selfstudys_com_file (2)
selfstudys_com_file (2)
2 19.6
2 second dm
9.8 Sol. F v
dt
Distance = vt
10g cm gcm
9
5
2 = 5m 4.5 9 2 = 9 dyne
18 5s s s
1
5. If the radius of earth shrinks by 2% while its mass TL
Sol. 1
remains same. The acceleration due to gravity on TH
the earth’s surface will approximately :
1 T
(A) decrease by 2% (B) decrease by 4% 1 L
2 TH
(C) increase by 2% (D) increase by 4%
1 T 40
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 1 3 1 L
2 TH
GM 1 1 40
Sol. g
R2
1 3 TH 266.7 K
2 2 TH
1
M = constant g 8. Given below are two statements :
R2
Statement I :The average momentum of a
g R
100 2 100 molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on
g R
temperature.
% change = – 2 (–2)
Statement II : The rms speed of oxygen molecules
% change in g = 4%
in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and the
increase by 4%
oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms,
6. The force required to stretch a wire of cross-
the rms speed will become 2v.
section 1 cm2 to double its length will be :
(Given Yong’s modulus of the wire = 2 × 1011 N/m2) In the light of the above statements, choose the
(A) 1 × 107 N (B) 1.5 × 107 N correct answer from the options given below :
(C) 2 × 107 N (D) 2.5 × 107 N (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Sol. FA (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
2
4
2 10 10
11
Sol. [Pavg = 0] (due to random motion)
2 107 N
7. A Carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the 3RT
v rms
temperature of sink is reduced by 40°C, its M
efficiency increases by 30%. The temperature of Tnew = 2T
the source will be : M
Mnew =
(A) 166.7 K (B) 255.1 K 2
(C) 266.7 K (D) 367.7 K
2T
Official Ans. by NTA (C) v new M/2
v T
M
vnew = 2v
2
9.
In the wave equation 11. A wire of resistance R1 is drawn out so that its
2
y 0.5sin 400 t x m length is increased by twice of its original length.
the velocity of the wave will be : The ratio of new resistance to original resistance is:
2 2
Sol. y 0.5sin 400t
x
L1
Sol. R1
2
400 A1
3L1 L1
2 R2 9
K
A1 / 3 A1
R2
v [v = 400 m/s] 9
k R1
10. Two capacitors, each having capacitance 40 F 12. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be
are connected in series. The space between one of
increased by :
the capacitors is filled with dielectric material of
dielectric constant K such that the equivalence (A) decreasing the number of turns
capacitance of the system became 24 F . The
(B) increasing the magnetic field
value of K will be :
(C) decreasing the area of the coil
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5
(C) 1.2 (D) 3 (D) decreasing the torsional constant of the spring
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(C) (A) and (C) only (D) (B) and (D) only
C KC
KC
Ceq
C KC K 1 Official Ans. by NTA (D)
K40
24
K 1
K 1 5 K
Sol. i
NAB
d NAB
di K
3
13. As shown in the figure, a metallic rod of linear Sol. v0 i 0 x L
–1
density 0.45 kg m is lying horizontally on a
i 0 wL
smooth incline plane which makes an angle of 45°
with the horizontal. The minimum current flowing
5 49 30 103
in the rod required to keep it stationary, when
23.1
0.15 T magnetic field is acting on it in the vertical
upward direction, will be : Voltage will lead current by 90°.
Sol.
(A) 1.0 × 108 ms–1 (B) 0.5 × 108 ms–1
(C) 1.5 × 108 ms–1 (D) 3.0 × 108 ms–1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
2 C
Sol.
air v 2
mg sin 45 ILBcos 45
m g r2 r2 C
I
L B 1 v2
0.4510 C
0.15
30 A 1 9
v2
14. The equation of current in a purely inductive
C
circuit is 5sin 49 t 30 . If the inductance is v2
3
30 mH then the equation for the voltage across the 16. In normal adjustment, for a refracting telescope,
inductor, will be : the distance between objective and eye piece is
22 30 cm. The focal length of the objective, when the
Let
7
angular magnification of the telescope is 2, will be:
(A) 1.47sin(49 t 30) (B) 1.47sin(49 t 60)
(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm
(C) 23.1sin(49 t 30) (D) 23.1sin(49 t 60)
(C) 10 cm (D) 15 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Official Ans. by NTA (A)
4
Sol.
f0 fe 30 Sol. 7/8 disintegrates means 1/8 remains
f0
m
3
1
fe Or
2
f0
2 f 0 2f e
fe 3 half lives
f0 = 180 days
So f0 30
2
19. Identify the solar cell characteristics from the
f0 20cm
following options :
1.227
17. The equation nm can be used to find the
x
de-Brogli wavelength of an electron. In this
equation x stands for : (A) (B)
Where,
m = mass of electron
P = momentum of electron
K = Kinetic energy of electron (C) (D)
V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron
(A) mK (B) P
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) K (D) V
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
5
SECTION-B 4. The frequencies at which the current amplitude in
1
1. If the projection of 2iˆ 4ˆj 2kˆ on ˆi 2ˆj kˆ is an LCR series circuit becomes times its
2
zero. Then, the value of will be
maximum value, are 212 rad s–1 and 232 rad s–1.
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
The value of resistance in the circuit is R 5 .
The self inductance in the circuit is ________ mH.
Sol. ab 0
Official Ans. by NTA (250)
ab 0
2 1 4 2 2 0
5
R
2. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life Sol. Band width 232 212
L
2 hours 30 minutes emits radiation which is
64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum 5
L 250 mH
time, after which it would be possible to work 20
safely with source, will be ________ hours.
5. As shown in the figure, a potentiometer wire of
Official Ans. by NTA (15)
resistance 20 and length 300 cm is connected
with resistance box (R.B.) and a standard cell of
Sol. A A0 2 t /T
emf 4 V. For a resistance ‘R’ of resistance box
A0
A0 2 t/T introduced into the circuit, the null point for a cell
64
of 20 mV is found to be 60 cm. The value of ‘R’ is
t 6T 6 2 5 15 hours __________ .
3. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a laser light
of 560 nm produces an interference pattern with
consecutive bright fringes’ separation of 7.2 mm.
Now another light is used to produce an
interference pattern with consecutive bright
fringes’ separation of 8.1 mm. The wavelength of
Official Ans. by NTA (780)
second light is _________ nm.
Official Ans. by NTA (630)
Sol. AC
Sol. E VA VB
AB
9
2 1
8
60 4 20
9 9 20 103
2 1 560 630 nm . 300 R 20
8 8
R 780
6
6.
Two electric dipoles of dipole moments 8. The diameter of an air bubble which was initially
1.2 × 10–30 cm and 2.4 × 10–30 cm are placed in two 2 mm, rises steadily through a solution of density
difference uniform electric fields of strengths
1750 kg m–3 at the rate of 0.35 cms–1. The
5 × 104 NC–1 and 15 × 104 NC–1 respectively. The
ratio of maximum torque experienced by the coefficient of viscosity of the solution is _______
1 poise (in nearest integer). (the density of air is
electric dipoles will be . The value of x is
x negligible).
_______.
Official Ans. by NTA (11)
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Hence x = 6
7. The frequency of echo will be _________ Hz if the
train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz is
moving with a velocity of 36 km/h towards a hill
from which an echo is heard by the train driver.
(Because of density of air the value of mg can be
Velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. neglected)
Official Ans. by NTA (340) 4 3
So B F R g 6Rv
3
Putting R 1mm 103 m
Sol. The hill will be a secondary source.
1 75 103 kg / m3
g 10 m / s 2
v 0.35 102 m / s
10
111 SI unit 11poise CGS
9
9. A block of mass ‘m’ (as shown in figure) moving
with kinetic energy E compresses a spring through
f1 = frequency of the car w.r.t. the hill
a distance 25 cm when, its speed is halved. The
v 330 value of spring constant of used spring will be
f1 f 320 330 Hz
v vs 320 nE Nm–1 for n = ___________.
v v0
f2 f1
330 10 330 340 Hz
v 330
Official Ans. by NTA (24)
7
Sol. Using work – energy theorem So I I1 I2 I3 I4
Wnet K f K i
MR 2 5
MR 2
1 1 v 1 E
2 2 2
Kx 2 m mv2 E
2 2 2 2 4 a
= 3MR2, Putting R
2
1 3E 3E
Kx 2 K 2
2 4 2x 3Ma 2
I ,So x 3
3E 4
K 2
24E
1
2
4
n = 24
10. Four identical discs each of mass ‘M’ and diameter
‘a’ are arranged in a small plane as shown in
figure. If the moment of inertia of the system about
x
OO' is Ma 2 . Then, the value of x will be
4
_____.
MR 2
Sol. I1 I3
4
MR 2 5
I2 MR 2 MR 2 I4
4 4
4 2
8
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
(D) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) Inversion of sugar cane
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 2SO 2 (g) O 2 (g)
NO(g)
2SO3 (g)
(d)
1
5. In which of the following pairs, electron gain 8. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
enthalpies of constituent elements are nearly the (A) Low solubility of LiF in water is due to its
same or identical ? small hydration enthalpy.
6. Which of the reaction is suitable for concentrating (C) Al NaOH H2O (III) O2
ore by leaching process ? (D)
NaNO3 (IV) Cl2
(A) 2Cu2S 3O2 2Cu 2O 2SO2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
(B) Fe3O4 CO 3FeO CO2 below :
(A) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(C) Al2 O3 2NaOH 3H2 O 2Na[Al(OH)4 ]
(B) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(D) Al2 O3 6Mg 6MgO 4Al (C) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
2
11.
Given below are two statements : Sol.
Statement I : In polluted water values of both
: Non-planar heterocyclic Compound
dissolved oxygen and BOD are very low.
O
Statement II : Eutrophication results in decrease
: Bicyclo Compound
in the amount of dissolved oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the : Spiro Compound
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : : Aromatic Compound
O
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 13. Choose the correct option for the following
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false reactions.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
CH3
Choose the correct answer from the options given CH3–C–CH2CH2
below :
CH3 OH
(A) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(B)
(B) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(Anti Markovnikov product)
(C) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(D) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
3
14. Among the following marked proton of which 15. Identify the major product A and B for the below
(A)
(B)
(C) (A)
(D)
Sol.
(A)
H O
CH2–C–OH CH2–C–OH(+R)
Less stable (C)
O
(Cross resonance)
(B)
H
CH2–C–CH3 CH2–C–CH3 (+I effect)
O O
(D)
(C) H
CH3 CH–C–CH3(+I)
O O
(most Resonance through benzene ring
acidic) (most stable) Official Ans. by NTA (B)
4
Sol.
17. Terylene polymer is obtained by condensation of :
CH3 (A) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 3 dicarboxylic
OH acid
Cl
CH–CH3 (B) Propane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 4
CH3–CH–CH3 O2
, AlCl3 H+ dicarboxylic acid
(P) (C) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 4 dicarboxylic
acid
OH OH (D) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 2 dicarboxylic
Br2 acid
(B) Official Ans. by NTA (C)
CS2
Br Sol.
CO2H
OH O
transformation. 18. For the below given cyclic hemiacetal (X), the
correct pyranose structure is :
Sol.
EtO–
CH3CH2CH2CH–CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
EtOH (D)
(major) (A)
NMe3 +
+
CH3CH2CH=CH–CH3
(minor)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
5
Sol. Correct pyranose structure is SECTION-B
X Y 3Z XYZ3
HO—C—H The corresponding
O
aldopyranose is if one mole of each of X and Y with 0.05 mol of Z
H—C—OH
OH gives compound XYZ3. (Given : Atomic masses of
HO—C—H HO O OH X, Y and Z are 10, 20 and 30 amu, respectively).
HO The yield of XYZ3 is __________ g.
H—C
(Nearest integer)
CH2OH OH Official Ans. by NTA (2)
X(Hemiacetal)
19. Statements about Enzyme Inhibitor Drugs are
given below : Sol. X Y 3Z XYZ3
1mol 1mol 0.05mol
(A) There are Competitive and Non-competitive
inhibitor drugs. Z is L.R.
(B) These can bind at the active sites and allosteric 0.05
sites. 1 mole of XYZ3
(C) Competitive Drugs are allosteric site blocking 3
drugs.
0.05
(D) Non-competitive Drugs are active site blocking Mass of XYZ3 10 20 30 3
drugs. 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given
= 2g
below :
(A) (A), (D) only (B) (A), (C) only 2. An element M crystallises in a body centred cubic
(C) (A), (B) only (D) (A), (B), (C) only
Official Ans. by NTA (C) unit cell with a cell edge of 300 pm. The density of
the element is 6.0 g cm–3. The number of atoms
Sol. Enzyme inhibitors can be competitive inhibitors
(inhibit the attachment of substrate on active site of present in 180 g of the element is ______ × 1023.
enzyme) and non-competitive inhibitor (changes (Nearest integer)
the active site of enzyme after binding at allosteric
site.) Official Ans. by NTA (22)
20. For kinetic study of the reaction of iodide ion with
H2O2 at room temperature :
(A) Always use freshly prepared starch solution. Sol. M is body certred cubic , Z = 2
(B) Always keep the concentration of sodium
thiosulphate solution less than that of KI solution. Let mass of 1 atom of M is A
(C) Record the time immediately after the Edge length = 300 pm
appearance of blue colour.
Density = 6g/cm3
(D) Record the time immediately before the
appearance of blue colour. Z A 2 A
(E) Always keep the concentration of sodium 6g/cm3 =
300 10 27 1024
3
10
thiosulphate solution more than that of KI solution.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : A 811024 g
(A) (A), (B), (C) only
Atomic mass = 48.6g
(B) (A), (D), (E) only
(C) (D), (E) only 180
(D) (A), (B), (E) only Mole in 180g 3.7 moles
48.6
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Atoms of M = 3.7 × 6 × 1023
Sol. The is recorded immediately after the blue colour = 22.22 × 1023 atoms
appears.
Na2S2O3 is kept in limited amount.
6
3.
The number of paramagnetic species among the 6. For the given first order reaction
following is ___________. AB
B2, Li2, C2, C2 , O22 , O2 and He2 the half life of the reaction is 0.3010 min. The ratio
A0
log 2
Tf k f molality At
0.058 A0
3.9 1000 102 100
150 At
5. Ka for butyric acid (C3H7COOH) is 2 × 10–5. The ClF3, IF7, BrF5, BrF3, I2Cl6, IF5, ClF, ClF5
pH of 0.2 M solution of butyric acid is ___ × 10–1. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(Nearest integer) [Given log 2 = 0.30]
Official Ans. by NTA (27) Sol. Square pyramidal structures are
BrF5, IF5 and ClF5.
7
Sol. MnO24
H
MnO4 MnO2 10. On complete combustion of 0.492 g of an organic
compound containing C, H and O, 0.7938 g of CO2
No. of unpaired e 3
and 0.4428 g of H2O was produced. The %
15 3.877 composition of oxygen in the compound is _____.
Nearest Integer = 4 Official Ans. by NTA (46)
9. Total number of relatively more stable isomer(s)
possible for octahedral complex [Cu(en)2(SCN)2]
Sol. 0.492g of CxHyOz
will be ___________.
Gives 0.7938 g CO2 = 0.018 moles
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 0.4428g H2O = 0.0246 moles
So moles of C = 0.018 0.216 g
Sol. [Cu(en)2(SCN)2] Moles of H = 0.049 0.049g
wt. of Oxygen = 0.492 – 0.216 – 0.049
= 0.227g
0.227
% of Oxygen = 100 46 (approx.)
0.492
8
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
xdy = ( )
x 2 + y 2 + y dx, x > 0, intersect the line æ x 2 - 4x + 2 ö
function f(x) = cos-1 ç ÷ is :
è x +3 ø
2
x = 2, y = a (B) equal to N
(C) equal to R – {0}
2 + 4 +a 2 = 4
(D) equal to R
4 + a 2 = 16 + a 2 = 8a
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
3
a=
2
1
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. By its given condition 5. Let the operations *, e Î {Ù, Ú}. If
r r r
: a, b, c are linearly independent vectors (p * q) e (pe ~ q) is a tautology, then the ordered
C2 ® C1 + C2 ( pvq ) Ù ( pv ~ q )
1+ t 2 1 º pv ( q Ù ~ q )
1- t 2 2 º pv ( c ) º p
t 0 1 For B : * = v, O = v
1+ t 1 1 ( pvq ) Ú ( pv ~ q ) º t using Venn Diagrams
= 2 1- t 1 2
t 0 1
= 2 éë(1 + t ) - (1 - t ) + t ùû
= 2 [3t ] = 6t
r r
éë a b c ùû ¹ 0 Þ t ¹ 0 6. Let a vector a has a magnitude 9. Let a vector b
be such that for every (x,y) Î R ´ R - {(0,0)}, the
4. Considering the principal values of the
r r
inverse trigonometric functions, the sum of vector (xa + yb) is perpendicular to the vector
all the solutions of the equation r r r r
(6y a - 18x b). Then the value of a ´ b is equal to:
cos -1 (x) - 2 sin -1 (x)
= cos -1 (2x) is equal to :
(A) 9 3 (B) 27 3 (C) 9 (D) 81
1 1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D) - Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
r r r r r
-1 -1 -1
Sol. (
a = 9 & xa + yb × 6y a - 18x b = 0)( )
Sol. cos x = 2 sin x = cos 2x
Þ 6xy a - 18x 2 ( a × b ) + 6y 2 ( a × b ) - 18xy b = 0
2 2
æp ö
cos-1 x - 2 ç - cos -1 x ÷ = cos -1 2x
è2 ø r2
( 2
)
Þ 6xy a - 3 b + a × b y 2 - 3x 2 = 0 ( )( )
cos x - p + 2 cos x = cos 2x
-1 -1 -1
This should hold " x, y Î R ´ R
3cos 2 x = p + cos -1 2x …(1)
\ a = 3 b & (a × b) = 0
2 2
( )
cos 3cos x = cos p + cos 2x
-1
( -1
)
a b -(a ×b)
2 2 2
Now a ´ b =
2
4x 3 - 3x = -2x
1 2
4x 3 = x Þ x = 0, ± 2 a
2 =a ×
3
All satisfy the original equation
2
1 1 a 81
sum = - to + = 0 \ a´b = = = 27 3
2 2 3 3
2
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
7. For t Î (0, 2p), if ABC is an equilateral triangle R to be symmetric xRy Þ yRx
with vertices A(sint, –cost), B(cost, sint) and 3x + a y = 7N1 ,3y + a x = 7N 2
C(a, b) such that its orthocentre lies on a circle
Þ ( 3 + a )( x + y ) = 7 ( N1 + N 2 ) = 7N 3
æ 1ö
with centre ç 1, ÷ , then (a2 – b2) is equal to :
è 3ø Which holds when 3 + a is multiple of 7
Þ 3 + a = 7l Þ a = 7l - 3 = 7N + 4, K, l , N Î I 40 2
Probability that chosen candidate is female = =
\ when a divided by 7, remainder is 4. 60 3
3
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
10.
æ pö
If y = y(x), x Î ç 0, ÷ be the solution curve of the
Sol. y 2 = 2x - 3 …(i)
è 2ø
Equation of chord of contact
differential equation
PQ : r = 0
( sin 2
2x ) dy
dx
+ ( 8sin 2
2x + 2sin 4x y = )
yx1 = (x + 0) – 3
æpö
2e-4x ( 2 sin 2x + cos2x ) , with y ç ÷ = e -p , y=x–3 …(2)
è4ø
æ pö
then y ç ÷ is equal to :
è6ø
2 -2 p / 3 2 2 p /3
(A) e (B) e
3 3
1 -2 p / 3 1 2 p /3
(C) e (D) e
3 3 from (1) and (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
( x × 3) = 2x - 3
2
=×
e 4x sin 2x + C
æ p ö -p
Given y ç ÷= e Þ C= 0
è4ø
1
e -4x MPQ = =1
\ y= 4
sin 2x
p 2 1
-4 ×
æp ö e 6 2 -
2p MQR = =
\ yç ÷ = = e 3 6 3
è6ø æ pö 3
sin ç 2 × ÷
è 6ø MPR =
2 1
=
11. If the tangents drawn at the points P and Q on the
6 3
4
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
12. Let C be the centre of the circle x2 + y2 – x + 2y = 13. The remainder when 72022 + 32022 is divided by 5 is:
11 (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
and P be a point on the circle. A line passes
4 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
p
through the point C, makes an angle of with the
4
Sol. 7 2022 + 32022
line CP and intersects the circle at the points Q and
= ( 49 ) + (9)
1011 1011
R. Then the area of the triangle PQR (in unit2) is :
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 = ( 50 - 1)
1011
+ (10 - 1)
1011
æ pö æ pö
(C) 8sin ç ÷ (D) 8cos ç ÷ = 5l - 1 + 5K - 1
è8ø è8ø
= 5m - 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Remainder = 5 - 2 = 3
11 é0 1 0 ù
Sol. x 2 + y 2 - x + 2y = 14. Let the matrix A = êê 0 0 1 úú and the matrix
4
êë 1 0 0 úû
2
æ 1ö
ç x - ÷ + ( y + 1) = ( 2 )
2 2
é 0 1 0 ù é 0 1 0ù
Sol. A = êê 0 0 1 úú êê 0 0 1 úú
2
é0 0 1ù
= êê1 0 0úú
êë 0 1 0úû
a « R2
p
= 4 × 6sin
8 é1 0 0ù
1 - êê 0 0 1 úú
PQ = QR cos 22
2 êë 0 1 0 úû
p
=
4cos R2 « R3
8
1 é1 0 0ù
As D PQR= PR ´ PQ ê0 1 0ú = I
2 ê ú
êë 0 0 1 úû
1æ p öæ pö
=ç 4 2 sin ÷ç 4 cos ÷
2è 6 øè 8ø B0 = A 49 + 2A 98
p 4 =+
A 2I
=
4sin = = 2 2
Adj ( Bn - 1)
4 2 Bn =
5
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
B4 = Adj(Adj( Adj( AdjB0 )) 1
Also z1 - 3= lie on circle having centre 3 and
2
( n -1)4
= B0 1
radius .
16 2
= B0
é0 1 0ù é 2 0 0 ù
B0 = êê0 0 1 úú + êê 0 2 0 úú
êë1 0 0úû êë 0 0 2úû
é 2 1 0ù
= êê 0 2 1 úú
êë 1 0 2 úû
= 2 ( 4 - 0 ) - 1( 0 - 1) 5 3
Clearly z1 - z 2 min = -1 =
=9 2 2
16. The foot of the perpendicular from a point on the
B4 ( 9 ) = ( 3)
16 32
circle x2 + y2 = 1, z = 0 to the plane 2x + 3y + z = 6
lies on which one of the following curves ?
ì 1ü (A) (6x + 5y – 12)2 + 4(3x + 7y – 8)2 = 1,
15. Let S1 = íz1 Î C : z1 - 3 = ý and
î 2þ z = 6 – 2x – 3y
(B) (5x + 6y – 12)2 + 4(3x + 5y – 9)2 = 1,
=
S 2 {z 2 Î C : z 2 - z 2 +=
1 z2 + z2 -1 . } Then, z = 6 – 2x – 3y
(C) (6x + 5y – 14)2 + 9(3x + 5y – 7)2 = 1,
for z1 Î S1 and z 2 Î S2 , the least value of z 2 - z1 z = 6 – 2x – 3y
is : (D) (5x + 6y – 14)2 + 9(3x + 7y – 8)2 = 1,
z = 6 – 2x – 3y
1 3 5 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol.
y
2 2
(h, k, w)
Sol. z2 + z2 - 1 = z 2 - z2 + 1 x
(cos q,sin q,0)
Þ z 2 + z2 - 1 ( z2 + z 2 - 1 ) = ( z 2 - z 2 + 1 ) ( z2 - ( z 2 + 1) )
h - cos q k - sin q w - 0
= =
Þ z 2 z2 + 122 - 1 - ( z2 - z 2 + 1 ) + z2 ( z 2 - 1 + z 2 + 1 ) 2 3 1
-1(2 cos q + 3sin q - 6)
=
=z 2 + 1 =z 2 - 1
2 2
14
-2(2 cos q + 3sin q - 6)
Þ [ z 2 + z2 ) ( z 2 - 1 ) + ( z 2 + 1|) = 2 ( z 2 + z2 ) h = cos
14
10 cos q - 6sin q + 12
Þ ( z 2 + z2 ) ( z 2 - 1 + z 2 + 1 - 2 ) = 0 =
14
3
\ z2 + z2 = 0 or z 2 - 1 + z 2 + 1 - 2 = 0 k = sin q - (2 cos q + 3sin q - 6)
14
\ z2 lie on imaginary axis. Or on real axis with in [–1,1] 5sin q - 6 cos q + 18
k=
14
Elementary sin q and cos q
(5h + 6k - 12)2 + 4(3h + 5k - 9) 2 = 1
6
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
5x 2 a 19. Consider the sequence a1, a2, a3, …… such that
17. If the minimum value of f(x) = + 5 , x > 0, is
2 x
2
14, then the value of a is equal to : a1 = 1, a2 = 2 and a n + 2 = + a n for n = 1, 2, 3, … .
a n +1
(A) 32 (B) 64
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
(C) 128 (D) 256 ç a1 + a ÷ ç a2 + a ÷ ç a3 + a ÷ ç a 30 + a ÷
If ç 2 ÷ ×ç 3 ÷×ç 4 ÷ ..... ç 31 ÷ = 2a ( 61
)
C31 ,
ç a3 ÷ ç a4 ÷ ç a5 ÷ ç a 32 ÷
Official Ans. by NTA (C) ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
è ø è ø è ø è ø
then a is equal to :
x2 x2 x 2 x2 x2 a a
Sol. + + + + + 5+ 5
2 2 2 2 2 2x 2x (A) –30 (B) –31
1 (C) –60 (D) –61
æ a2 ö 7
³ 7ç 7 ÷
è2 ø Official Ans. by NTA (C)
7 × (a )2 / 7
= 14
2 Sol. an+2 an+1 – an+1.an = 2
(a 2 )1/ 7 = 2 2 Series will satisfy
( )
7/2
a = 22 = 27 a1a 2 , a 2 a 3 , a 3 a 4 , a 4 a 5 ,
Þ0
a = -60
7
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
20. The minimum value of the twice differentiable Sol. Required no. = Total – no character from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
x
= (106 – 56) + (107 – 57) + (108 – 58)
function f(x) = ò e x - t f '(t)dt - (x 2 - x + 1)e x , x Î R,
0 = 106 (1 + 10 + 100) – 56 (1 + 5 + 25)
is : = 106 × 111 – 56 × 31
2 = 26 × 56 × 111 – 56 × 31
(A) - (B) -2 e
e = 56 (26 × 111 – 31)
2
(C) - e (D) = 56 ´ 7073
{
e a
x
f '(t) æ 56 43 111 ö
Sol. f(x) = e x × ò dt 2. Let P(–2, –1, 1) and Q ç , , ÷ be the
et è 17 17 17 ø
0
8
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
3. Let f :[0, 1] ® R be a twice differentiable function
in (0, 1) such that f(0) = 3 and f(1) = 5. If the line
é1
30 ê
ë5
( 5
3 - 2
5
) - 23 ( 3 3 ù
3 - 2 ú
û
)
y = 2x + 3 intersects the graph of f at only two
distinct points in (0, 1), then the least number of
é1
ë5
( 2
) (
ù
30 ê 9 3 - 4 2 - 3 3 - 2 2 ú
3 û
)
points x Î (0, 1), at which f "(x) = 0, is ______.
é 1 8 ù
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 30 ê - ´ 3 + 2ú
ë 5 15 û
-6 3 + 16 2 = a 2 + b 3
y=2x+3
Sol. y a = 16, b = -6
x=b \ a + b = 10
é1 -1ù éb 1 ù
5. Let A= ê ú and B = ê ú , a, b Î R. Let
ë2 a û ë1 0 û
a1 be the value of a which satisfies
x é2 2 ù
O (A + B)2 = A 2 + ê ú and a 2 be the value of a
ë2 2 û
which satisfies (A + B) 2 = B2 . Then a1 - a 2 is
equal to _______.
f ¢ (a) = f ¢ (b) = f ¢ (c) = 2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Þ f ² (x) is zero
for atleast x1 Î (a, b) & x2 Î (b, c)
éb + 1 0 ù
3
15x 3 A+B=ê
a úû
Sol.
4. If ò dx= a 2 + b 3 , where ë 3
0
1+ x +2
(1 + x )
2 3
é b + 1 0 ù éb + 1 0 ù
(A + B)2 = ê
a, b are integers, then a + b is equal to ë 3 a úû êë 3 a úû
Official Ans. by NTA (10) é (b + 1) 2 0ù
=
ê 2ú
ë3(b + 1) + 3a a û
Sol. Put 1 + x2 = t2
é1 -1ù é1 -1ù
2x dx = 2t dt A2 = ê úê ú
X dx = t dt ë2 a û ë2 a û
2
15(t 2 - 1)t dt é -1 -1 - a ù
\ò =
ê 2 + 2a a 2 - 2 ú
1 t 2 + t3 ë û
2
t(t 2 - 1) é 1 -a + 1ù é (b + 1) 2 0ù
15ò dt \ê ú =ê ú
t 1+ t
1 ë2 a + 4 a û ë3(a + b + 1) a 2 û
2
Put 1 + t = u2
a = 1 = a1
dt = 2u du
3
(u 2 - 1) 2 - 1 éb 1 ù éb 1 ù
15 ò ´ 2u du B2 = ê úê ú
u ë1 0 û ë1 0 û
2
3 éb2 + 1 b ù é (b + 1)2 0ù
30 ò (u - 2u ) du4 2 =ê ú=ê ú
ë b 1 û ë3(b + 1) + 3a a 2 û
2
3 \ b = 0, a = -1 = a 2
æ u 5 2u 3 ö
30 ç - ÷ a1 - a2 = 1 - (-1) = 2
è 5 3 ø 2
9
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
6. For p,q Î R, consider the real valued function 7. For the hyperbola H : x2 – y2 = 1 and the ellipse
f(x) = (x - p)2 - q, x Î R and q > 0. Let a1, a2, a3 x2 y2
E: + = 1, a > b > 0, let the
and a4 be in an arithmetic progression with mean p a 2 b2
and positive common difference. If f ( a i ) = 500 (1) eccentricity of E be reciprocal of the
for all i = 1, 2, 3, 4, then the absolute difference eccentricity of H, and
between the roots of f(x) = 0 is
Official Ans. by NTA (50) 5
(2) the line y = x + K be a common tangent of
2
Sol. f(x) = 0 Þ (x - p)2 – q = 0. E and H.
Then 4(a2 + b2) is equal to _______.
Roots are p + q , p - q absolute difference
between roots 2 q . Official Ans. by NTA (3)
50
and 2 q = 2 ´ = 50
2
10
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
20 éæ ( x + 2cos x )3 + 2( x + 2cos x )2 + 3sin ( x + 2cos x ) ö ù 100
æ æ 1 öö lim êç ÷ -1ú´
3 ç1 - ç ÷ ÷ x ®0 êç ( x + 2)3 + 2( x + 2 )2 + 3sin ( x + 2) ÷ ú x
è2ø æ 1 ö =e ëè ø û
Sol. å x10 = è -1 ø = 6 ç1 - 20 ÷
è 2 ø
1
2
é
lim ê
æ 3 2
(
ê 100 ç ( x + 2 cos x ) + 2( x + 2 cos x ) + 3sin ( x + 2 cos x ) - ( x + 2 ) + 2 ( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2 )
3 2
) ÷úöù
ç ÷ú
20 x ®0 x
ê ç ( x + 2)3 + 2( x + 2) 2 + 3sin ( x + 2 ) ÷ú
= å ( x i-i ) =e è øû
2 ë
i =1
20
= å ( x i ) + ( i ) - 2x i i
2 2
20
1
100
æ 12 - 3 ( 4 ) + 8 ´ 1 - 8 + 3cos2 - 3cos 2 ö
å
i =1
i 2 = ´ 20 ´ 21 ´ 41 = 2870
6
= e16+3sin 2 ç
è 1
÷
ø
20
1 1 1 Using L’H rule.
åx
i =1
i i = s = 3 + 2.3 + 3.3 2 + 4.3 3 + .......AGP
2 2 2
= eo = 1
æ 22 ö The sum of all real values of x for which
= 6 ç 2 - 20 ÷ 10.
è 2 ø
3x 2 - 9x + 17 5x 2 - 7x + 19
= is equal to ___.
12 æ 22 ö x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
12 - + 2870 - 12 ç 2 - 20 ÷
è 2 ø
40
2
x= Official Ans. by NTA (6)
20
2858 æ -12 22 ö 1
x= +ç + ÷´ 3x 2 - 9x + 17 5x 2 - 7x + 19
20 è 240 220 ø 20 Sol. =
x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
é x ù = 142 x 2 + 3x + 10 + 2x 2 - 12x + 7 3x 2 + 5x + 12 + 2x 2 - 12x + 7
ë û =
x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
100
æ ( x + 2cos x )3 + 2 ( x + 2cos x )2 + 3sin ( x + 2cosx ) ö x
2x 2 - 12x + 7 2x 2 - 12x + 7
9. lim ç ÷ 1+ = 1 +
x ®0 ç
( x + 2 ) + 2 ( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2 ) ÷ x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
3 2
è ø
is equal to ___________. æ ö
( 2x 2
- 12x + 7 ) ç 2
+
1
+
- 2
+
1
+
è x 3x 10 3x 5x 12 ø
÷=0
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2x 2 - 12x + 7 = 0 OR 3x 2 + 5x + 12 = x 2 + 3x + 10
Sol.
12 ± D
x= 2x 2 + 2x + 2 =0
x 4
æ ( x + 2cos x )3 + 2 ( x + 2 cos x )2 + 3sin ( x + 2cos x ) ö
lim ç ÷ x2 + x + 1 =0
x ®10 ç ÷
( x + 2 ) + 2 ( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2 )
3 2
è ø
Sum of Roots = 6 No solution.
¥
Form 1
11