Mathssample-Qp Subsolution 100PP 2
Mathssample-Qp Subsolution 100PP 2
SOLUTIONS
0 0 1
SECTION-A = 0
= 0
0 0
sin q 1
sin q 1
1
cos q 0 1
1. Option (D) is correct. cos q 0 1
Explanation : Given that, A = {1, 2, 3} = − sin q.cos q [Expanding along first row]
= − sin q.cos q
Now, number of equivalence relations are as follows 1
: = − 1 .2 sin θ.cos q
= − 2 .2 sin θ.cos q
R1={(1, 1) , ( 2, 2 ) , (3, 3)} 2
1
= − 1 sin 2q
R2={(1, 1) , ( 2, 2 ) , (3, 3) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2, 1)} = − 2 sin 2q
2
1
R3={(1, 1) , ( 2, 2 ) , (3, 3) , (1, 3) , (3, 1)} So, maximum value of D is 1 , when sin 2q = −1.
So, maximum value of D is 2 , when sin 2q = −1.
R4 ={(1, 1) , ( 2, 2 ) , (3, 3) , ( 2, 3) , (3, 2 )} 2
(1, 1),(2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 1), 5. Option (C) is correct.
R5= Explanation : Given that,
(3, 1), (1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 2)
4 − x2
\Maximum number of equivalence relation on the f (x) = , then it is discontinuous if
4x − x3
set A = {1, 2, 3} = 5
2. Option (D) is correct. ⇒
⇒ 44xx −
− xx 3
3
00
=
=
Explanation : Since, f : ® is defined as f(x) = x4.
Let x, y Î R such that f(x) = f(y).
⇒
⇒ (
xx 44 − 2
− xx 2 ) =
=00
Þ x4 = y4 ⇒xx (22 +
⇒ + xx )(22 −
− xx ) =
=00
Þ x = ±y 00,, −
⇒
⇒ xx =
= − 22,, 22
\ f(x) = f(y)
does not imply that x = y. Thus, the given function is discontinuous at exactly
three points.
For example, f(1) = f(–1) = 1
\ f is not one-one. 6. Option (A) is correct.
Consider an element 2 in co-domain R. It is clear Explanation : Given that,
that there does not exist any x in domain R such y = sin x + y
that f(x) = 2.
Þ y 2 = sin x + y
\ f is not onto.
Hence, function f is neither one-one nor onto. Differentiating with respect to x,
3. Option (A) is correct. dy dy
⇒ 2y =+
cos x
Explanation : Given that, dx dx
A and B are symmetric matrices. dy
⇒ ( 2 y − 1) =
cos x
Þ A = A' and B = B' dx
Now, (AB – BA)' = (AB)' – (BA)' ...(i) dy cos x
⇒ =
Þ (AB – BA)' = B'A' – A'B' dx 2 y − 1
[By reversal law]
7. Option (C) is correct.
Þ (AB – BA)' = BA – AB [From Eq. (i)]
p
Þ (AB – BA)' = –(AB – AB) Explanation : In the given interval 0,
\ (AB – BA) is skew symmetric matrix. 2
f(x) = cos x
4.
Option (A) is correct.
On differentiating with respect to x, we get
Explanation : Given that,
f´(x) = – sin x
1 1 1
which gives f '(x) < 0 in 0, π
D= 1 1+sinq 1 2
1+cosq 1 1
Hence, f(x) = cos x is decreasing in 0, π .
[Applying C1®C1–C3 and C2®C2–C3]
2
2 Oswaal CBSE Question Bank Chapterwise & Topicwise, MATHEMATICS, Class-XII
∫0 ∫0 ( )
then = 2= . f =
dv 3x 3x 0 0
π
4 + 3cos x
9. Option (D) is correct. = ∫ 2 log dx ...(ii)
Explanation:
0
4 + 3sin x
Since, direction cosines of a line are k, k and k. Adding equations (i) and (ii), we obtain
π
\ l = k, m = k and n = k 4 + 3sin x 4 + 3cos x
We know that,
=
l 2 + m2 + n2 = 1
2I 2
log ∫
+ log
0
dx
4 + 3cos x
4 + 3sin x
π
⇒ k2 + k2 + k2 = 1 4 + 3sin x 4 + 3cos x
1
=⇒ 2I ∫ 0
2
log × dx
4 + 3cos x 4 + 3sin x
⇒ k2 = π
3
∴ k=±
1 ∫ 2 log 1dx
⇒ 2I =
0
3 π
⇒ I=
0
Explanation: Rewriting the given line as:
x−5 y − ( −4 ) z−6 13. Option (A) is correct.
= = Explanation :
3 7 −2
\ Equation of line in vector form is
= Let I
∫
e x sec x(1 + tan x )dx
r = ( 5i − 4 j + 6 k ) + λ( 3i + 7 j − 2 k ) ∫ e (sec x + sec x tan x )dx
x
=
11. Option (B) is correct. Also, let sec x = f ′( x )
f ( x ) ⇒ sec x tan x =
Explanation:
∫ e { f ( x ) + f ′( x )} dx =e f ( x ) + C
x x
\ I = ex sec x + C 1
14. Option (A) is correct.
cos 2 x
Explanation: Let I =
∫ ( cos x + sin x ) 2
dx
cos2 x − sin 2 x
I=∫ dx
(cos x + sin x )2
(cos x + sin x )(cos x − sin x )
=∫ dx
(cos x + sin x )2
cos x − sin x
=∫ dx
cos x + sin x
Let cos x + sin x = t
Þ (cos x – sin x)dx = dt
dt
On plotting the constraints x = 3, x = 9, x = y and
\ I=∫
t
x + y = 14, we get the following graph. From the
graph given below it, clear that feasible region is
= log t + C
ABCDEA, including corner points A(9, 0), B(3, 0), = log cos x + sin x + C 1
C(3, 3), D(7, 7) and E(9, 5).
15. Option (B) is correct.
Thus feasible region has five corner points including
(7, 7) and (3, 3). i .( ˆj × kˆ) + ˆj.(ˆi × kˆ) + kˆ.(ˆi × ˆj )
Explanation: ˆ
12. Option (C) is correct. i .i + ˆj.( −ˆj ) + kˆ.kˆ
= ˆˆ
Explanation :
=1 − ˆj.ˆj + 1
π
4 + 3 sin x
Let I= ∫ 0
2 log dx
4 + 3 cos x
…(i) = 1−1+1
=1 1
SOLUTIONS 3
i j k dx
® ® Þ = −5 cm/min
a × b = 2 −3
→
dt
4 =0 1 (given)
dy
a 6 −8 = 4 cm/min
dt
dA dy dx
i( 24 − 24 ) − j(−16 − 4 a ) + k (12 + 3a ) = 0i + 0 j + 0 k = x +y 1
dt dt dt
On comparing 16 + 4a = 0, 12 + 3a = 0 dA
Þ 2
– 4 = a, a = – 4 1 dt x = 5 , y = 8 = 5 × 4 + 8 × (–5) cm /min
2 3 dA
24. P (E) = , P(EÈF) = 5 (Given) Þ = (20 – 40) cm2/min
5 dt
dA
E and F are independent Þ = –20 cm2/min 1
dt
P (EÇF) = P(E) × P(F)
Here, (–) ve sign shows that area is decreasing at the
Now, P(EÈF) = P(E) + P(F) – P(EÇF) 1 rate of 20 cm2/min.
P(EÈF) = P(E) + P(F) – P(E) × P(F)
3 2 2 SECTION-C
5 = 5 + P(F) – 5 × P(F)
3 2 2 l1 m1 n1 l1 l2 l3
- = P(F) 1 - 5 26.
AA’ = l2 m2
n2 m1 m2 m3
5 5
l3 m3 n3 n1 n2 n3
1 3
= P(F) 1 1 0 0
5 5
= 0 1 0 = I 3 1
1 5 1 0 0 1
∴ P(F) = × =
5 3 3
because
25. Let A denote the area of rectangle at instant t. l12 + m12 + n12 = 1, for each i = 1, 2, 3
1
\ A = xy (area of rectangle), lilj + mimj + ninj = 0(i ¹ j) for each i, j = 1, 2, 3 1
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2016]
OR
æ dy ÷ö p 1 = c.1(1 + 1)
çç ÷ = tan = 1 ½
\ çè dx ÷ø p 4 ⇒ 1 = 2c
q=
4
1
dy ⇒ c=
29. x2 = y2 + 2xy 2
dx
1
dy y 2 + 2 xy Putting c = in equation (ii), we get
⇒ = ...(i) 2
dx x2
1
It is a homogeneous differential equation. y= x(x + y)
2
Putting y = vx ½
⇒ x(x + y) = 2y 1
dy dv
and = v+x in equation (i), OR
dx dx
We have,
dv ( vx )2 + 2 x( vx )
v+x = (1 + e2x)dy + (1 + y2)exdx = 0
dx x2
⇒ (1 + e2x)dy = – (1 + y2)exdx. 1
dv dy ex
⇒ v+x = v2 + 2v ⇒ dx
dx (1 y )
2
1 e2x
dv On integrating both sides, we get
⇒ x = v2 + v ½
dx
dy ex
dv dx (1 y 2 ) 1 e 2 x dx + C
= – ½
v(1 + v ) = x
Put ex= t ⇒ exdx = dt ½
Using partial fraction, we get
dt
æ ö
çç 1 - 1 ÷÷ dv =
dx
2 +C tan–1 y = – 1t
çè v v + 1 ÷ø x –1
= – tan t + C 1
Integrating both sides, we get ⇒ –1
tan y + tan e = c–1 x
1 1 dx 30. Let,
v v 1 dv = x
log c
H1 be the event 2 red balls are transferred
H2 be the event 1 red and 1 black ball are transferred
⇒ log v – log (v + 1) = log x + log c 1
H3 be the event 2 black and 1 black ball are
æ v ö÷ transferred
⇒ log ççç ÷ = log (x.c)
è v + 1 ø÷ E be the event that ball drawn from B is red.
3
v C2 3 6
⇒
P( H 1)
P ( E /H 1)
v + 1 = x.c 8
C 2 28 10
y
C1 5C1 15
3
5
P( H 2 ) 8
P ( E /H 2 )
x C2 28 10
⇒ y = c.x 5
C 2 10 4
+1
x
P( H 3)
8
P ( E /H 3)
C 2 28 10
y 3 6
18
⇒ x + y = c.x P ( H 1 /E ) 28 10
3 6 15 5 10 4 133
⇒ y = cx(x + y) ...(ii) 28 10 28 10 28 10
Putting y = 1 and x = 1 in (ii), we get 3
SOLUTIONS 7
31.
SECTION-D 5 −1 2 2 0 1
\ A2 – 5A + 4I = 9 −2 5 − 5 2 1 3
0 −1 −2 1 −1 0
32. Given, circle x2 + y2 = 4 and line x = 3y 1 0 0
2
x +y =4 2
...(i) + 4 0 1 0 1
0 0 1
x = 3y
...(ii) 5 −1 2 −10 0 −5
On squaring both sides of equation (ii), we get = 9 −2 5 + −10 −5 −15
0 −1 −2 −5 5 0
x2 = 3y2
Now, from eq. (ii), we get 4 0 0
4y2 = 4 + 0 4 0
0 0 4
y =±1
and x =± 3 −1 −1 −3
= −1 −3 −10
\ 1½
−5 4 2
\ X = – (A2 – 5A + 4I)
1 1 3
or X = 1 3 10 1
5 −4 −2
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2015]
1
OR
We have to find the area of shaded area.
1 −1 1
Area of shaded part = Area of OAL + Area of ALB
Let A = 2 −1 0
3 x 2
Area =
0
3
dx
3
4 – x 2 dx 1 1 0 0
−1 0 −1 1 −1 1
3 2 Then |A| = −2 +1
1 x2 x 4 x 0 0 0 0 −1 0
= 4 – x 2 sin –1
2
3 0 2 2 2 3 = 1(0) – 2(0) + 1(0 + 1)
[expanding along C1]
1 2 2
= 3 – 0 2 4 – 4 2 sin –1
2
=1¹0
2 3 Thus, A is a non-singular matrix, so A–1 exists. 2
Now, co-factors corresponding to each element of
3 3 determinant A are
– 4 – 3 2 sin –1
2 2 −1 0
1+1
C11 = ( −1) = 1( −0 − 0 ) = 0
0 0
3 3 π
=
2
0 2 sin –1 1 –
2
2
3
1
1+ 2 2 0
C12 = ( −1) = −1( 0 − 0 ) = 0
0 0
3 p 3 2p
= 2 - - 1 2 −1
2 2 2 3 C13 = ( −1)
1+ 3
= 1( 0 + 1) = 1
1 0
2π
A = π– −1 1
3 C21 = ( −1)
2 +1
= −1( 0 − 0 ) = 0
0 0
π
A = sq units 1
3 2+2 1 1
C22 = ( −1) = 1( 0 − 1) = ( −1)
1 0
[CBSE Marking Scheme, 2013]
2+3 1 −1
33.
Getting A2 = A·A C23 = ( −1)
1 0
= −1( 0 + 1) = −1
2 0 1 2 0 1 5 −1 2
= 2 1
3 2 1 3 = 9 −2 5 1½ −1 1
1 −1 0 1 −1 0 0 −1 −2 C31 = ( −1)
3 +1
= 1( 0 + 1) = 1
−1 0
SOLUTIONS 9
1 1 OR
3+2
C32 = ( −1) = −1( 0 − 2 ) = 2
2 0
Area of ||gm ABCD = | AB × AD |
3+3 1 −1
C33 = ( −1) = 1( −1 + 2 ) = 1
Now, AB = ( 5 0 )i ( m 3 ( 3)) j ( 0 3)k
2 −1
Thus, matrix of co-factors or, AB = 5i m j 3k 1
C11 C12 C13 0 0 1
and AD = (1 0 )i ( 3 ( 3)) j ( 4 3)k
= C21 C22 C23 = 0 −1 −1 2
or, AD = i + k 1
C31 C32 C33 1 2 1
C11 C21 C13 0 0 1
and adj(A) = C12 C22 C32 = 0 −1 2
C13 C23 C33 1 −1 1
[interchange rows and columns]
0 0 1
1 1
Now, –1
A = adj(A) = 0 −1 2
| A| 1 i j k
1 −1 1
\ AB × AD = −5 m −3
0 0 1 1 0 1
Þ A–1 = 0 −1 2
1 −1 1 or, AB × AD = i( − m − 0 ) − j( −5 + 3) + k ( 0 − m)
which is the required inverse of given matrix A. 1 or, AB × AD = −mi + 2 j − mk
34.
Let equation of required line is
Now, | AB × AD | = ( − m)2 + ( 2 )2 + ( − m)2 1
x -1 y -1 z -1
= = (i) ½
a b c
or, | AB × AD | = m2 + 4 + m2
Since the line is perpendicular to
x+2 y -3 z+1 2
= = = 2m + 4
1
1 2 4
x -1 y -2 z-3 Given, area of parallelogram ABCD
and = = , = 6 sq. units
2 3 4
\ 2m2 + 4 = 6
a + 2b + 4c = 0 (ii)
2a + 3b + 4c = 0 (iii) ½ Þ 2m2 + 4 = 36
Solving (ii) and (iii), Þ 2m2 = 32
a b c Þ m2 = 16
= = Þ m = ±4
-4 4 -1
Thus, value of m is ±4. 1
\ DR’s of line in cartesian form is : –4, 4, –1 ½
Equation of line in Cartesian form is : 35. Let the merchant stock x desktop models and y
y -1 z -1 portable models.
x -1
= = 1 Therefore, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0
-4 4 -1
The cost of a desktop model is ` 25,000 and of a
Vector form of line is
portable model is ` 4,000. However, the merchant
r = (i + j + k ) + λ( −4i + 4 j − k ) 1 can invest a maximum of ` 70 lakhs.
25,000x + 40,000y ≤ 7,000,000
Let q be the angle between given lines.
5x + 8y ≤ 1,400
1( 2 ) + 2( 3) + 4( 4 )
cos q = The monthly demand of computers will not exceed
1 + 4 + 16 4 + 9 + 16 250 units.
24 x + y ≤ 250
= The profit on a desktop model is ` 4500 and the
21 29
profit on a portable model is ` 5000.
24 Total profit, Z = 4500x + 5000y
\ q = cos–1 1+½
609 Thus, the mathematical formulation of the given
problem is
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2020] (Modified) Maximum, Z = 4500x + 5000y (i)
10 Oswaal CBSE Question Bank Chapterwise & Topicwise, MATHEMATICS, Class-XII
Subject to constraints, 4
(iii) P( A ) = 1 −
5x + 8y ≤ 1400 (ii) 5
x + y ≤ 250 (iii) 1
= 1
x, y ≥ 0 (iv) 2 5
The feasible region determined by the system of
Probability that B, C will hit and A will lose
constraints is as follows :
= P( A ∩ B ∩ C )
= P( A ).P( B).P(C )
1 3 2
= × ×
5 4 3
1
= 1
10
OR
33
P B )) =
P(( B = 11 − −4
4
= 11 ,
= 44 ,
22
P((C
P C )) =
= 11 − −3
3
11
The corner points are A (250, 0), B (200, 50) and =
= 1
C (0, 175). 33
The values of Z at these corner points are as Probability that any two of A, B and C will hit
follows : P ( A )P ( B )P ( C ) P ( A )P ( B )P ( C )
Corner Z = 4500x P ( A )P ( B )P ( C )
point + 5000y 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 3 1
× × × × × ×
A (250, 0) 11,25,000 5 4 3 5 4 3 5 4 3
B (200, 50) 11,50,000 1 2 1
® Maximum
10 15 5
C (0, 175) 8,75,000 346
The maximum value of Z is 1,150,000 at 30
(200, 50). Thus, the merchant should stock 200 13
1
desktop models and 50 portable models to get the 30
maximum profit of ` 1,150,000. 3 37.(i) Given f(x) = 6(2x4 – x2)
Differentiating above with respect to (w.r.t.) x,
Section - E f '(x) = 6(8x3 – 2x)...(i)
For maxima and minima, f '(x) = 0
4 3 2 Now, f '(x) = 0
36. (i)=
P( A ) = , P( B ) , P( C ) =
5 4 3 6(8x3 – 2x) = 0
Probability that A, B and C all will hit the target 12x(4x2 – 1) = 0
= P( A ∩ B ∩ C ) 1
So, x = 0, ±
= P ( A )P ( B )P ( C ) 2
4 3 2 Again differentiating equation (i) w.r.t. x,
= × ×
5 4 3 f "(x) = 6(24x2 – 2)
2 1 2
= 1 [ f "( x )]
5 1 = 6 24 ± − 2
2
x=±
2
(ii) Probability that none of them will hit the target
1
P( A B C ) = 6 24 × − 2
4
P( A ).P( B ).P(C )
[ f "( x )] 1 = 24 > 0
1 1 1 x=±
2
5 4 3
1 1
1 Since, f "(x) has positive value at x = ± , so the
60 2
SOLUTIONS 11
1 π 1
function has minima at x = ± 38. (i) sin − sin −1 −
2 3 2
Again, [f "(x)]x=0 = 6[24(0)2 – 2]
= – 12 < 0 π 1
= sin + sin −1 [ sin–1(–q) = –sinq]
Since, f "(x) has negative value at x = 0, So the 3 2
function has maxima at x = 0.
(ii) With the reference of solution (i), the value of f "(x) π π
= sin + sin −1 sin 1
has negative value at x = 0, so the function has 3 6
maxima at x = 0
π π
Now, the maximum value = sin +
[f(x)]x=0 = 6[2 × (0)4 – (0)2] 3 6
Hence, the maximum value of the given function is 2π + π
0. = sin
6
(iii) f ( x ) = 6( 2 x 4 − x 2 ) 3π
= sin
6
f ′( x ) = 6 [8 x 3 − 2 x]
f ″( x ) = 6 [ 24 x 2 − 2] π
= sin = 1 1
2
f ″( 5) = 6 [ 24 × 25 − 2]
−1
= 6 [600 − 2] (ii) Let f(x) = sin x −1
= 3588
Þ 0 £x–1£1
OR Þ 1 £x£2
For increasing
\ x Î [1, 2]
ff ′′(( xx )) >
> 00
3
66 (( 88 xx −
3
− 22 xx )) > > 00 [∵ x − 1 ≥ 0 and − 1 ≤ x − 1 ≤ 1] 1
2
i.e.
i.e.,, xx(( 44 xx −
2
− 11)) > > 00 Since,
⇒
⇒ 44 xx 22 −− 11 >
> 00 Domain of sin–1 is [–1, 1]
and
and xx >
> 00
\ Domain of sin–1[x] is {x : –1 £ [x] £ 1}
44 xx 22>
> 11
22 11 −1 ∀ − 1 ≤ x < 0
⇒
⇒ xx > >
44 But [x] = 0 ∀ 0 ≤ x < 1
1 ∀ 1≤ x < 2
⇒ 11
⇒ xx >>
22
1 \ Domain of sin–1[x] is [–1, 2) 1
and
and xx > −1
> −
22
−11 11
−
∈ ,, 00 ∪
i.e., xx ∈ ∪ ,∞
i.e., 22 22 , ∞ 2
nnn