Revision Assignment-01 To 11 (Set-03)
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GarvREVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY MOLE CONCEPT RA-01
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. In a textile mill, a double-effect evaporator system concentrates weak liquor containing 4% (by mass)
caustic soda to produce a lye containing 25% solids (by mass). What is the weight of water evaporated
per 100 gm feed in the evaporator?
(A) 125.0 gm (B) 50.0 gm (C) 84.0 gm (D) 16.0 gm
2. At 373K and 1atm, if the density of liquid water is 1.0 gm/ml and that of water vapour is
0.0006 gm/ml, then the volume occupied by water molecules in 1 litre of steam at that temperature is
(A) 6 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 0.6 ml (D) 0.06 ml
3. A sample of clay contains 50% silica and 10% water. The sample is partially dried by which it loses
8 gm water. If the percentage of silica in the partially dried clay is 52, what is the percentage of water in
the partially dried clay?
(A) 2.0 % (B) 6.4 % (C) 10.4 % (D) 2.4 %
29
4. The average density of the universe, as a whole, is estimated as 3.0 × 10 gm/ml. If we assume that the
entire mass is only hydrogen atoms, what is the average volume of space that contains one hydrogen
atom? (NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) 111.11 litre (B) 1.8 × 10-5 litre (C) 55.56 litre (D) 3.6 × 10-5 litre
5. Two isotopes of an element Q are Q97 (23.4% abundance) and Q94 (76.6 % abundance). Q97 is
8.082 times heavier than C12 and Q94 is 7.833 times heavier than C12. What is the average atomic weight
of the element Q?
(A) 94.702 (B) 78.913 (C) 96.298 (D) 94.695
o
6. Number of gas molecules present in 1 ml of gas at 0 C and 1 atm is called Loschmidt number. Its value
is about
(A) 2.69 × 1019 (B) 6.022 × 1023 (C) 2.69 × 1022 (D) 1.35 × 1028
7. 1 mole of N2 and 4 moles of H2 are allowed to react in a vessel and after reaction, water is added.
Aqueous solution required 1 mole of HCl for complete reaction. Mol fraction of H2 in the gas mixture
after reaction is
(A) 1/6 (B) 5/6 (C) 1/3 (D) 2/3
8. Pure FeS2 is burnt with 60% excess air. What is the percentage of N2, by volume, in the gaseous mixture
after the reaction? Air contains 20% O2 and 80% N2, by volume.
(A) 81.94 (B) 82.8 (C) 8.2 (D) 89.3
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Avogadro’s number?
(A) It is the number of atoms contained in one mole of atoms of any element.
(B) It is the number of electrons required to deposit one mole of atoms of any metallic element from a
solution of the metal salt.
(C) It is the number of grams of any element which contains 6.022 1023 atoms of that element.
(D) It is the number of particles (atoms, molecules or ions) required to make one gram of the substance
under consideration.
E-1/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
10. When hydrocarbons (alkanes, alkenes or alkynes) are burnt completely in excess of oxygen, then
(A) for the same number of carbon atoms, more oxygen is consumed for alkanes.
(B) for the same number of hydrogen atoms, more oxygen is consumed for alkynes.
(C) for the same number of carbon atoms, more water is formed from alkynes.
(D) for the same number of hydrogen atoms, more CO2 is formed from alkynes.
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION – I
A sample of hydrogen fluoride gas (only HF molecules) is collected in a vessel and left for some
time. Then, a constant molar mass of the sample is experimentally determined as 34 gm/mole.
Assume that this abnormal molar mass is due to dimerisation as well as trimerisation of some HF
molecules (no molecules in any other polymeric forms) and the mole ratio of monomeric and
trimeric form of hydrogen fluoride molecules present is 4 : 1.
11. What percentage of hydrogen fluoride molecules is dimerised?
(A) 50 (B) 58.8 (C) 76.47 (D) 17.65
12. What percentage of hydrogen fluoride molecules is trimerised?
(A) 40 (B) 58.8 (C) 76.47 (D) 17.65
13. What percent of total molecules present in the final sample are H2F2 molecules?
(A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 58.8
COMPREHENSION – II
A fuel mixture used in the early days of rocketry is composed of two liquids, hydrazine (N2H4) and
dinitrogen tetraoxide (N2O4), which ignite on contact to form nitrogen gas and water vapour. The
yield of N2 gas is found to be less than its expected yield because some nitric oxide (NO) is also
formed by a parallel reaction between the reactants. In an experiment 96 gm N2H4 and 184 gm
N2O4 are taken. It is found that 72 gm NO is formed.
14. The limiting reagent is
(A) N2H4
(B) N2O4
(C) both the reactants will be used up completely
(D) can not predict, because the reactants are giving more than one reaction
15. What is the highest percentage yield of N2 that can be expected? The theoretical yield is the quantity of
N2 formed in the absence of parallel reaction.
(A) 96.67% (B) 90% (C) 80% (D) 100%
16. What is the total mass of water vapour formed?
(A) 262 gm (B) 100.8 gm (C) 108 gm (D) 72 gm
E-2/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
COMPREHENSION – III
When the Bayer’s process is used for recovering aluminium from siliceous ores, some aluminium
is always lost because of the formation of an unworkable mud having the following average
formula: 3Na2O.3Al2O3.5SiO2.5H2O. Since aluminium and sodium ions are always in excess in the
solution from which this precipitate is formed, the precipitation of the silicon in the mud is
complete. A certain ore contains 13% (by weight) Kaolin, Al 2O3.2SiO2.2H2O and 87% gibbsite,
Al2O3.3H2O. (Al = 27, Si = 28)
17. What percent of the total aluminium in this ore is recoverable in the Bayer’s process?
(A) 80 (B) 90 (C) 85 (D) 75
18. What is the percentage of silica present in the ore, by weight?
(A) 2.82 (B) 3.02 (C) 0.465 (D) 6.05
19. How many mole of Al2O3 are present per mole of ore?
(A) 1.000 (B) 0.083 (C) 0.222 (D) 0.242
COMPREHENSION – IV
1.5 gm of brass containing Cu and Zn reacts with 3M-HNO3 solution, the following reactions
(unbalanced) take place:
Cu(s) + H+(aq.) + NO3(aq.) Cu2+(aq.) + NO2(g) + H2O(l)
Zn(s) + H+(aq.) + NO3(aq.) NH4+(aq.) + Zn2+(aq.) + H2O(l)
The liberated NO2(g) was found to be 984 ml at 27ºC and 1atm.
(R = 0.082 L-atm/K-mol, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4)
20. What is the percentage of copper in brass?
(A) 80% (B) 84.67% (C) 90% (D) 33.58%
21. How many ml of 3M-HNO3 will be required for complete reaction with brass?
(A) 14.51 ml (B) 29.6 ml (C) 26.67 ml (D) 38.39 ml
22. How many gm of ammonium nitrate will form in the reaction?
(A) 0.07 gm (B) 0.28 gm (C) 0.016 gm (D) 0.16 gm
COLUMN MATCH:
23. Match the following:
Column I Column II
Atomic Masses Percentage composition of the heavier
Isotope I Isotope II Average isotope
(A) Z–1 Z+2 Z (P) 33.33% by mole
(B) Z+1 Z+3 Z+2 (Q) 50% by mole
(C) Z 3Z 2Z (R) % by mass depends on Z
(D) Z–1 Z+1 Z (S) 75% by mass
E-3/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (INTEGER TYPE):
24. Assume that a polyethylene chain is truly linear. If a polymer chain had a molecular mass of 1×106, what
will be the length of one polyethylene molecule (in micrometer)? A carbon-carbon single bond length is
154 pm.
25. The density of a metal of atomic weight (48) is 7.50 gm/ml. Assuming that the atoms are spherical,
calculate its atomic radius (in A ). (NA = 6 × 1023)
26. Recent controversial efforts to generate energy via “cold fusion” of deuterium atoms have centered on
the remarkable ability of palladium metal to absorb as much as 1120 times its own volume of deuterium
gas at 1atm and 0oC. The number of deuterium atoms per ten atoms of Pd in a piece of fully saturated
Pd metal is (Density of Pd = 11.8 gm/ml and atomic mass of Pd = 106.2)
27. A sample of iron ore contains FeS and non-volatile inert impurity, only. Roasting of this ore converts all
FeS into Fe2O3 and a 4% loss in weight was observed. The mass percent of FeS in the ore is (Fe = 56)
28. A sample of SF5OF(g) was contained in a glass vessel at 117ºC and a pressure of 380 mm. A quantity of
N2F4 that was added brought the total pressure to 760 mm. The reaction that occurred produced a variety
of products like NF3, NO, SiF4 (by the reaction with glass), SF6, SO2F2, SOF4, SF5ONF2 and NO2. The
yield of SF5ONF2 was 40 mole percent with respect to the reactant SF5OF. All of the SF5OF and N2F4
were consumed in the reaction. What was the mass of SF5ONF2 produced (in gm) if the volume of the
vessel was 1.642 litre?
29. An impure sample of iron pyrite contains 28% iron, the impurity being silica. If 100 gm of the sample is
roasted to oxidise all the FeS2 to Fe2O3, what will be the mass of the roasted sample, in gm? (Fe = 56)
30. A mixture containing 1.3 millimole of HNF2 gas and equal quantity of chlorine gas, was led into a flask
containing 5.0 gm of KF and allowed to stand for 18 hours at room temperature. The gas ClNF2
(66.67% yield) and the solid KF-HCl were formed. The volume percent of ClNF2 in the gaseous mixture
present after the reaction is (in the nearest integer)
31. A sample of chalk contained as impurity a form of clay which losses 15% if its weight as water on
strong heating. 5 gm of chalk sample, on heating, shows a loss in weight by 1.62 gm. The mass
percentage of CaCO3 in the chalk sample is
32. 19.05 gm of copper was treated with nitric acid of density 1.40 gm/ml containing 84.0% by weight of
nitric acid. In the reaction, both NO2 and NO gases are evolved. The volume ratio of NO2 and NO was
found to be 3 : 2 under identical conditions. Calculate how many ml of the given nitric acid were used in
the above experiment. (Cu = 63.5)
33. Octane is a component of gasoline. Complete combustion of octane leads to CO2 and H2O while
incomplete combustion produces CO and H2O, which not only reduces the efficiency of the engine using
the fuel but is also toxic. In a certain test run, gallon of octane is burned in an engine. The total mass of
CO, CO2 and H2O produced is 9.768 kg. Calculate the efficiency of the process, i.e., calculate the
percentage of octane converted to CO2. The density of octane is 2.28 kg/gallon.
SUBJECTIVE (UPTO TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
34. The atomic ratio of H1 to H3 in a sample of water is 1: 8 × 108. How many H3 atoms (in the order of 1016)
in present in 9.0 gm of such water sample? (NA = 6 × 1023)
35. Each molecule of a substance contains 7 atoms of carbon, 14 atoms of hydrogen and 6.4 × 10–23 gm of
other elements. What is the molecular weight of substance? (NA = 6 × 1023)
E-4/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
36. The maximum mass (in gm) of AlCl3, which may be formed from 64.2 gm of a mixture of Al2O3 and
HCl is (Al = 27)
37. Sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3, can be purified by dissolving it in hot water (60ºC), filtering to remove
the insoluble impurities, cooling to 0ºC to precipitate solid NaHCO3, and then filtering to remove the
solid, leaving soluble impurities in solution. Any NaHCO3 that remains in the solution is not recovered.
The solubility of NaHCO3 in hot water at 60ºC is 164 gm/L. Its solubility in cold water at 0ºC is
69 gm/L. What is the percentage yield of NaHCO3 when it is purified by this method?
38. A porous catalyst has an internal surface area of 800 m2 per cm3 of bulk material. Fifty percent of the
bulk volume consists of the pores (holes), while the other 50% of the volume is made of solid substance.
Assume that the pores all cylindrical tubules of uniform diameter, d, and length, l, and that the measured
surface area is the total area of the curved surfaces of the tubules. What is the diameter of the pores, in
nm?
39. A sample of ammonia contains only H1 and H2 isotopes of hydrogen in 4 : 1 ratio and N14 and
N15 isotopes of nitrogen in 3 : 1 ratio. How many neutrons (in the order of 1020) are present in 1.785 mg
ammonia? (NA = 6 × 1023)
40. A solid mixture (5 gm) containing lead nitrate and sodium nitrate was heated below 600ºC until weight
of residue become constant. If the loss in weight is 28%, the amount of lead nitrate (in gm) in the
mixture is (Lead nitrate decomposes into lead(II) oxide, NO2 and O2 but sodium nitrate decomposes into
sodium nitrite and O2) (Pb = 206)
E-5/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY REDOX REACTION RA-02
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. During the oxidation of Mn2+ to MnO4 by PbO2 in acid medium, the number of moles of acid consumed
per mole of Mn2+ ion is
(A) 4 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 1/4
2. Equivalent weight of ozone behaving as oxidising agent is
(A) 48 (B) 24 (C) 16 (D) 32
3. 1.0 gm of an acid when completely acted upon by magnesium gave 1.301 gm of the anhydrous
magnesium salt. The equivalent weight of the acid is
(A) 35.54 (B) 36.54 (C) 48 (D) 49
4. HCHO disproportionates to HCOO and CH3OH in presence of OH (Cannizzaro reaction):
2HCHO + OH HCOO + CH3OH
The equivalent weight of HCHO in this reaction is
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 15 (D) 10
5. The vapour density of a volatile chloride of a metal is 74.6. If the specific heat of the metal is
0.55. The atomic weight of the metal is
(A) 7.2 (B) 7.46 (C) 11.63 (D) 10
6. Equivalent volume of a gas is the volume occupied by 1 g-equivalent of the gas at given condition of
pressure and temperature. The equivalent volume of a gaseous substance is 5.675 L at STP. The
substance may be
(A) CH4 gas in combustion (B) O3 gas as oxidising agent
(C) H2S gas as reducing agent (D) CO2 formed from carbon
7. The specific heat of a metal is found to be 0.03. 10 gm of the metal gave on treatment with nitric acid,
18.9 gm of pure dry nitrate. The only incorrect information is
(A) The equivalent weight of the metal is 69.66. (B) The atomic weight of metal is 208.98
(C) The metal is trivalent (D) The metal is an alkali metal
8. Calcium oxalate is insoluble in water. This property has been used to determine the amount of calcium
ion in fluids such as blood. The calcium oxalate isolated from blood is dissolved in acid and titrated
against a standard KMnO4 solution. In one test it is found that the calcium oxalate isolated from a
10 ml sample of blood requires 24.0 ml of 0.001M-KMnO4 for titration. The number of milligram of
calcium per milliliter of blood is
(A) 0.24 (B) 0.48 (C) 0.60 (D) 0.096
9. A 50 ml (sp. gr. 1.02) of chlorine water is treated with an excess of KI. The liberated iodine required
25 ml of 1.0N-Na2S2O3 solution (f = 1.02). Calculate the percentage of Cl2 (by wt.) in the chlorine water.
Chlorine water is a solution of free chlorine in water.
(A) 0.355% (B) 1.775% (C) 3.55% (D) 0.1775%
10. 250 gm solution of glucose in water contains 10.8% of carbon, by weight. The molality of solution is
(A) 1.03 (B) 2.06 (C) 0.67 (D) 0.24
E-6/67 PC / RA # 02
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
11. When ammonium vanadate is heated with oxalic acid solution, a substance Z is formed. A sample of Z
was treated with KMnO4 solution in hot acidic solution. The resulting liquid was reduced with SO2, the
excess SO2 boiled off and the liquid again titrated with same KMnO4. The ratio of the volumes of
KMnO4 used in the two titration was 5 : 1. What is the oxidation state of vanadium in substance Z?
Given than KMnO4 oxidise all oxidation state of vanadium to vanadium (+5) and SO2 reduces V (+5) to
V(+ 4).
(A) zero (B) +1 (C) +2 (D) +3
12. A solution is made by mixing 200 ml of 0.1M-FeSO4, 200 ml of 0.1M-KMnO4 and 600 ml of
1M-HClO4. A reaction occurs in which Fe2+ and MnO4 convert to Fe3+ and Mn2+. What is the molarity
of the H+ ion in the solution, assuming volumes are additive?
(A) 0.600M (B) 0.568M (C) 0.632M (D) 0.512M
13. An aqueous solution contains 2M-AlCl3 and 3m-SnCl4. If the molarity and molality of chloride ion in
the solution is numerically same, the density of solution is (Al = 27, Sn = 119)
(A) 1.05 gm/ml (B) 1.15 gm/ml (C) 2.05 gm/ml (D) 1.95 gm/ml
14. A oleum sample contains sulphur and oxygen in 4 : 7 mass ratio. The labelling of oleum is
(A) 105.47% (B) 113.68% (C) 108.24% (D) 110.11%
15. The complex compound [OsO2(C2H4)4(NH3)2] oxidises resulting OsO4, CO2, NO3 and H2O. The
number of electrons lost per molecule of the complex is
(A) 4 (B) 17 (C) 34 (D) 68
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
16. A metal (M) forms a hydrated sulphate, isomorphous with ZnSO4.7H2O. If the anhydrous sulphate
contains 20% metal, by weight, which of the following is/are correct for the metal?
(A) The atomic weight of metal is 24. (B) The equivalent weight of the metal is 12.
(C) The metal is bivalent. (D) The metal may be magnesium.
17. A metal forms two oxides. The higher oxide contains 20% oxygen, while 4.29 gm of the lower oxide
when converted to higher oxide, become 4.77 gm. The equivalent weight of metal in
(A) lower oxide is 32 (B) lower oxide is 64.4
(C) higher oxide is 64.4 (D) higher oxide is 32
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION - I
1.0 gm of a moist sample of a mixture of potassium chloride and potassium chlorate was dissolved
in water and made upto 250 ml. 25 ml of this solution was treated with SO 2 to reduce the chlorate
to chloride and excess SO2 was removed by boiling. The total chloride was precipitated as silver
chloride. The weight of the precipitate was 0.1435 gm. In another experiment, 25 ml of the original
solution was heated with 30 ml of 0.2N solution of ferrous sulphate and unreacted ferrous sulphate
required 37.5 ml of 0.08N solution of an oxidising agent for complete oxidation. (K = 39, Ag = 108)
18. What is the molar ratio of the chlorate to chloride in the given mixture?
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
E-7/67 PC / RA # 02
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
19. What is the mass percent of moisture present in the moist sample?
(A) 1.0% (B) 1.5% (C) 1.75% (D) 3.5%
20. What is the mass percent of potassium chloride in the moist sample?
(A) 37.25% (B) 61.25% (C) 3.725% (D) 74.5%
COMPREHENSION - II
Chromium exists as FeCr2O4 in the nature and it contains Fe0.95O1.00 as impurity. To obtain pure
chromium from FeCr2O4, the ore is fused with KOH and oxygen is passed through the mixture
when K2CrO4 and Fe2O3 are produced. 2 gm of ore required 280 ml of O2 at 0oC and 1 atm for
complete oxidation of ore. K2CrO4 is then precipitated as BaCrO4 after addition of Barium salt.
To remaining solution, 10 ml of 1M-K4Fe(CN)6 is added when Fe3+ ions reacts with it to form
KFe[Fe(CN)6], after called ‘Prussian Blue’. To determine excess of K 4Fe(CN)6 in solution, 6 ml of
0.4N-Fe2+ is added when all the K4Fe(CN)6 is precipitated as K2Fe[Fe(CN)6]. (Fe = 56)
21. What is the percentage of Fe0.95O1.00 in the ore?
(A) 6.92% (B) 3.46% (C) 13.84% (D) 93.08%
22. What percent of total iron present in the ore is in +2 state?
(A) 77.53% (B) 97.73% (C) 78.41% (D) 87.9%
23. How many millimoles of Prussian blue is formed?
(A) 10.8 (B) 8.8 (C) 7.85 (D) 10.0
COMPREHENSION - III
Once Tom and Jerry entered into a chemistry lab in which a chemist was preparing a solution of
H2SO4 in a two litre container. He labeled the solution as ‘density = 5.96 gm/ml, 5m’ which
occupied half of the volume of the container. Tom saw the solution and a mischief came in his
mind. As the chemist left the lab, Tom tried to throw the solution on Jerry. In doing so, some of
the solution fell on the floor. Tom added water in the container to fill it up to the original level.
The chemist returned back and got astonished to see the result of analysis that showed
‘density = 2.24 gm/ml and %w/w = 21.875’. Assume volume to be additive.
24. What was the molarity of H2SO4 solution present initially in the container?
(A) 5 M (B) 1.92 M (C) 20 M (D) 10 M
25. How many moles of H2SO4 fallen down on the floor?
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 15
26. What volume of water was added to the solution by Tom?
(A) 900 ml (B) 750 ml (C) 200 ml (D) 250 ml
E-8/67 PC / RA # 02
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (INTEGER TYPE):
27. The reaction of WCl6 with Al at about 4000C gives black crystals of a compound that contains only
tungsten and chlorine. A sample of this compound (WClx), when reduced with hydrogen, gives
0.368 gm of tungsten metal and hydrogen chloride, which is absorbed in water. Titration of hydrochloric
acid thus produced required 80.0 ml of 0.10 M-NaOH to reach the end point. The value of ‘x’ is
28. One gram of commercial AgNO3 is dissolved in 50 ml of water. It is treated with 50 ml of a KI solution.
The silver iodide thus precipitated is filtered off. Excess of KI is titrated with M/10 - KIO3 solution in
the presence of 6M - HCl till all iodide ions are converted into ICl. It requires 50 ml of
M/10 - KIO3 solution. 20 ml of the same stock solution of KI requires 30 ml of M/10 - KIO3 under
similar conditions. Calculate the percentage of AgNO3 in the sample.
Reaction: KIO3 + 2 KI + 6 HCl 3 ICl + KCl + 3 H2O
29. The saponification number of fat or oil is defined as the number of mg of KOH required to saponify
1.0 gm oil or fat. A sample of peanut oil weighing 1.5 gm is added to 25 ml of 0.4M - KOH. After
saponification is complete, 8.0 ml of 0.25M - H2SO4 is needed to neutralise excess of KOH. What is the
saponification number of peanut oil?
30. Calculate the minimum volume (in L) of 1M-HNO3 solution required to completely dissolve 95.25 gm
Cu, producing NO. (Cu = 63.5)
SUBJECTIVE (UPTO TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
31. When a solid element is reacted with chlorine, a gaseous chloride of vapour density 68.75 is formed. If
this reaction is performed at constant temperature and pressure, the volume of the system reduces by one
third. What is the equivalent weight of the solid element?
32. 5.0 gm of SrCl2.6H2O gave 3.442 gm of dry SrSO4. What is the equivalent weight of strontium?
33. Calculate the amount (in mg) of SeO32 in solution on the basis of following data:
20 ml of M/60 solution of KBrO3 was added to a definite volume of SeO32 solution. The bromine
evolved was removed by boiling and excess of KBrO3 was back titrated with 5.0 ml of M/25 solution of
NaAsO2. The unbalanced reactions are (Se = 79)
SeO32 + BrO3 + H+ SeO42 + Br2 + H2O
BrO3 + AsO2 + H2O Br + AsO43 + H+
34. 0.1 gm sample of chromite was fused with excess of Na2O2 and brought into solution according to
reaction:
2Fe(CrO2)2 + 7Na2O2 2NaFeO2 + 4Na2CrO4 + 2Na2O
The solution was acidified with dil. HCl and 0.98 gm Mohr’s salt (M = 392) was added. The excess of
Fe2+ required 26 ml of 0.05N - K2Cr2O7 for titration. What is % of Cr in sample? (Cr = 52)
35. A litre of a sample of ozonised oxygen at 0oC and 1 atm on passing through a solution of KI, liberated
iodine which required 15 ml of a thiosulphate solution. 11.35 ml of a ‘10 volume’ hydrogen peroxide
liberated iodine from an iodide solution which required 25 ml of the same thiosulphate solution.
Calculate the percentage of oxygen in the ozonised oxygen.
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
36. 3.76 gm of a mixture of NaCl and NH4Cl were boiled with an excess of a strong solution of caustic soda
and liberated gas was completely absorbed by 100 ml of N (f = 1.01) H2SO4. The solution thus obtained
was made up to 500 ml. 25 ml of this solution required 31.7 ml of N/10-Na2CO3 solution. Find the
percentage of NH4Cl in the mixture.
37. The total hardness of 1000 litre of water was completely removed by a zeolite softener. The zeolite
softener required 30 litre of NaCl solution, containing 15 gm/litre of NaCl for regeneration. Calculate
the hardness of water (in ppm of CaCO3).
38. A sample of hard water contains 96 ppm of SO42 and 183 ppm of HCO3, with Ca2+ as the only cation.
(i) How many moles of CaO will be required to remove HCO3 from 1000 kg of water?
(ii) If 1000 kg of this water is treated with the amount of CaO calculated above, what will be the
concentration (in ppm) of residual Ca2+ ions? (Assume CaCO3 to be completely insoluble in
water).
(iii) If the Ca2+ ions in one litre of the treated water are completely exchanged with hydrogen ions,
what will be its pH? (log 2 = 0.3)
39. What will be the percentage yield of Glauber’s salt, Na2SO4.10H2O, if a 28.4% by weight aqueous
solution of Na2SO4 is cooled to 293K without any loss due to evaporation? Solubility of Na 2SO4 in
water at 293K is 20 gm per 100 gm water.
40. In the estimation of nitrogen content in the amino acid, valine, 50 ml of 0.15M-HClO4 solution is added
in a sample of valine, in glacial acetic acid.
(CH3)2C(NH2)COOH + HClO4 → (CH3)2C(NH3+)COOH + ClO4
The unreacted perchloric acid requires 20 ml of 0.175M solution of sodium acetate. Calculate the
volume of N2(g) released (in ml) at STP, when the same quantity of valine is reacted with nitrous acid?
(CH3)2C(NH2)COOH + HNO2 → (CH3)2C(OH)COOH + N2 + H2O
E-10/67 PC / RA # 02
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY GASEOUS STATE RA-03
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. 10 ml of ethane gas is mixed with 40 ml oxygen gas in an eudiometer tube at 30 oC and fired. When the
resulting gases are cooled to 30oC, the volume of eudiometer becomes 26 ml. What is the vapour
pressure of water at 30oC? Neglect the volume occupied by liquid water. Pressure is 1 atm and constant
throughout.
(A) 1 atm (B) 29.23 mm Hg (C) 26 mm Hg (D) 32.55 mm Hg
2. 50L of dry N2 is passed through 36 gm of water at 300K. After passage of gas, there is a loss of
1.20 gm in water. The vapour pressure of water at 300K is
(A) 0.033 mm Hg (B) 24.96 mm Hg (C) 16.05 mm Hg (D) 38.73 mm Hg
3. A 2 m long tube closed at one end is lowered vertically into water 2m
until the closed end is flush with the water surface. Calculate the
water level height (h) in the tube. (Barometric pressure = 1 atm = 10 hm
m of hydrostatic water head. Temperature = 25C, Density of water
1.00 g/ml. Neglect water vapour pressure)
(A) 1.01 m (B) 0.29 m
(C) 1.71 m (D) 0.92 m
4. If the intermolecular forces vanish away, the volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg
water at 0oC and 1 atm will be given by
(A) 4.5 m3 (B) 5.6 m3 (C) 11.2 m3 (D) 11.2 litre
5. By what factor (approx.) does water expand when converted into vapour at 100C and 1 atm pressure?
The density of liquid water at 100C and 1 atm is 0.96 gm cm–3?
(A) 815 (B) 2000 (C) 1630 (D) 500
6. If at top of a hill 2000 m above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is 50 cm of Hg and at the sea level
the atmospheric pressure is 74.5 cm of Hg, and you need as much oxygen to breath at sea level as on the
top of the hill, how much faster need you breath on the hill top?
(A) 2.44 times (B) 1.49 times (C) 5 times (D) 7 times
7. At 0C, the density of nitrogen at 1 atm is 1.25 kg/m3. The nitrogen which occupied 1500 ml at 0oC and
1 atm was compressed at 0C and 575 atm and the gas volume was observed to be 3.92 ml, in violation
of Boyle’s law. What was the final density of this non-ideal gas?
(A) 278 kg/m3 (B) 378 kg/m3 (C) 478 kg/m3 (D) 578 kg/m3
8. The volume of a filled balloon of mass 20 gm is 40 L. The density of gas filled in the balloon is
0.6 gm/L and the density of air is 1.3 gm/L. The balloon
(A) will not lift upward (B) will lift upward with pay load zero
(C) will lift upward with pay load 6 gm (D) will lift upwards with pay load 8 gm
E-11/67 PC / RA # 03
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
9. The density of a gas filled in an electric lamp is 0.75 kg/m3. After the lamp has been switched on for
sufficient time, the pressure of gas in it increased from 4 × 104 Pa to 9 × 104 Pa. The increase in urms of
gas molecules is
(A) 0 (B) 400 ms-1 (C) 200 ms-1 (D) 600 ms-1
10. At constant pressure, what should be the percentage decrease in the density of an ideal gas for a
10% increase in the absolute temperature?
(A) 10% (B) 9.1% (C) 11% (D) 12.09%
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION - I
Recent Communications with the inhabitants of Neptune have revealed that they have a celcius
type temperature scale, but based on the melting point (0N) and boiling point (100N) of their
most common substance, hydrogen. Further communications have revealed that the Neptunians
know about perfect gas behaviour and that they find in the limit of zero pressure, the value of PVm
is 28 l – atm at 0N and 40 l – atm at 100N.
11. What is the value of the absolute zero of temperature on their temperature scale?
(A) 233.33C (B) –233.33C (C) –233.33N (D) 233.33N
12. What is the value of universal gas constant?
(A) 0.082 l – atm / K – mol (B) 0.12 l – atm / K – mol
(C) 0.4 l – atm / K – mol (D) infinite
13. What is the volume occupied by 2 mole of a perfect gas at 2 atm and 66.67N?
(A) 36 l (B) 24.6 l (C) 20.0 l (D) 8.0 l
COMPREHENSION - II
A tube of U-shape partly filled by mercury is taken as shown in
the figure. The cross-section area of closed arm is A cm2 and
that of open arm is 2A cm2. A pin hole is now made at the topIdeal
of gas 38cm
dP
the closed arm by which leakage of gas starts. The leak rate
dt
is directly proportional to the pressure of remaining gas inside
the tube, over mercury. The proportionality constant is K s–1.
14. What will be the expression for pressures of gas above mercury in the closed arm at any time, t?
(A) 1.5 atm (B) 1.5 e–kt atm (C) 1.5 (e–kt – 1) atm (D) 1.5 (1 – e–kt) atm
15. What will be the increase in level of mercury in the closed arm at any time, t?
(A) 38 (1 – e–kt) cm (B) 76 (1 – e–kt)cm (C) (1 – e–kt) cm (D) 152(1 – e–kt) cm
16. What will be the decrease in level of mercury in the open arm at any time, t?
(A) 38 (1 – e–kt) cm (B) 76 (1 – e–kt)cm (C) (1 – e–kt) cm (D) 152 (1 – e–kt) cm
E-12/67 PC / RA # 03
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (INTEGER TYPE):
17. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) is mainly methane. A10.0 m3 tank is constructed to store LNG at 164ºC
and 1atm pressure, under which conditions its density is 416 Kg/m3. The volume (in m3) of a storage
tank capable of holding the same mass of LNG as a gas, at 27ºC and 1.64 atm pressure, is
(R = 0.082 L-atm/K-mol)
18. A barometer tube contains a mixture of air and saturated water vapour in the space above the mercury
column. If reads 70 cm when the actual atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of Hg. The saturation vapour
pressure at room temperature is 1.0 cm of Hg. The tube is now lowered in the reservoir till the space
above the mercury column is reduced to half of its original volume. The reading of barometer (in cm) is
(Assume that the temperature remains constant)
19. A swimming pool (Fig.) is conical in shape of diameter
20 m. To measure the depth of the pool, a pipe line having Towards gas cylinder
10 m
cross sectional area mm2 has been introduced through
the base centre to the depth of the pool. Other end of the
pipe line is connected with the gas cylinder. When gases
are passed through the pipe line, it has been measured that
the volume of each bubble across the pipe line at the
surface of the pool is 2 mm3. Assume the temperature of
water is same as that of atmosphere and 1 atm pressure is
equal to 10 m of water column. If the water holding
capacity of the swimming pool is ‘V’ m3, then the value
3V
of is
100
20. For a Vanderwaal gas, the critical pressure and temperature are 72 atm and 27oC, respectively. What is
the volume (in ml) occupied only by the molecules in a sample of gas containing its 24 moles?
(R = 0.08 L-atm/K-mol)
21. Proportion of lighter isotope in a gaseous mixture containing both heavier and lighter isotopes is
increased by successive effusion of the gas mixture. A sample of neon gas has Ne 22 = 90% and
Ne20 = 10%, by moles. In how many stages of successive effusion, 25% enrichment of Ne 20 would be
achieved? (ln 3 = 11.5 ln 1.1)
22. The second virial coefficient of methane can be approximate by the empirical equation:
2
B = a + b. e C / T
where a = – 0.2 bar–1, b = 0.22 bar–1, and c = 950K2. What is the value of the Boyle temperature of
methane (in K)? (ln1.1 = 0.095)
23. A gas is confined in a graduated cylinder enclosed by a movable piston. When the temperature of the
room is 27ºC, the volume of the gas at atmospheric pressure is found to be 45 ml. The cylinder is then
immersed in a bath containing a mixture of liquid and solid benzene, maintained at the normal freezing
point of benzene. The piston moves to maintain constant atmospheric pressure. The volume of the gas at
the freezing point of benzene is 42 ml. The freezing point of benzene (in oC) is
24. A 5.0 litre box contains 28.4 gm of mixture of gases CxH8 and CxH10. The pressure of the gas mixture at
300K is 2.46 atm. The analysis of the gas mixture shows that carbon is 84.5%, by mass. The value of
‘x’ is
25. One mole of a Vanderwaal gas is contained in a vessel of volume 25.00 ml. At 300K, the gas pressure is
90 atm and at 350K, the pressure is 110 atm. The value of Vanderwaal constant ‘b’ in (ml/mol) is
(R = 0.082 L-atm/K-mol)
E-13/67 PC / RA # 03
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
26. A spherical glass bulb of radius 4 cm contains a concentric thin spherical rubber balloon that contains
some O2 gas and the remaining space in the bulb contains 56 mole of helium gas. In this condition, the
radius of the rubber balloon is 2 cm. Now, by any means, 8 more moles of helium gas is introduced in
9 r3
the bulb, outside rubber balloon. If the final radius of rubber balloon becomes r cm, the value of is
16
SUBJECTIVE (UPTO TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
27. A vertical cylindrical vessel is separated into two parts by a frictionless piston free to move along the
length of the vessel. The length of the cylinder is 90 cm and the piston divides the cylinder in the ratio of
5:4. Each of the two parts of the vessel contains 0.1 mole of an ideal gas at 300K. Calculate the mass of
the piston, in kg. (g = 10 ms-2)
28. Temperature and relative humidity of air are 27ºC and 75% on a certain day. Vapour pressure of water
at 27ºC and 7ºC are 24.0 mm and 8.4 mm Hg, respectively. The fraction of the mass of water vapour
that will condense, if the temperature falls to 7ºC, is
10 .0
29. What will be the minimum temperature difference (in oC) needed in a hot air balloon to lift kg of
8.314
mass? Assume that the volume of the balloon is 91.0 m3, the temperature of the ambient air is 17ºC, the
pressure is 1.0 bar, and air is an ideal gas with an average molar mass of 29 gm/mole.
30. A stockroom supervisor measured the contents of a partially filled 25.0 gallon acetone drum on a day
when the temperature was 18oC and atmospheric pressure was 780 mm Hg and found that 15.4 gallon of
the solvent remained. After tightly sealing the drum a student assistant dropped the drum while carrying
it upstairs to the organic laboratory. The drum was dented and its internal volume was decreased to
20.4 gallon. What is the total pressure (in mm Hg) inside the drum after the accident? The vapour
pressure of the acetone at18oC is 400 mm Hg.
31. A sample contains two ideal gases, ‘A’ and ‘B’ in 2 : 3 molar ratio. If MA : MB = 1 : 2 and
rA : rB = 2 : 3, the ratio of ZAA : ZAB is x : 1.00. The value of ‘x’ is
32. Suppose you are a manger of a fish drying unit. You have to dry 200 kg of fish containing 36% water on
wet basis. The drier specification is mentioned in the figure.
Out let air 127C,
RH = 80%
Perforated trays containing 100 kg of fish
Perforated trays containing 100 kg of fish
Inlet and outlet air flow rate = 10 m3/min
Inlet air
227C, RH = 20%
Saturation vapour pressure at 227C = 38 mm of Hg.
Saturation vapour pressure at 127C = 19 mm of Hg
What is the process time of the drier (in hrs)? (R = 0.08 L-atm/K-mol)
E-14/67 PC / RA # 03
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
33. A diver at a depth of 10 m exhales some air by which a bubble of air of volume 24.0 ml is formed. The
bubble catches an organism which survives on the exhaled air trapped in the bubble. The organism just
inhales the air at the rate of 0.05 millimoles/minute and exhales nothing. The atmospheric pressure is
1 atm and the temperature of water is throughout 300K. Density of water is 1.013 gm/ml. (g = 10 ms -2, R
= 0.08 L-atm/K-mol)
X = volume (in ml) of bubble when it reaches the surface after 10 min
Y = average rate (in 10-5 mole/min) at which the organism should inhale air so that volume of bubble
remains the same at the depth and at the surface.
The value of (X ÷ Y) is
34. There are two vessels of same volume consisting same number of moles of two different gases at the
same temperature. One of the gas is CH4 and the other is unknown gas, X. Assuming that the molecules
of X are under random motion whereas in CH4, except one, all are stationary. If the ratio of Z1 for X to
Z1 of CH4 is x : 1.00, the value of ‘x’ is (Given that the collision diameter is same for both the gases and
the average speed of CH4 is 6 times the rms speed of X)
35. The molecular diameter of a N2 molecule, as deduced from the Vander waals parameter, b, is
3.20 × 10-8 cm. The density of liquid nitrogen is 0.80 gm/cm3. On a hard sphere model, what fraction of
the liquid nitrogen appears to be empty space? [ (3.2)3 = 102.94, NA = 6 1023]
36. A narrow cylindrical pipe closed at one end contains air which is separated from the outer atmosphere
by a column of mercury. If the pipe is turned with the closed end uppermost, the air inside it occupies a
length 40 cm; whereas when the open end is uppermost, the length occupied is 30 cm. The length of the
mercury column is 11.21 cm. Find the atmospheric pressure (in cm Hg).
37. Approximately how many millions of oxygen molecules arrive each second at the mitochondrion of an
active person with a mass of 84.00 kg? The following data are available: Oxygen consumption is about
48.00 ml per minute per kilogram of body weight, measured at 300K and 1.00 atm. In an adult, there is
about 1.60 1010 cells per kg body mass and each cell contains about 800 mitochondria.
(R = 0.08 L-atm/K-mol, NA = 6 × 1023)
38. One mole of a monoatomic Vanderwaal gas confined in a 22.5 L flask at 0oC exerts a pressure of 0.98 atm,
whereas the expected pressure was 1.00 atm from ideal behaviour. The Boyle temperature (in K) of the
gas is [R = 0.08206 = (22.4/273) L-atm/K-mol]
39. One mole of nitrogen gas is contained in a vessel of 1.00 L capacity. Find the temperature (in K) at
which the pressure can be calculated from an ideal gas law with 10% error as compared with the
pressure calculated from the Vanderwaal equation of state. (R = 0.082 L-atm/K-mol, a = 1.40 atm
L2 mol-2, b = 0.04 L mol-1)
40. Two flasks A and B have same volume. Flask A is maintained at 300K and contains some H 2 gas. Flask
B is maintained at 600K and contains the equal mass of CH4 gas. Assume ideal gas behaviour for both
the gases. If the ratio of given parameters for A and B in the following questions is x : 1.00, answer the
value of ‘x’. The collision diameter of CH4 is twice that of H2.
(i) number of gas molecules (ii) total number of atoms
(iii) pressure exerted by gases (iv) average speed of molecules
(v) number of molecules colliding at the walls (vi) mean free path
(vii) total translational kinetic energy
(viii) number of collisions given by a single molecule per unit time
(ix) total number of binary collisions per unit time per unit volume
(x) compressibility factor
E-15/67 PC / RA # 03
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY THERMODYNAMICS RA-04
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. The work involved (w) in an isothermal expansion of ‘n’ moles of an ideal gas from an initial pressure
of ‘P’ atm to final pressure of 1 atm in number of steps such that in every step, the constant external
pressure exactly 1 atm less than the initial pressure of gas is maintained, is given as
i P 1
1 i P
1
(A) nRT
P 1 i
(B) nRT P 1 i
i 1 i 1
i P
i i P 1
i
(C) nRT (D) nRT
i 1 P 1 i i 1 P 1 i
2. In a certain polytropic process the volume of argon was increased 4.0 times. Simultaneously, the
pressure decreased 8.0 times. The molar heat capacity of argon in this process, assuming the gas to be
ideal, is
(A) – 4.2 J/K-mol (B) + 4.2 J/K-mol (C) 12.47 J/K-mol (D) 20.78 J/K-mol
3. With what minimum pressure must a given volume of an ideal gas ( = 1.4), originally at 400K and
100 kPa, be adiabatically compressed in order to raise its temperature upto 700K?
(A) 708.9 kPa (B) 362.5 kPa (C) 1450 kPa (D) 437.4 kPa
4. The average degree of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. The gas performs 25J of work when it
expands at constant pressure. What is the amount of heat absorbed by the gas?
(A) 25 J (B) 50 J (C) 75 J (D) 100 J
5. An adiabatic cylinder fitted with an adiabatic piston at the right end of cylinder, is divided into two
equal halves with a monoatomic gas on left side and diatomic gas on right side, using an impermeable
movable adiabatic wall. If the piston is pushed slowly to compress the diatomic gas to 3/4 th of its
original volume. The ratio of new volume of monoatomic gas to its initial volume would be
25 3 21
4 21 7 4 3 25 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 5 4 4
6. A cylinder with thermally insulated walls contains an insulated partition which can slide freely. The
partition divides the cylinder into two chambers containing equal moles of the same gas, the initial
pressure, temperature and volume being Po, To and Vo, respectively. By means of heating coil, heat is
supplied slowly to the gas in one chamber (A) until its pressure becomes 27Po /8. If the value of is 1.5,
find the heat supplied to the gas in chamber A.
(A) 5 PoVo/4 (B) 19 PoVo/2 (C) 15 PoVo/2 (D) 15 PoVo/4
E-16/67 PC / RA # 04
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
7. A portion of helium gas in a vertical cylindrical container is in thermodynamic equilibrium with the
surroundings. The gas is confined by a movable heavy piston. The piston is slowly elevated by a
distance ‘H’ from its equilibrium position and then kept in the elevated position long enough for the
thermal equilibrium to be reestablished. After that, the container is insulated and then the piston is
released. After the piston comes to rest, what is the new equilibrium position of the piston with respect
to initial position?
(A) The piston ends up 0.4H above its initial position
(B) The piston ends up 0.6H above its initial position
(C) The piston ends at its initial position
(D) The piston ends up 0.4H below its initial position
8. One mole of a real gas is subjected to heating at constant volume from (P1, V1, T1) state to (P2, V1, T2)
state. Then it is subjected to irreversible adiabatic compression against constant external pressure of
P3 atm, till the system reaches final state (P3, V2, T3). If the constant volume molar heat capacity of real
gas is CV, then the correct expression for H from state 1 to state 3 is
(A) CV(T3 – T1) + (P3V1 – P1V1) (B) CV(T2 – T1) + (P3V2 – P1V1)
(C) CV(T2 – T1) + (P3V1 – P1V1) (D) CP(T2 – T1) + (P3V1 – P1V1)
9. The enthalpy of atomisation of graphite is 698.6 kJ/mol and the mean bond enthalpy of CC bond in
diamond is 348.4 kJ/mol. The enthalpy of conversion of graphite into diamond is
(A) + 1.2 kJ/mol (B) + 1.8 kJ/mol (C) – 1.2 kJ/mol (D) – 1.8 kJ/mol
10. The specific heats of iodine vapours and solid are 0.031 and 0.055 cal/gm, respectively. If the enthalpy
of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal/gm at 200oC, then the enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at 250oC
should be
(A) 24 cal/gm (B) 22.8 cal/gm (C) 26.4 cal/gm (D) 25.2 cal/gm
11. The standard molar enthalpies of formation of trinitrotoluene (l), CO2 (g) and H2O (l) are 65, - 395 and
– 285 kJ/mol, respectively. The density of trinitrotoluene is 1.816 gm/ml. Trinitrotoluene can be used as
rocket fuel, with the gases resulting from its combustion streaming out of the rocket to give the required
thrust. What is the enthalpy density for the combustion reaction of trinitrotoluene?
(A) – 28.34 MJ/L (B) – 28.34 kJ/L (C) – 27.30 MJ/L (D) – 8.59 MJ/L
12. In an ice calorimeter, a chemical reaction is allowed to occur in thermal contact with an ice-water
mixture at 0ºC. Any heat liberated by the reaction is used to melt some ice; the volume change of the
ice-water mixture indicates the amount of melting. When solutions containing 1.0 millimole each of
AgNO3 and NaCl were mixed in such a calorimeter, both solutions having been pre-cooled to 0ºC,
0.20 gm of ice melted. Assuming complete reaction in this experiment, what is H for the reaction:
Ag+ (aq) + Cl (aq) AgCl (s)? Latent heat of fusion of ice of 0ºC is 80 cal/gm.
(A) –16 Kcal (B) + 16 Kcal (C) 16 cal (D) + 16 cal
13. The bond enthalpies of C – C, C = C and C C bonds are 348, 610 and 835 kJ/mol, respectively at
298K and 1 bar. The enthalpy of polymerisation per mole of 2-Butyne at 298K and 1 bar, as shown
below, is
n CH3 – C C – CH3 (g) –(CH2 – CH = CH – CH2)n – (g)
(A) – 123 kJ (B) – 132 kJ (C) – 139 kJ (D) – 37 kJ
E-17/67 PC / RA # 04
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
14. The enthalpies of combustion of formaldehyde and paraformaldehyde (a polymer of formaldehyde) are
– 134 and – 732 Kcal/mol, respectively. The enthalpy of polymerisation per mole of paraformaldehyde
is – 72 Kcal. The molecular formula of paraformaldehyde is
(A) CH2O (B) C6H12O6 (C) C3H6O3 (D) C4H8O4
15. A reversible heat engine absorbs 40 kJ of heat at 500K and performs 10 kJ of work rejecting the
remaining amount to the sink at 300K. The entropy change for the universe is
(A) 80 J/K (B) 100 J/K (C) 20 J/K (D) 180 J/K
16. One mole of an ideal gas with the adiabatic exponent ‘’ goes through a polytropic process as a result of
which the absolute temperature of the gas increases -fold. The polytropic constant equals ‘n’. The
entropy increment of the gas in this process is
(n )R (n 1)( 1) (n )R (n )R
(A) ln (B) ln (C) ln (D) ln
(n 1)( 1) (n )R ( 1) (n 1)
17. The expansion process of 2.0 moles of argon proceeds so that the gas pressure increases in direct
proportion to its volume. The entropy change of the gas in this process if its volume increases 2.0 times,
is (ln 2 = 0.7)
(A) + 11.2 cal/K (B) 11.2 cal/K (C) + 5.6 cal/K (D) 5.6 cal/K
18. An ideal gas with the adiabatic exponent ‘’ goes through a process: P = Po – V, where Po and are
positive constants and V is the volume. At what volume will the gas entropy have the maximum value?
.P .P .P .P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
( 1) ( 1) 1 1
19. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a reversible process in which the entropy of the gas changes with
absolute temperature T as: S = aT + Cv,m lnT, where ‘a’ is a positive constant. If T = To at V = Vo, the
volume dependence of the gas on temperature in this process is
R V
(A) T = To + ln V (B) T = To + . ln o
a V
R V a T
(C) T = To + . ln (D) V = Vo + . ln
a Vo R To
20. A piece of alloy weighing 4 kg and at a temperature of 800K is placed in 4 kg of water at 300K. If the
specific heat capacity of water is 1.0 cal/K-gm and that of alloy is 4 cal/K-gm, the Smix is (ln 2 = 0.7,
ln 3 = 1.1, ln 7 = 1.95)
(A) + 3.33 Kcal/K (B) 1.0 Kcal/K (C) + 1.0 Kcal/K (D) + 1.33 Kcal/K
21. Assuming ideal gas behavior, the S for the isothermal mixing of 0.8 mole N2 and 0.2 mole of O2 is
(ln 2 = 0.7, ln 10 = 2.3)
(A) + 0.96 cal/K (B) + 0.32 cal/K (C) 0.96 cal/K (D) 0.32 cal/K
E-18/67 PC / RA # 04
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PARAGRAPH BASED:
When 0.1 mole of C8H18(l) at 300K is completely burned at constant pressure in stoichiometric
amount of oxygen gas at 300K, yielding as products gaseous H2O, CO and CO2 at 800K, the
process yielding 87.3 Kcal of heat to the surrounding. Given:
fH (Kcal/mol): C8H18(l) = 74.0, CO2(g) = 94.0, CO(g) = 26.5, H2O(g) = 58.0
Molar heat capacity at constant pressure (cal/K-mol): CO(g) = 7.0, CO2(g) = 8.0, H2O(g) = 6.0
Assume that all rH are independent of temperature.
22. The value of cH of C8H18(l) is (in Kcal/mol), assuming the formation of H2O(g)
(A) + 1200.0 (B) + 660.0 (C) 1200.0 (D) 660.0
17
23. The value of rH for the reaction: C8H18(l) + O2(g) 8 CO(g) + 9 H2O(g) is (in Kcal/mol)
2
(A) + 1200.0 (B) + 660.0 (C) 1200.0 (D) 660.0
24. How many moles of CO2 are produced?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.05
25. How many moles of H2O are produced?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.9 (C) 0.45 (D) 1.8
26. What is the magnitude work done by the system?
(A) 1.045 Kcal (B) 2.09 Kcal (C) 0.96 Kcal (D) 5.7 Kcal
Subjective (Integer Type):
27. Three moles of an ideal gas being initially at a temperature 273K were isothermally expanded
5.0 times its initial volume and then isochorically heated so that the pressure in the final state became
equal to that in the initial state. The total amount of heat transferred to the gas during the process equals
80 kJ. The value of Cv,m for this gas (in cal/K-mol) is (ln 5 = 1.6)
28. The number of degrees of freedom of molecules in a gas whose molar heat capacity is 29 J/mol-K in the
process: PT = constant is
29. A gas consisting of rigid diatomic molecules was expanded in a polytropic process so that the rate of
collisions of the molecules against the vessel’s wall did not change. The molar heat capacity of the gas
(in cal/K-mol) in this process is
30. The heat evolved on combustion of 1 gm of starch, (C6H10O5)x, into CO2 (g) and H2O(l) is 4.6 Kcal.
Heat of formation of CO2 (g) and H2O (l) are 94.2 and 68.4 Kcal/mol. The magnitude of standard
enthalpy of formation of 1 gm of starch (in Kcal) is
31. In solid NH3, each NH3 molecule has six other NH3 molecules as nearest neighbours. The enthalpy of
sublimation of NH3(s) at its melting point is 30.4 kJ/mol and estimated value of enthalpy of sublimation
of NH3(s), where there were no hydrogen bonds, is 15.4 kJ/mol. What is the average strength of
hydrogen bonds in solid NH3 in kJ/mol?
E-19/67 PC / RA # 04
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
32. When 3.0 gm graphite is burnt in limited supply of oxygen at 298K and 1 bar, 7.5 Kcal heat is released.
No solid is left and the gaseous product formed is not absorbed in aqueous KOH solution. When 4.0 gm
graphite is burnt in excess supply of oxygen at 298K and 1 bar, 32 Kcal heat is released. No solid
residue is left and the gaseous product formed is absorbed completely in aqueous KOH solution. When
4.0 gm CO2(g) is decomposed completely into CO(g) and O2(g) at 29K and 1 bar, the enthalpy of system
increases (in kcal) by
33. For the hypothetical reaction: 2B(g) B2(g); CP [/JK-1] = 2.0×10-2 T[/K] and H300 = – 4.0 kJ/mol.
Estimate the absolute temperature at which H = 0 for this reaction.
34. Estimate fHo [Pyridine (l)] (in kJ/mol) from the given data:
Compound CH2 N CH3 (g) CH3 NH CH3
(g) N H (g)
(g) (g)
fHo (kJ/mol) + 44 18 37 156 50
Magnitude of resonance energy of pyridine = 125 kJ/mol
Hvap, 298K [Pyridine (l)] = 40 kJ/mol
35. The standard molar enthalpies of formation of IF3(g) and IF5(g) are – 470 kJ and – 847 kJ, respectively.
Valence shell electron-pair repulsion theory predicts that IF5(g) is square pyramidal in shape in which all
I – F bonds are equivalent while IF3(g) is T-shaped (based on trigonal-bipyramidal geometry) in which
I – F bonds are of different lengths. It is observed that the axial I – F bonds in IF3 are equivalent to the
I – F bonds in IF5. Calculate the equatorial I – F bond strength (in kJ/mol) in IF3. Some other
informations given are:
I2 (s) I2 (g); H = 62 kJ
F2 (g) 2 F (g); H = 155 kJ
I2 (g) 2 I (g); H = 149 kJ
36. An athlete in the weight room lifts a 50 Kg mass through a vertical distance of 2.0 m. The mass is
allowed to fall through the 2.0 m distance while coupled to an electrical generator. The electrical
generator produces an equal amount of electrical work, which is used to produce aluminium by Hall
electrolytic process.
Al2O3 (solution) + 3 C (graphite) 2 Al (l) + 3 CO (g); Gº = 600 kJ
How many times must the athlete lift the 50 Kg mass to provide sufficient Gibbs energy to produce
27 gm Al? (g = 10 m/s2)
E-20/67 PC / RA # 04
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
37. A system undergoes a certain change in state by path I and the corresponding heat absorbed and work
done are 10 Kcal and 0 erg, respectively. For the same change in state by path II, the respective
quantities are 11 Kcal and 0.5 wmax, where wmax represents the work done if the change were reversibly
carried out. The magnitude of wmax, in kJ, is (1 cal = 4.2 J)
38. The internal energy of a monoatomic ideal gas is 1.5 nRT. One mole of helium is kept in a cylinder of
cross-section 8.5 cm2. The cylinder is closed by a light frictionless piston. The gas is heated slowly in a
process during which a total of 42 J heat is given to the gas. If the temperature rises through 2ºC, find
the distance moved by the piston (in metre). Atmospheric pressure = 100 kPa.
39. Consider a classroom that is roughly 8.21 m × 10 m × 3 m. Initially T = 290K and P = 1atm. There are
50 people in the class, each losing energy to the room at the average rate of 166 watt. Assume that the
walls, ceiling, floor, and furniture are perfectly insulated and do not absorb any heat. Also assume that
all the doors and windows are tightly closed to prevent any exchange of air from surrounding. How long
(in sec) will the physical chemistry examination last if the professor (Mr. Neeraj Kumar) has foolishly
agreed to dismiss the class when the air temperature in the room reaches body temperature, 310K? For
air, CP,m = 7R/2. (R = 0.0821 L-atm/K-mol = 8.3 J/K-mol)
40. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas initially at 1200K and 64 atm is expanded to a final state at 300K
and 1 atm. To achieve the above change, a reversible path is constructed that involve an adiabatic
expansion in the beginning followed by an isothermal expansion to the final state. The magnitude of net
work done by the gas (in Kcal) is (ln 2 = 0.7)
E-21/67 PC / RA # 04
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY EQUILIBRIUM RA-05
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. 3 moles of N2 and some H2 are introduced into an evacuated vessel. The reaction starts at t = 0 and
equilibrium is attained at t = t1. The amount of ammonia at t = 2t1 is found to be 34 gm. It is observed
w N 2 14 t t
that at t = 1 and t = 1 . The only correct statement is
w H2 3 3 2
(A) w(N2) + w(H2) + w(NH3) = 118 gm at t = t1
(B) w(N2) + w(H2) + w(NH3) = 102 gm at t = 2t1
(C) w(N2) + w(H2) + w(NH3) = 50 gm at t = t1/3
(D) w(N2) + w(H2) + w(NH3) cannot be predicted
2. The equilibrium constant for the reaction: CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) is 3.0 at 500K. In a
2.0 L vessel, 60 gm of water gas [equimolar mixture of CO(g) and H 2(g)] and 90 gm steam is initially
taken. What is the equilibrium concentration of H2(g)?
(A) 1.75M (B) 3.5M (C) 1.5M (D) 0.75M
3. If ‘a’ is the fraction of ammonia present by volume in an equilibrium mixture made from one volume of
N2 and three volumes of H2 and P is the total pressure, then
a a a a
(A) P (B) P (C) P (D) P
1 a (1 a ) 2 (1 a ) 2 1 a
4. For the equilibrium: SrCl2.6H2O(s) SrCl2.2H2O(s) + 4H2O(g), KP = 8.1×10-7 atm4 at 27ºC. If 1.642L
of air saturated with water vapour at 27ºC is exposed to a large quantity of SrCl 2.2H2O(s), what mass of
water vapour will be absorbed? Saturated vapour pressure of water at 27ºC = 30.4 torr.
(R = 0.0821 L-atm/K-mol)
(A) 12 mg (B) 6.67 mg (C) 9 mg (D) 48 mg
5. Methanol, CH3OH can be prepared from CO and H2 as
CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g); KP = 6.23 10-3 bar2 at 500K.
What total pressure is required to convert 25% of CO to CH3OH at 500K, if CO and H2 comes from the
reaction: CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)
(A) 20.48 bar (B) 21 bar (C) 10.24 bar (D) 5.12 bar
6. A certain gas ‘A’ polymerises to a very small extent at a given temperature as: nA(g) An(g). The
reaction is started with one mole of ‘A’ in a container of capacity ‘V’. Which of the following is correct
PV
value of , at equilibrium?
RT
( n 1).K C ( n 1).K C n.K C n.K C
(A) 1 (B) (C) 1 (D) 1
V n 1 V n 1 V n 1 Vn
E-22/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
7. A 250 ml flask and 100 ml flask are separated by a stop-cock. At 350K, the nitric oxide in the larger
flask exerts a pressure of 0.4 atm, and the smaller one contains oxygen at 0.8 atm. The gases are mixed
by opening the stop-cock. The reactions occurring are: 2NO + O2 2NO2 N2O4. The first reaction
is complete while the second one is at equilibrium. Assuming all the gases to behave ideally, calculate
the KP for the second reaction if the total pressure is 0.3 atm.
(A) 3.5 atm–1 (B) 0.87 atm–1 (C) 0.07 atm–1 (D) 7.0 atm–1
8. For the reaction: CuSO4.3H2O(s) CuSO4.H2O(s) + 2H2O(g); H = 3360 cal. The dissociation
3
pressure is 7×10 atm at 27ºC. What will be the dissociation pressure at 127ºC? (ln2 = 0.7)
(A) 9.8×103 atm (B) 1.4×102 atm (C) 1.4×103 atm (D) 9.8×10–2 atm
9. Two moles of an equimolar mixture of two alcohols R1–OH and R2–OH are esterified with one mole of
acetic acid. If only 80% of the acid is consumed till equilibrium and the quantities of ester formed under
equilibrium are in the ratio 3 : 2. What is the value of equilibrium constant for the esterification of
R1–OH?
(A) 0.48 (B) 2.2 (C) 0.32 (D) 3.69
10. At 525K, PCl5(g) is 80% dissociated at a pressure of 1 atm. Now, sufficient quantity of an inert gas at
constant pressure is introduced into the above reaction mixture to produce inert gas partial pressure of
0.9 atm. What is the percentage dissociation of PCl5(g) when equilibrium is re-established?
(A) 97.3% (B) 80% (C) 65.6% (D) 4.7%
11. Isohydric solutions are the solutions having the same concentration of hydronium ion. If 0.2M-HA
solution is isohydric with 4 10-4 M-HCl solution, then Kb of A is
(A) 8 10-7 (B) 1.25 10-8 (C) 1.25 10-6 (D) 8 107
12. The pH at which water is maximum dissociated at 25oC, is
(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) 14
13. The dissociation constant of NH3 at 27°C from the following data:
NH3 + H+ NH4+; H° = – 52.21 KJ/mol; S° = + 1.6 JK–1 mol–1
H2O H+ + OH¯; H° = 54.70 KJ/mol; S° = – 76.3 JK–1 mol–1
Given: R = 8.3 J/K-mol
(A) e10 (B) e-10 (C) e-8 (D) e-9
14. The ionisation constant of NH4+ in water is 5.6 × 1010 mol L–1 at 25ºC. The rate constant for the reaction
of NH4+ and OH to form NH3 and H2O at 25ºC is 3.4 × 1010 L mol1 s1. The rate constant for proton
transfer from water to NH3 at 25oC is
(A) 6.07 × 105 s1 (B) 6.07 × 10-18 s1 (C) 1.65 × 106 s1 (D) 1.65 × 1019 s1
15. What will be the effect of adding 100 ml of 0.001M-HCl solution to 100 ml of a solution having
0.1M-HA? The acid dissociation constant of HA is 10-5.
(A) The degree of dissociation of HA will decrease but the pH of solution remains unchanged.
(B) The degree of dissociation of HA remains unchanged but the pH of solution decreases.
(C) Neither degree of dissociation not pH os solution will change.
(D) The degree of dissociation as well as pH of solution will decrease.
E-23/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
16. Fear or excitement, generally cause one to breathe rapidly and it results in the decrease of concentration
of CO2 in blood. In what way, it will change PH of blood?
(A) PH will increase (B) PH will decrease (C) no change (D) PH becomes 7.0
17. H3A is a weak tribasic acid with Ka1 = 10-5, Ka2 = 10-9 and Ka3 = 10-13. The value of pX of 0.1M-H3A
[ A 3 ]
solution, where pX = - log10X and X = , is
[HA 2 ]
(A) 5.0 (B) 4.0 (C) 9.0 (D) 10.0
18. Water in equilibrium with air contains 4.4×105% CO2. The resulting carbonic acid, H2CO3, gives the
solution a hydronium ion concentration of 2.0×106M, about 20 times greater than that of pure water.
What is the pH of the solution at 298K? (log 4.4 = 0.64, l0g 2 = 0.3)
(A) 5.36 (B) 5.70 (C) 8.30 (D) 5.64
19. A 0.28 gm sample of an unknown monoprotic organic acid is dissolved in water and titrated with a 0.1M
sodium hydroxide solution. After the addition of 17.5 ml of base, a pH of 5.0 is recorded. The
equivalence point is reached when a total of 35.0 ml of NaOH is added. The molar mass of the organic
acid is
(A) 160 (B) 80 (C) 40 (D) 120
20. Calcium Lactate is a salt of weak acid and represented as Ca(Lac) 2. A saturated solution of Ca(Lac)2
contains 0.125 mole of salt in 0.50 litre solution. The POH of this is 5.60. Assuming complete
dissociation of salt, calculate Ka of Lactate acid. (log 2.5 = 0.4)
(A) 1.25×10-11 (B) 8.0×10-4 (C) 3.2×10-17 (D) 4×10-5
21. 50 ml of a solution which is 0.05M in the acid HA (pKa = 3.80) and 0.08M in HB (pKa = 8.20) is titrated
with 0.2M-NaOH solution. The pH of solution at the first equivalent point is (log 2 = 0.3, log 1.6 = 0.2)
(A) 6.0 (B) 9.2 (C) 4.8 (D) 5.9
22. When glycinium hydrochloride (NH2CH2COOH.HCl) is titrated against NaOH, pH at the first half
equivalence point is 2.40 and the pH at second half equivalence point is 9.60. The pH at first
equivalence point is
(A) 2.40 (B) 9.60 (C) 6.00 (D) 7.20
23. 30 ml of 0.06M solution of the protonated form of an amino acid, methionine (H2A+) is titrated with
0.09M-NaOH. The pH of resulting solution after addition of 20 ml of base, is (pKa1 = 2.28, pKa2 = 9.72)
O
H3N — CH — C — OH
CH2CH2SCH3
(methionine cation)
(A) 5.00 (B) 6.00 (C) 7.44 (D) 2.28
24. The pH of blood stream is maintained by a proper balance of H2CO3 and NaHCO3 concentrations. What
volume of 5M-NaHCO3 solution should be mixed with a 10 ml sample of blood which is 2M in H2CO3
in order to maintain a pH of 7.4? Ka for H2CO3 in blood is 8.0×10–7. (log2 = 0.3)
(A) 80 ml (B) 10 ml (C) 20 ml (D) 40 ml
E-24/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
o
25. 224 ml of CO2(g) at 1 atm and 0 C was passed in 1L of NaOH solution of unknown molarity. Resulting
solution when titrated with 1.0M-HCl solution, requires 30 ml for the phenolphthalein end point. The
molarity of NaOH solution used is
(A) 0.04M (B) 0.02M (C) 0.03M (D) 0.08M
26. Equilibrium constant for the acid ionisation of Fe3+
to Fe(OH)2+
and H+
is 9.0 × 10–3. What is the
maximum P which could be used so that at least 90% of the total Fe in a dilute solution exists as
H 3+
Fe3+? (log 3 = 0.48)
(A) 3.0 (B) 1.08 (C) 1.92 (D) 2.04
27. The hydronium ion concentration in a solution containing 1.8 gm NaHSO4 per 100 ml is
(Ka for HSO4 is 4.0 × 10–2)
(A) 0.60 M (B) 0.04 M (C) 0.06 M (D) 0.08 M
28. The solubility of Li3Na3(AlF6)2 is 0.0744 gm per 100 ml at 298K. Calculate the solubility product of the
salt. (Atomic masses: Li = 7, Na = 23, Al = 27, F = 19)
(A) 2.56×10-22 (B) 2×10-3 (C) 7.46×10-19 (D) 3.46×10-12
29. A sample of AgCl was treated with 5.00 ml of 2.0M-Na2CO3 solution to give Ag2CO3. The remaining
solution contained 0.00355 gm of Cl– ions per litre. The solubility product of AgCl is (Ksp ofAg2CO3 is
8.0 × 10–12).
(A) 2×10-10 (B) 1×10-10 (C) 4×10-10 (D) 8×10-10
30. The solubility product of AgC2O4 at 25C is 2.3×10–11 M3. A solution of K2C2O4 containing 0.15 moles
in 500 ml water is shaken at 25C with excess of Ag2CO3 till the following equilibrium is reached:
Ag2CO3 + K2C2O4 Ag2C2O4 + K2CO3
At equilibrium the solution contains 0.035 mole of K2CO3. Assuming the degree of dissociation of
K2C2O4 and K2CO3 to be equal, calculate the solubility product of Ag2CO3.
(A) 2.3×10-11M3 (B) 7.0×10-10M3 (C) 3.0×10-13M3 (D)7.0×10-12M3
31. The concentration of CH3COO ion in a solution prepared by adding 0.1 mole of CH3COOAg(s) in
1L of 0.1M-HCl solution is [Given: Ka(CH3COOH) = 10-5; Ksp(AgCl) = 10-10; Ksp(CH3COOAg) = 10-8]
(A) 10-3 M (B) 10-2 M (C) 10-1 M (D) 1 M
32. After solid SrCO3 was equilibrated with a buffer at pH 8.6, the solution was found to have
[Sr2+] = 2.0×10-4M, what is Ksp of SrCO3? (Ka2 for H2CO3 = 5.0×10-11, log 2 = 0.3)
(A) 4.0×10-8 (B) 8.0×10-8 (C) 7.84×10-10 (D) 3.92×10-8
33. 0.01 moles of solid AgCN is rendered soluble in one liter by adding just sufficient excess cyanide ion to
form Ag(CN)2 and the concentration of free cyanide ion is 2.5×10–7M. Determine [Ag+] in the solution
neglecting hydrolysis of cyanide ion. Kdiss for Ag(CN)2 = 1.0 × 10–20.
(A) 6.25×10-9M (B) 1.6×10-9M (C) 1.6×10-7M (D) 6.25×10-7M
34. Most ordinary soaps are sodium salt of long chain fatty acids and are soluble in water. Soaps of divalent
cations such as Ca2+ are only slightly soluble and are often seen in the common soap is calcium
palmitate, Ca[CH3(CH2)14COO]2. A hand book of chemistry lists the solubility of this soap as 0.0055 gm
per 100 ml at 25oC. If sufficient sodium soap is used to produce a final concentration of palmitate ion
equal to 0.10M in a water sample having 40 ppm Ca2+ initially, how many gm of calcium palmitate
would precipitate in a bowl containing 10L of this water sample?
(A) 5.50 (B) 2.75 (C) 11.00 (D) 0.55
E-25/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
35. Ionisation constant of weak acid, HA, and weak base, BOH, are 3.0 10-7, each at 298K. The percentage
extent of hydrolysis of salt BA, in aqueous solution, at 298K, is
(A) 25% (B) 33.33% (C) 50% (D) 75%
36. In an attempted determination of the solubility product constant of Tl2S, the solubility of this compound
in pure CO2 free water was determined as 2.0 × 10–6 M. Assume that the dissolved sulfide hydrolyses
almost completely to HS– and that the further hydrolysis to H2S can be neglected, what is the computed
Ksp? For H2S, Ka1 = 1.4×10-7, Ka2 = 1.0×10-14
(A) 6.4×10-23 (B) 1.6×10-23 (C) 3.2×10-17 (D) 3.2×10-24
37. A solution contains 0.1M – Ba2+ and 0.2M – Sr2+. If solid Na2CrO4 is added in this solution, the
maximum percentage of Ba2+ precipitated as BaCrO4, before any precipitation of SrCrO4, is
[Ksp (BaCrO4) = 1.2×10-10; Ksp (SrCrO4) = 4.0×10-9]
(A) 100% (B) 94% (C) 60% (D) 96%
38. Calculate the formation constant for the reaction of a tripositive metal ion with thiocyanate ions to form
the monocomplex if the total metal concentration in the solution is 2 × 10–3 M, the total SCN–
concentration is 1.51 × 10–3 M and the free SCN– concentration is 1.0 × 10–5 M.
(A) 7.55×104 (B) 3×105 (C) 3.33×10-6 (D) 1.5×105
39. 2.0M solution of Na2CO3 is boiled in a closed container with excess of CaF2. Very little amount of
CaCO3 and NaF are formed. If the solubility product of CaCO3 is ‘x’ and molar solubility of CaF2 is ‘y’,
the molar concentration of F– in the resulting solution after equilibrium is attained is
2y 8y3 8y3 4y3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x x x x
40. A 0.1 M solution of [Cu(NH3)4]+ is stirred with an excess of potassium cyanide sufficient to convert all
the ammonium complex to the corresponding cuprocyanide complex [Cu(CN)4]-3 and in addition to
provide the solution with an excess of CN– equal to 0.2 M. Calculate the maximum pH of the solution
when the final solution is treated with hydrogen sulphide to maintain [H2S] = 0.1M and the precipitation
of cuprous sulphide is prevented. The instability constant for [Cu(CN) 4]-3 is 6.4 × 10-15, Ka,overall of
H2S = 1.6 × 10-21, Ksp of Cu2S = 2.56 × 10-27.
(A) 4.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 10.8 (C) 3.2
41. A particular water sample has 136 ppm CaSO4. What percentage of water, by mass, must be evaporated
in a container before solid CaSO4 begins to deposit. Assume that the solubility of CaSO4 does not
change with temperature in the range 0ºC to 100ºC. Ksp of CaSO4 = 1.6 × 10–5.
(A) 80% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 60%
42. 1.0 L of solution which was in equilibrium with solid mixture of AgCl and Ag 2CrO4 was found to
contain 1×10-4 moles of Ag+ ions, 1.0×10-6 moles of Cl ions and 8.0×10-4 moles of CrO42- ions. Ag+
ions are added slowly to the above mixture (keeping the volume constant) till 8.0 10-7 moles of AgCl
got precipitated. How many moles of Ag2CrO4 were precipitated simultaneously?
(A) 7.68×10-4 (B) 4.8×10-4 (C) 8.0×10-4 (D) 7.68×10-5
43. What concentration of free CN– must be maintained in a solution that is 1.8M-AgNO3 and 0.16M- NaCl
to prevent AgCl from precipitating? Kf for Ag(CN)2 = 6.4×1017 and Ksp for AgCl = 1.8×10–10.
(A) 2.5×10-9M (B) 5×10–5M (C) 2.5×10-5M (D) 1×10-4M
E-26/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
44. A solution contains 0.1M – Mg and 0.1M – Sr2+. The concentration of H2CO3 in solution is adjusted to
2+
0.05M. Determine the pH range which would permit the precipitation of SrCO3 without any
precipitation of MgCO3. H+ ion concentration is controlled by external factors. Given: K sp(MgCO3) =
4×10-8 M2; Ksp(SrCO3) = 9×10-10 M2; Ka,overall(H2CO3) = 5 10-17; log 2 = 0.3; log 3 = 0.48.
(A) 4.78 to 5.6 (B) 4.6 to 5.78 (C) 5.78 to 6.4 (D) 5.22 to 5.4
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
1
45. For dissociation of a gas N2O5 as: N2O5(g) 2NO2(g) + O2(g). The reaction is performed at
2
constant temperature and volume. If ‘D’ is the vapour density of equilibrium mixture, ‘Po’ is initial
pressure of N2O5(g) and ‘M’ is molecular mass of N2O5, then the correct information(s) at the
equilibrium is/are
Po .M
(A) The total pressure of gases at equilibrium is .
2D
M 2D
(B) The degree of dissociation of N2O5(g) is .
3D
(5D M ).Po
(C) The partial pressure of N2O5(g) at equilibrium is .
3D
(M 2D).Po
(D) The partial pressure of O2(g) at equilibrium is .
3D
46. In a vessel of 1.0 litre capacity, O2(g) at 0.25 atm pressure and HCl(g) at 1.0 atm pressure are allowed to
react in presence of liquid water at 57oC.
4HCl(g) + O2(g) 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g); KP = 5.0×1012 atm1.
The volume occupied by liquid water is negligible, but it is sufficient at achieve equilibrium with water
vapour. The vapour pressure of water at 57oC is 0.4 atm. Select the correct statement(s) regarding the
equilibrium mixture.
(A) The partial pressure of water vapour at any stage of reaction is 0.4 atm.
(B) The partial pressure of Cl2(g) at equilibrium is 0.5 atm.
(C) The partial pressure of O2(g) at equilibrium is 5.0 ×104 atm.
(D) The partial pressure of HCl(g) at equilibrium is 2.0 ×103 atm.
47. 1.0 M solution of a dibasic acid, H2A ( K a1 = 10-6 and K a 2 = 10-10) is titrated against 1.0 M-NaOH
solution. Choose the correct information(s) regarding the relative concentrations of H 2A, HA- and A2- at
various pH during titration.
(A) At pH = 3, [H2A] is maximum (B) At pH = 6.5, [HA-] is maximum
(C) At pH = 10, [H2A] is minimum (D) At pH = 8, [A2-] is maximum
48. 100 ml of 0.2M-H3A (tribasic acid) solution is mixed with 100 ml of 0.1M-Na3A solution. Correct
information(s) related with the final solution is/are (For H3A: K1 = 10-5, K2 = 10-9, K3 = 10-13)
(A) pH = 7.00 (B) [H3A] 1.5 10-3 M
(C) [A3-] 1.5 10-9 M (D) [H2A-] 0.15 M
E-27/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION – I
Acetic acid tends to form dimer due to formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
2 CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2
The equilibrium constant for this reaction is 1.5 102 M-1 in benzene solution and 3.6 10-2 M-1 in
water. In benzene, monomer does not dissociate but in water, monomer dissociates simultaneously
with acid dissociation constant 2.0 10-5 M. Dimer does not dissociate in benzene as well as water.
49. The molar ratio of dimer to monomer for 0.1M acetic acid in benzene is equal to
(A) 150 : 1 (B) 1 : 150 (C) 5 : 2 (D) 2 : 5
50. The molar ratio of dimer to monomer for 0.1M acetic acid in water (neglecting the dissociation of acetic
acid in water) is equal to
(A) 250 : 1 (B) 1 : 250 (C) 9 : 2500 (D) 2500 : 9
51. The pH of 0.1M acetic acid solution in water, considering the simultaneous dimerisation of acid is
(A) 1 (B) 2.85 (C) 5.7 (D) 3.42
COMPREHENSION – II
Human blood has a narrow pH range of 7.3 – 7.4, which must be maintained for metabolic
processes to function properly. To keep the pH in this range, requires a delicate balance between
the concentrations of the conjugate acid-base pairs, making upto the buffer system. The main
buffer is a carbonic acid-hydrogencarbonate system, which involves the following equilibria:
CO2(g) CO2(aq)
CO2(aq) + H2O(l) H2CO3(aq)
H2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) HCO3-(aq) + H3O+(aq)
At the body temperature, the pKa for carbonic acid is 6.40. However, the normal concentration of
CO2(g) in the lungs maintains a ratio of HCO3-(aq) and H2CO3(aq) in blood plasma at about
8 : 1. H2CO3 concentration in the blood is largely controlled by breathing and respiration and
HCO3- concentration is largely controlled by excretion in urine.
If blood pH rises above 7.4, a potentially life-threatening condition called alkalosis can result. It
normally occurs in climbers suffering from oxygen deficiency at high altitude or in patients who
are hyperventilating from severe anxiety. (log 2 = 0.3)
52. The pH of blood at body temperature is
(A) 6.4 (B) 7.4 (C) 7.3 (D) 7.2
[H 2 CO 3 ]
53. The minimum permissible value of in human blood to just prevent alkalosis is
[HCO 3 ]
(A) 0.1 (B) 10 (C) 8.0 (D) 0.125
54. The only correct statement is
(A) One way to treat alkalosis can be to get the patient to breathe more quickly so that the amount of
CO2 exhaled increases and the blood becomes deficient in CO2.
(B) One way to treat alkalosis can be to get the patient breathe into a bag so that the exhaled CO 2 is
re-inhaled.
(C) pH of blood is independent of concentration of CO2.
(D) Alkalosis can not be controlled by breathing and respiration.
E-28/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
55. The theoretically computed equilibrium constant for the polymerisation of formaldehyde to glucose in
aqueous solution is 6.4 × 1019 M-5. If 1M solution of glucose were taken, what would be the equilibrium
concentration of formaldehyde, in milligram per litre?
56. It was found that when 1.0 mole of dichloroacetic acid and 4.0 moles of amylene were heated together at
363K to equilibrium state, 0.5 moles of ester were formed and the total volume of the mixture was
700 ml. In another experiment, 1.0 mole of the acid was heated at the same temperature with
some moles of amylene and the equilibrium mixture now occupied a volume of 480 ml. If the amount of
ester at equilibrium is 0.6 mole in the second experiment, how many moles of amylene was taken
initially? Amylene is one of the pentene.
57. In a 10.0L container, an equilibrium was established between SO3, SO2 and O2 gases, by starting with
900
SO3 only. The density of equilibrium mixture was found to be 16 g/L at a temperature of K. If
0.082
the degree of dissociation of SO3 is 40%, then the value of KP (in atm) for the reaction is
58. Following equilibria are established on mixing two gases A2 and C:
3A2(g) A6(g); KP = 1.6 atm-2
A2(g) + C(g) A2C(g); KP = ‘x’ atm-1
When A2(g) and C(g) are mixed in 2 : 1 molar ratio, the total pressure of gases at equilibrium is found to
be 1.4 atm and partial pressure of A6(g), 0.2 atm. The value of ‘4x’ is
59. Gaseous nitrosyl chloride (NOCl) and N2 are taken in a flask, sealed and heated to some temperature
where the total pressure would have been 1.0 bar had not the following equilibrium been established
2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
But the actual pressure was found to be 1.2 bar. Now, into the equilibrium mixture, some Cl 2 gas was
introduced at constant volume and temperature so that the total pressure would have been 8.3 bar had no
further reaction occurred but the actual pressure was found to be 8.2 bar. The equilibrium constant,
KP (in bar), for the decomposition reaction under the given experimental condition is
60. For the reaction: Br2(l) + Cl2(g) 2BrCl(g), in a closed container of volume 164L, initially 10 moles
of Cl2(g) are present at 27oC. What minimum mass (in gm) of Br2(l) must be introduced into this
container so that above equilibrium is maintained at a total pressure of 2.25 atm. Vapour pressure of
Br2(l) at 27oC is 0.25 atm. Assume that volume occupied by the liquid is negligible.
(R = 0.082 L-atm/K-mol, Atomic mass of Br = 80)
E-29/67 PC / RA # 05
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY ELECTROCHEMISTRY RA-06
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. A cell contains two hydrogen electrodes. The negative electrode is in contact with a solution of 10 –6M
hydrogen ions. The EMF of the cell is 0.118V at 25ºC. The concentration of hydrogen ions at the
positive electrode is
(A) 10-6M (B) 10-3M (C) 10-4M (D) 10-5M
2. The overall formation constant for the reaction of 6 mole of CN– with cobalt (II) is 1 × 1019. What is the
formation constant for the reaction of 6 moles of CN– with cobalt (III)? Given that
Co(CN)63- + e- Co (CN)64- ; Eº = – 0.83 V
Co3+ + e- Co2+; Eº = + 1.81 V
and 2.303 RT/F = 0.06.
(A) 1.0 × 1063 (B) 1.0 × 1025 (C) 1.0 × 10 -25 (D) 1.0 × 10-63
3. At what PH does the potential (EMF) for the disproportionation of chlorine change from a negative value
to a positive value, assuming 1.0 bar pressure and 1.0M concentration for all species except hydrogen
ion? Given:
Cl2 + 2e- 2Cl– ; Eº = 1.36 volt
2 OCl– + 4H+ + 2e- Cl2 + 2H2O; Eº = 1.63 volt.
[2.303 RT/F = 0.06]
(A) 4.5 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.25 (D) 9.0
4. The EMF of the cell: Hg(l) | Hg2Cl2(s), KCl sol. (1.0N) | Quinohydrone | Pt, is 0.210V at 298K. What is
the PH of the quinohydrone solution, the potential of the normal calomel electrode is 0.279V and Eº for
the quinohydrone electrode is 0.699V, both at the same temperature. [2.303 RT/F = 0.06]
(A) 3.5 (B) 7.0 (C) 1.85 (D) - 3.5
5. The potential (EMF) of a cell consisting of an anode of silver in 0.10M-AgNO3 solution and a cathode
of Pt immersed in a solution of 1.6M-Cr2O72¯, 0.4M-Cr3+ and 0.1M-H+ is (E°Ag+|Ag = 0.80V and
E0Cr O ¯|Cr3+ = 1.33 V, 2.303RT/F = 0.06)
2 7
2
(A) 0.46V (B) 0.60V (C) 0.53V (D) - 0.17V
6. What is the EMF of the cell: Pt, H2 (1atm) | CH3COOH (0.1M) || (0.01M) NH4OH | H2 (1atm), Pt?
Given: Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10-5, Kb for NH4OH = 1.8 × 10-5, 2.303 RT/F = 0.06, log 1.8 = 0.25)
(A) 0.465V (B) - 0.465V (C) - 0.2325V (D) - 0.93V
7. Two electrochemical cells are assembled in which the following reactions occur:
V2+ + VO2+ + 2H+ 2V3+ + H2O; EºCell = 0.616 V
V3+ + Ag+ + H2O VO2+ + Ag(s) + 2H+; EºCell = 0.439 V
If EºAg+|Ag = 0.799 V, what is EºV3+|V2+?
(A) - 0.256 V (B) + 0.256 V (C) + 1.854 V (D) - 1.854 V
E-30/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
8. A depolariser used in dry cell batteries is
(A) NH4Cl (B) MnO2 (C) KOH (D) Na3PO4
9. The EMF of cell: H2(g) | Buffer || Normal calomel Electrode, is 0.70V at 25ºC, when barometric
pressure is 760 mm. What is the PH of the buffer solution? EºCalomel = 0.28V. [2.303 RT/F = 0.06]
(A) 3.5 (B) 7.0 (C) tending to zero (D) tending to 14.0
10. A Tl+|Tl couple was prepared by saturating 0.10M-KBr with TlBr and allowing Tl+ ions form the
insoluble bromide to equilibrate. This couple was observed to have a potential – 0.444V with respect to
Pb2+|Pb couple in which Pb2+ was 0.10M. What is the Ksp of TlBr.
[Given: E0Pb2 |Pb = – 0.126V, E oTl | Tl = - 0.336V, log 2.5 = 0.4, 2.303 RT/F = 0.06]
(A) 4.0 ×10-6 (B) 2.5 ×10-4 (C) 4.0 ×10-5 (D) 6.3 ×10-3
11. The standard reduction potential at 25ºC of the reaction 2H2O + 2e– H2 + 2OH– is – 0.84 volt.
Calculate equilibrium constant for the reaction: 2H2O H3O + OH at 25ºC. (2.303 RT/F = 0.06)
+ –
(A) 10-14 (B) 1014 (C) 107 (D) 10-7
12. The minimum mass of NaOH required to be added in RHS to consume all the H+ present in RHS of the
cell of EMF, + 0.70V at 25ºC, before its use.
Zn | Zn2+ (0.01M) || HCl (V = 500 ml) | H2 (1 bar) | Pt
Given: EºZn2+|Zn = – 0.76 V; 2.303 RT/F = 0.06
(A) 2.0 gm (B) 4.0 gm (C) 0.2 gm (D) 0.4 gm
13. The EMF of the cell: Ag, AgCl in 0.1M-KCl || satd. NH4NO3 || 0.1M-AgNO3, Ag is 0.42V at 25ºC.
0.1M-KCl is 50% dissociated and 0.1M-AgNO3 is 40% dissociated. The solubility product of AgCl is
(2.303 RT/F = 0.06)
(A) 1.0×10-10 (B) 2.0×10-9 (C) 1.0×10-9 (D) 2.0×10-10
14. On the basis of information available from the reaction
4 Al + 3O2 2Al2O3; G = 965 kJ/mol of O2
The minimum EMF required to carry out electrolysis of Al2O3 is
(A) 0.833 V (B) 2.5 V (C) 5.0 V (D) 1.67 V
15. The theoretical efficiency of a hypothetical cell is about 84% which involves the following reaction
A(s) + B2+ (aq) A2+(aq) + B(s); H = – 285 kJ,
then, the standard EMF of the cell is
(A) 1.10 V (B) 1.24 V (C) 2.48 V (D) 2.20 V
16. To a beaker containing 0.1M-HCl, a little pure solid AgCl is added. Both a silver and a hydrogen
electrode ( PH 2 =1.0 bar) are then placed in the solution. What is the approximate value of EMF
measured between the electrodes at 25C?
o
(Given: E Ag |Ag = 0.80 V, Ksp (AgCl) = 10–10, 2.303RT/F = 0.06)
(A) 0.92 V (B) 0.32 V (C) 1.28 V (D) 0.56 V
E-31/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
17. When metallic copper is shaken with a solution of a copper salt, the reaction Cu + Cu 2+ 2Cu+
2+ + 2 6 -1
proceeds. When equilibrium is established at 298K, [Cu ]/[Cu ] = 1.667×10 M . If the standard
potential of the Cu2+ | Cu half cell is + 0.3376V, what is the standard potential of Cu+| Cu half cell?
(Given: 2.303 RT/F = 0.06, log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48)
(A) -0.3732 V (B) 0.6752 V (C) 0.5242 V (D) 0.151 V
18. A solution containing 1.0M each of Cu(NO3)2, Mg(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg(NO3)2 is being electrolysed using
inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode potential are: Ag+|Ag = 0.80V, Hg2+|Hg = 0.79V,
Cu2+|Cu = 0.34V, Mg2+|Mg = – 2.37V. With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposit of metals on the
cathode will be
(A) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg (B) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag (C) Ag, Mg, Cu (D) Cu, Hg, Ag
19. An ammeter and a copper voltameter are connected in series in an electric circuit through which a
constant direct current flow. The ammeter shows 0.5 ampere. If 0.635 gm of Cu is deposited in
0.965 hour, what is the percentage error of ammeter? (Cu = 63.5)
(A) 5 % (B) 10 % (C) 9 % (D) 90 %
20. Assuming that copper contains only iron, silver and gold as impurities. After passage of 12.4 ampere for
4825 seconds, the mass of anode decreased by 20.00 gm and the cathode increased by 19.05gm. The
percentage of iron and copper in the original sample are respectively (Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56)
(A) 4.75%, 95.25% (B) 2.8%, 95.25% (C) 95.25%, 4.75% (D) 95.25%, 1.91%
21. A lead storage battery has initially 200 gm of lead and 200 gm of PbO 2 plus excess H2SO4.
Theoretically, how long could this cell deliver a current of 10.0A, without recharging, if it were possible
to operate it so that the reaction goes to completion? (Pb = 208)
(A) 16083.33 sec (B) 8041.67 sec (C) 44.68 sec (D) 18557.7 sec
22. To perform an analysis of a mixture of metal ions by electro-deposition, the second metal to be
deposited must not being plating out until the concentration ratio of the second to the first is about 10 6.
What must be the minimum difference in standard potential of the two metals which form dipositive
ions in order for such an analysis to be feasible?
(A) 0.177 V (B) 0.354 V (C) 0.708 V (D) 0.088 V
23. During the electrolysis of 0.1M-CuSO4 solution using copper electrodes, a depletion of Cu2+ occurs near
the cathode with a corresponding excess near the anode, owing to inefficient stirring of the solution. If
the local concentration of Cu2+ near the anode and cathode are respectively 0.12M and 0.08M, the back
EMF developed at 298K is (log 1.5 = 0.18, 2.303 RT/F = 0.06)
(A) 0.33V (B) 5.4 mV (C) 2.7 mV (D) 10.8 mV
24. At the Nangal fertilizer plant in Punjab, hydrogen is produced by the electrolysis of water. The hydrogen
is used for the production of ammonia and nitric acid (by the oxidation of ammonia). If the average
production of ammonium nitrate is 1152 Kg/day, the daily consumption of electricity (in amp-day) is
(A) 96500 (B) 48250 (C) 32166.67 (D) 24125
25. H2O2 can be prepared by successive reactions:
2 NH4HSO4 H2 + (NH4)2S2O8
(NH4)2S2O8 + 2H2O 2 NH4HSO4 + H2O2
The first reaction is an electrolytic reaction and second is steam distillation. What amount of current
would have to be used in first reaction to produce enough intermediate to yield 102 gm pure H 2O2 per
hour. Assume current efficiency 50%.
(A) 643.33 amp (B) 321.67 amp (C) 160.83 amp (D) 1286.67 amp
E-32/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
26. Equal volumes of 0.015M-CH3COOH and 0.015M-NaOH solutions are mixed together. What would be
the molar conductivity of mixture if conductivity of CH3COONa is 6.3×10-4 S cm-1?
(A) 0.84 S cm2 mol-1 (B) 8.4 S cm2 mol-1 (C) 84 S cm2 mol-1 (D) 42 S cm2 mol-1
27. In an analytical determination of arsenic, a solution containing arsenious acid, H3AsO3, KI and a small
amount of starch is electrolysed. The electrolysis produces free I2 from I– ions and the I2 immediately
oxidises the arsenious acid to hydrogen arsenate ion, HAsO42–.
I2 + H3AsO3 + H2O 2I– + HAsO42– + 4H+
When the oxidation of arsenic is complete, the free iodine combines with the starch to give a deep blue
colour. If during a particular run, it takes 96.5 sec for a current of 1.68 mA to give an end point
(indicated by the blue colour), how many gm of arsenic are present in the solution. (As = 75)
(A) 6.3×10-4 gm (B) 1.26×10-4 gm (C) 3.15×10-5 gm (D) 6.3×10-5 gm
28. The reactions taking place in the dry cell are:
Anode: Zn Zn2+ + 2e–
Cathode: 2MnO2 + 2NH4+ + 2e– Mn2O3 + 2NH3 + H2O
Which of the following is not the minimum mass of reactants, if a dry cell is to generate 0.25A for
9.65 hours, are (Mn = 55, Zn = 65.4) (neglect any other chemical reactions occurring in the cell)
(A) 2.943 gm Zn (B) 7.83 gm MnO2 (C) 1.62 gm NH4+ (D)3.915 gm MnO2
29. The resistance of a solution A is 50 ohms and that of solution B is 100 ohms, both solutions being taken
in the same conductivity cell. If equal volumes of solution A and B are mixed, what will be the
resistance of the mixture using the same cell? Assume that there is no increase in the degree of
dissociation of A and B on mixing.
(A) 150 ohm (B) 75 ohm (C) 33.33 ohm (D) 66.67 ohm
30. In a conductivity cell, the two platinum electrodes, each of area 10 cm2 are fixed 1.5 cm apart. The cell
contained 0.05N solution of a salt. If the two electrodes are just half dipped into the solution which has a
resistance of 50 ohms, the equivalent conductance of the salt solution, in ohm-1cm2eq-1, is
(A) 120 (B) 60 (C) 240 (D) 3000
31. A cell whose resistance, when filled with 0.1M-KCl is 200 ohm, is measured to be 6400 ohm, when
filled with 0.003M-NaCl solution. What is the molar conductance of NaCl solution, in ohm-1 cm2 mol-1 if
the molar conductance of 0.1M-KCl is 120 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1?
(A) 41.67 (B) 250 (C) 125 (D) 375
32. At 18ºC, the ionic mobilities of NH4+ and CrO42- ions are 6.6 × 10-8 and 5.4 × 10-8 m2 volt-1 sec-1 at
infinite dilution. What is the molar conductance of ammonium chromate solution in ohm-1 m2 mol-1?
(A) 0.01795 (B) 0.01158 (C) 0.02316 (D) 1.86×10-7
E-33/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION – I
Billions of dollars are spent each year to replace or prevent the corrosion and subsequent
destruction of government property such as ships, bridges, and metallic piping. Corrosion may
result in decreased structural integrity and eventual ineffectuality. For example, a naval ship
made from iron is highly susceptible to corrosion. One part of the hull acts as the anode, while
another acts as the cathode, the iron hull itself connects the two parts, completing the circuit. Part
of the metal hull begins oxidising to Fe2+ in the presence of H2O and O2, the reduction reaction
proceeds with an Ered = 1.229V. It is there that Fe2+ ions migrate from the anode and are further
oxidised as
1
2Fe2+(aq) + O2(g) + (6 + x)H2O(l) Fe2O3xH2O(s) + 4H3O+(aq)
2
The Fe2O3, or rust, formed is only a small part of the problem. Pitting, or loss of solid metal,
weaken the structure of the hull and may lead to serious damage and destruction of the hull. Using
a sacrificial anode often successfully prevents corrosion. This metal, more easily oxidized than
iron. Although the sacrificial anode eventually corrodes as well, the cost of replacing it is far less
than that of replacing the iron hull.
Half Reaction Potential
O2 + 4H+ + 4e– 2H2O E = 1.229 V
3+ – 2+
Fe + e Fe E = 0.771 V
+ –
Cu + e Cu E = 0.521 V
– –
O2 + 2H2O + 4e 4OH E = 0.401 V
2+ –
Cu + 2e Cu E = 0.342 V
2+ –
Pb + 2e Pb E = – 0.126 V
2+ –
Fe + 2e Fe E = – 0.447 V
2+ –
Mn + 2e Mn E = – 1.185 V
2+ –
Mg + 2e Mg E = – 2.372 V
33. Which of the following reactions may occur at the anode of the iron hull?
(A) Fe2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) + e- (B) Fe(s) Fe2+(aq) + 2e-
(C) O2(g) + 4H3O+(aq) 6H2O(l) + 4e- (D) 2H2O(l) 2OH(aq) + H2(g) + 2e-
34. What is the standard voltage generated by the corrosion reaction on the iron hull of a ship?
(A) – 1.676 V (B) – 0.782 V (C) 1.782 V (D) 1.676 V
35. Which of the following materials could not serve as a sacrificial anode for lead?
(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Magnesium (D) Manganese
36. An ammeter reading shows a current of 0.50A running through the iron hull. How many grams of Fe(s)
are lost in 1.0 hours?
(A) 0.261 gm (B) 0.522 gm (C) 1.044 gm (D) 0.783 gm
37. A ship that has sunk to the bottom of the ocean may still exhibit corrosion. One difference in the
corrosion reaction between ship above water and one that has sunk of the bottom of the ocean may be
that
(A) the oxidation reaction of the sunken ship does not include H2O as a reactant.
(B) the oxidation reaction of the sunken ship does not include O2 as a reactant.
(C) the reduction reaction of the sunken ship does not include H2O as a reactant.
(D) the reduction reaction of the sunken ship does not include O2 as a reactant.
E-34/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (NEAREST INTEGER):
38. An alloy of lead (valency = 2)-thallium (valency = 1) containing 70% Pb and 30% Tl, by weight, can be
electroplated onto a cathode from a perchloric acid solution. How many hours (approx.) would be
required to deposit 5.0 gm of this alloy at a current of 1.10 amp? (Pb = 208, Tl = 204)
39. Iridium was plated from a solution containing IrCl 6y for 2.0 hour with a current of 0.075 amp. The
Iridium deposited on the cathode weighed 0.36 gm. If the oxidation state of Ir in IrCl 6y is ‘x’, then the
value of (x + y) is (Ir = 192)
40. The electrolysis of cold sodium chloride solution produces sodium hypochlorite by reacting NaOH and
Cl2 thoroughly. How long (in days) will a cell operate to produce 10 litre of 7.45% (by mass) solution of
NaClO if the cell current is 2.5 ampere? Assume that the density of solution is 1.0 gm/ml.
41. A test for complete removal of Cu2+ ions from a solution of Cu2+ is to add NH3(aq). A blue colour
signifies the formation of complex [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ having Kf = 1.1×1013 and thus confirms the presence of
Cu2+ in solution. 250 ml of 0.1M-CuSO4 is electrolysed by passing a current of 5 ampere for 1351
second. After passage of this charge, sufficient quantity of NH3 is added to electrolysed solution
maintaining [NH3] = 0.10 M. If [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ is detectable upto its concentration as low as 1×10-5M,
would a blue colour be shown by the electrolysed solution on addition of NH3. Mark ‘1’, if the answer is
‘yes’ and mark ‘2’, if the answer is ‘no’.
42. A dilute solution of KCl was placed between two platinum electrodes, 12 cm apart, across which a
potential of 1.93 volts was applied. How far (in cm) would the K+ ion move in 20 hours at 25ºC? Ionic
conductance of K+ ion at infinite dilution at 25ºC is 7.5×10-3 mho m2 mol-1.
43. In the refining of silver by electrolytic method, what will be the final mass (in gm) of 72.8 gm silver
anode (60% pure, by weight), if 9.65 ampere current is passed for 1 hour? (Ag = 108)
44. On passing electricity through nitrobenzene solution, it is converted into azobenzene. The mass of
azobenzene (in gm) produced, if the same quantity of electricity produces oxygen just sufficient to burn
96 gm of fullerene (C60), is
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
45. An excess of liquid mercury is added to an acidified solution of 10-3M-Fe3+. It is found that 10% of Fe3+
remains at equilibrium at 25ºC. The value of E oHg 2 |Hg (in V), assuming that the only reaction that occurs
2
is: 2Hg + 2Fe3+ Hg22+ + 2Fe2+, is
(Given: E0Fe3 |Fe2 = 0.7724V, log2 = 0.3, log3 = 0.48, 2.303 RT/F = 0.06)
46. Given Eo = 0.08V for Fe3+(cyt b)|Fe2+(cyt b) couple and Eo = 0.20V for Fe3+(cyb c1)|Fe2+(cyt c1) couple,
where Eo represents the standard state reduction potentials at PH = 7.0 at 25ºC and cyt is an abbreviation
for cytochromes. The value of Keq for the reaction
Fe3+ (cyt c1) + Fe2+ (cyt b) Fe2+ (cyt c1) + Fe3+ (cyt b)
is (2.303 RT/F = 0.06)
47. EMF of the cell: Cd(s) | CdCl2.5H2O (sat.) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) is + 0.70 V at 0ºC and + 0.60V at 50ºC. If
Ho and So are temperature independent, then the value of So (in J/K-mol) for the cell reaction is
E-35/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
48. A conductivity cell, when filled with an aqueous solution of 0.02M-KCl at 25oC, had a resistance of
240 ohm. Its resistance, when filled with 6 10-5M-NH4OH solution was 105 ohm. Calculate the degree
of dissociation of NH4OH. Given:
Conductivity of 0.02M-KCl solution was 0.2714 S m-1.
Molar conductances at infinite dilution of NH4+ and OH- ions are 7.34 10-3 and 1.98 10-2 S m2 mol-1,
respectively.
49. For K+(aq), om = 7.720 10-3 S m2 mol-1. Determine the speed (in 10-5 ms-1) of ion under the influence
of an electric field strength of 1.50 V cm-1.
50. At 25oC, the conductivity of carefully distilled water is 57.2 10-7 S m-1 and the om values for H+ and
OH- ions are 350.5 10-4 and 199.5 10-4 S m2 mol-1, respectively. Assuming that m differs very little
from 𝑜𝑚 , calculate the ionic product of water (in 10-14 M2) at 25oC.
E-36/67 PC / RA # 06
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY SOLID STATE RA-07
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. Is there an expansion or contraction as iron transform from hcp to bcc? The atomic radius of iron is
125 pm in hcp but 50 2 pm in bcc.
(A) Expansion (B) Contraction
(C) Neither expansion nor contraction (D) Unpredictable
o
2. A solid element (monoatomic) exist in cubic crystal. If its atomic radius is 1.0 A and the ration of
packing fraction and density is 0.1 cm3/gm, then the atomic mass of the element is (NA = 6×1023)
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 80 (D) 4
3. The sublimation temperature of a substance is -83oC. It exists as cubic closed packed structure with unit
o 8
cell edge length 5.0 A and density gm/cm3, at -100oC. What should be density of substance at
3
0oC and 1 atm? (NA = 6×1023)
(A) 50 gm/cm3 (B) 2.23 gm/cm3 (C) 2.23 gm/liter (D) 1.86 gm/liter
4. An alkali metal has density 4.5 gm/cm3. It has cubic unit cell with edge length 400 pm. Reaction of
7.68 cm3 chunk of the metal with an excess of HCl solution gives a colourless gas which occupies 4.54L
at 0oC and 1 bar. The unit cell of metal is
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body centered (C) Face centered (D) End centered
5. The densities of ice and water at 0oC and 1 bar are 0.96 and 0.99 gm/cm3, respectively. If the percentage
of occupied space in ice is ‘x’, then the percentage of empty space in water is
32 33 33 32
(A) x (B) x (C) 100 - x (D) 100 - x
33 32 32 33
6. A metal crystallises in such a lattice in which only 70% of the total space of the crystal is occupied by
the atoms. If the atomic mass of the metal is 32 gm/mol and the atomic radius is 0.2 nm, the density of
the metal is
(A) 7.0 gm/cm3 (B) 3.5 gm/cm3 (C) 10.5 gm/cm3 (D) 14.0 gm/cm3
7. A metal having atomic mass 60.22 gm/mole crystallises in ABCABC…. type packing. The density of
o
each metal atom if the edge length of unit cell is 10 A , is (NA = 6.022×1023)
(A) 0.4 gm/cm3 (B) 40 gm/cm3 (C) 0.54 gm/cm3 (D) 54 gm/cm3
8. There are three cubic unit cells A, B and C. A is FCC and all of its tetrahedral voids are also occupied. B
is also FCC and all of its octahedral voids are also occupied. C is simple cubic and all of its cubic voids
are also occupied. If voids in all unit cells are occupied by the spheres exactly at their limiting radius,
then the order of packing efficiency would be
(A) A < B < C (B) C < A < B (C) C < B < A (D) A < C < B
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
9. In a cubic closest packed structure of mixed oxides, the lattice is made up of oxide ions. Tetrahedral
voids are occupied by divalent X2+ ions and octahedral voids are occupied by trivalent Y3+ ions. If only
50% of the octahedral voids are occupied, then the percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied is
(A) 50% (B) 12.5% (C) 25% (D) 40%
10. The theoretical density of ZnS is ‘d’ gm/cm3. If the crystal has 4% Frenkel defect, then the actual
density of ZnS should be
(A) ‘d’ gm/cm3 (B) 0.04d gm/cm3 (C) 0.96d gm/cm3 (D) 1.04d gm/cm3
11. In a crystal, at 827oC, one out of 1010 lattice site is found to be vacant but at 927oC, one out of 2 109
lattice sites is found to be vacant. The enthalpy of vacancy formation, in kJ/mol, is
(A) 76.8 (B) 176.8 (C) 33.8 (D) 23.8
12. In which of the following impurity defect, the number of cation vacancies is not equal to the number of
cations doped?
(A) SrCl2 doped in NaCl crystal (B) AlCl3 doped in NaCl crystal
(C) CdCl2 doped in AgCl (D) MgCl2 doped in KCl crystal
13. The composition of a sample of cuprous oxide is found to be Cu1.92O1.00, due to metal deficient defect.
The molar ratio of Cu2+ and Cu+ ions in the crystal is
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 1 : 12.5 (C) 1 : 23 (D) 1 : 24
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
14. Which of the following information(s) is/are incorrect regarding the voids formed in three dimensional
hexagonal close packing of identical spheres?
(A) A tetrahedral void is formed when a sphere of the second layer is present above the triangular void
of the first layer.
(B) All the triangular voids are not covered by the spheres of the second layer.
(C) Tetrahedral voids are formed when the triangular voids in the second layer lie above the triangular
voids in the first layer and the triangular shapes of these voids do not overlap.
(D) Octahedral voids are formed when the triangular voids in the second layer exactly overlap with
similar voids in the first layer.
15. Which of the following is/are correct regarding point defects in solids?
(A) The density of point defect increases with the increase in rate of crystallisation.
(B) In the formation of point defects, the entropy of system increases but the entropy of surrounding
decreases.
(C) The density of point defect increases with the increase in temperature.
(D) All point defects results decrease in the density of the solid.
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION - I
Silicon carbide (SiC) and diamond are covalent solids which crystallises in cubic structures. In
SiC, carbon atoms occupy lattice points of the fcc lattice and silicon atoms occupy half of the
tetrahedral voids available. In diamond, the same tetrahedral voids are occupied by carbon atoms.
The densities of SiC and diamond are 3.2 and 3.6 gm/cm3, respectively.
[NA = 6 × 1023, (0.54)3 = 0.15, (2.5)3 = 15.00, Si = 28]
16. The radius of carbon atom is
o o o o
(A) 0.78 A (B) 1.12 A (C) 3.2 A (D) 3.6 A
17. The radius of silicon atom is
o o o o
(A) 0.76 A (B) 1.17 A (C) 3.2 A (D) 3.6 A
18. Which of the following will not change the density of solid SiC?
(A) Substitution of some Si-atoms by some C-atoms.
(B) Schottky defect
(C) Interchange of position of Si and C-atoms.
(D) Decrease in temperature of solid.
19. If the similar volume of SiC and diamond are considered, which of the following is the true statement?
(A) The number of Si-atoms in SiC is 3.75 times the number of C-atoms in diamond.
(B) The number of C-atoms in diamond is 2.00 times the number of Si-atoms in SiC.
(C) The number of SiC formula units is 3.75 times the number of C-atoms in diamond.
(D) The number of C-atoms in diamond is 3.75 times the number of SiC formula units.
20. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(A) The packing efficiency of SiC is greater than that of diamond.
(B) The coordination number of Si and C-atoms in SiC is same.
(C) The number of C – C bonds per unit cell in diamond is 16.
(D) The coordination number of C-atoms in SiC is half of that of C-atoms in diamond.
COMPREHENSION - II
The moles of Schottky and Frenkel defects in an ionic crystal is given as: N = N o. eE/2RT and
No .Ni .eE/2RT, where No is the number of ideal lattice points, Ni is the number of available
interstitial sites and E is the activation energy of the formation of respective defect. For NaCl
crystal, the activation energies of formation of these defects are 46 and 73.6 Kcal/mol, respectively.
(ln 10 = 2.3)
21. The mole fraction of Schottky defects in a NaCl crystal at 1000K is
(A) 1.0 × 10-5 (B) 1.41 × 10–8 (C) 2.0 × 10-5 (D) 5.0 × 10-6
22. The mole fraction of Frenkel defects in a NaCl crystal at 1000K is
(A) 1.0 × 10-5 (B) 1.41 × 10–8 (C) 1.0 × 10-8 (D) 2.0 × 10-8
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
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SUBJECTIVE (SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER):
23. Methane crystallises in a cubic unit cell with edge length 0.6 nm. The density of solid CH 4 is only
slightly greater than the density of liquid CH4. If the density of liquid CH4 is 0.5 gm/cm3, the number of
CH4 molecules per unit cell is
24. A strong current of trivalent gaseous boron passed through a silicon crystal decreases the density of the
crystal due to part replacement of silicon by boron and due to interstitial vacancies created by missing Si
atoms. In one such experiment, one gram of silicon is taken and the boron atoms are found to be
1000 ppm, by mass, when the density of the Si crystal decreases by 12%. The percentage of missing
vacancies due to silicon, which are filled up by boron atoms is (Atomic masses: Si = 30, B = 11)
25. A metal ‘M’ (atomic mass = 31.25) crystallises in cubic close packing but it has some vacancy defect. If
the edge length of the unit cell is 500 pm and the density of the metal is 1.6075 gm/cm3, then the number
of moles of metal atoms missing per litre of the crystal is (1 amu = 1.67×10-24 gm)
26. The density of graphite is 2.4 gm/ml and the spacing between the layers is found by X-ray diffraction to
o
be 2 3 Å. If the carbon-carbon distance in the molecular layers is ‘x’ A , then the value of 1.08 × x2 is
27. The total number of ions per unit cell in sphalerite (zinc blend) structure if there is a Schottky defect of
one anion per unit cell, is
28. The approximate percentage of vacant space in a Silicon cubic cell having crystal structure similar to
diamond
29. An ideal crystal, AB, has rock salt structure in which A+ is occupying octahedral voids. The crystal is
doped with atoms of ‘C’ which occupy all the tetrahedral voids without distorting the lattice. If the
crystal shows defect such that the body centered atom is missing, then the percentage of body diagonal
covered by ions/atoms in the defective crystal is (Given: 1.5 = 29/24)
30. The structure of crystalline macromolecules may be determined by X–ray diffraction techniques using
method similar to those for smaller molecules. Fully crystalline polyethylene has its chain aligned in an
orthorhombic unit cell of dimensions 667 pm×500 pm×280 pm. There are two repeating CH2CH2 units
per unit cell. The theoretical density of fully crystalline polyethylene (in kg/m3) is (NA = 6 × 1023)
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
31. Insulin forms crystals of orthorhombic type with unit cell dimensions of 12.5×8.0×3.0 nm3. If the
density of the crystal is 1.5×103 kg/m3 and there are six insulin molecules per unit cell, the molar mass of
insulin (in Kg/mol) is
32. The density of crystalline sodium chloride is 2.167 gm/cm3. What would be the side length (in cm) of
cube containing one mole of NaCl?
33. X-ray diffraction analysis of crystalline C60 (buckminsterfullerene) shows that the crystal structure at
300K can be regarded as face centered cubic with a one-molecule basis and unit cell edge length of
2 nm; the molecules are orientationally disordered due to rotation. The center-to-center distance
(in nm) between nearest neighbor C60 molecules in the solid at 300K is
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(SET-03)
186 214
34. KF crystallises in the NaCl type structure. If the radius of K+ ion is pm and F- ion is pm,
2 2
o
what is the shortest distance between K+- K+ ions (in A )?
MATCH THE COLUMN (ONLY ONE MATCH FOR EACH):
35. Match the solids in column – I with the properties in column – II:
Column – I Column – II
(A) Cobalt (P) A white solid melting at 613C; the liquid
is electrically conducting, although the
solid is not.
(B) Iodoform (Q) A very hard, blackish solid subliming at
2700C
(C) Lithium chloride (R) A yellow solid with a characteristic odor
having a melting point of 120C
(D) Silicon carbide (S) A gray, lustrous solid melting at 1495C;
both the solid and liquid are electrical
conductors.
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY LIQUID SOLUTION RA-08
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. The only incorrect statement regarding Henry’s law for a gas dissolving in water, is
(A) The value of KH (Henry’s constant) is greater for O2 than H2 at same temperature.
(B) The value of KH increases with the increase in temperature.
(C) Henry’s law is not applicable for HCl(g).
(D) Henry’s law is applicable when the solubility of gas is very low.
2. A ‘100 proof’ solution of ethanol in water consists of 50.00 ml of C2H5OH(l) and 50.00 ml of H2O(l)
mixed at 15.56oC. The density of the solution is 0.9344 gm/ml, that of pure H2O is 1.0000 gm/ml and
that of pure C2H5OH is 0.7939 gm/ml. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the
solution?
(A) The solution is ideal.
(B) The solution shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
(C) The solution shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(D) Mass percent of ethanol in the solution is more than 50%.
3. A beaker (A) contains 20 gm sugar in 100 gm water. Another beaker (B) contains 10 gm of sugar in
100 gm water. Both the beakers are placed under a bell jar and allowed to stand until equilibrium is
reached. How much water will be transferred from one beaker to the other? Neglect the mass of water
vapour present at equilibrium.
(A) 0
(B) 33.33 gm water will transfer from beaker – A to beaker – B.
(C) 33.33 gm water will transfer from beaker – B to beaker – A.
(D) 50.00 gm water will transfer from beaker – B to beaker – A.
4. 10 gm of solute ‘A’ and 20 gm of solute ‘B’ are both dissolved in 500 ml water. The solution is isotonic
with the solution obtained by dissolving 6.67 gm of ‘A’ and 30 gm of ‘B’ in 500 ml water at the same
temperature. The ratio of molar masses, MA : MB, is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3
5. Based upon the technique of reverse osmosis, the approximate minimum pressure required to desalinate
sea water containing 2.5% (w/v) NaCl at 27oC should be
(A) 10.5 atm (B) 21 atm (C) 2.1 atm (D) 1.05 atm
6. The osmotic coefficient of a non-electrolyte is related to the freezing point depression by the expression,
= Tf /(m.Kf). The depression in freezing point of 0.4 molal aqueous solution of sucrose is 0.93oC. The
osmotic coefficient is (Kf of water = 1.86 K-Kg/mol)
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.25 (D) 0.125
7. The amino acid alanine has two isomers, -alanine and -alanine. When equal masses of these two
compounds are dissolved in equal mass of a solvent, the solution of -alanine freezes at relatively lower
temperature. Which form, -alanine or -alanine, has the larger equilibrium constant for ionisation.
(A) –alanine (B) – alanine (C) same for both (D) unpredictable
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
8. What is the boiling point of a solution of 1.00 gm of naphthalene dissolved in 94.0 gm of toluene? The
normal boiling point of toluene is 110.75oC and Kx,b = 32.0K for toluene.
(A) 110.95oC (B) 111.0oC (C) 113.41oC (D) 110.75C
9. 3.125 gm of a mixture of KCl and NaCl dissolved in one kg of water produces a depression of 0.186ºC
in freezing point. The molar ratio of KCl to NaCl in the solution (assuming complete dissociation of the
salts) is (Kf = 1.86 deg/molal)
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
10. A dilute solution contains ‘n’ mole of solute ‘A’ in 1 kg of a solvent with molal elevation constant K b.
The solute A undergoes dimerisation as 2A ⇌ A2. If Tb is elevation in boiling point of given solution
and molality = molarity, the equilibrium constant, KC, for dimer formation is
K b (n.K b Tb ) K b (n.K b Tb ) K b .n.Tb (n.K b Tb )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(2.Tb n.K b ) (2.Tb n.K b ) 2
(2.Tb n.K b ) 2 (n.Tb 2.K b ) 2
11. Two solvents ‘A’ and ‘B’ have Kf values 1.86 and 2.79 K mol-1 kg, respectively. A given amount of a
substance, when dissolved in 500 gm of ‘A’, completely dimerises and when the same amount of the
substance is dissolved in 500 gm of ‘B’, the solute undergoes trimerisation. The ratio of observed
lowering of freezing point in two cases is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 4 : 9 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
12. The molar latent heat of vaporization of a certain liquid is 4.9 kcal/mol. The normal boiling point of the
liquid is 77ºC. The change in boiling point per atm increase in pressure at the normal boiling point of the
liquid is
(A) 50 deg/atm (B) 0.02 deg/atm (C) 5.0 deg/atm (D) 0.05 deg/atm
13. 6.4 gm sulphur dissolved in 200 gm of CS2 raises the boiling point of the solvent by 0.32ºC. Boiling
point of CS2 = 47ºC and latent heat of vaporisation of CS2 = 80.0 cal/gm. The molecular formula of
sulphur in this liquid is
(A) S8 (B) S4 (C) S2 (D) S
14. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution is found to be 750 torr at a temperature, T, and the same
solution show an elevation in boiling point equal to 1.04K. If T is the boiling point of pure water, then
the atmospheric pressure should be (Kb of water = 0.52 K-kg/mol)
(A) 760 torr (B) 777 torr (C) 746 torr (D) 750 torr
15. The boiling point and freezing point of a solvent ‘A’ is 90.0ºC and 3.5ºC, respectively. Kf and Kb values
of the solvent are 17.5 and 5.0 K-Kg/mol, respectively. What is the boiling point of a solution of ‘B’
(non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute) in ‘A’, if the solution freezes at 2.8ºC?
(A) 90.0ºC (B) 89.8ºC (C) 90.2ºC (D) 90.7oC
16. A very small amount of nonvolatile solute (that does not dissociate) is dissolved in 56.8 cm3 of benzene
(density 0.889 g cm-3). At room temperature, vapour pressure of this solution is 100 mm Hg while that
of benzene is 102 mm Hg. If the freezing temperature of this solution is 1.3 degree lower than that of
benzene, what is the value of molal freezing point depression constant of benzene?
(A) 5.07 deg/molal (B) 1.3 deg/molal (C) 3.9 deg/molal (D) 4.97 deg/molal
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
17. Liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ form a solution resulting minimum boiling azeotrope. Which of the following is/are
correct parameters for the solution?
(A) Hmix = +ve (B) Smix = +ve (C) |Ssurr| < |Smix| (D) Vmix = - ve
18. A non-volatile solute ‘X’ completely dimerises in water, if the temperature is below 3.72oC and the
solute completely dissociates as X Y + Z, if the temperature is above 100.26oC. In between these two
temperatures (including both temperatures), the solute is neither dissociated nor associated. One mole of
‘X’ is dissolved in 1.0 kg water (Kb = 0.52 K-Kg/mol, Kf = 1.86 K-Kg/mol). Identify the incorrect
information related with the solution.
(A) The freezing point of solution is – 1.86oC.
(B) The boiling point of solution is 101.04oC.
(C) When the solution is cooled to – 7.44oC, 75% of water present initially will separate as ice.
(D) When the solution is heated to 102.08oC, 50% of water present initially will escape out as vapour.
19. Blood cells in the human body have semi-permeable membrane and depending upon concentration of
solution inside blood cells and outside (in the blood), ‘Lysis’ (expansion of blood cells) and ‘Crenatin’
(contraction of blood cells) may occur. Kidneys are responsible for keeping solution inside blood cell
and blood at same concentration. Identify the correct information(s).
(A) Lysis will occur when blood cells are kept in a solution which is isotonic with blood.
(B) Crenatin will occur when blood cells are kept in a solution which is hypertonic with blood.
(C) Blood cells will have normal shape when placed in a solution isotonic with blood.
(D) Lysis will occur when blood cells are kept in a solution which is hypotonic with blood.
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION – I
The lowering of vapour pressure on adding a non-volatile solute in a pure liquid solvent may be
measured by Ostwald-Walker method. In this method, dry air is first passed through a series of
vessels having the solution, then through a series of vessels having pure solvent and finally
through a vessel (normally U-tube) having the absorbent of the solvent. The masses of solution
and pure solvent decreases due to removal of vapours of solvent in the flow of air and the mass of
absorbent increases due to absorption of the vapour of solvent, in order to make the air, dry. By
measuring the changes in mass, we may determine the lowering of vapour pressure and hence, the
composition of solution, using Raoult’s law.
20. If the mass of absorbent increased by 0.24 gm and the mass of pure solvent (water) decreased by
0.02 gm, then the mass percent of solute (glucose) in its aqueous solution is
1000 100 1000 100
(A) % (B) % (C) % (D) %
21 12 22 11
21. If the experiment is performed with aqueous AlCl3 solution ( = 0.8) prepared by dissolving 1 mole of
AlCl3 in 17 mole water and the decrease in the mass of solution in the experiment is found to be
0.18 gm, then the increase in the mass of absorbent should be
(A) 0.216 gm (B) 0.225 gm (C) 0.191 gm (D) 1.08 gm
E-44/67 PC / RA # 08
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
22. If the arrangement of vessels is changed in the experiment as:
Dry air Pure
Solution
Solvent
Absorbent
Dry air
Then, which of the following must be incorrect?
(A) The mass of pure solvent will decrease.
(B) The mass of solution will decrease.
(C) The mass of absorbent will increase.
(D) The experiment will obey the law of conservation of mass.
COMPREHENSION – II
Two solution of non–volatile solutes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are prepared. The molar mass ratio, MA : MB = 1 : 3.
Both are prepared a 5% solution, by mass, in water.
23. The ratio of the freezing point depressions Tf (A) : Tf (B) of the solutions is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 5 : 3
24. If the above solutions are mixed to prepare two solutions S1 and S2, in the ratio 2 : 3 and 3 : 2, by
volume, respectively, what would be the ratio Tf (S1) : Tf (S2)?
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 4 : 9 (C) 9 : 11 (D) 2 : 3
COMPREHENSION – III
Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure solvent change
when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are called colligative
properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day life. One of its
examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in the radiator of
automobiles.
A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole fraction of ethanol in the
mixture is 0.9. Given:
Freezing point depression constant of water (Kfwater) = 1.86 K kg mol-1
Freezing point depression constant of ethanol (Kfethanol) = 2.0 K kg mol-1
Boiling point elevation constant of water (Kbwater) = 0.52 K kg mol-1
Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol (Kbethanol) = 1.2 K kg mol-1
Standard freezing point of water = 273K
Standard freezing point of ethanol = 155.7K
Standard boiling point of water = 373K
Standard boiling point of ethanol = 351.5K
Vapour pressure of pure water = 32.8 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of pure ethanol = 40 mm Hg
Molecular weight of water = 18 gm mol-1
Molecular weight of ethanol = 46 gm mol-1
In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute solutions and solutes
to be non-volatile and non-dissociative.
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
25. The freezing point of the solution M is
(A) 268.7K (B) 268.5K (C) 234.2K (D) 150.9K
26. The vapour pressure of the solution M is
(A) 39.3 mm Hg (B) 36.0 mm Hg (C) 29.5 mm Hg (D) 28.8 mm Hg
27. Water is added to the solution M such that the mole fraction of water in the solution becomes 0.9. The
boiling point of this solution is
(A) 380.4K (B) 376.2K (C) 375.5K (D) 354.7K
SUBJECTIVE (NEAREST INTEGER):
28. Solutions A and B have osmotic pressures of 2.4 atm and 4.2 atm, respectively at a certain temperature.
The osmotic pressure (in atm) of a solution prepared by mixing the solutions in 2 : 1 volume ratio,
respectively, at the same temperature, is
29. Consider the following arrangement, in which a solution containing 20 gm of haemoglobin in 1 dm3 of
the solution is placed in right compartment and pure water is placed in left compartment, separated by
SPM. At equilibrium, the height of liquid in the right compartment is 74.5 mm in excess of that in the
left compartment. The temperature of the system is maintained at 298K. The number of millimoles in
320 gm of hemoglobin is
(Given: the density of final solution is 1.013 gm/ml, g = 10 m/s2, R = 0.0821 L-atm/K-mol)
30. At 293K, the vapour pressure of water is 2400 Pa and the vapour pressure of an aqueous urea solution is
2300 Pa. The osmotic pressure (in atm) of solution at 300K, if the density of solution at this temperature
is 1185 Kg/m3, is (R = 0.08 L-atm/K-mol)
31. A solution of 38.4 gm of naphthalene in 185 gm camphor depresses the freezing point of the latter by
13.5K while 11.6 gm of another substance when dissolved in 185 gm of camphor gives depression of
9.5K in freezing point. The molecular mass of the second substance is
32. 1.04 gm of CoCl3.6NH3 (mol. wt. = 267) was dissolved in 100 gm of H2O. The freezing point of the
solution was – 0.29ºC. How many moles of solute particle exist in solution for each mole of solute
introduced? Kf for water = 1.86º C m–1.
33. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of KCN containing 0.2 mole/kg water was – 0.80ºC. On
adding 0.1 mole of Hg(CN)2 in the solution containing 1 kg of water, the freezing point of the solution
was – 0.6ºC. Assuming that the complex is formed according to the equation:
Hg(CN)2 + m CN– Hg (CN) mm 2
and Hg (CN)2 is the limiting reactant, the value of ‘m’ is
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
34. Equal masses of two aqueous solutions, one of 3.6 gm glucose per 100 gm of water and other of
3.6 gm urea per 100 gm of water are mixed. If the freezing point of resulting solution is – xoC, then the
value of ‘10x’ is (Kf of water = 1.86)
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
35. A solution containing compound ‘X’ in water and a solution containing glucose in water were put in a
closed system. By doing this, some water vapour was removed from one solution and got condensed in
the other. It is found that when both the solutions were at equilibrium vapour pressure, one solution
contains 10% (w/w) of ‘X’ and the other 5% (w/w) glucose. The molar mass (in gm/mol) of ‘X’ is
36. A current of dry air was passed through a series of bulbs containing 1.25 gm of a solute A 2B (molar
mass = 90 gm/mol) in 49 gm of water and then through pure water. The loss in weight of the former
series of bulbs was 0.98 gm and in the later series 0.01 gm. The percentage dissociation of solute is
37. When cells of the skeletal vacuole of a frog were placed in a series of NaCl solutions of different
concentrations at 6ºC, it was observed microscopically that they remained unchanged in x% NaCl
solution, shrank in more concentrated solutions and swells in more dilute solutions. Water freezes from
the x% salt solution at – 0.40ºC. If the osmotic pressure of the cell cytoplasm at 6ºC is ‘y’ × 0.0821 atm,
then the value of ‘y’ is (Kf = 1.86 K mol-1 kg)
38. Vapour pressure of solution containing 6 gm of a non-volatile solute in 180 gm water is 20 torr. If
1 mole of water is further added, vapour pressure increases by 0.02 torr. The molar mass (in gm/mol) of
the non-volatile solute is
39. The Henry’s law constant for argon in water is 2.0 104 and 3.0 104 for P = 1 atm, at 27oC and 47oC,
respectively. Find the enthalpy of solution (in Kcal/mol) over this temperature range.
(ln 2 = 0.7, ln 3 = 1.1)
40. ‘x’ gm of a non-electrolytic compound (M = 200) is dissolved in 1L of 0.05M-NaCl aqueous solution.
The osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be 4.92 atm at 27ºC. Assume complete dissociation of
NaCl and ideal behaviour for solution. The value of ‘x’ is (R = 0.082 L-atm mol-1K-1)
E-47/67 PC / RA # 08
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY CHEMICAL KINETICS RA-09
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. In the acid hydrolysis reaction: A + H2O + H+ Products, where [H+] = 0.1M and H2O is present in
large excess, the apparent rate constant is 1.5×10-5 s-1.
r = K[A][H2O][H+] = Kapp[A]
The true rate constant (third order rate constant) of reaction is
(A) 2.7×10–6 M–1 s–1 (B) 1.5×10–4 M–2 s–1 (C) 2.7×10–6 M–2 s–1 (D) 2.7×10–6 M2 s–1
2. The half life of a first order reaction is 10 min. In what time, the rate of reaction will decrease from
6.0×1021 molecules ml-1 sec-1 to 4.5×1025 molecules litre-1 min1? (NA = 6.0×1023)
(A) 10 min (B) 20 min (C) 30 min (D) 40 min
-2
3. Rate of a reaction: A + 2B P is 2×10 M/min, when concentrations of each A and B are 1.0M. If the
rate of reaction, r = K [A]2[B], the rate of reaction when half of the B has reacted should be
(A) 5.625×10-3 M/min (B) 3.75×10-3 M/min (C) 9.375 M/min (D) 2.5×10-3 M/min
4. Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is catalysed by HCl. The rate is proportional to the concentration of both the
ester and HCl. The rate constant is 0.1M-1hr-1. What is the half-life, if the initial concentrations are
0.02M for the ester and 0.01M for the catalyzing acid?
(A) 347 hours (B) 519 hours (C) 836 hours (D) 693 hours
5. A first order reaction: A(g) nB(g) is started with ‘A’. The reaction takes place at constant temperature
and volume. If the initial pressure was P0 and the rate constant of reaction is ‘K’, then at any time, t, the
total pressure of the reaction system will be
(A) P0 [n + (1 – n) e–kt] (B) P0 (1 – n) e–kt (C) P0.n.e–kt (D) P0[n(1–n) e–kt
6. The half life periods of two first order reactions are in the ratio 3 : 2. If ‘t 1’ is the time required for
25% completion of first reaction and ‘t2’ is the time required for 75% completion of the second reaction,
then the ratio, t1 : t2, is (log 3 = 0.48, log 2 = 0.3)
(A) 3 : 10 (B) 12 : 25 (C) 3 : 5 (D) 3 : 2
7. For the reaction: A + B products, rate law is r = K[A] [B], where K = 0.5 M-2min-1. The time in
2
which the concentration of ‘A’ becomes half of its initial concentration if the initial concentrations of
‘A’ and ‘B’ are 0.002M and 2.0M, respectively, is
(A) 50 min (B) 500 min (C) 1.0 min (D) 100 min
8. The reaction: A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) follows first order kinetics. The reaction is started with pure ‘A’ in a
rigid closed vessel maintained at constant temperature. After 10 sec, a pin hole is developed in the
vessel. If the molar ratio of gases ‘A’ and ‘B’ coming out initially is 1 : 2, the rate constant of reaction is
(Molar masses of A, B and C are 16, 4 and 8 gm/mol, respectively, ln 2 = 0.7, ln 3 = 1.1)
(A) 0.04 sec-1 (B) 0.4 sec-1 (C) 0.11 sec-1 (D) 0.07 sec-1
dC .C
9. The rate expression for a reaction is , where , are constants and C is the concentration
dt 1 C
of reactant at time, t. The half life for this reaction is
1 β.C0 1 .C 0 . ln 2
(A) ln2 + (B) ln2 + (C) (D)
α 2α 2
E-48/67 PC / RA # 09
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
10. In the biological processes, the time taken by certain virus or bacteria to double its population, is called
generation time. In milk, at 37ºC, lactobacillus acidophilus has a generation time of about 75 min. The
population relative to the initial value at 60 min is (ln 2 = 0.7)
(A) 0.8 (B) e0.56 (C) e0.8 (D) e0.875
11. When excess toluene- -d (C6H5CH2D) was photochemically monochlorinated at 80oC with 0.1 mole of
chlorine, there was obtained 0.0212 mole DCl and 0.0848 mole HCl. What is the value of the isotope
effect, KH/KD?
(A) 1:4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 5 : 1 (D) 1 : 5
12. In Lindemann theory of unimolecular reactions, it is shown that the apparent rate constant for such a
k1C
reaction is kapp = , where C is the concentration of the reactant, k1 and are constants. The value
1 C
of ‘C’ for which kapp has 90% of its limiting value at ‘C’ tending to infinitely large is = 9×105)
(A) 10-6 mole/litre (B) 10-4 mole/litre (C) 10-5 mole/litre (D)5×10-5 mole/litre
13. The rate equation for an autocatalytic reaction
dC A
A R
k
R R is rA kC A C R
dt
The rate of disappearance of reactant A is maximum when
(A) CA = 2CR (B) CA = CR (C) CA = CR / 2 (D) CA = (CR)1/2
K 0.02 min 1 K 0.02 min 1
14. For the sequential reactions: A 1
B 2
C, the initial concentration of ‘A’
was 0.2M and initially ‘B’ and ‘C’ were absent. The time at which the concentration of ‘B’ becomes
maximum and the maximum concentration of ‘B’ are respectively
(A) 50 min, 0.07M (B) 50 min, 0.2M (C) infinite, 0.2M (D)25 min, 0.07M
15. An organic compound A decomposes following two parallel first order reactions: A K1
B and
A C. If K1 is 1.25 10 sec and K1 : K2 = 1 : 9, the concentration of C relative to that of A, after
K2 -5 -1
one hour of start of reaction by taking only A, is (ln 1.568 = 0.45)
(A) 0.1111 (B) 0.5112 (C) 1.4112 (D) 0.45
K1 K2
16. For the first order parallel reactions: A B and A C, K1 = 8 min-1 and K2 = 2 min-1 at 300K.
If the activation energies for the formation of B and C are 20 and 28.314 kJ/mol respectively, find the
temperature at which B and C will be obtained in 2 : 1 mole ratio. (ln 2 = 0.7)
(A) 400K (B) 385.5K (C) 379.75K (D) 412.25K
17. Two reactions: (I) A Products, and (II) B Products, follow first order kinetics. The rate of
reaction-I is doubled when temperature is raised from 300K to 310K. The half life for this reaction at
310K is 30 min. At the same temperature, B decomposes twice as fast as A. If the energy of activation
for the reaction-II is half that of reaction-I, the rate constant of reaction-II at 300K is
(A) 0.0233 min-1 (B) 0.0327 min-1 (C) 0.0164 min-1 (D) 0.0654 min-1
18. A first order reaction: A B, activation energy is 9.6 kcal/mol. When a 20% solution of ‘A’ was kept
at 27ºC for 21.6 minute, 75% decomposition took place. What will be the percent decomposition in
8.0 min in a 30% solution maintained at 47ºC? Assume that activation energy remains constant in this
range of temperature. (e = 2.7)
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 87.5%
E-49/67 PC / RA # 09
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
t 0.875
19. The value of for nth order reaction (n 1) is
t 0.500
8n 1 1 4n 1 1
(A) 22n-2 (B) 22n-1 (C) (D)
2n 1 1 2n 1 1
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
20. For the reversible reaction: A ⇌ B, the time at which the rate of change in concentration of ‘A’ is
numerically equal to the rate of change in concentration of ‘B’ is/are
(A) t = 0 (B) t = t1/2 (C) t = tequilibrium (D) t = infinite
21. For the reversible reaction: A ⇌ B; H = 2 Kcal, the pre-exponential factors are same for the forward
and backward reactions. If the activation energy of backward reaction is 8 Kcal/mol, then the correct
information(s) about the reaction is/are
(A) The activation energy of forward reaction is 6 Kcal/mol.
(B) At 500K, the fraction of ‘A’ molecules crossing the energy barrier for forward reaction is e -6.
(C) At 500K, the fraction of ‘B’ molecules crossing the energy barrier for backward reaction is e-8.
(D) Equilibrium constant for the reaction is e-2 at 500K.
PARAGRAPH BASED:
COMPREHENSION – I
The following Rice–Herzfeld mechanism has been suggested for the formation of phosgene COCl2:
(1) Cl2
2Cl [K1 = A1e–Ea1/RT]
(2) 2Cl
Cl2 [K2 = A2e–Ea2/RT]
(3) Cl + CO
COCl [K3 = A3e–Ea3/RT]
(4) COCl
Cl + CO [K4 = A4e–Ea4/RT]
(5) COCl + Cl2
COCl2 + Cl [K5 = A5e–Ea5/RT]
22. Assuming steady state approximation for [Cl] and [COCl], the rate law for the formation of COCl 2 is
1 Cl 2 CO 1 Cl 2 CO
3/2 3/2
K 5 K 2 K1/2 K 5 K 3 K1/2
(A) K 3 K 4 K 5 Cl 2
1/2
(B) K 2 K 4 K 5 Cl 2
1/2
1 Cl 2 CO 1 Cl 2 CO
3/2 3/2
K 5 K 3 K1/2 K 5 K 2 K1/2
(C) K 2 K 4 K 5 Cl 2
1/2
(D) K 3 K 4 K 5 Cl 2
1/2
23. The rate law will be if we simplify the rate law obtained in previous question assuming that the reactions
(1) – (4) are much faster than reaction (5)
2 Cl 2 CO 2 Cl 2 CO
3/2 3/2
K 4 K 3 K1/2 K 4 K 3 K1/2
K4K2 K 2 K 31/ 2
(A) (B)
K 5 K 3 K11/2 Cl 2 CO K 5 K 3 K11/2 Cl 2 CO
3/2 3/2
1/ 2 1/ 2
K K2 K4K
(C) 4 (D) 2
E-50/67 PC / RA # 09
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
24. What is overall pre-exponential factor of reaction, if steps (1) to (4) are much faster than (5)?
A5 A3 A11/2 A5 A1/2
3 A1 A5 A 4 A11/2 A 4 A3 A1/2
2
(A) A 4 A1/2 2 (B) A 2 A1/4 2 (C) A 4 A 2
1/ 2
(D) A 2 A 4
1/ 2
25. What is overall activation energy of reaction, if steps (1) to (4) are much faster than (5)?
1/ 2
Ea 5 .Ea 3 .Ea 1 1 1
(A) 1/ 2
(B) Ea5 + Ea3 + Ea1 Ea2 Ea4
Ea 4 .Ea 2 2 2
1 1
(C) Ea1 + Ea3 + Ea5 Ea2 Ea4 (D) Ea5 Ea3 Ea1 Ea2 Ea4
2 2
COMPREHENSION – II
The gaseous reaction: n1A (g) n2B (g), is first order with respect to ‘A’. The rate constant of
reaction is ‘K’. The reaction is studied at a constant pressure and temperature. Initially, the moles
of ‘A’ was ‘a’ and ‘B’ was not present.
26. How many moles of ‘A’ are present at time, t?
(A) a e–kt (B) a e n1kt (C) a e
n2 kt
n kt
(D) a 1 e 1
27. If the initial volume of system was ‘V0’, then the volume of system after time, t, will be
n1 v 0 n2 v 0
(A)
n2 (B)
n1
n n n n
v 0 2 1 2 e n1kt v 0 1 2 1 e n1kt
(C) n1 n1 (D) n2 n1
28. What will be the concentration of ‘A’ at time t, if n1 = 1 and n2 = 2?
e kt e kt
(A) A0 e kt
(B) A0
kt
(C) A0
kt
(D) A0 1 2 e
kt
2e 1 e
SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER:
29. In a certain polluted atmosphere containing O3 at a steady state concentration of 2×10-8 M, the hourly
production of O3 by all sources was estimated as 7.2×10-15 M. If only mechanism for the destruction of
O3 is second order reaction, the rate constant (in ml mol-1 s-1) for the destruction reaction is
30. In the presence of excess thiocyanate ion, SCN–, the following reaction is first order in chromium (III)
ion, Cr3+; the rate constant is 9.0×10–5 s-1.
Cr3+(aq) + SCN–(aq) Cr(SCN)2+(aq)
If 80.0% reaction is required to obtain a noticeable color from the formation of the Cr(SCN) 2+ ion, how
many hours are required ? (ln 5 = 1.62)
31. In the reaction: A Products, the rate is doubled when the concentration of ‘A’ is quadrupled. If 50%
of the reaction occurs in 8 2 hrs, how long (in hrs) would it take for the completion of next 50%
reaction of the amount left?
E-51/67 PC / RA # 09
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
32. An optically active drug has one chiral centre and only dextrorotatory isomer is effective. Moreover, it
becomes ineffective when its optical activity is reduced to 40% of original. It was found that
4 .5
mutarotation of this drug was first order reaction with rate constant ×10-8 sec-1. The expiration
3.1536
time of the drug (in yrs) is (ln 2 = 0.7, ln 3 = 1.1, ln 5 = 1.6)
33. Dissociation of salt A2B3(aq) in water follows first order kinetics: A2B3(aq) 2A3+(aq) + 3B2-(aq).
Starting from t = 0, a definite volume of solution is taken at different instant and its osmotic rise is
x
measured. If the osmotic rise was 2 mm at t = 0 and 6 mm at t = 10 min, then the value of is, where
y
‘x’ = osmotic pressure of solution (in Pascal) at t = 20 min and ‘y’ = t 3/4 of the dissociation reaction (in
min) [Given: density of final solution in each case = 1.0 gm/ml, g = 10 m/s2]
34. In order to determine the order of reaction: A(g) 2B(g), vapour density of the system is determined at
different stages of reaction, at constant temperature. The reaction is started with pure A(g). From the
following data, the order of reaction is
Time (min) 0 10 20
Vapour Density 42 35 30
35. The reaction of thioacetamide with water is shown by the equation below:
CH3C(S)NH2(aq) + H2O H2S(aq) + CH3C(O)NH2(aq)
The rate of reaction is given by the rate law: Rate = k[H3O+][CH3C(S)NH2]. Consider one liter of
solution that is 0.20 M in CH3C(S)NH2 and 0.15 M in HCl at 25C. For each of the changes listed
below, the number of changes that decreases the rate of reaction is
i. A 4.0 gm sample of NaOH is added to the solution.
ii. 500 ml of water is added to the solution.
iii. The 0.15M-HCl solution is replaced by 0.15M- acetic acid solution.
iv. The reaction is carried out at 35C instead of 25C.
36. If activation energy of a reaction is 83.14 kJ/mole, the fraction of molecules at 500K which have enough
energy to form products is x × 10y. The value of (y – x) is (ln 2×109 = 20, ln 4×105 = 10,
ln 4×1018 = 40)
37. Displacement of the hydroxide group of alcohol can take place with variety of reagents. One such
reaction is: HBr + CH3CH2OH CH3CH2Br + H2O.
The mechanism of the reaction is:
Keq
Step-I: CH3CH2OH + H+ CH3CH2OH2+
K2
Step-II: CH3CH2OH2+ + Br CH3CH2Br + H2O
The slow and fast step can be identified by the fact that the rate of displacement of hydroxide group by
halide ion depends on the type of halide ion. Calculate the rate of formation of ethyl bromide (in
millimoles per litre per seconds) when concentration of alcohol is 0.5M and that of HBr is 0.1M.
Assume complete dissociation of HBr. (Keq = 4 M-1, K2 = 0.05 M-1 sec-1)
38. For a certain reaction, the variation of rate constant with temperature is given as:
ln Kt = ln K0 + 0.11 t (t > 0oC)
where, Kt and K0 are the rate constants at toC and 0oC, respectively. The value of temperature coefficient
of the reaction, assuming it constant in the temperature range of interest, is (ln 2 = 0.693, ln 3 = 1.1)
E-52/67 PC / RA # 09
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
39. The half life for the first order decomposition of nitramide:
NH2NO2(aq) N2O(g) + H2O(l)
is 123 min at 27ºC. If 200 ml of 0.02M – NH2NO2 solution is allowed to decompose, how long (in min)
must the reaction proceed to produce 49.26 ml of ‘wet’ N2O(g) measured at 27ºC and 785 mm Hg? The
vapour pressure of water at 27ºC is 25 mm Hg. (R = 0.0821 L-atm/K-mol)
40. For overall reaction: A + 2B + 3C ⇌ D, the reaction rate is given as:
6 1.4 10 6 [D]2
2
r (M/min) = 2 × 10 [A]
[B] [C]
If initially each of the reactant has concentrate 1.0M, calculate the rate of reaction when concentration of
C becomes 0.7 M assuming no D is present at the start of the reaction. If the rate is ‘r’ M/min, then the
value of (r × 107) is
E-53/67 PC / RA # 09
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY ATOMIC STRUCTURE RA-10
SINGLE CORRECT:
1. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of alpha particles scattered at an angle = 60º is
36 per minute. The number of alpha particles per minute scattered at angles = 90º is (assume all other
conditions to be identical)
(A) 144 (B) 9 (C) 36 (D) 16
2. Two carbon discs, 1.0 gm each, are 1.0 cm apart have equal and opposite charges. If force of attraction
between them is 10–5 N, the ratio of excess electrons to the total atoms on the negatively charged disc is
(NA = 6×1023, e = 1.6×10-19)
(A) 2.4×10-12 : 1 (B) 10-13 : 2.4 (C) 1012 : 2.4 (D) 2.4 : 1012
3. The frequency of an electromagnetic radiation which makes 2 × 106 waves per 50 cm is
(A) 1.2 × 1015 Hz (B) 150 Hz (C) 6 × 1014 Hz (D) 1.2 × 1013 Hz
4. At one time the meter was defined as 1650763.73 wavelength of the orange light emitted by a light
source containing Kr86 atoms. What is the corresponding photon energy per quanta of this radiation?
(A) 3.28×10–19 J (B) 1.2×10–31 J (C) 1.09×10–27 J (D) 2.048 J
5. In a measurement of the quantum efficiency of photosynthesis in green plants, it was found that
9 quanta of red light at 6900Å were needed to evolve 1 molecule of O 2. The average energy storage in
the photosynthesis process is 111.6 Kcal/mol of O2 evolved. What is the energy conversion efficiency in
h.c
this experiment? ( = 1.24×10-7 nm.eV, 1 eV = 23 Kcal/mol)
e
(A) 70% (B) 50% (C) 40% (D) 30%
6. The wavelength of K-characteristic X-rays produced is , when cathode rays strike on a metal of
atomic number ‘Z’. What should be the atomic number of metal such that it can produce the
K-characteristic X-rays of wavelength 4?
Z Z Z 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2Z – 1
16 2 2
7. For a photochemical reaction, A B, 1×10–5 moles of ‘B’ were formed on absorption of 6.626×107 erg
at 360 nm. The quantum efficiency (molecules of ‘B’ formed per photon) is
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0
8. Imagine an atom made up of a stationary proton and a hypothetical particle of double the mass of
electron but having the same charge as the electron. Apply Bohr atomic model and consider all possible
transitions of this hypothetical particle directly to the first excited state. The longest wavelength photon
that will be emitted has wavelength (given in terms of Rydberg constant R for the hydrogen atom) equal
to
9 36 18 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5R 5R 5R R
E-54/67 PC / RA # 10
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
9. A single electron species in energy level (orbit number ‘n’) with energy ‘X’ was provided with excess of
energy so that it jumps to higher energy level with energy ‘Y’. If it can emit radiations of six different
wavelengths on de-excitement between these two energy levels, then the correct relation is
X X 3 X 3 X n
(A) = (n – 1)2 (B) =1+ (C) =1+ (D) =1+
Y Y n Y n Y 3
10. According to Maxwell’s theory of electrodynamics, an electron going in a circle should emit radiation of
frequency equal to its frequency of revolution. What should be the wavelength of the radiation emitted
by a hydrogen atom in the ground state if this rule is followed?
(A) 4500 nm (B) 450 nm (C) 45 nm (D) 4.5 nm
11. An antiproton has the mass of a proton but a charge of –e. If a proton and an antiproton orbited each
other, how far apart would they be in ground state of such a system? Mass of a proton is 1836 times the
mass of an electron.
(A) 0.058 pm (B) 0.029 pm (C) 0.014 pm (D) 194.25 nm
12. A photocell is operating in saturation mode with a photocurrent 4.8 A when a monochromatic radiation
o
of wavelength 3000 A and power 1 mW is incident. When another monochromatic radiation of
o
wavelength 1650 A and power 5 mW is incident, it is observed that maximum velocity of the
photoelectrons increases to two times. Assuming efficiency of photoelectron generation per incident
photon to be same in two cases, the threshold wavelength of the cell is
o o o o
(A) 4125 A (B) 2062.5 A (C) 8250 A (D) 16500 A
13. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron of He+ ion is 3.32Å. If the photon emitted upon de-excitation of
this He+ ion is made to hit H-atom in its ground state so as to liberate electron from it, what will be the
de-Broglie wavelength of photoelectron?
(A) 2.348 A (B) 1.917 A (C) 3.329 A (D) 1.66 A
14. A photon of 2.55eV is emitted out by an electronic transition in hydrogen atom. The change in
de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is
(A) 3.32 A (B) 4.98 A (C) 6.64 A (D) 9.96 A
15. For an atom or ion having single electron, compare the energies of the following orbitals:
S1 = a spherically symmetrical orbital having two spherical nodes.
S2 = an orbital which is double dumb-bell and has no radial node.
S3 = an orbital with orbital angular momentum zero and three radial nodes.
S4 = an orbital having one planar and one radial node.
(A) S1 = S2 = S3 = S4 (B) S1 = S2 = S4 < S3 (C) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 (D)S1 < S4 < S3 < S2
16. For an atomic orbital of H-like atom, the number of radial nodes is 1 but the sign of wave function
changes 3 times. The orbital angular momentum of electron belonging to this orbital, is
h h h
(A) zero (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 12
2 2 2
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
17. In a hydrogen like atom, electron jump from an orbital having two radial nodes and two angular nodes to
the orbital having the same sign of wave function in all directions, at any distance. If the energy of
emitted photon is 326.4 eV, the atom or ion is
(A) H (B) He+ (C) Be3+ (D) B4+
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Bohr model of hydrogen atom?
(A) The acceleration of the electron in the n = 2 orbit is more than that in the n = 1 orbit.
(B) The angular momentum of the electron in then n = 2 orbit is more than that in the n = 1 orbit.
(C) The kinetic energy of electron in the n = 2 orbit is less than in the n = 1 orbit.
(D) The centripetal force on electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in the n = 1 orbit.
19. The frequency of certain line of the Lyman series (n = 4 to n = 1) of the atomic spectrum of hydrogen
can satisfies the following conditions
(A) It is the sum of the frequencies of a Lyman line and a Balmer line.
(B) It is the sum of the frequencies of a certain Lyman line, a Balmer line and a Brackett line.
(C) It is the sum of the frequencies of a Lyman line, a Balmer line and a Paschen line.
(D) It is the sum of the frequencies of a Lyman and a Paschen line.
20. A hydrogen atom in an excited state emits a photon which has the longest wavelength of the Paschen
series. Further emissions from that atom can never include the
(A) longest wavelength in the Lyman series.
(B) second longest wavelength in the Lyman series.
(C) longest wavelength in the Balmer series.
(D) second longest wavelength in the Balmer series.
21. Which of the following is/are correct information(s)?
(A) The rate of radiations emitted per unit surface area of a black body is a function of only its
temperature and is independent of the material of which the blackbody is made.
(B) In classical physics, energy is a continuous variable but in quantum physics, the energy can take
on only certain values.
(C) Work function of most of the metals lies in Radio wave region.
(D) When a suitable photon hits an electron in the metal, the photon disappears and its energy h is
transferred to the electron.
1 2
22. For H-atom, the wave function for an electron is = . . (6 ).e / 2 . cos , where
81 a o
2
2Zr o
= and ao = 0.529 A . Select the correct information(s) about the orbital from which this electron
n ao
belongs.
(A) 3pz (B) Only one angular node
(C) Only one radial node (D) Nodal plane is XY plane.
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REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
23. Select the correct statement:
(A) Over a boundary surface, value of probability density is constant for an orbital.
(B) Probability of finding an electron is 100% within the boundary surface diagram of that orbital.
(C) Number of angular nodes for an orbital is always less than the number of radial nodes for that
orbital.
(D) For 1s orbital, the probability density is maximum at the nucleus.
24. The correct information(s) related with Schrodinger’s wave equation for hydrogen like atoms is/are
(A) Far from the nucleus, all radial wavefunctions approach zero exponentially.
(B) The radial distribution function [P(r)] multiplied by dr gives the probability of finding the electron
anywhere between the two walls of a spherical shell of thickness dr at the radius, r.
(C) If the wavefunction of a particle has the value at some point r, then the probability of finding the
particle in an infinitesimal volume d = dx.dy.dz at that point is proportional to ||2d.
(D) For s-orbitals, angular function is zero.
25. Which of the following orbital(s) has only two spherical nodes?
(A) 2s (B) 4s (C) 4d (D) 6f
26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE?
(A) The electron probability density at the nucleus is zero for all H-atom states.
(B) In the ground state of an H-atom, the electron is restricted to move on the surface of sphere.
(C) For the ground state of H-atom, the electron probability density is greater than zero at all location
in the atom.
(D) All the spherical harmonics (angular part of wave function) are constant on the surface of a sphere
centered at the origin.
27. Which of the following is/are incorrect information(s):
(A) The wave function for electron in an orbital may have negative value.
(B) Radial probability distribution function can never have negative value for any electron.
(C) 3d x 2 y2 orbital has two angular and one radial node.
(D) For dxy orbital, YZ and XZ planes are nodal planes.
PARAGRAPH BASED:
Three laser guns labeled as I, II and III have power 2, 3 and 5 watt (not necessary in the same
order) are used to produce photocurrent from metal plate. Number of photons emitted by laser
guns are 4×1018, 5×1018 and 9×1018 per sec. Metal plate have threshold energy 4.5×10-19 J. Neither
the power nor the number of photons emitted by a particular laser gun is known and it is known
that all capable photons emit a photoelectron.
28. Minimum possible wavelength of emitted photoelectron is
(A) 680 A (B) 30 A (C) 480 A (D) 120 A
29. Minimum photocurrent which must be passed through the circuit is
(A) 2.88 amp (B) 1.44 amp (C) 2.08 amp (D) 0.64 amp
30. Ratio of maximum to minimum photocurrent which can be passed through the circuit is
(A) 5 : 4 (B) 9 : 5 (C) 9 : 4 (D) 9 : 2
E-57/67 PC / RA # 10
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
SUBJECTIVE (SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER):
31. A sample of hydrogen atoms containing all the atoms in a particular excited state, absorb radiations of a
particular wavelength by which the atoms get excited to another excited state. When the atoms finally
de-excite to the ground state, they emit the radiations of 10 different wavelengths. Out of these
10 radiations, 7 have wavelengths shorter than the absorbed radiation and 2 have wavelength longer than
the absorbed radiation. The orbit number for the initial excited state of atoms is
32. Photons of same energy were allowed to strike on two different samples of hydrogen atoms, one having
each atom in ground state and other, in a particular excited state of orbit number ‘n’. The photonic
beams ionise the hydrogen atoms in both the samples. If the difference in maximum kinetic energy of
emitted photoelectron from both the samples is 12.75 eV, the value of ‘n’ is
SUBJECTIVE (TWO DECIMAL PLACE):
33. An -particle of momentum 3.2×10–20 kg m s–1 is projected towards the nucleus of an atom of an
element. If the distance of closest approach of -particle is 1.5×10–13 m, the atomic number of element is
(Mass of -particle = 4 amu, charge on electron = 1.6×10–19 coulomb, NA = 6×1023)
34. How many moles of photon would contain sufficient energy to raise the temperature of 245 gm of water
from 19.5C to 99.5C? Specific heat of water is 4.2 J/oC-gm and frequency of light radiation used is
2.45×1010 per second. (6.626 × 0.15 = 1.0, NA = 6×1023)
35. The average life time for then n = 3 excited state of a hydrogen like atom is 4.8 × 10–8 sec and that for
the n = 2 state is 1.28 × 10–7 sec. Ratio of the average number of revolutions made in the n = 3 state to
the average number of revolutions made in the n = 2 state before any transitions can take place from
these states is 1.00 : x. The value of ‘x’ is
36. A glass tube containing hydrogen atom in an excited state was allowed to relax to ground state and the
emitted light was thrown on another glass tube containing He+ ions in an excited state, where the
electrons in He+ ions were excited further to higher orbit. At the end, all the excited He + was allowed to
relax to the ground state and the most energetic photon was found to possess energy equal to 52.89 eV.
Determine the ratio of the orbit numbers in which electrons were present initially in H-atom and
He+ ion. Ionisation energy of H-atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV.
37. In the hydrogen spectrum, the longest wavelength in the Lyman series is 120 nm and the shortest
wavelength in the Balmer series is 360 nm. From this data, the longest wavelength (in nm) of light that
could ionise hydrogen atom is
38. Find the binding energy (in eV) of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen-like ions in whose
1 o
spectrum the third line the Balmer series is equal to 108.5 nm. ( = 912 A )
R
39. The wave number of a photon coming out from a hydrogen atom is equal to the difference in wave
numbers of the following two lines of hydrogen spectrum: 122.3 nm and 103.2 nm. What is the series
limit (in nm) of this series? (1/R = 91.2 nm)
3/ 2
1 1
40. The wave function of 1s electron in hydrogen atom is: (r, ) = e r / a o . The probability
ao
density of 1s electron at the nucleus (in the order of 10 m ) is [(0.529)2 = 0.28, (0.529)1.5 = 0.38,
30 -3
(0.529)3 = 0.15, 0.32 = 1.00]
E-58/67 PC / RA # 10
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY SURFACE CHEMISTRY RA-11
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT:
1. When freshly precipitated Fe(OH)3 is boiled with water in the presence of few drops of dil. HCl, a
hydrated ferric oxide sol is obtained. The method is termed as
(A) Electro dispersion (B) Peptization (C) Ultra filtration (D) Dialysis
2. Which among the following statement is false?
(A) increase of pressure increases the amount of adsorption.
(B) increase of temperature may decrease the amount of adsorption.
(C) the adsorption may be monolayered or multilayered.
(D) Particle size of the adsorbent will not affect the amount of adsorption.
3. Identify the statement which is correct with respect to surface phenomenon.
(A) Osmotic pressure of rubber sol will be same as that of sucrose solution having same mass mixed in
same mass of water.
(B) A gas may show physisorption at low temperature and chemisorption at high temperature.
(C) Soap sol of sodium palmitate will coagulate near cathode in electrophoresis.
(D) Gold sol on mixing with starch sol causes stabilisation of starch sol.
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding activated adsorption?
(A) Its extent increases with the increase in pressure and it may change to multilayer adsorption at high
pressure.
(B) Its extent decreases with the decrease in temperature and it may change to multilayer adsorption at
low temperature.
(C) Its extent increases with the increase in surface area of adsorbent.
(D) When oxygen is adsorbed at graphite surface, none of the gas leaves the surface on strong heating.
5. Identify the incorrect statement(s)
(A) On changing the catalyst in a heterogeneous catalysis, the product of reaction may change.
(B) Enzyme catalysed reactions are elementary (single step) reactions.
(C) Lactobicilli enzyme is responsible for the conversion of milk into curd.
(D) A catalytic promoter may increase the reaction rate even in the absence of catalyst.
6. Enzymes are highly efficient catalyst. An enzyme ‘catalase’ increases the rate of decomposition of
H2O2(aq) into H2O(l) and O2(g) e20 times at 300K. The activation energy of enzyme catalysed reaction is
2.0 Kcal/mol. Which of the following information(s) is/are correct assuming that the value of
pre-exponential factor is unaffected by temperature change or use of catalyst and the activation energy is
independent of temperature.
(A) The activation energy of uncatalysed reaction is 14.0 Kcal/mol.
(B) Uncatalysed reaction is an elementary (single step) reaction.
(C) Catalysed reaction is a complex (multi step) reaction.
(D) On increasing the temperature, the ratio of rates of catalysed and uncatalysed reactions becomes
less than e20.
E-59/67 PC / RA # 11
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding adsorption?
(A) Activated adsorption is highly specific (B) Vander Waal’s adsorption is reversible
(C) Adsorption is always exothermic (D) Adsorption is iso-entropic process.
8. Colloidal particles in a sol can be coagulated by
(A) heating (B) addition of electrolyte
(C) addition of oppositively charged sol (D) addition of suitable solvent
9. The nature of electric charge on colloidal particles can be experimentally determined by
(A) Brownian movement (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Electro-osmosis (D) Ultramicroscope
10. Select the incorrect statement related with colloids.
(A) Muddy water can be coagulated more effectively by Alums as compared to NaCl.
(B) Surface tension of lyophilic colloids is less than that of dispersion medium.
(C) When excess of AgNO3 is added in aqueous KI solution and the sol is subjected to electrophoresis,
coagulation occurs near the anode.
(D) Cloud bursting in atmosphere occurs due to large amount of water present in the cloud.
11. The incorrect information(s) is/are
(A) The conductivity of a soap solution decreases sharply at CMC.
(B) Tyndall effect is more effective in gold sol in comparision to the rubber sol.
(C) The elevation in boiling point of an alcoholic solution of sulphur is less than that of its sol in water
if mass of sulphur present per unit volume of mixture is same in both case.
(D) CMC value of CH3(CH2)12NH3Cl will be less than that of CH3(CH2)6COONa.
12. The correct information(s) is/are
(A) Potassium ferrocyanide can cause greater coagulation in a basic dye as compared to Na2HPO3.
(B) A starch aquasol can act as protective colloid for Fe(OH)3 sol.
x
(C) The slope of the Freundlich adsorption isotherm (log vs logP) keep on changing for a long
m
range of pressure and is constant over a limited range of pressure.
(D) Higher the zeta potential, greater is the stability of colloid.
13. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
(A) Aqueous solution of sodium stearate above critical micelle concentration.
(B) Aqueous solution of sodium stearate below critical micelle concentration.
(C) Aqueous solution of sodium stearate above Kraft temperature.
(D) Aqueous solution of sugar.
14. Which of the following solution will show minimum osmotic effect?
(A) KCl solution (B) Colloidal gold sol (C) CaCl2 solution (D) Na3PO4 solution
E-60/67 PC / RA # 11
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
15. Identify the statement(s) which is/are not correct with respect to the surface phenomenon.
(A) If on adding electrolyte in an emulsion, the conductivity decreases, then it will be an oil in water
type emulsion.
(B) Tyndall effect is observed when the refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion
medium differ largely.
(C) Macromolecular colloids are generally lyophobic in nature.
(D) Gases which can react with the adsorbents generally show chemisorption.
16. Small amount of HCl(aq) is added in freshly precipitated Al(OH) 3 to form a colloidal sol. Which of the
following is/are correct information(s) related with the characteristic of this sol?
(A) Coagulation will occur near anode in electrophoresis.
(B) The level of water will increase in cathodic compartment during electro-osmosis.
(C) The coagulation power of electrolytes for this sol is in the order: AlCl3 < MgSO4 < K3PO4.
(D) Addition of basic dye like methylene blue will result mutual coagulation.
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding activated adsorption?
(A) Its extent increases with the increase in pressure and it may change to multilayer adsorption at high
pressure.
(B) Its extent decreases with the decrease in temperature and it may change to multilayer adsorption at
low temperature.
(C) Its extent increases with the increase in surface area of adsorbent.
(D) When oxygen is adsorbed at graphite surface, none of the gas leaves the surface on strong heating.
18. Select the correct statement(s)
(A) If the critical micelle concentration of a soap is 10-3M, then 10-4M solution of this soap will have
colloidal nature.
(B) Charge on the colloidal particles may be determined with the help of dialysis.
(C) Peptization is the process of conversion of a colloidal sol into precipitate by adding some
electrolyte.
(D) When some oil soluble dye is added in the water in oil emulsion, the background becomes
coloured.
SUBJECTIVE (NEAREST INTEGER):
19. A monolayer of N2 molecules (effective area 0.15 nm2) is absorbed on the surface of 1.00 g of an
Fe/Al2O3 catalyst at 77K, the boiling point of liquid nitrogen. Upon warming, the nitrogen occupies
2.24 cm3 at 0C and 760 torr. The surface area of catalyst (in m2) is (NA = 6×1023)
20. A solution of palmitic acid (Molar mass = 256 gm/mol) in benzene contains 5.12 gm of acid per dm3.
When this solution is dropped on a water surface the benzene evaporates and the palmitic acid forms a
monomolecular film of the solid type. If we wish to cover an area of 480 cm2 with a monolayer, what
volume (in mm3) of palmitic acid solution should be used? The area covered by one palmitic acid
molecule may be taken to be 0.2 nm2. (NA = 6.0 × 1023)
E-61/67 PC / RA # 11
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
224 3
21. cm hydrogen gas (measured at 0oC and 1 atm) form an uniform monolayer at 25 gm copper. The
0.16
density of liquid hydrogen is gm/cm3. The specific surface area of copper (in m2/gm) is
(NA = 6.0 × 1023)
22. The average time for which an oxygen atom remains adsorbed to a tungsten surface is 0.36 sec at 2500K
and 0.72 sec at 2000K. The activation energy for desorption (in Kcal/mol) is (ln 2 = 0.7)
23. The H of adsorption at constant amount of vapour adsorbed is called the isosteric enthalpy of
adsorption, H. The adsorption of N2 on charcoal amounted to 0.894 cm3 (STP)/gm at (0.4 atm and
200K) and (at 59.2 atm and TK). If H = 16.628 kJ/mol, then the value of ‘T’ is (ln 148 = 5.0)
24. The mechanism of enzyme catalysed reaction is given by Michaelis and Menter as:
K1
Step I: E + S ES (fast)
K1
Step II: ES
K2
P + E (slow)
dP K1 K 2 [E]0 [S]
The rate of product formation may be given as: + = , where [E]0 is the total
dt K 1 + K 2 + K1 [S]
enzyme concentration. For an enzyme-substrate system obeying simple Michaelis and Menter
mechanism, the rate of product formation when the substrate concentration is very large, has the limiting
value 0.02 M s-1. At a substrate concentration of 250 mg/dm3, the rate is half this value. The value of
K1/K-1 (in dm3/kg), assuming that K2<<K-1, is
25. How many of the following statements are correct?
(A) Delta at the mouth of river is formed due to coagulation of the colloidal sea water by the
electrolytes present in the river water.
(B) Artificial rain is caused by the coagulation of colloidal water droplets in the cloud by an
electrolyte.
(C) Cottrell precipitator is used in the precipitation of the colloidal waste in the sewage water.
(D) Cheese is an example of solid foam.
(E) A colloid formed by adding small amount of AgNO3 to KI solution is negatively charged.
(F) Micelles are formed only below the Kraft temperature.
(G) Mixing of hydrated ferric oxide sol and arsenious sulphide sol bring mutual coagulation.
(H) An oil in water emulsion can be diluted by addition of water.
(I) Emulsions show Brownian motion and Tyndall effect.
E-62/67 PC / RA # 11
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
REVISION(SET-03)
ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY
RA-01 (Mole Concept)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. C C B C D
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B B A A, B, D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B D C B C
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B D A B
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A → P, R;
B → Q, R;
Ans. B A 11 2
C → Q, S;
D → Q, R
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 9 44 2 80 50
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 60 50 80 4.80 136.40
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
57.92 or
Ans. 53.40 2.50 4.71 3.30
57.93
RA-02 (Redox Reactions)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. C B B A A
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D A B B
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B C D D
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A, B, C, D B, D A B A
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A B B C D
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B 4 85 224 4
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
10.28 to 43.65 to 84.66 or
Ans. 20.80 86.56
10.35 43.75 84.67
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
(i) 1.50
384.61 or 66.35 to
Ans. 53.50 (ii) 40.00 90.80
384.62 66.70
(iii) 2.70
E-63/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
RA-03 (Gaseous State)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. B B C B C
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C D C B
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C B A B B
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A 3900 65 5 250
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 23 100 7 4 45
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 12.47 0.50 3.22 1129.60
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
17.77 or
Ans. 0.29 or 0.30 3.60 0.53 0.70 or 0.71
17.78
Q. 36 37 38 39
1232.00 to
Ans. 78.47 1.56 128.78
1235.00
Q. 40 (i) 40 (ii) 40 (iii) 40 (iv) 40 (v)
Ans. 8.00 3.200 4.00 2.00 16.00
Q. 40 (vi) 40 (vii) 40 (viii) 40 (ix) 40 (x)
Ans. 0.50 4.00 4.00 32.00 1.00
RA-04 (Thermodynamics)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. A A B D C
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A C B B
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A A A B C
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A B C C
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A C D C B
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B 5 3 6 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 5 6 700 85 272
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 300 8.40 0.20 517.24 3.12
E-64/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
RA-05 (Equilibrium)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. B A B A C
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A B D A
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B B B A C
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A D B B B
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. D C B A A
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C A D
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. B C B A A
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A B B C B
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C A B A A, B, C
Q. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. A, B, C, D A, B, C A, B, C, D C C
Q. 51 52 53 54 55
Ans. B C A B 15.00
Q. 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4.20 16.00 6.00 3.20 800.00
RA-06 (Electrochemistry)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. C A C A A
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A B B A
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A C D B B
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B C A B B
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A A B A B
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D D D A
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. C A B D A
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B D 1 0 9
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 9 8 728 0.81 or 0.82
Q. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 100.00 - 386.00 0.40 1.20 1.08
E-65/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
RA-07 (Solid State)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. B A C B C
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C B B A
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B B C C, D A, B, C
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A B C D D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A B 4 2 2
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 6 66 59 1000
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
A S;
B R;
Ans. 45.00 2.98 to 3.00 1.00 4.00
C P;
DQ
RA-08 (Liquid Solution)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. A C C C B
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A B A B
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C A A B C
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A, B, C C B, C, D A
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A B B C D
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B 3 5 60
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 55 4 2 7.44 380.00
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 50.00 60.00 54.00 - 3.84 20.00
E-66/67 PC / RA # 01
REVISION ASSIGNMENT
(SET-03)
RA-09 (Chemical Kinetics)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. C C A D A
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B A A B
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C B A B
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C B C C A, B, C, D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A, B, C C D A B
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C B 5 5
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 8 2 4 0 3
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 7 1 3 123.00 15.95
RA-10 (ATOMIC STRUCTURE)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. B B A A D
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C C C D C
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A A A C B
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B D B,C A,C,D D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. A,B,D A,B,C,D A,D A,B,C D
Q. 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A,B,D C B D D
Q. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 3 4 25.00 8400.00 9.00
Q. 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1.50 90.00 54.40 364.80 2.13
RA-11 (Surface Chemistry)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. B D B A, D B, D
Q. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A, C, D A, B, C A, B, C, D B, C C, D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C A, B, D A, C B A, C
Q. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C A, D D 9 20
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 15 14 400 4000 5
E-67/67 PC / RA # 01
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