investor’s decision over which project to choose. [3]
[Total 12]
It is assumed that 6,000 cars will be produced each year from 2016 onwards
and that all will be sold.
The production cost per car will be £9,500 during 2016 and will increase by
4% each year with the first increase occurring in 2017. All production costs
are assumed to be incurred at the beginning of each calendar year.
The sale price of each car will be £12,600 during 2016 and will also increase
by 4% each year with the first increase occurring in 2017. All revenue from
sales is assumed to be received at the end of each calendar year.
(ii) Without doing any further calculations, explain whether the discounted
payback period would be greater than, equal to, or less than the period
calculated in part (i) if the effective rate of interest were substantially
less than 9% per annum. [2]
[Total 11]
In the first year, 40,000 vehicles a day will use the road, each paying a toll of
£1.
In the second year, 50,000 vehicles a day will use the road, each paying a
toll of £1.10.
In the third year, both the number of vehicles using the road and the level of
tolls will rise by 1% from their level in the second year. They will both
continue to rise by 1% per annum compound until the end of the 20th year.
At the end of the 20th year, it is assumed that the road has no value as it will
have to be completely rebuilt.
You should assume that all revenue is received continuously throughout the
year and that there are 365 days in all years.
Calculate the net present value of the investment in the road at a rate of
interest of 8% per annum effective. [10]
(i) Calculate the discounted payback period for this investment. [4]
(ii) Calculate the accumulated profit the insurance company will have made
at the end of the term of the capital project. [5]
[Total 9]
An agreement has been made with a prospective tenant who will occupy the
outlet beginning one year after the purchase date. The tenant will pay rent
to the owner for five years and will then immediately purchase the outlet from
the property development company for $6,800,000. The initial rent will be
$360,000 per annum and this will be increased by the same percentage
compound rate at the beginning of each successive year. The rental income
is received quarterly in advance.
A student has inherited £1m and is considering investing the money in two
projects, A and B.
Project A requires the investment of the whole sum in properties that are to
be let out to tenants. The details are:
The student expects to receive an income from rents at an annual rate
of £60,000 a year for four years after an initial period of one year in
which no income will be received.
Rents are expected to rise thereafter at the start of each year at a rate
of 0.5% per annum.
The income will be received monthly in advance.
The project involves costs of £10,000 per annum in the first year, rising
at a constant rate of 0.5% per annum.
The costs will be incurred at the beginning of each year.
At the end of 20 years, the student expects to be able to sell the
properties for £2m after which there will be no further revenue or costs.
(iv) Show that the internal rate of return from Project A is higher than that
from Project B. [10]
(v) Discuss which project is the better project given your answers to parts
(i)–(iv) above. [3]
[Total 26]
a n - nv n
( )n
Ia =
d
[4]
the cost of re-opening the mine will be $900,000, which will be incurred
continuously over the first twelve months.
after the first twelve months, the rate of revenue will grow continuously
and linearly from zero per annum to $3,600,000 per annum at a
constant rate of $300,000 per annum.
when the rate of revenue reaches $3,600,000 per annum it will then
decline continuously and linearly at a constant rate of $150,000 per
annum until it reaches $600,000 per annum.
(iii) Calculate, showing all working, the price that the company should pay in
order to earn an internal rate of return (IRR) of 25% per annum
effective. [12]
[Total 18]
A particular charity invests its assets in a fund on which it has a target rate of
return of 8% per annum effective. From time-to-time, the charity also invests
in projects that help achieve its charitable objectives whilst providing a rate
of return. Projects that are accepted by the charity must fulfil each of the
following criteria:
The project involves making loans of £1m at the start of each year for
three years, the first loan being made at the beginning of 2017.
The loans will be paid back from the extra income obtained by the
farmers from the beginning of 2020.
The repayments in each year will be through level monthly instalments
paid in advance with the rate of payment of the instalments increasing
by 1% per year for 10 years after which the payments stop.
The annual rate of repayment in 2020 will be £495,000.
The charity will also incur costs at the end of each of the years in which
income is received of £50,000 per annum.
(ii) Determine which of the three criteria used by the charity are met in this
case. [12]
[Total 14]
The business venture will provide the investor with an income of £2 million in
exactly 10 years’ time and £3 million in exactly 15 years’ time.
0.04 for 0 t 2
(t )
0.02 kt for t 2
(ii) Determine the minimum value of k that would ensure that the
discounted payback period is exactly 10 years. [4]
[Total 9]
A tenant has agreed to lease the building in six months’ time for 35 years.
The tenant will pay an initial rent of £1.250 million per annum payable
monthly in arrear. The rent will be increased at five-yearly intervals at a rate
of 4.2% per annum compound. It has further been agreed that at the end of
the lease period the tenant will buy the building from the investor for
£11.5 million.
The investor pays income tax at a rate of 35% and is expecting a net
effective rate of return of 8% per annum.
Calculate, showing all workings, the net present value of the project to the
investor at the time of purchase. [11]
A university offers its students three financing options for a degree course
that lasts exactly three years.
Option A
Fees are paid during the term of the course monthly in advance. The fees
are £10,000 per annum in the first year and rise by 5% on the first and
second anniversaries of the start of the course.
Option B
The university makes a loan to the students which is repaid in instalments
after the end of the course. The instalments are determined as follows:
No payments are made until three years after the end of the course.
Over the following 15 years, students pay the university £1,300 per
year, quarterly in advance.
After 15 years of payments, the quarterly instalments are increased to
£1,500 per year, quarterly in advance.
After a further 15 years of payments, the quarterly instalments are
increased to £1,800 per year, quarterly in advance, for a further 15-
year period after which there are no more payments.
Option C
Students pay to the university 3% of all their future earnings from work, with
the payments made annually in arrears.
After the career break, he expects to restart work on the salary he was
earning when the career break started. He then expects to receive salary
increases of 1% per annum compound at the end of each year until retiring
45 years after graduating.
The student wishes to take the financing option with the lowest net present
value at a rate of interest of 3% per annum effective.
(i) Calculate the present value of the payments due under Option A. [4]
(ii) Calculate the present value of the payments due under Option B. [5]
(iii) Calculate the initial level of salary that will lead the payments under
Option C to have the lowest present value of the three options. [8]
(iv) Comment on whether the student should use the same interest rate to
evaluate all three options. [2]
The solutions presented here are just outline solutions for you to use to
check your answers. See ASET for full solutions.
The timeline below shows the outgo (in thousands) under the project:
0 1 2 3 4 5 15 time
(
= -500 - 100v + 110v 2 + 120v 3 + 130v 4 + 140v 5 - 300v 15 )
(
= -500 - 90a5 + 10(Ia )5 - 300v ) 15
The timeline below shows the income (in thousands) under the project:
2 24
80 80(1.04) 80(1.04) 80(1.04)
...
700
0 1 2 3 ... 24 25 time
( )
= 80a1 1 + 1.04v + + (1.04v )24 + 700v 25
= 80a (1 + v ¢ + + (v ¢ ) ) + 700v
1
24 25
( ) 25
= 80a1 @11% a25 @ i ¢ + 700v @11%
1 1.04 0.07
v¢ = = fi i¢ = = 6.73077%
1 + i ¢ 1.11 1.04
1 - 1.11-1
a1 @11% = = 0.9496
ln(1.11)
1 - 1.0673077 -25
a25 @ i ¢ = 0.0673077
= 12.7455
1.0673077
The majority of the income from the project is received towards the end of
the 25 years, because the income stream receives compound increases.
On the other hand, the majority of the outgo under the project occurs in the
first five years.
This means that a change in the effective interest rate will have a greater
impact on the income payments than on the outgo payments, due to the
longer period over which discounting applies to them.
Option 1
0.25 0.1 v 2v 2 10v 10
0.25 0.1(Ia )10
0.25 0.1 34.7391
3.72391
Option 2
The net present value of the cashflows under Option 2 (in millions) is:
The terms in the square brackets form a geometric progression, with first
term 0.21v and common ratio 1.05v .
So, using the formula for the sum of 10 terms of a geometric progression:
1 1.0510 v 10
NPV 4.2 0.21v 5.64v 10
1 1.05v
4.2 1.80550 2.86709
£0.47259 million
The second option therefore has the higher net present value.
Under the first option, the payments are received over a longer period of
time, with the largest cashflow, and hence highest weight, applying at time
27. This will be the biggest contributor to the DMT calculation for the first
option. Therefore, the DMT of the first option will exceed that of the second
option, where the highest weighting will be at time 10.
Let the discounted payback period (DPP) end at time T . This means that:
2
- Ú (0.05 + 0.002t ) dt
PV (outgo ) = 100 + 80 e 0
2
- È0.05t + 0.001t 2 ˘
Î ˚0
= 100 + 80 e
= 100 + 80 e -(0.05 ¥ 2 + 0.001¥ 4)
= 100 + 80e -0.104
= 172.10
t
T - Ú 0.06 ds
0.001t
PV (income )t = 8 = Ú 100e e 8 dt
8
T t
-ÈÎ0.06s ˘˚ 8
= Ú 100e0.001t e dt
8
T
= Ú 100e0.001t e -0.06t + 0.48 dt
8
T
= Ú 100e0.48 - 0.059t dt
8
T
È 100e0.48 - 0.059t ˘
=Í ˙
ÍÎ -0.059 ˙˚8
=
100
0.059
(
e0.008 - e0.48 - 0.059T )
Discounting, the present value of this income stream at time 0 is:
1 1
PV (income )t = 0 = PV (income )t = 8
A(0,5) A(5,8)
5 8
- Ú (0.05 + 0.002t ) dt - Ú 0.06 dt
=e 0 e 5 PV (income )t = 8
5
- È0.05t + 0.001t 2˘
-ÈÎ0.06t ˚˘5
8
=e Î ˚0 e PV ( income )t = 8
= e -0.275e -0.18
100
0.059
(
e0.008 - e0.48 - 0.059T )
=
100e -0.455 0.008
0.059
e (
- e0.48 - 0.059T )
To find the value of T we must equate this to the present value of the outgo:
0.059
(
100e -0.455 0.008
e - e0.48 - 0.059T = 172.10 )
e0.48 - 0.059T = 0.84799
0.48 - 0.059T = ln(0.84799) fi T = 10.93 years
The timeline below shows the cashflows (in millions) under the project:
3 3
-5 -0.9 0.2 0.2 ... 0.2(1.04) 0.2(1.04) ... 6
11 1 3 6 ...
1 12 4 3 6 ...
4 12 3
0 12 12 12
16 12
time
Note that the rents increase every three years, at a rate of 4% pa. This
means that each time the rents go up, they go up by a factor of (1.04)3 .
We have:
11 - 1112
PV (outgo) = 5 + 0.9v 12 = 5 + 0.9(1.08) = 5.83870
= 6(1.08)-16.25 = 1.71797
16 3 12
PV (income from sale) = 6v
(
PV (rent income) = v 1.25 0.8a(4) + 0.8(1.04)3 v 3a(4) + + 0.8(1.04)12 v 12a(4)
3 3 3 )
(
= 0.8v 1.25a(4) 1 + (1.04)3 v 3 + + (1.04)12 v 12
3 )
(
ˆ Ê 1 - (1.04)3 v 3
) ˆ˜
5
Ê
1.25 Á 1 - (1.08)-3 ˜Á
= 0.8v
Ë (
Á 4 1 - (1.08)-0.25
) ˜ Á 1 - (1.04)3 v 3 ˜
¯ ÁË ˜
¯
= 0.8(1.08)-1.25 (2.70471)(4.03812)
= 7.93617
Hence:
= £3.81544 million
The DPP is the smallest time t for which the net present value (or
accumulated value) of the returns up to time t exceeds the net present
value (or accumulated value) of the costs up to time t .
If IRR is greater than 1.5%, then the NPV of all of the cashflows from the
project is positive when i = 1.5% .
Due to the large initial investment, the NPV of the initial cashflows is
negative. Since the NPV of all the cashflows up to time t is negative for
small values of t and is positive for large values of t , there must be some t
at which it changes from negative to positive. This value of t is the DPP.
50
PVcost = 30(v 3 + v 6 + + v 48 ) + 20 Ú 1.01t v t dt + 40a50
0
3
(
v 1-(v ) 3 16
) + 20 (v ¢)t dt + 40a
50
= 30
1-v 3 Ú 50
0
= 30
(
v 3 1-(v 3 )16 ) + 20a + 40a50
1-v 3 50 @ i '%
1+ i i - 0.01
where i ¢ = -1= .
1.01 1.01
PVbenefits = 10a50
Hence:
PVnet cost = 30
(
v 3 1-(v 3 )16 ) + 20 a + 30a50
1-v 3 50 @ i '%
When i = 1% we have
50
i ¢ = 0% fi v' =1 fi a50 @ i ' % = Ú 1 dt = 50
0
Therefore:
All net costs would be removed – this would be the benefit. Hence at 1%:
PVbenefits = $2,551.851 bn
Hence:
For i = 4% :
1 - 1.029703 -50
i ¢ = 2.9703% fi a50 @ i ' % = = 26.2579
ln1.029703
( ) + 20a
( )
v 3 1- (v 3 )16
NPV = 30 50 @ i ' %
+ 30a50 - 440 + 50a50
1- v 3
= 30
(
v 3 1- (v 3 )16 ) + 20a - 20a50 - 440
1- v 3 50 @ i ' %
= -$140.790 bn
(v) Comment
However, there may be other factors affecting the decision, eg the human
cost, rather than the financial cost, of doing nothing. Also, we don’t know
anything about the potential costs and benefits after 50 years.
1.7
–5 –3
0 3 1 2... 17 time
12
3
NPV = -5 - 3v 12 + 1.7v 2a15 @10% pa
3 1.7 Ê 1 - 1.1-15 ˆ
= -5 - + Á ˜
1.12 Ë ln(1.1) ¯
3
1.1
12
= £3.2827m
Let n be the number of years of income needed to reach the DPP (ie when
the NPV up to that point is 0). Hence:
3 3
-5 - 3v 12 + 1.7v 2an = 0 fi 1.7v 2an = 5 + 3v 12
1.7 Ê 1 - 1.1- n ˆ 3
2 Á ln(1.1) ˜
=5+ 3
fi (1.1)- n = 0.462085
1.1 Ë ¯ 1.112
Since n is the number of years of income needed to reach the DPP, and the
income starts to be received at time 2, the DPP is of length 10.1 years.
Since the DPP is 10.1 years the accumulated value of the cashflows
received up to 10.1 is 0. So, to obtain the accumulated profit after 17 years,
we need to accumulate those cashflows received after the end of the DPP to
time 17, using an interest rate of 7% pa:
Ê 1.076.9 - 1ˆ
Accumulated profit = 1.7s6.9 @ 7% = 1.7 Á ˜
Ë ln(1.07) ¯
(i) NPV
Working in £millions:
3500
5 5
-2000 20 40 20(1.1) 40(1.1) ... 20(1.1) 40(1.1)
(
NPV = -2,000 + 20v 3.5 1 + (1.1)v + + (1.1)5 v 5 )
(
+ 40v 4 1 + (1.1)v + + (1.1)5 v 5 + 3,500v 9 )
fi ( )(
NPV = -2,000 + 20v 3.5 + 40v 4 1 + (1.1)v + + (1.1)5 v 5 + 3,500v 9 )
Using geometric series we have:
Ê 1 - (1.1v )6 ˆ
(
NPV = -2,000 + 20v 3.5 + 40v 4 Á
Ë 1 - 1.1v ¯
)
˜ + 3,500v
9
( )
NPV = -2,000 + 20v 3.5 + 40v 4 (6.284732) + 3,500v 9
= £31.664m
(ii) Accumulation
0 1 2 3 4 5 15 30 time (years)
........... ..........
1
NPV = -105 - 105v 2 - 105v - 200v 15
+ 20a1v + 23a1v 2 + 26a1 v 3 + 29a1 v 4
+ 29(1.03)a1v 5 + 29(1.03)2 a1v 6 + .... + 29(1.03)25 a1v 29 @ 8%
(
+ a1 20v + 23v 2 + 26v 3 + 29v 4 )
(
+ a1 29(1.03)v 5 1 + (1.03)1v 1 + (1.03)2 v 2 + ... + (1.03)24 v 24 )
Therefore:
È È 1 - (1.03)25 v 25 ˘ ˘
NPV = -366.307 + a1 Í 80.193 + 29(1.03)v 5 Í ˙˙
ÍÎ ÍÎ 1 - (1.03)v ˙˚ ˙˚
= -366.307 + 0.962488 ÈÎ80.193 + 20.329 ¥ 14.996 ˘˚
= -366.307 + 370.608
= +4.301
By examining the cashflows and the NPV, we can see that the discounted
payback period (DPP) is very close to the end of the project’s life.
È È 1 - (1.03)24 v 24 ˘ ˘
-366.307 + a1 Í 80.193 + 29(1.03)v 5 Í ˙˙
ÎÍ ÎÍ 1 - (1.03)v ˚˙ ˚˙
= -366.307 + 0.962488 ÎÈ80.193 + 20.329 ¥ 14.676 ˚˘
= -366.307 + 364.335
= -1.971
1.971 = 6.517at
fi at = 0.303
Solving for t:
Ê 1- v t ˆ
ÁË ˜ = 0.303
ln1.08 ¯
fi v t = 0.9767
fi t ln(1.08 -1) = ln 0.9767
fi t = 0.306
(i) Why the PP is not a good indicator of whether this project is worthwhile
The payback period tells us when the income from the project exceeds the
outgo on the project, ignoring any interest payments. Considering that this
project covers a long period of time, it is inappropriate to ignore the
operation of interest.
Looking at the cashflows involved in the project, all the income is received in
the final year. This means that if the project does move into profit it must do
so during 2026. We can see this without doing any calculations at all, and to
calculate exactly when during 2026 the project moves into profit doesn’t add
very much information.
The payback period only considers those cashflows that occur up to the
point that the project moves into profit, and ignores any that come
afterwards. Therefore, it’s not a good measure of overall profitability, as it
does not take into account all the project cashflows.
–2
continuously – 200 – 200 (1.05 ) 2
– 200 (1.05 ) . . .
3300
continuously
– 100
monthly in advance
9
– 200 (1.05 )
Ê 1 - (1.05)10 v 10 ˆ
= 200v 4.5 Á ˜ using geometric series
Ë 1 - (1.05)v ¯
200
= ¥ 10.4440
1.04 4.5
= 1,750.837
= -£1.617m
Since this is negative, the project will not be profitable at this rate of interest,
so the association should not make the bid.
One way of allowing for the probability that the bid is successful would be to
multiply those cashflows dependent on winning the bid by 0.1 to reflect the
likelihood of their occurrence.
The initial costs are certain to occur, so their contribution to the NPV remains
unchanged. The other cashflows are not certain to happen, and so the
value of these will be proportionately reduced. The NPV of the project
ignoring the initial costs is £2.23m, which becomes £0.223m when multiplied
by the probability of winning the bid of 0.1. This means the NPV would go
down, and the bid would be less likely to go ahead.
0 1 5 10 15 20 25
........... ........... ........... .......... ..........
-1,309.5
-3 - 3 - 3 - 3 .................................... ........................................ ................................... -3
+25 + 25 + 25 + 25 ........... ....31.91.... ....40.72.... ....51.97.... ....66.33....
10 15 20
rent = 100pa 100(1.05) 5 pa 100(1.05) pa 100(1.05) pa 100(1.05) pa
+v 15
100(1.05)15 a(4) +v 20
100(1.05)20 a(4) @ 9%
5 5
Simplifying:
+ 100a(4)
5 (1 + v 5
(1.05)5 + v 10 (1.05)10 + +v 15 (1.05)15 + v 20 (1.05)20 )
Ê 1 - v 25 (1.05)25 ˆ
= -1,309.5 - 12a(4) + 100a(4) Á 5 5 ˜
25 5
Ë 1 - v (1.05) ¯
Evaluating at 9%:
Ê ˆ
1 - 1.09 -25 1 - 1.09 -5 1 - (1.05 1.09)25
NPVA = -1,309.5 - 12 + 100 ¥Á ˜
(
4 1.09
1
4 -1 ) (
4 1.09
1
4
)
- 1 ÁË 1 - (1.05 1.09) ˜¯
5
0 - 39.053
i = 7% + (8% - 7%) = 7.47%
-43.217 - 39.053
The IRR is the yield on the project. Our calculations show that Project A will
yield a 9% return whereas Project B will yield a 7.5% return. Project A
therefore looks more attractive. However, we might like to consider two of
the following factors:
the interest rate that the investor uses to discount the cashflows.
This is sometimes known as the ‘hurdle’ rate and will be linked to
the cost of raising finance for the projects.
Project A has a higher initial outlay than Project B and might have a
longer discounted payback period.
the risks involved in the projects. The investor will have to consider
the assumptions made about expenses and rental income and will
also have to consider how sensitive the projects would be to a
change in the risk discount rate.
the availability of finance and the repayment period offered by
financiers.
the resources required for the project. Does the investor have
sufficient knowledge and expertise in the particular parts of the
property market under consideration (retailing for Project A and
office space for Project B)?
The income (sales revenue) occurs at the end of each year (31 Dec),
therefore we will ‘break even’ at the end of a year. So when calculating the
NPV we should calculate it up to the end of the relevant year even though
the outgo (production costs) occur on the following day (1 Jan) as the Core
Reading defines the DPP as the smallest value of t such that A(t ) ≥ 0 even
if it goes negative the following day.
(i) DPP
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
2 4 5
75.6 75.6 1.04 75.6 1.04 75.6 1.043 75.6 1.04 75.6 1.04
Using the payment period (PP) as a rough guide to when the DPP is we get:
So the PP would be just before time 4. Hence the DPP will be after this.
(ii) Explanation
In this project, the greater part of the outgo occurs early, whereas the
greater part of the income occurs later. So the incoming cashflows will be
affected more by the reduction in the interest rate, and this will tend to bring
the DPP earlier in time. The discounted payback period will be shorter.
– £2m
400 1 500 1.1 500 1.1 500 1.1 500 1.1
2 4 36
365 365 1.01 365 1.01 365 1.01 365
...
0 1 2 3 4 ... 19 20
-2,000,000 + 400 ¥ 365a1 + 500 ¥ 1.1 ¥ 365a1 v + 500 ¥ 1.1 ¥ 1.012 ¥ 365a1 v 2
+ 500 ¥ 1.1 ¥ 1.014 ¥ 365a1 v 3 + + 500 ¥ 1.1 ¥ 1.0136 ¥ 365a1 v 19
= -2,000,000 + 146,000a1 + 200,750a1 v + 200,750 ¥ 1.012 a1 v 2
+ 200,750 ¥ 1.014 a1 v 3 + + 200,750 ¥ 1.0136 a1 v 19
Pulling out common factors from all but the first two terms:
The terms in the bracket form a geometric progression. The first term is v ,
the common ratio is 1.012 v and there are 19 terms, so the NPV is:
Ê
( )
19 ˆ
v Á1 - 1.012 v ˜¯
Ë
-2,000,000 + 146,000a1 + 200,750a1 2
1 - 1.01 v
The discounted payback period will be the point in time when the balance on
our account turns positive for the first time.
The NPV at time zero of the cashflows occurring up to and including time
15.5 are:
1 - v 15.5
-50 + 6a(2) = -50 + 6 ¥ = -50 + 6 ¥ 8.369627 = 0.217763
15.5 i (2)
PV = 0.36 v a(4) È1 + (1 + b )v + + (1 + b ) v 4 ˘
4
1 ÎÍ ˚˙
Using the formula for the sum of five terms of a geometric progression, we
have a total present value of:
È È 5˘
(4) Í
1 - Î(1 + b ) v ˘˚ ˙
PV = 0.36 v a Í
1 1 - (1 + b ) v ˙
ÍÎ ˙˚
È È 5˘
1 - (1 + b ) v ˘˚ ˙
0 = -4 - 0.9v ½ + 0.36 v a(4) ÍÍ Î + 6.8v 6
1 1 - (1 + b ) v ˙
ÍÎ ˙˚
v ½ = 0.944911
v 6 = 0.506631
1 - v 1 - 1.12-1
a(4) = (4) = = 0.958873
1 d 0.111738
1 1- X 5
0 = -4 - 0.9 ¥ 0.944911 + 0.36 ¥ ¥ 0.958873 ¥
1.12 1- X
+ 6.8 ¥ 0.506631
1+ b
where X = .
1.12
1- X 5
0 = -4 - 0.850420 + 0.308209 ¥ + 3.445092
1- X
Rearranging this equation, we find that:
1- X 5
= 4.559658
1- X
We will now have to solve this by trial and improvement. Choosing an initial
starting value of X = 0.9 , we obtain the following values:
1- X 5
X
1- X
0.9 4.0951
0.92 4.2615
0.94 4.4349
0.96 4.6157
0.953 4.5516
0.954 4.5607
Interpolating, we obtain:
4.559658 - 4.5516
X 0.953 + ¥ 0.001
4.5607 - 4.5516
0.008082
= 0.953 + ¥ 0.001
0.009102
= 0.95389
1,000,000
= 16.6
60,000
The net income received in any year during Project A is always less than
£60,000 and the costs are incurred at the start of each year. So there will be
no point when the total net income from Project A will be greater than Project
B until the sale.
Hence the payback period for Project A will be greater than for Project B.
The discounted payback period is the first time, t , when the NPV of the
payments up to time t becomes positive.
60at ≥ 1,000
1 - 1.01- t
≥ 16.6
1 - 1.01-1
1.01- t £ 0.83498
-t ln1.01 £ ln 0.83498
t ≥ 18.124
The net income received in any year during Project A is always less than
£60,000 and the costs are incurred at the start of each year. So there will be
no point when the discounted total net income from Project A will be greater
than Project B.
This gives:
1 - v 20
100(1 - v 20 ) = 6
d
6
100 =
d
6
d= = 6% pa
100
d 0.06 3
fi i= = = 6.3830% pa
1 - d 1 - 0.06 47
+ 2,000v 20
1 - (1.005v )15 )
60va(12) + 60 ¥ 1.005v 5a(12) + 2,000v 20
4 1 1 - 1.005v
Since the NPV > 0 at 6.38% pa the IRR must be greater than 6.38% pa.
The payback period and discounted payback period for Project B are both
shorter. So we break-even sooner under Project B which is preferable.
However, both these measures ignore cashflows after the break-even point
(including the huge £2m cashflow in Project A).
The IRR is greater for Project A. This indicates a better return is achieved
under Project A which is preferable.
However, whilst the IRR includes all the cashflows, a better measure would
be to calculate the NPV at the rate of interest at which the student can lend
or borrow money.
n
PV = Ú tv t dt
0
Integrating this by parts, using the formula on page 3 of the Tables with
dv
u = t and = v t , we obtain:
dt
n n n
n È vt ˘ È ˘
t vt vn Í vt ˙
PV = Ú tv dt = Ít ˙ -Ú dt = n -
ÍÎ ln v ˙˚0 0 ln v ln v Í (ln v ) ˙
2
0 Î ˚0
vn vn 1
=n - +
ln v (ln v ) 2
(ln v )2
vt
Note that Ú v t dt = .
ln v
1- v n
n n - nv n an - nv n
nv v 1 d
PV = - 2 + 2 = =
-d d d d d
as required.
After the first year, the rate of revenue will grow continuously for:
3,600,000
= 12
300,000
years. At this point the rate of revenue starts to decline, and continues to
decline for:
3,600,000 - 600,000
= 20
150,000
$0.6m
0 1 13 33 time
–P
costs
– $0.9m – $0.2m pa
PVincome = 0.3 v Ia ( ) 12 ÎÍ
( )
+ v 13 È3.6 a20 - 0.15 Ia
20
˘
˚˙
1- v 1 - 1.25 -1
a1 = = = 0.896284
d ln1.25
1 - v 12 1 - 1.25 -12
a12 = = = 4.173459
d ln1.25
1 - v 20 1 - 1.25 -20
a20 = = = 4.429753
d ln1.25
1 - v 32 1 - 1.25 -32
a32 = = = 4.477870
d ln1.25
P = 2.800204
Since the payback period only looks at the cashflows until the project breaks
even, it tells us nothing about the project’s overall profitability.
9
0.495 pa 0.495(1.01) 0.495(1.01)
monthly monthly monthly
in advance in advance in advance
Cashflow
-1 -1 -1 ... (£m)
0 1 2 3 4 5 ... 12 13 Time
The total of all the cashflows up to and including time 10 (without making
any allowance for interest, and working in millions of pounds) is:
Using the formula for the sum of a geometric progression to evaluate the
expression in square brackets:
1 - 1.017
1 + 1.01 + + 1.016 = = 7.21354
1 - 1.01
This is positive, so the payback period is before time 10, and the second
criterion is satisfied.
Finally, we will look at the first criterion. We want an internal rate of return
that is at least 6% (2% less than the target rate of return of 8%).
The NPV of all the cashflows arising under the project is:
( )
-a3 - 0.05 v 4 + + v 13 + 0.495 v 3 a(12) È1 + 1.01v + + (1.01v ) ˘
1 ÍÎ
9
˙˚
The expression in square brackets can be calculated using the formula for
the sum of a geometric progression (as before):
1- v 1 - 1.06 -1 1 - 1.06 -1
a(12) = (12) = = = 0.97378
12 È1 - (1 - d )
1/12 ˘
1 d 12 È1 - 1.06 -1/12 ˘
ÍÎ ˙˚ Î ˚
We also have:
( ) ( )
0.05 v 4 + + v 13 = 0.05v 3 v + v 2 + + v 10 = 0.05v 3a10
1 - 1.06 -10
= 0.05 ¥ 1.06 -3 ¥
0.06
= 0.05 ¥ 0.83962 ¥ 7.36009
= 0.30898
-3
1 - 1.06
Also: a3 = = 2.83339
1 - 1.06 -1
So the NPV is positive at 6%, and so the IRR is greater than 6% pa, and the
first criterion is satisfied.
t
v (t ) exp 0.04 ds exp 0.04s 0 exp 0.04t
t
0
t
v (t ) v (2)exp (0.02 ks ) ds
2
t
exp 0.04 2 exp 0.02s 0.5ks 2
2
exp 0.08 exp 0.02t 0.5kt 2 0.02 2 0.5k 22
exp 0.02t 0.5kt 2 0.04 2k
The net present value of the project’s cashflows up to and including time
10 years (working in £m) is:
2
NPV 0.5 0.25e 0.040.5 0.25e 0.041 2e 0.0210 0.5k 10 0.04 2k
1
0.24 48k ln0.492624 k
48
0.24 ln0.492624
Working in £millions, and ignoring tax, the timeline for the project’s cashflows
is:
5 30
1.25 pa 1.25 (1.042 ) pa 1.25 (1.042 ) pa
monthly, monthly, ... monthly,
11.5 Cashflows
-5.8 -0.85 arrears arrears arrears
(£m)
The present value of the outgo under the project, at an interest rate of
8% pa, is:
The present value of the income from the sale of the office building is:
PV (rent ) 1.25v 0.75a(12) 1 (1.042)5 v 5 (1.042)30 v 30
5
The summation in brackets forms a geometric progression of 7 terms, with
first term 1 and common ratio (1.042)5 v 5 . So:
7
1 (1.042)5 v 5
5 5 30 30
1 (1.042) v (1.042) v 4.357670
1 (1.042)5 v 5
1 v 5 1 1.08 5
a(12) 4.137075
5 i (12)
12 1.081 12 1
Putting these values together, we have:
PV (rent ) 1.25v 0.75a(12) 1 (1.042)5 v 5 (1.042)30 v 30
5
1.25(1.08)0.75 (4.137075)(4.357670)
21.271100
Allowing for tax on the rental income at a rate of 35%, the net present value
of the project as a whole is:
7.94248
1- v È 1.05 1.052 ˘
PVA = 10,000 ¥ ¥ Í1 + + ˙
d (12) 2
ÍÎ 1.03 1.03 ˙˚
1 - 1.03 -1
= 10,000 ¥ ¥ 3.05863 = 30,175.80
12 È1 - 1.03 -1/12 ˘
Î ˚
So we have:
Let the student’s initial salary be £ X pa . Then the present value of the
payments under Option C, in terms of X , are:
Consider the expression for the first ten years of payments. Taking out an
1
additional factor of , we can write this as:
1.03
0.03 Xv 3 È
1.03v + 1.032 v 2 + 1.033 v 3 + + 1.0310 v 10 ˘
1.03 Î ˚
0.03 Xv 3
¥ 10 = 0.26655 X
1.03
Now we look at the expression for the remaining payments. Taking out a
1.0310 v 15
common factor of from the second bracket, we can write the
1.01
present value as:
0.03 Xv 18 ¥ 1.0310 È
1.01v + 1.012 v 2 + + 1.0130 v 30 ˘
1.01 Î ˚
0.03 Xv 18 ¥ 1.0310 È
= V + V 2 + + V 30 ˘
1.01 Î ˚
1.01 1
where V = = .
1.03 1.019802
So the total value of the terms in the square bracket is a30 , calculated at a
rate of interest of 1.9802% pa.
For this to have a lower present value than either of the other two options,
we need:
So the highest initial level of salary that will lead to the payments under
Option C having the lowest present value is about £38,047.
The risks to the student vary with the different options. For example, under
Option C there is a risk that the student will end up paying more for his
university education than he would under either of the other two options.
So using the same interest rate for each of the calculations does not seem
sensible.
FACTSHEET
T
NPV (i ) = Â ct (1 + i )- t + Ú r (t )(1 + i )-t dt
0
The yield, or internal rate of return, is given by the solution to the equation:
NPV (i ) = 0
3 Accumulated profit
NPV (i )(1 + i )T
The concepts of net present value and yield are in general no longer
meaningful. We must calculate the accumulation of net cashflows from first
principles, the rate of interest depending on whether or not the investor’s
account is in credit. In many practical problems the balance in the investor’s
account (ie the accumulation of net cashflows) will be negative until a certain
time and positive afterwards, except perhaps when the project ends.
In some cases the investor must finance his investment or business project
by means of a fixed-term loan without an early repayment option. In these
circumstances the investor cannot use a positive cashflow to repay the loan
gradually, but must accumulate this money at the rate of interest applicable
on lending.
In many practical problems the net cashflow changes sign only once, this
change being from negative to positive. In these circumstances the balance
in the investor’s account will change from negative to positive at a unique
time t1 , or it will always be negative, in which case the project is not viable.
If this time t1 exists, it is referred to as the discounted payback period
(DPP). It is the smallest value of t such that A(t ) ≥ 0 , where:
t
A(t ) = Â cs (1 + j1)t -s + Ú0 r (s )(1 + j1)t -s ds
s £t
NOTES
NOTES
Subject CM1
Revision Notes
For the 2019 exams
covering
CONTENTS
Contents Page
Links to the Course Notes and Syllabus 2
Overview 3
Core Reading 4
Past Exam Questions 25
Solutions to Past Exam Questions 48
Factsheet 96
Copyright agreement
Legal action will be taken if these terms are infringed. In addition, we may
seek to take disciplinary action through the profession or through your
employer. These conditions remain in force after you have finished using
the course.
These chapter numbers refer to the 2019 edition of the ActEd course notes.
The numbering of the syllabus items is the same as that used by the Institute
and Faculty of Actuaries.
2. Calculate the price of, or yield (nominal or real allowing for inflation)
from, a bond (fixed-interest or index-linked) where the investor is
subject to deduction of income tax on coupon payments and
redemption payments are subject to deduction of capital gains tax.
3. Calculate the running yield and the redemption yield for the
financial instrument as described in 3.2.2.
4. Calculate the upper and lower bounds for the present value of the
financial instrument as described in 3.2.2 when the redemption date
can be a single date within a given range at the option of the
borrower.
OVERVIEW
This booklet covers Syllabus objectives 2.2 and 3.2.2 to 3.2.5, which relate
to real rates, and valuing bonds, equity shares and property assets.
Breakdown of topics
In Chapter 13, we describe how to calculate the price and the yield for a
fixed-interest security. The situation is complicated slightly if the investor is
liable to tax. The types of tax covered here are income tax, which applies to
the coupon payments, and capital gains tax, which applies to the capital gain
– ie the difference between the redemption value and the purchase price,
provided this is positive. We also consider how to deal with securities that
have optional redemption dates.
Also covered in this booklet are real rates of return and index-linked bonds,
where the coupon and redemption payments are linked to an inflation index.
This builds on the introductory material on real and money rates covered in
Chapter 6.
Exam questions
There are lots of exam questions on calculating the price or the return on a
fixed-interest security. By the time of the exam, once you’ve had some
practice, you should find these relatively straightforward. Many students find
questions on real yields and/or index-linked bonds much harder.
CORE READING
All of the Core Reading for the topics covered in this booklet is contained in
this section.
____________
The sum A* (0, t ) is referred to as the real amount accumulated, and the
underlying interest rate, reduced for the effects of inflation, is termed a
‘real rate of interest’.
5 Which of the two rates of interest, real or money, is the more useful will
depend on a two main factors:
For example, first suppose that an actuary was asked to calculate the
sum to be invested by a person aged 40 to provide for a round-the-
world cruise when the person reaches 60, and where the person says
the cruise costs £25,000.
Unless the person has, for some reason, already made an allowance
for inflation in suggesting a figure of £25,000 then that amount is
probably today’s cost of the cruise. In this case, the actuary would be
wise to assume (checking his understanding with the person) an
inflation rate and this could be achieved by assuming a real rate of
interest.
7 Whether the underlying data has or has not already been adjusted for
inflation.
In the first example above, we see that the data may already have been
adjusted for inflation and in that case it would not be appropriate to
allow for inflation again. A money rate would then be assumed.
More generally in actuarial work, the nature of the data provided must
be understood before choosing the type and amount of assumptions to
be made.
____________
(2) Given that the investor pays a price P per unit nominal, what net
yield per annum will be obtained?
The price of this bond, at an effective rate of interest i per annum, with
no allowance for tax (ie i represents the gross yield) is:
13 Note: One could also work with a period of half a year. The
corresponding equation of value would then be:
D
P= a + Rv 2n at rate i ¢ where (1 + i ¢)2 = 1 + i
2 2n
____________
It is possible in some countries that the tax is paid at some later date,
for example at the calendar year end.
This does not cause any particular problems as we follow the usual
procedure — identify the cashflow amounts and dates and set out the
equation of value.
For example, suppose that income tax on the bond is paid in a single
instalment, due, say, k years after the second half-yearly coupon
payment each year.
____________
15 Then the equation of value for a given net yield i and price (or value)
P ¢ is, immediately after a coupon payment,
P ¢ = Da ( p ) + Rv n - t1Dv k an
n
16 If the price paid for a bond is less than the redemption (or sale price if
sold earlier) then the investor has made a capital gain.
____________
R > (1 - t1)Da ( p ) + Rv n
n
1- v n
fi R (1 - v n ) > (1 - t1)D
i ( p)
D
fi R > (1 - t1) ( p)
i
( p) D
fi i > (1 - t1) (1.4)
R
If the investor is also subject to tax at rate t2 (0 < t2 < 1) on the capital
gains, then let the price payable, for a given net yield i , be P ¢¢ .
____________
D
18 If i ( p ) > (1 - t1) then there is a capital gain.
R
____________
In this case:
20 Note that if a stock is sold before the final maturity date, the capital
gains tax liability will in general be different, since it will be calculated
with reference to the sale proceeds rather than the corresponding
redemption amount.
____________
D
21 If i ( p ) £ (1 - t1)
then there is no capital gain and no capital gains tax
R
liability due at redemption. Hence P ¢¢ = P ¢ in (1.3). (We are assuming
that it is not permissible to offset the capital loss against any other
capital gain).
An investor who is liable to capital gains tax may wish to determine the
net yield on a particular transaction in which he has purchased a loan
at a given price.
Question
A loan of £1,000 bears interest of 6% per annum payable yearly and will
be redeemed at par after ten years. An investor, liable to income tax
and capital gains tax at the rates of 40% and 30% respectively, buys the
loan for £800. What is his net effective annual yield?
____________
22 Solution
Note that the net income each year of £36 is 4.5% of the purchase
price. Since there is a gain on redemption, the net yield is clearly
greater than 4.5%.
The gain on redemption is £200, so that the capital gains tax payable
will be £60 and the net redemption proceeds will be £940. The net
effective yield pa is thus that value of i for which
821.66 - 800
i = 0.055 + 0.005 = 0.0584
821.66 - 789.85
Alternatively, we may find the prices to give net yields of 5.5% and 6%
per annum. These prices are £826.27 and £787.81, respectively. The
yield may then be obtained by interpolation. However, this alternative
approach is somewhat longer than the first method.
23 The latest possible redemption date is called the final redemption date
of the stock, and if there is no such date, then the stock is said to be
undated.
or
(2) The minimum net yield the investor will obtain, if the price is some
specified value.
D
24 It follows from equations (1.3) and (1.4) that if i ( p ) > (1 - t1)
then the
R
purchaser will receive a capital gain when the security is redeemed.
From the investor’s viewpoint, the sooner a capital gain is received the
better. The investor will therefore obtain a greater yield on a security
which is redeemed first.
____________
D
26 Similarly if i ( p ) < (1 - t1)
then there will be a capital loss when the
R
security is redeemed. The investor will wish to defer this loss as long
as possible, and will therefore obtain a greater yield on a security
which is redeemed later.
____________
D
28 Finally, if i ( p ) = (1 - t1)
then there is neither a capital gain nor a
R
capital loss. So it will make no difference to the investor when the
security is redeemed. The net annual yield will be i irrespective of the
actual redemption date chosen.
29 P < R , then the investor receives a capital gain when the security is
redeemed. The worst case is that the redemption money is repaid at
the latest possible date. If this does in fact occur, the net annual yield
will be that calculated. If redemption takes place at an earlier date, the
net annual yield will be greater than that calculated.
____________
30 P > R , then the investor receives a capital loss when the security is
redeemed. The worst case is that the redemption money is repaid at
the earliest possible date. The actual yield obtained will be at least the
value calculated on this basis.
____________
32 Note that a capital gains tax liability does not change any of this. For
example, an investment which has a capital gain before allowing for
capital gains tax must still have a net capital gain after allowing for the
capital gains tax liability, so that the ‘worst case’ for the investor is still
the latest redemption. However, in some cases, for example if the
redemption price varies, the simple strategy described above will not
be adequate, and several values may need to be calculated to
determine which is lowest.
____________
Index linked bonds differ slightly from the other two in that the income
is certain in real terms. These are therefore covered separately, later.
So, let the value of an equity just after a dividend payment be P , and
let D be the amount of this dividend payment. Assume that dividends
grow in such a way that the dividend due at time t is estimated to be
Dt .
____________
•
P= Â Dt v it
t =1
1+ i
P = Da• i ¢ where i ¢ = -1
1+ g
D (1 + g )
fiP =
i -g
____________
37 At certain times close to the dividend payment date the equity may be
offered for sale excluding the next dividend. This allows for the fact
that there may not be time between the sale date and the dividend
payment date for the company to adjust its records to ensure the buyer
receives the dividend. An equity which is offered for sale without the
next dividend is called ex-dividend or ‘xd’. The valuation of ex-
dividend stocks requires no new principles.
____________
(1) property rents are generally fixed for a number of years at a time
and
(2) some property contracts may be fixed term, so that after a certain
period the property income ceases and ownership passes back to
the original owner (or another investor) with no further payments.
____________
•
P= Â 1
m
Dk / mv k / m
k =1
____________
40 The effect of inflation means that a unit of money at, say, time 0 has
different purchasing power than a unit of money at any other time. We
find the real rate of interest by first adjusting all payment amounts for
inflation, so that they are all expressed in units of purchasing power at
the same date.
Time: 0 1
Time: 0 1
42 Where the rates of inflation are known (that is, we are looking back in
time at a transaction that is complete) we may adjust payments for the
rate of inflation by reference to a relevant inflation index.
Time, t : 0 1 2 3
Now we can change all these amounts into time 0 money values by
dividing the payment at time t by the proportional increase in the
inflation index from 0 to t. For example the inflation-adjusted value of
the payment of 8 at time 1 is 8 ∏ (Q(1) / Q (0)) . The series of payments in
time 0 money values is then as follows:
Time, t: 0 1 2 3
n Q (0) tk
 Ctk v =0
Q (t k ) i ¢
k =1
n Ctk t
fi  v i k¢ = 0
k =1 Q (t k )
The second equation here, in which all terms are divided by Q (0) ,
demonstrates that the solution of the yield equation is independent of
the date the payment units are adjusted to.
n
t t
 Ctk v jk v i k¢ =0
k =1
____________
n
 Ctk v itk =0
k =1
____________
47 So the relationship between the real yield i ¢ , the rate of inflation j and
the money yield i is:
i-j
v i = v jv i ¢ fi i ¢ =
1+ j
___________
i = i ¢ + j (1 + i ¢)
Some contracts specify that the cashflows will be adjusted to allow for
future inflation, usually in terms of a given inflation index.
____________
The actual cashflows will be unknown until the inflation index at the
relevant dates are known.
____________
Q (t )
Ct = ct
Q (0)
____________
n Q (0) tk n
t
 Ctk Q (t k )
v i ¢ = 0 fi  ctk v i k¢ = 0
k =1 k =1
In other words we can solve the yield equation using the nominal
amounts.
However, it is not always the case that the index used to inflate the
cashflows is the same as that used to calculate the real yield. For
example the index-linked UK government security has coupons inflated
by reference to the inflation index value three months before the
payment is made. The real yield, however, is calculated using the
inflation index at the actual payment dates.
The case when all items of cashflow are subject to the same rate of
escalation j per time unit is of special interest.
____________
52 In this case we find or estimate ctj and r j (t ) , the net cashflow and the
net rate of cashflow allowing for escalation at rate j per unit time, by
the formulae:
ctj = (1 + j )t ct
r j (t ) = (1 + j )t r (t )
where ct and r (t ) are estimates of the net cashflow and the net rate of
cashflow respectively at time t without any allowance for inflation.
____________
53 It follows that, with allowance for inflation at rate j per unit time, the
net present value of an investment or business project at rate of
interest i is:
•
NPV j (i ) = Â ct (1 + j )t (1 + i )-t + Ú r (t )(1 + j )t (1 + i )-t dt
0
•
= Â ct (1 + i0 )-t + Ú r (t )(1 + i0 )-t dt (3.1)
0
where:
1+ i
1 + i0 =
1+ j
or:
i-j
i0 = (3.2)
1+ j
____________
i0 ª i - j
Index-linked bonds
For example, let the nominal annual coupon rate for an n -year
index-linked bond be D per £1 nominal face value with coupons
payable half-yearly, and let the nominal redemption price be R per £1
nominal face value. We assume that payments are inflated by
reference to an index with base value Q (0) , such that…
____________
D Q (t )
2 Q (0)
____________
2n D Q (k 2) k /2 Q (n ) n
P= Â 2 Q (0)
vi + R
Q (0)
vi
k =1
____________
etc
It is important to bear in mind that the index used may not be the same
as the actual inflation index value at time t that one would use, for
example, to calculate the real (inflation-adjusted) yield. In the case of
UK index-linked bonds, the payments are increased using the index
values from three months before the payment date. Real yields would
be calculated using the inflation index values at the payment date.
Solutions are given later in this booklet. These give enough information for
you to check your answer, including working, and also show you what an
adequate examination answer should look like. Further information may be
available in the Examiners’ Report, ASET or Course Notes. (ASET can be
ordered from ActEd.)
We first provide you with a cross reference grid that indicates the main
subject areas of each exam question. You can use this, if you wish, to
select the questions that relate just to those aspects of the topic that you
may be particularly interested in reviewing.
Alternatively you can choose to ignore the grid, and instead attempt each
question without having any clues as to its content.
Bonds
Equity price/yield
income/CG tax
Index linked
redemption
Tick when
attempted
Real yield
Optional
Price
Yield
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10 ()
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25 ()
26
27
28
29
30
Price
Yield
Exclusive use Batch 4a
income/CG tax
Optional
Bonds
redemption
Index linked
Real yield
Equity price/yield
Page 27
Exclusive use Batch 4a
An investor who is liable to income tax at 25% and capital gains tax at 35%
wishes to purchase the entire loan at the date of issue.
Calculate the price which the investor should pay to ensure a net effective
yield of at least 5% per annum. [8]
The shares of a company currently trade at £2.60 each, and the company
has just paid a dividend of 12p per share. An investor assumes that
dividends will be paid annually in perpetuity and will grow in line with a
constant rate of inflation. The investor estimates the assumed inflation rate
from equating the price of the share with the present value of all estimated
future gross dividend payments using an effective interest rate of 6% per
annum.
(i) Calculate the investor’s estimation of the effective inflation rate per
annum based on the above assumptions. [4]
(ii) Suppose that the actual inflation rate turns out to be 3% per annum
effective over the following twelve years, but that all the investor’s other
assumptions are correct.
Calculate the investor’s real rate of return per annum from purchase to
sale, if she sold the shares after twelve years for £5 each immediately
after a dividend has been paid. You may assume that the investor pays
no tax. [6]
[Total 10]
3 Subject CT1 September 2008 Question 1
A 91-day government bill is purchased for £95 at the time of issue and is
redeemed at the maturity date for £100. Over the 91 days, an index of
consumer prices rises from 220 to 222.
In Investment B, the initial sum of £1m accumulates at the rate of 10% per
annum compound for ten years. At the end of the ten years, the
accumulated value of the investment is returned to the investor after
deduction of capital gains tax.
(i) Calculate the net rate of return expected from each of the investments.
[7]
(ii) Explain why the expected rate of return is higher for Investment C than
for Investment B and is higher for Investment B than for Investment A. [3]
[Total 10]
On 1 January 2008 the investor sold the holding, immediately after the
payment of the coupon then due, to a fund which pays no tax. The sale
price gave the fund a gross redemption yield of at least 9% per annum
effective.
(i) The price per £100 nominal at which the investor bought the loan. [6]
(ii) The price per £100 nominal at which the investor sold the loan. [4]
(iii) The net yield per annum convertible quarterly that was actually obtained
by the investor during the period of ownership of the loan. [5]
[Total 15]
Calculate, using the retail price index values shown in the table, the effective
annual real rate of return achieved by the investor. [7]
A fixed-interest security has just been issued. The security pays half-yearly
coupons of 5% per annum in arrear and is redeemable at par 20 years after
issue.
(i) Calculate the price to provide an investor with a net redemption yield of
6% per annum effective. The investor pays tax at a rate of 20% on
income and is not subject to capital gains tax. [3]
(ii) Determine the annual effective gross redemption yield of this security
assuming the price calculated in (i) is paid. [5]
(iii) Determine the real annual effective gross redemption yield of this
security if the rate of inflation is constant over the twenty years at 3%
per annum. [2]
[Total 10]
(i) Calculate the investor’s cashflows from this investment and state the
month when each cashflow occurs. [3]
(ii) Calculate the annual effective money yield obtained by the investor to
the nearest 0.1% per annum. [3]
[Total 6]
Under the terms of the ordinary share issue, the investor is to purchase
1,000,000 shares at a purchase price of 45p each on 1 January 2011.
Calculate the price per £100 nominal if the investor is to obtain a net real
yield of 5% per annum. [7]
Calculate the price per £100 nominal to provide the investor with an effective
rate of return per annum of 10%. [3]
A bond is redeemed at £110 per £100 nominal in exactly four years’ time. It
pays coupons of 4% per annum half-yearly in arrear and the next coupon is
due in exactly six months’ time. The current price is £110 per £100 nominal.
(i) (a) Calculate the gross rate of return per annum convertible half-yearly
from the bond.
(b) Calculate the gross effective rate of return per annum from the
bond. [2]
(ii) Calculate the net effective rate of return per annum from the bond for an
investor who pays income tax at 25%. [2]
[Total 4]
An investment trust bought 1,000 shares at £135 each on 1 July 2005. The
trust received dividends on its holding on 30 June each year that it held the
shares.
The rate of dividend per share was as given in the table below:
On 1 July 2010, the investment trust sold its entire holding of the shares at a
price of £151 per share.
(i) Using the retail price index values shown in the table, calculate the real
rate of return per annum effective achieved by the trust on its
investment. [6]
(ii) Explain, without doing any further calculations, how your answer to (i)
would alter (if at all) if the retail price index for 30 June 2008 had been
greater than 138.7 (with all other index values unchanged). [2]
[Total 8]
An investor who is liable to income tax at 20% and capital gains tax of 35%
wishes to purchase the entire loan on 1 June 2011 at a price which ensures
that the investor achieves a net effective yield of at least 5% per annum.
(i) Determine whether the investor would make a capital gain if the
investment is held until redemption. [3]
(ii) Explain how your answer to (i) influences the assumptions made in
calculating the price the investor should pay. [2]
(iii) Calculate the maximum price the investor should pay. [5]
[Total 10]
The current price of the shares is 12 pence per share. It is highly unlikely
that the share will pay any dividends in the next five years. However, the
investment manager expects the company to pay a dividend of 2 pence per
share in exactly six years’ time, 2.5 pence per share in exactly seven years’
time, with annual dividends increasing thereafter by 1% per annum in
perpetuity.
In five years’ time, the investment manager expects to sell the shares. The
sale price is expected to be equal to the present value of the expected
dividends from the share at that time at a rate of interest of 8% per annum
effective.
(i) Calculate the effective gross rate of return per annum the investment
manager will obtain if he buys the share and then sells it at the expected
price in five years’ time. [6]
(ii) Calculate the net effective rate of return per annum the investment
manager will obtain if he buys the share today and then sells it at the
expected price in five years’ time if capital gains tax is payable at 25%
on any capital gains. [3]
(iii) Calculate the net effective real rate of return per annum the investment
manager will obtain if he buys the share and then sells it at the expected
price in five years’ time if capital gains tax is payable at 25% on any
capital gains and inflation is 4% per annum effective. There is no
indexation allowance. [3]
[Total 12]
On 1 March 2007, immediately after the payment of the coupon then due,
the gross redemption yield was 3.158% per annum effective.
(i) Calculate the price of the bond per £100 nominal on 1 March 2007. [3]
On 1 March 2012, immediately after the payment of the coupon then due,
the gross redemption yield on the bond was 5% per annum.
(ii) State the new price of the bond per £100 nominal on 1 March 2012. [1]
(iii) Calculate the gross annual rate of return achieved by the investor over
this period. [2]
(iv) Explain, without doing any further calculations, how your answer to part
(iii) would change if the bond were due to be redeemed on 1 March
2035 (rather than 1 March 2025). You may assume that the gross
redemption yield at both the date of purchase and the date of sale
remains the same as in parts (i) and (ii) above. [3]
[Total 9]
(i) Calculate the present value of the dividend stream described above at a
rate of interest of 8% per annum effective for an investor holding 100
shares on 1 January 2012. [4]
You should assume that dividends grow as expected and use the following
values of the inflation index:
(i) Calculate the maximum price per share that the investor should pay to
give an effective return of 9% per annum. [4]
(ii) Without doing any further calculations, explain whether the maximum
price paid will be higher, lower or the same if:
(c) general economic uncertainty means that, whilst the investor still
estimates future dividends will grow at 5% per annum, he is now
much less sure about the accuracy of this assumption.
On 1 April 2013 the investor sold the holding to a fund which pays no tax at
a price to give the fund a gross yield of at least 7% per annum effective.
(i) Calculate the price per £100 nominal at which the investor bought the
security. [5]
(ii) Calculate the price per £100 nominal at which the investor sold the
security. [3]
(iii) Show that the effective net yield that the investor obtained on the
investment was between 8% and 9% per annum. [6]
[Total 14]
(i) Calculate the price per £100 nominal to provide a gross redemption
yield of 3% per annum convertible half-yearly. [2]
(ii) Calculate the price, 91 days later, to provide a net redemption yield of
3% per annum convertible half-yearly if income tax is payable at 25%. [2]
[Total 4]
Both bonds provide a capital repayment of €100 together with a final coupon
payment of €6 in exactly one year. The investor believes that he will receive
both payments from the bond issued by Country A with certainty. He
believes that there are four possible outcomes for the bond from Country B,
shown in the table below.
Outcome Probability
(i) Calculate the price of the bond issued by Country B to give the same
expected return as that for the bond issued by Country A. [3]
(ii) Calculate the gross redemption yield from the bond issued by Country B
assuming that the price is as calculated in part (i). [1]
(iii) Explain why the investor might require a higher expected return from the
bond issued by Country B than from the bond issued by Country A. [2]
[Total 6]
Mrs Jones invests a sum of money for her retirement which is expected to be
in 20 years’ time. The money is invested in a zero coupon bond which
provides a return of 5% per annum effective. At retirement, the individual
requires sufficient money to purchase an annuity certain of £10,000 per
annum for 25 years. The annuity will be paid monthly in arrear and the
purchase price will be calculated at a rate of interest of 4% per annum
convertible half-yearly.
(i) Calculate the sum of money the individual needs to invest at the
beginning of the 20-year period. [5]
The index of retail prices has a value of 143 at the beginning of the 20-year
period and 340 at the end of the 20-year period.
(ii) Calculate the annual effective real return the individual would obtain
from the zero coupon bond. [2]
(iii) Calculate the net annual effective real return to the investor over the 20-
year period before the annuity commences. [3]
(iv) Explain why the investor has achieved a negative real rate of return
despite capital gains tax only being a tax on the profits from an
investment. [2]
[Total 12]
An investor, who is liable to income tax at 30% and tax on capital gains at
40%, bought the stock at issue at a price which gave her a minimum net
yield to redemption of 6% per annum effective.
An investor, who was not subject to tax, bought £10,000 nominal of the stock
on 26 October 2012. The investor held the stock until redemption.
You are given the following values of the retail price index:
(i) Calculate the coupon payment that the investor received on 25 April
2013 and the coupon and redemption payments that the investor
received on 25 October 2013. [3]
(ii) Calculate the purchase price that the investor paid on 25 October 2012
if the investor achieved an effective real yield of 3.5% per annum
effective on the investment. [4]
[Total 7]
The values of the retail price index in the relevant months were:
An investor purchased £3.5m nominal of the bond at the issue date and held
it until it was redeemed. The investor was subject to tax on coupon
payments at a rate of 25%.
(i) Calculate the incoming net cash flows the investor received. [5]
(ii) Express the cash flows in terms of 1 June 2012 prices. [4]
(iii) Calculate the purchase price of the bond per £100 nominal if the real net
redemption yield achieved by the investor was 1.5% per annum
effective. [3]
When the investor purchased the security, he expected the retail price index
to rise much more slowly than it did in practice.
(iv) Explain whether the investor’s expected net real rate of return at
purchase would have been greater than 1.5% per annum effective. [2]
In September 2012, the government indicated that it might change the price
index to which payments were linked to one which tends to rise more slowly
than the retail price index.
(v) Explain the likely impact of such a change on the market price of index-
linked bonds. [2]
[Total 16]
Calculate the expected effective real rate of return per annum for an investor
who purchases the share. [6]
Part (i) of Subject CT1 April 2015 Question 8 is about bond pricing.
However, later parts of this question concern discounted mean term and
volatility, so we have included it in an earlier booklet.
Exactly half the bonds will be redeemed after ten years at €100 per €100
nominal. The bonds that are redeemed will be determined by lot (ie the
bonds will be numbered and half the numbered bonds will be chosen
randomly for redemption). Coupon payments on the remaining bonds will be
increased to 7% per annum and these bonds will be redeemed 20 years
after issue at €130 per €100 nominal.
(i) the maximum rate of return the individual can obtain from the bond. [5]
(ii) the minimum rate of return the individual can obtain from the bond. [2]
(iii) the expected rate of return the individual will obtain from the bond [2]
(iv) Show that the rate of return that the investor will obtain is greater than
the expected rate of return that the above individual who buys a single
bond will receive. [5]
[Total 14]
Thereafter, dividends will grow at a constant rate of 1% per annum and are
assumed to be paid in perpetuity. All dividends will be taxed at a rate of
20%. The investor requires a net rate of return from the shares of 6% per
annum effective.
(ii) Derive and simplify as far as possible a general formula which will allow
you to determine the value of a share for different values of:
the next expected dividend.
the dividend growth rate.
the required rate of return.
the tax rate.
The company announces some news that makes the shares more risky.
(iv) Explain what would happen to the value of the share, using the formula
derived in part (ii). [2]
The investor bought 1,000 shares on 1 August 2014 for the price calculated
in part (iii). He received the dividend of 6 pence on 1 August 2015 and paid
the tax due on the dividend. The investor then sold the share immediately
for 120 pence. Capital gains tax was charged on all gains at a rate of 25%.
On 1 August 2014, the index of retail prices was 123. On 1 August 2015,
the index of retail prices was 126.
(v) Determine the net real return earned by the investor. [3]
[Total 14]
An investor who is liable to income tax at 25% and capital gains tax at 40%
wishes to purchase the entire loan at the date of issue.
(i) Determine the price which the investor should pay to ensure a net
effective yield of at least 5% per annum. [5]
(ii) Explain the significance of the redemption date being at the option of the
borrower in relation to your calculation in part (i). [2]
[Total 7]
(i) Set out a schedule of the investor’s cashflows, showing the amount and
month of each cashflow. [3]
(ii) Determine the annual effective real yield obtained by the investor to the
nearest 0.1% per annum. [5]
[Total 8]
Dividends from the shares are payable half-yearly in arrear. The next
dividend is due in exactly six months and is expected to be 6.5 pence per
share.
(i) Calculate, showing all working, the maximum price that the investor
should pay for the shares. [4]
(ii) (a) Calculate, showing all working, the maximum price the investor
should now pay for the shares.
(b) Explain the difference between your answers to part (i) and part
(ii)(a). [2]
It is rumoured that new legislation may affect the operation of Enterprise plc.
(iii) (a) Explain why it might be appropriate for the investor to increase her
required rate of return.
(b) Calculate the maximum price that the investor should now pay for
the shares.
(c) Explain the difference between your answers to part (i) and part
(iii)(b). [3]
As a result, the investor decides to reduce both the assumed rate of dividend
growth and her required rate of return to 1% and 5% per half-year effective
respectively.
(iv) (a) Explain why it is appropriate for the investor to reduce both the
future dividend growth rate and the required rate of return in this
case.
(b) Calculate the maximum price that the investor should now pay for
the shares.
(c) Explain the difference between your answers to part (i) and part
(iv)(b). [5]
[Total 14]
An investor is liable to income tax at the rate of 30% and capital gains tax at
the rate of 40%. Income tax and capital gains tax are both collected on
1 June each year in relation to gross payments made during the previous
12 months.
(i) Show that the net redemption yield obtained by the investor will be
between 3% and 4% per annum effective. [7]
The inflation rate over the term of the bond is assumed to be 2% per annum.
(ii) Calculate the net effective annual real redemption yield that would be
obtained by the investor. [3]
(iii) Explain, without doing any further calculations, how your answers to
parts (i) and (ii) would alter if the tax were collected on 1 April instead of
1 June each year. [2]
[Total 12]
The solutions presented here are just outline solutions for you to use to
check your answers. See ASET for full solutions.
Let P be the price per £100 nominal of the issue. The equation of value is:
Solving for P:
A dividend of £0.12 has just been paid (and so is not included in the
calculations). The timeline below shows the cashflows for the investor (in £):
0 1 2 ... time
0.12(1+ j ) 1+ j
The RHS is an infinite geometric series with a = 1.06
and r = 1.06
.
0.12(1 + j )
1.06 0.12(1 + j )
2.60 = =
1+ j 1.06 - (1 + j )
1-
1.06
The timeline below shows the investor’s cashflows at each future time:
2 12
-2.60 0.12(1.03) 0.12(1.03) ... 5 + 0.12(1.03)
0 1 2 ... 12 time
Using the final column of the table, we can set up an equation of value for
the investor’s cashflows in real terms:
5v 12
2.60 = 0.12a12 +
1.0312
0.12
The share pays real dividends of 2.6
= 4.62% and the price paid (2.60) is
will be much more than 4.62%. Using trial and error, we get:
i = 7% fi RHS = 2.5102
i = 6.5% fi RHS = 2.6262
2.60 - 2.6262
i = 6.5 + (7 - 6.5) = 6.61% pa
2.5102 - 2.6262
Think of the time at which the government bill is purchased as time 0. Using
the inflation index given to convert the redemption payment of £100 to a time
0 monetary amount gives a value of:
220
100
222
220 91
95 100 v 365
222
v 0.844139 i 0.184639
Investment A
Since the amount of the investment returned at the end of the 10 years is
equal to the amount invested, there is no capital gain.
The equation of value to solve for the net interest rate is (in millions):
Investment B
No income is received during the course of the ten years under Investment
B, so no income tax will be payable.
The initial investment is £1 million. After 10 years, this has accumulated to:
1,000,000(1.1)10
0.4 1,000,000(1.110 1)
1 1.110 v 10 0.4 1.110 1 v 10
This gives:
1.9562455v 10 1 i 6.94%
Investment C
1 1.110 v 10 0.4 1.110 1.0410 v 10
This gives:
2.1483432v 10 1 i 7.95%
(ii) Explanation
Investments B and C are the same except for the rules surrounding the
payment of capital gains tax. Since indexation of capital gains is allowed for
Investment C, there is a lower capital gain for tax purposes and hence a
lower capital gains tax liability than for Investment B. This means that the
investor pays less tax under Investment C and hence receives a higher
return.
The returns from Investment A and Investment B are the same when tax is
ignored, as both investments give a gross return of 10% pa. The tax on
income and that on capital gains are also the same. However, when
comparing these investments, the tax on Investment A is paid sooner than
that on Investment B, as it is paid as soon as the income is received during
the term of the investment, rather than in a lump sum at the end. Since the
tax payment is deferred under Investment B, this gives a higher return than
Investment A.
Carrying out the capital gains test from the point of view of the fund:
P2 = 11a(4) + 115v 7 @ 9%
7
P2 = 57.197 + 62.909 = £120.106
For £100 nominal the original investor will receive 12 net quarterly coupons
of (1 - 0.3) ¥ 11
4
= 1.925 and make a capital gain of 120.106 - 103.174
= 16.932 when the stock is sold. Working in quarters the equation of value
is:
As the bond pays net coupons of 1.925% and the price paid is less than the
sale price after tax, the yield will be greater than 1.925%. Using trial and
error, we get:
i = 3% fi RHS = 100.432
i = 2.5% fi RHS = 105.904
103.174 - 105.904
i = 2.5 + (3 - 2.5) = 2.75%
100.432 - 105.904
4 ¥ 2.75% = 11.0%
i = 7% fi RHS = 79.070
i = 7.5% fi RHS = 78.023
i = 8% fi RHS = 76.996
Ê 78 - 78.023 ˆ
fi i = 7.5% + Á ¥ (8% - 7.5%) = 7.51%
Ë 76.996 - 78.023 ˜¯
(i) Price
Let P denote the price per £100 nominal of the bond. Then:
i = 7% fi RHS = 79.723
i = 8% fi RHS = 71.508
i = 7.5% fi RHS = 75.452
Ê 77.738 - 79.723 ˆ
i = 7% + Á ¥ (7.5% - 7%) = 7.23%
Ë 75.452 - 79.723 ˜¯
i - j 0.0723 - 0.03
i¢ = = = 4.1%
1+ j 1.03
R
– P C1 C2 C3 C4
The first cashflow is the amount paid to buy the bond. The investor
purchases £100,000 nominal, which is the same as 1,000 lots of £100
nominal of the bond. So, since the price per £100 nominal is £98:
P = 98 ¥ 1,000 = £98,000
The first positive cashflow is the first half-yearly coupon received in July
2008. The nominal amount of this coupon is £2 per £100 nominal, which
needs to be increased to allow for 6 months of inflation. Allowing for the 6
month time lag, and using I for the inflation index value, this is:
IJan 08 112.1
C1 = 2 ¥ ¥ 1,000 = 2 ¥ ¥ 1,000 = £2,028.96
IJuly 07 110.5
The other cashflows are calculated similarly and are shown in the table
below:
The money yield is the rate of interest, i , that satisfies the equation of value:
2
-450 40 40 40(1.03 ) 40(1.03 ) 40(1.03 ) ...
( )(
= -450 + 40v 2 1 + v 0.5 1 + 1.03v + 1.032 v 2 + )
We have an infinite geometric series in the second brackets with a = 1 and
r = 1.03v . Hence:
(
NPV = -450 + 40v 2 1 + v 0.5 ¥ ) 1
1 - 1.03v
NPV = -450 +
1.08
40
2 (1 + 1.08 ) ¥ 1 - 1
-0.5
1.03
1.08
40
= -450 + ¥ 1.96225 ¥ 21.6
1.082
= -450 + 1, 453.519
= 1,003.519
We’re given a net real yield of 5% pa, but it will be easiest to use a money
rate to calculate the price of the bond. Since inflation is constant over the
term of the bond, the money rate of return, i , is given by:
1 + i = (1.05)(1.028571) = 1.08000
D 6
(1 - t1 ) R = (1 - 0.2) 105 = 4.5714%
( )
P 1 - 0.25v 10 = 4.8a(2) + 78.75v 10
10
@ 8% pa
0.88420P = 69.31665
P = £78.39
20/8/9
3.5
PV1/ 12 / 9 = 3.5a(2) =
• d (2)
3.5 3.5
PV1/ 12 / 9 = -½
= = 37.6042
2[1 - 1.1 ] 0.0930748
103 103
-
PV20 / 8 / 9 = 37.6042v 365 = 37.6042 ¥ 1.1 365 = £36.61
Since there is no capital gain or loss, the capital gains test gives:
D 4
i (2) = fi i (2) = = 0.036
R 110
ie 3.64% (3 SF)
Ê ˆ2
0.036
1 + i = Á1 + fi i = 3.67%
Ë 2 ˜¯
D 4
i (2) = (1 - t1 ) fi i (2) = 0.75 ¥ = 0.027
R 110
Therefore:
(
i = 1+
2
0.027
2 ) - 1 = 0.027459 , ie 2.75% (3 SF)
1
where vˆ = .
1 + iˆ
Interpolating:
(ii) The effect on the real rate of return of a higher RPI in June 2008
121.4
8,800 ¥
RPI for June 2008
So, if the RPI for June 2008 had been higher than 138.7, the real value of
the June 2008 payment would have been lower and therefore the real rate of
return would have been lower.
The investor wishes to make a net (ie after-tax) effective return of at least
5%, so i (2) = 4.939% .
The annual coupon per £100 nominal is £6, the investor’s income tax rate is
20% and the redeemable value is £105, so:
D 6
(1 - t1) = 0.8 ¥ = 4.5714%
R 105
D
Since i (2) > (1 - t1), the investor will have to make a capital gain in order
R
to make a net effective return of 5%.
Since the investor makes a capital gain, the return would be greater the
earlier the redemption date. Therefore, assuming the worst case scenario
for the investor, we assume the latest redemption date. If we calculate the
maximum price that will give the required return to the investor in the worst
case scenario, the investor will then earn at least this return whatever the
redemption date.
+3 +3 +3+105 cashflows
-P
Investor
purchases
bond
We can write the price equation as though the investor were buying it on
2
1 April 2011 and then multiply it by 1.05 12 to accumulate the value forward
from 1 April 2011 to 1 June 2011. The maximum price, P , that the investor
will be prepared to pay for the bond is:
Î n ˚
= È0.8 ¥ 6a(2) + 105v 25 - 0.35(105 - P )v 25 ˘ (1.05) 12
2
Î 25 ˚
2 2 2 2
= 4.8a(2) (1.05) 12 + 105v 25 (1.05) 12 - 0.35 ¥ 105v 25 (1.05) 12 + 0.35 ¥ Pv 25 (1.05) 12
25
(
P 1 - 0.35v 25 (1.05)
2
12
) = 4.8a (2)
25
2
(1.05) 12 + 0.65 ¥ 105v 25 (1.05)
2
12
The maximum price the investor would pay for the whole £100,000 loan is
£99,759.
Let P be the sale price of the share in five years’ time. If the investment
manager buys the share now for 12p, then because no dividends are
expected in the next 5 years, the gross rate of return earned on the
investment is the interest rate that solves the following equation of value:
12(1 + i )5 = P
2
2 2.5 2.5(1.01 ) 2.5(1.01 ) ...
0 5 6 7 8 9 ...
Ê 1 ˆ
P = 2v + 2.5v 2 Á
Ë 1 - (1.01)v ¯˜
2 2.5 1
= + ¥
1.08 1.082 1 - 1.01
1.08
= 34.9206p
This tax will need to be paid at time 5, when the share is sold. The net rate
of return earned from this investment is the solution of the equation of value:
From (ii) we know that the net effective money rate of return (ie ignoring any
allowance for inflation) is 19.457% pa.
Given a constant rate of inflation of 4% pa, the net effective real rate of
return is:
0.19457 - 0.04
i¢ = = 14.863% pa
1.04
The price, P1 , per £100 nominal of the bond on 1 March 2007 is:
P2 = 5a13 + 100v 13 @ 5%
If the GRY is 5% and the annual coupon return is 5%, we are earning no
capital gain (or loss), so the price we pay must be equal to the redemption.
The price of the bond on 1 March 2012 is £100 per £100 nominal.
The investor is receiving £5 coupon per year along with £100 at the end of
the five-year period. This adds up to £125 with no discounting. Therefore
the i that satisfies the equation of value is i = 0% .
In part (i), we calculated the price, P1 , of the bond on 1 March 2007 as:
With a redemption date of 2035, the new price, P1¢ would be found as:
Since the coupons are being earned for a longer period of time, this will help
to offset the capital loss. The investor will be prepared to pay more for the
bond, so it will rise in price.
In part (ii), we calculated the price, P2 , of the bond on 1 March 2012 as:
With a redemption date of 2035, the new price, P2¢ would be found as:
The longer redemption date has increased the March 2007 price (the
purchase price for the investor) but left the March 2012 price unchanged (the
selling price for the investor), so the investor would make a larger capital
loss. Since the income earned from the coupon payments is unchanged, the
investor’s return would be lower, ie less than 0%.
Using the formula for an infinite geometric progression for the final
expression:
È 1 ˘
PV = 35(1.03)v Í1 + 1.05v + (1.05)(1.06)v 2 ¥
Î 1 - 1.06v ˙˚
The following table shows the real and money cashflows per 100 shares.
1
where v = .
1+ i ¢
Interpolating gives:
1,720 - 1,721.14
i ¢ = 2.5% + (3% - 2.5%) = 2.52%
1, 696.70 - 1,721.14
30 1.05 30 1.05
2
30 1.05
3
30 1.05
4
... payments
...
0 1 2 3 4 time
If the future dividends grow more quickly, they will have a higher present
value. So the price the investor is prepared to pay will increase.
However, if the company can increase its prices in line with the new higher
level of inflation, it may be able to generate higher profits, and hence pay
higher dividends. In this case the dividend growth rate will increase, and the
price the investor should pay may go up.
But this is only an increase in value in nominal terms. If the investor wishes
to maintain his real rate of return (which is probably more likely), he will now
need a nominal return higher than 9%. So the price that he is prepared to
pay would stay about the same, depending on the nominal rate of return
used in the calculation.
The level of uncertainty is not built into the model. So again the price the
investor is prepared to pay will remain the same.
However, in this case the investor may require a higher rate of return to
compensate him for the greater uncertainty. If this is true, the price he is
prepared to pay should decrease.
(
i (2) at 6% = 2 1.06½ - 1 = 0.059126)
D 8
and: (1 - t1 ) = 0.7 ¥ = 0.056
R 100
So the worst case scenario for the investor is for this capital gain to be
deferred for as long as possible. We assume for the purposes of the
calculation that the bond is redeemed at the last possible date, on 1 January
2022.
100
4 4 4 ... 4
1/5/11
purchase date
- t2 (100 - P ) v
4 8 8
10 12 10 12
P = (1 - t1 )(1 + i ) 12 8a(2) + 100 v
11
- 0.25 (100 - P ) v
4 8 8
10 12 10 12
= 5.6(1 + i ) 12 a(2) + 100v
11
4 1 - 1.06 -11
P ÊÁ1 - 0.25v ˆ
8
10 12 10 8
= 5.6(1.06) 12 + 75v 12
Ë ¯˜ 0.059126
0.8657202P = 45.69838 + 40.28395
85.98233
P= = £99.31885 per £100 nominal
0.8657202
( )
i (2) at 7% = 2 1.07½ - 1 = 0.068816
D 8
and: (1 - t1 ) = 1¥ = 0.08
R 100
100
4 4 4 ... 4
1/4/13
purchase date
3 9
3 12
P = (1 + i ) 12 8a(2) + 100 v
4
1 - 1.07 -4
1
33
P = 8 ¥ 1.07 4 +100v 4
0.068816
= 28.03408 + 77.59091
= £105.62499 per £100 nominal
The cashflows (before tax) for the first investor are as follows:
-99.31885 105.62499
4 4 4 4
1/5/11 1/4/13
purchase date sale date
4
99.31885 = 5.6 (1 + i ) 12 a(2) + 105.62499v
11
112
2
4
= 5.6 (1 + i ) 12 a(2) + 104.04845v
11
112
2
Evaluating the right hand side of this equation at both 8% and 9%:
We see that the price actually paid by the investor (99.31885) lies in
between these two figures. Therefore the yield obtained by the investor
must lie between 8% and 9% per annum.
2 2
Ê i (2) ˆ Ê 0.03 ˆ
i = Á1 + ˜ - 1 = ÁË1 + ˜ - 1 = 3.0225%
Ë 2 ¯ 2 ¯
P = 4a(2) + 100v 10
10
1 - 1.030225 -10
=4 + 100(1.030225)-10
0.03
= 34.3373 + 74.2470
= £108.58
Evaluating the cashflows at the outset and then accumulate for ¼ of a year:
( )
P = 4(0.75)a(2) + 100v 10 (1 + i )0.25
10
Ê 1 - 1.030225 -10 ˆ
= Á 4 ¥ 0.75 + 100(1.030225)-10 ˜ (1.030225)0.25
Ë 0.03 ¯
= (25.7530 + 74.2470)(1.030225)0.25
= £100.75
For Country B there are four possible outcomes (as listed in the question):
EPV = Â PV ¥ prob
= 95.2830 ¥ 0.2 + 47.6415 ¥ 0.3 + 101 ¥ 0.4
= €73.75
(ii) GRY
We can calculate the GRY using the price and the cashflow:
There is more uncertainty about the cashflows for the bond from Country B.
This means there is more risk and investors will want a higher expected
return to compensate for that risk.
Let X be the amount of money Mrs Jones invests. A timeline showing the
investment described in the question is as follows:
20
X X 1.05
£10,000 pa annuity
zero coupon bond monthly in arrear
0 i = 5% 20 (2) 45
i = 4%
RPI=143 RPI=340
10,000a(12)
25
2 2
Ê i (2) ˆ Ê 0.04 ˆ
i = Á1 + ˜ - 1 = ÁË1 + ˜ - 1 = 4.04%
Ë 2 ¯ 2 ¯
Ë ¯ Ë ¯
Equating the accumulated value of the investment to the present value of the
annuity, we get:
1 - (1 + i )-25
X (1.05)20 = 10,000a(12) = 10,000
25 i (12)
1 - (1.0404)-25
= 10,000 = 158, 422.31
0.0396707
In other words Mrs Jones has to invest £59,708 (5SF) in the zero-coupon
bond.
1
Ê 340 ˆ 20
j =Á - 1 = 4.4256%
Ë 143 ˜¯
i - j 0.05 - 0.044256
i¢ = = = 0.550%
1+ j 1.044256
( )
X (1.05)20 - X = 59,708 1.0520 - 1 = 98,714.60
The capital gains tax is 25% of this, so the proceeds from the zero-coupon
band are therefore:
i - j 0.041147 - 0.044256
= = -0.298%
1+ j 1.044256
The rate of inflation (4.4256%) exceeds the nominal return on the money
invested (4.1147%), which leads to a negative real rate of return. Effectively
the tax and inflation have eroded the real value of the investor’s capital.
i (2) at 6% = 0.059126
1 - v 25
= 5.6 ¥ + 103v 25 - 41.2v 25 + 0.4Pv 25
i (2)
Rearranging this:
Since the coupon rate is 3% pa, we actually receive 1.5% (indexed) per half
year. So the coupon payment received on 25 April 2013 is:
171.4
0.015 ¥ ¥ 10,000 = £172.319
149.2
173.8
0.015 ¥ ¥ 10,000 = £174.732
149.2
173.8
¥ 10,000 = £11, 648.794
149.2
169.4
172.319 ¥ = 170.308
171.4
The total of the final coupon and redemption proceeds (in real values) is:
169.4
(174.732 + 11, 648.794) ¥ = 11,524.196
173.8
So the real equation of value, using the effective real yield of 3.5% pa, is:
Coupons are 2% each year, so 1% each half year with tax of 25% on them.
So for £3.5m nominal the cashflows are:
3.5m
+
3.5m 3.5m 3.5m 3.5m
0.01 0.75 0.01 0.75 0.01 0.75 0.01 0.75
We now need to inflate these cashflows using the RPI figures given below
each cashflow (which have a three month lag).
The first incoming net cashflow is the coupon paid in December 2012. This
is (working in millions of pounds):
116
C1 = 3.5 ¥ 0.01 ¥ 0.75 ¥ = 0.0271875
112
117
C2 = 3.5 ¥ 0.01 ¥ 0.75 ¥ = 0.0274219
112
120
C3 = 3.5 ¥ 0.01 ¥ 0.75 ¥ = 0.0281250
112
121
3.5 ¥ 0.01 ¥ 0.75 ¥ = 0.0283594
112
The redemption proceeds (which are not subject to income tax), will be:
121
3.5 ¥ 1 ¥ = 3.78125
112
We now convert these to real values (based on 1 June 2012), using the RPI
ratios given below each cashflow in this diagram (which has no time lag).
The real values in June 2012 terms of the cash flows are:
0.0271875
RC1 = = 0.0262580
117 113
0.0274219
RC2 = = 0.0262599
118 113
0.0281250
RC3 = = 0.0262655
121 113
3.8096094
RC4 = = 3.5285726
122 113
The equation of value for the price of the bond, working in real terms, is:
So for £100 nominal (rather than £3.5m nominal) the price is:
100
3.50267 ¥ = £100.08
3.5
(iv) Explanation
If there had been no time lag, the investor’s expected net real rate of return
would be unchanged. The higher inflation would increase the cashflows
received by the investor, and then the real values would equal the original
nominal payments.
However, the investor is not protected against inflation during the last three
months for which the bond is held, due to the time lag. Since the inflation in
this period is higher than expected, the investor’s real rate of return will fall a
little. However, the effect is unlikely to be great, as the lag is not that great.
So an investor’s real return from buying such a bond would fall. This would
make the bonds less attractive to these investors, and so the price they
would be prepared to pay would have fallen. Hence, the market prices
would have fallen.
6 6 ¥ 1.06 6 ¥ 1.062
PV = ½
v½ + 1½
v 1½ + 2½
v 2½ +
1.04 1.04 1.04
So we have:
6
v½
1.04½ 6v ½ ¥ 1.04½
175 = =
1.06v 1.04 - 1.06v
1-
1.04
At 5%, the value of the expression on the right hand side of our equation is
195.935. At 6%, the corresponding value is 148.578. So the real return is
between these two values.
Interpolating between these two figures, we find that the effective real rate of
return is approximately:
178.784 - 175
5.3% + ¥ 0.1% = 5.37% pa
178.784 - 173.724
i = 5% fi RHS = 97.642
i = 4% fi RHS = 112.956
i = 4.5% fi RHS = 104.953
100 - 104.953
i = 4.5% + (5% - 4.5%) = 4.84% pa
97.642 - 104.953
D 3
i (2) = fi i (2) = = 0.03
R 100
This gives:
2
Ê 0.03 ˆ
1 + i = Á1 + fi i = 3.0225%
Ë 2 ˜¯
1 - 1.0393 -10
RHS = (3 + 2.625 ¥ 1.0393 -10 ) + 50 ¥ 1.0393 -10 + 65 ¥ 1.0393 -20
2(1.0393½ - 1)
= €103.72
Since this is greater than €100 the rate of return must be greater than 3.93%
pa, ie it is greater than the average rate of return an individual who
purchases a single bond will receive.
Since they are related to the company profits that are not known in
advance, dividend rates are variable.
The return on ordinary shares is made up of two components, the
dividends received and any increase in the market price of the shares.
Higher return than for most other classes of security to compensate for
the greater risk of default, and for the variability of returns.
Ordinary shares are the lowest ranking form of finance issued by
companies (so only receive payment in a windup after all other creditors
have been paid).
The initial running yield on ordinary shares is low but dividends should
increase with inflation and real growth in a company’s earnings.
Marketability of ordinary shares varies according to the size of the
company.
Shareholders get voting rights in proportion to the number of shares
held, so shareholders may have the ability to influence the decisions
taken by the directors and managers of the company.
We will assume that dividends are paid annually with the next dividend due
in exactly one year.
Using d for the next dividend payment, g for the expected annual growth
rate and t for the tax rate on the dividends, we have the following equation
of value:
P = d (1 - t )v + d (1 - t )(1 + g )v 2 + d (1 - t )(1 + g )2 v 3 +
d (1 - t )v
P=
1 - (1 + g )v
d (1 - t ) d (1 - t )
P= =
(1 + i ) - (1 + g ) i -g
6 ¥ 0.8
P= = 96
0.06 - 0.01
(iv) Explain
Investors will demand more return to compensate them for the increased
risk.
This will reduce the value of the share (as the denominator will increase).
The net payment will be 0.8 ¥ 6 + 120 - 0.25(120 - 96) = 118.8 . So the real
equation of value (in 2014 prices) is:
123
96 = 118.8v ¥
126
96 = 115.97v
115.97
1+ i = fi i = 0.208
96
Since the second amount is a little bigger, the investor will make a small
capital gain.
In order to ensure that the investor always makes at least 5% pa, we need to
consider the investor’s worst case scenario. The worst case is that the gain
is deferred for as long as possible, and so we should assume that the bond
is redeemed at the latest possible date.
Assuming that the bond is redeemed on the last redemption date (after 20
years), we have the following equation of value for the price of the bond:
1 - v 20 1 - 1.05 -20
a(4) = (4)
= = 12.693502
20 i 0.049089
So we have:
0.849244P = 91.063324
The calculation in part (i) does not depend on which party has the option.
In either case, we want to calculate the worst case scenario for the investor,
in order to defer the investor’s capital gain for as long as possible. This will
be the case whether the option is with the investor or with the borrower.
The annual nominal coupon rate is 6% pa. So each half year the investor
will receive a coupon of nominal value £3,000 per £100,000 nominal.
However, the actual amounts of these coupons will be indexed using the
inflation index, with a time-lag of six months. So the first coupon (payable in
July 2014) will be for an amount of:
where I is the inflation index. The other cashflows are calculated similarly.
Date Amount
January 2014 –£97,000
122.3
July 2014 3,000 ¥ = £3,057.50
120
124.9
January 2015 3,000 ¥ = £3,122.50
120
127.2
July 2015 3,000 ¥ = £3,180
120
129.1
January 2016 103,000 ¥ = £110,810.83
120
Using time units of a year, and working for the moment using £100 nominal
of the bond, the real equation of value is:
3.0575 3.1225
97 = v½ + v1
124.9 / 122.3 127.2 / 122.3
3.180 110.81083 2
+ v 1½ + v
129.1/ 122.3 131.8 / 122.3
Using trial and improvement, and starting with a first guess of i = 7% pa, we
find that:
i RHS of equation
0.07 98.232
0.08 96.499
0.0775 96.928
0.0765 97.100
We see from these values that the real annual rate of return lies between
7.65% pa and 7.75% pa. So, to the nearest 0.1% pa, the real return is
7.7% pa.
a 6.5v
PV = =
1 - r 1 - 1.02v
6.5 / 1.06
PV = = 162.5 pence
1 - 1.02 / 1.06
So the maximum price an investor should pay for 10,000 shares is £16,250.
Using the same approach as before, the new maximum price of a share is:
6.5 / 1.06
PV = = 185.714 pence
1 - 1.025 / 1.06
(ii)(b) Difference
If the growth rate is greater, the investor will receive more dividends in the
future. So the investor is prepared to pay a higher price for the shares.
The new legislation may adversely affect the operation of the company. If it
does so, the investor will require a higher rate of return to compensate for
the additional risk of investing in the company.
6.5 / 1.07
PV = = 130 pence
1 - 1.02 / 1.07
The price payable is now less than in part (i). If she requires a higher return
on her investment, she needs to pay less now for the same quantity of
shares. The greater uncertainty of return is compensated for by a lower
entry price for the investment.
(iv)(a) Explanation
If investors’ expectations for future inflation are reduced, then the likely
future rate of dividend growth will also be reduced. In times of higher
inflation, companies are more able to pass this inflation on the customers by
raising their prices. These higher prices should in the long term lead to
greater company profits, and hence to a higher rate of growth in the
dividends that the company is able to pay.
Higher inflation is also one of the risks facing the investor, since higher
inflation reduces the real value of the returns from her investment. So if
expectations of inflation are reduced, the inflation risk facing the investor is
also reduced. So she can reduce the required rate of return, as the inflation
risk she is facing is lower.
6.5 / 1.05
PV = = 162.5 pence
1 - 1.01/ 1.05
In both cases the maximum price the investor is prepared to pay is the
same.
In each case we see that the maximum price is determined by the difference
between the assumed dividend growth rate and the required rate of return.
In both cases here this difference is 4%. So the price the investor should be
prepared to pay is the same.
The zero-coupon bond has a term of 40 years. So, working in terms of £100
nominal, the present value of the redemption proceeds is:
PV = 100v 40
2
Ê 0.05 ˆ
i = Á1 + - 1 = 5.0625% pa
Ë 2 ˜¯
So:
The price paid for the bond is £13.87 per £100 nominal.
Now assume that the default occurs at time t. Then the equation of value for
the actual transaction (using the force of interest, which is what we are
given), is:
80 e -0.048t = 13.87046
We can solve this equation by dividing through by 80 and taking logs of both
sides:
1 Ê 13.87046 ˆ
t= ln Á ˜¯ = 36.50553
-0.048 Ë 80
Since the 37th year of the bond’s life is 2011, we don’t need to worry about
leap years. Converting 0.50553 of a year into days by multiplying by 365,
we have a default time of 36 years and 184.519 days.
The 185th day of 2011 is 4th July. So the date on which the borrower
defaulted is 4 July 2011.
Allowing for income tax at a rate of 30% and capital gains tax at a rate of
40%, and for the delay in the collection of the tax payments, the investor’s
equation of value is:
5 5
20 12
9,800 400a(2) 10,500v 20 0.3 400 v 12 a20 0.4(10,500 9,800)v
20
5 5
20 12
ie 9,800 400a(2) 10,500v 20 120 v 12 a20 280v
20
When i 3% :
12
5 20 12
5
400 14.98823 10,500(1.03)20 120(1.03) 14.87747 280(1.03)
9,892.3126
When i 4% :
1 1.0420 1 1.0420
a20 13.59033 and a(2) 13.72490
0.04 20 2(1.041 2 1)
12
5 20 12
5
400 13.72490 10,500(1.04)20 120(1.04) 13.59033 280(1.04)
8,551.9001
Since the value of the right-hand side at 3% exceeds £9,800, but the value
at 4% is less than £9,800, the investor’s net redemption yield must lie
between 3% pa effective and 4% pa effective.
Using the values obtained in part (i) and linear interpolation, the net
redemption yield obtained by the investor is:
9,800 9,892.3126
i 3% (4% 3%) 3.069%
8,551.9001 9,892.3126
So, assuming an annual rate of inflation of 2%, the investor’s net real
redemption yield is:
0.03069 0.02
i 1.05% pa
1.02
If tax were collected on 1 April each year, rather than on 1 June, the tax
payments will have been brought forward. This would increase the present
value of the tax payments.
Since the tax payments are outgo from the investor’s point of view,
increasing their present value will cause the net redemption yield and the net
real redemption yield to fall.
FACTSHEET
Real rates of interest are used when inflation needs to be taken into account.
Money rates of interest are used when inflation can be ignored.
For example, in the simple case where no taxes apply, the price to be paid
per £100 nominal for a fixed-interest stock bearing interest, payable half-
yearly, at the rate of D% pa and redeemable at par in n years’ time is
calculated as:
P = Da(2) + 100v n @ i
n
The yield available on a security that can be bought for a given price P per
100 nominal can be found by solving the equation of value for i . If the
investor is not subject to taxation, the yield is referred to as the gross
redemption yield. If the investor is subject to taxation, you must include tax
in the equation of value and then the yield is referred to as the net
redemption yield.
The flat yield or running yield on a stock is defined as D / P , the ratio of the
coupon rate to the price of the stock.
4 Income tax
For an investor subject to income tax at the rate of tI on all income, payable
at the time the income is received, the equation of value for the security
described above is:
P = (1 - tI ) Da(2) + 100v n
n
For an investor who is also subject to capital gains tax at the rate of tCG on
any capital gain, the equation of value for the security described above is:
D
If i ( p ) > (1 - tI )
, then there is a capital gain on redemption and the latest
R
possible redemption date should be assumed when valuing the loan. If
redemption does occur on this date, the net annual yield will be i . If
redemption occurs before this date, the net annual yield will exceed i .
D
If i ( p ) < (1 - tI )
, then there is a capital loss on redemption and the earliest
R
possible redemption date should be assumed when valuing the loan. If
redemption does occur on this date, the net annual yield will be i . If
redemption occurs after this date, the net annual yield will exceed i .
D
If i ( p ) = (1 - tI )
, then there is neither a capital gain nor a capital loss on
R
redemption. The net annual yield will be i irrespective of the actual
redemption date chosen.
7 Equities
Suppose that the value of an equity just after a dividend payment is P and
suppose that the dividend due at time t is expected to be Dt . Assuming
that dividends are payable annually, the equation of value for the equity is:
•
P= Â Dt v t
t =1
• È1+ g Ê 1+ g ˆ 2 Ê 1+ g ˆ 3 ˘ D (1 + g )
 D (1 + g )
t
P= vt = D Í +Á ˜ +Á ˜ + ˙ =
t =1 Í 1+ i Ë 1+ i ¯ Ë 1+ i ¯ ˙ i -g
Î ˚
8 Property
• 1
P= Â Dk / m v k / m
k =1 m
It is usually much easier to work from first principles than to apply this
formula to every question about property values.
The real rate of interest on a transaction is the rate of interest after allowing
for the effects of inflation.
When the rates of inflation are known, we can adjust cashflows for the
effects of inflation by reference to a relevant inflation index. For example, if
the value of an inflation index at time t is Q(t ) , then to change a cashflow
Q(0)
of ct at time t into time 0 money values, we multiply ct by .
Q( t )
Q(0) t
 ct Q( t )
v =0
t
1
where the sum is taken over all the cashflows, v = and i ¢ is the real
1+ i ¢
rate of return.
If the rate of inflation is constant at e pa, then the real rate of return is given
by:
i -e
i¢ =
1+ e
10 Index-linked bonds
Q( k )
½D k = ½,1, 1½, ..., n
Q(0)
Q( n )
R
Q(0)
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
Subject CM1
Revision Notes
For the 2019 exams
covering
CONTENTS
Contents Page
Links to the Course Notes and Syllabus 2
Overview 3
Core Reading 4
Past Exam Questions 20
Solutions to Past Exam Questions 50
Factsheet 126
Copyright agreement
Legal action will be taken if these terms are infringed. In addition, we may
seek to take disciplinary action through the profession or through your
employer. These conditions remain in force after you have finished using
the course.
This chapter number refers to the 2019 edition of the ActEd course notes.
The numbering of the syllabus items is the same as that used by the Institute
and Faculty of Actuaries.
OVERVIEW
This booklet covers Syllabus Objectives 2.6.1 to 2.6.3 and 2.7.1 to 2.7.3,
which relates to the term structure of interest rates (spot rates, forward rates,
immunisation, etc).
Breakdown of topics
Exam questions
The most common type of exam question requires you to calculate values
for the discounted mean term or volatility for some cashflows. Very often the
question will expect you to set up and solve simultaneous equations in order
to find an unknown amount of assets. These questions can be quite long.
CORE READING
All of the Core Reading for the topics covered in this booklet is contained in
this section.
____________
So far in this course it has generally been assumed that the interest
rate i or force of interest d earned on an investment are independent
of the term of that investment. In practice the interest rate offered on
investments does usually vary according to the term of the investment.
It is often important to take this variation into consideration.
4 Using the equation of value for the zero-coupon bond we find the yield
on the bond, y n , from:
1 - n1
Pn = n
fi (1 + y n ) = Pn
(1 + y n )
A = D (P1 + P2 + + Pn ) + RPn
= D (v y 1 + v y2 2 + + v ynn ) + Rv ynn
7 The discrete time forward rate, ft ,r , is the annual interest rate agreed at
time 0 for an investment made at time t > 0 for a period of r years.
____________
100(1 + ft ,r )r
Forward rates, spot rates and zero-coupon bond prices are all
connected. The accumulation at time t of an investment of 1 at time 0
is (1 + y t )t . If we agree at time 0 to invest the amount (1 + y t )t at time t
for r years, we will earn an annual rate of ft ,r . So we know that £1
(1 + y t )t (1 + ft ,r )r = (1 + y t + r )t + r = Pt-+1r
(1 + y t + r )t + r Pt
9 (1 + ft ,r )r = =
(1 + y t )t Pt + r
so that the full term structure may be determined given the spot rates,
the forward rates or the zero-coupon bond prices.
____________
1
Pt = e -Yt t fi Yt = - log Pt
t
____________
14 y t = eYt - 1
____________
16 Hence the annual rate and continuous-time rate are related as:
Ft , r
ft ,r = e -1
____________
rF
e tYt e t ,r = e (t + r )Yt + r
fi tYt + rFt ,r = (t + r )Yt + r
(t + r )Yt + r - tYt
fi Ft ,r =
r
____________
1
18 Also, using Yt = - log Pt , we have:
t
1 Ê P ˆ
Ft ,r = log Á t ˜
r Ë Pt + r ¯
____________
Ft = lim Ft ,r
r Æ0
1 Ê P ˆ
Ft = lim log Á t ˜ (1)
r Æ0 r Ë Pt + r ¯
log Pt + r - log Pt
= - lim (2)
r Æ0 r
d
=- log Pt (3)
dt
1 d
=- Pt (4)
Pt dt
____________
21 We also find, by integrating both sides of (3) and using the fact that
P0 = 1 (as the price of a unit zero-coupon bond of term zero years must
be 1), that:
Pt = e Ú0 s
- F ds
Pt yt ft ,r Yt Ft ,r
Yield curves
23 Some examples of typical (spot rate) yield curves are given below.
In Figure 1 the long-term bond yields are lower than the short-term
bonds. Since price is a decreasing function of yield, an interpretation
is that long-term bonds are more expensive than short-term bonds.
There are several possible explanations – for example it is possible
that investors believe that they will get a higher overall return from
long-term bonds, despite the lower current yields, and the higher
demand for long-term bonds has pushed up the price, which is
equivalent to pushing down the yield, compared with short-term bonds.
Other explanations for different yield curve shapes are given below.
Figure 2: Increasing yield curve: Euro Area Yield Curve for all bonds
(obtained from European Central Bank website on 7 February 2018)
In Figure 2 the long-term bonds are higher yielding (or cheaper) than
the short-term bonds. This shows the case of an increasing yield
curve.
In Figure 3 the short-term bonds are generally cheaper than the long
bonds, but the very short rates (with terms less than one year) are
lower than the one-year rates.
____________
24 The three most popular explanations for the fact that interest rates vary
according to the term of the investment are:
1. Expectations theory
2. Liquidity preference
3. Market segmentation
____________
28 The yield to maturity for a coupon paying bond (also called the
redemption yield) has been defined as the effective rate of interest at
which the discounted value of the proceeds of a bond equal the price.
It is widely used, but has the disadvantage that it depends on the
coupon rate of the bond, and therefore does not give a simple model of
the relationship between term and yield.
Par Yield
29 The n-year par yield represents the coupon per £1 nominal that would
be payable on a bond with term n years, which would give the bond a
current price under the current term structure of £1 per £1 nominal,
assuming the bond is redeemed at par.
31 For simplicity we assume a flat yield curve, and that when interest
rates change, all change by the same amount, so that the curve stays
flat. A flat yield curve implies that y t = ft ,r = i for all t, r and
Yt = Ft ,r = Ft = d for all t, r.
____________
n
t
A= Â Ctk vi k
k =1
1 d A¢
n (i ) = - A=- (4.1)
A di A
n
t +1
 Ctk tk v i k
= k =1
n
t
 Ctk v i k
k =1
____________
36 Equation (4.1) assumes that the cashflows do not depend on the rate of
interest.
____________
n
S t k Ctk v itk
t = k =1
n
S Ctk v itk
k =1
____________
39 Comparing this expression with the equation for the effective duration
it is clear that:
t = (1 + i )n (i )
____________
1 d di
t =- A= n (i )
A dd dd
di
i = ed - 1 fi = ed
dd
fi t = ed n (i ) = (1 + i )n (i )
D (Ia )n + Rnv n
t =
Dan + Rv n
____________
100nv n
t = =n
100v n
t
i ( p)
1+
p
1 d2 A¢¢
c (i ) = A=
A di 2 A
Ê ˆ
Á 1 ˜Ê n t +2 ˆ
=Á n ˜ Á S Ctk t k (t k + 1) v i k ˜
Á S C v tk ˜ Ë k =1 ¯
ÁË tk i ˜¯
k =1
____________
A(i + e ) - A(i ) ∂A 1 ∂2 A 1
= ¥ ¥e +½ ¥ 2 ¥ ¥ e2 +
A ∂i A ∂i A
ª -en (i ) + e 2 ¥ ½ ¥ c (i )
____________
e2
S (i 0 + e ) = S (i 0 ) + e S ¢( i 0 ) + S ¢¢(i0 ) +
2
____________
48 Consider the terms on the right hand side. We know that S (i0 ) = 0 .
The second term, e S ¢(i0 ) , will be equal to zero for any values of e
(positive or negative) if and only if S ¢(i0 ) = 0 , that is if VA¢ (i0 ) = VL¢ (i0 ) .
e2
In the third term, is always positive, regardless of the sign of e .
2
Thus, if we ensure that S ¢¢(i0 ) > 0 , then the third term will also always
be positive.
For small e the fourth and subsequent terms in the Taylor expansion
will be very small. Hence, given the three conditions above, the fund is
protected against small movements in interest rates. This result is
known as Redington’s immunisation after the British actuary who
developed the theory.
____________
1. VA (i0 ) = VL (i0 ) – that is, the value of the assets at the starting rate
of interest is equal to the value of the liabilities.
2. The volatilities of the asset and liability cashflow series are equal,
that is, n A (i0 ) = n L (i0 ) .
This section contains all the Subject CT1 exam questions from 2008 to 2017
that are related to the topics covered in this booklet.
Solutions are given later in this booklet. These give enough information for
you to check your answer, including working, and also show you what an
adequate examination answer should look like. Further information may be
available in the Examiners’ Report, ASET or Course Notes. (ASET can be
ordered from ActEd.)
We first provide you with a cross reference grid that indicates the main
subject areas of each exam question. You can use this, if you wish, to
select the questions that relate just to those aspects of the topic that you
may be particularly interested in reviewing.
Alternatively, you can choose to ignore the grid, and instead attempt each
question without having any clues as to its content.
Bond price/GRY
using spot/fwd
DMT/volatility
immunisation
Spot/forward
Yield curve
Tick when
attempted
Convexity
Par yield
theories
Check
rates
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18 ()
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Tick when
attempted
Spot/forward
rates
Bond price/GRY
using spot/fwd
Par yield
Term structure
Exclusive use Batch 4a
Yield curve
theories
DMT/volatility
Convexity
Immunisation
Check
immunisation
i n = a - bn
The one-year forward rates applicable at time 0 and at time 1 are 6.1% per
annum effective and 6.5% per annum effective respectively. The 4-year par
yield is 7% per annum.
(ii) calculate the price per £1 nominal at time 0 of a bond which pays annual
coupons of 5% in arrear and is redeemed at 103% after 4 years. [5]
[Total 9]
(ii) Explain why the answer in (i)(b) is higher than the answer in (i)(a). [2]
[Total 8]
(i) Calculate the gross redemption yield of the three-year bond. [3]
(ii) Calculate to three decimal places all possible spot rates, implied by the
information given, as annual effective rates of interest. [4]
(iii) Calculate to three decimal places all possible forward rates, implied by
the information given, as annual effective rates of interest. [4]
[Total 11]
The company has exactly enough funds to cover the liability on the basis of
an effective interest rate of 8% per annum. This is also the interest rate on
which current market prices are calculated and the interest rate earned on
cash.
The company wishes to hold 10% of its funds in cash, and to invest the
balance in the following securities:
a zero-coupon bond redeemable at par in twelve years’ time
a fixed-interest stock which is redeemable at 110% in sixteen years’
time bearing interest at 8% per annum payable annually in arrear.
(i) Calculate the nominal amounts of the zero-coupon bond and the fixed-
interest stock which should be purchased to satisfy Redington’s first two
conditions for immunisation. [10]
(ii) Calculate the amount which should be invested in each of the assets
mentioned in (i). [2]
(i) Show that the discounted mean term of these liabilities, to four
significant figures, is 14.42 years. [3]
(ii) Find values of X and Y such that Redington’s first two conditions for
immunisation from small changes in the rate of interest are satisfied. [6]
(iii) Explain, without making any further calculations, whether you would
expect Redington’s third condition for immunisation to be satisfied for
the values of X and Y calculated in (ii). [2]
[Total 11]
The gross redemption yield from the 1-year bond is 4.5% per annum
effective; the gross redemption yield from the 2-year bond is 5.3% per
annum effective. You are informed that the 3-year par yield is 5.6% per
annum.
Calculate all zero-coupon yields and all one-year forward rates implied by
the yields given above. [12]
(b) Calculate the six-month forward rate for an investment made in six
months’ time.
(c) Calculate the purchase price of a risk-free bond with exactly one
year to maturity which is redeemed at par and which pays coupons
of 4% per annum half-yearly in arrears.
(d) Calculate the gross redemption yield from the bond in (c).
(e) Comment on why your answer in (d) is close to the one-year spot
rate. [10]
[Total 12]
At the age of 65, the scheme member uses his accumulated investment to
purchase an annuity with a term of 20 years to be paid half-yearly in arrear.
At this time the interest rate is 5% per annum convertible half-yearly.
(iii) Calculate the discounted mean term of the annuity, in years, at the time
of purchase. [3]
[Total 12]
Let ft denote the one-year forward rate of interest over the year from time t
to time t + 1 .
time, t 0 1 2 3
one-year forward rate, ft 4.4% pa 4.7% pa 4.9% pa 5.0% pa
(i) Calculate the price per £100 nominal of the security assuming no
arbitrage. [3]
(iii) Explain, without doing any further calculations, how your answer to
part (ii) would change if the annual coupon rate on the security were
9% per annum (rather than 7% per annum). [2]
[Total 8]
A pension fund has to pay out benefits at the end of each of the next 40
years. The benefits payable at the end of the first year total £1 million.
Thereafter, the benefits are expected to increase at a fixed rate of 3.8835%
per annum compound.
(i) Calculate the discounted mean term of the liabilities using a rate of
interest of 7% per annum effective. [5]
The pension fund can invest in both coupon-paying and zero-coupon bonds
with a range of terms to redemption. The longest-dated bond currently
available in the market is a zero-coupon bond redeemed in exactly 15 years.
(ii) Explain why it will not be possible to immunise this pension fund against
small changes in the rate of interest. [2]
(iii) Describe the other practical problems for an institutional investor who is
attempting to implement an immunisation strategy. [3]
[Total 10]
(i) State the three conditions that are necessary for a fund to be immunised
from small, uniform changes in the rate of interest. [2]
(ii) A pension fund has liabilities of £10m to meet at the end of each of the
next ten years. It is able to invest in two zero-coupon bonds with a term
to redemption of three years and 12 years respectively. The rate of
interest is 4% per annum effective.
Calculate:
(iii) One year later, just before the pension payment then due, the rate of
interest is 5% per annum effective.
(a) Determine whether the duration of the assets and the liabilities are
still equal.
The government of a particular country has just issued three bonds with
terms to redemption of exactly one, two and three years respectively. Each
bond is redeemed at par and pays coupons of 8% annually in arrear. The
annual effective gross redemption yields from the one, two and three-year
bonds are 4%, 3% and 3% respectively.
(i) Calculate the one-year, two-year and three-year spot rates of interest at
the date of issue. [8]
(ii) Calculate all possible forward rates of interest from the above spot rates
of interest. [4]
(iii) Calculate the expected level of the retail prices index in one year, two
years’ and three years’ time if the expected real spot rates of interest
are 2% per annum effective for all terms. [5]
(iv) Calculate the expected rate of inflation per annum in each of the next
three years. [2]
[Total 19]
n
y n = 0.03 + for n = 1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 000
(i) Calculate the implied one-year and two-year forward rates applicable at
time t = 2. [3]
(a) the price at time t = 0 per £100 nominal of a bond which pays
annual coupons of 4% in arrear and is redeemed at 115% after 3
years.
A company has liabilities of £10 million due in three years’ time and
£20 million due in six years’ time. The investment manager for the company
is able to buy zero-coupon bonds for whatever term he requires and has
adequate monies at his disposal.
(ii) Calculate the amount that must be invested in each bond in order that
the company is immunised against small changes in the rate of interest.
You should demonstrate that all three Redington conditions are met. [10]
[Total 12]
(i) State the conditions that are necessary for an insurance company to be
immunised from small, uniform changes in the rate of interest. [2]
An insurance company has liabilities to pay £100m annually in arrear for the
next 40 years. In order to meet these liabilities, the insurance company can
invest in zero coupon bonds with terms to redemption of five years and 40
years.
(ii) (a) Calculate the present value of the liabilities at a rate of interest of
4% per annum effective.
(iii) Calculate the nominal amount of each bond that the fund needs to hold
so that the first two conditions for immunisation are met at a rate of
interest of 4% per annum effective. [5]
(iv) (a) Estimate, using your calculations in (ii)(b), the revised present value
of the liabilities if there were a reduction in interest rates by 1.5%
per annum effective.
(i) Describe the information that an investor can obtain from the following
yield curves for government bonds:
An investor is using the information from a government bond spot yield curve
to calculate the present value of a corporate eurobond with a term to
redemption of exactly five years. The investor will value each payment that
is due from the bond at a rate of interest equal to j = i + 0.01 + 0.001t where:
The eurobond pays annual coupons of 10% of the nominal amount of the
bond and is redeemed at par.
(iii) Calculate the gross redemption yield from the eurobond. [3]
(iv) Explain why the investor might use such a formula for j to determine
the interest rates at which to value the payments from the corporate
eurobond. [3]
[Total 18]
(i) Calculate the gross redemption yield for a three-year bond which pays
coupons of 3% annually in arrear, and is redeemed at par. Show all
workings. [6]
Both securities are redeemable at par and pay coupons annually in arrear.
The rate of interest is 8% per annum effective.
(iii) Calculate the nominal amount of each security that should be purchased
so that Redington’s first two conditions for immunisation against small
changes in the rate of interest are satisfied for this company. [8]
(ii) (b) Two certificates of deposit issued by a given bank are being traded.
A one-month certificate of deposit provides a rate of return of 12 per
cent per annum convertible monthly. A two-month certificate of
deposit provides a rate of return of 24 per cent per annum
convertible monthly.
(i) Describe three theories that have been put forward to explain the shape
of the yield curve. [7]
The government of a particular country has just issued five bonds with terms
to redemption of one, two, three, four and five years respectively. The
bonds are redeemed at par and have coupon rates of 4% per annum
payable annually in arrear.
(ii) Calculate the duration of the one-year, three-year and five-year bonds at
a gross redemption yield of 5% per annum effective. [6]
(iii) Explain why a five-year bond with a coupon rate of 8% per annum would
have a lower duration than a five-year bond with a coupon rate of 4%
per annum. [2]
Four years after issue, immediately after the coupon payment then due the
government is anticipating problems servicing its remaining debt. The
government offers two options to the holders of the bond with an original
term of five years:
Option 1: the bond is repaid at 79% of its nominal value at the scheduled
time with no final coupon payment being paid.
Option 2: the redemption of the bond is deferred for seven years from the
original redemption date and the coupon rate reduced to 1% per annum for
the remainder of the existing term and the whole of the extended term.
Assume the bonds were issued at a price of £95 per £100 nominal.
(iv) Calculate the effective rate of return per annum from Options 1 and 2
over the total life of the bond and determine which would provide the
higher rate of return. [6]
(v) Suggest two other considerations that bond holders may wish to take
into account when deciding which options to accept. [2]
[Total 23]
The two projects each involve an initial investment of £3m. The incoming
cash flows from the two projects are as follows:
Project A
In the first year, Project A generates cash flows of £0.5m. In the second
year it will generate cash flows of £0.55m. The cash flows generated by the
project will continue to increase by 10% per annum until the end of the sixth
year and will then cease. Assume that all cash flows are received in the
middle of the year.
Project B
Project B generates cash flows of £0.64m per annum for six years. Assume
that all cash flows are received continuously throughout the year.
(iii) Show that there is at least one ‘cross-over point’ for Projects A and B
between 0% per annum effective and 4% per annum effective where the
cross-over point is defined as the rate of interest at which the net
present value of the two projects is equal. [6]
(iv) Calculate the duration of the incoming cash flows from Projects A and B
at a rate of interest of 4% per annum effective. [6]
(v) Explain why the net present value of Project A appears to fall more
rapidly than the net present value of Project B as the rate of interest
increases. [2]
[Total 22]
(i) Calculate the gross redemption yield of the 3-year bond. [3]
(ii) Calculate the one-year and two-year spot rates implied by the
information given. [3]
[Total 6]
(i) Determine the values of £ X and £Y such that the first two conditions
for Redington’s immunisation are satisfied. [8]
d (t ) = 0.05 + 0.002t
(a) the seven-year spot rate of interest per annum from time t = 0 to
time t = 7 .
(b) the six-year spot rate of interest per annum from time t = 0 to time
t =6.
(c) f6,1 where f6,1 is the one-year forward rate of interest per annum
from time t = 6 . [3]
(iii) Explain why your answer to part (ii)(c) is higher than your answer to part
(ii)(a).
[2]
[Total 10]
A pension fund has liabilities to meet annuities payable in arrear for 40 years
at a rate of £10 million per annum.
The fund is invested in two fixed-interest securities. The first security pays
annual coupons of 5% and is redeemed at par in exactly ten years’ time.
The second security pays annual coupons of 10% and is redeemed at par in
exactly five years’ time. The present value of the assets in the pension fund
is equal to the present value of the liabilities of the fund and exactly half the
assets are invested in each security. All assets and liabilities are valued at a
rate of interest of 4% per annum effective.
(i) Calculate the present value of the liabilities of the fund. [1]
(ii) Calculate the nominal amount held of each security purchased by the
pension fund. [6]
(iii) Calculate the duration of the liabilities of the pension fund. [3]
(iv) Calculate the duration of the assets of the pension fund. [4]
(v) Without further calculations, explain whether the pension fund will make
a profit or loss if interest rates fall uniformly by 1.5% per annum
effective. [2]
[Total 16]
An insurance company has liabilities of £10 million due in 10 years’ time and
£20 million due in 15 years’ time. The company’s assets consist of two zero-
coupon bonds. One pays £7.404 million in 2 years’ time and the other pays
£31.834 million in 25 years’ time. The current interest rate is 7% per annum
effective.
(i) Show that Redington’s first two conditions for immunisation against
small changes in the rate of interest are satisfied for this insurance
company. [6]
(ii) Calculate the present value of profit that the insurance company will
make if the interest rate increases immediately to 7.5% per annum
effective. [2]
(iii) Explain, without any further calculation, why the insurance company
made a profit as a result of the change in the interest rate. [2]
[Total 10]
n
y n = 0.035 + for n = 1,2 and 3
1,000
(a) The price at time t = 0 per £100 nominal of a bond which pays
annual coupons of 4% in arrear and is redeemed at 105% per £100
nominal after three years.
(i) Calculate the purchase price of the bond at issue at a rate of interest of
4% per annum effective assuming that tax is paid on the coupon
payments at a rate of 20%. [2]
(ii) Calculate the discounted mean term of the bond at a rate of interest of
4% per annum effective, ignoring tax. [3]
(iii) (a) Explain why the discounted mean term of the gross payments from
the bond is lower than the discounted mean term of the net
payments.
(b) State two factors other than the size of the coupon payments that
would affect the discounted mean term of the bond. [3]
(iv) Calculate the price of the bond three months after issue at a rate of
interest of 4% per annum effective assuming tax is paid on the coupon
payments at a rate of 20%. [1]
[Total 9]
(i) Explain what is meant by the following theories of the shape of the yield
curve:
Short-term, one-year annual effective interest rates are currently 6%; they
are expected to be 5% in one year’s time; 4% in two years’ time and 3% in
three years’ time.
(ii) Calculate the gross redemption yields from one-year, two-year, three-
year and four-year zero coupon bonds using the above expected
interest rates. [4]
(iii) Calculate the gross redemption yield of a bond that pays a coupon of
4% per annum annually in arrear and is redeemed at 110% in exactly
four years. [5]
(iv) Explain why the gross redemption yield of a bond that pays a coupon of
8% per annum annually in arrear and is redeemed at par would be
greater than that calculated in part (iii). [2]
(v) Explain, with reference to market segmentation theory, the likely effect
of this regulation on the pattern of spot rates calculated in part (ii). [2]
[Total 17]
Over time t (measured in years), the spot rate of interest is equal to:
i = 0.02t for t £ 5
(ii) Outline two reasons why the spot yield curve might rise with term to
redemption. [3]
(iii) Calculate the forward rate of interest from time t = 3.5 to time t = 4.5 .
[2]
[Total 8]
(ii) Calculate the discounted mean term (duration) of the security at issue.
[3]
(iii) Explain how your answer to part (ii) would differ if the annual coupons
on the security were 3% instead of 9%. [2]
(iv) (a) Calculate the effective duration (volatility) of the security at the time
of issue.
(i) Calculate the duration of the annuity at an interest rate of 4% per annum
effective. [2]
(ii) Calculate the duration of the bond at an interest rate of 4% per annum
effective. [3]
(iii) State with reasons whether the insurance company will make a profit or
a loss if there is a small increase in interest rates at all terms. [2]
[Total 7]
(i) Determine the gross redemption yield of the three-year bond. [3]
(ii) Calculate the one-year, two-year and three-year spot rates of interest
implied by the information given. [5]
(iii) Calculate the one-year forward rate starting from the end of the second
year, f2,1 . [2]
The pattern of spot rates is upward sloping throughout the yield curve.
(iv) Explain, with reference to the various theories of the yield curve, why
the yield curve might be upward sloping. [4]
[Total 14]
(i) Show that the first two conditions of Redington’s theory for immunisation
against small changes in the rate of interest are satisfied. [5]
(ii) Explain, without doing any further calculations, whether the insurance
company will be immunised against small changes in the rate of
interest. [2]
[Total 7]
ft ,1 = ( 4 + t ) %
(i) Determine the issue price per £100 nominal of a three-year 4% coupon
bond issued at time t = 0 , paying coupons annually in arrear and
redeemable at 105%. [4]
(i) Calculate the gross redemption yield of the three-year bond. [3]
(ii) Calculate, showing all workings, the one-year and two-year spot rates of
interest implied by the information given. [3]
(iii) Calculate the forward rate of interest applicable over the second year. [2]
(iv) Explain whether the three-year spot rate will be higher than or lower
than the three-year gross redemption yield. [2]
[Total 10]
(i) Calculate, showing all workings, the duration of the current portfolio of
three year and ten-year bonds. [7]
(ii) Calculate, showing all workings, the duration of the proposed portfolio of
bonds. [4]
(iii) Determine the nominal amount of the new bonds that the government
will have to issue to achieve the objective. [2]
[Total 13]
An investment fund has liabilities of £11 million due in 7 years’ time and
£8.084 million in 11 years’ time.
The manager of the fund will meet the liabilities by investing in zero-coupon
bonds. The manager is able to buy zero-coupon bonds for whatever term is
required and there are adequate funds at the manager’s disposal.
(i) Explain whether it is possible for the manager to immunise the fund
against small changes in the rate of interest by purchasing a single
zero-coupon bond. [2]
Let ft denote the one-year effective forward rate of interest over the year
from time t to (t 1) . Let it be the t -year effective spot rate over the
period 0 to t .
The annual effective gross redemption yield from an n-year bond which pays
coupons of 5% annually in arrear is given by:
Each bond is redeemed at par and is exactly one year from the next coupon
payment. It is assumed that no arbitrage takes place.
(iii) Explain why the one-year forward rates increase more quickly with term
than the spot rates. [2]
[Total 13]
The investors are valuing a particular corporate bond which has half-yearly
coupon payments paid at a rate of 5% per annum and a term to redemption
of exactly two years. The bond is redeemed at 110% and tax is payable on
coupons only at a rate of 20%.
The average gross redemption yield from all government securities is 3% per
annum effective.
(i) Calculate the price that investor A would pay for the corporate bond. [3]
Over time t, the spot rate of interest from the yield curve of government
securities, y t is given by y t = 0.015t per annum effective for t £ 2 .
(ii) Calculate the price that investor B would pay for the corporate bond. [3]
(iii) Calculate the forward rate of interest from government securities from
t = 1 to t = 2. [2]
(iv) Giving two reasons, explain why the spot yield curve might rise with
term to redemption. [3]
[Total 11]
The insurance company decides to sell the zero-coupon bond it holds and
invest the proceeds in another zero-coupon bond with a shorter term to
maturity.
The solutions presented here are just outline solutions for you to use to
check your answers. See ASET for full solutions.
Let ft denote the one-year forward rate applicable at time t . We are given:
Therefore, we have:
f0 = i1 fi 0.061 = a - b (Equation 1)
Since we expect (1 + i 2 ) to be greater than zero, when taking the square root
of both sides of this equation we can exclude the negative root. This gives:
1 + a - 2b = (1.061)(1.065) (Equation 2)
1 + (a - b ) - b = (1.061)(1.065)
1 + 0.061 - b = (1.061)(1.065)
Let P be the price per £1 nominal of the bond. This is given by:
We are given the 4-year par yield. This satisfies the equation:
(1 + i 4 )4 = 1.31429
Substituting this, and our values for i1, i 2 and i3 , into Equation 3 gives:
78.9079
= 8.037 years
9.8181
1 + 2 + + 20
20
20 ¥ 21
2 210
= = 10.5 years
20 20
In (i)(a) and (i)(b) the cashflows are received at the same times, but are for
different amounts. This affects the weightings. Under the increasing
annuity, the later payments are larger than under the level annuity, giving a
higher weighting to later times. This, in turn, means that the duration of the
increasing annuity is longer than that of the level annuity.
The gross redemption yield is the interest rate that satisfies the equation of
value for the bond:
Taking 6.5% pa as a first guess for the gross redemption yield and
evaluating the RHS gives 102.8150. This is too low.
Interpolating between these two values gives a gross redemption yield of:
104.1981 103
6 0.5 6.43% pa
104.1981 102.81501
The equation of value for the bond to be redeemed in one year’s time is:
6 105 111
103 1 y1
1 y1 103
The equation of value for the bond to be redeemed in two years’ time is:
6 6 105
103
1 y1 (1 y 2 )2
111
97.432432 (1 y 2 )2 1.139251
(1 y 2 )2
The equation of value for the bond to be redeemed in three years’ time is:
6 6 6 105
103
1 y1 (1 y 2 )2 (1 y 3 )3
111
3
92.165814 (1 y 3 )3 1.2043511
(1 y 3 )
Let ft ,r denote the forward rate that applies from time t for r years.
f0,1 y1 7.767%
f0,2 y 2 6.736%
f0,3 y 3 6.394%
1.139251
(1 y1)(1 f1,1) (1 y 2 )2 1 f1,1 111
103
Also:
1.2043511
(1 y1)(1 f1,2 )2 (1 y 3 )3 (1 f1,2 )2 111
103
Finally, we have:
1.2043511
(1 y 2 )2 (1 f2,1) (1 y 3 )3 1 f2,1
1.139251
Since we know that the company has funds equal to the present value of the
liabilities, it holds £185,277.40. The company holds 10% of this amount in
cash, and uses the remainder to purchase holdings of the zero-coupon bond
and the fixed-interest bond.
PVA 0.1 185,277.40 Av 12 B 0.08a16 1.1v 16
So Redington’s first condition of PVA PVL , gives us the equation:
185,277.40 0.1 185,277.40 Av 12 B 0.08a16 1.1v 16
166,749.66 Av 12
B 0.08a16 1.1v 16
(1)
The present value of the cash element of the asset portfolio does not change
when interest rates change. For instance, if you have £100 in the bank
today and interest rates change, you will still have £100 in the bank.
So, the derivative of the present value of the asset cashflows is:
PVA 12 Av 13 B 0.08v (Ia )16 16 1.1v 17
Redington’s second condition implies that:
1,715,531.4 12 Av 13 B 0.08v (Ia )16 16 1.1v 17
ie
1,715,531.4 12 Av 13 B 0.08v (Ia )16 16 1.1v 17 (2)
0.08
0.08v (Ia )16 16 1.1v 17 61.1154 16 1.1(1.08)17
1.08
9.28380
and:
254,593.51v 12 101,102.6
63,785.24 0.08a16 1.1v 16 63,785.24 1.02919
65,647.07
PVA = Xv 10 + Yv 20
Xv 10 + Yv 20 = 4.66823 (1)
10 ¥ Xv 10 + 20 ¥ Yv 20
DMTA =
PVA
X = £4.664 million
PV ¢¢
PV
Convexity is a measure of how spread out the cashflows are over time.
Here, both the assets and liabilities consist of payments starting at time 10
and ending at time 20. However, the liabilities take the form of regular
payments over this period, whilst the assets consist of two payments at each
extremity. The asset cashflows are therefore more spread out over time
(being further apart from one another), meaning that Redington’s third
condition would be satisfied.
Since the GRY of the two-year bond is 5.3% pa, the price of this bond is:
The equation of value for the two-year bond in terms of y1 and y 2 is:
5 5 + 100
99.4445 = +
1 + y1 (1 + y 2 )2
5 5 + 100
= +
1.045 (1 + y 2 )2
fi (1 + y 2 )2 = 1.109235 fi y 2 = 5.3202% pa
The 3-year par yield is 5.6% pa. So the 3-year par yield equation is:
Rearranging gives:
(1 + y 3 )3 = 1.178668 fi y 3 = 5.6324% pa
Let ft denote the one-year forward rate that applies from time t for 1 year.
3
(1 + y3)
2
(1 + y2)
(1 + y1)
0 1 2 3
(1 + f 0)
(1 + f 1)
(1 + f 2)
Firstly, we have:
f0 = y1 = 4.5% pa.
Secondly,
1.109235
(1 + y1 )(1 + f1 ) = (1 + y 2 )2 fi 1 + f1 = fi f1 = 6.1469% pa
1.045
Finally, we have:
1.178668
(1 + y 2 )2 (1 + f2 ) = (1 + y 3 )3 fi 1 + f2 =
1.109235
fi f2 = 6.2596% pa
Unlike a future, an option gives an investor the right, but not the obligation,
to buy or sell a specified asset on a specified future date.
È Ê 3.5 3.5 ˆ ˘
K = (S0 - I ) (1.06) = Í97 - Á + ˙ ¥ 1.06 = £95.70%
Î Ë 1.05½ 1.06 ˜¯ ˚
2
Ê 1.06 ˆ
(
1.05½ 1 + f½,½ )½ = 1.06 fi f½,½ = Á
Ë 1.05½ ˜¯
- 1 = 7.0095%
2 102
P= ½
+ = £98.1782%
1.05 1.06
The GRY is the interest rate that is the solution of the equation:
98.1782 = 2v ½ + 102v
102 x 2 + 2 x - 98.1782 = 0
Solving gives:
-2 ± 4 + 4 ¥ 102 ¥ 98.1782
x= = 0.97133 or - 0.99094
2 ¥ 102
(ii)(e) Comment
The GRY is a weighted average of the 6-month spot rate and the 12-month
spot rate. The weighting is dependent on the size of the cashflows. In this
case the GRY is very close to the 12-month spot rate because the cashflow
at time 1 is much bigger than the cashflow at time ½.
PV = 1, 200a(12)
20
+v 20
(2, 400a
(12)
1
+ 2,500v a(12) + 2, 600v 2a(12) + + 4,300v 19 a(12)
1 1 1 )
(
= 1, 200a(12) + v 20 a(12) 2, 400 + 2,500v + 2, 600v 2 + + 4,300v 19
20 1 )
= 1, 200a(12) + v 20 a(12)
20 1 (2,300a20
+ 100 (I a)
20 )
At an effective annual interest rate of 6%, we have:
266,138
266,138 = Xa40 2.5% = 25.1028 X fi X = = £10, 601.94
25.1028
2 X = £21, 203.87
DMT =
(
10,601.94 v + 2v 2 + 3v 3 + + 40v 40 ) = (I a) 40 2.5%
( 2
10, 601.94 v + v + v + + v 3 40
) a40 2.5%
433.3248
= = 17.26 half years or 8.63 years
25.1028
The price of the bond, P , is equal to the PV of the payments received from
it. In terms of the forward rates given, we can use the expression:
7 7 7 107
P= + + +
1 + f0 (1 + f0 )(1 + f1 ) (1 + f0 )(1 + f1 )(1 + f2 ) (1 + f0 )(1 + f1 )(1 + f2 )(1 + f3 )
Evaluating this:
7 7 7 107
P= + + +
1.044 (1.044)(1.047) (1.044)(1.047)(1.049) (1.044)(1.047)(1.049)(1.05)
= £108.09
The gross redemption yield is the interest rate that solves the equation:
We find:
i = 5% fi RHS = 107.0919
i = 4.5% fi RHS = 108.96881
Ê 108.96881 - 108.09 ˆ
GRY = 4.5 + 0.5 Á = 4.73%
Ë 108.96881 - 107.0919 ˜¯
(iii) Explanation
The gross redemption yield is a weighted average of the interest rates that
apply over the term of the bond, where the weights are the cashflows that
occur at the different durations.
A bond with 9% coupons would give higher weighting to those interest rates
applying earlier in the bond’s life. In this case, the forward rates are lower at
the start of bond. So the gross redemption yield would also be lower.
DMT =
1
1.038835 (1¥ 1.038835v + 2 ¥ 1.038835 v + + 40 ¥ 1.038835 v )
2 2 40 40
1
1.038835 (1.038835v + 1.038835 v + + 1.038835 v )
2 2 40 40
1
Substituting V = 1.038835v , and cancelling the factor of 1.038835
:
V + 2 ¥ V 2 + 3 ¥ V 3 + + 40 ¥ V 40
DMT =
V + V 2 + V 3 + + V 40
1
Now, if V = , then:
1+ I
1 1.038835
= fi I = 3%
1+ I 1.07
The assets available in the market all have a duration of 15 years or less.
Therefore any portfolio of assets put together as part of an immunisation
strategy will have a discounted mean term of 15 years at most.
Since the discounted mean term of the liabilities as calculated in part (i) is
16.65 years, it will not be possible to satisfy Redington’s second condition
using the available assets. Hence it is not possible to immunise this pension
fund against small changes in the interest rate.
Using the subscripts A and L to denote assets and liabilities and dashes to
indicate differentiation with respect to the interest rate, the three conditions
are:
1. PVA = PVL
(ii)(a) PV of liabilities
419.922
DMTL = = 5.177 years
81.109
PVA = Xv 3 + Yv 12
3 Xv 3 + 12Yv 12
DMTA =
PVA
Equating the PV’s and DMT’s of the assets and liabilities, we get:
Xv 3 + Yv 12 = 81.109 (1)
3 12
3 Xv + 12Yv = 419.922 (2)
Xv 3 = 61.487 fi X = £69.165m
Let’s consider the liabilities, we are now at time 1 (just before the payment):
10 10 10 ... 10 Payment
0 1 2 3 ... 10 Time
X Y
0 1 3 12
2 Xv 2 + 11Yv 11 327.514
DMTA = = = 4.0383 years
PVA 81.1022
With both the interest rate change and change over time the duration of the
assets and liabilities are no longer equal. Therefore we would have to
rebalance the portfolio to make them equal again.
The 1-year bond has a GRY of 4% pa. This means that the 1-year spot rate,
y1 , is also 4% pa.
The 2-year bond has a GRY of 3% pa. So the price of this bond is given by:
The 3-year bond has a GRY of 3% pa. So the price of this bond is given by:
We have:
f0,1 = y1 = 4% pa
f0,2 = y 2 = 2.9622% pa
f0,3 = y 3 = 2.9760% pa
Also:
2.9622% pa
4% pa
0 1 2 3
f1, 1
1.0296222
fi (1 + f1,1 ) = fi f1,1 = 1.9348% pa
1.04
2.9760% pa
2.9622% pa
0 1 2 3
f2, 1
1.0297603
fi (1 + f2,1 ) = fi f2,1 = 3.0035% pa
1.0296222
2.9760% pa
4% pa
0 1 2 3
f1, 2
1.0297603
fi (1 + f1,2 )2 = fi f1,2 = 2.4678% pa
1.04
The 1-year money spot rate is i = 4% pa and 1-year real spot rate is
i ¢ = 2% pa , so the 1 year inflation spot rate, e1 :
1.04
1 + e1 = fi e1 = 1.96% pa
1.02
The 2-year money spot rate is i = 2.9622% pa and 2-year real spot rate is
i ¢ = 2% pa , so over the 2 years:
1.0296222
(1 + e2 )2 = = 1.0190 fi e2 = 0.943% pa
1.022
The 3-year money spot rate is i = 2.9760% pa and 3-year real spot rate is
i ¢ = 2% pa , so over the 3 years:
1.0297603
(1 + e3 )3 = = 1.0290 fi e3 = 0.956% pa
1.023
(iv) Calculate the rate of inflation in each of the next three years
We have:
0 1 2 3
101.96 - 100
= +1.96% pa
100
101.90 - 101.96
= -0.06% pa
101.96
102.90 - 101.90
= +0.98% pa
101.90
(1 + f 2,2 ) 2
0 1 2
(1 + f 2,1 ) 3 4
time
(1 + y1 ) = 1.031
(1 + y2 ) 2 = 1.032 2
(1 + y3 )3 = 1.033 3
(1 + y4 ) 4 = 1.034 4
Assuming no arbitrage:
(1 + y 2 )2 ¥ (1 + f2,1) = (1 + y 3 )3
(1 + y 3 )3 1.0333
fi (1 + f2,1) = 2
= = 1.0350029
(1 + y 2 ) 1.0322
Similarly:
(1 + y 2 )2 ¥ (1 + f2,2 )2 = (1 + y 4 )4
(1 + y 4 )4 1.034 4
fi (1 + f2,2 ) = = = 1.0360039
(1 + y 2 )2 1.0322
4 4 119
P= + + = 115.5913
1.031 1.0322 1.0333
c c c 1
1= + + +
1.031 1.0322 1.0333 1.0333
Ê 1 1 1 ˆ 1
1= cÁ + + +
Ë 1.031 1.0322 1.0333 ˜¯ 1.0333
1 = 2.81607c + 0.907192
The investment manager will not be able to immunise the fund with a single
zero-coupon bond because of the third Redington condition, ie that the
convexity of the assets is greater than the convexity of the liabilities, will not
be met. The liabilities are due in three years’ time and twenty years’ time, so
a single zero-coupon bond (with only one payment) cannot be more spread
(ie more convex) than the liabilities.
1. PVA = PVL
Using A and B to represent the cash invested in (ie the present value of) the
four-year bond, Bond A, and the twenty-year bond, Bond B, respectively, the
present value of the assets ( PVA ) can be written as PVA = A + B .
A + B = 24.6962 (1)
Since the denominator of the DMT is the present value, the second condition
can be reduced to showing that the top line of the DMT formulae are equal
for assets and liabilities. The calculations are:
Solving simultaneously:
The third Redington condition for immunisation requires that the convexity of
the assets is greater than the convexity of the liabilities. This condition is
met since the spread of the assets is greater (from 4 to 20 years) than the
spread of the liabilities (from 3 to 6 years). Therefore, the chosen portfolio of
assets will immunise the company from small changes in interest rates.
Alternative solution
To show that this portfolio meets the third condition, we could show that
PVA¢¢ > PVL¢¢ . For the assets, we have:
Therefore, the convexity of the assets is greater than the convexity of the
liabilities and Redington’s third condition for immunisation is met.
1. PVA = PVL
2. DMTA = DMTL or vol A = vol L
3. conv A > conv L .
These three conditions must be satisfied at the given starting rate of interest.
=
(
100 v + 2v 2 + 3v 3 + + 40v 40 )
( 2 3
100 v + v + v + + v 40
)
100(Ia )40
=
100a40
30,632.31
= = 15.4765 years
1,979.28
Let A and B be the nominal amounts (in £m) of the five-year and forty-year
zero-coupon bonds purchased by the company (ie the amounts received
when the bonds are redeemed). Hence:
PVA = Av 5 + Bv 20
5 Av 5 + 20Bv 20
DMTA =
PVA
Equating the PV’s and DMTs of the assets and liabilities gives:
To estimate the change in the PVL when the interest rate changes, we need
to work out the volatility of the liabilities. Since DMT = (1 + i ) ¥ vol we have:
15.4765
vol L = = 14.8813
1.04
This tells us that a 1% change in the current interest rate will lead to a
change in the PVL of approximately 14.8813%. So a 1.5% change in the
current interest rate will lead to a change in the PVL of approximately
1.5 ¥ 14.8813 = 22.3219% .
A reduction in the interest rate will lead to an increase in the PV, so the
estimated PV of the liabilities if the interest rate reduced by 1.5% to 2.5% pa
is:
(iv)(c) Comment
The reason for the discrepancy is that the volatility tells us about the change
in the PV resulting from an infinitesimally small change in the underlying
interest rate. Here, we have used the volatility to approximate the change in
PV caused by a larger change in the interest rate, so the resulting estimate
will be less accurate.
From a forward rate yield curve, we can obtain the forward rate ft ,r , which is
the effective annual interest rate that applies over the future time period from
t to t + r , based on current market prices.
Forward rates tell us the rate of return that could be achieved over a given
future time period from investment in government bonds made today.
From a spot rate yield curve, we can obtain the spot rate y t , which is the
effective annual interest rate that applies for the t -year time period starting
now.
Spot rates tell us the rate of return that could be achieved over a period that
starts now from investment in government bonds.
From the gross redemption yield curve, we can obtain the gross redemption
yield, which is the effective annual overall pre-tax return, from both the
coupons and the redemption payment, on a government bond if it is held to
maturity.
Since government bonds exist with a variety of different coupon rates, the
gross redemption yield curve will show gross redemption yields that are a
statistical average of those obtained from bonds with different coupons.
j = i + 0.01 + 0.001t
where t is the time in years when the payment is due, and i = 0.02t is the
annual effective t -year spot rate of interest. So:
If t = 1, j = 0.031 or 3.1%.
If t =2, j = 0.052 or 5.2%.
If t =3, j = 0.073 or 7.3%.
If t = 4, j = 0.094 or 9.4%.
If t =5, j = 0.115 or 11.5%.
10 10 10 10 110
P= + + + + = 97.640
1.031 1.0522 1.0733 1.0944 1.1155
97.640 - 100
GRY ª 10% + (11% - 10%) = 10.6%
96.304 - 100
The formula used here is based on spot yields derived from government
bonds. These spot yields can be viewed as risk-free rates. An investor
purchasing a eurobond will require a higher return than the risk-free rates to
reflect the riskiness of the investment. This is reflected in the formula by the
additions made to the spot rates.
It seems reasonable that the formula for the interest rate includes an
element that increases over time, to take into account the fact that the
further into the future the payment is due to be received the more uncertainty
there is over whether it will be made.
3 3 103
P= + + = 95.845
1.041903 1.0436252 1.0451843
The GRY is the interest rate, i , that satisfies the following equation of value:
95.845 = 3v + 3v 2 + 103v 3
By interpolation:
(97.225 - 95.845)
i = 4% + ¥ 1% = 4.52%
(97.225 - 94.554)
c c c c 1
1= + + + +
1.041903 1.0436252 1.0451843 1.0465944 1.0465944
1 = 3.587226c + 0.833466
fi c = 4.642% pa
=
( )
200,000 v + 2v 2 + ◊ ◊ ◊ + 20v 20 + 15 ¥ 300,000v 15
200,000a20 + 300,000v 15
Let A and B denote the nominal amounts of each of the securities. The
present value of the assets is:
Using (1):
Working in months with y1 and y 2 the spot rates and f1,1 the forward rate,
we have:
(1 + y1 )(1 + f1,1 ) = (1 + y 2 )2
(1.01)(1 + f1,1 ) = (1.02)2 fi f1,1 = 3.0099%
The expectations theory states that the relative attraction of short-term and
long-term investments will vary according to expectations of future
movements in interest rates. An expectation of a fall in interest rates will
make short-term investments less attractive and long-term investments more
attractive. This will make yields on short-term investments rise, and yields
on long-term investments fall. An expectation of a rise in interest rates will
have the opposite effect.
For the one-year bond there is only one cashflow which is 104 at time 1, so
the duration is 1.
1 ¥ 4v + 2 ¥ 4v 2 + 3 ¥ 104v 3 280.583
= = 2.88 years
4v + 4v 2 + 104v 3 97.277
1 ¥ 4v + 2 ¥ 4v 2 + 3 ¥ 4v 3 + 4 ¥ 4v 4 + 5 ¥ 104v 5
4a5 + 100v 5
The coupons for a five-year bond with a coupon rate of 8% will be a higher
percentage of the total proceeds than the coupons with a coupon rate of 4%.
Since a greater proportion of the proceeds are received before the end of
the term the average time of the payments will be less. Hence the duration
will be lower.
0 1 2 3 4 5
95 = 4v + 4v 2 + 4v 3 + 4v 4 + 79v 5
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 12
95 = 4a4 + a7 v 4 + 101v 12
i - 2% 95 - 100.85
= fi i = 2.6%
3% - 2% 91.24 - 100.85
(i) Why the payback period and discounted payback period are not good
indicators of whether this project is worthwhile
The PP tells us when the income from the project exceeds the outgo on the
project, ignoring interest.
The DPP also calculates when a project moves into profit but it takes into
account interest. However it ignores the overall profitability of the project.
There may not be a unique time when the net cashflow changes from
negative to positive.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
3
= 4.6875 years
0.64
3 = 0.64an
1 - 1.04 - n
3 = 0.64 fi 1.04 - n = 0.8162
ln1.04
ln 0.8162
fi ln1.04 - n = ln 0.8162 fi n=- = 5.18 years
ln1.04
Project A:
1 - (1.1v )6
NPVA = -3 + 0.5v 0.5
1 - 1.1v
Project B:
NPVB = -3 + 0.64a6
1 - (1.1v )6 1 - (1.1)6
NPVA = -3 + 0.5v 0.5 = -3 + 0.5 = 0.8578
1 - 1.1v 1 - 1.1
At i = 4% , we have:
1 - (1.1v )6
NPVA = -3 + 0.5v 0.5
1 - 1.1v
( )
6
1.1
1- 1.04
-0.5
= -3 + 0.5 ¥ 1.04 1.1
= 0.4001
1 - 1.04
1 - 1.04 -6
NPVB = -3 + 0.64 ¥ = 0.4216
ln1.04
At one rate the net present value for A exceeds B and at the other rate B
exceeds A. This means there is a cross-over point.
From (iii) the present value of the incoming cashflows is the NPV plus the
outgo which is 3. So for Project A this is 3 + 0.4001 = 3.4001 and for Project
B it is 3 + 0.4216 = 3.4216 .
For Project B, the incoming cashflows are paid continuously so the duration
of the incoming cashflows at 4% pa is:
6
0.64 Ú tv t dt
0
=
( )
0.64 Ia
6
=
(Ia) 6
=
15.4104
= 2.88 years
6 0.64a6 a6 5.3463
0.64 Ú v t dt
0
(v) NPV for Project A falls more rapidly than for Project B
Since the duration is higher for Project A than Project B, the present value of
the incoming cashflows is more sensitive to changes in the rate of interest.
Hence the NPV of Project A falls more rapidly than that of Project B when
the rate of interest increases.
103
-97 6 6 6 payments
0 1 2 3 time
97 = 6v + 6v 2 + 109v 3
i = 8% fi RHS = 97.2273
i = 9% fi RHS = 94.7227
i = 8.5% fi RHS = 95.9637
97 - 97.2273
GRY = 8% + ¥ (8.5% - 8%) = 8.09% pa
95.9637 - 97.2273
103
-97 6 payments
0 1 time
y1
103
-97 6 6 payments
0 1 2 time
y1
y2
The equation of value for the one-year bond (with one-year spot rate y1 ) is:
1
97 = 109 ¥ fi y1 = 12.3711% pa
1 + y1
The equation of value for the two-year bond (with two-year spot rate y 2 ) is:
1 1
97 = 6 ¥ + 109 ¥ fi y 2 = 9.0491% pa
1 + y1 (1 + y 2 )2
Working in units of £1million, the present value of the assets and liabilities
(at 8% pa) are:
PVA = Xv 5 + Yv 20
Xv 5 + Yv 20 = 6.709272 (1)
Xv 5 ¥ 5 + Yv 20 ¥ 20
DMTA =
Xv 5 + Yv 20
6v 8 ¥ 8 + 11v 15 ¥ 15
DMTL =
6v 8 + 11v 15
Equating the numerators (as the denominators are equal from (1)), we have:
44.401427 ¥ 1.0820
fi Y = = 13.796877
15
6.709272 - 13.796877v 20
X = = 5.508771
v5
PVL = 6v 8 + 11v 15
PVL¢ = -8 ¥ 6v 9 - 15 ¥ 11v 16
PVL¢¢ = 9 ¥ 8 ¥ 6v 10 + 16 ¥ 15 ¥ 11v 17 = 913.610
PVA = Xv 5 + Yv 20
PVA¢ = -5 Xv 6 - 20Yv 21
PVA¢¢ = 6 ¥ 5 Xv 7 + 21 ¥ 20Yv 22 = 1,162.307
Since PVA¢¢ > PVL¢¢ Redington’s third condition for immunisation is satisfied.
Ê t2 ˆ
A(t1, t2 ) = exp Á Ú 0.05 + 0.002t dt ˜
ÁË t ˜¯
1
t2
= exp È0.05t + 0.001t 2 ˘
Î ˚t1
(
= exp 0.05(t2 - t1 ) + 0.001(t22 - t12 ) )
(a) From time 0 to time 7
( )
A(0,7) = exp 0.05(7 - 0) + 0.001(72 - 0) = e0.399 = 1.4903
( )
A(0, 6) = exp 0.05(6 - 0) + 0.001(62 - 0) = e0.336 = 1.3993
A(0,7) e0.399
A(6,7) = = = e0.063 = 1.0650
A(0, 6) e0.336
The seven-year spot rate ‘averages’ the interest rates throughout the seven
years. The rate of interest increases with time, so you would expect the one-
year forward rate at the end of the seven years to be higher than the
‘average’ rate across the whole time period.
1 - 1.04 -40
10a40 = 10 = 197.928
0.04
Let X be the nominal amount (in £millions) invested in the first security and
Y be the nominal amount (in £millions) invested in the second security.
The present value of a unit sum invested in the first security is:
0.05a10 + v 10
The present value of a unit sum invested in the second security is:
0.1a5 + v 5
Therefore:
197.928
2
(
= 98.964 = X 0.05a10 + v 10 )
= X (0.40554 + 0.67556)
= 1.0811X
fi X = 91.539
197.928
2
(
= 98.964 = Y 0.1a5 + v 5 )
= Y (0.44518 + 0.82193)
= 1.2671Y
fi Y = 78.102
t =
 time ¥ PV =
1 ¥ 10v + 2 ¥ 10v 2 + + 40 ¥ 10v 40
 PV 10a40
=
(
10 v + 2v 2 + + 40v 40 )
10 a40
(Ia )40
=
a40
306.323
= = 15.477 years
19.793
=
( ) (
X 0.05(Ia )10 + 10v 10 + Y 0.1(Ia )5 + 5v 5 )
197.928
810.603 + 422.554
= = 6.230 years
197.928
Here, the duration of the assets is less than the duration of the liabilities so
the fund is not immunised. The drop in interest rate will result in a larger rise
in the PV of the liabilities than the PV of the assets and hence a loss will be
made.
Since these are equal, the first condition for immunisation is satisfied.
The discounted mean terms for the assets and liabilities at 7% pa are:
Since we know that the denominators are equal and we can see that the
numerators are equal, the DMTs are also equal.
Alternatively, we could have shown that the DMTs were both equal to
12.939, or the volatilities were both equal to 12.093, or the first derivatives of
the PVs were both equal to –149.130.
The present value of the profit at the new interest rate of 7.5%pa is:
We can see that the third condition for immunisation will also be satisfied.
The spread of the assets about the discounted mean term is greater than the
corresponding spread of the liabilities. So the third condition for
immunisation will also be satisfied, and we will be immunised against any
losses arising from a small change in the interest rate. So, when the rate
changes to 7.5% pa, we make a small profit.
y2% pa
y1% pa
0 1 2 3
f1, 1% pa
Using the formula given in the question, the spot rates are:
(1 + y 2 )2 = (1 + y1) (1 + f1,1)
1.0372
fi 1 + f1,1 = = 1.03800 fi f1,1 = 3.800% (4 SF)
1.036
y3% pa
y2% pa
0 1 2 3
f2, 1% pa
We have:
(1 + y 3 )3 = (1 + y 2 )2 (1 + f2,1)
1.0383
fi 1 + f2,1 = = 1.04000 fi f2,1 = 4.000% (4 SF)
1.0372
105
–P 4 4 4
0 1 2 3
3.6% pa
3.7% pa
3.8% pa
4 4 109
P= + + = 105.0425
1.036 1.0372 1.0383
The two-year par yield is the annual coupon rate, C , at which a two year
bond redeemed at par needs to pay in order to be priced at par.
100
-100 C C
0 1 2
3.6% pa
3.7% pa
So we have:
C 100 + C
100 = +
1.036 1.0372
Ê 1 ˆ Ê 1 1 ˆ
fi 100 Á1 - =CÁ +
Ë 1.0372 ˜¯ Ë 1.036 1.0372 ˜¯
fi C = 3.6982
1 1.04 10
P 0.8 5 100 1.0410 32.44358 67.55642 £100
0.04
1 ¥ 5v + 2 ¥ 5v 2 + + 10 ¥ 5v 10 + 10 ¥ 100v 10
DMT =
5v + 5v 2 + + 5v 10 + 100v 10
=
( )
5 v + 2v 2 + + 10v 10 + 10 ¥ 100v 10
(
5 v + v 2 + + v 10 ) + 100v 10
If we use the gross coupon payments of 5%, rather than the net coupons of
4%, the coupons form a greater proportion of the overall cashflows. So the
coupons receive a higher weighting in the calculation of the weighted
average. But the coupons are received earlier than the redemption
proceeds, so the DMT will be lower.
By accumulating the price by three months the new price of the bond is:
Market segmentation theory says that the shape of the yield curve is
determined by supply and demand at different terms. So, for example,
yields at the short end of the curve will be determined by demand from
investors who have a preference for short dated stocks, ie those with short-
dated liabilities, as well as by the supply of short-dated stock. Similarly,
yields at the long end will be a function of demand from investors interested
in buying long bonds to match long-dated liabilities, and of supply of long-
dated stock.
Liquidity preference theory states that investors will in general prefer more
liquid (ie shorter) stocks to less liquid ones, as short-dated stocks are less
sensitive to changes in interest rates. Hence, investors purchasing long-
dated bonds will require higher yields in order to compensate them for the
greater volatility of the stock they are purchasing.
0 1 2 3 4 time
forward rates
6% pa 5% pa 4% pa 3% pa
y1
y2 spot rates
y3
y4
The gross redemption yields for the zero-coupon bonds are the spot rates.
Hence:
y1 = 6% pa
0 1 2 3 4 time
6% pa
5.499% pa
4.997% pa
4.494% pa
We will use trial and improvement to solve this for the GRY. However, since
we discounted the cashflows at spot rates of 6%, 5.499%, 4.997% and
4.494%, the GRY will lie between these values. Because most of the
cashflow arises at the end of four years, it is likely that y 4 will give us a
reasonable first approximation.
106.441 - 106.592
4.5% + ¥ (5% - 4.5%) = 4.54%
104.681 - 106.592
For the bond with the 8% coupon redeemed at par, a greater proportion of
the proceeds are received earlier, in the coupon payments, rather than in the
redemption proceeds. Since interest rates are higher earlier on, the GRY
(which is a weighted average of the rates used to discount the payments)
would be higher.
If banks are required to hold more short-dated bonds, demand for these
types of bonds will increase. If the supply of these bonds remains the same,
this will push up the price of these bonds, causing their gross redemption
yields and hence spot rates to fall.
Discounting using the appropriate spot rates, y t , the present value is:
1 1 1 1 2
PV = ½
+ 1½
+ 2½
+ 3½
+
(1 + y ½ ) (1 + y1½ ) (1 + y 2½ ) (1 + y 3½ ) (1 + y 4½ )4½
1 1 1 1 2
= ½
+ 1½
+ 2½
+ 3½
+
1.01 1.03 1.05 1.07 1.094½
= 0.995037 + 0.956630 + 0.885170 + 0.789145 + 1.357097
= 4.983079
The spot yield curve might rise with term to redemption because:
investors’ expectations are that short term interest rates will rise over
the next few years (expectations theory)
short term bonds may be in demand from institutional investors, leading
to higher bond prices and hence lower yields at shorter terms to
redemption (market segmentation)
investors may have a preference for more liquid investments, leading to
higher bond prices in the shorter term (liquidity preference)
Using the notation y t for the t-year spot rate of interest, and f3½,1 for the
one-year forward rate starting at time 3½, we have:
f3½,1 =
(1 + y 4½ )4½ - 1 = 1.094½ - 1 = 0.16299
(1 + y 3½ )3½ 1.073½
P = 9a10 + 100v 10
1 - 1.07 -10
P =9¥ + 100 ¥ 1.07 -10
0.07
= 9 ¥ 7.02358 + 100 ¥ 0.50835
= 114.0472
1 ¥ 9v + 2 ¥ 9v 2 + 3 ¥ 9v 3 + + 10 ¥ 9v 10 + 10 ¥ 100v 10
DMT =
( )
9 v + + v 10 + 100v 10
9 ¥ 34.7391 + 508.3493
=
114.0472
= 7.1988
(iii) Explanation
If the coupons are only 3% instead of 9%, the cashflows arising are now
even more weighted towards the end of the term, as a smaller proportion of
the cashflow arises from the coupons. Hence the DMT will be longer.
(iv)(a) Volatility
7.1988
= 6.7278
1.07
(iv)(b) Explanation
Volatility or effective duration tells us how much the price of the bond is likely
to change given a 1% change in underlying interest rates. So it tells
investors the extent of the risk to which they are exposed.
DMT =
 time ¥ PV =
500(1v + 2v 2 + + 12v 12 )
=
(Ia )12
 PV 2
500(v + v + + v 12
) a12
56.6328
= 6.03 years
9.38507
Since the duration of the bond (the asset) is greater than the duration of the
annuity (the liability) its present value will decrease more than the liability
with an increase in interest rates. Hence the insurance company will make a
loss.
i = 2% fi RHS = 102.884
i = 3% fi RHS = 100
101 - 102.884
i = 2% + (3% - 2%) = 2.65% pa
100 - 102.884
103
101 =
1 + y1
103
1 + y1 = fi y1 = 0.01980198
101
3 103
101 = +
1 + y1 (1 + y 2 )2
103
= 98.0582524
(1 + y 2 )2
(1 + y 2 )2 = 1.05039604
y 2 = 0.02488831
3 3 103
101 = + +
1 + y1 (1 + y 2 )2 (1 + y 3 )3
103
= 95.2021868
(1 + y 3 )3
(1 + y 3 )3 = 1.08190792
y 3 = 0.02658938
We have:
(1 + y 3 )3 = (1 + y 2 )2 (1 + f2,1 )
(iv) Explain
Market segmentation theory would imply that there is less demand or more
supply of longer-term bonds. Alternatively, there is more demand or less
supply of shorter-term bonds.
The first condition for immunisation is that the present value of the assets
equals the present value of the liabilities.
Working in units of millions of pounds, the present value of the liabilities is:
The corresponding figure for the present value of the assets is:
The second condition for immunisation is that the DMT of the assets equals
the DMT of the liabilities. Since the denominator of the DMT is the present
value of the cashflows and we have already shown that these are equal, it is
enough to consider the numerators of the DMT.
5 ¥ 5.5088v 5 + 20 ¥ 13.7969v 20
= 27.544 ¥ 1.08 -5 + 275.938 ¥ 1.08 -20
= 77.947987
Here, the terms of the assets are 5 and 20 years, whereas the terms of the
liabilities are less spread out, being only 8 and 15 years. So the third
condition for immunisation is also satisfied, and the company will be
immunised against small changes in interest rates.
£105
-£P £4 £4 £4 Payment
0 1 2 3 Time
Using the appropriate discount factor for each of the cashflows, the price P
is the present value of the cashflows arising from holding the bond:
4 4 105 + 4
P= + +
1.04 1.04 ¥ 1.05 1.04 ¥ 1.05 ¥ 1.06
= 3.846154 + 3.663004 + 94.166839 = 101.675997
Using C for the required coupon, we have the following equation of value:
C C 100 + C
100 = + +
1.04 1.04 ¥ 1.05 1.04 ¥ 1.05 ¥ 1.06
Rearranging gives:
Ê 1 1 1 ˆ Ê 1 ˆ
CÁ + + = 100 Á1 -
Ë 1.04 1.04 ¥ 1.05 1.04 ¥ 1.05 ¥ 1.06 ˜¯ Ë 1.04 ¥ 1.05 ¥ 1.06 ¯˜
2.741205C = 13.608404
So:
C = 4.964387
96 = 4a3 + 100v 3
96 - 97.277
i = 0.05 + ¥ 0.005 = 0.05482
95.953 - 97.277
1
Let y t be the t-year spot rate, and let v t = .
1 + yt
96 1
96 = 104v1 fi v1 = = 0.92308 fi y1 = - 1 = 0.08333
104 v1
For the two-year spot rate, we use the equation of value for the two-year
bond:
96 = 4v1 + 104v 22
Rearranging this, and using the value of v1 that we have already found:
96 - 4v1 96 - 4 ¥ 0.92308
v2 = = = 0.94211
104 104
So that:
1
y2 = - 1 = 0.06145
0.94211
Using f1,1 for the one-year forward rate at time one, we know that:
(1 + y1) (1 + f1,1) = (1 + y 2 )2
Rearranging this:
f1,1 =
(1 + y 2 )2 - 1 = 1.061452 - 1 = 0.04000
1 + y1 1.08333
(iv) Explanation
We know that the gross redemption yield is 5.48% pa, and that y1 = 8.333%
and y 2 = 6.145% . For the gross redemption yield to be a weighted
average, y 3 must be lower than the gross redemption yield, since the other
two spot rates are both higher.
The duration is another name for the discounted mean term (DMT).
Working in billions of pounds, the present value of the cashflows arising from
the current bond holdings, calculated at 6% pa, is:
where the first two terms on the right-hand side relate to the three-year bond
and the final two terms relate to the ten-year bond.
46.2264
DMT = = 5.7423
8.05015
DMT =
 time ¥ PV =
k ¥ 0.05(v 1 + v 2 ¥ 2 + v 3 ¥ 3 + )
 PV k ¥ 0.05(v 1 + v 2 + v 3 + )
(Ia )• 1 di 1
= = =
a• 1i d
Note that:
Ê a - nv n ˆ
1/ d - 0 1
( ) • nÆ• ( ) n nÆ• Á n i ˜˜ = i = di
I a = lim I a = lim Á
Ë ¯
1 1 + i 1.06
= = = 17.66667
d i 0.06
The present value of the proposed portfolio is 80% of that of the current
portfolio, whose present value calculated in part (i) was £8.05015bn. This
gives us the following equation for k , the nominal amount of new bonds to
be issued:
Using a• = 1/ i , we have:
1
0.05k ¥ = 0.8 ¥ 8.05015
0.06
The investment manager will not be able to immunise the fund with a single
zero-coupon bond because Redington’s third condition, ie that the convexity
of the assets is greater than the convexity of the liabilities, will not be met.
The liabilities are due in 7 years’ time and 11 years’ time, so a single
zero-coupon bond (with only one payment) cannot be more spread (ie more
convex) than the liabilities.
For the fund to be immunised against small changes in the rate of interest,
all three of Redington’s conditions need to be satisfied. Using a subscript of
A to refer to the asset cashflows, and a subscript of L to refer to the liability
cashflows, these conditions are:
PVA PVL
The corresponding figure for the present value of the assets, again using
i 5.5% , is:
So the present values are equal (to 5 SF), and Redington’s first condition for
immunisation is satisfied.
Since the present values of the assets and liabilities are equal, for the
second condition, we need only consider the numerator of the DMT in each
case.
The numerator of the DMT for the liabilities, using i 5.5% , is:
The numerator of the DMT for the assets, again using i 5.5% , is:
Alternatively, we could show that the DMT is 8.489 years (to 4 SF) for both
the assets and liabilities.
Alternatively, we could calculate the volatility of the assets and the liabilities.
For the liabilities, using i 5.5% :
so:
96.94549
volL 8.04680
12.04770
so:
96.94682
volA 8.04675
12.04794
The third condition for immunisation is that the convexity of the assets must
be greater than the convexity of the liabilities, that is, the assets must be
more spread out than the liabilities around the discounted mean term.
Here, the terms of the assets are 7.5 and 14.25 years, whereas the terms of
the liabilities are less spread out, being only 7 and 11 years. So the third
condition for immunisation is also satisfied, and the company will be
immunised against small changes in interest rates.
912.4677
conv L 75.7379
12.04770
933.6906
conv A 77.4979
12.04794
We see that the convexity of the assets is greater than the convexity of the
liabilities, so the third condition for immunisation is indeed satisfied.
i1 g1 7.100%
P2 5v 105v 2 @7.2%
96.03336
We can now calculate the two-year spot rate, using the equation of value:
5 105
96.03336
1 i1 (1 i 2 )2
1 1 5
96.03336 0.870141
(1 i 2 )2 105 1.071
So:
0.5
1
i2 1 0.072026 ie i 2 7.203%
0.870141
P3 5v 5v 2 105v 3 @ 7.3%
93.99700
We can now calculate the three-year spot rate, using the equation of value:
5 5 105
93.99700
1 i1 (1 i 2 )2 (1 i 3 )3
1 1 5 5
93.99700 0.809312
(1 i3 )3 105 1.071 1.072032
So:
13
1
i3 1 0.073070 ie i3 7.307%
0.809312
By definition, f0 , the one-year forward rate over the year from time 0 to
time 1, is equal to the one-year spot rate i1 :
f0 i1 7.100%
To calculate the one-year forward rate over the year from time 1 to time 2,
we use:
(1 i 2 )2 (1 i1)(1 f1)
(1 i 2 )2 1.072032
f1 1 1 0.073052 ie f1 7.305%
1 i1 1.071
To calculate the one-year forward rate over the year from time 2 to time 3,
we use:
(1 i3 )3 (1 i 2 )2 (1 f2 )
(1 i 3 )3 1.073073
f2 1 1 0.075162 ie f2 7.516%
(1 i 2 )2 1.072032
(iii) Explanation
The spot rate is a geometric average of the one-year forward rates over the
term considered.
If the one-year forward rates are increasing with term, then the spot rates
must also be increasing, since the spot rates are an average of the forward
rates. However, the change in the spot rate from one term to the next will be
less than the change in the forward rate. This is because when the term
increases and a new (higher) forward rate is included in the average, any
increase in the forward rate from the previous year’s value is averaged over
all years, leading to a smaller change in the spot rate.
This implies that the rate of growth of the spot rates will be lower than the
rate of growth of the forward rates, or, equivalently, that the rate of growth of
the forward rates must be higher than the rate of growth of the spot rates.
This gives:
1 - 1.04-2
PA = 4 a(2) + 110v 2 = 4 ¥ + 110 ¥ 1.04-2 = 109.32027
2
2 È1.04½ - 1˘
Î ˚
Using the relationship between spot and forward rates (and using f1,1 for the
one-year forward rate at time 1):
(1 + y1) (1 + f1,1) = (1 + y 2 )2
So we have:
( )
1.015 1 + f1,1 = 1.03 2
1.032
f1,1 = - 1 = 0.045222
1.015
The spot yield curve might rise with term if investors were expecting short-
term interest rates to rise in the future.
The spot yield curve might rise if there was higher demand from institutional
investors for short-dated bonds, compared to long-dated bonds. This would
force up the prices of bonds at the short end of the curve, thus lowering the
yield. The spot rate curve would then be upward-sloping.
Using an interest rate of 3% pa, the present value of the liabilities is (working
in millions of pounds):
PVL = 100v 10 + 200v 20 = 100 ¥ 1.03 -10 + 200 ¥ 1.03 -20 = 185.14454
Using X for the annual amount paid under the annuity, the present value of
the assets is:
144.054 ¥ 15 v 15 + X (Ia )n
DMTA =
185.14454
X an = 92.68176 (3)
(Ia)n
= 16.95970
an
Using the formulae for level and increasing annuities, we now find that:
an - nv n
i an - nv n
= = 16.95970
1- v n 1- v n
i
1 - 1.03 -41
an - nv n -1
- 41 ¥ 1.03 -41
= 1 - 1.03 = 16.95971
1- v n 1 - 1.03 -41
X a41 = 92.68176
1 - 1.03 -41
a41 = = 23.41240
0.03
So now we have:
92.68176
X = = 3.95866
23.41240
PV ¢¢
convexity =
PV
Since the times of the asset payments run from time 1 to time 41, but the
times of the liabilities are only at times 10 and 20, it seems likely that the
spread of the assets about the DMT is greater than the spread of the
liabilities, in which case Redington’s third condition will be satisfied.
(v) Risks
If the company sells the zero-coupon bond and buys another bond with a
shorter term, it will no longer be immunised. The DMT of the assets will now
be less than the DMT of the liabilities. This means that if interest rates were
to change, the company would make a loss.
FACTSHEET
The yield on a unit zero-coupon bond with term n years, y n , is called the n-
year spot rate of interest.
The discrete time forward rate, ft ,r , is the annual interest rate agreed at
time 0 for an investment made at time t > 0 for a period of r years.
(1 + y t + r )t + r
(1 + ft ,r )r =
(1 + y t )t
Let Pt be the price of a unit zero-coupon bond of term t. Then the t-year
spot force of interest is Yt where:
1
Pt = e -Yt t fi Yt = - log Pt
t
Ft ,r
We also have y t = eYt - 1 and ft ,r = e - 1.
The connection between the continuous spot and forward rates is:
(t + r )Yt + r - tYt
Ft ,r =
r
Ft = lim Ft ,r
r Æ0
t
- Ú Fs ds
We also have Pt = e 0
.
2 Yield curves
There are three explanations for why the interest rate varies with the term of
the investment, namely expectations theory, liquidity preference and market
segmentation.
3 Par yield
4 Coupon bias
The coupon bias is defined to be the difference between the par yield and
the spot rate.
1 d PV ¢
n (i ) = - PV = -
PV di PV
The Macaulay duration or discounted mean term (DMT) is the mean term of
the cashflows {Ctk } , weighted by present value. That is, at rate i, the
duration of the cashflow sequence {Ctk } is:
n
t
S tk Ctk v i k
t = k =1 =
 t ¥ PV
n
t
S Ctk v i k
 PV
k =1
Comparing this expression with the equation for the effective duration we
can see that:
t = (1 + i )n (i )
8 Convexity
1 d2 PV ¢¢
c(i ) = PV =
PV di 2 PV
9 Redington’s conditions
2. The volatilities of the asset and liability cashflow series are equal, that
is, n A (i 0 ) = n L (i0 ) .
3. The convexity of the asset cashflow series is greater than the convexity
of the liability cashflow series – that is, c A (i 0 ) > cL (i 0 ) .
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
NOTES